NU472 Week 4 EAQ Evolve Elsevier: Pregnancy, Labor, Childbirth, Postpartum - Uncomplicated
When teaching a childbirth preparation class, which information would the nurse include regarding discomfort during labor? o Labor should be mostly pain free and uneventful. o Breathing techniques will be taught to prevent the need for medication. o Medication is given to women who experience painful labor contractions. o Measures are available that help promote comfort as labor progresses.
o Measures are available that help promote comfort as labor progresses. · Classes in preparation for parenthood should help couples develop realistic expectations of the labor process, including associated discomfort and ways of dealing with it. Stating that labor should be mostly pain free and uneventful is false reassurance; contractions are uncomfortable, and there is no guarantee that the birthing process will be uneventful. Breathing techniques may not be enough for some women to limit the discomfort of contractions. The focus should not be on pain; comfort measures should be attempted first before medication is used. Further, not all women receive medication for painful contractions.
Which variables are scored on a biophysical profile? Select all that apply. o Fetal tone o Fetal position o Fetal movement o Amniotic fluid index o Fetal breathing movements o Contraction stress test results
o Fetal tone o Fetal movement o Amniotic fluid index o Fetal breathing movements · Fetal tone, fetal movement, amniotic fluid index, and fetal breathing movements are all scored on a biophysical profile. Fetal position is not one of the variables that are scored. A nonstress test, not a contraction stress test, is also part of the biophysical profile.
A 42-year-old client at 39 weeks' gestation has a reactive nonstress test (NST). Which interpretation pertains to this result? o Immediate birth is indicated. o This is the desired response at this stage of gestation. o Further testing is unnecessary with this desired outcome. o The result is inconclusive, indicating the need for further evaluation.
o This is the desired response at this stage of gestation. · An NST indicates that the fetus is healthy because there is an active pattern of fetal heart rate acceleration with movement. The result is positive and desired; immediate birth is not required. Further testing is needed. If the pregnancy continues, another test of fetal well-being will probably be done. The results were positive, not inconclusive.
Which microorganism causes maternal mastitis? o Escherichia coli o Group B streptococcus o Staphylococcus aureus o Chlamydia trachomatis
o Staphylococcus aureus · Staphylococcus aureus is a resident organism of the skin; it is the causative agent of 95% of the infections that result in maternal mastitis. Escherichia coli is found in the lower intestinal tract; it is not associated with mastitis. Group B streptococcus rarely causes mastitis. Chlamydia trachomatis can cause neonatal pneumonia and conjunctivitis, not mastitis. Frequent hand washing by staff and clients may reduce the risk of infection.
Which statement by a breast-feeding mother indicates that the nurse's teaching regarding stimulating the let-down reflex has been successful? o "I will take a cool shower before each feeding." o "I will drink a couple of quarts of fat-free milk a day." o "I will wear a snug-fitting breast binder day and night." o "I will apply warm packs and massage my breasts before each feeding."
o "I will apply warm packs and massage my breasts before each feeding." · Applying warm packs and massaging the breasts before each feeding help dilate milk ducts, promote emptying of the breasts, and stimulate further lactation. Taking a cool shower before each feeding will contract the milk ducts and interfere with the let-down reflex. Heavy consumption of milk products is not required to stimulate the production of milk. Breast binders may inhibit lactation by fooling the body into thinking that milk secretion is no longer needed.
A client in active labor is rushed from the emergency department to the labor and birth suite screaming, "Knock me out!" Examination reveals that her cervix is dilated 9 cm and 100% effaced. Which would the nurse say while trying to calm the client? o "I'll rub your back—that will help ease your pain." o "You'll get a shot when you reach the birthing room." o "I'm sure you're in pain, but try to bear with it for the baby's sake." o "Medication may interfere with the baby's first breaths; keep breathing."
o "Medication may interfere with the baby's first breaths; keep breathing." · Analgesia crosses the placental barrier; when birth is imminent, it can cause respiratory depression in the newborn. The client is exhibiting fear and panic; a backrub at this time will not be effective and will probably be rejected. Stating that the client will get a shot when she reaches the birthing room is incorrect and provides false reassurance. Although acknowledging that the client is in pain is an empathic response, an explanation of why medication cannot be given is more appropriate in this situation.
Which statement indicates that a pregnant client requires further teaching about fetal growth and development? o "The fetus keeps growing throughout pregnancy." o "The fetus gets nutrients from the amniotic fluid." o "The fetus may be underweight if it's exposed to smoke." o "The fetus gets oxygen from blood coming through the placenta."
o "The fetus gets nutrients from the amniotic fluid." · The amniotic fluid provides protection, not nutrition; the fetus depends on the placenta, along with the umbilical blood vessels, for nutrients and oxygen. The statements that the fetus keeps growing throughout pregnancy, that it may be underweight if exposed to smoke, and that it gets oxygen from blood in the placenta all indicate that the client understands the teaching.
Which direction regarding sleeping position would the nurse give to a client who is 8 months' pregnant? o "Try to sleep on your stomach." o "Turn from side to side when in bed." o "Elevate the head of the bed on blocks." o "Place pillows under your knees for sleep."
o "Turn from side to side when in bed." · The side-lying position will relieve back pressure; it also promotes uterine perfusion and fetal oxygenation. At 32 weeks' gestation the abdomen is too distended for the pregnant woman to lie in the prone position. Elevating the head of the bed will not relieve back pressure; it is used to limit gastroesophageal reflux. Lying on the back is contraindicated because it puts pressure on the vena cava, resulting in hypotension and uteroplacental insufficiency. Pillows under the knees are contraindicated because they place pressure on the popliteal area, which compresses the venous circulation, increasing the risk of thrombophlebitis.
Which response would the nurse give to a client who asks how far into her pregnancy she can continue to work? o "What activities does your job entail?" o "How do you feel about continuing to work?" o "Most women work throughout their pregnancies." o "Usually women quit work at the start of their third trimester."
o "What activities does your job entail?" · More information about job activities is needed before the nurse can give a professional response. Although it is important to ascertain the client's feelings about continuing to work, at this time she is seeking information. Although it is true that most women work throughout their pregnancies, more information is needed before the nurse can respond. It is misinformation to state that usually women quit work at the start of the third trimester.
Which is the most appropriate response when a client asks if the nurse thinks the ordered nonstress test is necessary? o "It's a fast, harmless procedure." o "You seem to have doubts about this test." o "This test is routinely done at this time in a pregnancy." o "There may be problems, and we want to reduce the risks."
o "You seem to have doubts about this test." · Observing that the client is having doubts encourages her to discuss her fears and anxieties. Telling the client that the test is fast, harmless, or routine cuts off communication and does not allow the client to express her fears and anxiety. The mention of risk may frighten the client and does not encourage the client to discuss the situation further.
Which response would the nurse give to a new mother who asks if she needs to alter her diet to breast-feed? o "Eat as you have been during your pregnancy." o "Drink a lot of milk—the added calcium will help you make milk." o "Your body produces the milk your baby needs as a result of the vigorous suckling." o "You'll need greater amounts of the same foods you've been eating and more fluids."
o "You'll need greater amounts of the same foods you've been eating and more fluids." · Compared with the prenatal diet, the diet for lactation requires an increased intake of all food groups, vitamins, and minerals, plus increased fluid to replace that lost with milk secretion. Breast-feeding mothers need an additional 340 calories and 25 g of protein per day more than nonpregnant needs to maintain adequate milk production. The client needs additional calories, not just additional milk. Telling the client that her body produces the milk her baby needs as a result of the vigorous suckling does not address the mother's concern; optimal nutrition is necessary to produce an adequate milk supply.
Which direction would the nurse give to a non-breast-feeding mother to help relieve the discomfort of engorgement? o Empty the breasts manually once a day. o Apply cold packs to the breasts frequently. o Ask the practitioner to prescribe a medication for pain. o Loosen the brassiere until the breast swelling has subsided.
o Apply cold packs to the breasts frequently. · Application of cold constricts blood and lymph vessels and numbs the pain caused by distention of them. Emptying the breasts manually once a day is contraindicated because this action will stimulate the flow of milk. If the discomfort persists even when the client wears a tight brassiere and applies cold packs, an over-the-counter analgesic should be sufficient for relief. A tight brassiere maintains alignment of blood and lymph vessels and prevents further engorgement.
A client in labor is experiencing discomfort because her fetus is in the occiput posterior position. Which nursing action will help relieve this discomfort? o Positioning her on the left side o Using effleurage on her abdomen o Applying pressure against her sacrum o Placing her in the semi-Fowler position
o Applying pressure against her sacrum · Counterpressure over the sacral area helps relieve the pain caused by the pressure of the fetal head in the posterior position. Although helpful for placental perfusion, positioning the client on her left side is not the best action for reducing pain caused by the pressure of the fetal head in the posterior position. Massaging the abdomen with the fingertips (effleurage) does not relieve the painful pressure in the lower back. The semi-Fowler position causes additional discomfort because the sacrum is inaccessible and counterpressure cannot be applied to the sacral area.
Which factor distinguishes true labor from false labor? o Cervical dilation is evident. o Contractions stop when the client walks around. o The client's contractions progress only when she is in a side-lying position. o Contractions occur immediately after the membranes rupture.
o Cervical dilation is evident. · Progressive cervical dilation is the most accurate indication of true labor. With true labor, contractions will increase with activity. Contractions of true labor persist in any position. Contractions may not begin until 24 to 48 hours after the membranes rupture.
In which order would paced breathing techniques be used as a client progresses through labor? o Slow, deep breaths o Cleansing breaths o Pant-blow breathing o Slow, exhalation pushing o Modified-paced breathing
o Cleansing breaths o Slow, deep breaths o Modified-paced breathing o Pant-blow breathing o Slow, exhalation pushing · Cleansing breaths, in which the woman breathes in through the nose and out through the mouth, are used at the beginning and end of each contraction. Slow, deep breaths are used early in the first stage of labor to promote relaxation of abdominal muscles. Modified paced breathing may be used when the woman can no longer walk or talk through contractions; it requires concentration and promotes relaxation and oxygenation. As contractions increase in frequency and intensity, more complex breathing techniques require enhanced concentration and therefore block painful stimuli more effectively. Patterned, paced breathing, such as pant-blow, is used during the transition phase of the first stage of labor. Slow exhalation pushing is used during the second stage to facilitate a controlled birth, minimizing maternal trauma and the need for an episiotomy.
Which action would the nurse take when external fetal uterine monitoring shows fetal heart rate (FHR) decelerations in a uniform wave shape that reflects the shape of the contraction? o Notify the health care provider of possible head compression. o Place the client in a knee-chest position to avoid cord compression. o Assist the client into a dorsal recumbent position to prevent compression of the vena cava. o Continue to monitor for return of the FHR to baseline when each contraction ends.
o Continue to monitor for return of the FHR to baseline when each contraction ends. · Early decelerations of the FHR commonly occur with head compression during a contraction. As long as the FHR returns to baseline at the end of the contraction, no intervention is necessary, so the health care provider would not be notified. Cord compression is also common during contractions, but no intervention is needed as long as the FHR returns to baseline with the end of the contraction, so the client would not be placed in a knee-chest position. The dorsal recumbent position will increase pressure on the vena cava and is contraindicated.
Which action would the nurse take when a client begins to shiver uncontrollably about 1 hour after giving birth? o Cover the client with blankets to alleviate this typical postpartum reaction. o Check vital signs because the client may be experiencing hypovolemic shock. o Monitor the client's blood pressure because shivering may cause it to rise. o Obtain a prescription for an increase in the rate of the intravenous fluid infusion to restore the client's fluid reserves.
o Cover the client with blankets to alleviate this typical postpartum reaction. · There are several theories about why chilling occurs; one is that it is caused by vasomotor instability resulting from fetus-to-mother transfusion during placental separation; comfort measures such as warm blankets or fluids are indicated. Although the vital signs should be monitored during the fourth stage of labor, they are not being monitored because of the shivering, which is an expected response to the birth. Changes in blood pressure are unexpected. Shivering is not a sign of dehydration.
The nurse instructs a pregnant woman in labor that she must avoid lying on her back. What is the primary reason for this instruction? o The supine position can prolong the course of labor. o Decreased placental perfusion is seen in the supine position. o This position can lead to transient episodes of hypertension. o Lying on the back interferes with free movement of the coccyx.
o Decreased placental perfusion is seen in the supine position. · In the supine position the gravid uterus impedes venous return; this causes decreased cardiac output and results in reduced placental circulation. This in turn can lead to fetal compromise. Although a prolonged course of labor may result if the client lies supine, this is not the most significant reason for avoiding the supine position during labor. The supine position may result in hypotension, not hypertension. Interference with free movement of the coccyx is not the most significant reason for avoiding the supine position while in labor, although it may be partially true.
Which action provides support for the fetal head as it is being delivered? o Applying suprapubic pressure o Placing a hand firmly against the perineum o Distributing the fingers evenly around the head o Maintaining pressure against the anterior fontanel
o Distributing the fingers evenly around the head · Distribution of the fingers around the head will prevent a rapid change in intracranial pressure while the head is being born and keeps the head from "popping out," which could result in maternal perineal trauma. Applying suprapubic pressure will not aid in the birth of the head. Placing a hand firmly against the perineum may interfere with the birth and harm the neonate. Maintaining pressure against the anterior fontanel could injure the neonate.
A client who is at 20 weeks' gestation visits the prenatal clinic for the first time. Assessment reveals temperature of 98.8°F (37.1°C), pulse of 80 beats per minute, blood pressure of 128/80 mm Hg, weight of 142 lb (64.4 kg) (prepregnancy weight was 132 lb [59.9 kg]), fetal heart rate (FHR) of 140 beats per minute, urine that is negative for protein, and fasting blood glucose level of 92 mg/dL (5.2 mmol/L). Which would the nurse do after making these assessments? o Report the findings because the client needs immediate intervention. o Document the results because they are expected at 20 weeks' gestation. o Record the findings in the medical record because they are not within the norm but are not critical. o Prepare the client for an emergency admission because these findings may represent jeopardy to the client and fetus.
o Document the results because they are expected at 20 weeks' gestation. · All data presented are expected for a client at 20 weeks' gestation and should be documented. There is no need for immediate intervention or an emergency admission because all findings are expected.
Which intervention applies to the care of an infant undergoing phototherapy? o Covering the infant's face with a soft mask o Administering glucose water between breast or bottle feedings o Keeping the infant in the supine position with the genitals covered o Exposing as much skin as possible by turning the infant every 2 hours
o Exposing as much skin as possible by turning the infant every 2 hours · Turning the infant permits optimal skin exposure to the phototherapy lights. The infant's face should not be covered; only the eyes should be covered. Glucose water does not promote excretion of bilirubin in the stools. The supine position would expose only the front of the infant to the lights.
Which is the priority assessment when the membranes rupture? o Fetal heart rate o Cervical dilation and effacement o Amount, color, and odor of amniotic fluid o Frequency, intensity, and duration of contractions
o Fetal heart rate · The priority nursing intervention when the membranes rupture is to detect the possibility of cord compression or prolapse, which would be evidenced by variable decelerations or fetal bradycardia. Although assessing the amount, color, and odor of amniotic fluid is a necessary intervention, determining the fetus's status is more important. Assessing the cervical status and the contractions will not provide any data about fetal well-being.
When the cervix of a woman in labor is dilated 9 cm, she states that she has the urge to push. Which action would the nurse implement at this time? o Having her pant-blow during contractions o Placing her legs in stirrups to facilitate pushing o Encouraging her to bear down with each contraction o Reviewing the pushing techniques taught in childbirth classes
o Having her pant-blow during contractions · Although there are exceptions, the information given indicates that the best response is inhibiting pushing by having the client use pant-blow breathing. Pushing may cause cervical trauma when the cervix is not completely dilated. It is too early to prepare for the second stage of labor or to have the client bear down with each contraction if the cervix is not fully dilated. At this time the client is completely introverted and will be unreceptive to a review of pushing techniques.
Which type of lochia would the visiting nurse expect to observe on a client's pad on the fourth day after a vaginal delivery? o Scant alba o Scant rubra o Moderate rubra o Moderate serosa
o Moderate rubra · The uterus sloughs off the blood, tissue, and mucus of the endometrium postdelivery. This happens in 3 stages that will vary in length and represent the normal healing of the endometrium. Lochia rubra is the first and heaviest stage of lochia. The blood that is expelled during lochia rubra will be bright red and may contain blood clots. The lochia rubra phase typically lasts for about 7 days. Lochia serosa is the second stage of postpartum bleeding and is thinner in consistency and brownish or pink in color. Lochia serosa typically lasts about 2 weeks, although for some women it can last up to 4 to 6 weeks postpartum. Lochia alba is the final stage of lochia; rather than blood, you will see a white or yellowish discharge that is generated during the healing process and the initial reconstruction of the endometrium. Expect this discharge to continue for around 6 weeks after birth, but keep in mind that it may extend beyond that if the second phase of lochia lasted longer than 2 weeks.
Which condition is detected by an alpha-fetoprotein test? o Kidney defects o Cardiac anomalies o Neural tube defects o Urinary tract anomalies
o Neural tube defects · The alpha-fetoprotein test detects neural tube defects, Down syndrome, and other congenital anomalies. It is a screening test that affords a tentative diagnosis; confirmation requires more definitive testing. Anomalies of the kidneys, heart, and urinary tract are not revealed by the alpha-fetoprotein test.
A client's cervix is fully dilated and effaced. The head of the fetus is at +2 station. Which client action would the nurse encourage during contractions? o Relax by closing her eyes o Push with her glottis open o Blow to slow the birth process o Pant to prevent cervical edema
o Push with her glottis open · The contractions in the second stage of labor are expulsive in nature; having the client push or bear down with the glottis open will hasten expulsion. Contractions are now intense and the client will be unable to relax; relaxation occurs between contractions. Having the client close her eyes, blow, or pant will prevent pushing and should not be encouraged until the fetal head crowns (+4 station) and a controlled birth is desired.
When the fetal monitor is applied to a client's abdomen, it records late decelerations. Which action would the nurse take? o Notify the health care provider. o Elevate the head of the bed. o Reposition the client on her left side. o Administer oxygen by way of facemask.
o Reposition the client on her left side. · Late decelerations may indicate impaired placental perfusion. Turning the client on her left side relieves pressure on the vena cava and aorta, improving circulation to the placenta. Calling the health care provider is premature. The nurse should notify the practitioner if late decelerations continue after nursing interventions are implemented. Elevating the head of the bed will increase pressure on the vena cava and aorta, further reducing placental perfusion. Oxygen may be administered if placing the client on her left side does not resolve the late decelerations.
Which is the appropriate intervention for a pregnant client whose monitor strip shows fetal heart rate decelerations characterized by a rapid descent and ascent to and from the lowest point of the deceleration? o Elevating the legs o Repositioning the client from side to side o Increasing the rate of intravenous infusion o Administering oxygen by way of face mask
o Repositioning the client from side to side · A deceleration with a rapid descent and ascent to and from the lowest point of the deceleration is a variable deceleration caused by cord compression. Changing the client's position from side to side promotes release of the compression. Elevating the legs and increasing the rate of intravenous fluid administration are interventions for placental perfusion problems and do not affect cord compression. Oxygen given while the cord remains compressed will not provide fetal oxygenation.
The health care provider prescribes the listed interventions for a 2-day postpartum client with a temperature of 101°F (38.3°C). In which sequence would the nurse implement them? o Obtain a chest radiograph as soon as possible. o Send a lochia specimen for culture to the laboratory. o Administer the prescribed intravenous antibiotic medication. o Offer the as-needed (PRN) acetaminophen for a fever more than 100°F (37.7°C). o Document the client's temperature 30 minutes after medication administration.
o Send a lochia specimen for culture to the laboratory. o Administer the prescribed intravenous antibiotic medication. o Offer the as-needed (PRN) acetaminophen for a fever more than 100°F (37.7°C). o Document the client's temperature 30 minutes after medication administration. o Obtain a chest radiograph as soon as possible. · A lochia specimen should be obtained before giving antibiotics to ensure that the antibiotic does not interfere with laboratory results. The antibiotic is the most important intervention and should be given as soon as possible after obtaining the culture specimen to counteract any infective processes. The acetaminophen is a comfort measure that may be administered at any time; however, it does not have priority over the antibiotic. Antipyretic medication will facilitate pain relief before obtaining a chest radiograph, which could require additional movement and possibly increased discomfort. Arranging for a chest radiograph will not interfere with implementation of any of the other orders, and it may take time to schedule it. The client's response to the acetaminophen should have lowered the client's temperature within 30 minutes.
Which clinical finding during labor induction requires the nurse to discontinue the oxytocin infusion? o Contractions occurring every 3 minutes and lasting 60 seconds o Elevation of blood pressure from 110/70 to 135/85 mm Hg over 30 minutes o Rupture of membranes with amniotic fluid that contains threads of blood and mucus o Several late fetal heart rate decelerations that return to baseline after the contraction is over
o Several late fetal heart rate decelerations that return to baseline after the contraction is over · Late decelerations suggest uteroplacental insufficiency, which is an indication that the oxytocin infusion should be stopped. Continuing the infusion may compromise the status of the fetus. Contractions that occur every 3 minutes and last 60 seconds are within acceptable parameters; they require continued monitoring, and the infusion of oxytocin may be continued. An increase in blood pressure from 110/70 to 135/85 mm Hg during the past 30 minutes or rupture of the membranes requires continued monitoring but does not make it necessary for the infusion of oxytocin to be stopped.
The nurse is conducting the admission assessment of a client who is positive for group B streptococcus (GBS). Which finding is of concern to the nurse? o Continued bloody show o Cervical dilation of 4 cm o Contractions every 4 minutes o Spontaneous rupture of membranes 3 hours ago
o Spontaneous rupture of membranes 3 hours ago · Rupture of the membranes before intrapartum treatment of GBS increases the chances that infection will ascend into the uterus. GBS infection is a leading cause of neonatal morbidity and mortality. Continued bloody show, cervical dilation of 4 cm, and contractions every 4 minutes are all normal findings for a client in labor.
When a client's cervix is 7 cm dilated, which other clinical manifestations does the nurse expect the client to exhibit? o Nausea and vomiting o Bloody and profuse show o Inability to control her shaking legs o Strong contractions with intervals of several minutes between
o Strong contractions with intervals of several minutes between · Strong contractions with intervals of several minutes between them is a description of the contractions that occur during the active portion of the first stage of labor. Nausea and vomiting, profuse bloody show, and inability to control shaking legs all occur in the transition phase of the first stage of labor (8-10 cm cervical dilation).
Which cervical changes are observed during pregnancy? Select all that apply. o The cervical tip becomes soft. o The fragility of cervical tissues decreases. o The volume of cervical muscle increases. o The external cervical os appears as a jagged slit. o The elasticity of cervical collagen-rich connective tissue increases.
o The cervical tip becomes soft. o The volume of cervical muscle increases. o The elasticity of cervical collagen-rich connective tissue increases. · By the beginning of the sixth week of pregnancy, the cervical tip softens. During pregnancy, the cervical muscle and its collagen-rich connective tissues increase in volume and become loose and highly elastic. Cervical tissue fragility also increases. The external cervical os appears as a jagged slit postpartum; however, it does not during pregnancy.
Which information would be given to a client about her position while an internal fetal monitor is in place? o The most comfortable position may be assumed. o Monitoring is more accurate in the side-lying position. o Maintaining a supine position holds the internal electrodes in place. o The monitor leads need to be detached when sitting on the bedpan.
o The most comfortable position may be assumed. · Because electrodes are placed internally (on the fetal scalp, not on the mother's abdomen), position does not affect the monitor. The side-lying position is recommended because it promotes maternal-fetal circulation, but it is not the maternal position that ensures accurate monitoring. It is the internal placement of electrodes on the fetal scalp that ensures accurate monitoring. Although the supine position does not affect the monitor, it would be discouraged because the pressure of the gravid uterus inhibits venous return, leading to reduced cardiac output. Constant monitoring provides continuous ongoing assessment of fetal status; there is no reason to detach the leads.
Which information would the nurse include in the discharge teaching of a postpartum client? o The prenatal Kegel tightening exercises should be continued. o A bowel movement may not occur for up to a week after the birth. o The episiotomy sutures will be removed at the first postpartum visit. o A postpartum checkup should be scheduled as soon as menses returns.
o The prenatal Kegel tightening exercises should be continued. · Kegel exercises may be resumed immediately and should be done for the rest of the client's life because they help strengthen muscles needed for urinary continence and may enhance sexual intercourse. Episiotomy sutures do not have to be removed. Bowel movements should spontaneously return in 2 to 3 days after the client gives birth; a delay of bowel movements promotes constipation, perineal discomfort, and trauma. The usual postpartum examination is 6 weeks after birth; the menses may return earlier or later than this and should not be a factor when the client is scheduling a postpartum examination.
Which nutritional deficiency in pregnant women places the infant at risk for malformations of the central nervous system? o Zinc o Sodium o Potassium o Magnesium
o Zinc · Zinc deficiency in pregnant women is associated with malformations of the central nervous system in infants. Malformations of the central nervous system in infants are not associated with sodium, potassium, or magnesium deficiencies in pregnant women.
