NURS 3110 FINAL exam
A client asks the nurse how dipivefrin (Propine) will decrease their IOP. Which information should the nurse provide? A. The prescription will dilate the pupil increasing the outflow of the aqueous humor. B. The prescription will lower IOP by enhancing the outflow of aqueous humor. C. The prescription will decrease the production of aqueous humor. D. The prescriptions act by decreasing the production of aqueous humor by the ciliary body.
A
A client asks why they cannot take a glucocorticoid pill for their dermatitis instead of using a lotion. Which information should the nurse discuss with the client? A. Topical glucocorticoids are most effective for controlling inflammation B. Topical glucocorticoids are most effective in reducing pain C. Topical glucocorticoids are the most effective for curing dermatitis D. Topical glucocorticoids have minimal adverse effects
A
Which conditions support the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis? A. Hypothyroidism B. Diabetes mellitus C. Pulmonary disease D. Pericarditis E. Chronic kidney disease
B, C
ATI Musculoskeletal System
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ATI Powdered medications
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ATI Safe Dosage
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MyLab Chapter 48
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MyLab Chapter 49
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MyLab Chapter 50
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A nurse is administering medications to four clients. The nurse should identify which of the following nursing actions as a part of the evaluation phase of the nursing process? A. Collecting information about a client's pain level following administration of a narcotic B. Taking the blood pressure of a client before administering an antihypertensive medication C. Lowering the level of a client's bed before administering a benzodiazepine medication D. Instructing a client to rinse their mouth following administration of an inhalation corticosteroid
A
A nurse is assessing a client following administration of an antibiotic. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings is a manifestation of an anaphylactic reaction to the medication? A. Swollen lips B. Hypertension C. Low heart rate D. Constipation
A
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking alendronate to treat postmenopausal osteoporosis. the nurse should explain to the client that alendronate increases bone mass by which of the following actions? a. decreases activity of osteoclasts b. increases calcium excretion c. promotes intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphorus d. reduces action osteoblasts
A
A nurse is caring for a client who received lisinopril 30 min ago and is now reporting dizziness and headache. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A. Obtain the client's vital signs. B. Notify the provider. C. Document the client's response in the medical record. D. Tell the client to change positions slowly.
A
A nurse is caring for a client who's a prescription for etanercept. The nurse should identify that etanercept treat rheumatoid arthritis by which of the following actions? a. inactivation of tumor necrosis factor b. inhibition of osteoclast activity c. decreasing the reuptake of serotonin d. interference with the production of lymphocytes
A
A nurse is preparing to administer a medication to a newly admitted client. The nurse should identify which of the following actions as a part of the assessment phase of the nursing process? A. Asking the client about a history of medication allergies B. Instructing the client about the medication's adverse effects C. Determining whether the medication should be administered with or without meals D. Monitoring the client's response to the medication
A
A nurse on a medical unit is assisting with the orientation of a newly licensed nurse. The nurse should remind the newly licensed nurse to have a second nurse review the dosage of which of the following medications prior to administration? A. Heparin B. Acetaminophen C. Acetylcysteine D. Hydroxychloroquine
A
Clients who have contracted head lice in the nursing home are prescribed lindane (Kwell). Which medical diagnosis should the nurse be concerned about when administering lindane? A. Seizures B. Diabetes mellitus C. Stroke D. Hypothyroidism
A
The nurse has completed the education for a client prescribed timolol (Timoptic). Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? A. "I understand I may experience blurred vision after administering the prescription." B. "I will discontinue the drops if my eyes appear reddened." C. "I will store my drops in the refrigerator and make sure it is room temperature before instilling the drops." D. "I will restrict my caffeine to one cup of coffee per day."
A
The nurse has provided client education about the treatment for open-angle glaucoma. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? A. "I will have to use eyedrops for the rest of my life." B. "I can stop the eyedrops when the glaucoma has resolved." C. "The eyedrops are only required if I feel discomfort in my eyes." D. "The strength of the prescription will continue to be increased."
A
The nurse has provided discharge teaching for a client prescribed a mydriatic drug. Which statement made by the client indicates further teaching is required? A. "I will use artificial tears if my eyes feel dry." B. "I may have periods of blurry vision for several days." C. "I will wear sunglasses while I am outside." D. "I will not drive until this drug wears off."
A
The nurse has provided education to a client prescribed Adalimumab (Humira). Which statement made by the client indicates further teaching is required? A. "I will practice drawing up the prescription in a syringe." B. "I am glad I do not have to take the prescription daily." C. "I will store the prescription in the refrigerator." D. "I will stop using echinacea."
A
The nurse reviewing the records of a client notes a prescription for tretinoin (Avita). Which question should the nurse include in the assessment? A. "Is your acne clearing up?" B. "Is your rosacea getting better?" C. "Have you noticed your eczema is clearing up?" D. "Have you noticed the lesions healing?"
A
Which area of the structure of the skin is responsible for the sensation of itching? A. Dermis B. Subcutaneous tissue C. Stratum basale D. Epidermis
A
Which classification of prescription should the nurse plan to administer to the client experiencing a closed angle glaucoma attack? A. Osmotic diuretics B. Beta-adrenergic antagonists C. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors D. Prostaglandin analogs
A
Which condition should the nurse be concerned about for a client prescribed beta-adrenergic blocker ophthalmic drops for the treatment of glaucoma? A. Asthma B. Duodenal ulcer C. Pancreatitis D. Diabetes mellitus
A
Which describes the primary function of the dermis? A. Provides foundation for hair and nails B. Insulates the body C. Provides energy D. Forms a protective a barrier against foreign matter
A
Which level of potency does the topical corticosteroid dexamethasone have? A. Low B. Medium C. High D. Very high
A
Which should the nurse anticipate to be prescribed for the primary treatment of mastoiditis? A. Antibiotic B. Corticosteroid C. Antifungal agent D. Wax softener
A
a nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for etanercept. which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. admin a TB skin test prior to starting the med b. teach the client that fevers are common while taking this med c. determine if the client has chronic HTN d. mix the med with methotrexate prior to admin
A
a nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for methotrexate. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects? a. bone marrow depression b. thrombocythemia c. double vision d. constipation
A
a nurse is teaching a client about adverse effects of etanercept. which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching? a. i will need to get my blood drawn periodically while on this med b. i may loose part or all of my hair c. i may wake up with a very dry mouth d. i will leave the needle cap off during the time the med comes to room temp
A
a nurse is teaching a client about methotrexate therapy for RA. which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching? a. i will take a birth control pill every day b. methotrexate dresses my chances of developing an infection c. i take methotrexate every day with breakfast d. i will aim to drink five 9 oz glasses of water per day
A
a nurse is teaching a client taking etanercept for RA. the nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following indications of an adverse reaction to this drug? a. skin rash b. tinitus c. diarrhea d. dysphagia
A
A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin 225 mcg for a pediatric client who has a heart rate above 90/min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure administration of the right dose? (Select all that apply.) A. Validate that the dosage is within the safe range. B. Confirm the medication amount is appropriate for the child. C. Verify that the medication is not expired. D. Check the client's heart rate prior to administration. E. Document the administration in the medication administration record.
A, B
Which history should the nurse anticipate for a young child who is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis? A. Family history of asthma B. Allergy to soaps and lotions C. Family history of cardiac disease D. Prematurity E. Illicit drug use in the mother during pregnancy
A, B
Which prescriptions increase the client's risk for gout? A. Aspirin B. Thiazide diuretics C. Acetaminophen D. Cyclosporine E. Aminoglycosides
A, B, C
A nurse is preparing to administer an oral medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) A. Provide client education about the medication. B. Check the expiration date of the medication. C. Verify the dosage of the medication. D. Call the client by name to confirm their identity. E. Ask the client if they have any allergies.
A, B, C, E
The nurse has completed medication education for a client prescribed allopurinol (Zyloprim). Which client statements indicate an understanding of the information? A. "It may take a few days or weeks for me to get the full effect of this medication." B. "I should not drink alcohol while taking this drug." C. "If I develop a skin rash, I should contact the prescriber." D. "I should not crush this medication." E. "I should take this medication with food."
A, B, C, E
Which classification of prescription should the nurse evaluate the client for that is experiencing psoriasis? A. Beta blockers B. NSAIDs C. Tetracyclines D. Antifungals E. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
A, B, C, E
Which information should the nurse include in the education for a client prescribed denosumab (Prolia)? A. "I will administer your prescription in the form of an injection." B. "You may feel more fatigued than usual when taking this prescription." C. "Be certain to keep your appointments for follow-up." D. "Do not take any kind of calcium supplement or vitamin D supplement while taking this drug." E. "We must monitor your cholesterol while you are taking this drug."
A, B, C, E
Which information should the nurse provide the client that asks how glaucoma develops? A. "Having diabetes is a risk factor in the development of glaucoma." B. "Glaucoma exists when the pressure in your eye is high enough to cause optic nerve damage." C. "High blood pressure can certainly lead to the development of glaucoma." D. "A history of hyperthyroidism is a risk factor in the development of glaucoma." E. "Drugs like antihistamines and antidepressants can contribute to glaucoma."
A, B, C, E
Which should the nurse anticipate to be included in the treatment of advanced osteoarthritis? A. Acetaminophen B. Topical ointments C. Tramadol D. Biological response modifiers E. Intraarticular corticosteroids
A, B, C, E
A nurse working in a medical-surgical unit is preparing to administer medications to a client. The nurse plans to use two forms of identification to verify that she has the right client. Which of the following actions can the nurse take to identify the client? (Select all that apply.) A. Compare the name on the client's wristband with the name in the medication administration record (MAR). B. Ask the client to state his date of birth. C. Check the room number in the medication administration record (MAR) with the room number of the client. D. Ask the client to state his name. E. Use the bar code scan to identify the client.
A, B, D, E
a nurse is teaching a client about methotrexate therapy for RA. Which of the following info should the nurse include? (select all that apply) a. avoid being near people who are sick with a communicable illness b. periodic lab tests are required c. the drug's effects are immediate d. report bruising or petechiae e. avoid drinking alcohol
A, B, D, E
Which statements made by a client prescribed bisphosphonate for treatment of osteoporosis require education? A. "It will take at least 4 years for the maximum effect of the prescription to occur." B. "The bone density improvement will rapidly disappear if I stop taking this prescription." C. "I still need to eat foods high in phosphorus." D. "I should spend 15 to 20 minutes in the sun on most days." E. "The medication I took to correct my vitamin D deficiency was in preparation for this new treatment."
A, C
The nurse has provided education for a client prescribed (Fosamax). Which statements made by the client indicate an understanding of the information? A. "I cannot lie down for at least 30 minutes after taking the prescription." B. "Milk will help with the absorption of this medication." C. "I should call my healthcare provider if I experience heartburn." D. "I must take this with a full glass of water." E. "The prescription can be taken with or without food."
A, C, D
a nurse is teaching a client about calcitonin-salmon intra nasal spray to treat osteoporosis. Which of the following information should the nurse include? (select all that apply) a. report rash or itching b. deliver two sprays to each nostril c. prime the pump before the first dose d. report nasal irritation e. hold the pump horizontally
A, C, D
Which conditions should the nurse associate with the development of hypocalcemia despite normal dietary intake? A. Malabsorption syndrome B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Chronic kidney disease D. Excessive vomiting E. Multiple blood transfusions
A, C, D, E
Which describes the mechanism of action of selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs)? A. Increases bone density B. Increase calcium levels in the bone C. Decrease bone resorption D. Inhibit synthesis of microtubules E. Increase bone mass
A, C, E
Which should the nurse include in the client education about the structure and function of the skin? A. The outermost layer of the epidermis serves as the major waterproof barrier to the environment. B. The epidermis provides a foundation for the accessory structures such as hair and nails. C. The amount of subcutaneous tissue varies and is determined by nutritional status and heredity. D. Most receptor nerve endings, oil glands, sweat glands, and blood vessels are found within the subcutaneous fat. E. The deepest epidermal layer provides new cells.
A, C, E
a nurse should instruct a client who is taking alendronate to monitor for which of the following adverse effects? (select all that apply) a. jaw pain b. drowsiness c. blurred vision d. tinnitus e. muscle pain
A, C, E
Which information should the nurse provide a client that has been prescribed tretinoin (Avita) for treatment of acne? A. "It will take several weeks for you to see improvement in your skin." B. "You should continue using your over-the-counter oil drying medication until you start to see effects from this prescription." C. "Mild sun exposure will help this medication work more effectively." D. "You will likely notice redness and scaling of your skin while using this medication." E. "Continue to take the tetracycline previously prescribed for your cystic acne."
A, D
Which nonpharmacological interventions should the nurse recommend for a client prescribed topical metronidazole (MetroGel) for rosacea? A. "Avoid drinking alcohol." B. "Spend some time in the sun each day." C. "Avoid eating spicy foods." D. "Drink your coffee at room temperature." E. "Keep the temperature in your home warmer."
A, D
Which testing should the nurse schedule the client for 2 months after pharmacotherapy has begun to treat open angle glaucoma? A. Visual field changes B. Dilation of the pupils C. Light refraction D. Intraocular pressure E. Slit lamp exam
A, D
The nurse is discussing the adverse effects of Phototherapy with ultraviolet-A (PUVA) therapy with a client experiencing psoriasis. Which symptoms should the nurse include in the discussion? A. Nausea B. Depression C. Weight loss D. Headache E. Skin sensitivity
A, D, E
Which statements indicate a client understands the diagnosis of open-angle glaucoma? A. "My eye cannot drain the fluid that it produces." B. "One of the first signs of this is pain behind my eyes." C. "My type of glaucoma is a medical emergency." D. "This is a gradual process; it may take years to develop." E. "This is the most common kind of glaucoma."
A, D, E
Which is most often associated with otitis media? A. Allergies B. Asthma C. Colds D. Lower respiratory infections E. Auditory tube irritations
A, E
Which pharmacological effects are used to prevent hyperuricemia for a client with gout? A. Break down the uric acid B. Inhibit the formation of uric acid C. Excrete the uric acid D. Convert uric acid to a less toxic form E. Eliminate the uric acid
B, C, D
A nurse is reviewing a client's prescriptions. The nurse should contact the provider to clarify which of the following prescriptions? A. Phenytoin 100 mg PO every 8 hr B. Morphine 2.5 mg IV bolus PRN for incisional pain C. Regular insulin 7 units subcutaneous 30 min before breakfast and dinner D. Lisinopril 20 mg PO every 12 hr. Hold for systolic BP less than 110 mm Hg
B
A nurse is caring for a client who is to receive topiramate XR 100 mg PO daily. The client tells the nurse that the capsule is too hard to swallow. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Crush the contents of the capsule to administer in a small amount of pudding. B. Request extended-release sprinkles from the pharmacy. C. Ask the charge nurse to clarify the prescription with the provider. D. Withhold the medication until the time for the next dose.
B
A nurse is preparing to administer a high-alert pain medication to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform during the planning stage of medication administration? A. Assess the effectiveness of the pain medication. B. Verify the dosage calculation with another nurse. C. Teach the client about the action of the medication. D. Ask the client to state their name and birthdate.
B
A nurse is preparing to administer insulin subcutaneously to a client. The nurse should document the administration of the medication immediately after which of the following actions? A. Taking the insulin from the automated dispensing machine B. Injecting the insulin C. Checking the client's blood glucose level D. Checking the correct dosage of the insulin
B
A nurse is preparing to administer medication to a client who has a prescription for docusate sodium 50 mg capsule PO twice daily. The client refuses to take the medication because of nausea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Administer a docusate sodium capsule rectally. B. Withhold the medication. C. Administer 100 mg docusate sodium with the next scheduled administration. D. Encourage the client to take the medication as the provider prescribed.
B
A nurse is transcribing medication prescriptions for a group of clients. Which of the following is the appropriate way for the nurse to record medications that require the use of a decimal point? A. .4 mL B. 0.6 mL C. 8.0 mL D. 125.0 mL
B
The nurse has provided education for a client prescribed topical scabicide. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "I will leave the treatment on longer to make sure it is effective." B. "I will monitor the area daily for the next few weeks." C. "I can expect some redness to occur." D. "I need to sign a consent for this medication."
B
The nurse is preparing to provide education for a client prescribed sodium hyaluronate (Hyalgan). Which information should the nurse plan on including in the instructions? A. "You will need to return to the clinical every 3 months." B. "This will help prevent friction of the joints." C. "Sodium hyaluronate is a synthetic fluid that is injected around your joints." D. "You will be receiving one injection a month."
B
Which area of a client's body should the nurse prepare to assess that is diagnosed with tinea unguium? A. Scalp B. Nails C. Pubic area D. Feet
B
Which assessment should the nurse include in the treatment plan for a client receiving calcium intravenously (IV)? A. Level of consciousness. B. Intravenous (IV) site. C. Serum potassium levels. D. Serum glucose levels.
B
Which describes the mechanism of action of prostaglandin analogs used for the treatment of intraocular pressure? A. Decreasing the production of aqueous humor by the ciliary body B. Enhance the outflow of aqueous humor C. Decrease the formation of aqueous humor by reducing the plasma volume D. Produce miosis, constriction of the pupil, and contraction of the ciliary muscle
B
Which findings should the nurse discuss with the prescriber prior to administering a client prescribed brinzolamide (Azopt)? A. The client's father had a myocardial infarction at age 35 B. The client is allergic to sulfa C. The client is a vegetarian D. The client has a history of atopic dermatitis
B
Which information should the nurse include in the education for a client prescribed eye drops for glaucoma? A. Hold pressure for 5 minutes to prevent leakage into the nasopharynx B. Keep the lights dim after administration to avoid light sensitivity C. Instill the drops into the conjunctival sack and lacrimal duct area D. Avoid wearing contact lenses until treatment is completed
B
Which information should the nurse include in the education for the parent of a child with rickets? A. Avoid dairy products while taking vitamin D. B. Spend at least 20 minutes/day in the sunlight. C. Be sure to take brand name, not generic, vitamin D. D. Take your vitamin D on an empty stomach.
B
Which instructions should the nurse include in the education for a client has lice infestation of the eyelids? A. "These lice should be pulled off manually." B. "Apply a thin coat of petroleum jelly to your eyelashes once a day for a week." C. "The systemic effect of the lotion you are using on your hair will kill these lice, so no specific treatment is necessary." D. "Dilute the permethrin lotion with water before applying it to your eyelids."
B
Which is an important function of calcium? A. Regulate acid-base balance B. Regulate nerve transmission C. Increase energy D. Improve glucose absorption
B
Which is responsible for the secretion of aqueous humor? A. Canal of Schlemm B. Ciliary body C. Anterior chamber D. Posterior chamber
B
Which should the nurse plan to administer to a client that requires the enhancement of tear production? A. Olopatadine (Patanol) B. Lifitegrast (Xiidra) C. Cetirizine ophthalmic (Zerviate) D. Topical corticosteroid
B
Which statement made by a client supports their diagnosis of acute gouty arthritis? A. "I experience numbness in my joints." B. "My attacks occur at night." C. "I have a great deal of stiffness in the morning." D. "My muscles feel very weak."
B
Which symptom does the nurse anticipate for a client that has experienced systemic absorption of a cholinergic eye drops? A. Hypotension B. Salivation C. Bradycardia D. Tremors
B
Which testing should the nurse instruct the client receives hydroxychloroquine sulfate (Plaquenil) to do on a regular basis? A. Blood pressure B. Eye exams C. Hearing tests D. Serum glucose
B
a nurse is caring for a client who is currently taking methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse should identify that which of the following is an adverse effect of this medication? a. hypertension b. thrombocytopenia c. glaucoma d. edema
B
a nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for etanercept. Which of the following statements should the nurse make? a. you will inject this med once a week in your thigh muscle b. you should report signs of infection to your provider immediately c. you will need to avoid taking ibuprofen while on this med d. you will need to receive a MMR vaccine 1 month after starting this med
B
a nurse should identify that a client who has diabetes mellitus and is taking etanercept is at an increased risk for which of the following adverse effects? a. kidney toxicity b. infection c. gout d. DVT
B
which of the following is a therapeutic action of raloxifene? a. blocks the effects of estrogen on endometrial tissue b. mimics the effects of estrogen on bone tissue c. stimulates secretion of parathyroid hormone d. stimulates menstruation
B
A nurse is preparing to administer a time-critical medication to a client at 0800. Which of the following times are appropriate for the nurse to administer the medication? (Select all that apply.) A. 0700 B. 0745 C. 0830 D. 0845 E. 0900
B, C
A nurse is presenting community education for a group of patients with osteoarthritis. The nurse gives which information regarding the goals of pharmacotherapy for osteoarthritis? A. "Prescriptions for osteoarthritis help to prevent development of rheumatoid arthritis." B. "Prescriptions are given to help reduce the pain of osteoarthritis." C. "Some of the prescriptions for osteoarthritis focus on reducing inflammation." D. "There are prescriptions that can prevent the development of osteoarthritis." E. "Antibiotics are given to treat common infections caused by osteoarthritis."
B, C
Which statements made by a client indicates that they may be experiencing closed angle glaucoma? A. "My vision has gotten worse over time." B. "I have a headache that will not go away." C. "I see hallows around bright lights." D. "I have been experiencing a dull pain in my eyes." E. "My eyes are so blood shot."
B, C, D, E
a nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for prednisone and takes 1,500 mg/day of calcium carbonate to reduce the risk of osteoporosis. Which of the following info should the nurse include? (select all that apply) a. take the calcium tablets with food b. drink 240 ml (8oz) of water with the calcium tablets c. chew calcium tablets before swallowing them d. take the drugs 1 hr apart e. divide the daily dosage of allium into three 500-mg doses
B, C, D, E
The nurse is preparing to provide education for a client prescribed Raloxifene. Which common adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Flu like symptoms B. Leg cramps C. Hot flashes D. Peripheral edema E. Weight gain
B, C, E
Which interventions for the treatment of a client with a severe sunburn should the nurse anticipate? A. Benzophenone B. Topical anesthetics C. PO analgesics D. Zinc oxide E. Hydration
B, C, E
Which types of dermatitis commonly respond to topical pharmacotherapy? A. Acne B. Contact C. Atopic D. Psoriasis E. Seborrheic
B, C, E
a nurse is teaching a client about raloxifene. Which of the following info should the nurse include? (select all that apply) a. perform a breast self-exam 2x per month b. increase physical activity by taking walks c. use a contraceptive if there is any possibility of pregnancy d. take the drug on an empty stomach e. increase intake of calcium and vitamin D
B, C, E
Which should the nurse monitor the client for that has experienced a significant systemic absorption of Timolol (Betimol)? A. Blurred vision B. Dysrhythmias C. Hypertension D. Hypotension E. Hyperglycemia
B, D
Which describe the goals of pharmacotherapy for a client with rheumatoid arthritis? A. Increase rheumatoid factors B. Reduce pain C. Prevent fractures D. Minimalize disability E. Control inflammation
B, D, E
Which instructions should the nurse provide to the parents of children in an elementary school which is experiencing an outbreak of lice and body mites? A. "Obtain over-the-counter antiparasitic lotion and apply according to label directions." B. "Look for small bugs in your children's hair or small objects attached to the hair shaft." C. "Look for bugs between fingers, under the arms, and in the pubic area." D. "Open the windows and doors of your house and let fresh air blow through to eliminate lice and mites in the home." E. "If lice or mites are found, stuffed animals should be washed or sealed in an airtight bag for 2 weeks."
B, E
A client being treated for acne asks the nurse why they are prescribed doxycycline. Which response should the nurse provide? A. "Your acne looks infected." B. "The prescription will prevent an infection." C. "The prescription will lessen the inflammation." D. "Your acne contains bacteria."
C
A charge nurse is reviewing the types of prescriptions with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse include as an example of a standing prescription? A. Oxycodone 5 mg by mouth every 4 hr as needed for pain B. Furosemide 20 mg IV stat C. Acetaminophen 650 mg by mouth every 6 hr for temperature greater than 38.4° C (101.2° F) D. Diazepam 10 mg IV 30 min prior to procedure
C
A charge nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about medication reconciliation. Which of the following information should the charge nurse include in the teaching? A. Perform medication reconciliation daily during a client's hospitalization. B. Only newly prescribed medications need to be reviewed during a medication reconciliation. C. Vitamins, supplements, and over-the-counter (OTC) medications should be included in a medication reconciliation. D. The goal of medication reconciliation is to minimize the financial impact of prescription medications to the client.
C
A nurse discovers a medication error in which the client received twice the prescribed amount of medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A. Notify the provider. B. Complete an incident report. C. Assess the client. D. Report the error to the nurse manager.
C
A nurse is caring for a client who reports severe back pain at 1400. The client's prescriptions include oxycodone extended-release 20 mg PO every 12 hr (last dose received at 0600) and oxycodone immediate-release 5 mg PO every 4 hr PRN (last dose received at 2300 the day before). Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Contact the provider to request an order for a different pain medication. B. Administer oxycodone immediate-release 5 mg PO at 1600. C. Administer oxycodone immediate-release 5 mg PO now. D. Contact the provider to request an increase in the oxycodone extended-release dose.
C
A nurse is providing teaching regarding medication administration to a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following is a legal responsibility of a nurse? A. Prescribing the correct dosage B. Modifying the medication regimen C. Reporting medication errors D. Delegating administration to assistive personnel
C
A nurse manager is reviewing a client's medical record and discovers that the client received a double dose of a prescribed medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse manager take first? A. Complete an incident report. B. Notify the provider about the medication error. C. Assess the client for adverse effects. D. Report the error to the risk manager.
C
Alendronate is contraindicated for admin to clients who have which of the following conditions? a. HF b. fish protein allergy c. inability to sit upright d. TB
C
Which assessment is the best to determine the effectiveness of bisphosphonate therapy for a client with osteoporosis? A. Normal serum calcium levels B. Absence of fractures C. Bone density scan D. Absence of bone pain
C
Which describes the primary mechanism of action of beta-adrenergic blockers for the treatment of open-angle glaucoma? A. Constrict the pupil B. Increase the outflow of aqueous humor C. Reduce production of aqueous humor D. Dilate the pupil to increase outflow
C
Which information should the nurse provide the client prescribed cycloplegic eye drops prior to an eye examination? A. The drops will paralyze the muscles that move the eye so that examination can take place. B. The drops will dilate the pupil so that the physician can better visualize the retina during examination. C. The drops dilate the pupil and paralyze the ciliary muscle to prevent the lens from moving during examination. D. The drugs will dilate the pupil and lubricate the eye to provide additional comfort during the examination.
C
Which is a characteristic of dermatitis? A. Swelling of nasal tissues B. Small papules C. Pruritus D. Flaky, silver scales
C
Which is the next step in the process of vitamin D activation after the dietary products are consumed? A. Calcitriol is formed B. Calcium is absorbed in the small intestine C. Cholecalciferol is synthesized D. Calcifediol is formed
C
Which is the nurse's primary concern for a client with a low calcium level? A. Depression B. Bone fractures C. Seizures D. Hypoglycemia
C
Which response should the nurse provide the client that asks how skin cells are replaced? A. "The dermis supplies new cells after older cells have been damaged or lost." B. "The stratum germinativum supplies new cells after older cells have been damaged or lost." C. "The epidermis supplies new cells after older cells have been damaged or lost." D. "The stratum corneum supplies new cells after older cells have been damaged or lost."
C
Which should the nurse plan to administer to a client to restore their calcium balance? A. Calcium supplements and dark green, leafy vegetables B. Calcium supplements and potassium C. Calcium supplements and vitamin D D. Calcium supplements and milk products
C
Which treatment should the nurse anticipate for a client with tinea capitis? A. Permethrin B. Acyclovir C. Undecylenic acid D. Clotrimazole
C
a nurse is caring for a client who was diagnosed with postmenopausal osteoporosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take prior to administering calcitonin-salmon to the client for the first time? a. check the client's urine for sedimentation b. assess the client's liver fxn c. use skin testing to check the client for allergies d. evaluate the client's breath sounds
C
a nurse is preparing to reconstitute and admin a powdered med in a multidose vial. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take? A. use a filtered needle to admin the med B. briskly shake the med vial after adding the diluent C. label the vial with the date and time before admining the med D. swab the rubber seal on the vial with triclosan prior to adding the diluent
C
a nurse is teaching a client about methotrexate. The nurse should inform the client to monitor for which of the following as an adverse effect of this drug? a. muscle pain b. peripheral edema c. black, tarry stools d. redness in the calf
C
a nurse is teaching a client about raloxifene therapy to prevent osteoporosis. Th nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following indications of an adverse reaction to this drug? a. loss of hair b. numbness of the fingertips c. calf pain d. blisters on mucous membranes
C
a nurse is teaching about self-administering methotrexate to a client who has RA. which of the following statements should the nurse make? a. use a non steroidal anti-inflammatory drug to reduce toxicity b. take it with food to reduce gastric irritation c. drink 2 to 3 L of water per day to promote the drug's excretion d. take it in the morning to prevent insomnia
C
Which assessment findings should the nurse anticipate for the client that has overdosed on vitamin D? A. Abdominal cramping B. Muscle twitching C. Vomiting D. Fatigue E. Excessive thirst
C, D, E
A client asks the nurse what swimmer's ear is. Which information should the nurse include in the discussion? A. "The fluid is trapped in the middle ear." B. "There is fluid in the vestibule of the inner ear." C. "The infection is behind the tympanic membrane." D. "It is an inflammation of your external auditory canal."
D
A client has been advised to use an over-the-counter acne product that contains benzoyl peroxide and salicylic acid. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching? A. "Do not take aspirin while using this product." B. "Gently wash your face within a few hours of applying this product." C. "Many people find this medication makes their acne worse." D. "Test this product on a small area of skin for 3 days before applying to your face."
D
A client prescribed ultraviolet (UV) light therapy for a skin condition states to the nurse "This treatment is so expensive, I think I will go to the tanning salon instead." Which information should the nurse provide the client? A. "Your insurance should pay for your treatments." B. "A tanning bed emits the same UV light that is used for therapy." C. "That will only work if your tanning salon has a particular type of bed." D. "The light therapy you require should be closely monitored."
D
A client tells the nurse that the timolol (Timoptic) eyedrops their sting their eyes. Which response should the nurse provide the client? A. "Hold the next dose and contact your healthcare provider." B. "Your eyedrops may have expired; check the date." C. "You should flush your eyes immediately with saline." D. "This is a normal and expected effect of the drops."
D
A nurse is caring for a client who states that his provider told him he is at risk for anaphylaxis following administration of amoxicillin and that he does not understand what this means. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse? A. "Anaphylaxis is a predictable and often unavoidable secondary effect that can occur at a usual therapeutic dose." B. "Anaphylaxis will cause you to experience withdrawal symptoms when you discontinue taking the medication." C. "Anaphylaxis is an unusual response that can occur due to an inherited predisposition." D. "Anaphylaxis is a severe hypersensitivity or allergic reaction that is life-threatening."
D
A nurse is reviewing a client's prescriptions. The nurse should contact the provider to clarify which of the following prescriptions? A. Ampicillin 100 mg/kg/day by mouth in 4 equally divided doses B. Phenytoin 300 mg by mouth every 12 hours C. Metronidazole 500 mg IV bolus every 6 hr D. Acetaminophen 325 mg every 6 hr PRN for headache
D
A nurse is teaching a client who has prescription for calcitonin-salmon about manifestations of hypercalcemia. which of the following manifestations should the nurse include in the teaching? a. muscle twitching b. fever c. nervousness d. vomiting
D
A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about crushing medications. The nurse should explain that which of the following medications can be crushed? A. Extended-release oxycodone B. Sublingual nitroglycerine C. Enteric-coated aspirin D. Sucralfate tablets
D
A nurse is transcribing a provider's prescription for a client. The prescription reads morphine 2 mg IV bolus at 1400. The nurse should recognize this as which of the following types of medication orders? A. Routine order B. Stat order C. PRN order D. Single order
D
The nurse has taught the client with osteoporosis about how to manage the illness. Which statement by the client indicates that additional teaching is necessary? A. "I will avoid drinking alcohol." B. "I will walk for 30 minutes every day." C. "I will drink milk regularly." D. "I will take my calcium when I wake up."
D
Which assessment finding indicates the pharmacological treatment for the client with open angle glaucoma is therapeutic? A. IOP of 32 mmHg B. Decreased photophobia C. Absence of headaches D. Improved visual acuity
D
Which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate for a client diagnosed with rosacea? A. Red plaques B. Inflammatory pustules C. Greasy scales D. Small papules
D
Which best describes open-angle glaucoma? A. Unilateral with a rapid onset. B. Accompanied by eye pain. C. Less common than closed-angle glaucoma. D. Bilateral with a slow onset.
D
Which classification of drugs should the nurse anticipate to be administered for a client requiring an eye exam? A. Beta-adrenergic blockers B. Vasoconstrictors C. Prostaglandins D. Mydriatics
D
Which finding is an adverse effect of prostaglandins, such as latanoprost (Xaltan)? A. Nausea B. Tachycardia C. Hypotension D. Eye pain
D
Which information should the nurse include in the education for a client with psoriasis vulgaris? A. Average onset is 50 years of age. B. About 20% of clients will also have arthritis. C. Appears after a streptococcal infection and will resolve spontaneously. D. This type of psoriasis requires long- term treatment.
D
Which information should the nurse include in the teaching for the parent of a child with head lice? A. "Cutting your child's hair will make it easier to treat." B. "Your child should be fine now just watch your child for a reinfection." C. "Dispose of all the bedding in a sealed plastic bag." D. "Remove all nits from the hair shaft with a nit comb or a fine-tooth comb."
D
Which initial technique should the nurse use to facilitate the removal of cerumen? A. Instill 2% acetic acid in each ear B. A sterile cotton-tipped applicator to remove cerumen C. Flush with warm water D. Instill an earwax softener
D
Which is a contributing factor to the symptoms of gout? A. Decrease in uric acid in the blood. B. An increase in the excretion of uric acid. C. Cartilage loss in the joints. D. Buildup of uric acid in the blood.
D
Which is the most important symptom that the nurse should instruct the client prescribed a bisphosphonate to immediately to report the healthcare provider? A. Headache B. Metallic taste C. Diarrhea D. Jaw pain
D
Which statement made by a client prescribed 0.1% tacrolimus (Protopic) for treatment of severe atopic dermatitis indicates an understanding of the information? A. "I could use this for my 1-year-old who also has atopic dermatitis." B. "I can use this ointment on an as needed basis for as long as I need." C. "I cannot use this ointment on my face." D. "I am at increased risk for skin cancer because I am using this drug."
D
Which statement should the nurse include in a client's education when discussing calcium supplementation? A. "The vitamin D supplement can be taken separately." B. "This drug may cause insomnia." C. "Take the calcium on an empty stomach." D. "Take your calcium with a meal."
D
Which supplies and replaces skin cells in the epidermis? A. Melanocytes B. Dermis basale C. Stratum lucidum D. Stratum basale
D
Which symptoms associated with an adverse effect of alendronate (Fosamax) should the nurse instruct the client to report? A. Visual changes B. Ringing in the ears C. Flushed skin D. Muscle spasms
D
a nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for methotrexate. which of the following drugs would likely be prescribed in connection during the initial treatment for RA? a. aspirin b. salicylates c. sulfonylureas d. ibuprofen
D
a nurse is caring for a client who is taking etanercept for RA. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following indications of a serious adverse reaction to the drug? a. excessiv esalivation b. increased thirst c. blood in the urine d. shortness of breath
D
a nurse is preparing to administer alendronate to a client who has osteoporosis. the nurse should recognize which of the following as an adverse effect of alendronate? a. venous thromboemboli b. ventricular dysrhythmias c. treat cancer d. joint pain
D
Which information should the nurse provide for a client prescribed permethrin (Nix) for the treatment of body mites? A. "Make certain you get the 1% lotion." B. "You should leave the lotion on your body for 10 minutes." C. "You should expect almost immediate relief from the itching." D. "You may feel some stinging or tingling while the lotion is being used." E. "You should not use this medication if you are sensitive to chrysanthemums."
D, E
Which measurements of intraocular pressure should the nurse recognize requires pharmacological intervention? A. A single reading of 14 mmHg B. A consistent reading trending between 15 and 16 mmHg. C. A single reading of 19 mmHg. D. Readings consistently higher than 21 mmHg. E. A single reading of 32 mmHg.
D, E
Which structures contain aqueous humor? A. Fovea B. Sclera C. Conjunctiva D. Anterior chamber E. Posterior chamber
D, E