NURS 355 Exam 3
Which finding by the nurse during abdominal auscultation indicates a need for a focused abdominal assessment? a. Loud gurgles b. High-pitched gurgles c. Absent bowel sounds d. Frequent clicking sounds
Answer: Absent bowel sounds Rationale: Absent bowel sounds are abnormal and require further assessment by the nurse. The other sounds may be heard normally.
A patient has a body mass index (BMI) of 31 kg/m2, a normal C-reactive protein level, and low serum transferrin and albumin levels. What should the nurse encourage the patient to increase in the diet? a. Iron b. Protein c. Calories d. Carbohydrate
Ans: Protein Rationale: The patient's C-reactive protein and transferrin levels indicate low protein stores. The BMI is in the obese range, so increasing caloric intake is not indicated. The data do not indicate a need for increased carbohydrate or iron intake.
Which information about dietary management should the nurse include when teaching a patient with peptic ulcer disease (PUD)? a. "You will need to remain on a bland diet." b. "Avoid foods that cause pain after you eat them." c. "High-protein foods are least likely to cause pain." d. "You should avoid eating any raw fruits and vegetables."
Answer: "Avoid foods that cause pain after you eat them." Rationale: The best information is that each person should choose foods that are not associated with postprandial discomfort. Raw fruits and vegetables may irritate the gastric mucosa but chewing well seems to decrease this problem and some patients may tolerate these foods well. High-protein foods help neutralize acid, but they also stimulate hydrochloric (HCl) acid secretion and may increase discomfort for some patients. Bland diets may be recommended during an acute exacerbation of PUD, but there is little evidence to support their use.
The nurse is assessing an alert and independent older adult patient for malnutrition risk. Which is the most appropriate initial question? a. "How do you get to the store to buy your food?" b. "Can you tell me the food that you ate yesterday?" c. "Do you have any difficulty in preparing or eating food?" d. "Are you taking any medications that alter your taste for food?"
Answer: "Can you tell me the food that you ate yesterday?" Rationale: This question is the most open-ended and will provide the best overall information about the patient's daily intake and risk for poor nutrition. The other questions may be asked, depending on the patient's response to the first question.
Four months after bariatric surgery, a patient tells the nurse, "My skin is hanging off me. I think I might want to surgery to remove the skinfolds." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "The important thing is that you are improving your health." b. "The skinfolds show everyone how much weight you have lost." c. "Perhaps you should talk to a counselor about your body image." d. "Cosmetic surgery may be possible once your weight has stabilized."
Answer: "Cosmetic surgery may be possible once your weight has stabilized." Rationale: Reconstructive surgery may be used to eliminate excess skinfolds after at least a year has passed since the surgery. The responses, "The important thing is that your weight loss is improving your health," and "The skinfolds show everyone how much weight you have lost, "ignore the patient's concerns about appearance and implies that the nurse knows what is important. It may be helpful for the patient to talk to a counselor; however, there is no indication given that the concern about skinfolds is dysfunctional.
A 58-yr-old woman who was recently diagnosed with esophageal cancer tells the nurse, "I do not feel ready to die yet." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "You may have quite a few years still left to live." b. "Thinking about dying will only make you feel worse." c. "Having this new diagnosis must be very hard for you." d. "It is important that you be realistic about your prognosis."
Answer: "Having this new diagnosis must be very hard for you." Rationale: This response is open ended and will encourage the patient to further discuss feelings of anxiety or sadness about the diagnosis. Patients with esophageal cancer have a low survival rate, so the response "You may have quite a few years still left to live" is misleading. The response beginning, "Thinking about dying" indicates that the nurse is not open to discussing the patient's fears of dying. The response beginning, "It is important that you be realistic" discourages the patient from feeling hopeful, which is important to patients with any life-threatening diagnosis.
A patient who has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is experiencing increasing discomfort. Which patient statement to the nurse indicates that additional teaching about GERD is needed? a. "I quit smoking years ago, but I chew gum." b. "I eat small meals and have a bedtime snack." c. "I take antacids between meals and at bedtime each night." d. "I sleep with the head of the bed elevated on 4-inch blocks."
Answer: "I eat small meals and have a bedtime snack." Rationale: GERD is exacerbated by eating late at night, and the nurse should plan to teach the patient to avoid eating at bedtime. The other patient actions are appropriate to control symptoms of GERD.
Which statement to the nurse from a patient with jaundice indicates a need for teaching? a. "I used cough syrup several times a day last week." b. "I take a baby aspirin every day to prevent strokes." c. "I take an antacid for indigestion several times a week" d. "I use acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours for pain."
Answer: "I use acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours for pain." Rationale: Chronic use of high doses of acetaminophen can be hepatotoxic and may have caused the patient's jaundice. The other patient statements require further assessment by the nurse but do not indicate a need for patient education.
A young adult patient is hospitalized with massive abdominal trauma from a motor vehicle crash. The patient asks the nurse about the purpose of receiving famotidine (Pepcid). What should the nurse explain about the action of the medication? a. "It decreases nausea and vomiting." b. "It inhibits development of stress ulcers." c. "It lowers the risk for H. pylori infection." d. "It prevents aspiration of gastric contents."
Answer: "It inhibits development of stress ulcers." Rationale: Famotidine is administered to prevent the development of physiologic stress ulcers, which are associated with a major physiologic insult such as massive trauma. Famotidine does not decrease nausea or vomiting, prevent aspiration, or prevent H. pylori infection.
How should the nurse explain esomeprazole (Nexium) to a patient with recurring heartburn? a. "It reduces gastroesophageal reflux by increasing the rate of gastric emptying." b. "It neutralizes stomach acid and provides relief of symptoms in a few minutes." c. "It coats and protects the lining of the stomach and esophagus from gastric acid." d. "It treats gastroesophageal reflux disease by decreasing stomach acid production."
Answer: "It treats gastroesophageal reflux disease by decreasing stomach acid production." Rationale: The proton pump inhibitors decrease the rate of gastric acid secretion. Promotility drugs such as metoclopramide (Reglan) increase the rate of gastric emptying. Cryoprotective medications such as sucralfate (Carafate) protect the stomach. Antacids neutralize stomach acid and work rapidly.
Which information will the nurse provide for a patient with newly diagnosed gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? a. "Peppermint tea may reduce your symptoms." b. "Keep the head of your bed elevated on blocks." c. "You should avoid eating between meals to reduce acid secretion." d. "Vigorous physical activities may increase the incidence of reflux."
Answer: "Keep the head of your bed elevated on blocks." Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed will reduce the incidence of reflux while the patient is sleeping. Peppermint will decrease lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure and increase the chance for reflux. Small, frequent meals are recommended to avoid abdominal distention. There is no need to make changes in physical activities because of GERD.
Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient with peptic ulcer disease about the effect of ranitidine (Zantac)? a. "Ranitidine absorbs the excess gastric acid." b. "Ranitidine decreases gastric acid secretion." c. "Ranitidine constricts the blood vessels near the ulcer." d. "Ranitidine covers the ulcer with a protective material."
Answer: "Ranitidine decreases gastric acid secretion." Rationale: Ranitidine is a histamine-2 (H2) receptor blocker that decreases the secretion of gastric acid. Ranitidine does not constrict the blood vessels, absorb the gastric acid, or cover the ulcer.
After bariatric surgery, a patient who is being discharged tells the nurse, "I prefer to be independent. I am not interested in any support groups." Which response by the nurse is best? a. "I hope you change your mind so that I can suggest a group for you." b. "Tell me what types of resources you think you might use after this surgery." c. "Support groups have been found to lead to more successful weight loss after surgery." d. "Because there are many lifestyle changes after surgery, we recommend support groups."
Answer: "Tell me what types of resources you think you might use after this surgery." Rationale: This statement allows the nurse to assess the individual patient's potential needs and preferences. The other statements offer the patient more information about the benefits of support groups but do not acknowledge the patient's preferences.
Which statement by a patient with chronic atrophic gastritis indicates that the nurse's teaching regarding cobalamin injections has been effective? a. "The cobalamin injections will prevent gastric inflammation." b. "The cobalamin injections will prevent me from becoming anemic." c. "These injections will increase the hydrochloric acid in my stomach." d. "These injections will decrease my risk for developing stomach cancer."
Answer: "The cobalamin injections will prevent me from becoming anemic." Rationale: Cobalamin supplementation prevents the development of pernicious anemia. Chronic gastritis may cause achlorhydria, but cobalamin does not correct this. The loss of intrinsic factor secretion with chronic gastritis is permanent, and the patient will need lifelong supplementation with cobalamin. The incidence of stomach cancer is higher in patients with chronic gastritis, but cobalamin does not reduce the risk for stomach cancer.
Which patient statement indicates that the nurse's postoperative teaching after a gastroduodenostomy has been effective? a. "I will drink more liquids with my meals." b. "I should choose high carbohydrate foods." c. "Vitamin supplements may prevent anemia." d. "Persistent heartburn is common after surgery."
Answer: "Vitamin supplements may prevent anemia." Rationale: Cobalamin deficiency may occur after partial gastrectomy, and the patient may need to receive cobalamin via injections or nasal spray. Although peptic ulcer disease may recur, persistent heartburn is not expected after surgery, and the patient should call the health care provider if this occurs. Ingestion of liquids with meals is avoided to prevent dumping syndrome. Foods that have moderate fat and low carbohydrate should be chosen to prevent dumping syndrome.
A 40-yr-old obese woman reports that she wants to lose weight. Which question should the nurse ask first? a. "What factors led to your obesity?" b. "Which types of food do you like best?" c. "How long have you been overweight?" d. "What physical activities do you enjoy?"
Answer: "What factors led to your obesity?" Rationale: The nurse should obtain information about the patient's perceptions of the reasons for the obesity to develop a plan individualized to the patient. The other information also will be obtained from the patient, but the patient is more likely to make changes when the patient's beliefs are considered in planning.
Which statement by the nurse is most likely to help a 22-yr-old patient with extreme obesity in losing weight on a 1000-calorie diet? a. "It will be necessary to change lifestyle habits permanently to maintain weight loss." b. "You are likely to notice changes in how you feel after a few weeks of diet and exercise." c. "You will decrease your risk for future health problems such as diabetes by losing weight now." d. "Most of the weight that you lose during the first weeks of dieting is water weight rather than fat."
Answer: "You are likely to notice changes in how you feel after a few weeks of diet and exercise." Rationale: Motivation is a key factor in successful weight loss and a short-term outcome provides a higher motivation. Future health problems are unlikely to motivate a 22-yr-old patient. Telling a patient that the initial weight loss is water will be discouraging, although this may be correct. Changing lifestyle habits is necessary, but this process occurs over time, and discussing this is not likely to motivate the patient.
After the nurse teaches a patient about the recommended amounts of foods from animal and plant sources, which menu selections indicate that the initial instructions about diet have been understood? a. 3 oz of lean beef, 2 oz of low-fat cheese, and a sliced tomato b. 3 oz of roasted pork, a cup of broccoli, and a cup of carrot sticks c. Cup of tossed salad and nonfat dressing topped with a chicken breast d. Half cup of tuna mixed with nonfat mayonnaise and a half cup of celery
Answer: 3 oz of roasted pork, a cup of broccoli, and a cup of carrot sticks Rationale: This selection is most consistent with the recommendation of the American Institute for Cancer Research that one third of the diet should be from animal sources and two thirds from plant source foods. The other choices all have higher ratios of animal origin foods to plant source foods than would be recommended.
A healthy adult woman who weighs 145 lb (66 kg) asks the clinic nurse about the minimum daily requirement for protein. How many grams of protein will the nurse recommend? a. 53 b. 66 c. 79 d. 98
Answer: 53 Rationale: The recommended daily protein intake is 0.8 to 1 g/kg of body weight. Therefore, the minimum for this patient is 66 kg × 0.8 g = 52.8 or 53 g/day.
After change-of-shift report, which patient will the nurse assess first? a. A 40-yr-old woman whose parenteral nutrition infusion bag has 30 minutes of solution left b. A 40-yr-old man with continuous enteral feedings who has developed pulmonary crackles c. A 30-yr-old man with 4+ generalized pitting edema and severe protein-calorie malnutrition d. A 30-yr-old woman whose gastrostomy tube is plugged after crushed medications were administered
Answer: A 40-yr-old man with continuous enteral feedings who has developed pulmonary crackles Rationale: The patient data suggest aspiration may have occurred, and rapid assessment and intervention are needed. The other patients should also be assessed soon, but the data about them do not
Which patient should the nurse assess first after receiving change-of-shift report? a. A patient with esophageal varices who has a rapid heart rate b. A patient with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding who has melena c. A patient with nausea who has a dose of metoclopramide (Reglan) due d. A patient who is crying after receiving a diagnosis of esophageal cancer
Answer: A patient with esophageal varices who has a rapid heart rate Rationale: A patient with esophageal varices and a rapid heart rate indicate possible hemodynamic instability caused by GI bleeding. The other patients do not indicate acutely life-threatening complications.
Which prescribed action will the nurse implement first for a patient who has vomited 1100 mL of blood? a. Give an IV H2 receptor antagonist. b. Draw blood for type and crossmatch. c. Administer 1 L of lactated Ringer's solution. d. Insert a nasogastric (NG) tube and connect to suction.
Answer: Administer 1 L of lactated Ringer's solution Rationale:Because the patient has vomited a large amount of blood, correction of hypovolemia and prevention of hypovolemic shock are the priorities. The other actions also are important to implement quickly but are not the highest priorities.
An adult with E. coli O157:H7 food poisoning is admitted to the hospital with bloody diarrhea and dehydration. Which prescribed action will the nurse question? a. Infuse lactated Ringer's solution at 250 mL/hr. b. Monitor blood urea nitrogen and creatinine daily. c. Administer loperamide (Imodium) after each stool. d. Provide a clear liquid diet and progress diet as tolerated.
Answer: Administer loperamide (Imodium) after each stool. Rationale: Use of antidiarrheal agents is avoided with this type of food poisoning. IV fluids, clear oral fluids, and monitoring renal function are appropriate for dehydration.
A 53-yr-old male patient with deep partial-thickness burns from a chemical spill in the workplace has severe pain followed by nausea during dressing changes. Which action will be most useful in decreasing the patient's nausea? a. Keep the patient NPO for 2 hours before dressing changes. b. Give the prescribed prochlorperazine before dressing changes. c. Administer prescribed morphine sulfate before dressing changes. d. Avoid performing dressing changes close to the patient's mealtimes.
Answer: Administer prescribed morphine sulfate before dressing changes Rationale: Because the patient's nausea is associated with severe pain, it is likely that it is precipitated by stress and pain. The best treatment will be to provide adequate pain medication before dressing changes. The nurse should avoid doing painful procedures close to mealtimes, but nausea or vomiting that occurs at other times also should be addressed. Keeping the patient NPO does not address the reason for the nausea and vomiting and will have an adverse effect on the patient's nutrition. Administration of antiemetics is not the best choice for a patient with nausea caused by pain. However, an antiemetic may be added later if the nausea persists despite pain management.
2. An older patient reports chronic constipation. To promote bowel evacuation, when should the nurse suggest that the patient attempt defecation? a. In the mid-afternoon b. After eating breakfast c. Right after awakening in the morning d. Immediately before the first daily meal
Answer: After eating breakfast Rationale: The gastrocolic reflex is most active after the first daily meal. Awakening, the anticipation of eating, and mid-afternoon timing do not stimulate these reflexes.
A patient has peptic ulcer disease that has been associated with Helicobacter pylori. About which medications will the nurse plan to teach the patient? a. Sucralfate (Carafate), nystatin, and bismuth (Pepto-Bismol) b. Metoclopramide (Reglan), bethanechol (Urecholine), and promethazine c. Amoxicillin (Amoxil), clarithromycin (Biaxin), and omeprazole (Prilosec) d. Famotidine (Pepcid), magnesium hydroxide (Mylanta), and pantoprazole (Protonix)
Answer: Amoxicillin (Amoxil), clarithromycin (Biaxin), and omeprazole (Prilosec) Rationale: The drugs used in triple drug therapy include a proton pump inhibitor such as omeprazole and the antibiotics amoxicillin and clarithromycin. The other combinations listed are not included in the protocol for H. pylori infection.
The health care provider prescribes antacids and sucralfate (Carafate) for treatment of a patient's peptic ulcer. What should the nurse teach the patient to take? a. Sucralfate at bedtime and antacids before each meal b. Sucralfate and antacids together 30 minutes before meals c. Antacids 30 minutes before each dose of sucralfate is taken d. Antacids after meals and sucralfate 30 minutes before meals
Answer: Antacids after meals and sucralfate 30 minutes before meals Rationale: Sucralfate is most effective when the pH is low and should not be given with or soon after antacids. Antacids are most effective when taken after eating. Administration of sucralfate 30 minutes before eating and antacids just after eating will ensure that both drugs can be most effective. The other regimens will decrease the effectiveness of the medications.
To evaluate an obese patient for adverse effects of lorcaserin (Belviq), which action will the nurse take? a. Take the apical pulse rate. b. Check sclera for jaundice. c. Ask about bowel movements. d. Assess for agitation or restlessness.
Answer: Ask about bowel movements Rationale: Constipation is a common side effect of lorcaserin. The other assessments would be appropriate for other weight-loss medications.
A 60-yr-old man who is hospitalized with an abdominal wound infection has been eating very little and states, "Nothing on the menu sounds good." Which action by the nurse will be most effective in improving the patient's oral intake? a. Order six small meals daily. b. Make a referral to the dietitian. c. Teach the patient about high-calorie foods. d. Ask family members to bring favorite foods.
Answer: Ask family members to bring favorite foods. Rationale: The patient's statement that the hospital foods are unappealing indicates that favorite home-cooked foods might improve intake. The other interventions may also help improve the patient's intake, but the most effective action will be to offer the patient more appealing foods.
A severely malnourished patient reports that he is Jewish. What initial action should the nurse take to meet his nutritional needs? a. Have family members bring in food. b. Ask the patient about food preferences. c. Teach the patient about nutritious Kosher foods. d. Order supplements that are manufactured Kosher.
Answer: Ask the patient about food preferences Rationale: The nurse's first action should be further assessment whether or not the patient follows any specific religious guidelines that impact nutrition. The other actions may also be appropriate, based on the information obtained during the assessment.
After successfully losing a pound per week for several months, a patient at the clinic has not lost any weight for the past month. What action should the nurse take first? a. Review the diet and exercise guidelines with the patient. b. Instruct the patient to weigh and record weights weekly. c. Ask the patient whether there have been any changes in exercise or diet patterns. d. Discuss the possibility that the patient has reached a temporary weight loss plateau.
Answer: Ask the patient whether there have been any changes in exercise or diet patterns Rationale: The initial nursing action should be assessment of any reason for the change in weight loss. The other actions may be needed, but further assessment is required before any interventions are planned or implemented.
Which nursing action is appropriate when coaching obese adults enrolled in a behavior modification program? a. Having the adults write down the caloric intake of each meal b. Asking the adults about situations that tend to increase appetite c. Suggesting that the adults plan rewards, such as sugarless candy, for achieving their goals d. Encouraging the adults to eat small amounts frequently rather than having
Answer: Asking the adults about situations that tend to increase appetite Rationale: Behavior modification programs focus on how and when the person eats and de-emphasize aspects such as calorie counting. Nonfood rewards are recommended for achievement of weight-loss goals. Patients are often taught to restrict eating to designated meals when using behavior modification.
A young adult has been admitted to the emergency department with nausea and vomiting. Which action could the RN delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Auscultate the bowel sounds. b. Assess for signs of dehydration. c. Assist the patient with oral care. d. Ask the patient about the nausea.
Answer: Assist the patient with oral care Rationale: Oral care is included in UAP education and scope of practice. The other actions are all assessments that require more education and a higher scope of nursing practice.
A patient is being admitted for bariatric surgery. Which nursing action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Demonstrate use of the incentive spirometer. b. Plan methods for turning the patient after surgery. c. Assist with IV insertion by holding adipose tissue out of the way. d. Develop strategies to provide privacy and decrease embarrassment.
Answer: Assist with IV insertion by holding adipose tissue out of the way. Rationale: UAP can assist with IV placement by assisting with patient positioning or holding skinfolds aside. Planning for care and patient teaching require registered nurse (RN)-level education and scope of practice.
Which information will the nurse include when teaching adults to decrease the risk for cancers of the tongue and buccal mucosa? a. Use sunscreen even on cloudy days. b. Avoid cigarettes and smokeless tobacco. c. Complete antibiotic courses used to treat throat infections. d. Use antivirals to treat herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections.
Answer: Avoid cigarettes and smokeless tobacco Rationale: Tobacco use greatly increases the risk for oral cancer. Acute throat infections do not increase the risk for oral cancer, although chronic irritation of the oral mucosa does increase risk. Sun exposure does not increase the risk for cancers of the buccal mucosa. Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection is associated with an increased risk, but HSV infection is not a risk factor for oral cancer.
When teaching a patient about testing to diagnose metabolic syndrome, which topic would the nurse include? a. Blood glucose test b. Cardiac enzyme tests c. Postural blood pressures d. Resting electrocardiogram
Answer: Blood glucose test Rationale: A fasting blood glucose result greater than 100 mg/dL is one of the diagnostic criteria for metabolic syndrome. The other tests are not used to diagnose metabolic syndrome, but they may be used to check for cardiovascular complications of the disorder.
A 68-yr-old male patient with a stroke is unconscious and unresponsive to stimuli. After learning that the patient has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), what should the nurse plan to assess more frequently than is routine? a. Apical pulse b. Bowel sounds c. Breath sounds d. Abdominal girth
Answer: Breath sounds Rationale: Because GERD may cause aspiration, the unconscious patient is at risk for developing aspiration pneumonia. Bowel sounds, abdominal girth, and apical pulse will not be affected by the patient's stroke or GERD and do not require more frequent monitoring than the routine.
Which assessment action will help the nurse determine if an obese patient has metabolic syndrome? a. Take the patient's apical pulse. b. Check the patient's blood pressure. c. Ask the patient about dietary intake. d. Dipstick the patient's urine for protein.
Answer: Check the patient's blood pressure Rationale: Elevated blood pressure is one of the characteristics of metabolic syndrome. The other information will not assist with the diagnosis of metabolic syndrome.
A patient admitted with a peptic ulcer has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place. When the patient develops sudden, severe upper abdominal pain, diaphoresis, and a firm abdomen, which action should the nurse take? a. Irrigate the NG tube. b. Check the vital signs. c. Give the ordered antacid. d. Elevate the foot of the bed.
Answer: Check the vital signs Rationale: The patient's symptoms suggest acute perforation, and the nurse should assess for signs of hypovolemic shock. Irrigation of the NG tube, administration of antacids, or both would be contraindicated because any material in the stomach will increase the spillage into the peritoneal cavity. Elevating the foot of the bed may increase abdominal pressure and discomfort, as well as making it more difficult for the patient to breathe.
Which patient choice for a snack 3 hours before bedtime indicates that the nurse's teaching about gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has been effective? a. Chocolate pudding b. Glass of low-fat milk c. Cherry gelatin with fruit d. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich
Answer: Cherry gelatin with fruit Rationale: Gelatin and fruit are low fat and will not decrease lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure. Foods such as chocolate are avoided because they lower LES pressure. Milk products increase gastric acid secretion. High-fat foods such as peanut butter decrease both gastric emptying and LES pressure.
What condition should the nurse anticipate when caring for a patient with a history of a total gastrectomy? a. Constipation b. Dehydration c. Elevated total serum cholesterol d. Cobalamin (vitamin B12) deficiency
Answer: Cobalamin Rationale: The patient with a total gastrectomy does not secrete intrinsic factor, which is needed for cobalamin (vitamin B12) absorption. Because the stomach absorbs only small amounts of water and nutrients, the patient is not at higher risk for dehydration, elevated cholesterol, or constipation.
A patient who underwent a gastroduodenostomy (Billroth I) 12 hours ago reports increasing abdominal pain. The patient has no bowel sounds and 200 mL of bright red nasogastric (NG) drainage in the past hour. What is the highest priority action by the nurse? a. Monitor drainage. b. Contact the surgeon. c. Irrigate the NG tube. d. Give prescribed morphine.
Answer: Contact the surgeon Rationale: Increased pain and 200 mL of bright red NG drainage 12 hours after surgery indicate possible postoperative hemorrhage, and immediate actions such as blood transfusion or return to surgery are needed (or both). Because the NG is draining, there is no indication that irrigation is needed. Continuing to monitor the NG drainage is not an adequate response. The patient may need morphine, but this is not the highest priority action.
The nurse is preparing to teach a frail 79-yr-old Hispanic man who lives with an adult daughter about ways to improve nutrition. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Ask the daughter about the patient's food preferences. b. Determine who shops for groceries and prepares the meals. c. Question the patient about how many meals per day are eaten. d. Assure the patient that culturally preferred foods will be included.
Answer: Determine who shops for groceries and prepares the meals Rationale: The family member who shops for groceries and cooks will be in control of the patient's diet, so the nurse will need to ensure that this family member is involved in any teaching or discussion about the patient's nutritional needs. The other information will also be assessed and used but will not be useful in meeting the patient's nutritional needs unless nutritionally appropriate foods are purchased and prepared.
Which item should the nurse offer to the patient restarting oral intake after being NPO due to nausea and vomiting? a. Glass of orange juice b.Dish of lemon gelatin c. Cup of coffee with cream d. Bowl of hot chicken broth
Answer: Dish of lemon gelatin Rationale: Clear cool liquids are usually the first foods started after a patient has been nauseated. Acidic foods such as orange juice, very hot foods, and coffee are poorly tolerated when patients have been nauseated.
The nurse will be teaching self-management to patients after gastric bypass surgery. Which information will the nurse plan to include? a. Drink fluids between meals but not with meals. b. Choose high-fat foods for at least 30% of intake. c. Developing flabby skin can be prevented by exercise. d. Choose foods high in fiber to promote bowel function.
Answer: Drink fluids between meals but not with meals. Rationale: Intake of fluids with meals tends to cause dumping syndrome and diarrhea. Food choices should be low in fat and fiber. Exercise does not prevent the development of flabby skin.
Which nursing action should be included in the postoperative plan of care for a patient after a laparoscopic esophagectomy? a. Reposition the NG tube if drainage stops. b. Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees. c. Start oral fluids when the patient has active bowel sounds. d. Notify the doctor for any bloody nasogastric (NG) drainage.
Answer: Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees Rationale: Elevation of the head of the bed decreases the risk for reflux and aspiration of gastric secretions. The NG tube should not be repositioned without consulting with the health care provider. Bloody NG drainage is expected for the first 8 to 12 hours. A swallowing study is needed before oral fluids are started
The nurse is caring for a patient on the first postoperative day after a Roux-en-Y gastric bypass procedure. Which assessment finding should be reported immediately to the provider? a. Bilateral crackles audible at both lung bases b. Redness, irritation, and skin breakdown in skinfolds c. Emesis of bile-colored fluid past the nasogastric (NG) tube d. Use of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) several times an hour for pain
Answer: Emesis of bile-colored fluid past the nasogastric (NG) tube Rationale: Vomiting with an NG tube in place indicates that the NG tube needs to be repositioned by the provider to avoid putting stress on the gastric sutures. The nurse should implement actions to decrease skin irritation and have the patient cough and deep breathe, but these do not indicate a need for rapid notification of the provider. Frequent PCA use after bariatric surgery is expected.
What diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate for an older patient who is vomiting "coffee-ground" emesis? a. Endoscopy b. Angiography c. Barium studies d. Gastric analysis
Answer: Endoscopy Rationale: Endoscopy is the primary tool for visualization and diagnosis of upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. Angiography is used only when endoscopy cannot be done because it is more invasive and has more possible complications. Barium studies are helpful in determining the presence of gastric lesions, but not whether the lesions are actively bleeding. Gastric analysis testing may help with determining the cause of gastric irritation, but it is not used for acute GI bleeding.
A young adult with extensive facial injuries from a motor vehicle crash is receiving continuous enteral nutrition through a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG). Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Keep the patient positioned lying on the left side. b. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water every 4 hours. c. Crush and mix medications in with the feeding formula. d. Obtain a daily abdominal radiograph to verify tube placement.
Answer: Flush the tube with 30 mL of water every 4 hours Rationale: The tube is flushed every 4 hours during continuous feedings to avoid tube obstruction. The patient should be positioned with the head of the bed elevated. Crushed medications mixed in with the formula are likely to clog the tube. An x-ray is obtained immediately after placement of the PEG tube to check position, but daily x-rays are not needed.
Which menu choice best indicates that the patient is implementing the nurse's suggestion to choose high-calorie, high-protein foods? a. Baked fish with applesauce b. Beef noodle soup and canned corn c. Fresh fruit salad with yogurt topping d. Fried chicken with potatoes and gravy
Answer: Fried chicken with potatoes and gravy Rationale: Foods that are high in calories include fried foods and those covered with sauces. High-protein foods include meat and dairy products. The other choices are lower in calories and protein.
A malnourished patient is receiving a parenteral nutrition (PN) infusion containing amino acids and dextrose from a bag that was hung with a new tubing and filter 24 hours ago. The nurse observes that about 50 mL remain in the PN container. Which action should the nurse take? a. Add a new container of PN using the current tubing and filter. b. Hang a new container of PN and change the IV tubing and filter. c. Infuse the remaining 50 mL and then hang a new container of PN. d. Ask the health care provider to clarify the written PN prescription.
Answer: Hang a new container of PN and change the IV tubing and filter Rationale: All PN solutions and tubings are changed at 24 hours. Infusion of the additional 50 mL will increase patient risk for infection. The nurse (not the health care provider) is responsible for knowing the indicated times for tubing and filter changes.
A patient's peripheral parenteral nutrition (PN) bag is nearly empty, and a new PN bag has not arrived yet from the pharmacy. Which intervention by the nurse is appropriate? a. Monitor the patient's capillary blood glucose every 6 hours. b. Infuse 5% dextrose in water until a new PN bag is delivered. c. Decrease the PN infusion rate to 10 mL/hr until a new bag arrives. d. Flush the peripheral line with saline until a new PN bag is available.
Answer: Infuse 5 % dextrose in water until a new PN bag is delivered
A 49-yr-old man has been admitted with hypotension and dehydration after 3 days of nausea and vomiting. Which prescribed action will the nurse implement first? a. Insert a nasogastric (NG) tube. b. Infuse normal saline at 250 mL/hr. c. Administer IV ondansetron (Zofran). d. Provide oral care with moistened swabs.
Answer: Infuse normal saline at 250 mL/hr Rationale: Because the patient has severe dehydration, rehydration with IV fluids is the priority. The other orders should be accomplished after the IV fluids are initiated.
What action should the nurse take when caring for a patient with a soft, silicone nasogastric tube in place for enteral nutrition? a. Avoid giving medications through the feeding tube. b. Keep head of bed elevated to 30- to 45-degree angle. c. Replace the tube every 3 days to avoid mucosal damage. d. Administer medications mixed with enteral feeding formula.
Answer: Keep head of bed elevated to 30- to 45-degree angle. Rationale: Elevate the head of the bed to decrease the risk of aspiration. The tubes are less likely to cause mucosal damage than the stiffer polyvinyl chloride tubes used for nasogastric suction and do not need to be replaced at certain intervals. Medications can be given through these tubes but flushing after medication administration is important to avoid clogging. Do not mix medications with formula, as the combination can clog the tube.
At his first postoperative checkup appointment after a gastrojejunostomy (Billroth II), a patient reports that dizziness, weakness, and palpitations occur about 20 minutes after each meal. What should the nurse teach the patient to do? a. Increase the amount of fluid with meals. b. Eat foods that are higher in carbohydrates. c. Lie down for about 30 minutes after eating. d. Drink sugared fluids or eat candy after meals.
Answer: Lie down for about 30 minutes after eating. Rationale: The patient is experiencing symptoms of dumping syndrome, which may be reduced by lying down after eating. Increasing fluid intake and choosing high carbohydrate foods will increase the risk for dumping syndrome. Having a sweet drink or hard candy will correct the hypoglycemia that is associated with dumping syndrome but will not prevent dumping syndrome.
An adult with a body mass index (BMI) of 22 kg/m2is being admitted to the hospital for elective knee surgery. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the health care provider? a. Tympany on percussion of the abdomen b. Liver edge 3 cm below the costal margin c. Bowel sounds of 20/min in each quadrant d. Aortic pulsations visible in the epigastric area
Answer: Liver edge 3 cm below the costal margin Rationale:Normally the lower border of the liver is not palpable below the ribs, so this finding suggests hepatomegaly. Visible aortic pulsations in the epigastrium, active bowel sounds, and abdominal tympany are within normal findings for an adult of normal weight.
What information will the nurse include in teaching for a 35-yr-old woman who is overweight and starting a weight-loss plan? a. Weigh yourself at the same time every morning and evening. b. Stick to a 600- to 800-calorie diet for the most rapid weight loss. c. Low carbohydrate diets lead to rapid weight loss but are difficult to maintain. d. Weighing all foods on a scale is necessary to choose appropriate portion sizes.
Answer: Low carbohydrate diets lead to rapid weight loss but are difficult to maintain Rationale: The restrictive nature of fad diets makes the weight loss achieved by the patient more difficult to maintain. Portion size can be estimated in other ways besides weighing. Severely calorie-restricted diets are not necessary for patients in the overweight category and need to be closely supervised. Patients should weigh weekly rather than daily.
Which adult should the nurse plan to teach about risks associated with obesity? a. Man who has a BMI of 18 kg/m2 b. Man with a 42 in waist and 44 in hips c. Woman who has a body mass index (BMI) of 24 kg/m2 d. Woman with a waist circumference of 34 inches (86 cm)
Answer: Man with a 42 in waist and 44 in hips Rationale: The waist-to-hip ratio for this patient is 0.95, which exceeds the recommended level of less than 0.80. A patient with a BMI of 18 kg/m2 is considered underweight. A BMI of 24 kg/m2is normal. Health risks associated with obesity increase in women with a waist circumference larger than 35 in (89 cm) and men with a waist circumference larger than 40 in (102 cm)
A patient who takes a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) daily for the management of severe rheumatoid arthritis has recently developed melena. What should the nurse anticipate teaching the patient? a. Substitution of acetaminophen (Tylenol) for the NSAID b. Use of enteric-coated NSAIDs to reduce gastric irritation c. Reasons for using corticosteroids to treat the rheumatoid arthritis d. Misoprostol (Cytotec) to protect the gastrointestinal (GI) mucosa
Answer: Misoprostol (Cytotec) to protect the gastrointestinal (GI) mucosa Rationale: Misoprostol, a prostaglandin analog, reduces acid secretion and the incidence of upper GI bleeding associated with NSAID use. Enteric coating of NSAIDs does not reduce the risk for GI bleeding. Corticosteroids increase the risk for ulcer development and will not be substituted for NSAIDs for this patient. Acetaminophen will not be effective in treating rheumatoid arthritis.
A woman receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer develops a Candida albicans oral infection. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate? a. Nystatin tablets b. Antiviral agents c. Referral to a dentist d. Hydrogen peroxide rinses
Answer: Nystatin tablets Rationale: C. albicans infections are treated with an antifungal such as nystatin. Peroxide rinses would be painful. Oral saltwater rinses may be used but will not cure the infection. Antiviral agents are used for viral infections such as herpes simplex. Referral to a dentist is indicated for gingivitis but not for Candida infection.
Which action should the nurse in the emergency department anticipate for a young adult patient who has had several acute episodes of bloody diarrhea? a. Obtain a stool specimen for culture. b. Administer antidiarrheal medication. c. Provide teaching about antibiotic therapy. d. Teach the adverse effects of acetaminophen (Tylenol)..
Answer: Obtain stool specimen for culture Rationale: Patients with bloody diarrhea should have a stool culture for Escherichia coli O157:H7. Antidiarrheal medications are usually avoided for possible infectious diarrhea to avoid prolonging the infection. Antibiotic therapy in the treatment of infectious diarrhea is controversial because it may precipitate kidney complications. Acetaminophen does not cause bloody diarrhea.
A 73-yr-old patient is diagnosed with stomach cancer after an unintended 20-lb weight loss. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Refer the patient for hospice services. b. Infuse IV fluids through a central line. c. Teach the patient about antiemetic therapy. d. Offer supplemental feedings between meals.
Answer: Offer supplemental feedings between meals. Rationale: The patient data indicate a poor nutritional state and improvement in nutrition will be helpful in improving the response to therapies such as surgery, chemotherapy, or radiation. Nausea and vomiting are not common clinical manifestations of stomach cancer. There is no indication that the patient requires hospice or IV fluid infusions.
The nurse is planning care for a patient who is chronically malnourished. Which action is appropriate for the nurse to delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Assist the patient to choose high-nutrition items from the menu. b. Monitor the patient for skin breakdown over the bony prominences. c. Offer the patient the prescribed nutritional supplement between meals. d. Assess the patient's strength while ambulating the patient in the room.
Answer: Offer the patient the prescribed nutritional supplement between meals Rationale: Feeding the patient and assisting with oral intake are included in UAP education and scope of practice. Assessing the patient and assisting the patient in choosing high-nutrition foods require licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/VN)—or registered nurse (RN) —level education and scope of practice.
A 58-yr-old patient has just returned to the nursing unit after an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). Which action by unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) requires that the registered nurse (RN) intervene? a. Offering the patient a pitcher of water b. Positioning the patient on the right side c. Checking the vital signs every 30 minutes d. Swabbing the patient's mouth with a wet cloth
Answer: Offering the patient a pitcher of water Rationale: Immediately after EGD, the patient will have a decreased gag reflex and is at risk for aspiration. Assessment for return of the gag reflex should be done by the RN. The other actions by the UAP are appropriate.
Which finding for a young adult who follows a vegan diet may indicate the need for cobalamin supplementation? a. Paresthesias b. Ecchymoses c. Dry, scaly skin d. Gingival swelling
Answer: Paresthesias Rationale: Cobalamin (vitamin B12) cannot be obtained from foods of plant origin, so the patient will be most at risk for signs of cobalamin deficiency, such as paresthesias, peripheral neuropathy, and anemia. The other symptoms listed are associated with other nutritional deficiencies but would not be associated with a vegan diet.
A 76-yr-old woman with a body mass index (BMI) of 17 kg/m2and a low serum albumin level is being admitted. Which assessment finding will the nurse expect? a. Restlessness b. Hypertension c. Pitting edema d. Food allergies
Answer: Pitting edema Rationale: Edema occurs when serum albumin levels and plasma oncotic pressure decrease. The blood pressure and level of consciousness are not directly affected by malnutrition. Food allergies are not an indicator of nutritional status.
Which is the correct technique for the nurse to palpate the liver during a head-to-toe physical assessment? a. Place one hand on top of the other and use the upper fingers to apply pressure and the bottom fingers to feel for the liver edge. b. Place one hand on the patient's back and press upward and inward with the other hand below the patient's right costal margin. c. Press slowly and firmly over the right costal margin with one hand and withdraw the fingers quickly after the liver edge is felt. d. Place one hand under the patient's lower ribs and press the left lower rib cage forward, palpating below the costal margin with the other hand.
Answer: Place one hand on the patient's back and press upward and inward with the other hand below the patient's right costal margin. Rationale: The liver is normally not palpable below the costal margin. The nurse needs to push inward below the right costal margin while lifting the patient's back slightly with the left hand. The other methods will not allow palpation of the liver.
A patient is being scheduled for endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) as soon as possible. Which prescribed action should the nurse take first? a. Place the patient on NPO status. b. Administer sedative medications. c. Ensure the consent form is signed. d. Teach the patient about the procedure.
Answer: Place the patient on NPO status. Rationale: The patient will need to be NPO for 8 hours before the ERCP is done, so the nurse's initial action should be to place the patient on NPO status. The other actions can be done after the patient is NPO.
What action should the nurse take after assisting with a needle biopsy of the liver at a patient's bedside? a. Elevate the head of the bed to facilitate breathing. b. Place the patient on the right side with the bed flat. c. Check the patient's postbiopsy coagulation studies. d. Position a sandbag over the liver to provide pressure.
Answer: Place the patient on the right side with the bed flat Rationale: After a biopsy, the patient lies on the right side with the bed flat to splint the biopsy site. Coagulation studies are checked before the biopsy. A sandbag does not exert adequate pressure to splint the site.
What should the nurse anticipate teaching a patient with a new report of heartburn? a. A barium swallow b. Radionuclide tests c. Endoscopy procedures d. Proton pump inhibitors
Answer: Proton pump inhibitors Rationale: Because diagnostic testing for heartburn that is probably caused by gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is expensive and uncomfortable, proton pump inhibitors are frequently used for a short period as the first step in the diagnosis of GERD. The other tests may be used but are not usually the first step in diagnosis.
Which action for a patient receiving enteral nutrition through a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) may be delegated to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/VN)? a. Assessing the patient's nutritional status weekly b. Providing skin care to the area around the tube site c. Teaching the patient how to administer the feedings d. Determining the need for adding water to the feedings
Answer: Providing skin care to the area around the tube site Rationale: LPN/VN education and scope of practice include actions such as dressing changes and wound care. Patient teaching and complex assessments (such as patient nutrition and hydration status) require registered nurse (RN)-level education and scope of practice.
A patient's capillary blood glucose level is 120 mg/dL 6 hours after the nurse initiated a parenteral nutrition (PN) infusion. What is the appropriate action by the nurse? a. Obtain a venous blood glucose specimen. b. Slow the infusion rate of the PN infusion. c. Recheck the capillary blood glucose level in 4 to 6 hours. d. Contact the health care provider for infusion rate changes.
Answer: Recheck the capillary blood glucose level in 4 to 6 hours Rationale: Mild hyperglycemia is expected during the first few days after PN is started and requires ongoing monitoring. Because the glucose elevation is small and expected, infusion rate changes are not needed. There is no need to obtain a venous specimen for comparison. Slowing the rate of the infusion is beyond the nurse's scope of practice and will decrease the patient's nutritional intake.
Which finding in the mouth of a patient who uses smokeless tobacco is suggestive of oral cancer? a. Bleeding during tooth brushing b. Painful blisters at the lip border c. Red patches on the buccal mucosa d. Curdlike plaques on the posterior tongue
Answer: Red patches on the buccal mucosa Rationale: A red, velvety patch suggests erythroplasia, which has a high incidence (>50%) of progression to squamous cell carcinoma. The other lesions are suggestive of acute processes (e.g., gingivitis, oral candidiasis, herpes simplex).
While interviewing a young adult patient, the nurse learns that the patient has a family history of familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). What area of patient knowledge should the nurse plan to assess? a. Preventing noninfectious hepatitis b. Treating inflammatory bowel disease c. Risk for developing colorectal cancer d. Using antacids and proton pump inhibitors
Answer: Risk for developing colorectal cancer Rationale: FAP is a genetic condition that greatly increases the risk for colorectal cancer. Noninfectious hepatitis, use of medications that treat increased gastric pH, and inflammatory bowel disease are not related to FAP.
A 19-yr-old woman admitted with anorexia nervosa is 5 ft, 6 in (163 cm) tall and weighs 88 lb (41 kg). Laboratory tests reveal hypokalemia and iron-deficiency anemia. Which patient problem has the highest priority? a. Difficulty coping b. Disturbed body image c. Impaired nutritional status d. Risk for electrolyte imbalance
Answer: Risk for electrolyte imbalance Rationale: The patient's hypokalemia may lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. The other diagnoses are also appropriate for this patient but are not associated with immediate risk for fatal complications
A patient hospitalized with chronic heart failure eats only about 50% of each meal and reports "feeling too tired to eat." Which action should the nurse take first? a. Teach the patient about the importance of good nutrition. b. Serve multiple small feedings of high-calorie, high-protein foods. c. Consult with the health care provider about parenteral nutrition (PN). d. Obtain an order for enteral feedings of liquid nutritional supplements.
Answer: Serve multiple small feedings of high-calories, high-protein foods Rationale: Eating small amounts of food frequently throughout the day is less fatiguing and will improve the patient's ability to take in more nutrients. Teaching the patient may be appropriate but will not address the patient's inability to eat more because of fatigue. Enteral nutrition or PN may be needed if the patient is unable to take in enough nutrients orally but increasing the oral intake should be attempted first.
A patient is receiving continuous enteral nutrition through a small-bore silicone feeding tube. What should the nurse plan for when this patient has a computed tomography (CT) scan ordered? a. Ask the health care provider to reschedule the scan. b. Shut the feeding off 30 to 60 minutes before the scan. c. Connect the feeding tube to continuous suction before and during the scan. d. Send a suction catheter with the patient in case of aspiration during the scan.
Answer: Shut the feeding off 30 to 60 minutes before the scan Rationale: The feeding should be shut off 30 to 60 minutes before any procedure requiring the patient to lie flat. Because the CT scan is ordered for diagnosis of patient problems, rescheduling is not usually an option. Prevention, rather than treatment, of aspiration is needed. Small-bore feeding tubes are soft and collapse easily with aspiration or suction, making nasogastric suction of gastric contents unreliable.
A patient who has just been started on enteral nutrition of full-strength formula at 100 mL/hr has 6 liquid stools the first day. Which action should the nurse plan to take? a. Slow the infusion rate of the feeding. b. Check gastric residual volumes more often. c. Change the enteral feeding system and formula every 8 hours. d. Discontinue administration of water through the feeding tube.
Answer: Slow the infusion rate of the feeding Rationale: Loose stools indicate poor absorption of nutrients and indicate a need to slow the feeding rate or decrease the concentration of the feeding. Water should be given when patients receive enteral feedings to prevent dehydration. When a closed enteral feeding system is used, the NURSINGTB.COM tubing and formula are changed every 24 hours. High residual volumes do not contribute to diarrhea.
A patient with a family history of stomach cancer asks the nurse about ways to decrease the risk for developing stomach cancer. What should the nurse teach the patient to avoid? a. Emotionally stressful situations b. Smoked foods such as ham and bacon c. Foods that cause distention or bloating d. Chronic use of H2 blocking medications
Answer: Smoked foods such as ham and bacon Rationale: Smoked foods such as bacon, ham, and smoked sausage increase the risk for stomach cancer. Stressful situations, abdominal distention, and use of H2 blockers are not associated with an increased incidence of stomach cancer.
The nurse is caring for a patient with an obstructed common bile duct. What condition should the nurse expect? a. Melena b. Steatorrhea c. Decreased serum cholesterol level d. Increased serum indirect bilirubin level
Answer: Steatorrhea Rationale: A common bile duct obstruction will reduce the absorption of fat in the small intestine, leading to fatty stools. Gastrointestinal bleeding is not caused by common bile duct obstruction. Serum cholesterol levels are increased with biliary obstruction. Direct bilirubin level is increased with biliary obstruction.
A patient has just been admitted to the emergency department with nausea and vomiting. Which information requires the most rapid intervention by the nurse? a. The patient has been vomiting for 4 days. b. The patient takes antacids 8 to 10 times a day. c. The patient is lethargic and difficult to arouse. d. The patient has had a small intestinal resection.
Answer: The patient is lethargic and difficult to arouse Rationale: A lethargic patient is at risk for aspiration, and the nurse will need to position the patient to decrease aspiration risk. The other information is also important to collect, but it does not require as quick action as the risk for aspiration.
After sleeve gastrectomy, a 42-yr-old male patient returns to the surgical nursing unit with a nasogastric tube to low, intermittent suction and a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) machine for pain control. Which nursing action should be included in the postoperative plan of care? a. Offer sips of fruit juices at frequent intervals. b. Irrigate the nasogastric (NG) tube frequently. c. Remind the patient that PCA use may slow the return of bowel function. d. Support the surgical incision during patient coughing and turning in bed.
Answer: Support the surgical incision during patient coughing and turning in bed. Rationale: Protecting the incision from strain decreases the risk for wound dehiscence. The patient should be encouraged to use the PCA because pain control will improve the cough effort and patient mobility. NG irrigation may damage the suture line or overfill the stomach pouch. Sugar-free clear liquids are offered during the immediate postoperative time to decrease the risk for dumping syndrome.
After abdominal surgery, a patient with protein calorie malnutrition is receiving parenteral nutrition (PN). Which is the best indicator that the patient is receiving adequate nutrition? a. Serum albumin level is 3.5 mg/dL. b. Fluid intake and output are balanced. c. Surgical incision is healing normally. d. Blood glucose is less than 110 mg/dL.
Answer: Surgical incision is healing normally. Rationale: Because poor wound healing is a possible complication of malnutrition for this patient, normal healing of the incision is an indicator of the effectiveness of the PN in providing adequate nutrition. Blood glucose is monitored to prevent the complications of hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, but it does not indicate that the patient's nutrition is adequate. The intake and output will be monitored, but do not indicate that the PN is effective. The albumin level is in the low-normal range but does not reflect adequate caloric intake, which is also important for the patient.
Which assessment should the nurse perform first for a patient who just vomited bright red blood? a. Measuring the quantity of emesis b. Palpating the abdomen for distention c. Auscultating the chest for breath sounds d. Taking the blood pressure (BP) and pulse
Answer: Taking the blood pressure (BP) and pulse Rationale: The nurse is concerned about blood loss and possible hypovolemic shock in a patient with acute gastrointestinal bleeding. BP and pulse are the best indicators of these complications. The other information is important to obtain, but BP and pulse rate are the best indicators for assessing intravascular volume.
Which information will the nurse prioritize in planning preoperative teaching for a patient undergoing a Roux-en-Y gastric bypass? a. Educating the patient about the nasogastric (NG) tube b. Teaching the patient on coughing and breathing techniques c. Discussing necessary postoperative modifications in lifestyle d. Demonstrating passive range-of-motion exercises for the legs
Answer: Teaching the patient on coughing and breathing techniques Rationale: Coughing and deep breathing can prevent major postoperative complications such as carbon monoxide retention and hypoxemia. Information about passive range of motion, the NG tube, and postoperative modifications in lifestyle will also be discussed, but avoidance of respiratory complications is the priority goal after surgery.
The nurse is assessing a patient who had a total gastrectomy 8 hours ago. What information is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Hemoglobin (Hgb) 10.8 g/dL b. Temperature 102.1° F (38.9° C) c. Absent bowel sounds in all quadrants d. Scant nasogastric (NG) tube drainage
Answer: Temperature 102.1° F (38.9° C) Rationale: An elevation in temperature may indicate leakage at the anastomosis, which may require return to surgery or keeping the patient NPO. The other findings are expected in the immediate postoperative period for patients who have this surgery and do not require any urgent action.
A patient has just arrived in the recovery area after an upper endoscopy. Which information collected by the nurse is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient is very drowsy. b. The patient reports a sore throat. c. The oral temperature is 101.4° F. d. The apical pulse is 100 beats/min.
Answer: The oral temperature is 101.4° F. Rationale: A temperature elevation may indicate that an acute perforation has occurred. The other assessment data are normal immediately after the procedure.
A patient is admitted to the outpatient testing area for an ultrasound of the gallbladder. Which information obtained by the nurse indicates that the ultrasound may need to be rescheduled? a. The patient took a laxative the previous evening. b. The patient had a high-fat meal the previous evening. c. The patient has a permanent gastrostomy tube in place. d. The patient ate a low-fat bagel 4 hours ago for breakfast.
Answer: The patient ate a low-fat bagel 4 hours ago for breakfast Rationale: Food intake can cause the gallbladder to contract and result in a suboptimal study. The patient should be NPO for 8 to 12 hours before the test. A high-fat meal the previous evening, laxative use, or a gastrostomy tube will not affect the results of the study.
The nurse receives the following information about a patient who is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which information should be communicated to the health care provider before sending the patient for the procedure? a. The patient declined to drink the prescribed laxative solution. b. The patient has had an allergic reaction to shellfish and iodine. c. The patient has a permanent pacemaker to prevent bradycardia. d. The patient is worried about discomfort during the examination.
Answer: The patient declined to drink the prescribed laxative solution. Rationale: If the patient has had inadequate bowel preparation, the colon cannot be visualized and the procedure would be rescheduled. Because contrast solution is not used during colonoscopy, the iodine allergy is not pertinent. A pacemaker is a contraindication to magnetic resonance imaging but not to colonoscopy. The nurse should instruct the patient about the sedation used during the examination to decrease the patient's anxiety about discomfort.
A patient returned from a laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication for hiatal hernia 4 hours ago. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to address immediately? a. The patient reports 7/10 (0 to 10 scale) abdominal pain. b. The patient is experiencing intermittent waves of nausea. c. The patient has no breath sounds in the left anterior chest. d. The patient has hypoactive bowel sounds in all four quadrants.
Answer: The patient has no breath sounds in the left anterior chest. Rationale: Decreased breath sounds on one side may indicate a pneumothorax, which requires rapid diagnosis and treatment. The nausea and abdominal pain should be addressed, but they are not as high priority as the patient's respiratory status. Decreased bowel sounds are expected after surgery and require ongoing monitoring but no other action.
Which finding for a patient who has been taking orlistat (Xenical) is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient has frequent liquid stools. b. The patient is pale and has many bruises. c. The patient feels very bloated after meals. d. The patient is having a weight loss plateau.
Answer: The patient is pale and has many bruises. Rationale: Because orlistat blocks the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, the patient may not be receiving an adequate amount of vitamin K, resulting in a decrease in clotting factors. Abdominal bloating and liquid stools are common side effects of orlistat and indicate that the nurse should remind the patient that fat in the diet may increase these side effects. Weight loss plateaus are normal during weight reduction.
The nurse is administering IV fluid boluses and nasogastric irrigation to a patient with acute gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. The bowel sounds are hyperactive in all four quadrants. b. The patient's lungs have crackles audible to the midchest. c. The nasogastric (NG) suction is returning coffee-ground material. d. The patient's blood pressure (BP) has increased to 142/84 mm Hg.
Answer: The patient's lungs have crackles audible to the midchest. Rationale: The patient's lung sounds indicate that pulmonary edema may be developing because of the rapid infusion of IV fluid and that the fluid infusion rate should be slowed. The return of coffee-ground material in an NG tube is expected for a patient with upper GI bleeding. The BP is slightly elevated but would not be an indication to contact the health care provider immediately. Hyperactive bowel sounds are common when a patient has GI bleeding.
A 20-yr-old woman is being admitted with electrolyte disorders of unknown etiology. Which assessment finding is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient uses laxatives daily. b. The patient's knuckles are macerated. c. The patient's serum potassium level is 2.9 mEq/L. d. The patient has a history of extreme weight fluctuations.
Answer: The patient's serum potassium level is 2.9 mEq/L Rationale: The low serum potassium level may cause life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias, and potassium supplementation is needed rapidly. The other information will also be reported because it suggests that bulimia may be the etiology of the patient's electrolyte disturbances, but it does not suggest imminent life-threatening complications.
Which information will the nurse provide for a patient with achalasia? a. A liquid diet will be necessary. b. Avoid drinking fluids with meals. c. Lying down after meals is recommended. d. Treatment may include endoscopic procedures.
Answer: Treatment may include endoscopic procedures. Rationale: Endoscopic and laparoscopic procedures are the most effective therapy for improving symptoms caused by achalasia. Keeping the head elevated after eating will improve esophageal emptying. A semisoft diet is recommended to improve esophageal emptying. Patients are advised to drink fluids with meals.
Which information about an 80-yr-old male patient at the senior center is of most concern to the nurse? a. Decreased appetite b. Occasional indigestion c. Unintended weight loss d. Difficulty chewing food
Answer: Unintended weight loss Rationale: Unintentional weight loss is not a normal finding and may indicate a problem such as cancer or depression. Poor appetite, difficulty in chewing, and indigestion are common in older patients. These will need to be addressed but are not of as much concern as the weight loss.
A patient vomiting blood-streaked fluid is admitted to the hospital with acute gastritis. What should the nurse ask the patient about to determine possible risk factors for gastritis? a. The amount of saturated fat in the diet b. A family history of gastric or colon cancer c. Use of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs d. A history of a large recent weight gain or loss
Answer: Use of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs Rationale: Use of an NSAID is associated with damage to the gastric mucosa, which can result in acute gastritis. Family history, recent weight gain or loss, and fatty foods are not risk factors for acute gastritis.
The nurse is coaching a community group for persons who are overweight. Which participant behavior is an example of the best exercise plan for weight loss? a. Walking for 40 minutes 6 or 7 days/week b. Lifting weights with friends 3 times/week c. Playing soccer for an hour on the weekend d. Running for 10 to 15 minutes 3 times/week
Answer: Walking for 40 minutes 6 or 7 days/week Rationale: Exercise should be done daily for 30 minutes to an hour. Exercising in highly aerobic activities for short bursts or only once a week is not helpful and may be dangerous in an individual who has not been exercising. Running may be appropriate, but a patient should start with an exercise that is less stressful and can be done for a longer period. Weight lifting is not as helpful as aerobic exercise in weight loss.
The nurse is caring for a 47-yr-old female patient who is comatose and is receiving continuous enteral nutrition through a soft nasogastric tube. The nurse notes the presence of new crackles in the patient's lungs. In which order will the nurse take action? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D].) a. Check the patient's oxygen saturation. b. Notify the patient's health care provider. c. Stop administering the continuous feeding. d. Measure the gastric residual volume per agency policy.
Answers: C. Stop administering the continuous feeding A. Check the patient's oxygen saturation D. Measure the gastric residual volume per agency policy. B. Notify the patient's health care provider Rationale: The assessment data indicate that aspiration may have occurred. The nurse's first action should be to turn off the enteral feeding to avoid further aspiration. The next action should be to check the oxygen saturation because this may indicate the need for immediate respiratory suctioning or oxygen administration. The residual volume provides data about possible causes of aspiration. Finally, the health care provider should be notified and informed of all the assessment data the nurse has just obtained.
Which of the nurse's assigned patients should be referred to the dietitian for a complete nutritional assessment? (Select all that apply.) a. A 35-yr-old patient who reports intermittent nausea for the past 2 days b. A 48-yr-old patient with rheumatoid arthritis who takes prednisone daily c. A 23-yr-old patient who has a history of fluctuating weight gains and losses d. A 64-yr-old patient who is admitted for debridement of an infected surgical wound e. A 52-yr-old patient admitted with chest pain and possible myocardial infarction
Answers: b. A 48-yr-old patient with rheumatoid arthritis who takes prednisone daily c. A 23-yr-old patient who has a history of fluctuating weight gains and losses d. A 64-yr-old patient who is admitted for debridement of an infected surgical wound Rationale: Weight fluctuations, use of corticosteroids, and draining or infected wounds all suggest that the patient may be at risk for malnutrition. Patients with chest pain or MI are not usually poorly nourished. Although vomiting that lasts 5 days places a patient at risk, nausea that has persisted for 2 days does not always indicate poor nutritional status or risk for health problems caused by poor nutrition.
Which information in this male patient's electronic health record as shown in the accompanying figure will the nurse use to confirm that the patient has metabolic syndrome? (Select all that apply.) a. Weight b. Waist size c. Blood glucose d. Blood pressure e. Triglyceride level f. Total cholesterol level
B. Waist size C. Blood glucose Rationale: The patient's waist circumference, high-density lipoprotein level, and fasting blood glucose level indicate that he has metabolic syndrome. The other data are not used in making a metabolic syndrome diagnosis or do not meet the criteria for this diagnosis.
