NPTE Review Questions 9

If an intermittent mechanical compression unit is used to treat traumatic edema, what should the duration of treatment be? -2 hrs daily -1 hr a day -1 hr sessions 3x per day -2.5 hrs 3x a week

-2 hrs daily =traumatic edema parameters -1 hr a day =residual limb edema -1 hr sessions 3x per day =progression for residual limb edema -2.5 hrs 3x a week =venous ulcer teatment

What is the S1-S2 reflex testing site? -biceps -achilles -quadriceps -hamstrings

-Achilles =S1-S2 -biceps =C5-C6 -quadriceps =L2-L4 -hamstrings =L5-S3

Which pancreatic hormone is responsible for modulating the rate of gastric emptying and is secreted by beta cells of the pancreas? -Amylin -Insulin -Somatostatin -Glucagon

-Amylin =modulates the rate of nutrient delivery or gastric emptying , suppresses the release of glucagon, secreted by the beta cells -Insulin =allows uptake of glucose from the bloodstream, suppresses hepatic glucose production and lowers plasma glucose levels, secreted by beta cells of the pancreas - Glucagon =stimulates hepatic glucose production to raise glucose levels, particularly in a fasting state, it is secreted by the alpha cells -Somatostatin =acts to depress secretion of both insulin and glycogen locally, decreases motility of the stomach, duodenum, and gallbladder, secreted by the delta cells

Which of the A fibers is associated with pain, touch, and temperature? -Beta -Alpha -Delta -Gamma

-Delta =A fibers are the largest nerve fibers and fastest conducting, as they are myelinated -Beta =pressure and touch -Alpha =somatic motor and proprioception -Gamma =motor to muscle muscle spindles

Hypomagnesemia can cause all except which of the following? -ventricular arrhythmias -sudden death -coronary artery vasospasm -atrial fibrillation

-atrial fibrillation =decreased magnesium concentrations results in increased intracellular calcium levels, which can lead to increased heart actions such as ventricular arrhythmias, vasospasms and sudden death

Hypermagnesemia can cause which of the following? -decreased force of contraction -cardiac arrest -coronary artery vasospasm -ventricular fibrillation

-cardiac arrest =hypermagnesemia is a calcium channel blocker which can lead to cardiac arrest or arrhythmias -hypomagnesemia can cause coronary artery vasospasm -hyperkalemia can cause decreased force of contractions -hypokalemia can cause ventricular fibrillation

Which of the following is a cause associated with hypomagnesemia (< 1.8 mg/dL)? -hypothyroidism -diabetic acidosis -chronic pancreatitis -Addison's disease

-chronic pancreatitis =cause associated with hypomagnesemia, other causes include: hemodialysis, hepatic cirrhosis, hypoparathyroidism, severe burns, blood transfusions, chronic renal diseases =signs of hypermagnesemia include: diabetic acidosis, Addison's disease, and hypothyroidism

Which of the following is not characteristic of stage 2 lymphedema? -skin begins to toughen -edema is non-pitting -edema decreases with overnight elevation of the limb -scar tissue forms

-edema decreases with overnight elevation of the limb =Stage 2 lymphedema is characterized by the accumulation of protein rich fluid, with non-pitting edema, skin begins to toughen, with connective scar tissue and fibrosis present, edema does not reverse with elevation =Stage 1- protein rich fluid, pitting edema, edema decreases with elevation overnight, edema increases with activity, heat and humidity =Stage 3- protein rich fluid and edema, significant scar tissue and skin is resilient to touch and very tough, papillomas are present as well as hyperkeratosis, edema is not reversible with elevation and the individual is subject to infections due to fluid buildup

The PT is assessing the end feel of a knee joint for the motion of knee flexion. The end feel is boggy. What does this indicate? -capsular and ligamentous stretching -muscle spasm -soft tissue approximation -edema, joint swelling

-edema, joint swelling

In tropical regions of the the world, which is the most common cause of lymphedema? -filariasis -secondary lymphedema due to breast cancer -secondary lymphedema due to liposuction -primary lymphedema

-filariasis =caused by parasitic infection into the lymphatic vessels, causing inflammation and blockage

Which system is the lymphatic system least correlated with? -circulatory system -integumentary system -gastrointestinal system -immune system

-gastrointestinal system =b/c of the many roles and locations throughout the body, the lymphatic system is closely correlated with the immune system, circulatory system, and the integumentary system, the 2 main functions are to protect the body from infection via the immune response and facilitate fluid exchange

The ballotable patella test (aka patellar tap test) is a special knee test that indicates which of the following? -dysfunction of the common fibular nerve -infrapatellar effusion -plica dysfunction -patellofemoral dysfunction

-infrapatellar effusion =soft tap is applied over the patella and deemed (+) when the patella is perceived as floating -patellofemoral dysfunction =Clarke's sign -dysfunction of the common fibular nerve =Tinel's sign -plica dysfunction =Hughston's plica test

Which form of lymphatic disease is characterized by enlargement of nodes, which may or may not be tender? -primary lymphatic disease -acute lymphangitis -lymphadenopathy -secondary lymphatic disease

-lymphadenopathy =lymphatic disease characterized by enlargement of nodes, which may or may not be tender -acute lymphangitis =acute bacterial infection spreading throughout the lymph system, typically streptococcal -primary lymphatic disease =congenital condition thought to be the result of malformation of the lymph nodes or vessels at birth -secondary lymphatic =disease is an acquired condition, due to trauma, surgery, radiation or other diseases

Alveolar hyperventilation is known to cause respiratory alkalosis. Which of the following is not a common sign associated with respiratory alkalosis? -early tetany -syncope -tingling -secondary hyperventilation

-secondary hyperventilation =associated with metabolic acidosis =common signs and symptoms of respiratory alkalosis include: dizziness, early tetany, tingling, syncope, and numbness

Which are the possible side effects of long term use of Prednisone? -weakening of the tendons, mm and bone -increased RR -nausea, vomiting -constipation

-weakening of the tendons, mm and bone

If the physical therapist positions a patient supine with a pillow under his knees, over a flat table. Therefore, the secretion most likely needs to be removed from which of the following areas? A. Anterior segments of the upper lobes B. Anterior basal segments of the lower lobes C. Posterior segments of the upper lobes D. Posterior basal segments of the lower lobes

Anterior segments of the upper lobes A physical therapist can position the patient supine so the anterior segments of the upper lobes are in a gravity dependent position. The therapist can assist secretion drainage in the anterior segments of the upper lobes by clapping between the patient's clavicle and nipple on both sides. A physical therapist can assist secretion drainage in the posterior basal segments of the lower lobes by positioning the patient prone with a pillow under the hips, with the foot of the bed elevated 20 inches. A physical therapist can assist secretion drainage in the posterior segments of the upper lobes by positioning the patient seated leaning over a pillow at 30 degrees. A physical therapist can assist secretion drainage in the anterior basal segments of the lower lobes by positioning the patient on his side with his head down and the foot of the bed elevated 20 inches.

If a physical therapist asks a patient to walk while counting backwards from the number 10, what is being assessed? A. Higher-level cognitive ability B. Memory C. Emotional response D. Attention

Attention The physical therapist is testing the patient's attention, specifically his ability to dual-task. A patient's memory can be tested by asking the patient to recall items that he has just seen, recall recent events, or recall past events. A patient's emotional responses can be tested by judging the patient's judgment, frustration tolerance, or self-centeredness. A patient's higher-level cognitive abilities can be tested by examining the patient's abstract reasoning or problem-solving abilities.

A physical therapist is using an intermittent mechanical compression unit to apply external pressure to a patient's extremity. Which of the following represents the first step to this procedure? A. Elevate the patient's limb 45 degrees B. Check the patient's blood pressure C. Place the unit over the patient's extremity D. Increase the unit's pressure until it reaches the desired level

B. Check the patient's blood pressure When using an intermittent mechanical compression unit, the first step is to check the patient's blood pressure. After checking the patient's blood pressure, the physical therapist would then elevate the patient's limb 45 degrees, place the unit over the patient's extremity, and increase the unit's pressure until it reaches the desired level.

The patient presents with a diagnosis of patellofemoral pain syndrome. Upon completing the patient's subjective history, the physical therapist feels that the patient has a tightened rectus femoris. Which special hip test will the physical therapist most likely use to confirm his feelings? A. Patrick's (FABER) test B. Ely's test C. Craig's test D. Ober's test

B. Ely's test

The exchange of fluids and nutrients between tissues and blood is conducted by which of the following? A. Arteries B. Arterioles C. Capillaries D. Veins

Capillaries Capillaries exchange fluids and nutrients between tissues and blood. Capillaries are small blood vessels that connect the ends of arterioles with the beginning of venules. Veins carry unoxygenated blood to the heart from the tissues. Arteries carry oxygenated blood from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas. Arterioles are the terminal branches of arteries that attach to capillaries.

A central cord lesion is a spinal cord injury of the upper motor neuron that is characterized by which of the following? A. Variable nerve root damage B. Lateral corticospinal tract loss C. Spastic paralysis that occurs below the lesion D. Cavitation of the central cord in the cervical section

Cavitation of the central cord in the cervical section The cavitation of the central cord in the cervical section is a characteristic that is associated with a central cord lesion. A central cord lesion is a spinal cord injury of the upper motor neuron that also causes ventral horn loss with a bilateral loss of motor functions. Spastic paralysis that occurs below the lesion is a characteristic of a complete cord lesion, Brown-Sequard syndrome, and anterior cord syndrome. Lateral corticospinal tract loss is a characteristic of anterior cord syndrome. Variable nerve root damage is a characteristic of a Cauda Equina injury.

You are listening to heart sounds on a patient and want to listen for the pulmonic valve. Where is the most appropriate place for your stethoscope, in order to hear the pulmonic valve? A. 5th left intercostal space B. 4th left intercostal space C. 2nd right intercostal space D. 2nd left intercostal space

Correct answer: 2nd left intercostal space The auscultation landmark for the pulmonic valve is located in the 2nd left intercostal space. The auscultation landmark for the aortic valve is located in the 2nd right intercostal space. The auscultation landmark for the tricuspid valve is located in the 4th left intercostal space. The auscultation landmark for the mitral valve is located in the 5th intercostal space.

In order to improve the healing potential of a wound, it is sometimes necessary to perform a sharp debridement. Which of the following best describes sharp debridement? A. A selective debridement method that uses sterile instruments to remove only necrotic wound tissue and does not require anesthesia B. A nonselective debridement method that uses physical forces to remove contaminated tissue C. A selective debridement method that uses occlusive or semiocclusive dressings to solubilize necrotic tissue D. A selective debridement method that uses topical collagenolytic enzyme preparations to promote the liquefaction of necrotic tissues

Correct answer: A selective debridement method that uses sterile instruments to remove necrotic wound tissue only and does not require the use of anesthesia Sharp debridement is a selective debridement method that uses sterile instruments to remove necrotic wound tissue only and does not require anesthesia. It is appropriate for removing moist necrotic tissue and leathery eschar. Autolytic debridement is a selective debridement method that uses occlusive or semiocclusive dressings to solubilize necrotic tissue. Enzymatic debridement is a selective debridement method that uses topical collagenolytic enzyme preparations to promote the liquefaction of necrotic tissues. Mechanical debridement is a nonselective debridement method that uses physical forces to remove contaminated tissue.

A physical therapist is providing therapy to a patient who has sustained trauma from a motor vehicle accident and had undergone surgery for a transhumeral amputation. Which of the following best describes this type of amputation? A. An amputation below the elbow B. An amputation through the shoulder joint C. An amputation through the elbow joint D. An amputation above the elbow

Correct answer: An amputation above the elbow A transhumeral amputation is an amputation above the elbow. A shoulder disarticulation is an amputation through the shoulder joint. An elbow disarticulation is an amputation through the elbow joint. A transradial amputation is an amputation below the elbow.

A patient's medical chart notes that the patient is in a coma. Which of the following best describes this level of consciousness? A. An unconscious state in which the patient cannot be aroused and there is no response to external stimuli B. A drowsy state in which the patient can open his eyes and respond, but falls back to sleep quickly C. A confused state in which the patient can open his eyes and look at the examiner, but is confused D. A state in which the patient can be aroused using a painful stimuli, but is slow to respond

Correct answer: An unconscious state in which the patient cannot be aroused and there is no response to external stimuli Coma is a level of consciousness that is described as an unconscious state in which the patient cannot be awakened and his eyes remain closed. Lethargy is a level of consciousness that is described as a drowsy state in which the patient can open his eyes and respond, but falls back to sleep quickly. Obtundation is a level of consciousness that is described as a confused state in which the patient can open his eyes and look at the examiner, but is confused. Stupor is a level of consciousness that is described as being able to arouse the patient from sleep using a painful stimuli, but the patient is slow to respond and returns to an unresponsive state once the stimuli has been removed.

Overflow incontinence occurs when the bladder continuously leaks secondary to urinary retention. It can be due to several factors. Prostate enlargement contributes to overflow incontinence due to: A. Neurogenic bladder B. Acontractile bladder C. Anatomical obstruction D. Functional incontinence

Correct answer: Anatomical obstruction Overflow incontinence is a condition of an overdistended bladder or incomplete emptying of the bladder. It can be due to anatomical obstruction, acontractile bladder, or neurogenic bladder. An example of anatomical obstruction would be an enlarged prostate. A spinal cord injury or diabetes are conditions that can lead to an acontractile bladder. Multiple sclerosis and suprasacral spinal lesions are conditions that can lead to a neurogenic bladder. Functional incontinence describes a different condition than overflow incontinence. Functional incontinence is leakage associated with unwillingness or inability to toilet. It may be due to cognitive impairment, impaired physical function, or environmental barriers.

You are examining the involuntary movements of a 20-year-old patient with cerebral palsy. She displays slow, irregular, twisting, and sinuous movements in her upper extremities. What type of involuntary movement is the patient displaying? A. Athetosis B. Chorea C. Tremor D. Myoclonus

Correct answer: Athetosis Athetosis is an involuntary movement that occurs in an individual's upper extremities and consists of slow, irregular, twisting, and sinuous movements. Myoclonus is an involuntary movement that is best described as a single, quick jerk. Chorea is an involuntary movement that is best described as quick twitches. Tremor is an involuntary movement that is best described as continuous quivering movements.

A patient has suffered a tibial fracture and is now in a hard cast and has been ordered for non-weight bearing (NWB) status. The patient is 18-years-old, in good physical condition and has great balance. Which is the most appropriate mobility aid for this patient? A. Axillary crutches B. Rolling walker C. Forearm crutches D. Wheelchair

Correct answer: Axillary crutches Axillary crutches provide increased upper extremity weight bearing over forearm crutches and allow for easier ambulation for non-weight bearing (NWB) status. Axillary crutches require good upper body strength and balance, which this patient has. Wheelchair and rolling walker would be too restrictive for this patient. Forearm crutches do not provide as much upper body weight bearing and are less stable than axillary crutches, making NWB status more difficult.

A hospital-based physical therapist is providing gait training for a 45-year-old patient after sustaining ankle sprain, weight bearing as tolerated status. She has a past medical history including radiation treatment for right and left-sided breast cancer, with well-controlled lymphedema. What would be the least appropriate assistive device? A. Axillary crutches B. Pick up walker C. Rolling walker D. Single point cane

Correct answer: Axillary crutches Because this patient has known lymphedema into her limbs, it is important to reduce any pressure/force through her axilla, trunk and upper arm. The axillary crutches could contribute to compressive forces through this region, leading to a flare up of lymphedema swelling. The pick up and rolling walkers would not place forces through the axillary and lateral trunk regions. The cane would be the least supportive, but would also keep any forces away from the axillary and lateral trunk regions.

Physical therapists work with a variety of other health care professionals and caregivers in order to coordinate a patient's care. If a patient's treatment consisted of oxygen delivery, which of the following professionals would the physical therapist most likely work with? A. Primary care physician B. Certified prosthetist C. Certified respiratory therapy technician D. Occupational Therapist

Correct answer: Certified respiratory therapy technician If a patient's treatment consisted of oxygen delivery, the physical therapist would most likely work with a certified respiratory therapy technician to coordinate the patient's care. A certified respiratory therapy technician is responsible for conducting pulmonary function tests, treatments of oxygen, nebulizers, and aerosols, and maintaining and assisting patients with their respiratory equipment. A certified prosthetist is a professional who cares for a patient by designing, fabricating, and fitting prostheses. An occupational therapist is a professional in the health and rehabilitation setting who helps people regain independence to perform their activities of daily living. A primary care physician is a professional who provides the patient with his/her routine health care needs.

The brainstem contains the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata. Which of the following structural functions does the medulla oblongata perform? A. Connection of various segments of the cerebral hemispheres B. Connection of the spinal cord to the pons C. Connection of the cerebral hemispheres with other segments of the spinal cord and brain D. Connection of the pons to the cerebrum

Correct answer: Connection of the spinal cord to the pons The medulla oblongata is responsible for the connection of the spinal cord to the pons. The medulla oblongata plays a vital role as it contains vasomotor, respiratory, and cardiac centers, which are vital body functions. The midbrain is responsible for the connection of the pons to the cerebrum. Projection fibers, white matter located centrally in the brain, are responsible for the connection of the cerebral hemispheres with other segments of the spinal cord and brain. Association fibers, also white matter located centrally in the brain, are responsible for the connection of various segments of the cerebral hemispheres.

Working as a physical therapist, you are conducting pelvic floor strengthening for a man with erectile dysfunction. Erectile dysfunction is a male reproductive system disorder that causes the inability to achieve and maintain an erection. Which of the following is a vascular cause associated with erectile dysfunction? A. Cerebral trauma B. Amphetamine use C. Coronary heart disease D. Hypothyroidism

Correct answer: Coronary heart disease Coronary heart disease is a vascular cause associated with erectile dysfunction. Other vascular causes associated with erectile dysfunction include hypertension, hyperlipidemia, pelvic irradiation, diabetes mellitus, and cigarette smoking. Amphetamine use is a drug-induced cause associated with erectile dysfunction. Hypothyroidism is a hormonal cause associated with erectile dysfunction. Cerebral trauma is a neurogenic cause associated with erectile dysfunction.

Prostatitis occurs when the prostate gland is infected and inflamed. There are three different types of prostatitis: chronic, acute bacterial, and nonbacterial inflammatory. Which of the following is not a symptom related to chronic prostatitis? A. Myalgia and arthralgia B. Pain in the lower back C. Pain in the perineal region D. Decreased libido

Correct answer: Decreased libido Decreased libido is not a symptom related to chronic prostatitis. It is a symptom associated with nonbacterial inflammatory prostatitis. Pain in the lower back, pain in the perineal region, and myalgia and arthralgia are all symptoms associated with chronic prostatitis. Chronic prostatitis is associated with recurrent urinary tract infections.

Hyperkalemia occurs when the blood has an increased concentration of potassium ions. Hyperkalemia can cause which of the following? A. Arrhythmias B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Decreased rate and force of contraction D. Coronary artery vasospasm

Correct answer: Decreased rate and force of contraction Hyperkalemia can cause electrocardiographic changes, specifically widening the QRS, flattening the P wave and the T wave becomes peaked. Hyperkalemia is an increased blood level concentration of potassium ions, which causes the rate and force of contraction to decrease. Hypokalemia can cause ventricular fibrillation. Hypermagnesemia can cause arrhythmias. Hypomagnesemia can cause coronary artery vasospasm.

A patient has a burn wound that has a waxy white appearance, a wet surface, and blanches when touched with a slow capillary refill. How should this patient's burn wound be classified? A. Superficial partial-thickness burn (second-degree) B. Epidermal burn (first-degree) C. Full-thickness burn (third-degree) D. Deep partial-thickness burn (second-degree)

Correct answer: Deep partial-thickness burn (second-degree) A deep partial-thickness burn (second-degree) has a waxy white appearance, a wet surface, and blanches when touched. A deep partial-thickness burn damages the epidermis and dermis skin layers and causes damage to the sweat glands, hair follicles, and nerve endings. A superficial partial-thickness burn (second-degree) has a bright pink appearance, blisters, and blanches when touched. An epidermal burn (first-degree) has a pink or red appearance with no blistering. A full-thickness burn (third-degree) has a white, charred, black, or tan appearance and does not blanch.

If a patient has pruritus, it means that his skin is itching. Pruritus is common in which of the following conditions? A. Diabetes B. Pyrexia C. Thyroid deficiency D. Venous obstruction

Correct answer: Diabetes Pruritus, or itching, is common in diabetes. It is also common in hyperthyroidism and drug hypersensitivity. Edema (excess of watery fluid collecting in the cavities or tissues of the body) can occur with venous obstruction. Pyrexia (raised body temperature or fever) is seen when individuals have a rash, which includes local redness and eruptions on the skin. Thyroid deficiency is an indication of xeroderma, which is dry skin that sheds epithelium.

When assessing a patient s/p TBI, the examiner notices that the patient's speech production is impaired due to central nervous system damage. This is best described by which of the following terms? A. Dysdiadochokinesia B. Dysmetria C. Dyssynergia D. Dysarthria

Correct answer: Dysarthria Dysarthria occurs when an individual's speech production is impaired due to central or peripheral nervous system damage. Dyssynergia occurs when an individual's complex movement is impaired due to a weakened muscle association. Dysmetria occurs when an individual's ability to judge range of motion or distance is impaired. Dysdiadochokinesia occurs when an individual's ability to partake in rapid, alternating movements is impaired.

The physical therapist is assessing the end-feel of a knee joint for the motion of knee flexion. The end-feel is boggy. What does this indicate? A. Muscle spasm B. Edema, joint swelling C. Soft tissue approximation D. Capsular and ligamentous stretching

Correct answer: Edema, joint swelling A boggy end-feel is pathologic. It is indicative of edema and joint swelling. This may be expected after a patient has had a knee surgery. A soft end-feel and firm end-feels are normal. A soft end-feel occurs with soft tissue approximation. A firm end-feel is due to capsular and ligamentous stretching. A rubbery end-feel is pathologic. It is indicative of muscle spasm.

A randomized control trial is an example of what type of research? A. Descriptive research B. Causal-comparative research C. Correlational research D. Experimental research

Correct answer: Experimental research Experimental research attempts to define a cause and effect relationship through comparisons. A true experimental design includes random assignment into experimental group or control group. The experimental group receives treatment and the control group receives no treatment. All other experiences are held similar. A randomized control trial is a type of experimental research. Correlational research attempts to determine whether a relationship exists between two or more quantifiable variables and to what degree. It describes relationships, predicts relationships among variables without active manipulation of the variables. Examples include retrospective and prospective, descriptive and predictive correlational research. Descriptive research involves collecting data about conditions, attitudes or characteristics of subjects or groups. It reports existing phenomena and data collection is typically done through survey, interview or observation. A case study is an example of a descriptive research design. The researcher conducts in-depth investigations of an individual, group or case. A causal-comparative research design attempts to define a cause-and-effect relationship through group comparisons. Ex post facto research is when the independent variable has already occurred and cannot be manipulated (such as gender). Groups are compared based on the dependent variable.

A physical therapist is using the palmar surface of his hands to compress the patient's soft tissue by performing small circular and long stroking movements with deep pressure. Which massage technique is the physical therapist using? A. Vibration B. Tapping C. Kneading D. Friction

Correct answer: Friction The friction massage technique is used when the palmar surface of the hands is used to compress a patient's soft tissue by performing small circular and long stroking movements. The tapping massage technique is being used when the hands rapidly strike an individual's soft tissue. The vibration technique is being used when the hands shake a patient's soft tissue by using short, rapid, quivering motions. The kneading technique is being used when the hands grasp and lift a patient's soft tissue.

In a rehab setting, the physical therapist is gait training with a patient who recently underwent a right total knee replacement. This patient has a past medical history including osteoarthritis and coronary artery disease. After ambulating 200 feet with a rolling walker, this patient complains of feeling dizzy, shaky, and with increased fatigue and weakness. The patient states that he did not eat breakfast or lunch due to lack of appetite. What is the most appropriate action by the therapist? A. Give the patient water B. Continue therapy to promote circulation C. Give the patient a glass of juice D. Give the patient injectable insulin

Correct answer: Give the patient a glass of juice This patient is displaying signs of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar levels) and needs a quick intake of glucose. Giving the patient a glass of juice will provide glucose. This patient did not eat, which is why he is having hypoglycemia with exercise. It is not appropriate to give this patient insulin, and it would further decrease blood sugar levels. Giving the patient water and continuing therapy would also further decrease blood sugar levels.

A physical therapist is grading a patient's functional balance. The physical therapist identifies that the patient is dynamic in the fact that he can pick up items off the floor while maintaining his balance and he is willing to accept moderate challenges. He is unable to easily weight shift at full range in all directions. What grade will the physical therapist most likely give this patient? A. Fair B. Poor C. Normal D. Good

Correct answer: Good The physical therapist will most likely grade this patient's functional balance as being good. A good grade states that the patient does accept moderate challenges and has the ability to pick objects off the floor while maintaining balance. A good grade also states that the patient does not require hand-hold support to maintain balance and has minimal postural sway. A normal grade is given to patients who can accept maximal challenges and can maintain their balance when shifting their weight in multiple directions. A fair grade is given to patients who can only accept minimal challenges and can only maintain their balance when turning their head or trunk. A poor grade is given to patients who cannot accept challenges and lose their balance when moving.

A patient presents for evaluation with complaints of dizziness, and the physical therapist would like to determine if the patient's dizziness is due to vascular or vestibular causes. Which special cervical test would the physical therapist most likely use? A. Anterior shear test B. Hautant's test C. Lhermitte's sign D. Romberg test

Correct answer: Hautant's test Hautant's test is a special cervical test that is used to differentiate between vestibular causes and vascular causes of vertigo. This is a two step test to rule out vestibular vs. vascular involvement. If the patient's arms move during this test, the test is deemed positive. Lhermitte's sign is a special cervical test that is used to identify spinal cord dysfunction. The Romberg test is used to identify upper motor neuron lesions. The anterior shear test is used to assess upper cervical spine ligament integrity.

Physical therapists work with other practitioners in order to coordinate patient care. If a patient is receiving tertiary care, which of the following practitioners will a physical therapist most likely receive referrals from for this patient's care? A. Speech therapist B. Family practice physician C. Occupational therapist D. Highly specialized physician

Correct answer: Highly specialized physician A physical therapist would most likely work with a highly specialized physician when working with a patient who is receiving tertiary care. Tertiary care is care that is highly specialized and technologically based, such as transplants and other major surgical procedures. A physical therapist may work with a speech therapist or an occupational therapist if the patient is receiving subacute care, but would not typically be referred patients from other therapists. A physical therapist may work with a family practice physician if the patient is receiving primary care.

The human functional anatomy region of the shoulder is comprised of which bones? A. Humerus and clavicle B. Scapula and clavicle C. Humerus, scapula, clavicle, thoracic vertebrae D. Humerus, scapula, clavicle

Correct answer: Humerus, scapula, and clavicle The shoulder region is composed of the following bone structures: humerus, scapula, and clavicle. The thoracic vertebrae are considered part of the thorax and vertebral column, and the first rib is considered part of the ribcage.

In the acute and subacute settings, many orthopedic teams utilize continuous passive motion units for their patients who have undergone total knee replacements. Which of the following is a physiological effect of continuous passive motion? A. Decreased joint range of motion B. Maximized contractures C. Increased edema and joint effusion D. Improved circulation

Correct answer: Improved circulation Improved circulation is a physiological effect of continuous passive motion. A continuous passive motion unit is a device that is used for extended periods of time and provides continuous movement. Other physiological effects of continuous passive motion include decreased (not increased) edema and joint effusion, increased (not decreased) joint range of motion, and minimized (not maximized) contractures.

When using superficial thermotherapy, physical therapists can use a radiation heat transmission modality. Which of the following is an example of a radiation modality? A. Paraffin B. Whirlpool C. Fluidotherapy D. Infrared lamp

Correct answer: Infrared lamp An infrared lamp is an example of a radiation modality. The main goals of infrared lamp therapy are to reduce inflammation, decrease pain and promote circulation. Radiation is the transfer of heat from a warmer object to a cooler object by means of electromagnetic energy. In nature, the sun is an excellent example of this type of heat conduction. Fluidotherapy and a whirlpool are examples of convective heat transmission. Paraffin is an example of conductive heat transmission.

The gastrointestinal tract extends from the mouth to the anus and is divided into the upper, middle, and lower gastrointestinal tracts. Which of the following makes up the lower gastrointestinal tract? A. Small intestine B. Large intestine C. Mouth, esophagus, and stomach D. Salivary glands, liver, and pancreas

Correct answer: Large intestine The large intestine makes up the lower gastrointestinal tract. The large intestine is where water and electrolyte absorption occurs, along with the elimination of waste products. The small intestine makes up the middle gastrointestinal tract. The mouth, esophagus, and stomach make up the upper gastrointestinal tract. The salivary glands, liver, and pancreas are the accessory organs that aid the gastrointestinal tract in digestion.

Appendicitis is an intestine disorder caused by vermiform appendix inflammation. If an individual suffers from appendicitis, he/she may experience pain in what area of the body? A. Upper left quadrant B. Lower right quadrant C. Upper right quadrant D. Lower left quadrant

Correct answer: Lower right quadrant Appendicitis may cause an individual to experience lower right quadrant pain. The appendix is located in the lower right quadrant, at the junction of the small intestine and large intestine.

A physical therapist determines that the patient needs a spinal orthoses to control lower back motion. Which of the following spinal orthoses would the physical therapist most likely recommend to the patient? A. Cervical orthosis B. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis C. Corset D. Lumbosacral orthosis

Correct answer: Lumbosacral orthosis A lumbosacral orthosis controls lower back motion or lumbosacral motion. The lumbosacral area consists of the five lumbar vertebrae and the sacrum. Therefore, the physical therapist would most likely recommend a lumbosacral orthosis to the patient. A thoracolumbosacral orthosis controls thoracic and lumbosacral motions, which would be too restrictive. A cervical orthosis controls cervical motion. A corset provides abdominal compression and relieves pain in the lower back, but would not provide enough support to control motion.

Your patient presents with knee pain and an audible clicking sound with certain movements. You are suspicious of a possible meniscal tear. Which of the following special knee tests is conducted in order to identify meniscal tears? A. McMurray's test B. Fluctuation test C. Clarke's sign D. Hughston's plica test

Correct answer: McMurray's test McMurray's test is a special knee test that is conducted in order to identify meniscal tears. McMurray's test is deemed positive when it can reproduce a click or a pain in the knee joint. Hughston's plica test is a special knee test that is used to identify plica dysfunction. Clarke's sign is a special knee test that is used to indicate patellofemoral dysfunction. The fluctuation test is a special knee test that is used to indicate effusion of the knee joint.

Shock (hypoperfusion) is the failure of the circulatory system to perfuse vital organs. Which of the following types of shock is caused by body fluid loss due to severe heat or severe vomiting? A. Psychogenic B. Metabolic C. Cardiogenic D. Neurogenic

Correct answer: Metabolic The loss of body fluids due to severe heat or severe vomiting causes metabolic shock. Metabolic shock can occur with severe overheating (being left in a closed car on a hot day), or when someone is severely sick with diarrhea and vomiting, losing important hydration. Signs include pale, gray skin, weak pulse, increased respiratory rate and diminishing level of consciousness. Neural traumas, such as brain injuries and spinal cord injuries, cause neurogenic shock. Myocardial infarction or cardiac arrest causes cardiogenic shock. Emotional stress causes psychogenic shock.

Prostatitis occurs when the prostate gland is infected and inflamed. There are three different types of prostatitis: nonbacterial inflammatory, chronic, and acute bacterial. Which of the following is not a symptom related to nonbacterial inflammatory prostatitis? A. Myalgia and arthralgia B. Painful ejaculation C. Pain in the inner thighs D. Decreased libido

Correct answer: Myalgia and arthralgia Myalgia and arthralgia are not symptoms associated with nonbacterial inflammatory prostatitis. Myalgia and arthralgia are symptoms associated with chronic prostatitis. Decreased libido, painful ejaculation, and pain in the inner thighs are all symptoms associated with nonbacterial inflammatory prostatitis. Nonbacterial inflammatory prostatitis is also associated with pain in the penis, testicles, and scrotum, lower back pain, impotence, and urinary symptoms.

The heart is composed of four types of tissue. Which is the name of the heart tissue that is the heart muscle, composing the majority of the heart? A. Myocardium B. Epicardium C. Pericardium D. Endocardium

Correct answer: Myocardium Myocardium is the heart tissue that forms the heart muscle and composes the majority of the heart. Pericardium is the protective sac that encloses the heart. Epicardium is the inner layer of the pericardium. Endocardium is the smooth lining of the inner surface of the heart's cavities.

You are evaluating a 68-year-old patient for physical therapy to treat a torn meniscus. You take his blood pressure and find the patient's systolic pressure is 118 and the diastolic pressure is 78. Which of the following best classifies the patient's blood pressure according to the American Heart Association's blood pressure definitions? A. Prehypertension B. Stage 1 Hypertension C. Normal D. Stage 2 Hypertension

Correct answer: Normal When an individual's systolic reading is less than 120 and his/her diastolic pressure is less than 80, his/her blood pressure is deemed to be normal. Since this patient's blood pressure was 118/78, he/she has normal blood pressure. When the individual's systolic reading is between 120-139 or diastolic reading is between 80-89, his/her blood pressure is categorized as prehypertension. When the individual's systolic reading is between 140-159 or diastolic reading is between 90-99, his/her blood pressure is categorized as Stage 1 Hypertension. When the individual's systolic reading is greater than or equal to 160 or diastolic reading is greater than or equal to 100, his/her blood pressure is categorized as Stage 2 Hypertension.

The respiratory system is responsible for the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Which of the following is an upper airway mechanism that is responsible for filtering, humidifying, and warming air? A. Trachea B. Larynx C. Nose D. Pharynx

Correct answer: Nose The nose is an upper airway mechanism that is responsible for filtering, humidifying, and warming air. The nose is an entry point for air, and it allows air to enter into the respiratory system. The other entry point is the mouth. The pharynx is an upper airway mechanism that is used for the respiratory system and the digestive system. The larynx is an upper airway mechanism that connects the pharynx and trachea. The trachea is a lower airway mechanism that is only used to transport air.

Behavioral training for urinary incontinence includes all of the following except: A. Participation in heavy resistance training to build muscle control B. Maintaining a voiding diary C. Education regarding anatomy and physiology regarding incontinence D. Avoiding the Valsalva maneuver

Correct answer: Participation in heavy resistance training to build muscle control The individual should be taught to avoid heavy resistance exercises as this can lead to Valsalva's maneuver and cause increased strain to pelvic floor muscles. The other choices are appropriate behavioral training strategies. The therapist should teach the individual how to keep a history of their voiding in a voiding diary. The therapist should educate the patient in the anatomy, physiology, contributing factors for weakness and incontinence. Additionally, the patient should be taught to avoid Valsalva's maneuver.

Physical therapists can utilize biofeedback to treat patients who suffer from stress incontinence. Biofeedback is a pelvic floor intervention best described by which of the following? A. Pelvic floor intervention that utilizes pressure recordings to support active contractions B. Pelvic floor intervention that utilizes weighted vaginal cones C. Pelvic floor muscle exercise that is utilized to strengthen the muscles by actively shutting off the flow of urine and performing multiple repetitions per day D. Pelvic floor intervention that is utilized to re-educate the muscles when the patient has the inability to initiate active contractions

Correct answer: Pelvic floor intervention that utilizes pressure recordings to support active contractions Biofeedback is a pelvic floor intervention that utilizes pressure recordings to support active contractions. Sensors are placed over the pelvic floor and abdominal musculature and are used to measure the muscles' electrical activity. This activity is represented on a computer screen and used as "feedback" to train the patient in when and how to properly engage appropriate muscles to improve pelvic floor function. Kegel's exercises are a pelvic floor muscle exercise that is utilized to strengthen the muscles by actively shutting off the flow of urine and performing multiple repetitions per day. Functional electrical stimulation is a pelvic floor intervention that is utilized to re-educate the muscles when the patient has the inability to initiate active contractions. Progressive strengthening is a pelvic floor muscle exercise that utilizes weighted vaginal cones.

A physical therapist is treating an elderly patient for balance training after she sustained a fall at home. She is taking an antidepressant medication. What should the physical therapist stress in education with the patient to address potential side effects of this medication? A. Pursed lip breathing B. Perform supine to sit and sit to stand movements slowly C. Adequate fiber intake D. Self-monitoring of heart rate

Correct answer: Perform supine to sit and sit to stand movements slowly A side effect of antidepressants can be postural hypotension, fainting, or confusion. Therefore, it is important to teach the patient to perform supine to sit and sit to stand movements slowly to reduce the likelihood of dizziness. This medication is not associated with constipation, increased heart rate, nor dyspnea. Therefore, the other answers are not correct.

Physical therapists are responsible for controlling infections by following appropriate sterilization and disinfection guidelines. Work and examination surfaces must be disinfected in order to reduce the number of microorganisms present on the surface and reduce the spread of infection. Which disinfection method is used to disinfect instruments, hands, and surfaces? A. Autoclaving B. Physical cleaning C. Ultraviolet light D. Filtration

Correct answer: Physical cleaning Physical cleaning is a disinfection method used to disinfect instruments, hands, and surfaces. Physical cleaning includes the use of antimicrobial products and ultrasonic disinfection methods. Ultraviolet light is a disinfection method used to disinfect surfaces and the air. Filtration is a disinfection method used to purify water and air. Autoclaving is a sterilization technique used for medical instruments that have been introduced to the body.

Medicare Part A benefits are provided by the federal government and covers all except which of the following? A. Hospice care B. Skilled nursing facility care C. Inpatient hospital care D. Primary care physician visits

Correct answer: Primary care physician visits Medicare Part A does not cover PCP visits. Physician visits are considered medical care that is covered by Medicare Part B. Medicare Part A does cover inpatient hospital care, hospice care, and skill nursing facility care. Medicare Part A provides basic health care expense coverage in which the beneficiary is responsible for an annual deductible. Medicare Part A is considered hospital insurance, and Medicare Part B is considered medical insurance.

Which form of lymphedema is the result of malformations of lymph nodes or lymph vessels at birth? A. Acquired lymphedema due to radiation B. Primary lymphedema C. Filariasis D. Secondary lymphedema

Correct answer: Primary lymphedema Primary lymphedema is a congenital condition of malformations of lymph nodes or vessels at birth. Secondary lymphedema is an acquired condition caused by damage to one or more components of the lymph system. Secondary lymphedema is much more prevalent than primary lymphedema. Secondary lymphedema is acquired lymphedema and can be acquired due to many causes such as surgery, radiation, crush injuries, chronic venous insufficiency, complications of paralysis, disuse, and filariasis. Filariasis is caused by parasitic infection into the lymphatic vessels, causing inflammation and blockage.

A destructive lesion on the cortex's temporal lobe could cause which of the following? A. Visual agnosia B. Profound memory loss of recent events C. Visual-spatial disorders D. Nonfluent aphasia

Correct answer: Profound memory loss of recent events A destructive lesion on the cortex's temporal lobe could cause profound memory loss of recent events as well as no new learning. A decreased ability to localize sounds may also be caused by a destructive lesion on the cortex's temporal lobe. Visual agnosia may be caused by a destructive lesion on the cortex's occipital lobe. Visual-spatial disorders may be caused by a destructive lesion on the cortex's parietal lobe. Nonfluent aphasia may be caused by a destructive lesion on the cortex's frontal lobe.

The rib springing test is a special thoracic test that is used to evaluate a patient's rib mobility. In order to perform this test, which position must the patient be in at the beginning of the test? A. Standing B. Sitting C. Prone D. Supine

Correct answer: Prone To perform the rib springing test, the patient must be in a prone position. Once the prone test is done, the patient will then need to be positioned in a side-lying position in order to complete the rib springing test. If excessive rib movement, rib restriction, or pain is found during the test, the test is deemed positive. The other options are incorrect because only the prone position and side-lying position are used for the rib springing test, not a sitting, standing, or supine position.

The wrist and hand region has a complex network of muscles that work together to create fluid and coordinated movements and fine motor control. Muscles within one's wrist and hand region include wrist flexor, wrist extensor, extrinsic finger flexor, extrinsic finger extensor, and intrinsic finger muscles. What other muscles are located within one's wrist and hand region? A. Internal and external rotator muscles B. Supinator and pronator muscles C. Tibial rotator muscles D. Radial deviation and ulnar deviator muscles

Correct answer: Radial deviation and ulnar deviator muscles The radial deviation and ulnar deviator muscles are additional muscles that are located and utilized within the wrist and hand region. The supinator and pronator muscles are located within the elbow region. The tibial rotator muscles are located within the knee region. The internal and external rotator muscles are located within the shoulder and hip region.

The heart and lungs work efficiently to circulate oxygen throughout the body. Which of the four heart chambers is responsible for pumping blood to the lungs for oxygenation? A. Left ventricle B. Left atrium C. Right ventricle D. Right atrium

Correct answer: Right ventricle The right ventricle is the heart chamber responsible for pumping blood to the lungs for oxygenation. The right ventricle receives blood from the right atrium and uses the pulmonary artery to pump the blood to the lungs. The right atrium pumps blood to the right ventricle. The left atrium pumps blood to the left ventricle. The left ventricle pumps blood to the entire circulation system.

Which skin color change is typical in the lower legs of a patient with peripheral vascular disease, when in a dependent position? A. Pallor B. Yellow C. Cyanosis D. Rubor

Correct answer: Rubor Rubor is dependent redness with peripheral vascular disease. Cyanosis is a bluish color that is related to decreased cardiac output or cold. This typically occurs in the lips, fingertips and nail beds. A yellow color of the skin (jaundice) is commonly associated with liver dysfunction. Pallor is the absence of rosy color in light-skinned individuals. It is associated with decreased peripheral blood flow and peripheral vascular disease. However, this question asks for common skin color changes when the lower legs are in a dependent position, which is rubor.

A physical therapist is working with a patient who has weakness in their supraspinatus and deltoid muscles, impairing shoulder abduction. The physical therapist knows that the patient is most likely using which muscles to initiate shoulder movement in place of the weakened shoulder abductors? A. Lateral trunk B. Adductor magnus C. Scapular stabilizers D. Lower obliques

Correct answer: Scapular stabilizers When an individual's shoulder abductors are weakened, his or her body is most likely relying on its scapular stabilizers to initiate shoulder motion. When muscles become weakened, the body relies on its stronger muscles to compensate for the damaged muscles. Lateral trunk muscles are used when hip abductors become weak. Lower obliques are used when hip flexors become weak. Adductor magnus muscles are used when hip extensors become weak.

Which pancreatic hormone decreases secretion and absorption of the GI tract, and is secreted by the delta cells? A. Insulin B. Amylin C. Glucagon D. Somatostatin

Correct answer: Somatostatin Somatostatin acts to depress secretion of both insulin and glycogen locally. It decreases the motility of the stomach, duodenum, and gallbladder. It decreases the secretion and absorption of the GI tract. It is secreted by the delta cells. Amylin modulates the rate of nutrient delivery or gastric emptying. It suppresses the release of glucagon. It is secreted by the beta cells. Glucagon stimulates hepatic glucose production to raise glucose levels, particularly in a fasting state. It is secreted by the alpha cells. Insulin allows uptake of glucose from the bloodstream. It also suppresses hepatic glucose production and lowers plasma glucose levels. It is secreted by beta cells of the pancreas.

A physical therapist is performing gait analysis of a 7-year-old boy with bare feet. The therapist notices that his patient has toes claw presentation during stance, which he knows can be a result of which of the following? A. Weak plantar flexors B. Weak invertors C. Spastic toe flexors D. Weak evertors

Correct answer: Spastic toe flexors Toes claw presentation during stance can be a result of spastic toe flexors. Toes claw can also be the result of a hyperactive plantar grasp reflex. Weak plantar flexors can cause an inadequate push-off. Weak invertors can cause pronation. Weak evertors can cause supination.

The stork standing test is a special lumbar test that identifies what condition? A. Compression of the femoral nerve B. Intermittent claudication C. Dysfunction of neurological structures to the lower leg D. Spondylolisthesis

Correct answer: Spondylolisthesis The stork standing test is a special lumbar test that identifies spondylolisthesis and is performed by having the patient stand on one leg. The stork standing test is deemed positive if the patient has pain in his lower back when his ipsilateral leg is on the ground. The bicycle test, or van Gelderen's test, is performed by having the patient ride a stationary bicycle and differentiates between intermittent claudication and spinal stenosis. The slump test is performed by having the patient sit with the knees flexed and identifies dysfunction of neurological structures supplying the lower legs. The femoral nerve traction test is performed to identify compression of the femoral nerve.

A burn wound consists of three zones. Which of the following best describes the zone of coagulation? A. The burn causes minimal cell injury in which the cells should recover B. The burn causes cells to become injured and the cells may die if they do not receive specialized treatment C. The burn causes no injury to the cells D. The burn causes irreversible cell injury in which cell death occurs

Correct answer: The burn causes irreversible cell injury in which cell death occurs Zone of coagulation is the burn wound zone that causes irreversible cell injury in which cell death occurs. Zone of stasis is the burn wound zone that causes cells to become injured in which cell death may occur if not treated. Zone of hyperemia is the burn wound zone that causes minimal cell injury in which the cells should recover. There are three burn zones, and they all cause some cell injury; therefore, the option that states that there is no injury to the cells is incorrect.

A physical therapist is performing Thompson's test on a patient by squeezing the patient's calf muscles. What is the physical therapist accessing the patient for? A. Abnormal rearfoot B. The integrity of the Achilles' tendon C. Possible presence of a deep vein thrombosis D. Posterior tibial nerve dysfunction

Correct answer: The integrity of the Achilles' tendon The Thompson's test is performed to evaluate the integrity of the patient's Achilles' tendon. If the patient's foot does not move while his calf is being squeezed, then Thompson's test is positive. The neutral subtalar positioning test is used to access patients for abnormal rearfoot. Tinel's sign is a special ankle and foot test that is used to access patients for posterior tibial nerve dysfunction. Homan's sign is used to assess for deep vein thrombosis.

A physical therapist is examining for peripheral vestibular dysfunction with the Dix-Hallpike Test. The clinician positions the patient appropriately and observes for the onset of nystagmus. A torsional nystagmus is a positive sign for BPPV and the direction of the fast phase indicates: A. The intensity of dizziness B. The normal side C. The side of dysfunction D. The phases are equal

Correct answer: The side of dysfunction The Dix-Hallpike test is used to predict BPPV and determine the side of vestibular dysfunction. When performing the Dix-Hallpike test, the clinician observes for nystagmus and the direction of the nystagmus. The fast phase of nystagmus is indicative of the side of vestibular dysfunction. The phase has no correlation with the intensity of symptoms.

When examining the wrist and hand of a newly referred client, the therapist decides to perform a Bunnel-Littler test. If a physical therapist is performing the Bunnel-Littler test on a patient, what is the physical therapist most likely trying to identify? A. The tightness of the structures that surround the MCP joints B. The tightness around the proximal interphalangeal joint C. The level of sensory innervation within the hand that correlates with grasping D. The restrictions or laxity with ligaments

Correct answer: The tightness of the structures that surround the MCP joints The Bunnel-Littler test is a special wrist and hand test that is performed to identify the tightness of the structures that surround the MCP joints. After performing the Bunnel-Littler test, the therapist will know if the capsule is tight or if the intrinsic muscles are tight. The tight retinacular test is a special wrist and hand test that is performed to identify tightness around the proximal interphalangeal joint. The ligamentous instability test is a special wrist and hand test that is performed to identify restrictions or laxity with ligaments. The two-point discrimination test is a special wrist and hand test that is performed to identify the level of sensory innervation within the hand that correlates with grasping.

In reviewing the medical chart, you learn the patient has serous drainage from his surgical wound. If a patient's wound drainage type is noted as serous, the wound drainage is best described as which of the following? A. Contains blood B. Thick and gray, green, or yellow C. None of these D. Thin, clear and watery

Correct answer: Thin, clear and watery Serous drainage is plasma that's thin, clear and watery. It's normal to experience a small amount of this type of exudate during the inflammatory wound healing stages. However, excessive serous drainage may be a sign that the patient has high bioburden, which is the number of unsterilized bacteria living on the surface of the wound. Purulent wound drainage is characterized by milky drainage. It's generally gray, green or yellow and is most commonly thick in consistency though some purulent exudate can be thin. This may be a sign that the wound has an infection - the fluid becomes off-color and thick because pathogenic microorganisms and dying bacteria in addition to inflammatory and white cells are invading the affected area. Sanguineous drainage is fresh blood that is prevalent among deep wounds of full and partial thickness. During the inflammatory stage, a small amount of this bloody leakage is natural. But when this type of exudate occurs during other wound healing stages, it may be an indicator that the wound bed has undergone trauma, such as during dressing changes, which can hinder healing.

A physical therapist is conducting gait training with a patient who displays excessive hip flexion during the stance phase of gait. The physical therapist knows that excessive hip flexion can be a result of which of the following? A. Tight hip or knee flexors B. Weak gluteus medius C. Weak hip flexors D. Weak dorsiflexors

Correct answer: Tight hip or knee flexors Tight hip or knee flexors can cause excessive hip flexion during the stance phase of gait. Weak hip extensors can also cause excessive hip flexion. Weak dorsiflexors can cause foot slap. Weak hip flexors can cause limited hip flexion. A weak gluteus medius can cause lateral trunk bending.

You are seeing a 60-year-old woman for a physical therapy evaluation with a history of three vaginal childbirth deliveries, who is now post menopause. She is complaining of pelvic pressure and reports noticing tissue bulging from the vagina. Which of the following is a pelvic floor disorder associated with a bulging uterus that is pushing into the vagina? A. Rectocele B. Cystocele C. Enterocele D. Uterine prolapse

Correct answer: Uterine prolapse Uterine prolapse is a pelvic floor disorder associated with the bulging of the uterus into the vagina. Cystocele is a pelvic floor disorder associated with the bladder pushing into the vagina. Rectocele is a pelvic floor disorder associated with the rectum pushing into the vagina. Enterocele is a pelvic floor disorder in which the peritoneal sac containing part of the small bowel, pushes into the vaginal wall.

A destructive lesion on the cortex's occipital lobe could cause which of the following? A. Visual agnosia B. Unstable emotions C. Body scheme disorders D. Decreased ability to localize sounds

Correct answer: Visual agnosia A destructive lesion on the cortex's occipital lobe could cause visual agnosia, as well as cause impairment of vision and perceptual impairment. A decreased ability to localize sounds is caused by a destructive lesion on the cortex's temporal lobe. Body scheme disorders can be caused by a destructive lesion on the cortex's parietal lobe. Unstable emotions can be caused by a destructive lesion on the cortex's frontal lobe.

The physical therapist notes that her patient's leg swings out to the side when walking, which is known as circumduction. The physical therapist knows that circumduction can be a result of which of the following? A. Weak dorsiflexor contraction B. Weak abdominal muscles C. Weak knee and hip flexors D. Weak peroneals

Correct answer: Weak knee and hip flexors Circumduction is a result of weak knee and hip flexors, which causes the individual to compensate by swinging the leg out to the side when walking. Weak abdominal muscles can cause an insufficient forward pelvic rotation. Weak dorsiflexor contraction can cause foot drop. Weak peroneals can cause varus or inverted foot.

When analyzing your patient's gait pattern, you notice she consistently displays foot flat stepping during the stance phase. Foot flat is the result of which of the following? A. Hypotonia B. Weakened dorsiflexors C. Weakened plantar flexors D. Spastic plantar flexors

Correct answer: Weakened dorsiflexors Foot flat stepping is a common gait deviation that occurs during the stance phase as a result of weakened dorsiflexors, immature gait pattern, or limited range of motion. Toe first is a common gait deviation that occurs during the stance phase as a result of spastic plantar flexors. Foot slap is a common gait deviation that occurs during the stance phase as a result of hypotonia. Excessive dorsiflexion with uncontrolled forward motion of the tibia is a common gait deviation that occurs during the stance phase as a result of weakened plantar flexors.

In order to perform a hip distraction for pain relief, the therapist chooses to perform a grade two distraction with the patient's hip positioned in the resting position. You will know that the patient's hip is in a resting position when which of the following occurs? A. When the hip has 25-degree flexion B. When the hip is in full extension, full abduction, and has an internal rotation C. When the hip has 30-degree flexion, 30-degree abduction, and a slight lateral rotation D. When the hip has full extension and external rotation

Correct answer: When the hip has 30-degree flexion, 30-degree abduction, and a slight lateral rotation A hip is in a resting position when it has 30-degree flexion, 30-degree abduction, and a slight lateral rotation. A hip is in a close-packed position when is has full extension, full abduction, and has an internal rotation. A knee is in a resting position when it has 25-degree flexion. A knee is in a close-packed position when it has full extension and external rotation.

The meninges are a central nervous system support structure, with three membranes encasing the brain. Which of the following is not one of the three membranes? A. Pia mater B. Dura mater C. Arachnoid D. Cranium

Cranium The cranium is not one of the three membranes that encase the brain. The cranium is the skull, which is the bony structure that actually contains the brain. The three meninges membranes are dura mater, arachnoid, and pia mater. The dura mater is the outer, tougher layer. The arachnoid is the delicate, vascular membrane. The pia mater is the thin, vascular membrane that covers the surface of the brain.

A physical therapist is providing therapy to a patient who suffered a crush injury to his arm. Subsequently, he underwent an elbow disarticulation. Which of the following best describes this patient's level of amputation? A. An amputation below the elbow B. None of these C. An amputation above the elbow D. An amputation through the elbow joint

D. An amputation through the elbow joint

The precentral gyrus is the brain's primary motor cortex that permits voluntary muscle activity. The prefrontal cortex is the brain's control center for emotions and judgments. These two hemispheres are located in which of the following lobes? A. Temporal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Frontal lobe D. Parietal lobe

Frontal lobe The precentral gyrus and the prefrontal cortex are the two hemispheres paired in the brain's frontal lobe. In addition to these two cortexes, the frontal lobe also contains Brocha's area, which controls the motor aspects of one's speech. The parietal lobe's paired hemispheres include the postcentral gyrus and fibers that convey sensations from the opposite side of the individual's body. The temporal lobe's paired hemispheres include the primary auditory cortex, the associative auditory cortex, and Wernicke's area. The occipital lobe's paired hemispheres include the primary visual cortex and the visual association cortex.

Shock (hypoperfusion) is the failure of the circulatory system to perfuse vital organs. Which of the following types of shock does severe external or internal bleeding cause? A. Hemorrhagic B. Anaphylactic C. Septic D. Respiratory

Hemorrhagic Severe external or internal bleeding causes hemorrhagic shock. The body begins to shut down due to loss of blood to the tissues. People may go into hemorrhagic shock if they suffer an injury that causes heavy bleeding (such as deep cuts, gunshot wounds, trauma, amputation) and the bleeding is not readily stopped. Allergic reactions to drugs, insect bites, or foods cause anaphylactic shock. Respiratory arrest results in insufficient oxygen to the blood and causes respiratory shock. Severe infections cause septic shock.

Erectile dysfunction is a male reproductive system disorder that causes the inability to achieve and maintain an erection. Erectile dysfunction can be caused by a variety of reasons including drugs, neurogenic conditions, and vascular conditions. Which of the following is a hormonal cause associated with erectile dysfunction? A. Antihypertensive use B. Hypertension C. Stroke D. Hypothyroidism

Hypothyroidism

An examiner noticed that a patient's skin color has changed from its normal appearance to a yellow hue. This skin color change could indicate which of the following? A. Jaundice B. Anemia C. Congestive heart failure D. Advanced lung disease

Jaundice Yellowing of skin could indicate that the patient has jaundice. Yellowing of skin could also indicate liver disease. Cyanosis (bluish or grayish) of skin could indicate that the patient has congestive heart failure or advanced lung disease. Pallor, or lack of color, of skin could indicate that the patient has anemia.

The gastrointestinal tract extends from the mouth to the anus and is divided into the upper, middle, and lower gastrointestinal tracts. Which of the following makes up the upper gastrointestinal tract? A. Small intestine B. Large intestine C. Mouth, esophagus, and stomach D. Salivary glands, liver, and pancreas

Mouth, esophagus, and stomach The mouth, esophagus, and stomach make up the upper gastrointestinal tract. The upper gastrointestinal tract is responsible for the ingestion and initial digestion of food. The small intestine makes up the middle gastrointestinal tract. The large intestine makes up the lower gastrointestinal tract. The salivary glands, liver, and pancreas are the accessory organs that aid the gastrointestinal tract in digestion.

The therapist is examining the lower extremities of a cross country runner. If the physical therapist would like to determine if distal iliotibial band (IT band) friction syndrome is present in a patient's knee, which special knee test would the physical therapist most likely perform? A. McMurray's test B. Tinel's sign C. Hughston's plica test D. Noble compression test

Noble compression test The noble compression test is used to determine if distal iliotibial band friction syndrome is present in a patient's knee. The noble compression test is performed by positioning the patient in a supine position with his/her knee flexed to 90 degrees and his/her hip flexed at 45 degrees. Pressure is applied to the lateral femoral epicondyle while extending the knee. A positive test will reproduce pain over the lateral femoral condyle. Tinel's sign is used to identify fibular nerve distribution dysfunction. Hughston's plica test is used to identify plica dysfunction. McMurray's test is used to identify meniscal tears.

You are treating a patient s/p left TKA, but he is displaying symptoms of bradykinesia and rigidity in his right limb. You refer him to a neurologist for work up and he returns with a neurologic diagnosis. What is his diagnosis most likely to be? A. Parkinson's disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Cerebrovascular accident

Parkinson's disease Parkinson's disease is a degenerative neurologic disorder that is characterized by degeneration of dopaminergic substantia nigra neurons and primarily affects older adults. Classic symptoms include rigidity, bradykinesia, postural reflexes and resting tremors. Multiple sclerosis is described as a chronic, progressive, demyelinating disease of the central nervous system. It primarily affects younger adults and is characterized by demyelinating lesions (plaques) that impair neural transmission and cause rapid nerve fatigue. A cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is a sudden, focal neurological deficit that results from ischemic or hemorrhagic lesions in the brain. Myasthenia gravis is a degenerative neuromuscular junction disorder with progressive muscular weakness and fatigue upon exertion.

You identify weakness in the scapular stabilizers of a 45-year-old patient who works seated at a computer every day, particularly for controlling motion of the scapula. Which of the following muscles are responsible for the scapula's actions of retraction and downward rotation? A. Biceps B. Pronator teres C. Pectoralis major D. Rhomboids

Rhomboids The rhomboids muscles are responsible for retraction and downward rotation actions of the scapula. The adduction, internal rotation, and depression of the shoulder affect the pectoralis major muscles. The flexion of the elbow affects the bicep muscles. The pronation of the forearm affects the pronator teres muscles.

What would be a normal expected end feel for knee flexion for a patient with significant muscle bulk in the lower extremities? A. Rubbery B. Firm C. Soft D. Boggy

Soft A soft end-feel is also a normal end-feel. A soft end-feel occurs with soft tissue approximation. This is expected for knee flexion, as the hamstring and gastrocnemious meet. A firm end-feel is due to capsular and ligamentous stretching. It is a normal end-feel for the shoulder. A boggy end-feel is pathologic. It is indicative of edema and joint swelling. A rubbery end-feel is pathologic. It is indicative of muscle spasm.

A patient ambulates independently, but the therapist notes that she displays supination throughout the stance phase of gait. The physical therapist knows that supination can be a result of which of the following? A. Spastic invertors B. Genu valgum C. Plantar flexor contracture D. Pain in the forefoot

Spastic invertors Supination can be a result of spastic invertors. Supination can also be a result of genu varum, pes varus, and weak evertors. Genu valgum can cause pronation. Plantar flexor contracture can cause excessive plantar flexion. Pain in the forefoot can cause an inadequate push-off.

Constipation is a common gastrointestinal disorder that is caused by a reduction in normal stool eliminations. If an individual suffers from constipation, he/she may experience which of the following? A. Shoulder pain B. Tenderness in the anterior hip, groin, or thigh regions C. Scapular pain D. Head and neck pain

Tenderness in the anterior hip, groin, or thigh regions Constipation may cause an individual to experience tenderness in the anterior hip, groin, or thigh regions. In addition, an individual may experience back discomfort. Visceral pain from the liver and diaphragm can refer to the shoulder. Visceral pain from the gallbladder and pancreas can refer to the scapular region. Gastroesophageal reflux disease may cause an individual to experience head and neck pain.

Your patient is complaining of musculoskeletal pain but reports a history of colon pathology. In regards to gastrointestinal pain patterns, a physical therapist should know that visceral pain from the appendix, colon, or pelvic viscera can refer to which of the following? A. The shoulder B. The scapular and midback regions C. The midback D. The lower back, pelvis, or sacrum

The lower back, pelvis, or sacrum A physical therapist should know that visceral pain from the appendix, colon, or pelvic viscera can refer to the lower back, pelvis, or sacrum. Visceral pain from the esophagus can refer to the midback. Visceral pain from the diaphragm, liver, or pericardium can refer to the shoulder. Visceral pain from the gallbladder, pancreas, small intestine, or stomach can refer to the scapular and midback regions.

Which of the following is a third-party payer for individuals injured on the job? A. Workers' compensation B. Private health insurance C. Medicare D. Medicaid

Workers' compensation Workers' compensation is a third-party payer for health care services that is administered by self-insured employers, private insurers, or various state agencies. Workers' compensation provides health care services for individuals who are injured while working at their place of employment. Medicaid is a third-party payer for health care services that is administered by both the state and federal government. Medicare is a third-party payer for health care services that is administered by the federal government. Private health insurance is a third-party payer for health care services that is administered by employers, fee-for-service indemnity plans, or commercial insurance carriers.

Hughston's plica test

identifies dysfunction of the plica

Clarke's sign

indicates patellofemoral dysfunction