NU310 HESI (renal, urinary and reproductive)

which action is promoted by vasopressin? A) sodium reabsorption B) Reabsorption of water C) Tubular secretion of sodium D) Red blood cell production

B) Reabsorption of water -->vasopressin is also known as an antidiuretic hormone. It helps in the reabsorption of water into the capillaries. Aldosterone promotes sodium reabsorption. Natriuretic hormones promote tubular secretion of sodium. Erythropoietin stimulates bone marrow to make red blood cells

which safety precaution would the nurse employ when assisting with the removal of a clients vaginal radium seeds? A) clean the radium in ether or alcohol B) wear foil-lined rubber gloves while handling the radium C) ensure long forceps are available for removing the radium D) document how long the radium seeds were in the vaginal vault

C) ensure long forceps are available for removing the radium

which term is used to indicate an absence of menstruation? A) Gonorrhea B) Amenorrhea C) Dysmenorrhea D) Ectopic pregnancy

B) Amenorrhea

which term is used for the tip of a pyramid in the kidney? A) Calyx B) Papilla C) renal pelvis D) renal column

B) Papilla

Which hormone influences kidney function? A) Renin B) Bradykinin C) Aldosterone D) Erythropoietin

C) Aldosterone --> released from the adrenal cortex, aldosterone influences kidney function. Renin, bradykinin, and erythropoietin are kidney hormones

which part of the kidney senses changes in blood pressure? A) Calices B) Glomerulus C) Macula densa D) Juxtaglomerular cells

C) Macula densa

which procedure involves the examination of the ureters and the renal pelvises? A) Cystogram B) Pyelogram C) Urethrogram D) voiding cystourethrogram

B) Pyelogram --> a pyelogram is a retrograde examination of the ureters and the pelvis of both kidneys.

which hormone would the nurse explain as stimulating the release of estrogen and progesterone after fertilization? A) Inhibin B) testosterone C) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) D) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

D) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

which instruction would the nurse provide a client needing to collect a clean-catch urine specimen? A) "Urinate a small amount, stop flow, and then fill one half of the specimen cup" B) "collect a sample of the last urine voided during the night" C) "if anticipating a delay in delivery, keep the urine sample in a warm, dry area" D) "send the urine sample to the lab within 6 hours of collection"

A) "Urinate a small amount, stop flow, and then fill one half of the specimen cup"

Which disorder is a primary glomerular disease? A) diabetic glomerulopathy B) chronic glomerulonenephritis C) Hemolytic-uremic syndrome D) systemic lupus erythematosus

B) chronic glomerulonenephritis

Which process is a function of the kidney hormones? A) prostaglandin increases blood flow and vascular permeability B) Bradykinin regulates intrarenal blood flow via vasodilation or vasoconstriction C) Renin raises blood pressure because of angiotensin and aldosterone secretion D) Erythropoietin promotes calcium absorption in the gastrointestinal tract

C) Renin raises blood pressure because of angiotensin and aldosterone secretion -->Renin is a kideny hormone that raises blood pressure as a result of angiotensin and aldosterone secretion. Prostaglandin is a kidney hormone that regulates intrarenal blood flow vasodilation or vasoconstriction

which med is used to treat syphilis is contraindicated in pregnancy? A) Amoxicillin B) Clotrimazole C) Tetracycline D) Metronidazole

C) Tetracycline --> Tetracycline can be administered to clients with syphilis who are allergic to penicicillin G. This medication is contraindicated in pregnant women, because if can cause birth defects or staining/discoloration to the fetus' developing teeth if given during the 2nd trimester. Amoxicillin is an antibiotic that can treat syphilis and is safe in pregnancy. Clotrimazole is used to treat candidiases. Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial vaginosis.

which information would he nurse include when teaching about why women are more susceptible to urinary tract infections that men? A) Inadequate fluid intake B) poor hygienic practices C) the length of the urethra D) the disruption of mucous membranes

C) the length of the urethra

which prescribed diagnostic test would the nurse expect to confirm a tentative urinary tract infection diagnosis in a client recovering from deep, partial thickness burns who develops chills, fever, flank pain, and malaise? A) cystoscopy B) specific gravity and pH of the urine C) urinalysis and urine culture and sensitivity D) creatinine clearance and albumin/globulin (A?G) ratio

C) urinalysis and urine culture and sensitivity --> the clients manifestations may indicate a urinary tract infection.

Which statement indicates the client with chronic kidney disease understands the purpose of using continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)? A) "the treatment provides continuous contact of dialyzer and blood to clear toxins by ultrafiltration B) "the treatment exchanges and cleanses blood by correction of elctrolytes and excretion of creatinine." C) "the treatment decreases the need for immobility, because the fluids clear the toxins in short and intermittent periods." D) "the treatment uses the peritoneum as a semipermeable membrane to clear toxins by osmosis and diffusion

D) "the treatment uses the peritoneum as a semipermeable membrane to clear toxins by osmosis and diffusion

which medication turns urine reddish-orange in color? A) amoxicillin B) Ciprofloxacin C) Nitrofurantoin D) Phenazopyridine

D) Phenazopyridine --> a topical anesthetic that is used to pain or burning sensation associated with urination

which part of the nephron secretes creatinine for elimination? A) Glomerulus B) Loop of Henle C) collecting duct D) Proximal tubule

D) Proximal tubule --> the proximal tubule of the nephron secretes creatinine and hydrogen ions

Which test provides info on bladder capacity, bladder pressure, and voiding reflexes? A) radiography B) renal ateriography C) electromyography (EMG) D) cystometrography (CMG)

D) cystometrography (CMG) --> CMG is a urodynamic study that provides info on bladder capacity, bladder pressure, and voiding reflexes

which condition would be indicated by the presence of ketones in the urine of a client? A) cystitis B) heart failure C) urinary calculi D) fat metabolism

D) fat metabolism --> the body of a client who is ingesting fewer cals than are needed for maintenance produces ketones from fat metabolism as an alternate source of fuel for muscles and organs.

which finding in a unrinalysis indicates a urinary tract infection? A) crystals B) bilirubin C) ketones D) leukoesterase

D) leukoesterase --> these are released by white blood cells in response to an infection or inflammation

which lab test would the nurse discuss the need to monitor throughout the course of prostate cancer when a client asks, "How much more blood will they need? Dont they have enough? A) Albumin B) creatinine C) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) D) prostate specific antigen (PSA)

D) prostate specific antigen (PSA)

in which parts of the kidney are glucose and amino acids reabsorped? A) distal tubule B) loop of henle C) collecting duct D) proximal tubule

D) proximal tubule --> Glucose, amino acids, electrolytes, and bicarbonate are reabsorbed in the proximal tubule. In distal tubukes, water and bicarbonate are reabsorbed, but not glucose and amino acids. Sodium and chloride are reabsorbed in the ascending limb, and water in the descending limb, of the loop of henle. Water is reabsorbed in the presence of antidiuretic hormone in the collecting duct

Which lab value would the nurse assess when preparing a client for a renal biopsy? Select all that apply: A) Hematocrit B) Hemoglobin C) platelet count D) Prothrombin time (PT) with international normalized ratio (INR) E) Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

all of the above

which instruction would the nurse include in a health practices teaching plan for a female client with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections? A) "wear cotton underwear or lingerie" B) " void at least every 6 hours around the clock" C) "increase foods containing alkaline ash in the diet D) "wipe the perineum from the back to front after toileting"

A) "wear cotton underwear or lingerie"

which is the concentration of estradiol in the blood during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle? A) 130 pg/mL B) 159 pg/mL C) 165 pg/mL D) 171 pg/mL

A) 130 pg/mL --> in the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle, 20 to 150 pg/mL of estradiol is released.

which value indicates a normal vaginal pH? A) 4.2 B) 6.8 C) 7.5 D) 9.3

A) 4.2

how long will a clients ovum stay viable for fertilization after its release? A) 72 hours B) 84 hours C) 96 hours D) 112 hours

A) 72 hours --> an ovum can be fertilized up to 72 hours after its release. The ovum disintegrates after 72 hours, and menstruation begins soon after. The ovum cannot be viable for 84, 96 or 112 hours, and fertilization will not occur

which statement made by the nurse regarding the gross anatomy and physiology of the kidneys indicates the need for additional teaching? A) "the right kidney is a little longer and narrower than the left kidney" B) "the existence of three kidneys with normal function is normal" C) "the prescence of a single kidney with normal kidney function is normal" D) "the urinary bladder lies directly behind the pubic bone"

A) "the right kidney is a little longer and narrower than the left kidney"

which instruction would the nurse share when discussing prevention in a female client with a cycle of recurring urinary tract infections? A) "urinate as soon as possible after intercourse" B) "increase your daily intake of citrus juice" C) "douche regularly with alkaline agents" D) "take bubble baths on frequent basis"

A) "urinate as soon as possible after intercourse"

which intervention is the best approach to condom use for prevention of sexually transmitted infection? A) use of spermicide B) use of oil-based lubricants C) use of condom with oral sex D) use of natural membrane condoms

C) use of condom with oral sex

which method is a barrier type of contraception? Select all that apply A) condom B) diaphragm C) Lea's shield D) Spermicidal foam E) Coitus interruptus

A) condom B) diaphragm C) Lea's shield

In which component of the nephron does furosemide decrease fluid reabsorption? select all that apply: A) Glomerulus B) loop of henle C) distal tubules D) proximal tubules E) Bowman capsule (BC)

B) Loop of Henle C) distal tubules D) proximal tubules --> Furosemide, known as "loop diuretic", inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption from the ascending loop of Henle, proximal tubules, and distal tubules. The glomerulus is the site of glomerular filtration. The BC is the site of the collection of glomerular filtrate and contains the glomerlus

which statement indicates the nurse has a correct understanding of kidney ultrasonography? A) "Kidney ultrasonography primarily makes use of iodinated contrast dye" B) "Kidney ultrasonography is performed on the client with an empty bladder" C) "Kidney ultrasonography makes use of sound waves and has minimal risk" D) "Kidney ultrasonography provides three-dimensional info regarding kidneys"

C) "Kidney ultrasonography makes use of sound waves and has minimal risk"

which response would the nurse use after receiving instructions regarding dressing changes and care of a recently inserted nephrostomy tube when the client states: "I hope I can handle all this at home; it's a lot to remember"? A) "I'm sure you can do it B) "Oh, a family member can do it for you" C) "You seem to be nervous about going home" D) "perhaps you can stay in the hospital another day"

C) "You seem to be nervous about going home"

which statement described erythropoietin? A) Erythropoietin is released by the pancreas B) an erythropoietin deficiency causes diabetes C) An erythropoietin deficiency is associated with renal failure D) Erythropoietin is released only when there is adequate blood flow

C) An erythropoietin deficiency is associated with renal failure --> Erythropoietin is produced by the kidneys; its deficiency occurs in renal failure. Erythropoietin is released by the kidneys, not the pancreas. Erythropoietin deficiency causes anemia. Erythropoietin is secreted in response hypoxia, which results in decreased oxygenated blood flow to this tissue

which instruction on infection prevention would the nurse include when providing discharge education to a client who recieved a cadaveric renal transplant? Select all that apply A) avoid eating from buffets B) obtain annual flu vaccinations C) Perform regular hand hygeine D) stay away from a temp greater than 100.5

all of the above

which instruction would the nurse include when teaching the client how to perform peritoneal dialysis and the importance of preventing peritonitis? Select all that apply: A) wear a mask during the procedure B) clean the catheter exit site every day C) maintain meticulous aseptic technique D) wash your hands before the exchange E) store supplies in a clean and dry location

all of the above

which part of the female reproductive system secretes androgens? A) uterus B) ovaries C) fallopian tube D) ovarian follicle

B) ovaries --> the ovaries and adrenal glands produce androgens in women. The fetus develops in the uterus during pregnancy. The fallopian tubes facilitate fertilization of the ooctye and sperm. the ovarian follicle is a collection of oocytes in the ovary.

Which report by the client post transrectal prostate biopsy needs to be communicated to the health care provider as a possible sign of infection? A) Soreness B) Rust-colored semen C) light rectal bleeding D) discharge from the penis

D) discharge from the penis

which assessment is necessary for the nurse to complete in a client with chronic kidney disease receiving loop diuretics? A) hemoglobin levels B) ocurrence of nausea C) presence of constipation D) intake and output measurement

D) intake and output measurement

which hormone is crucial for ovulation and complete maturation of the ovarian follicles: A) Luteinizing hormone B) Follicle-stimulating hormone C) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone D) Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone

A) Luteinizing hormone --> ovulation and complete maturation of ovarian follicles can only take place in the presence of luteinizing hormone. However, follicle-stimulating hormone initiates maturation of the follicles.

which glands help in lubricating the female urinary meatus? A) Skene glands B) Prostate glands C) Cowper glands D) Bartholin glands

A) Skene glands --> located along the urinary meatus and help lubricate the urinary meatus

Which clinical manifestation of a UTI would the nurse teach to a male client with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs) when preparing for a discharge after a uterolithotomy? A) Urgency or frequency of urination B) An increase of ketones in the urine C) the inability to maintain an erection D) pain radiating to the external genitalia

A) Urgency or frequency of urination

which characteristic of urine changes in the presence of a urinary tract infection (UTI)? A) clarity B) viscosity C) glucose level D) specific gravity

A) clarity --> cloudy urine indicates drainage associated with infection. Viscosity is a characteristic that is not measurable in urine. Urinary glucose levels are not affected by UTIs. Specific gravity yields info related to fluid balance

which component of the clients nephron acts as a receptor site for the antidiuretic hormone to regulate water balance? A) collecting ducts B) Bowmans capsule C) distal convoluted tubule D) proximal convoluted tubule

A) collecting ducts --> the collecting ducts regulate water balance and act as a receptor site for antidiuretic hormone

Which structure is included in the external genitalia of the male anatomy? Select all that apply: A) penis B) testes C) scrotum D) urethra E) seminal vesicles

A) penis C) scrotum

which collecting structure is located at the end of the renal papilla? A) Calyx B) capsule C) renal cortex D) renal columns

A) Calyx --> the calyx is a cuplike structure that collects urine and is located at the end of each papilla. The other surface of the kidney consists of fibrous tissue and is called the capsule. The renal cortex is the outer tissue layer. The renal columns are the cortical tissue that dip down into the interior of the kidney and separate the pyramids

which strategy would the nurse include in the clients plan or care regarding preventing the development of ureteral colic from renal calculi in the future? A) Instruct the client to drink at least 3L of fluid daily B) suggest interventions to decrease the serum creatinine level C) establish a urinary output goal of 2000mL per 24 hours D) teach the client to exclude milk products from their diet

A) Instruct the client to drink at least 3L of fluid daily

which phase of a womans sexual response is characterized by elevation of the uterus? A) plateau phase B) Orgasmic phase C) excitation phase D) resolution phase

A) plateau phase --> elevation of the uterus is a characteristic of the plateau phase of a women's sexual response. The plateau occurs after the excitation phase, and excitation is maintained through the plateau phase, wherein the vagina expands and the uterus is elevated. The orgasmic phase is characterized by uterine and vaginal contractions. In the excitation phase the clitoris is congested and vaginal lubrication increases. The resolution phase is characterized by returning to the preexisting state.

Which statement reflects the nurses suspicions regarding a clients cloudy urine noted on a urinalysis report? A) the client has a urinary infection B) the client has a biliary obstruction C) the client has a diabetic ketoacidosis D) the client has been on a starvation diet

A) the client has a urinary infection

Which surgery is associated with permanent contraception? Select all that apply. A) vasectomy B) cryosurgery C) mastectomy D) varicocelectomy E) Tubal ligation

A) vasectomy E) Tubal ligation

Which part of the female reproductive system produces testosterone? A) Uterus B) Ovary C) Fallopian tube D) Ovarian tube

B) Ovary --> testosterone is an androgen, and in females, androgens are produced by the ovaries and adrenal glands. The uterus hold the fetus during pregnancy. Fallopian tubes facilitate fertilization of oocyte and sperm. An ovarian follicle is a collection of oocytes in the ovary

which structure of the penis would the nurse tell the parents is removed when educating new parents about circumcision? A) Glans B) Prepuce C) Epididymis D) Vas deferens

B) Prepuce --> circumcision is a procedure that involves removal of the prepuce, a skin fold over the glans.

Which structure surrounding the male urethra would the nurse describe to a client scheduled for a dilation of the urethra? A) Epididymis B) Prostate gland C) seminal vesicle D) Bulbourethral gland

B) Prostate gland --> the prostate gland is shaped like a ring, with the urethra passing through its center. The epididymis lies along the top and sides of the testes. The seminal vesicles are on the posterior surface of the bladder. The bulbourethral gland lies below the prostate.

which finding during peritoneal dialysis would the nurse act on as a sign of infection? A) pain with instillation B) cloudy return of dialysate C) complaints of constipation D) leakage of dialysate around the catheter

B) cloudy return of dialysate

which food item would the nurse instruct a client whose pathology report states a urinary calculus is composed of uric acid to avoid? A) milk B) liver C) cheese D) veggies

B) liver

which goal would the nurse expect a client receiving treatment for bacterial cystitis to achieve before their discharge from the hospital? A) understand the need to drink 4 L of water per day to prevent dehydration B) demonstrate an ability to identify dietary restrictions and plan menus C) achieve relief of clinical symptoms and maintain kidney function D) recognize signs of bleeding as a complication with this type of procedure

C) achieve relief of clinical symptoms and maintain kidney function --> relief of symptoms and continued urine output are measureable responses to therapy and are the desired outcomes. 4 liters of water per day is too much fluid; 2 to 3 liters a day is recommended to flush the bladder and urethra. Dietary restrictions are not necessary with cystitis.

which tissue must be addressed before a client with syphillis can be treated? A) portal of entry B) size of chancre C) existence of allergies D) names of sexual contacts

C) existence of allergies

Which test helps identify reproductive tract fibroids, tumors, and fistulas? A) mammography B) Ultrasonography C) hysterosalpingography D) computed tomography

C) hysterosalpingography

which term would the nurse document in client's medical record after observing reduced urinary output? A) Anuria B) dysuria C) oliguria D) nocturia

C) oliguria -->a reduced urinary output of less than 400mL in a 24-hour interval is called oliguria.

which substance is released in response to low serum levels of calcium? A) Renin B) Erythropoietin C) Parathyroid hormone D) artrial natriuretic peptide

C) parathyroid hormone --> Renin is a hormone released in response to decreased renal perfusion; this hormone is responsible for regulating blood pressure. Erthyropoietin is released by the kidneys in response to poor blood flow to the kidneys; it stimulates the production of red blood cells. Atrial natriuretic peptide is produced by the right atrium of the heart in response to increased blood volume. This hormone then acts on the kidneys to promote sodium excretion, which decreases the blood volume

which term is used to describe a client passing air and bubbles during urination? A) nocturia B) oliguria C) pneumaturia D) stress incontinence

C) pneumaturia --> the occurrence of gas along with urination is called pneumaturia and could result from the formation of a fistula between the bowel and urinary bladder

which goal is the nurse trying to achieve with continuous bladder irrigations (CBI) of a client who has undergone a suprapubic prostatectomy for cancer of the prostate? A) stimulate continuous formation of urine B) facilitate the measurement of urinary output C) prevent the development of clots in the bladder D) provide continuous pressure on the prostatic fossa

C) prevent the development of clots in the bladder

which hormones is crucial in maintaining the implanted ovum at its site? A) Inhibin B) estrogen C) progesterone D) testosterone

C) progesterone

which successful outcome would the nurse expect in a client diagnosed with invasive cancer of the bladder who has brachytherapy scheduled? A) decrease in urine output B) increase in pulse strength C) shrinkage of the tumor when scanned D) increase in the quantity of white blood cells (WBCs)

C) shrinkage of the tumor when scanned -->Brachytherapy involves implanting isotope seeds in, or next to, the tumor. The isotope seeds interfere with cell multiplication, which should control the growth and metastasis of cancerous tumors

which client statement indicates understanding of content taught about removing his or her three-way indwelling catheter and continuous bladder irrigation (CBI)? A) "I probably will have diluted urine" B) "I probably will be unable to urinate" C) "I probably will produce dark red urine" D) "I probably will experience some burning on urination"

D) "I probably will experience some burning on urination"

which term refers to the Cowper gland? A) Skene gland B) Prostate gland C) Bartholin gland D) Bulbourethral gland

D) Bulbourethral gland --> Cowper glands are accessory glands of the male reproductive system; they are also referred to as the bulbourethral glands

Which part of the kidney produces the hormone brdaykinin? A) kidney tissues B) kidney parenchyma C) renin-producing granular cells D) Juxtaglomerular cells of the arterioles

D) Juxtaglomerular cells of the arterioles --> the juxtaglomerular cells of the arterioles produce the hormone bradykinin, which increases blood flow and vascular permeability

which factor would the nurse explain as a reason why women are at a greater risk than men for contracting a urinary tract infection? A) Altered urinary pH levels B) Hormonal secretions C) Juxtaposition of the bladder D) proximity of the urethra and anus

D) proximity of the urethra and anus --> because a womans urethra is closer to the anus than a mans, it is at a greater risk for becoming contaminated