NURS 435 Midterm

Which of the following components are usually included in a well-structured problem statement for nursing research? Select all that apply. A. Knowledge gap (what information do we currently know and what is lacking?) B. Problem identification (what is the overall problem? What is not working in the current situation?) C. Proposed solution (how will information gained from the proposed study contribute to the solution of this problem?) D. Sustainability (how long will we be able to sustain any changes made to the current status quo?)

A, B, C Reason: Sustainability is not usually included in a well-structured problem statement for nursing research. Problem identification, a proposed solution, and a knowledge gap are components of a well-structured problem statement for nursing research.

A true experiment requires which of the following? Select all that apply. A. Control B. Intervention C. Blinding D. Randomization

A, B, D Reason: Experiments (or randomized controlled trials, RCTs) involve an intervention (the researcher manipulates the independent variable by introducing an intervention; control (including the use of a control group that is not given the intervention and represents the comparative counterfactual); and randomization or random assignment (with participants allocated to experimental and control groups at random to make the groups comparable at the outset). Blinding is a means of controlling external sources of bias, but is not required or even feasible for all experiments. By keeping data collectors and others unaware of group allocation or study hypotheses, researchers minimize the risk that other people involved in the study will influence the results.

Which of the following statements made by a new nurse researcher indicate that he correctly understands the purpose of using statistical analysis in quantitative research? Select all that apply. A. "Statistical analysis allows the formal testing of hypotheses." B. "Statistical analysis might lead a researcher to reject a hypothesis." C. "Statistical analysis provides proof of the relationships between variables." D. "Statistical analysis supports inferences that a hypothesis is most likely correct (or most likely not correct)."

A, B, D Reason: Hypotheses are formally tested through statistical analysis. Researchers use statistics to test whether their hypotheses have a high probability of being correct (i.e., has a probability < .05). Statistical analysis does not provide proof, it only supports inferences that a hypothesis is probably correct (or not). Hypotheses are never proved (or disproved); rather, they are accepted or supported (or rejected). "Statistical analysis provides proof of the relationships between variables" indicates that the nurse educator does not understand the purpose of using statistical analysis of quantitative research.

Which of the following are true statements regarding the function of hypotheses in quantitative research? Select all that apply. A. They emerge from a theory. B. They offer direction and suggest explanations for relationships. C. The prove relationships between variables D. They facilitate the interpretation of data.

A, B, D Reason: Hypotheses cannot prove relationships between variables. They can emerge from a theory, offer direction and suggest explanations for relationships, and reduce the possibility that false results will be misinterpreted.

Vulnerable groups include which of the following? Select all that apply. A. Prisoners B. Pregnant Women C. Young Adults between 19 and 24 years of age D. Infants and toddlers

A, B, D Reason: Vulnerable populations need extra protections, and prisoners, pregnant women, and children are considered vulnerable populations. Young adults are not considered a vulnerable population.

Identify the independent variable(s) from the following research question: "What is the effect of acetaminophen and ibuprofen on liver function in female adolescents with hepatitis?" Select all that apply. A. Acetaminophen B. Female adolescents with hepatitis C. ibuprofen D. liver function

A, C Reason: The independent variables are acetaminophen and ibuprofen, as they are associated with the cause. Liver function is the dependent variable, as it is the variable being affected by the independent variable. Female adolescents with hepatitis is the population being studied.

Which of the following is true of an experimental study? Select all that apply. A. It includes an intervention or treatment. B. It is a type of qualitative research. C. It can be called a clinical trial. D. It tests causal relationships.

A, C, D Reason: Experimental studies are a type of quantitative, not qualitative, research. Experimental studies include an intervention or treatment, can be called a clinical trial, and test causal relationships.

Which of the following are advantages of using biophysiologic measures in nursing studies? Select all that apply. A. They are relatively accurate and precise B. They effectively measure subjective experiences such as pain and fatigue C. They are objective, requiring minimal inference D. They are typically cost effective because they are available for clinical purposes

A, C, D Reason: Nurse researchers have used biophysiologic measures for a wide variety of purposes, and these measures have many advantages. They are relatively accurate and precise, objective, not easily distorted by patients, and valid. However, they cannot effectively measure subjective experiences such as pain and fatigue; a visual analog scale would be more appropriate for that.

Which of the following comprise the three primary ethical principles articulated by the Belmont Report? Select all that apply. A. Beneficence B. Respect for Human Dignity C. Anonymity D. Justice

A,B,D Reason: The Belmont Report articulated three primary ethical principles on which standards of ethical research conduct are based: beneficence, respect for human dignity, and justice. Anonymity is a method used by researchers to protect study participants' confidentiality by not linking the participants to their data.

For which of the following pairs of variables is there most likely to be a relationship that could be described as causal? A. Degree of physical activity and heart B. Stress and coping style C. Age and health beliefs D. Gender and depression

A. Reason: A clear causal relationship exists between degree of physical activity and heart rate. Heart rate typically increases with physical activity. A causal relationship between the other paired variables is less likely

What is the primary purpose of the review of literature in a research report? A. Reporting on the state of the current evidence about the problem under study B. Demonstrating the research capabilities of the authors C. Focusing on the gaps in research related to the problem under study D. Making recommendations about future study designs

A. Reason: A literature review is a written summary of the state of evidence on a research problem. The primary purpose of literature reviews is to integrate research evidence to sum up what is known and what is not known. Literature reviews are sometimes stand-alone documents intended to share the state of evidence with interested readers, but reviews are also used to lay the foundation for new studies.

Which of the following statements describes a population? A. All traumatic brain injury clients hospitalized in an intensive care unit during January 2012 B. Four hundred nurses selected from a membership list of American Nurses' Association (ANA) members C. Selected members of families of clients undergoing surgery D. A sample of clients diagnosed with COPD and who currently smoke

A. Reason: All traumatic brain injury clients hospitalized in an intensive care unit during January 2012 denotes a population. A population is the entire group of interest. The other answers denote only samples or segments of a population.

The sampling design that would be especially likely to yield a representative sample is which of the following? A. Consecutive B. Convenience C. Purposive D. Quota

A. Reason: Consecutive sampling involves taking all of the people from an accessible population who meet the eligibility criteria over a specific time interval, or for a specified sample size. Convenience sampling uses the most readily available or convenient group of people. In purposive sampling, participants are hand-picked to be included in the sample based on the researcher's knowledge about the population. Quota sampling divides the population into homogeneous strata (subpopulations) to ensure representation of the subgroups in the sample; within each stratum, people are sampled by convenience.

The type of validity that employs primarily judgment in its assessment is which of the following? A. Content B. Concurrent C. Predictive D. Construct

A. Reason: Content validity concerns the sampling adequacy of the content being measured and is based on judgment. Expert ratings on the relevance of items can be used to compute a content validity index (CVI). Criterion-related validity (which includes both predictive validity and concurrent validity) focuses on the correlation between an instrument and an outside criterion. Construct validity, an instrument's adequacy in measuring the targeted construct, is a hypothesis-testing endeavor.

Which group represents a convenience sample? A. The patients with a diagnosis of URI seen in the clinic on one afternoon in February B. One hundred male BSN nurses recruited by the original study subjects who are currently in leadership roles C. Middle-class Caucasian females chosen as representatives of the accessible population D. Twenty male subjects and twenty female subjects chosen for a study on gender differences

A. Reason: Convenience sampling entails selecting the most conveniently available people as participants. A nurse who distributes questionnaires about vitamin use to 100 elders at a senior citizens center is sampling by convenience, for example. The problem with convenience sampling is that people who are readily available might be atypical of the population, and so the price of convenience is the risk of bias. Convenience sampling is the weakest form of sampling, but it is also the most commonly used sampling method in many disciplines. In this case, the best example of a convenience sample is "the patients with a diagnosis of URI seen in the clinic on one afternoon in February," because the sample includes only those patients who happen to be at the clinic during a short time period. The other answers indicate other sampling designs, including quota and purposive sampling.

In both qualitative and quantitative studies, researchers use debriefing to do which of the following? A. Allow participants to ask questions and give feedback to the researcher B. Allow the researcher to assess the participant before they leave the study site C. Explain to the participant what information they can tell others D. Describe the purpose of the study and the consent form

A. Reason: Debriefing is used by researchers at the end of the study session to answer participants' questions and concerns about the study, especially if the study creates stress in the participants.

Putting evidence into practice is in which phase of the quantitative research process? A. Dissemination B. Analytic C. Empirical D. Conceptual

A. Reason: Dissemination is Phase 5 of a quantitative research study, in which research evidence is put into practice. The other answers refer to earlier phases of a quantitative research study.

In which of the following clinical questions is fatigue the "I" component? A. Does fatigue affect agitation in cognitively impaired elders? B. Does a physical activity intervention affect fatigue in patients undergoing cardiac rehabilitation? C. What is the meaning of fatigue among patients with sleep apnea? D.Does the level of depression of patients suffering from chronic fatigue improve by participating in an exercise intervention?

A. Reason: Fatigue is the "I" component (intervention, influence, or exposure) in the question, "Does fatigue affect agitation in cognitively impaired elders?" In the other answers, fatigue is one of the other components.

Which verbiage is most likely found in a well-written research review? A. "The hypothesis in this study was supported by the research findings." B. "Results from this study proved that nursing actions were instrumental to improved patient outcomes." C. "All of these studies verify that levels of understanding cannot be changed easily." D. "It is clear that the presence of nurses improves the health status of patients in the clinical setting."

A. Reason: Hypotheses cannot be proved or disproved, rather they are supported by the published reports.

A researcher's expectations about the relationships between variables in a quantitative study are generally formulated as which of the following? A. Hypotheses B. Frameworks C. Research questions D. Conceptual definitions

A. Reason: Hypotheses state researchers' deductively derived expectations about relationships between study variables. To answer research questions and test hypotheses, researchers analyze their data in an orderly fashion. When quantitative research is performed within the context of a theoretical framework, the findings may have broader significance and utility. Even when the research question is not embedded in a theory, researchers should have a conceptual definition rationale and a clear vision of the concepts under study.

What is the primary question that should be addressed when evaluating published research reports in a literature review? A. To what extent do the findings reflect the truth (the true state of affairs)? B. Have the authors conducted an adequate literature review in their research report? C. Did the authors cite appropriately from the previously published literature related to the problem under study? D. Was the research question appropriate considering the available evidence at the time of the study?

A. Reason: In literature reviews, methodological features of the studies under review need to be assessed with an eye to answering a broad question: To what extent do the findings reflect the truth (the true state of affairs) or, conversely, to what extent do flaws undermine the believability of the evidence? The "truth" is most likely to be discovered when researchers use powerful designs, good sampling plans, high-quality data collection procedures, and appropriate analyses.

In the following clinical question, what is the Outcome (O component): What is the effect of relaxation therapy versus biofeedback on the functional ability of patients with rheumatoid arthritis? A. Functional ability B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Biofeedback D. Relaxation therapy

A. Reason: In the PIO acronym, P stands for the population or patients (rheumatoid arthritis); I stands for the intervention, influence, or exposure (biofeedback or relaxation therapy); and O stands for the outcomes (functional ability).

If the coefficient alpha for a stress scale was computed to be .80, the scale would be which of the following? A. More reliable than a scale with an alpha of .50 B. A valid indicator of stress C. Of indeterminate reliability until the scale's test-retest reliability was assessed D. Of unacceptably low reliability

A. Reason: Internal consistency is evaluated by calculating coefficient alpha (or Cronbach's alpha). The normal range of values for this reliability index is from .00 to +1.00. The higher the coefficient, the more accurate (internally consistent) the measure.`

Questionnaires have the advantage of which of the following? A. Offering the possibility of anonymity B. Having high response rates C. Reducing the possibility of response set biases D. Being suitable for all types of study participants

A. Reason: Questionnaires are less costly than interviews and offer the possibility of anonymity, but interviews yield higher response rates (which reduce the risk for bias), are suitable for a wider variety of people, and provide richer data than questionnaires. Interviews are usually preferable to questionnaires because the quality of the data tends to be higher. Researchers using structured self-reports must decide whether to use interviews or self-administered questionnaires.

When an observer is not concealed, the findings may be biased because of which of the following? A. Reactivity B. Ethical problems C. Lack of mobility D. Acquiescence response set bias

A. Reason: Researchers do not always tell people they are being observed, because awareness of being observed may cause people to behave atypically. A behavioral distortion due to the known presence of an observer is called reactivity. It is not an ethical problem or lack of mobility. Acquiescence response set bias is a tendency to agree with statements regardless of their content by some people (yea-sayers). The opposite tendency—to disagree with statements independently of the question content—is less common.

Which of the following results from a sample size that is too small? A. Low power to detect a difference in the outcomes of the two groups B. Lack of control over extraneous variables C. Limits to random sampling D. A weak questionnaire survey tool

A. Reason: Sampling involves selecting a portion of the population to represent the population. A low power to detect a difference in the outcomes of the two group results from a sample size that is too small. The other answers are not effects of having a sample size that is too small.

The social desirability response set bias is least likely to be a problem on scales incorporated into which of the following? A. Mailed anonymous questionnaires B. Face-to-face interviews C. Telephone interviews D. All options are equally susceptible

A. Reason: Social desirability response set bias—a tendency to misrepresent attitudes or traits by giving answers that are consistent with prevailing social views—would be least likely to be a problem with mailed anonymous questionnaires, as the anonymity would likely cause people to be less concerned about what others thought of their answers.

Confidentiality of study participants can be most effectively protected by which of the following? A. Avoiding the collection of any identifying information B. Performing a risk/benefit assessment C. Placing all identifying information on computer files rather than manual files D. Obtaining informed consent from participants before the study

A. Reason: Study participants have the right to expect that any data they provide will be kept in strict confidence, and this right is most effectively protected by avoiding the collection of any identifying information. Placing identifying information in a computer file rather than in a manual file does not help protect patients' confidentiality, and may in fact increase the risk for a breach of confidentiality. Performing a risk/benefit assessment helps researchers minimize the risk that participants are exposed to, and obtaining informed consent ensures that participants are fully informed of the nature of the study and can make an informed decision as to whether to participate. Neither of these addresses confidentiality, however.

The conceptual phase of the research process involves which of the following activities? A. Formulating the problem and reviewing the related literature B. Selecting an appropriate research design for the study C. Finalizing and reviewing the research plan D. Interpreting the results of data analysis of key variables

A. Reason: The conceptual phase (Phase 1) of the research process involves formulating the problem and reviewing the related literature, among other things. Selecting an appropriate research design for the study and finalizing and reviewing the research plan are steps in Phase 2, the design and planning phase. Interpreting the results is a step in Phase 4, the analytic phase.

The dependent (outcome) variable in the research question, "Is the quality of life of nursing home residents affected by their functional ability or hearing acuity?" is which of the following? A. Quality of life B. Functional ability C. Hearing acuity D. Residence in a nursing home

A. Reason: The dependent (or outcome) variable is the behavior, characteristic, or outcome the researcher is interested in explaining, predicting, or affecting (the "O" in the PICO scheme). Quality of life is the dependent variable. The independent variable is the presumed cause of or influence on the dependent variable. Independent variables are nursing home residents, functional ability, and hearing acuity. The independent variable corresponds to the "I" and the "C" components in the PICO scheme.

The nurse researcher protects study participants by which of the following? A. Performing a risk/benefit assessment to evaluate the cost compared with the benefit of participation. B. Keeping painful procedure information from the study participant until the study is completed. C. Preventing psychological discomfort during and after the study. D. Proposing a study that ultimately benefits society despite the risk to the participants

A. Reason: The researcher considers risks and the benefits of the study for the client in order to protect the participants. Informed consent means that participants have adequate information about the study, comprehend the information, and have the power of free choice, enabling them to consent to or decline participation voluntarily. Keeping painful procedure information from the study participant would violate informed consent and should not be done. The nurse is not always able to prevent psychological discomfort during and after the study. Simply because a study may ultimately benefit society, it does not necessarily follow that this benefit will outweigh the risks to participants.

To protect the right to fair treatment, the researcher who seeks federal grant funding for research is required to do which of the following? A. Include minority populations in their research study B. Disclose the benefits of research to participants C. Offer participants a stipend for participation in the study D. Obtain informed consent from participants

A. Reason: The right to fair treatment is an aspect of justice that requests researchers to include all groups that may benefit from research. Historically, researchers excluded women and minority groups, meaning study results were not generalizable to those groups. Disclosing the benefits of the research to participants protects their right of full disclosure. Offering participants a stipend for participation in the study is a possible violation of their right to self-determination. Obtaining informed consent from participants protects their right to self-determination and their right to full disclosure.

The purpose of a study was to determine the effectiveness of two different analgesic agents in controlling pain during menstruation in females ages 18 to 21 years. Researchers administer a self-reported pain scale on days 2 and 3 of the menses. You infer that this procedure is an example of which of the following? A. Test-retest reliability B. Random sampling procedures C. Internal validity of the study D. Construct validation

A. Reason: The stability of an instrument is the degree to which similar results are obtained on separate occasions. Stability is assessed through test-retest reliability procedures. Researchers administer the measure to the same sample twice and then compare the scores. The self-reported pain scale administered on two different occasions is an example of test-retest reliability, not of random sampling procedures or construct validation. The internal validity of the study is not being measured.

The purpose of an operational definition in a quantitative study is to do which of the following? A. Assign numeric values to variables B. Specify how a variable will be measured C. State the expected relationship between the variables under investigation D. Designate the conceptual underpinnings of the variable

B. Reason: A conceptual definition describes the abstract or theoretical meaning of a concept being studied. An operational definition specifies how the variable will be measured. Data—the information collected during the course of a study—may take the form of narrative information (qualitative data) or numeric values (quantitative data).

Which of the following is a datum from a quantitative study of the labor and delivery experiences of women over age 40? A. Length of time in labor B. 107 oz C. I practically slept through the whole thing! D. Vaginal versus cesarean delivery

B. Reason:Research data (singular, datum) are the pieces of information gathered in a study. In quantitative studies, researchers identify and define their variables, and then collect relevant data from subjects. The actual values of the study variables constitute the data. Quantitative researchers collect primarily quantitative information in numeric form. In this question it is 107 oz. Length of time in labor, “I practically slept through the whole thing, and vaginal versus cesarean delivery are not documented as numeric values in this example

The aggregate of those to whom a researcher wishes to generalize study results is which of the following? A. Gatekeepers B. Population C. Sample D. Sampling plan

B. Reason: A population is all the individuals or objects with common, defining characteristics (the "P" component in PICO questions). Gaining entrée to a research site for a particular population typically involves negotiations with gatekeepers who have the authority to permit entry into their world. Researchers typically collect data from a sample, which is a subset of the population. Using samples is more practical than collecting data from an entire population, but the risk is that the sample might not adequately reflect the population's traits. The researcher's sampling plan specifies how the sample will be selected and how many subjects there will be.

A survey question asks subjects to respond to the following statement: "The overall hospital experience that I received during my hospital stay considered my needs as an individual." They were asked to identify, on a five-point scale, the degree to which they agreed or disagreed with the statement. This is an example of which scale? A. Social scale B. Likert scale C. Visual analog scale D. Differential scale

B. Reason: A Likert scale consists of several declarative statements (items) that express a viewpoint on a topic. Respondents are asked to indicate how much they agree or disagree with the statement. This is an example of a Likert scale. Visual analog scales measure subjective experiences. There are no "social" or "differential" scales mentioned in this chapter.

Which of the following is an example of a systematic review? A. An RCT study published in the journal Nursing Research B. A meta-analysis from the Cochrane database C. A synopsis published in Evidence-Based Nursing D. A clinical practice guideline from the National Guideline Clearinghouse

B. Reason: A meta-analysis is a type of systematic review and a technique for integrating quantitative research findings statistically. In essence, meta-analysis treats the findings from a study as one piece of information. The findings from multiple studies on the same topic are combined and then all of the information is analyzed statistically in a manner similar to that in a usual study. Unlike systematic reviews, clinical practice guidelines (which often are based on systematic reviews) give specific recommendations for evidence-based decision-making. Guideline development typically involves the consensus of a group of researchers, experts, and clinicians. A randomized controlled trial (RCT) is an individual study that focuses on the effectiveness of therapies rather than on broader health-care interventions. Synopses, or summaries, of systematic reviews and of single studies are available in evidence-based abstract journals such as Evidence-Based Nursing.

A group of nurse researchers specializing in the care of pediatric oncology patients decides to perform interviews on nurses caring for pediatric oncology patients to determine patterns of nurse caring. After deciding on fifteen interview questions, they submit their draft to five pediatric oncology nurse practitioners for input. This practice illustrates obtaining which of the following? A. Internal consistency B. Content validity C. Face validity D. Equivalency

B. Reason: An instrument's content validity is based on the judgment of experts evaluating the instrument, which is the case here. There is no totally objective method for insuring adequate content coverage, but often a panel of subject content experts is asked to evaluate the content validity of new instruments. Researchers can calculate a content validity index (CVI) that indicates the extent of expert agreement. Internal consistency is a measure of the extent to which all of an instrument's items measure the same thing. Equivalence, in reliability assessment, primarily concerns the degree to which two or more independent observers or coders agree about scoring on an instrument. Face validity refers to whether an instrument looks as though it is measuring the appropriate construct.

A researcher wants to investigate the effect of patients' body position on blood pressure. The study would most likely be of which type? A. Qualitative B. Quantitative C. Either quantitative or qualitative (researcher preference) D. Insufficient information to determine

B. Reason: Because this study would involve a measurable, numeric outcome—blood pressure—it should most likely be a quantitative study.

Which of the following is the best resource to use when beginning the search for evidence necessary for an individual EBP project? A. Hayat, M. (2017). Understanding statistical significance. Nursing Research, 59(3), 219-223. B.Durbin, C. R., Fish, A. F., Bachman, J. A., & Smith, K. V. (2017). Systematic review of education intervention for improving advanced directive completion. Journal of Nursing Scholarship, 42, 234-241. C. Polit, D. R., & Beck, C. T. (2017). Essentials of Nursing Research: Appraising Evidence for Nursing Practice (8th ed.). Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer| Lippincott Williams & Wilkins. D. Aggarwal, B., Liao, M., & Mosca, L. (2017). Predictors of physical activity at 1 year in a randomized controlled trial of family members of patients with cardiovascular disease. Journal of Cardiovascular Nursing, 29(6), 444-449.

B. Reason: For an individual EBP endeavor, the best place to begin is by searching for evidence in a systematic review, clinical practice guideline, or other preprocessed source because this approach leads to a quicker answer—and, if your methodologic skills are limited, potentially a superior answer as well. Of the answers, only Durbin et al is a systematic review. The study by Aggarwal et al is an individual randomized controlled trial, not a systematic review. The article by Hayat provides general information on statistical significance and does not appear to be primary research. Polit and Beck is the textbook you are using, which is a secondary source, not primary research.

A major advantage of closed-ended questions is that they do which of the following? A. Are easy to construct B. Are analyzed in a straightforward manner C. Encourage in-depth responses D. Are not subject to response biases

B. Reason: Good closed-ended questions are more difficult to construct than open-ended ones but easier to analyze. Closed-ended questions are also more efficient: people can complete more closed-ended questions than open-ended ones in a given amount of time. People may be unwilling to compose lengthy written responses to open-ended questions in questionnaires. A major drawback of closed-ended questions is that researchers might omit some potentially important responses. Closed-ended questions also can be superficial. Open-ended questions allow for richer information if the respondents are verbally expressive and cooperative. Finally, some respondents object to choosing from alternatives that do not reflect their opinions precisely.

The hypothesis, "Women who live in rural areas are unlikely to practice breast self-examination" is which of the following? A. Null B. Not testable C. Directional D. Nondirectional

B. Reason: Null hypotheses, which express the absence of a relationship, are the hypotheses subjected to statistical testing. This hypothesis is not testable, as it does not make a prediction about a relationship. A testable hypothesis states predicted relationships between two or more variables—that is, the anticipated association between independent and dependent variables. Directional hypotheses predict the direction of a relationship; nondirectional hypotheses predict the existence of relationships, not their direction.

An especially important goal for the nursing profession is to do which of the following? A. Conduct research to better understand the context of nursing practice B. Establish a solid base of evidence for practice through disciplined research C. Document the role nursing serves in society D. Establish research priorities

B. Reason: Nurses are increasingly expected to understand and undertake research and to base their practice on evidence from research. Evidence-based practice is the use of the best evidence in making patient care decisions and typically comes from research conducted by nurses and other health-care professionals. All of the other answers are possible goals for the nursing profession, but none is as important as establishing evidence for practice.

The safeguard mechanism by which even the researcher cannot link the participant with the information provided is called which of the following? A. Confidentiality B. Anonymity C. Informed Consent D. Right to Privacy

B. Reason: Privacy can be maintained through anonymity (wherein not even researchers know participants' identities) or through formal confidentiality procedures that safeguard the information participants provide. Informed consent procedures provide prospective participants with information needed to make a reasoned decision about participation. Right to privacy is protected through confidentiality procedures.

The research tradition that is an approach to understanding people's experiences as they are lived is which of the following? A. Experimental B. Phenomenologic C. Ethnographic D. Grounded theory

B. Reason: Qualitative research often is rooted in research traditions that originate in other disciplines. Three such traditions are grounded theory, phenomenology, and ethnography. Grounded theory seeks to describe and understand key social psychological processes that occur in a social setting. Phenomenology focuses on the lived experiences of humans and is an approach to gaining insight into what the life experiences of people are like and what they mean. Ethnography provides a framework for studying the meanings, patterns, and lifeways of a culture in a holistic fashion. A key distinction in quantitative studies is between experimental research, in which researchers actively intervene to test an intervention or therapy, and nonexperimental (or observational) research, in which researchers make observations of existing phenomena without intervening.

What term is used to describe accounts of research in the literature prepared by someone other than the researchers who conducted the study? A.Primary Sources B. Secondary sources C. Ghost writer studies D. Literature reviews

B. Reason: Secondary sources are written reports on studies prepared by someone other than the researcher who conducted the study. Primary sources, on the other hand, are descriptions of studies written by the researchers who conducted them. A literature review is a type of secondary source that consists of a written summary of the state of evidence on a research problem. "Ghost writer" is not a type of research study.

When a finding is statistically reliable, it means which of the following? A. The finding is very important B. The same results are likely to occur with a new sample of subjects C. The researcher's hypothesis is correct D. Changes in nursing procedures are needed

B. Reason: Statistical reliability refers to the probability that the same results would be obtained with a new sample of subjects—that is, that the results are an accurate reflection of a wider group than just the particular people who participated in the study. It does not necessarily mean that the finding is very important, that the researcher's hypothesis is correct, or that changes in nursing procedures are needed.

Which of the following is a probability sampling method? A. Convenience sampling B. Systematic sampling C. Consecutive sampling D. Quota sampling

B. Reason: Systematic sampling is the selection of every kth case from a list and is an example of a probability sampling method. Convenience sampling uses the most readily available or convenient group of people. Quota sampling divides the population into homogeneous strata (subpopulations) to ensure representation of the subgroups in the sample; within each stratum, people are sampled by convenience. Consecutive sampling involves taking all of the people from an accessible population who meet the eligibility criteria over a specific time interval, or for a specified sample size.

At what point does a qualitative researcher typically make a lot of decisions about data collection and sampling? A. While reviewing the literature B. During the development of a research report C. While the study is in progress in the field D. After developing an intervention protocol

C Reason: In qualitative studies, the tasks of sampling, data collection, data analysis, and interpretation typically take place repeatedly while the study is in progress. Qualitative researchers begin by talking with or observing people with first-hand experience with the phenomenon under study. The discussions and observations are loosely structured, allowing participants to express a full range of beliefs, feelings, and behaviors. Analysis and interpretation are ongoing, concurrent activities that guide choices about the kinds of people to question next and the types of question to ask or observations to make. Reviewing the literature, developing a research report, and developing an intervention protocol are steps in quantitative research.

Nursing has experienced constant change over the past decades as a result of increased research. When determining best practices, nursing decisions should do which of the following? Select all that apply. A. Be based on tradition B. Include holistic approaches C. Be clinically appropriate D. Be cost effective

C, D Reason: Nurse leaders recognize the need to base specific nursing decisions on evidence indicating that the decisions are clinically appropriate, cost-effective, and result in positive client outcomes. Holistic treatments may be appropriate in some, but not all, circumstances. Tradition alone is an inadequate basis for practice.

A nurse in the United States is scheduled to care for a child with an ostomy. Which of the following resource would best assist the nurse with specific guidelines for evidence-based decision making for this patient? A. MEDLINE B. TRIP C. www.guidelines.gov D. www.rnao.org/bestpractices

C. Finding clinical practice guidelines can be challenging, because there is no single guideline repository. A standard search in bibliographic databases such as MEDLINE will yield many references—but could yield a mixture of citations to not only the actual guidelines, but also to commentaries, implementation studies, and so on. A recommended approach is to search in guideline databases, or through specialty organizations that have sponsored guideline development. In the United States, nursing and health-care guidelines are maintained by the National Guideline Clearinghouse (www.guideline.gov). In Canada, the Registered Nurses Association of Ontario (RNAO) (www.rnao.org/bestpractices) maintains information about clinical practice guidelines. Two sources in the United Kingdom are the Translating Research into Practice (TRIP) database and the National Institute for Clinical Excellence (NICE).

In the following clinical question, what is the Intervention/influence/exposure (I component): Does taking antidepressants affect the risk of suicide in cognitively impaired adolescents? A. Adolescence B. Suicide C. Antidepressant use D. Cognitive impairment

C. In the PIO acronym, P stands for the population or patients (cognitively impaired individuals); I stands for the intervention, influence, or exposure (antidepressants); and O stands for the outcomes (risk of suicide).

A self-report method used to measure subjective experiences such as pain and fatigue is which of the following? A. Observation B. In vivo measurements C. Visual analog scales D. Likert scales

C. Reason: A visual analog scale (VAS) is used to measure subjective experiences (e.g., pain, fatigue) along a 100 mm line designating a bipolar continuum. Observational methods are techniques for acquiring data through the direct observation of phenomena. Data may also be derived from biophysiologic measures, which include in vivo measurements (those performed within or on living organisms) and in vitro measurements (those performed outside the organism's body, such as blood tests). Biophysiologic measures have the advantage of being objective, accurate, and precise. Likert scales (or summated rating scales) present respondents with a series of items worded favorably or unfavorably toward a phenomenon; responses indicating level of agreement or disagreement with each statement are scored and summed into a composite score.

Which statement accurately reflects a characteristic of a well-written literature review? A.Only a few key reports by the same author should be included if that author has published extensively on the topic under study. B. The review should primarily contain reports supportive of your general hypothesis about the problem under study. C. The review should include reports that both support and contradict your own ideas. D. The review should clearly identify points that have been proven by previous research.

C. Reason: A well-written literature review includes a comprehensive and objective summary of the published literature related to the problem under study. That means inclusion of reports that both support and refute your hypothesis. The other answers do not necessarily characterize a well-written literature review.

According to Melnyk's article, what are steps Zero & 6 of Evidence-Based Practice? A. Ask a clinical questions & evaluate the outcome B. Formulate a clinical questions and disseminate the EBP results C. Encourage a spirit of inquiry & disseminate the EBP results D. Acquire the evidence and evaluate the outcome

C. Reason: According to Melnyk's article, the seven steps of evidence based practice are: Step Zero: Cultivate a spirit of inquiry. Step 1: Ask clinical questions in PICOT format. Step 2: Search for the best evidence. Step 3: Critically appraise the evidence. Step 4: Integrate the evidence with clinical expertise and patient preferences and values. Step 5: Evaluate the outcomes of the practice decisions or changes based on evidence. Step 6: Disseminate EBP results.

A conclusion drawn from evidence presented in a study is called which of the following? A. Statistically significant B. Valid C. Inference D. Credible

C. Reason: An inference is a conclusion drawn from evidence presented in the research study. Statistically significant means that the study has a high probability of being "real." Validity is the soundness of the study. Credibility is achieved to the extent that the methods engender confidence in the truth of the data and in the researchers' interpretation.

A researcher conceptualizes pain as "the subject's statement of intensity of pain." What operational definition is consistent with this conceptualization? A. Measurement of subject's pulse and blood pressure B. Nurse's observation of subject's pain behavior C. Subject's score on self-reported pain rating scale D. Frequency of subject's use of pain medication

C. Reason: An operational definition indicates what the researchers specifically must do to measure the concept and collect needed information. This conceptualization could be measured by the subject's score on self-reported pain rating scale.

If a researcher unobtrusively studies interactions among patients in a psychiatric hospital, what might this be called? A. Research Misconduct B. Breach of confidentiality C. Covert data collection D. Deception

C. Reason: Covert data collection or concealment is collecting data without participants' knowledge and thus without their consent. This might happen if a researcher wanted to observe people's behavior and was concerned that doing so openly would change the behavior of interest. Ethical conduct in research involves not only protecting the rights of human and animal subjects, but also efforts to maintain high standards of integrity and avoid such forms of research misconduct as plagiarism, fabrication of results, or falsification of data. Another challenge that many qualitative researchers face is adequately disguising participants in their reports to avoid a breach of confidentiality. Deception can involve deliberately withholding information about the study, or providing participants with false information.

A study's purpose was to note maternal responses to infant cues within the first 48 hours after birth. The investigator and research assistant simultaneously but independently observed and scored the new mothers' behaviors while holding their infants en face. The agreement between the two raters can be described as which of the following? A. Content validity of the scoring instrument B. Internal validity of the research design C. Reliability of the scoring instrument D. External validity of the research design

C. Reason: Equivalence, in reliability assessment, primarily concerns the degree to which two or more independent observers or coders agree about scoring on an instrument. If there is a high level of agreement, then the assumption is that measurement errors have been minimized. The degree of error can be assessed through interrater or interobserver reliability procedures, which involve having two or more observers or coders make independent observations.

The aspect of reliability for which interobserver reliability is appropriate is which of the following? A. Stability B. Internal consistency C. Equivalence D. Specificity

C. Reason: Equivalence, in reliability assessment, primarily concerns the degree to which two or more independent observers or coders agree about scoring on an instrument. Internal consistency reliability, which refers to the extent to which the entire instrument's items are measuring the same attribute, is usually assessed with Cronbach's alpha. The stability aspect of reliability, which concerns the extent to which an instrument yields similar results on two administrations, is evaluated by test-retest procedures. Specificity is the instrument's ability to identify non-cases correctly (i.e., its rate of yielding true negatives).

Applying your knowledge of random assignment, which statement is correct? A. Random assignment is accomplished with random sampling. B. Grouping participants with similar features together is the best way to achieve random assignment. C. Random assignment ensures that the study is a true experiment. D. Recruiting participants from significantly different neighborhoods results in random assignment.

C. Reason: Experimental designs involve placing participants in groups at random. Through randomization (or random assignment), every participant has an equal chance of being included in any group. Randomization is a critical characteristic of a true experimental study. The other answers are not true of random assignment. Random sampling is a method of selecting people for a study and is not used to accomplish random assignment.

When doing a computerized search for quantitative studies on a topic, which of the following statements is most accurate? A. The best place to begin is to use a search engine such as Yahoo or Google B. The primary keyword to use in the search typically would be the population C. The keywords to start the search typically would be the independent and dependent variables D. The specific subject headings used in each bibliographic database would have to be learned

C. Reason: For quantitative studies, the keywords are usually the independent or dependent variables (i.e., at a minimum, the "I" and "O" of the PICO components), and perhaps the population. For qualitative studies, the keywords are the central phenomenon and the population. Google and Yahoo are not the best search engines to use when looking for nursing research; the more specialized bibliographic databases, such as CINAHL and MEDLINE, are preferable. One does not need to learn the specific subject headings used in each bibliographic database to conduct a search.

In a qualitative study that involves multiple contacts between the researcher and study participants, the researcher may negotiate which of the following? A. Implied consent B. Stipend C. Process consent D. Risk/benefit ratio

C. Reason: In qualitative studies, consent may need to be continually renegotiated with participants as the study evolves, through process consent procedures. Researchers often assume implied consent by the return of a completed questionnaire, which reflects the person's voluntary consent to participate. A major potential benefit to participants is direct monetary or material gains through stipends or other incentives; however, these are not typically negotiated during the study but are determined at the beginning of the study. In a risk/benefit assessment, the potential benefits of the study to individual participants and to society are weighed against the costs to individuals.

Interviews are usually preferable to questionnaires because of which of the following? A. They are less expensive B. They yield data that are easier to analyze C. The quality of the data tends to be higher D. They require less training of research personnel

C. Reason: Interviews are usually preferable to questionnaires because the quality of the data tends to be higher. Researchers using structured self-reports must decide whether to use interviews or self-administered questionnaires. Questionnaires are less costly than interviews and offer the possibility of anonymity, but interviews yield higher response rates, are suitable for a wider variety of people, and provide richer data than questionnaires.

On a 20-item Likert scale with five response categories, the range of possible scores is which of the following? A. 0 to 100 B. 20 to 80 C. 20 to 100 D. 0 to 50

C. Reason: Likert scales (or summated rating scales) present respondents with a series of items worded favorably or unfavorably toward a phenomenon; responses indicating level of agreement or disagreement with each statement are scored and summed into a composite score. 20 items x a score of 1 per item is 20 as the minimum score and 20 items x a score of 5 per item are 100 as the maximum score.

Evidenced-based nursing primarily uses which of the following to answer clinical questions? A. Consulting an authority B. Using intuition C. Obtaining the newest research D. Relying on experience

C. Reason: Nurses are increasingly expected to understand and undertake research, and to base their practice on evidence from research—that is, to adopt an evidence-based practice (EBP). EBP, broadly defined, is the use of the best evidence in making patient care decisions. Experience, intuition, and authority are not wholly ignored in the EBP process, but research is a priority.

A one-group pretest-posttest design is an example of which of the following? A. A crossover design B. A true experimental design C. A quasi-experimental design D. A retrospective design

C. Reason: Quasi-experiments involve an intervention but lack randomization and sometimes even a comparison group. Strong quasi-experimental designs introduce controls to compensate for these missing components. In crossover designs, people are exposed to more than one experimental condition in random order and serve as their own controls. Experiments involve an intervention; control; and randomization or random assignment. Retrospective designs involve collecting data about an outcome in the present and then looking back in time for possible causes.

Strata are incorporated into the design of which of the following sampling approaches? A. Systematic B. Purposive C. Quota D. Consecutive

C. Reason: Quota sampling divides the population into homogeneous strata (subpopulations) to ensure representation of the subgroups in the sample; within each stratum, people are sampled by convenience. Consecutive sampling involves taking all of the people from an accessible population who meet the eligibility criteria over a specific time interval, or for a specified sample size. In purposive sampling, participants are hand-picked to be included in the sample based on the researcher's knowledge about the population. Systematic sampling is the selection of every kth case from a list.

Quasi-experimental research designs lack what feature found in true experimental research? A. Control groups B. Pretests C. Randomization D. Placebos

C. Reason: Randomization is not seen in a quasi-experimental research design. Quasi-experimental studies may have control groups, pretests, and placebos.

Which search strategy selects an important early study and locates subsequent citations in the literature? A. Ancestry approach B. Database search C. Descendancy approach D. Footnote chasing

C. Reason: The descendancy approach identifies an early key study and uses citation indexes to locate later studies that cite the original study. Another approach is to search for evidence in bibliographic databases. Yet another strategy is the ancestry approach ("footnote chasing"), in which citations from relevant studies are used to track down earlier research on which the studies are based (the "ancestors").

The Beck Depression Inventory (BDI) consists of 20 items describing depressive symptoms. Subjects respond to a Likert-type scale, rating each item (0 = no symptom to 3 = persistent or severe symptom presence). Previous research indicates that test-retest scores of the BDI ranged from 0.60 to 0.90. Critiquing the above statements you conclude which of the following? A. Evidence of the stability aspect of validity of the BDI is supported B. Conceptual and operational definitions of depression are not consistent C. Evidence of the stability aspect of reliability is supported D. The BDI will yield high amounts of error with obtained scores

C. Reason: The stability of an instrument is the degree to which similar results are obtained on separate occasions and is an aspect of reliability, not validity. Stability is assessed through test-retest reliability procedures. Researchers administer the measure to the same sample twice and then compare the scores. The test-retest results do not indicate that conceptual and operational definitions of depression are not consistent, nor do they indicate that the BDI will yield high amounts of error with obtained scores.

Select the best description for the following: There is a relationship between elective labor induction and an unintended cesarean delivery. A. It is a directional hypothesis B. It is a directional research question C. It is a non-directional hypothesis D. It is a non-directional research question

C. Reason: The statement is a non-directional research hypothesis. It is non-directional because it does not indicate whether the researcher believes that elective labor induction will increase or decrease the likelihood of unintended cesarean delivery. It is a research hypothesis because it states the predicted relationships between the independent and dependent variables in the form of a statement.

If a target population contains 10,600 elements and the researcher seeks a systematic random sample of 50, the sampling interval would be which of the following? A. 116 B. 600 C. 212 D. 53

C. Reason: To obtain the sampling interval, the size of the population is divided by the size of the desired sample.

The soundness of the evidence collected and the relationship between the variables is known as which of the following? A. Credibility B. Reliability C. Validity D. Trustworthiness

C. Reason: Validity is the soundness of the study the quality of evidence about the relationship between the independent variable and the dependent variable. The accuracy and consistency of information that is obtained from a study is its reliability. Credibility is achieved to the extent that the methods engender confidence in the truth of the data and in the researchers' interpretation. Trustworthiness in qualitative research encompasses several difference dimensions, including credibility, dependability, confirmability, transferability, and authenticity.

When is a small sample size appropriate for a research study? A. Many uncontrolled variables are present. B. The population is very homogenous. C. Large differences are expected in members of the population on the variable of interest. D. The population must be divided into subgroups.

C. Reason: When expected differences are large, a large sample is not needed to reveal group differences statistically; but when small differences are predicted, large samples are necessary. In general, however, a larger sample size leads to less bias and greater reliability.

Which of the following is an advantage of observation as a method of data collection in a study? A. Subjects may be anxious because they are being observed. B. Respondents can remain anonymous. C. It is less time consuming than a questionnaire. D. It directly captures an event and behaviors.

D. Reason: Observation directly captures an event and behaviors. Observational methods can be used to gather such information as the conditions of individuals, verbal communication, nonverbal communication, activities, and environmental conditions. Subject anxiety is not an advantage but a disadvantage of observation and may be eliminated by concealment. Respondents are not anonymous when observed, and observation is not less time consuming than a questionnaire.

You have identified 66 potential references through electronic database searches for your review of literature. Which action in the screening process would be the most appropriate next step in identifying the most useful articles? A. Comparing databases for duplicate-referenced reports B. Evaluating the heading terms C. Reading each article in detail D. Reviewing the abstracts

D. Reason: Although reading each article in detail would allow you to evaluate each reference in terms of relevance, reviewing the abstracts would be most time efficient. Evaluating the heading terms in the articles would not be helpful in identifying the most useful articles, because they would not tell you enough information about the article. Comparing databases for duplicate-references reports would also not be useful for this purpose.

A nurse researcher is evaluating a revised self-esteem questionnaire to determine whether all of the items on the questionnaire actually effectively measure self-esteem. Which aspect of reliability is she evaluating? A. Equivalence B. Validity C. Stability D. Internal consistency

D. Reason: An instrument is internally consistent to the extent that its items measure the same trait. Internal consistency reliability is the best way to assess an important source of measurement error in scales, the sampling of items. Internal consistency is evaluated by calculating coefficient alpha (Cronbach's alpha). The higher the coefficient, the more accurate (internally consistent) the measure.

A research nurse understands that evidenced-based practice in nursing does which of the following? A. Relies on tradition B. Consults recognized authorities C. Depends primarily on textbooks D. Is based on the latest research

D. Reason: EBP prioritizes research findings, which are found primarily in primary sources, such as journals, rather than in secondary sources, such as textbooks. It is not dependent on tradition or authority.

What is the most important type of information that should be included in a literature review? A. Clinical Anecdotes B. Opinion Articles C. Case reports from applicable settings D. Findings from prior studies

D. Reason: Findings from prior studies are the most important type of information for a research review.

In the following clinical question, what is the Comparison (C component): Does chronic stress affect inflammatory responses in older men with atherosclerotic disease? A. Chronic stress B. Inflammatory response C. Atherosclerotic disease D. There is no "C" component

D. Reason: In the PICO acronym, P stands for the population or patients (older men with atherosclerotic disease); I stands for the intervention, influence, or exposure (chronic stress); C stands for the component that is needed (there is no intervention or influence of interest contrasted with a specific alternative); and O stands for the outcomes (inflammatory response).

In the following clinical question, what is the Population (P component): Do stress and depression affect dyspnea in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? A. Patients who are stressed B. Patients who are depressed C. Patients who experience dyspnea D. Patients with COPD

D. Reason: In the PIO acronym, P stands for the population or patients (patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease); I stands for the intervention, influence, or exposure (stress and depression); and O stands for the outcomes (dyspnea).

Consumers of research do which of the following? A. Design studies B. Undertake studies C. Produce research D. Read research

D. Reason: In the current EBP environment, every nurse is likely to engage in one or more activity along a continuum of research participation. At one end of the continuum are users (consumers) of nursing research—nurses who read research reports to keep up-to-date on findings that may affect their practice. EBP depends on well-informed nursing research consumers. At the other end of the continuum are the producers of nursing research: nurses who actively design and undertake studies.

In which section would the following sentence most likely appear: "The results may have been influenced by the patients' desire to please the researchers and the hospital staff"? A. Introduction B. Methods Section C. Results Section D. Discussion

D. Reason: In the discussion, the researcher presents conclusions about the meaning and implications of the findings, i.e., what the results mean, why things turned out the way they did, how the findings fit with other evidence, and how the results can be used in practice. The method section describes the methods used to answer the research questions including the sampling plan. The introduction to a research article acquaints readers with the research problem and its context. The results section presents the findings that were obtained by analyzing the study data. The text presents a narrative summary of key findings, often accompanied by more detailed tables.

In what situation is informed consent not needed? A. The researcher pays the participants a stipend B. The risk/benefit ratio is low C. A Certificate of Confidentiality has been obtained D. Informed Consent is always needed

D. Reason: Informed consent procedures, which provide prospective participants with information needed to make a reasoned decision about participation, normally involve signing a consent form to document voluntary and informed participation. Informed consent is needed even when the researcher pays the participants a stipend or the risk/benefit ratio is low. A Certificate of Confidentiality is a legal document that researchers may obtain that protects them against the forced disclosure of confidential information in any civil, criminal, administrative, or legislative proceeding. However, it does not negate the need to obtain informed consent from participants of studies.

A researcher at a school of nursing decides to investigate the correlation between a pre- admission HESI examination, high school GPA, and SAT scores as a predictor of success in completing first year study. These admission variables will be reviewed again with grades achieved after the first year is completed. This use of data is known as which of the following? A. Construct validation B. Known-groups technique C. Concurrent validity D. Predictive validity

D. Reason: Predictive validity is an instrument's ability to differentiate between people's performances on a future criterion. When a researcher correlates applicant's pre-admission test, high school grades, and SAT score with subsequent grade point averages, predictive validity is being evaluated. Construct validity is a key criterion for assessing research quality, and construct validity has most often been linked to measurement. Construct validity in measurement concerns these questions: What is this instrument really measuring? and Does it validly measure the abstract concept of interest? One approach to construct validation is the known-groups technique. In this procedure, groups that are expected to differ on the target attribute are administered the instrument, and group scores are compared. Concurrent validity is an instrument's ability to distinguish among people who differ presently on a criterion.

Bias in a sample for a quantitative study refers to which of the following? A. Lack of heterogeneity in the population on the attribute of interest B. Sample selection using nonprobability-type sampling methods C. The margin of error in the data obtained from samples D. Systematic over- or underrepresentation of a key attribute vis-a-vis the population

D. Reason: Sampling bias is the systematic overrepresentation or underrepresentation of some segment of the population. Nonprobability sampling (in which elements are selected by nonrandom methods) includes convenience, quota, consecutive, and purposive sampling. A key criterion in assessing a sample in a quantitative study is its representativeness—the extent to which the sample is similar to the population and avoids bias.

Which following level of evidence includes systematic reviews of multiple studies? A. Level IV B. Level III C. Level II D. Level I

D. Reason: Systematic reviews are at the pinnacle of the hierarchy (Level I), because the strongest evidence comes from careful syntheses of multiple studies. The next highest level (Level II) includes individual randomized controlled trials (RCTs). Going down the "rungs" of the evidence hierarchy for Therapy questions results in less reliable evidence—for example, Level III evidence comes from a type of study called quasi-experiment. In-depth qualitative studies are near the bottom, in terms of evidence regarding intervention effectiveness.

In the question, "Do Baccalaureate degree-prepared nurses practice more rehabilitative nursing procedures on a client in an ICU than associate degree-prepared nurses?" the independent variable is which of the following? A. Associate degree-prepared nurses B. Baccalaureate degree-prepared nurses C. Rehabilitative nursing measures D. Type of educational background of nurse.

D. Reason: The dependent (or outcome) variable is the behavior, characteristic, or outcome the researcher is interested in explaining, predicting, or affecting (the "O" in the PICO scheme). A rehabilitative nursing measure is the dependent variable. The independent variable is the presumed cause of or influence on the dependent variable. The independent variable is type of educational background of nursing, not a particular degree. The independent variable corresponds to the "I" and the "C" components in the PICO scheme.

The difference between a true score and an obtained score is referred to as which of the following? A. Internal inconsistency B. Non-equivalence C. Interobserver disagreement D. Error of measurement

D. Reason: The obtained (or observed) score is the value obtained from measurement. The true score is the true value that would be obtained if it were possible to have an infallible measure. The true score is hypothetical—it cannot be known because measures are not infallible. The final term in the equation is the error of measurement, which is the difference between true and obtained scores. When the reliability assessment focuses on equivalence between observers or coders assigning scores, estimates of interrater (or interobserver) reliability are obtained. Internal consistency reliability, which refers to the extent to which the entire instrument's items are measuring the same attribute, is usually assessed with Cronbach's alpha.

The overall plan for answering a research question—the architectural backbone of a study—is called which of the following? A. Sampling plan B. Proposal C. Hypothesis D. Research design

D. Reason: The research design is the overall plan for obtaining answers to the research questions and for handling challenges that can undermine the study evidence. The researcher's sampling plan specifies how the sample will be selected and how many subjects there will be. Researchers seeking financial support submit a proposal to a funding source, and reviewers usually suggest improvements. Hypotheses state researchers' deductively derived expectations about relationships between study variables.

The level of significance of the findings in a research study can be found in which section? A. Discussion B. Introduction C. Methods D. Results

D. Reason: The results show the level of significance of the study findings. The introduction states the research problem and its context. The discussion section interprets the study findings. An abstract is a synopsis of the study. The introduction states the research problem and its context. The methods sections consists of strategies used to answer research questions.

The statement "the results of this study are statistically significant" means which of the following regarding the findings? A. Passed a Chi Test B. Are clinically important C. Are the strength of the study D. Are probably true and replicable

D. Reason: The statement "the results of this study are statistically significant" means that the findings are probably true and replicable. Findings that are statistically significant have a high probability of being "real." Statistically significant does not mean that the study findings passed a Chi test, are clinically important, or are the strength of the study.

The quality of life of people with chronic hepatitis C is the same as that of people without chronic hepatitis C. This sentence is: A. Purpose statement B. Research Question C. Research hypothesis D. Null hypothesis

D. Reason: The statement predicts that there is no relationship between a person having chronic hepatitis C and his or her quality of life; this is the basis for a statistical test, not an actual research hypothesis.

The use of multiple data collection methods to draw conclusions about the area being studied is called which of the following? A. Bias B. Statistical Test C. Research control D. Triangulation

D. Reason: Triangulation is the use of multiple sources or referents to draw conclusions about what constitutes the truth. A bias is an influence that results in an error in an inference or estimate. Researchers use statistical tests to test their hypotheses and assess the probability that the results are accurate. Research control usually involves holding constant influences on the outcome variable so that the true relationship between the independent and outcome variables can be understood.

When a research report undergoes a "blind" review for a journal, it means which of the following? A. The journal editors do not know who submitted the report B. The authors of the report do not know who the editor of the journal is. C. The report is published without indicating the authors' names. D. The reviewers making recommendations about publication are not told who the authors are.

D. Reason: Usually, manuscripts are reviewed by two or more peer reviewers (other researchers) who make recommendations about whether to accept or reject the manuscript, or to suggest revisions. Reviews are usually "blind"—reviewers are not told researchers' names, and authors are not told reviewers' names. As a result of peer review, consumers have some assurance that journal articles have been critiqued by other nurse researchers.

Nurse researchers work almost exclusively in universities and schools of nursing. True or False

False

Nurses have fully achieved an evidence-based practice; in that, decisions are almost always based on solid research findings. True or False

False

Journal clubs involve meetings among clinicians to discuss and evaluate studies. True or False

True