Nursing 3100 Exam #2

A nurse is teaching a client about high fiber foods that can assist in lowering LDL. Which of the following foods should the nurse include? Select all that apply. A: Beans B: Whole grains C: Cheese D: Yogurt E: Broccoli

A: Beans B: Whole grains E: Broccoli

Which contributes to the regulation of​ hematopoiesis? A. Hematopoietic stem cells B. Hormones C. Essential vitamins and nutrients D. White bone marrow

B. Hormones

Which factor increases cardiac​ output? A. Peripheral vascular resistance B. Increase in preload C. Hypovolemia D. Reduced cardiac contractility

B. Increase in preload

Which laboratory test is used to measure the effectiveness of warfarin sodium​ therapy? A. Platelet count B. International normalized ratio​ (INR) C. aPtt D. Complete blood count

B. International normalized ratio​ (INR)

Which route of administration should the nurse anticipate the prescribed vitamin B12 to be administered for the client with pernicious​ anemia? A. Oral B. Intramuscular C. Nasal inhalation D. Intravenous

B. Intramuscular

A nurse is teaching a group of female clients about risk factors for developing osteoporosis. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include? Select all that apply. A: Hyperlipidemia B: Family history C: Inactivity D: Cigarette smoking E: Obesity

B: Family history C: Inactivity D: Cigarette smoking

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has vitamin B12 deficiency. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to consume? Select all that apply. A: Beans B: Meat C: Milk D: Flaxseed E: Eggs

B: Meat C: Milk E: Eggs

Which describes the purpose of​ fibrinolysis? A. Produce enzymes B. Stop blood flow C. Remove a blood clot D. Increase blood flow

C. Remove a blood clot

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking carvedilol and has a prescription for an oral anti diabetic drug to manage their new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. By taking both drugs concurrently, the nurse should identify that the client is at an increased risk for which for the following conditions? -Hyperglycemia -Bradycardia -Hypotension -Hypoglycemia

-Hypoglycemia

Which describes the mechanism of action of anticoagulant​ prescriptions? A. Inhibition of thrombi formation. B. Conversion of plasminogen to plasmin C. Alteration of plasma membrane and platelets D. Prevention of fibrin from dissolving

A. Inhibition of thrombi formation.

Which time frame in conjunction with chemotherapy should the nurse administer prescribed Filgrastim​ (Neupogen)? A. ​Twenty-four hours prior to the chemotherapy B. Immediately before the chemotherapy C. At the time of the chemotherapy infusion D. Immediately following the chemotherapy

A. ​Twenty-four hours prior to the chemotherapy

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for gemfibrozil. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply) - Report any new intolerance to friends foods - Report muscle tenderness - Expect periodic liver function testing - Take the drug once each day - Take the drug with food

- Report any new intolerance to frieds foods - Report muscle tenderness - Expect periodic liver function testing

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for aliskiren to treat HTN. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the drug? (Select all that apply) -Hyperkalemia -Throat swelling -Cough -Constipation -Joint pain

-Hyperkalemia -Throat swelling -Cough

A nurse is caring for a client who is about to begin captopril therapy. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report because it can indicate a need to discontinue drug therapy? (Select all that apply) - Rash - Distorted taste - Swelling of the tongue - Dry cough -Photosensitivity

- Rash - Distorted taste - Swelling of the tongue - Dry cough

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for dobutamine. The nurse should clarify the prescription w the provider if the client is receiving which of the following types of drugs? (Select all that apply) -MAOI -General anesthetic -Tricyclic Antidepressant (TCA) -Beta blocker -ACE inhibitor

-MAOI -General anesthetic -Tricyclic Antidepressant (TCA) -Beta blocker

A nures is caring for a client who is taking a diuretic. The nurse should instruct the client to include which of the following foods in their diet to increase potassium intake? -Eggs -Cabbage -Cheese -Raisins

-Raisins

A school nurse is teaching a group of students how to read food labels. Which of the following is a required component of food labels that the nurse should include in the teaching? Select all that apply. A: Calories B: Total carbohydrates C: Magnesium D: Total fat E: Dietary fiber

A: Calories B: Total carbohydrates D: Total fat E: Dietary fiber

A nurse is providing teaching about food allergies to a group of new parents. Infants who react to which of the following foods typically outgrow the sensitivity? Select all that apply? A: Cow's Milk B: Soy C: Wheat D: Fish

A: Cow's Milk B: Soy

A nurse is teaching a client about dietary recommendations to lower blood pressure. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding? A: I should consume low fat dairy products. B: My limit is three cigarettes a day. C: My daily sodium consumption should be 3,000 milligrams. D: I should consume foods low in potassium.

A: I should consume low fat dairy products.

A nurse is reviewing prescribed medications for a newly admitted client. Which of the following medications increases the body's rate of metabolism? A: Levothyroxine B: Phenobarbital C: Morphine D: Dilaudid

A: Levothyroxine

A nurse is reviewing a client health record that includes a report of abdominal obesity and laboratory findings of elevated blood glucose and elevated triglycerides. These findings meet the criteria of which of the following conditions? A: Metabolic syndrome B: Heart failure C: Hypertension D: Anemia

A: Metabolic syndrome

A nurse is planning care for a client who has ESKD. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply. A: Monitor for constipation. B: Instruct the client on restricting calories from carbohydrates. C: Monitor the client's weight daily. D: Evaluate intake and output. E: Encourage the client to comply with fluid restrictions.

A: Monitor for constipation. C: Monitor the client's weight daily. D: Evaluate intake and output. E: Encourage the client to comply with fluid restrictions.

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking digoxin and develops changes on the ECG tracing and other manifestations that indicate the client has severe digoxin toxicity. Which of the following drugs should the nurse expect to administer to treat this complication? Deferoxamine Antigen-binding fragments Flumazenil

Antigen-binding fragments

A nurse is caring for a client who will begin using transdermal nitroglycerin to treat angina pectoris. When speaking to the client about the drug which of the following instructions should the nurse include? Apply the patch to a hairless area and rotate sites Apply a new patch when you start your day Remove patches for 10 to 12 hr each day Apply a new patch on the onset of anginal pain Apply the patch to dry skin and cover the area with plastic wrap

Apply the patch to a hairless area and rotate sites Apply a new patch when you start your day Remove patches for 10 to 12 hr each day

A client has a serum sodium level of 125​ mEq/L. Which prescription should the nurse​ anticipate? A. Provide a diet high in NaCl B. Administer normal saline intravenous​ (IV) C. Administer​ 0.45% NaCl D. Encourage the patient to drink fluids

B. Administer normal saline intravenous​ (IV)

The nurse is preparing to administer clevidipine​ (Cleviprex) to client experiencing a hypertensive crisis. Which interventions should the nurse​ implement? A. Monitor bowel sounds B. Administer the drug intravenously C. Continually monitor blood pressure D. Crush caplets for administration E. Infuse prescription in normal saline at 125​ mL/h

B. Administer the drug intravenously C. Continually monitor blood pressure

Which serum sodium level should the nurse recognize as​ hyponatremia? A. 140​ mEq/mL B. 137​ mEq/mL C. 145​ mEq/mL D. 133​ mEq/mL

D. 133​ mEq/mL

Which prescription is indicated for the prevention of blood​ clots? A. Captopril​ (Capoten) B. Morphine C. Reteplase​ (Retavase) D. Abciximab​ (ReoPro)

D. Abciximab​ (ReoPro)

Which route of administration should the nurse anticipate to use for a​ client's prescribed enoxaparin​ (Lovenox)? A. Administer the prescription via slow intravenous​ (IV) push. B. Administer the prescription intramuscularly into the thigh. C. Administer the prescription orally. D. Administer the prescription into the​ abdomen, subcutaneously.

D. Administer the prescription into the​ abdomen, subcutaneously.

Which should the nurse recognize are adverse effects associated with digoxin​ (Lanoxin)? A. Blurred vision and tachycardia B. Anorexia and constipation C. Tachycardia and hypotension D. Anorexia and nausea

D. Anorexia and nausea

A client experiencing bradycardia is suspected of overdosing on diltiazem​ (Cardizem). Which treatment should the nurse anticipate​ prescribed? A. Calcium chloride B. Dopamine C. Narcan D. Atropine

D. Atropine

Which client should the nurse anticipate a prescription for reteplase​ (Retavase) therapy post myocardial​ infarction? A. A​ 62-year-old with a recent hemorrhagic stroke B. A​ 45-year-old female with a​ 2-week-old cranial artery repair C. A​ 70-year-old male with active GI bleed D. A​ 54-year-old female with type 2 diabetes

D. A​ 54-year-old female with type 2 diabetes

Which describes the classification system for​ anemias? A. Based on the amount of oxygen carried by the erythrocytes. B. Based on the number of erythrocytes present. C. Based on the shape of erythrocytes. D. Based on the size and color of the erythrocytes.

D. Based on the size and color of the erythrocytes.

Which adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for while receiving warfarin​ sodium? A. Headache B. Pain C. Rash D. Bleeding

D. Bleeding

Which should the nurse understand is a potential client outcome if potassium chloride​ (KCl) is administered intravenous​ (IV) push? A. Hypernatremia B. Respiratory distress C. Seizures D. Cardiac arrest

D. Cardiac arrest

A client is prescribed an intravenous infusion of milrinone​ (Primacor) for acute heart failure. Which is a priority nursing assessment during the​ infusion? A. Vital signs every 15 minutes B. Monitor for hypertension C. Monitor for symptoms of atrial fibrillation D. Continuous ECG monitoring

D. Continuous ECG monitoring

Which adverse effect of lisinopril​ (Prinivil) should be reported to the healthcare​ provider? A. Fever B. Facial flushing C. Increased urine output D. Cough

D. Cough

Which should the nurse recognize are potential causes for respiratory​ alkalosis? A. Hypertension B. Hypoventilation C. Hypotension D. Hyperventilation

D. Hyperventilation

Which describes a characteristic of​ colloids? A. Contain electrolytes B. Promote urine output C. Readily leave the blood and enter cells D. Too large to cross membranes

D. Too large to cross membranes

A client with a potassium level of 5.9​ mEq/L is prescribed glucose and insulin. Which statement should the nurse include in the​ client's education? A. ​"Insulin is safer than giving laxatives such as​ Kayexalate." B. ​"Insulin lowers blood sugar levels and this is how the extra potassium is​ excreted." C. ​"Insulin will help kidneys excrete the extra​ potassium." D. ​"Insulin will cause extra potassium to go into cells and lower the blood​ level."

D. ​"Insulin will cause extra potassium to go into cells and lower the blood​ level."

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for losartan to treat HTN. The nurse should instruct that client that which of the following findings could indicate an adverse reaction to the drug and needs to be reported? Facial edema Sleepiness Peripheral edema Constipation

Facial edema

The nurse is caring for a client who is taking amiodarone to treat atrial fibrillation. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to avoid while taking the drug? Grapefruit juice NSAIDS Milk Foods high in K

Grapefruit juice

A nurse is teach a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin. The nurse should instruct the client that which of the following manifestations is a potential adverse effect of this drug? Headache Constipation Hypetension Hyperglycemia

Headache

A nurse is administering hydrochlorothiazide to a client who has gouty arthritis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings that indicates an adverse effect of this drug? Hyperuricemia Hyperkalemia Hypernatremia Hypoglycemia

Hyperuricemia

The nurse is assessing a client who is taking a loop diuretic and is experiencing a thready, irregular pulse, orthostatic hypotension, and confusion. The nurse should identify that these manifestations indicate which of the following adverse effects? Hypokalemia Hyponatremia Hypouricema Hypoglycemia

Hypokalemia

A nurse is caring for client who has a new prescription for verapamil to treat atrial fibrillation. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid drinking grapefruit juice while taking verapamil because it can cause the client to experience which of the following conditions? Tachycardia Dehydration Diarrhea Hypotension

Hypotension

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for quinidine. Which of the following statements should the nurse include? Monitor pulse rate and report changes Remain upright after 30 mins of taking this med This med can decrease digoxin levels This med can cause urinary incontinence

Monitor pulse rate and report changes

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is taking simvastatin. Which of the following is a serious adverse reaction that could require discontinuing drug therapy? Bronchoconstriction Muscle pain Lip numbness Somnolence

Muscle pain

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking atorvastatin and has a new prescription for gemfibrozil. The nurse should recognize that this drug combo places the client at an increased risk for which of the following adverse effects? Myopathy Hypoglycemia Irregular pulse Kidney failure

Myopathy

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for propranolol to treat tachydysrhythmia. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid taking which of the following types of OTC drugs while taking propranolol? NSAIDs Antihistamines Potassium supplements Vitamin C

NSAIDS

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking spironolactone to treat HTN. The nurse should recognize that which of the following client lab values requires immediate intervention? Sodium 140 mEq/L Potassium 5.2 mEq/L Chloride 100 mEq/L Magnesium 1.9 mEq/L

Potassium 5.2 mEq/L

A nurse is caring for a client who has a depressive disorder and requires a prescription drug to treat HTN. The nurse should recognize that which of the following antihypertensive drugs is contraindicated for this client? Reserpine Captopril Hydralazine Epleperone

Reserpine

The nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for verapamil. The nurse should clarify the prescription with the provider if the client has a history of which of the following conditions?Migraine headaches Pancreatitis Second-degree AV block Angina pectoris

Second-degree AV block

A nurse is reviewing new prescriptions with a client who has heart disease. The nurse should instruct the client that which of the following drugs is prescribed to treat hypercholesterolemia? Simvastatin Furosemide Losartan Nitroglycerin

Simvastatin

A nurse is caring for a client who has a glomerular filtration rate of 10 mL/min and a reduced urine output. The nurse should clarify a prescription for hydrochlorothiazide for this client because of which of the following characteristics of the drug? The drug can cause hypoglycemia The drug does not reduce BP The drug can increase the risk of pulmonary edema The drug does not promote diuresis for clients who have renal insufficiency

The drug does not promote diuresis for clients who have renal insufficiency

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing an acute ischemic cerebrovascular event due to a thrombus in a cerebral vessel. Which of the following drugs should the nurse expect to administer? a) Alteplase b) Aspirin c) Clopidogrel d) Heparin

a) Alteplase

A nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of desmopressin to a client who has hemophilia A. The client's laboratory results indicate that the client has a sodium level of 130 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a) Clarify the prescription with the provider b) Administer the drug with an analgesic c) Administer the required dose orally d) Assess factor IX levels

a) Clarify the prescription with the provider

A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic stable angina. The nurse should identify that which of the following drugs inhibits the action of adenosine diphosphate receptors (ADP) on platelets and can be prescribed to reduce the clients risk for myocardial infarction? a) Clopidogrel b) Heparin c) Warfarin d) Alteplase

a) Clopidogrel

A health care professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking ferrous sulfate (Feosol) to treat iron-deficiency anemia. When talking with the patient about the drug, the health care professional should include which of the following instructions? (Select all that apply) a) Eat iron-enriched foods b) Spread the dosage across each day c) Take the drug on an empty stomach d) Report dark green or black stools e) Increase dietary fiber intake

a) Eat iron-enriched foods b) Spread the dosage across each day c) Take the drug on an empty stomach e) Increase dietary fiber intake

A health care professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin factor III (Advate) therapy to treat hemophilia A. When administering factor VIII, which of the following actions should the health care professional take? a) Have emergency equipment ready b) Premedicate with aspirin (Ecotrin) c) Administer via rapid IV bolus d) Administer the powdered form orally

a) Have emergency equipment ready

A health care professional administers epoetin alfa (Epogen) subcutaneously to a patient who has renal failure. The health care professional should monitor the patient for which of the following adverse effects? a) Hypertension b) Muscle pain c) Edema d) Dry mouth

a) Hypertension

A nurse is monitoring a client who is undergoing anticoagulant therapy with heparin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a possible indication of hemorrhage? a) Rapid Pulse b) Yellowing of the sclera c) Elevated Blood pressure d) Pale-colored stools

a) Rapid Pulse

A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for an outpatient surgical procedure and reports taking aspirin 81 mg daily, including this morning. The nurse should identify that this places the client at risk for which of the following complications? a) Uncontrolled bleeding b) Myocardial infarction c) Respiratory depression d) Decreased renal perfusion

a) Uncontrolled bleeding

A health care professional should assess a patient who has megaloblastic anemia for indications of which of the following vitamin deficiencies? a) Vitamin B12 b) Vitamin K c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin D

a) Vitamin B12

A nurse is administering epoetin intravenously to a client who has renal failure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a) Shake the vial before using b) Administer via IV bolus over 1 to 3 min. c) Dilute the drug with D5W d) Save the used vial for the next dose

b) Administer via IV bolus over 1 to 3 min.

A health care professional is caring for a patient who is about ot begin alteplase (Activase) therapy to treat pulmonary embolism. Which of the following drugs should the health care professional have available in the event of a severe adverse reaction? a) Vitamin K b) Aminocaproic acid (Amicar) c) Protamine d) Deferoxamine (Deseferal)

b) Aminocaproic acid (Amicar)

A health care professional is caring for patient who has mild hemophilia A and is about to begin taking desmopressin (DDAVP) to prevent bleeding. The health care professional should monitor for which of the following adverse reactions? a) Weight loss b) Edema c) Polyuria d) Tachycardia

b) Edema

A nurse is caring for a client who recently started alteplase therapy. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects? a) Bronchodilation b) Headache c) Edema d) Hypertension

b) Headache

A health care professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking clopidogrel (Plavix) to prevent thrombus formation. The health care professional should question the use of clopidogrel by a patient who has which of the following? a) Myocardial infarction b) Peptic ulcer disease c) Pancreatitis d) Myasthenia gravis

b) Peptic ulcer disease

A health care professional is caring for a patient who is about ot begin taking folic acid to treat megaloblastic anemia. The health care professional should monitor which of the following laboratory values? a) Amylase level b) Reticulocyte count c) C-reactive protein d) Creatinine clearance

b) Reticulocyte count

A nurse is monitoring a client following ferrous sulfate administration. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects? a) Phlebitis b) Dark, orange-colored stools c) Constipation d) Injection site pain

c) Constipation

A patient is about to begin therapy with recombinant factor IX (BeneFix) to treat hemophilia B. The patient asks the health care professional about the risk of disease transmission with recombinant factor IX, as compared with plasma-derived factor IX. The health care professional should explain that recombinant factor IX eliminates the risk of which of the following? a) HIV b) Cytomegalovirus c) Creutzfeldt-jakob disease d) Anaphylaxis

c) Creutzfeldt-jakob disease

A health care professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking filgrastim (Neupogen) to treat neutropenia. The health care professional should assess the patient for which of the following adverse effects? a) Dusky nails bed b) Petechiae c) Enlarged spleen d) Swollen calf

c) Enlarged spleen

A health care professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which of the following laboratory values should increase with effective therapy? a) PT b) WBC c) Hgb d) Platelets

c) Hgb

A patient who is taking ferrous sulfate (Feosol) to treat iron-deficiency anemia develops severe nausea and vomiting due to iron toxicity. Which of the following drugs should the health care professional use to treat this complication? a) Flumazenil (Mazicon) b) Acetylcysteine (Acetadote) c) Naloxone d) Deferoxamine (Desferal)

d) Deferoxamine (Desferal)

A nurse is teaching a client who is starting treatment with warfarin. The nurse should plan to include information on which of the following topics to promote the effectiveness of the drug? a) Sleep modifications b) Fluid modifications c) Driving modifications d) Dietary modifications

d) Dietary modifications

Which should the nurse anticipate to be included in the​ client's treatment plan during the intravenous sargramostim​ (Leukine)? A. ECG monitoring B. Insertion of indwelling urinary catheter C. Administration of an antiemetic D. Administration of oxygen

A. ECG monitoring

Which should the nurse recognize a client with acute renal failure cannot effectively​ regulate? A. Fluid balance B. Electrolyte balance C. The pH of body fluids D. Heart rate E. Blood pressure

A. Fluid balance B. Electrolyte balance C. The pH of body fluids E. Blood pressure

The nurse is caring for a client kidney failure experiencing severe electrolyte imbalances. For which conditions is the client most at​ risk? A. Fluid retention B. Muscle spasms C. Fractures D. High cholesterol E. Depression

A. Fluid retention B. Muscle spasms C. Fractures

Which prescriptions should the nurse anticipate to be included in the treatment of a client with a pH of​ 7.32? A. Oral bicarbonate B. Sodium chloride C. Sodium citrate D. Potassium chloride E. Ammonium chloride

A. Oral bicarbonate C. Sodium citrate

Which assessment findings indicate a client receiving dobutamine​ (Dobutrex) is experiencing an adverse​ effect? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Palpitations B. Drop in blood pressure C. Cold extremities D. Headache E. Blurred vision

A. Palpitations B. Drop in blood pressure C. Cold extremities

Which symptoms should the nurse anticipate to treat with epinephrine​ (EpiPen) for a child allergic to bee stings that has been​ stung? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Cold clammy skin B. Excessive thirst C. Warm dry skin D. Restlessness E. Hyperactivity

A. Cold clammy skin B. Excessive thirst D. Restlessness

The nurse is preparing the education for a client prescribed chlorothiazide​ (Diuril). Which information should the nurse include in the​ teaching? A. Consumption of foods high in potassium B. Report change in hearing C. Daily weights with a report of a gain of more than 1 pound in 24 hours D. Assessment of blood glucose daily

A. Consumption of foods high in potassium

A nurse in a nutrition clinic is calculating body mass index (BMI) for several clients. The nurse should identify which of the following client's BMI as overwieght? Selected Answer: 24 32 27 30

27

Which mechanism of action does​ beta-adrenergic agonists have on the cardiovascular​ system? A. Dilate arterial smooth muscle B. Decrease the contractility of the heart C. Dilate venous system D. Increase cardiac output

A. Dilate arterial smooth muscle

For which conditions should the nurse instruct a client to hold the application of nitroglycerin ointment and contact the healthcare​ provider? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Dyspnea B. Productive cough C. Headache D. Fever E. Confusion

A. Dyspnea B. Productive cough E. Confusion

Which is a priority assessment for the client receiving reteplase​ (Retavase) intravenously? A. Abnormal bleeding B. Fluid balance C. Respiratory rate D. Blood glucose

A. Abnormal bleeding

Which lifestyle behaviors should the nurse discuss with a client to help reduce their risk of coronary artery​ disease? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Abstinence from smoking B. Decrease stress C. Limit alcohol consumption D. Maintain optimal weight E. Limit sodium intake

A. Abstinence from smoking C. Limit alcohol consumption E. Limit sodium intake

For which conditions should the nurse anticipate norepinephrine to be​ prescribed? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Acute shock B. Cardiac arrest C. Septic shock D. Hypovolemic shock E. Cardiogenic shock

A. Acute shock B. Cardiac arrest C. Septic shock

Which findings should the nurse anticipate when assessing a client developing​ right-sided heart​ failure? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Ankle edema B. Enlarged liver C. Displaced apical heart rate D. Shortness of breath E. Coughing

A. Ankle edema B. Enlarged liver C. Displaced apical heart rate

Which vital sign is of the greatest concern to the nurse prior to administering digoxin​ (Lanoxin)? A. Apical pulse B. Temperature C. Respiratory rate D. Blood pressure

A. Apical pulse

Which prescriptions does the nurse anticipate to be included in the goal to reduce the​ post-MI mortality of a​ client? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Aspirin B. Beta blockers C. Narcotic analgesics D. ACE inhibitors E. Antidysrhythmics

A. Aspirin B. Beta blockers D. ACE inhibitors

The nurse notes that a client experiencing heart failure has been receiving nifedipine​ (Procardia). Which is a priority assessment for the​ nurse? A. Auscultate breath sounds for crackles. B. Assess urinary output. C. Review recent lab results for hypokalemia. D. Assess level of orientation.

A. Auscultate breath sounds for crackles.

Which client is at greatest risk for developing heart​ failure? A. A​ 69-year-old African American male with hypertension B. A​ 50-year-old African American female who smokes C. A​ 75-year-old Caucasian male who is overweight D. A​ 52-year-old Caucasian female with asthma

A. A​ 69-year-old African American male with hypertension

Which is the most appropriate food for the nurse to recommend to a client to eat that is prescribed a loop​ diuretic? A. Bananas B. Cheese C. Yogurt D. Meat

A. Bananas

Which primary buffers help maintain a normal body​ pH? A. Bicarbonate and phosphate ions B. Sodium and bicarbonate ions C. Potassium and phosphate ions D. Sodium and calcium ions

A. Bicarbonate and phosphate ions

A patient has been prescribed gemfibrozil​ (Lopid). Which laboratory tests should the nurse schedule for the client on the next clinic​ appointment? A. Blood glucose B. Liver enzymes C. Potassium D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit E. Urinalysis

A. Blood glucose B. Liver enzymes D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit

Which changes are sensed by the baroreceptors and relayed to the vasomotor​ center? A. Blood pressure B. Blood pH C. Oxygenation D. Carbon dioxide

A. Blood pressure

Which physiological systems should the nurse recognize are most at risk for a client in a hypertensive​ crisis? A. Cardiac B. Respiratory C. Integumentary D. Gastrointestinal E. Renal

A. Cardiac E. Renal

Which should the nurse prepare for the client experiencing​ shock? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Cardiac monitor B. Pulse oximeter C. Oxygen D. Whole blood E. Dextran 40

A. Cardiac monitor B. Pulse oximeter C. Oxygen

Which statement is accurate regarding the physiological changes associated with heart​ failure? A. Cardiac remodeling occurs after prolonged ventricular hypertrophy. B. Blood backs up into the lungs due to right ventricular hypertrophy. C. Blood pressure​ increases, resulting in lowered afterload. D. The walls of the heart​ shrink, leading to lower cardiac output.

A. Cardiac remodeling occurs after prolonged ventricular hypertrophy.

Which information should the nurse include when discussing cardiogenic shock with a​ client? A. Cardiogenic shock occurs due to pump failure. B. Cardiogenic shock occurs due to a presence of bacteria and toxins in the blood. C. Cardiogenic shock occurs due to loss of sympathetic nerve activity. D. Cardiogenic shock occurs in relation to blood loss.

A. Cardiogenic shock occurs due to pump failure.

A client treated previously for a fractured leg and multiple abrasions returns to the emergency department experiencing anaphylactic shock. Which prescriptions should the nurse suspect have caused the​ reaction? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Cephalosporin antibiotic B. Topical antibiotic for use on abrasions C. NSAIDs D. Opioid analgesic E. Normal saline wash for abrasions

A. Cephalosporin antibiotic C. NSAIDs D. Opioid analgesic

The nurse has completed nutritional teaching for a client with a high low density lipoprotein​ (LDL) level. Which menu choice made by the client indicates an understanding of the​ teaching? A. Grilled chicken with rice and​ broccoli, tossed salad with walnuts and sliced​ apples, slice of​ whole-wheat bread, and​ low-fat chocolate pudding B. ​Low-fat hamburger with​ whole-wheat bun, tossed salad with walnuts and olive​ oil, and​ raisin-oatmeal cookie C. Grilled chicken salad with strawberries and​ pecans, baked macaroni and​ cheese, and​ low-fat brownie D. Beef tenderloin with gravy and​ noodles, fruit salad with apples and​ grapefruit, slice of rye​ bread, and apple pie

A. Grilled chicken with rice and​ broccoli, tossed salad with walnuts and sliced​ apples, slice of​ whole-wheat bread, and​ low-fat chocolate pudding

Which type of lipoprotein is often referred to as​ "the good​ type?" A. HDL B. Triglycerides C. LDL D. VLDL

A. HDL

Which adverse effect is common for clients prescribed topical nitroglycerin​ paste? A. Headache B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Rash D. Shortness of breath

A. Headache

The nurse reviewing a​ client's records notes the client has received polystyrene sulfonate​ (Kayexalate). Which condition should the nurse associate with the​ treatment? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypernatremia D. Hyperphosphatemia

A. Hyperkalemia

Which is the client at risk for that is receiving spironolactone​ (Aldactone)? A. Hyperkalemia B. Aplastic anemia C. Pancytopenia D. Hyponatremia

A. Hyperkalemia

Which should the nurse recognize is associated with chronic kidney disease​ (CKD)? A. Hypertension B. Inflammation C. Diabetes D. Hypoperfusion E. Sepsis

A. Hypertension C. Diabetes

Which is the​ nurse's priority assessment for a client treated with intravenous hydralazine​ (Apresoline)? A. Hypotension and tachycardia B. Hypotension and hyperthermia C. Hypotension and tachypnea D. Hypotension and bradycardia

A. Hypotension and tachycardia

Which prescription is nephrotoxic if an overdose​ occurs? A. Ibuprofen​ (Advil) B. Lorazepam​ (Ativan) C. Quetiapine​ (Seroquel) D. Amitriptyline​ (Elavil)

A. Ibuprofen​ (Advil)

The educator is reviewing the mechanism of action of intravenous glucagon as a treatment for an overdose of propranolol​ (Inderol) with the nursing staff. Which information should the educator​ include? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Improves AV node conduction B. Dilates the coronary arteries C. Increases the heart rate D. Enhances myocardial contractility E. Increases the fluid volume in the vascular system

A. Improves AV node conduction C. Increases the heart rate D. Enhances myocardial contractility

Which information should the nurse provide a client with hyperkalemia experiencing​ constipation? A. Increase fluid intake B. Include prune juice in your daily fluids C. Add fruits and vegetables to the diet D. Increase activity such as walking E. Use salt substitutes to reduce the sodium level

A. Increase fluid intake D. Increase activity such as walking

The nurse is providing education for nonpharmacological interventions to manage hypertension. Which information should then nurse​ include? A. Increase your dietary intake of fruits and vegetables B. Decrease the consumption of alcohol C. Reduce the dietary intake of potassium D. Increase physical activity E. Restrict your intake of sodium

A. Increase your dietary intake of fruits and vegetables B. Decrease the consumption of alcohol D. Increase physical activity E. Restrict your intake of sodium

Which nursing interventions should the nurse implement when administering oral potassium chloride​ (KCl)? A. Instruct the client sit straight up to swallow the pill B. Crush the tablet and put it in a soft food C. Instruct the client chew the tablet D. Administer the prescription with an antacid E. Instruct the client to take the prescription prior to eating a meal

A. Instruct the client sit straight up to swallow the pill D. Administer the prescription with an antacid E. Instruct the client to take the prescription prior to eating a meal

Which statement is accurate in regard to secondary​ hypertension? A. It can result from chronic renal impairment. B. It accounts for​ 90% of all hypertensive cases. C. It is also known as idiopathic. D. There is no known cause.

A. It can result from chronic renal impairment.

Which anatomical location is Ezetimibe​ (Zetia) effective in blocking the absorption of​ cholesterol? A. Jejunum B. Gallbladder C. Stomach D. Liver

A. Jejunum

For which conditions is a client with hypertension at​ risk? A. Kidney damage B. Stroke C. Liver failure D. Heart failure E. Blindness

A. Kidney damage B. Stroke D. Heart failure E. Blindness

Which current prescriptions should the nurse be concerned with for a client requiring​ dopamine? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. MAO inhibitor B. Phenytoin C. Beta blocker D. Digoxin E. Aspirin

A. MAO inhibitor B. Phenytoin C. Beta blocker D. Digoxin

The nurse understands which is the primary purpose for intravenous fluid replacement for a client that has a burn​ injury? A. Maintain blood pressure B. Administration of pain prescriptions C. Antibiotic administration D. Electrolyte replacement

A. Maintain blood pressure

Which nursing actions are appropriate for a client prescribed oral polystyrene sulfonate​ (Kayexalate)? A. Monitor for onset of action of this drug in an hour B. Administer sorbitol concurrently C. Repeat the dose in 4 hours if needed D. Mix the dose with a liquid high in glucose E. Administer with sodium bicarbonate

A. Monitor for onset of action of this drug in an hour B. Administer sorbitol concurrently C. Repeat the dose in 4 hours if needed

Which immediate goals should the nurse focus on for a client experiencing an anaphylactic reaction to​ penicillin? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Normalization of blood pressure B. Reduction of blood volume C. Identification of other allergies D. Reduction of inflammatory response E. Provision of basic life support

A. Normalization of blood pressure D. Reduction of inflammatory response E. Provision of basic life support

Which information should the nurse include when educating a client about coronary artery​ disease? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Plaque causes narrowing of the artery B. Plaque begins to accrue early in life C. Plaque causes narrowing of the veins D. Plaque affects the elasticity of the artery E. Plaque builds up in the myocardial tissue

A. Plaque causes narrowing of the artery B. Plaque begins to accrue early in life D. Plaque affects the elasticity of the artery

Which conditions should the nurse be concerned about prior to administering epinephrine for​ anaphylaxis? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Premature ventricular contractions B. Hypertension C. Hyperthyroidism D. Pheochromocytoma E. Hypotension

A. Premature ventricular contractions B. Hypertension C. Hyperthyroidism

Which anatomical area should the nurse display a client when providing education about the point of origin of a pulmonary​ embolism? A. Right atrium B. Left atrium C. Right ventricle D. Left ventricle

A. Right atrium

The nurse is discussing with a​ client, the dietary intake of​ omega-3 and​ CoQ10-rich foods to control lipid levels. Which foods should the nurse include in the​discussion? A. Sardines B. Shrimp C. Almonds D. Olive oil E. Carrots

A. Sardines C. Almonds D. Olive oil

Which is the​ nurse's priority action when monitoring a client receiving norepinephrine​ (Levophed) with a blood pressure of​ 230/120 mmHg? A. Slow the rate of the infusion. B. Assess the patient for​ signs/symptoms of a stroke. C. Discontinue the administration of the prescription. D. Notify the healthcare provider.

A. Slow the rate of the infusion.

Which diuretic is most effective in reducing the mortality of a client with heart​ failure? A. Spironolactone​ (Aldactone) B. Acetazolamide​ (Diamox) C. Furosemide​ (Lasix) D. Chlorothiazide​ (Diuril)

A. Spironolactone​ (Aldactone)

Which action should the nurse take when initiating a prescription of intravenous dextran 40​ (Gentran 40)? A. Start the infusion no faster than 240​ mg/min. B. Monitor the​ patient's vital signs continuously during administration. C. Monitor for signs of anaphylaxis. D. Monitor the client for deep vein thrombosis. E. Discard any unused portion of the infusion.

A. Start the infusion no faster than 240​ mg/min. B. Monitor the​ patient's vital signs continuously during administration. C. Monitor for signs of anaphylaxis. E. Discard any unused portion of the infusion.

Which is a client with a heart rate of 170 bpm and a normal QRS duration most likely be​ experiencing? A. Tachydysrhythmia originating from the atria. B. Tachydysrhythmia originating from the ventricles. C. Tachydysrhythmia originating from the bundle branches. D. Tachydysrhythmia originating from the Purkinje fibers.

A. Tachydysrhythmia originating from the atria.

Which assessment findings indicate a client receiving verapamil​ (Calan) is experiencing adverse​ effects? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. The client tells the nurse they have frequent headaches. B. The client has​ 3+ edema in the ankles and feet. C. The client​ states, "Everything I eat tastes like​ metal." D. The client​ states, "I got so dizzy yesterday that I had to lie down for a​ while." E. The​ client's face is flushed.

A. The client tells the nurse they have frequent headaches. B. The client has​ 3+ edema in the ankles and feet. D. The client​ states, "I got so dizzy yesterday that I had to lie down for a​ while."

Which should the nurse recognize are important safety precautions when administering a prescription to a client with renal​ failure? A. The client will require lower dosages. B. Some prescriptions increase fluid retention. C. Measure hourly intake and output. D. Some prescriptions are nephrotoxic. E. Some prescriptions are bound to plasma proteins.

A. The client will require lower dosages. C. Measure hourly intake and output. D. Some prescriptions are nephrotoxic.

Which assessment findings indicate the treatment for a client prescribed an​ erythropoiesis-stimulating factor is​ successful? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. The​ client's hemoglobin is increased. B. The client reports less shortness of breath on exertion. C. The client has not had an episode of epistaxis in over 3 weeks. D. The client reports enjoying a light exercise. E. The client has not had a fever since treatment began.

A. The​ client's hemoglobin is increased. B. The client reports less shortness of breath on exertion. D. The client reports enjoying a light exercise.

The nurse is preparing to discuss the use of primary hypertensive agents with a client. Which prescriptions should the nurse​ include? A. Thiazide diuretics. B. ​Angiotensin-II receptor blockers​ (ARBs). C. ​Beta-adrenergic antagonists. D. ​Direct-acting vasodilators. E. Peripheral adrenergic antagonists.

A. Thiazide diuretics. B. ​Angiotensin-II receptor blockers​ (ARBs).

Which is most important for the nurse to monitor a client receiving​ erythropoiesis-stimulating agents? A. Thromboembolism B. Transient ischemic attack C. Myocardial infarction D. Cerebral vascular accident

A. Thromboembolism

Which food should the nurse instruct the client prescribed warfarin​ (Coumadin) to​ avoid? A. Tomato salad with kale and basil B. Fettuccine Alfredo C. ​Whole-wheat bread with margarine D. Salt substitute

A. Tomato salad with kale and basil

The educator is reviewing the classifications of prescriptions used to decrease blood cholesterol levels with a nurse. Which prescriptions should the educator include in the discussion of fibric acid​ agents? A. Tricor B. Zetia C. Lopid D. Colestid E. Zocor

A. Tricor C. Lopid

The educator is preparing education about the different types of lipids for a nurse. Which should the educator include in the​ presentation? A. Triglycerides B. Phospholipids C. Steroids D. Lecithins E. Bile acids

A. Triglycerides B. Phospholipids C. Steroids

Which conditions contribute to heart​ failure? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Uncontrolled hypertension B. Coronary artery disease​ (CAD) C. Diabetes​ (DM) D. HIV E. Mitral stenosis

A. Uncontrolled hypertension B. Coronary artery disease​ (CAD) C. Diabetes​ (DM) E. Mitral stenosis

Which assessment finding for a client receiving a statin is a priority for the nurse to report to the healthcare​ provider? A. Urine output of 20​ mL/hour. B. Moderate elevation in liver function tests​ (LFTs). C. Urine output of 200​ mL/hour. D. Bowel sounds markedly increased in all four quadrants of the abdomen.

A. Urine output of 20​ mL/hour.

Which is a contributing factor to hypovolemic​ shock? A. Volume depletion. B. Brain or spinal cord trauma. C. Infectious process. D. Inadequate cardiac output.

A. Volume depletion.

The nurse is preparing to provide education on daily​ self-monitoring for a client with congestive heart failure prescribed a diuretic. Which information should the nurse plan to include in the​ teaching? A. Weight B. Pulse C. Temperature D. Blood pressure E. Respiratory rate

A. Weight B. Pulse D. Blood pressure

The healthcare provider has prescribed hydrochlorothiazide​ (HCTZ) for a client with chronic renal failure. Which assessment finding indicates the treatment is​ineffective? A. Wheezing B. Weak pulses C. Hypotension D. Poor skin turgor

A. Wheezing

A client prescribed doxazosin​ (Cardura) asks how the medication works. Which information should the nurse provide the​ client? A. ​"Doxazosin helps dilate the blood​ vessels." B. ​"Doxazosin helps the heart work more​ efficiently." C. ​"Doxazosin causes the kidneys to excrete more​ urine." D. ​"Doxazosin decreases the release of the stress​ hormones."

A. ​"Doxazosin helps dilate the blood​ vessels."

The nurse is providing a client education about dysrhythmias. Which statement should the nurse include in the​ teaching? A. ​"Dysrhythmias interrupt the normal electrical pathways in the heart so it​ can't beat​ properly." B. ​"Dysrhythmias cause serious electrolyte​ imbalances; this results in heart​ block." C. ​"Dysrhythmias alter the blood flow through the heart and cause it to stop​ beating." D. ​"Dysrhythmias are the result of​ long-standing, uncontrolled​ hypertension."

A. ​"Dysrhythmias interrupt the normal electrical pathways in the heart so it​ can't beat​ properly."

After reviewing a​ client's blood​ work, the nurse suspects the client is experiencing​ iron-deficiency anemia. Which questions should the nurse ask the​ client? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. ​"Have you had a significant dietary change in the last 6​ months?" B. ​"Do you handle chemicals in your new​ job?" C. ​"Have your stools changed in​ appearance?" D. ​"Have you been eating more carbohydrates than​ usual?" E. ​"Are your menstrual periods heavier than normal for​ you?"

A. ​"Have you had a significant dietary change in the last 6​ months?" B. ​"Do you handle chemicals in your new​ job?" C. ​"Have your stools changed in​ appearance?" E. ​"Are your menstrual periods heavier than normal for​ you?"

A client receiving hydrochlorothiazide​ (Microzide) asks the nurse why they are urinating so frequently. Which statement should the nurse provide the​ client? A. ​"Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) decreases the fluid in your bloodstream and this lowers your blood​ pressure." B. ​"Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) dilates your blood vessels so you urinate more and your blood pressure​ decreases." C. ​"Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) increases your heart​ rate; this pumps blood faster to your kidneys so you urinate more and your blood pressure​ decreases." D. ​"Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) enhances kidney function causing you to urinate more and that decreases your blood​ pressure."

A. ​"Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) decreases the fluid in your bloodstream and this lowers your blood​ pressure."

A client asks the nurse how hypertension can lead to heart failure. Which response should the nurse provide the​ client? A. ​"Hypertension increases the resistance in the blood vessels causing the heart work harder to pump the blood out against the resistance of the​ arteries." B. ​"Hypertension causes resistance in the venous system requiring the heart to work harder to pump the blood​ forward." C. ​"Hypertension limits the ability of the heart to stretch before emptying resulting in the heart working harder to pump the blood out into the arterial​ system." D. ​"Hypertension limits the amount of blood entering the left ventricle increasing the workload of the heart to pump an adequate amount of blood into the circulatory​ system."

A. ​"Hypertension increases the resistance in the blood vessels causing the heart work harder to pump the blood out against the resistance of the​ arteries."

The nurse has completed the education for a client prescribed gemfibrozil​ (Lopid). Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the​ information? A. ​"I must take this medication with food or I can have​ heartburn." B. ​"My physician said it really​ doesn't matter how I take this​ medication." C. ​"Taking this medication with yogurt will help it to absorb​ better." D. ​"I should take this medication on an empty stomach to help it absorb​ better."

A. ​"I must take this medication with food or I can have​ heartburn."

The nurse has provided discharge education for a client prescribed an anticoagulant. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the​information? A. ​"I should wear a medical alert bracelet that says​ I'm on an​ anticoagulant." B. ​"I can take​ enteric-coated aspirin but not plain aspirin for my​ arthritis." C. ​"I need to eat more protein while I am taking this​ medication." D. ​"I must limit my intake of vitamin C while​ I'm on warfarin​ (Coumadin)."

A. ​"I should wear a medical alert bracelet that says​ I'm on an​ anticoagulant."

The nurse has completed the education for a client prescribed hydrochlorothiazide​ (Microzide). Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the​teaching? A. ​"I take my medication early in the​ morning." B. ​"I really need to avoid grapefruit juice when I take this​ medication." C. ​"I need to avoid salt substitutes and​ potassium-rich foods." D. ​"If I develop a​ cough, I should call my​ physician."

A. ​"I take my medication early in the​ morning."

The nurse has provided education for a client prescribed oprelvekin​ (Neumega). Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the​ information? A. ​"This prescription will help increase my platelet​ count." B. ​"This prescription will help increase my red blood cell​ count." C. ​"This prescription will help my chemotherapy work​ better." D. ​"This prescription will help me regain the weight I have​ lost."

A. ​"This prescription will help increase my platelet​ count."

Which information should the nurse include in the education for a client is prescribed an additional​ once-daily antidysrhythmic drug to control persistent atrial​fibrillation? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. ​"I will avoid drinking grapefruit​ juice." B. ​"I understand the effect of the prescription will last 4 to 8 weeks after I stop taking​ it." C. ​"I will monitor my blood pressure and report any significant​ changes." D. ​"I will avoid the use of St​ John's wort." E. ​"I will follow a low sodium​ diet."

A. ​"I will avoid drinking grapefruit​ juice." B. ​"I understand the effect of the prescription will last 4 to 8 weeks after I stop taking​ it." C. ​"I will monitor my blood pressure and report any significant​ changes." D. ​"I will avoid the use of St​ John's wort."

The nurse has provided education for a client prescribed fenofibrate​ (Lofibra). Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the​ information? A. ​"I will expect to see a change in color of my​ stool." B. ​"I will monitor myself for​ bruising." C. ​"I will take my prescription with​ food." D. ​"I will report nausea and vomiting to my healthcare​ provider."

A. ​"I will expect to see a change in color of my​ stool."

The nurse has provided client education regarding therapeutic lifestyle changes to help control cholesterol levels. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the​ information? A. ​"I will maintain an optimal​ weight." B. ​"I will implement a medically supervised exercise​ plan." C. ​"I will increase saturated fat in my​ diet." D. ​"I will increase insoluble fiber in my​ diet." E. ​"I will eliminate tobacco​ use."

A. ​"I will maintain an optimal​ weight." B. ​"I will implement a medically supervised exercise​ plan." E. ​"I will eliminate tobacco​ use."

The nurse has provided education for a client prescribed lisinopril​ (Prinivil). Which statement made by the client indicates further teaching is​ required? A. ​"I will not need to worry about having additional blood tests​ done." B. ​"I will monitor my blood pressure until my next​ appointment." C. ​"I will avoid using salt substitutes for​ seasoning." D. ​"It takes a while for this medication to take​ effect."

A. ​"I will not need to worry about having additional blood tests​ done."

The nurse has completed the education for a client prescribed propranolol​ (Inderal). Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the​ information? A. ​"I will take my pulse every day and call my healthcare provider if it is less than​ 60." B. ​"I will call my healthcare provider if I lose more than 3 pounds a​ week." C. ​"I will call my healthcare provider if my anxiety increases and I start worrying​ again." D. ​"I will take my pulse every day and call my healthcare provider if it is higher than​ 100."

A. ​"I will take my pulse every day and call my healthcare provider if it is less than​ 60."

The nurse has provided education for a client prescribed procainamide hydrochloride​ (Pronestyl). Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the​information? A. ​"I will take this prescription even when I am feeling​ well." B. ​"This prescription may make me feel​ confused." C. ​"If my pulse is less than 60 I will not take my​ prescription." D. ​"I will not take the prescription on an empty​ stomach."

A. ​"I will take this prescription even when I am feeling​ well."

The nurse has provided education for a client who will​ self-administer a​ twice-daily antidysrhythmic prescription. Which statements made by the client indicates further teaching is​ needed? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. ​"If I get the​ flu, I should stop taking the medication until my fever goes​ down." B. ​"I should take my doses as close to 12 hours apart as I​ can." C. ​"If I forget a dose of the prescription I should take two pills for the next​ dose." D. ​"If I​ can't take the prescription for a couple of days because I am​ sick, I should call the clinic for​ advice." E. ​"I should get my prescription refilled before I am completely out of​ medicine."

A. ​"If I get the​ flu, I should stop taking the medication until my fever goes​ down." C. ​"If I forget a dose of the prescription I should take two pills for the next​ dose."

Which statements should the nurse include in the teaching for a client prescribed warfarin​ (Coumadin) therapy? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. ​"Inform your dentist you are taking warfarin prior to any​ procedures." B. ​"Report to the lab for testing of activated partial thromboplastin time​ (APTT)." C. ​"Avoid strenuous​ activities." D. ​"Place ice at the injection site if stinging or burning​ occurs." E. ​"Take nonsteroidal​ anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs) for minor pain​ relief."

A. ​"Inform your dentist you are taking warfarin prior to any​ procedures." C. ​"Avoid strenuous​ activities."

The nurse has provided client education about the function of renal system. Which statements made by the client indicate an understanding of the​ teaching? A. ​"Kidneys help the heart by balancing​ potassium." B. ​"Kidneys balance the fluid and electrolytes in my​ body." C. ​"Kidneys keep blood pressure from getting too​ low." D. ​"Kidneys help decrease infections by excreting​ bacteria." E. ​"Kidneys help regulate the oxygen levels in my​ blood."

A. ​"Kidneys help the heart by balancing​ potassium." B. ​"Kidneys balance the fluid and electrolytes in my​ body." C. ​"Kidneys keep blood pressure from getting too​ low."

Which statements by the client are specifically associated with unstable​ angina? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. ​"My chest has started hurting even if I am just watching​ television." B. ​"My chest starts hurting if I climb one set of​ stairs." C. ​"My attacks of chest pain are coming more frequently​ now." D. ​"The pain occurs most often after I eat a​ meal." E. ​"The pain is worse than it used to​ be."

A. ​"My chest has started hurting even if I am just watching​ television." C. ​"My attacks of chest pain are coming more frequently​ now." E. ​"The pain is worse than it used to​ be."

Which statements made by the client indicate an understanding of the compensatory mechanisms associated with heart​ failure? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. ​"My heart enlarged in order to compensate for the effects of heart​ failure." B. ​"My nervous system kicks in to compensate for the effects of heart​ failure." C. ​"My body will decrease blood flow to other organs in order to compensate for heart​ failure." D. ​"My body will increase urine output in order to compensate for the effects of heart​ failure." E. ​"My body will produce​ anti-inflammatory agents to compensate for heart​ failure."

A. ​"My heart enlarged in order to compensate for the effects of heart​ failure." B. ​"My nervous system kicks in to compensate for the effects of heart​ failure." C. ​"My body will decrease blood flow to other organs in order to compensate for heart​ failure."

Which statements made by a client that has been receiving a prescription for an atrial dysrhythmia indicates the client requires further​ information? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. ​"Since I​ can't drink coffee​ anymore, I have started drinking diet cola in the​ mornings." B. ​"I have found that a glass of wine after work and one with dinner helps me to relax from my stressful​ job." C. ​"We have celebrated several birthdays since I saw you last. I love chocolate birthday​ cake." D. ​"I have really worked at stopping my smoking since I was last​ here." E. ​"My friends and I have found several restaurants in our area that offer​ good, low-fat​ meals."

A. ​"Since I​ can't drink coffee​ anymore, I have started drinking diet cola in the​ mornings." B. ​"I have found that a glass of wine after work and one with dinner helps me to relax from my stressful​ job." C. ​"We have celebrated several birthdays since I saw you last. I love chocolate birthday​ cake."

Which information should the nurse include in the education for a client prescribed an​ antidysrhythmic? A. ​"Take the first dose of your prescription before​ bed." B. ​"Take your medication while you are lying​ down." C. ​"Elevate your extremities if you notice any​ swelling." D. ​"Weigh yourself every other​ day."

A. ​"Take the first dose of your prescription before​ bed."

Which information should the nurse include when providing education for an older client prescribed chlorothiazide​ (Diuril)? A. ​"Take the medication early in the​ morning." B. ​"It is alright to have a glass of wine with this​ medication." C. ​"Avoid foods that are high in​ potassium." D. ​"Take the medication on an empty​ stomach."

A. ​"Take the medication early in the​ morning."

The nurse is reviewing the myocardial blood supply for a client with coronary artery disease​ (CAD). Which statements made by the client indicate an understanding of the​ information? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. ​"The heart has right and left arteries that arise from the​ aorta." B. ​"The coronary arteries carry blood away from the heart to the right​ atrium." C. ​"The heart receives its oxygen through the blood that fills​ it." D. ​"Coronary arteries primarily carry blood to the left​ ventricle." E. ​"The right and left arteries have smaller branches that go around the​ heart."

A. ​"The heart has right and left arteries that arise from the​ aorta." E. ​"The right and left arteries have smaller branches that go around the​ heart."

A client​ post-acute myocardial infarction asks the nurse why they are prescribed reteplase​ (Retavase) intravenously​ (IV). Which response should the nurse provide the​client? A. ​"The prescription is dissolving the clot that has caused your heart​ attack." B. ​"The prescription will increase the strength of the muscles in the heart during each​ beat." C. ​"The prescription dilates the arteries in the heart so it can get more​ oxygen." D. ​"The prescription thins your blood so more clots will not​ develop."

A. ​"The prescription is dissolving the clot that has caused your heart​ attack."

A client asks the nurse how epoetin alfa​ (Epogen) will help their anemia. Which response should the nurse provide the​ client? A. ​"The prescription stimulates your body to make red blood​ cells." B. ​"This prescription contains red blood​ cells." C. ​"This prescription prevents the destruction of the red blood​ cells." D. ​"This prescription increases the iron binding capacity of the red blood​ cells."

A. ​"The prescription stimulates your body to make red blood​ cells."

The nurse has provided education for a client prescribed pentoxifylline​ (Trental). Which statements made by the client indicate an understanding of the​ information? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.. Select all that apply. A. ​"The prescription will soften the red blood cells​ (RBCs) so they can fit through the smaller blood​ vessels." B. ​"The prescription decreases the platelets so the blood is less likely to​ clot." C. ​"The prescription decreases the​ "stickiness" of the​ blood." D. ​"The prescription affects how the liver makes clotting​ factors." E. ​"The prescription destroys some of the clotting​ factors."

A. ​"The prescription will soften the red blood cells​ (RBCs) so they can fit through the smaller blood​ vessels." B. ​"The prescription decreases the platelets so the blood is less likely to​ clot." C. ​"The prescription decreases the​ "stickiness" of the​ blood."

A pregnant client prescribed cyanocobalamin​ (Nascobal) asks the prescription will hurt her baby. Which response should the nurse provide the​ client? A. ​"This prescription is safe during​ pregnancy." B. ​"The prescription is safe in the third trimester of​ pregnancy." C. ​"The prescription is safe when administered as an​ injection." D. ​"This prescription is safe if taken in the form of a pill during​ pregnancy."

A. ​"This prescription is safe during​ pregnancy."

A client tells the nurse they are nervous about taking prescribed verapamil​ (Calan). Which response should the nurse provide the​ client? A. ​"This prescription is​ safe, and most patients do very well with​ it." B. ​"This prescription is a potassium channel blocker and is considered​ safe." C. ​"This prescription increases your blood​ pressure, but we will be monitoring​ that." D. ​"This prescription has many side​ effects, but you should be​ okay."

A. ​"This prescription is​ safe, and most patients do very well with​ it."

Which conditions should the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider to possibly prescribe a​ diuretic? A. Cerebrovascular accident B. Heart failure C. Hypertension D. Acute kidney injury E. Ketoacidosis

B. Heart failure C. Hypertension D. Acute kidney injury

A client asks the nurse how epoetin alfa​ (Procrit) is related to their chemotherapy. Which response should the nurse​ provide? A. ​"This prescription will help prevent anemia that can be caused by your​ chemotherapy." B. ​"This prescription is administered to enhance the effectiveness of the​ chemotherapy." C. ​"This prescription will stimulate the immune system to help kill the cancer​ cells." D. ​"This prescription helps to counteract the nausea and vomiting caused by​ chemotherapy."

A. ​"This prescription will help prevent anemia that can be caused by your​ chemotherapy."

A client states to the​ nurse, "I read that my antidysrhythmic drug can actually cause me to have irregular heartbeats. How can this​ be?" Which response should the nurse provide the​ client? A. ​"Your medication blocks the flow of the electrolytes in your​ heart, and this can cause irregular​ beats." B. ​"The literature is not always​ accurate, but if you have concerns I recommend discussing them with your healthcare​ provider." C. ​"Your prescription is not the​ problem; it is when you mix it with​ over-the-counter (OTC) drugs that you develop irregular​ beats." D. ​"The aspirin that you take every day will help you avoid experiencing the irregular​ heartbeats."

A. ​"Your medication blocks the flow of the electrolytes in your​ heart, and this can cause irregular​ beats."

Which intravenous solution should the nurse anticipate to be prescribed for the client who is dehydrated with a stable blood​ pressure? A. ​0.45% NaCl B. ​0.9% NaCl C. D5 ​0.45% NS D. ​5% dextrose in NS

A. ​0.45% NaCl

Which assessment finding should the nurse associate with​ shock? A. ​B/P: 80/20​ mmHg, P:​ 122, weak and​ thready, R:​ 28, and shallow. B. ​B/P: 140/90​ mmHg, P:​ 46, weak and​ irregular, R:​ 24, and shallow. C. ​B/P: 130/88​ mmHg, P:​ 90, bounding,​ R: 32, and shallow. D. ​B/P: 50/0​ mmHg, P:​ 126, weak and​ thready, R:​ 14, and shallow.

A. ​B/P: 80/20​ mmHg, P:​ 122, weak and​ thready, R:​ 28, and shallow.

Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor a client for that is prescribed an​ antidysrhythmic? A. ​Palpitations, chest​ pain, weakness, and fatigue B. ​Depression, irritability,​ fatigue, and nausea C. ​Low-grade fever,​ diaphoresis, weakness, and dry mucous membranes D. ​Anorexia, insomnia,​ confusion, and​ 2+ pitting peripheral edema

A. ​Palpitations, chest​ pain, weakness, and fatigue

Which information should the nurse include the teaching for a client prescribed​ heparin? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. ​Self-administration of subcutaneous injections. B. Symptoms of deep vein thrombosis. C. Required laboratory tests. D. Signs of abnormal bleeding. E. Scheduled administration times with meals.

A. ​Self-administration of subcutaneous injections. B. Symptoms of deep vein thrombosis. C. Required laboratory tests. D. Signs of abnormal bleeding.

Which intervention is the highest priority for a​ 30-year-old female with a BMI of 20 who smokes and has a blood pressure of​ 137/88? A. ​Smoking-cessation program B. Stress management C. Diuretic therapy D. ​Weight-loss program

A. ​Smoking-cessation program

A charge nurse is conducting a nutritional class for a group of newly licensed nurses regarding basal metabolic rate (BMR). The charge nurse should inform the class that which of the following factors increases BMR? Select all that apply. A: Age older than 60 year B: Puberty C: Prolonged stress D: Lactation E: Malnutrition

A: Age older than 60 year B: Puberty C: Prolonged stress D: Lactation

A nurse on an orthopedic unit is reviewing data for a client who sustained trauma in a motor-vehicle crash. Which of the following values indicates the client is in a catabolic state (using protein faster than protein is being synthesized)? A: Negative nitrogen balance B: Blood prealbumin 15 mg/dL C: Blood albumin 3.5 g/dL D: BMI of 18.5

A: Negative nitrogen balance

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is to begin taking phenelzine. Consuming which of the following foods while taking this medication could cause a hypertensive crisis? A: Smoked fish B: Dark green vegetables C: Greek yogurt D: Grapefruit juice

A: Smoked fish

A nurse is discussing essential nutrients for normal functioning of the nervous system with a client. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching? Select all that apply. A: Vitamin B6 B: Thiamin C: Phosphorus D: Sodium E: Calcium

A: Vitamin B6 B: Thiamin D: Sodium E: Calcium

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who follows vegan dietary practices. The nurse should instruct the client that there is a risk of having a deficit in which of the following nutrients? Select all that apply. A: Vitamin D B: Fiber C: Calcium D: Whole grains E: Vitamin B12

A: Vitamin D C: Calcium E: Vitamin B12

A nurse is performing a nutrition assessment on a client. Which of the following clinical findings are suggestive of malnutrition? Select all that apply. A: Weak hand grips B: Blood pressure 130/80 mm Hg C: Dry hair D: Poor wound healing E: Impaired coordination

A: Weak hand grips C: Dry hair D: Poor wound healing E: Impaired coordination

A nurse should recognize that milrinone is contraindicated for a client who has which of the following conditions? Acute myocardial infarction Peripheral vascular disease ulcerative colitis ventricular tachycardia

Acute myocardial infarction

The nurse is providing education for a client about the replacement of sodium after strenuous exercise. Which information should the nurse​ include? A. Take one salt tablet prior to strenuous exercise B. After exercising drink plenty of water C. Avoid exercising in the outdoor heat D. Increase salt in the meals prior to exercising

B. After exercising drink plenty of water

Which should the client be instructed to avoid when prescribed an​ anticoagulant? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Citrus fruits B. Alcohol C. Contact sports D. Prolonged sitting E. Hard toothbrush

B. Alcohol C. Contact sports D. Prolonged sitting E. Hard toothbrush

Which prescription should the nurse anticipate administering to a client treated for an anaphylactic reaction with​ epinephrine? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Antibiotics B. Antihistamines C. Corticosteroids D. Vasopressors E. Vasodilators

B. Antihistamines C. Corticosteroids

The nurse notes that the intravenous​ (IV) norepinephrine​ (Levophed) has been accidentally abruptly discontinued. Which is the​ nurse's priority​ action? A. Notify the healthcare provider. B. Assess the​ client's blood pressure. C. Obtain an oxygen saturation reading. D. Administer oxygen via a rebreather mask.

B. Assess the​ client's blood pressure.

Which is the priority nursing assessment for the client receiving human serum albumin​ (Albuminar) as treatment for​ shock? A. Auscultate breath sounds for​ hyper-resonance. B. Auscultate breath sounds for crackles. C. Auscultate for an absence of breath sounds in the lower lobes. D. Auscultate breath sounds for inspiratory stridor.

B. Auscultate breath sounds for crackles.

Which clients should the nurse anticipate will require a pharmacological intervention to manage their blood​ pressure? A. A​ 30-year-old female whose blood pressure is​ 138/88 mmHg who is otherwise healthy. B. A​ 61-year-old man whose blood pressure is​ 144/90 mmHg who also has type 2 diabetes. C. A​ 56-year-old woman whose blood pressure is​ 135/84 mmHg who also has​ Cushing's disease. D. A​ 65-year-old man whose blood pressure is​ 148/88 mmHg who is otherwise healthy. E. A​ 61-year-old woman whose blood pressure is​ 153/92 mmHg who is otherwise healthy.

B. A​ 61-year-old man whose blood pressure is​ 144/90 mmHg who also has type 2 diabetes. E. A​ 61-year-old woman whose blood pressure is​ 153/92 mmHg who is otherwise healthy.

Which is the priority nursing assessment for a client prescribed epoetin alfa​ (Epogen)? A. Oxygen saturation B. Blood pressure C. Apical pulse D. Temperature

B. Blood pressure

Which should the nurse assess a client for prior to administering atenolol​ (Tenormin)? A. Oxygen saturation B. Blood pressure C. Pulse D. Respirations E. Temperature

B. Blood pressure

Which are the​ nurse's priority assessments of a client who has received normal serum​ albumin? A. Urinary output and nausea or vomiting B. Blood pressure and urinary output C. Urinary output and pupil response D. Blood pressure and level of pain

B. Blood pressure and urinary output

Which laboratory values should the nurse assess for the client receiving lisinopril​ (Prinivil)? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Uric acid B. Blood urea nitrogen​ (BUN) C. Serum bilirubin D. ​ALT/AST E. Serum drug levels

B. Blood urea nitrogen​ (BUN) C. Serum bilirubin D. ​ALT/AST

Depolarization occurs when which two electrolytes rush into the​ cell? A. Calcium and magnesium B. Calcium and sodium C. Sodium and potassium D. Chloride and potassium

B. Calcium and sodium

Which classification of drug is used for the treatment of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia​ (PSVT)? A. Potassium channel blocker B. Calcium channel blocker. C. Sodium channel blocker D. ​Beta-adrenergic antagonist

B. Calcium channel blocker.

Which classifications of prescriptions are used to increase cardiac output by increasing the force of myocardial​ contractions? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Angiotensin receptor blockers B. Cardiac glycosides C. Adrenergic blockers D. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors E. ​Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor

B. Cardiac glycosides D. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors

Which initial intervention should the nurse be prepared for in the treatment of​ shock? A. Initiate an intravenous line B. Connect the client to a cardiac monitor C. Assess the blood pressure and pulse D. Assess the level of consciousness

B. Connect the client to a cardiac monitor

Which laboratory results should the nurse understand are associated with the treatment of​ epinephrine? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Elevated digoxin B. Decreased potassium C. Increased calcium D. Decreased sodium E. Elevated blood glucose

B. Decreased potassium E. Elevated blood glucose

Which prescription should the nurse anticipate to administer to a client with acute iron​ intoxication? A. Blood transfusion B. Deferoxamine​ (Desferal) C. Folic acid D. Cyanocobalamin​ (Nascobal)

B. Deferoxamine​ (Desferal)

Which is the purpose of the AV​ node? A. Enhance the impulse from the SA node. B. Delay the impulse from the SA node. C. Pace the heart at 60-100 bpm. D. Pace the heart at 40-60 bpm.

B. Delay the impulse from the SA node.

Which describes the primary actions of Filgrastim​ (Granix)? A. Increases the production of basophils B. Enhances cytotoxic function of the neutrophil C. Enhances phagocytic activity of the neutrophil D. Enhances the action of the basophils E. Increases neutrophil production

B. Enhances cytotoxic function of the neutrophil C. Enhances phagocytic activity of the neutrophil E. Increases neutrophil production

Which conditions is the use of thrombolytic therapy contraindicated​ in? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Venous emboli B. History of intracranial hemorrhage C. Hemophilia D. Liver disease E. Peptic ulcer disease

B. History of intracranial hemorrhage C. Hemophilia D. Liver disease E. Peptic ulcer disease

The nurse reviewing a​ client's serum cholesterol levels notes the​ following: Low density lipoprotein​ (LDL) = 105​ mg/dl High density lipoprotein​ (HDL) = 37​ mg/dl Low density lipoprotein​ (LDL)/high density lipoprotein​ (HDL) ratio​ = 4.1 Which should the nurse identify as the priority outcome in the​ client's plan of​ care? A. Education about diet and exercise. B. Maintenance of normal lipid levels without the use of pharmacotherapy. C. The​ client's achievement of normal lipid levels through compliance with medications. D. Validate that the client understands the importance of lifestyle changes.

B. Maintenance of normal lipid levels without the use of pharmacotherapy.

Which condition is a symptom of​ hypokalemia? A. Constipation B. Muscle weakness C. Hypertension D. Weight gain

B. Muscle weakness

Which is the initial origin for the development of​ erythrocytes? A. Lymphoid stem cell B. Myeloid stem cell C. Megakaryocyte D. ​Colony-stimulating factors

B. Myeloid stem cell

Which is the expected priority outcome for a client receiving normal serum albumin​ (Albuminar)? A. Alert and oriented B. Normal breathing pattern C. Afebrile D. Free of a rash

B. Normal breathing pattern

Which conditions should the nurse anticipate the need for intravenous fluid therapy to correct a fluid​ imbalance? ​ A. Constipation B. Postoperative nausea and vomiting C. Severe burn D. Congestive heart failure E. Diabetic ketoacidosis

B. Postoperative nausea and vomiting C. Severe burn E. Diabetic ketoacidosis

Which describes the mechanism of action for Clopidogrel​ (Plavix)? A. Stimulates platelet production B. Prevents the platelets from sticking together C. Prevents platelets from adhering to the injured tissue D. Decreases platelet production

B. Prevents the platelets from sticking together

Which adverse effect is shared among all antidysrhythmic​ drugs? A. Impotence B. Prodysrhythmic effects C. Edema D. Photosensitivity

B. Prodysrhythmic effects

Which should the nurse understand the reason sodium bicarbonate is prescribed for a client that has overdosed on​ aspirin? A. Promotes detoxification in the liver B. Promotes renal excretion C. Prevention of bleeding D. Prevention of ulceration of the gastrointestinal tract

B. Promotes renal excretion

Which vital signs should the nurse assess prior to the administration of a​ diuretic? A. Temperature B. Pulse C. Respirations D. Blood pressure E. Pain

B. Pulse D. Blood pressure

Which information should the nurse include in the education for a client prescribed a transdermal nitroglycerin​ patch? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Place the patch on the upper arm or leg. B. Rotate sites of application. C. Remove the patch for an hour each day. D. Cleanse the skin under the patch after removal. E. Triple wrap the patch in plastic wrap for disposal.

B. Rotate sites of application. D. Cleanse the skin under the patch after removal.

A client asks which conditions will cause the heart to need more oxygen. Which information should the nurse be prepared to​ discuss? A. Asthma B. Sleep apnea C. Hyperthyroidism D. Hepatitis B

B. Sleep apnea

Which lipid type is associated with the highest risk for the development of​ atherosclerosis? A. Triglycerides B. Steroids C. Lecithins D. Phospholipids

B. Steroids

Which affect does​ colony-stimulating factors have on the​ body? A. Stimulate stem cells production B. Stimulate white blood cell production C. Stimulate platelet production D. Stimulate red blood cell production

B. Stimulate white blood cell production

A client receiving sodium bicarbonate intravenously​ (IV) for correction of metabolic acidosis is experiencing​ cyanosis, decreased​ respirations, and an irregular pulse. Which is the​ nurse's priority​ action? A. Continue the infusion B. Stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider C. Increase the rate of the infusion D. Decrease the rate of the infusion

B. Stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider

Which is the primary desired outcome for a client that has experienced several episodes of​ angina? A. The client will experience relief of chest pain with therapeutic lifestyle changes. B. The client will experience relief of chest pain with nitrate therapy. C. The client will experience relief of chest pain with anticoagulant therapy. D. The client will experience relief of chest pain with aspirin therapy.

B. The client will experience relief of chest pain with nitrate therapy.

The nurse is caring for a client with a DVT​ (deep vein​ thrombosis) receiving heparin intravenously​ (IV). Which is the priority outcome for the​ client? A. The client will comply with dietary restrictions. B. The client will not experience bleeding. C. The client will keep the right leg elevated on two pillows. D. The client will not disturb the intravenous infusion.

B. The client will not experience bleeding.

Which information should the nurse include in the education for a client prescribed antianginal​ therapy? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. The prescriptions increase the heart rate. B. The prescriptions dilate the veins so that the heart receives less blood. C. The prescriptions cause the heart to contract with less force. D. The prescriptions increase blood pressure. E. The prescriptions increase the ability of the body to produce red blood cells.

B. The prescriptions dilate the veins so that the heart receives less blood. C. The prescriptions cause the heart to contract with less force.

Which type of lipid serves as fuel for the body when energy is​ needed? A. Steroids B. Triglycerides C. Phospholipids D. Lecithins

B. Triglycerides

Which adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client receiving dextran 40​ (Gentran 40) to​ report? A. Difficulty urinating B. Unexplained cough C. Ototoxicity D. Diarrhea

B. Unexplained cough

Which effect should the nurse anticipate for a client receiving a​ low-dose dopamine​ (Intropin)? A. Vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure B. Urinary output of at least 50​ mL/h C. Stabilization of fluid loss D. Increased cardiac output

B. Urinary output of at least 50​ mL/h

A client with a dysrhythmia asks the nurse why they cannot take a prescription instead of have cardioversion for​ treatment? Which response should the nurse provide the​ client? A. ​"Antidysrhythmic prescriptions​ don't really work very well for most​ dysrhythmias." B. ​"Antidysrhythmic prescriptions have many side​ effects; cardioversion is considered​ safer." C. ​"Special diets are necessary with antidysrhythmic​ prescriptions, and they are hard to​ follow." D. ​"There is a high risk of seizures when you take antidysrhythmic​ prescriptions."

B. ​"Antidysrhythmic prescriptions have many side​ effects; cardioversion is considered​ safer."

The nurse is preparing to provide education for a client prescribed Clopidogrel​ (Plavix) after a myocardial infarction and stent placement. Which statements should the nurse use to explain the action of​ Clopidogrel? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. ​"Clopidogrel will dissolve any clots that might form in your​ stent." B. ​"Clopidogrel will make the platelets in your blood less​ sticky." C. ​"Clopidogrel will change the way your platelets​ work." D. ​"Clopidogrel decreases your​ blood's ability to​ clot." E. ​"Clopidogrel works just like the heparin you were prescribed when in the​ hospital."

B. ​"Clopidogrel will make the platelets in your blood less​ sticky." C. ​"Clopidogrel will change the way your platelets​ work." D. ​"Clopidogrel decreases your​ blood's ability to​ clot."

A client states to the​ nurse, "This educational video you gave me shows normal electrical conduction through the​ heart, but I still​ don't understand it. Can you explain it to​ me?" Which responses should the nurse include in the​ discussion? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. ​"Conduction through the bundle of His is the slowest in the​ heart." B. ​"Conduction begins in the sinoatrial​ (SA) node and travels to the atrioventricular​ (AV) node." C. ​"Conduction continues through the bundle branches to the Purkinje​ fibers." D. ​"Conduction travels from the atrioventricular​ (AV) node through the bundle of​ His." E. ​"The sinoatrial​ (SA) node is located in the left​ atrium."

B. ​"Conduction begins in the sinoatrial​ (SA) node and travels to the atrioventricular​ (AV) node." C. ​"Conduction continues through the bundle branches to the Purkinje​ fibers." D. ​"Conduction travels from the atrioventricular​ (AV) node through the bundle of​ His."

A client asks why the nurse why the healthcare provider has prescribed darbepoetin alfa​ (Aranesp) instead of epoetin alpha​ (Epogen). Which response should the nurse provide the​ client? A. ​"Darbepoetin alfa is more​ effective." B. ​"Darbepoetin alfa has a longer duration of​ action." C. ​"Darbepoetin alfa has less side​ effects." D. ​"Darbepoetin alfa is less​ expensive."

B. ​"Darbepoetin alfa has a longer duration of​ action."

The nurse notes that a client receiving warfarin​ (Coumadin) has a high international normalized ratio​ (INR). Which question should the nurse include in the​assessment? A. ​"Do you drink a lot of​ milk?" B. ​"Do you eat a lot of​ garlic?" C. ​"Are you restricting your​ fluids?" D. ​"Have you been eating a lot of salads and​ vegetables?"

B. ​"Do you eat a lot of​ garlic?"

The nurse is preparing to assess a client with von​ Willebrand's disease​ (vWD). Which priority question should the nurse ask the​ client? A. ​"What are you currently using for birth​ control?" B. ​"Do you have heavy menstrual​ periods?" C. ​"Do you have any other medical​ conditions?" D. ​"Have you ever been​ pregnant?"

B. ​"Do you have heavy menstrual​ periods?"

The nurse is preparing to teach a client how to​ self-administer an​ erythropoiesis-stimulating drug. Which instruction should the nurse​ include? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. ​"Shake the vial to mix the contents before​ use." B. ​"Draw up what is needed and discard the rest of the​ vial." C. ​"Place your stock of medication in your​ refrigerator." D. ​"Warm the vial in your hand a few minutes before drawing up the​ medication." E. ​"Give the medication deeply into a​ muscle."

B. ​"Draw up what is needed and discard the rest of the​ vial." C. ​"Place your stock of medication in your​ refrigerator." D. ​"Warm the vial in your hand a few minutes before drawing up the​ medication."

A client asks the nurse how fat is carried in the blood. Which response should the nurse​ provide? A. ​"Fats in your blood are carried inside small molecules called​ phospholipids." B. ​"Fats travel in the blood on little proteins called​ lipoproteins." C. ​"Fats are encapsulated inside little bags known as​ lecithin." D. ​"Fats are free floating in your circulatory​ system."

B. ​"Fats travel in the blood on little proteins called​ lipoproteins."

The nurse is assessing the adherence of a male client prescribed propranolol​ (Inderal) for adherence to the treatment plan. Which is an important question for the nurse to ask the​ client? A. ​"Has your appetite increased or​ decreased?" B. ​"Have you noticed any changes in your sexual​ functioning?" C. ​"Have you noticed any difficulty in your ability to​ concentrate?" D. ​"Have you noticed any changes in your bowel​ function?"

B. ​"Have you noticed any changes in your sexual​ functioning?"

Which statement made by a client receiving amiodarone should the nurse be most concerned​ about? A. ​"I often feel tired throughout the​ day." B. ​"I have a cough that is getting​ worse." C. ​"I have a rash on my skin that will not go​ away." D. ​"I have lost 5 pounds over the last 3​ weeks."

B. ​"I have a cough that is getting​ worse."

The nurse has provided education for a client prescribed nifedipine​ (Adalat CC). Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the​ teaching? A. ​"If I drink alcohol while taking this​ medication, I will get very sick to my​ stomach." B. ​"I should stop taking my melatonin sleep​ medication." C. ​"I should no longer drink grapefruit​ juice." D. ​"I should no longer drink sports drinks with caffeine in​ them." E. ​"I should stop taking my vitamin C​ supplement."

B. ​"I should stop taking my melatonin sleep​ medication." C. ​"I should no longer drink grapefruit​ juice."

An older adult receiving ethacrynic acid​ (Edecrin) tells the nurse he or she​ doesn't hear as well as he or she used to. Which statement should the nurse include in the​response? A. ​"How long have you been having difficulty​ hearing?" B. ​"I will let your healthcare provider know about​ this; it could be a side effect of your​ medication." C. ​"I will schedule a hearing​ exam; this could be a side effect of your​ medication." D. ​"You may be​ dehydrated; are you drinking enough​ fluid?"

B. ​"I will let your healthcare provider know about​ this; it could be a side effect of your​ medication."

Which statements by a client treated with epinephrine should the nurse be concerned​ about? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. ​"I feel​ jittery." B. ​"My heart is skipping​ beats." C. ​"I have a pounding​ headache." D. ​"I am so​ dizzy." E. ​"That really hurt when you gave me that​ med."

B. ​"My heart is skipping​ beats." C. ​"I have a pounding​ headache."

Which information about the dietary intake of lipids should the nurse provide a​ client? A. ​"Phospholipids will help prevent​ Alzheimer's disease." B. ​"Phospholipids are essential to building plasma​ membranes." C. ​"Cholesterol is a building block for estrogen and​ testosterone." D. ​"Triglycerides are the major form of fat in the​ body." E. ​"Cholesterol in the diet is unnecessary as the liver synthesizes​ it."

B. ​"Phospholipids are essential to building plasma​ membranes." C. ​"Cholesterol is a building block for estrogen and​ testosterone." D. ​"Triglycerides are the major form of fat in the​ body."

A client prescribed spironolactone​ (Aldactone) asks the nurse which fluids they should drink to prevent dehydration. Which response should the nurse​ provide? A. ​"Any kind of fluid is​ okay, but avoid​ alcohol." B. ​"Plain water is really the​ best." C. ​"Electrolyte-replacement drinks like sports​ drinks." D. ​"Citrus juices are very good for​ rehydration."

B. ​"Plain water is really the​ best."

A client with chronic alcoholism asks the nurse why they should take folic acid. Which response should the nurse provide the​ client? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. ​"The alcohol decreases your folic acid​ level." B. ​"The alcohol interferes with folate metabolism in the​ liver." C. ​"The folic acid will improve your vitamin B12​ deficiency." D. ​"Your dietary intake of folic acid is decreased when you drink​ alcohol." E. ​"The folic acid can help reverse some of the liver damage that has occurred from the alcohol​ abuse."

B. ​"The alcohol interferes with folate metabolism in the​ liver." D. ​"Your dietary intake of folic acid is decreased when you drink​ alcohol."

The educator is reviewing the physiology of the renal system with a nurse. Which statement made by the nurse indicates further teaching is​ required? A. ​"The kidneys help regulate blood​ pressure." B. ​"The kidneys stimulate white blood cell​ production." C. ​"The kidneys regulate the acid-base balance of body​ fluids." D. ​"The kidneys produce the active form of vitamin​ D."

B. ​"The kidneys stimulate white blood cell​ production."

The nurse has reinforced the treatment plan for the administration of normal human serum albumin​ (Albutein) for a client recovering from hypovolemic shock. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the​ information? A. ​"The prescription is a protein that causes my kidneys to conserve​ fluid." B. ​"The prescription is a protein that pulls water into my blood​ vessels." C. ​"The prescription is a liquid that has electrolytes in it to pull water into my blood​ vessels." D. ​"The prescription is a​ super-concentrated salt solution that helps body conserve​ fluid."

B. ​"The prescription is a protein that pulls water into my blood​ vessels."

A client asks the nurse about the different types of shock. Which response should the nurse​ provide? A. ​"Heart failure is the most serious kind of​ shock; others include​ infection, kidney​ failure, and a significant loss of​ blood." B. ​"There are many kinds of shock that also include​ infection, nervous system​ damage, and loss of​ blood." C. ​"There are many kinds of​ shock: heart​ failure, nervous system​ damage, loss of​ blood, and respiratory​ failure." D. ​"Allergic response is the most fatal type of​ shock; other types involve loss of​ blood, heart​ failure, and liver​ failure."

B. ​"There are many kinds of shock that also include​ infection, nervous system​ damage, and loss of​ blood."

The client tells the​ nurse, "My healthcare provider says I have atrial fibrillation. Is this serious and how is it​ treated?" Which responses should the nurse provide the​client? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. ​"This condition is best treated with what we call antidysrhythmic​ drugs." B. ​"This is very​ common; your doctor will discuss the best treatment with​ you." C. ​"Depending on your​ symptoms, your healthcare provider may use an electrical​ shock." D. ​"This is quite​ serious; did your healthcare provider discuss a heart​ transplant?" E. ​"It is very​ serious, even more serious than a ventricular​ dysrhythmia."

B. ​"This is very​ common; your doctor will discuss the best treatment with​ you." C. ​"Depending on your​ symptoms, your healthcare provider may use an electrical​ shock."

Which fluids should the nurse recognize are appropriate isotonic solutions to be prescribed for the treatment of fluid loss during​ surgery? A. ​5% dextrose in lactated​ Ringer's B. ​0.9% sodium chloride​ (NS) C. ​0.45% sodium chloride D. Lactated​ Ringer's E. ​5% dextrose in water

B. ​0.9% sodium chloride​ (NS) D. Lactated​ Ringer's E. ​5% dextrose in water

A nurse is discussing foods that are high in vitamin D with a client who is unable to be out in the sunlight. Which of the following should be included in the teaching? A: 6 medium raw strawberries B: 2 large, poached eggs C: 1/2 cup boiled Brussels sprouts D: 1 cup steamed long grain brown rice

B: 2 large, poached eggs

A nurse is discussing health problems associated with nutrient deficiencies with a group of clients. Which of the following conditions is associated with a deficiency of vitamin C? Select all that apply. A: Dysrhythmias B: Bleeding gums C: Scurvey D: Pernicious anemia E: Megaloblastic anemia

B: Bleeding gums C: Scurvey

A nurse is educating a client who has anemia about dietary intake of iron. Which of the following is a non-heme source of iron? A: Ground beef B: Dried beans C: Salmon DL Turkey

B: Dried beans

A school nurse is teaching a high school health class about the possible causes of a negative nitrogen balance. Which of the following causes should the nurse include in the teaching? Select all that apply. A: Adolescence B: Malnutrition C: Trauma D: Pregnancy E: Illness

B: Malnutrition C: Trauma E: Illness

A nurse is teaching a client who has stage 2 chronic kidney disease about dietary management. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the instructions? A: Limit dairy products to 1 cup/day. B: Restrict protein intake. C: Increase intake of foods high in potassium. D: Maintain a high phosphorus diet.

B: Restrict protein intake.

A nurse is teaching a client about protein needs when on dialysis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? Select all that apply. A: Consume daily protein intake in the morning. B: Take phosphate binders when eating protein rich foods. C: Increase biologic sources of protein (eggs, milk, and soy). D: Consume 35 kcal/kg of body weight to maintain body protein stores. E: Increase protein intake by 50% of the recommended dietary allowance (RDA).

B: Take phosphate binders when eating protein rich foods. C: Increase biologic sources of protein (eggs, milk, and soy). D: Consume 35 kcal/kg of body weight to maintain body protein stores. E: Increase protein intake by 50% of the recommended dietary allowance (RDA).

A nurse is discussing how the body processes food with a client during a routine provider's visit. Which of the following statements should the nurse include? A: Glycerol can be broken down into glucose for use by the body. B: The liver converts unused glucose into glycogen. C: The body uses glycogen for fat before using available ATP. D: Excess fatty acids are stored in the muscle tissue.

B: The liver converts unused glucose into glycogen.

A nurse is teaching about food safety and foodborne illness to a group of adults at a local community center. Which of the following information should the nurse include? A: Store hard boiled eggs in the refrigerator for up to 2 weeks. B: Unpasteurized fruit juice is a common cause of foodborne illness. C: The recommended cooking temperature for ground beef is 145 degrees F. D: The onset of norovirus is 5 to 7 days after exposure to the bacteria.

B: Unpasteurized fruit juice is a common cause of foodborne illness.

The nurse educator is reviewing the physiological regulation blood pressure. Which should the educator identify as initially​ involved? A. Production of angiotensin I B. Antidiuretic hormone C. Action of renin D. Production of angiotensin II

C. Action of renin

A client experiencing syncope is suspected of taking a losartan​ (Cozaar) overdose? Which intervention should the nurse​ anticipate? A. Administer a vasopressor B. Administer a calcium infusion C. Administer an intravenous solution of normal saline D. Administer a loop diuretic

C. Administer an intravenous solution of normal saline

The educator is preparing to review the diuretics that do not require potassium supplements with a nurse. Which diuretics should the educator​ include? A. Furosemide​ (Lasix) B. Chlorothiazide​ (Diuril) C. Amiloride​ (Midamor) D. Mannitol​ (Osmitrol) E. Spironolactone​ (Aldactone)

C. Amiloride​ (Midamor) E. Spironolactone​ (Aldactone)

Which medical condition should the nurse be concerned about for a client prescribed​ hydralazine? A. Asthma B. Hyperthyroidism C. Angina D. Diabetes

C. Angina

Which classification of prescriptions does the nurse anticipate for the client being treated for a thromboembolic​ disorder? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Hemostatics B. Thrombolytics C. Anticoagulants D. Antiplatelet agents E. Clotting factor concentrates

C. Anticoagulants D. Antiplatelet agents

Which assessment is a nursing priority for a client receiving cholestyramine​ (Questran)? A. Palpation for peripheral edema in the lower extremities B. Assessment of​ 24-hour urine output C. Auscultation of bowel sounds in all four abdominal quadrants D. Auscultation of heart sounds

C. Auscultation of bowel sounds in all four abdominal quadrants

Which client has the greatest risk for developing heart​ disease? A. A ​75-year-old with​ Parkinson's disease and normal blood pressure B. A​ 52-year-old with osteoporosis and stage 1 hypertension C. A​ 68-year-old with stage 2 hypertension and recent myocardial infarction D. A​ 35-year-old with diabetes mellitus and prehypertension

C. A​ 68-year-old with stage 2 hypertension and recent myocardial infarction

Which factors are responsible for blood​ pressure? A. ​Age, weight, and race B. Body mass​ index, diet, and genetics C. Cardiac​ output, blood​ volume, and peripheral vascular resistance D. Blood​ volume, heart​ rate, and stroke volume

C. Cardiac​ output, blood​ volume, and peripheral vascular resistance

Which symptom is most likely to be related to angina as opposed to a myocardial​ infarction? A. Chest pain accompanied by shortness of breath B. Chest pain that occurred while the patient was eating breakfast C. Chest pain relieved by one sublingual nitroglycerin D. Chest pain that radiates to the​ patient's back

C. Chest pain relieved by one sublingual nitroglycerin

Which describes the action of thrombolytic​ prescriptions? A. Convert plasmin to plasminogen. B. Prevent the liver from making fibrin. C. Digest and remove preexisting clots. D. Prevent thrombus formation.

C. Digest and remove preexisting clots.

The patient is receiving cholestyramine​ (Questran) and complains of constipation. The physician orders bisacodyl​ (Dulcolax) tablets. When is the best time for the nurse to administer the bisacodyl​ (Dulcolax) tablets? A. One hour after administration of cholestyramine​ (Questran). B. The drugs can be administered together. C. Four hours after administration of cholestyramine​ (Questran). D. Bisacodyl​ (Dulcolax) can be given any time but must be taken with food.

C. Four hours after administration of cholestyramine​ (Questran).

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory reports for a client with chronic kidney failure. Which lab should then nurse understand reflects the progression of the kidney​disease? A. Serum creatinine B. Blood urea nitrogen​ (BUN) C. Glomerular filtration rate​ (GFR) D. Urinalysis

C. Glomerular filtration rate​ (GFR)

A patient receiving chlorothiazide​ (Diuril) has developed hypokalemia. Which assessment findings support the​ diagnosis? A. Hyperglycemia B. Increased urine output C. Heart palpitations D. Diarrhea

C. Heart palpitations

The nurse is providing education about lipids for a client with hyperlipidemia. Which information should the nurse include in the​ education? A. High density lipoprotein​ (HDL) decreases the bad cholesterol​ (low density lipoprotein​ [LDL]), and promotes excretion of it through the kidneys. B. High density lipoprotein​ (HDL) is called good cholesterol because it increases the oxygen content in the arteries and reduces the amount of plaque buildup. C. High density lipoprotein​ (HDL) is called good cholesterol because it removes cholesterol from the body and gets rid of it in the liver. D. High density lipoprotein​ (HDL) decreases low density lipoprotein​ (LDL) and prevents it from converting to very low density lipoprotein​ (VDRL), which is the worst kind of cholesterol in the body.

C. High density lipoprotein​ (HDL) is called good cholesterol because it removes cholesterol from the body and gets rid of it in the liver.

Which is the priority action of the nurse when caring for a client receiving a statin with elevated creatine kinase​ (CK) levels? A. Administer the prescription and continue to assess for muscle pain. B. Administer the prescription and obtain another creatine kinase​ (CK) level in 6 hours. C. Hold the prescription and notify the healthcare provider. D. Hold the prescription and obtain another creatine kinase​ (CK) level in 6 hours.

C. Hold the prescription and notify the healthcare provider.

Which is the primary pharmacologic goal in the treatment of a client experiencing stable​ angina? A. Establish a regular exercise program and diet plan. B. Eliminate blockages by using thrombolytics. C. Increase cardiac oxygen supply and reduce cardiac oxygen demand. D. Increase venous blood flow to the right atrium.

C. Increase cardiac oxygen supply and reduce cardiac oxygen demand

Which describes the mechanism of​ atorvastatin's (Lipitor) ability to lower blood cholesterol​ levels? A. Increases excretion by activating enzymes within the hepatic system. B. Binds exogenous cholesterol and excreting it in the feces. C. Inhibits an enzyme that is essential for cholesterol synthesis. D. Prevents dietary absorption within the GI tract.

C. Inhibits an enzyme that is essential for cholesterol synthesis.

The nurse notes the blood pressure and red blood cell​ (RBC) count of a client receiving heparin is low. Which should the nurse suspect has​ occurred? A. Clot formation B. Dehydration C. Internal bleeding D. Decreased activated partial thromboplastin time​ (aPTT)

C. Internal bleeding

Which should the nurse consider when administering an injection of ferrous sulfate intramuscularly to a​ client? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Give the injection in the deltoid muscle. B. Iron is best absorbed if given subcutaneously. C. Iron is irritating to the tissues. D. The​ z-track method should be used. E. Iron preparations should be administered through a needle gauge 16 or larger.

C. Iron is irritating to the tissues. D. The​ z-track method should be used.

Which should the nurse anticipate to be included in the treatment plan for a client with stage A heart​ failure? A. ​Angiotensin-converting enzyme​ (ACE) inhibitor B. Cardiac glycoside C. Lifestyle modifications D. ​Beta-blocker

C. Lifestyle modifications

The nurse is preparing to provide education for a client prescribed a statin. Which adverse effects should the nurse include in the​ teaching? A. Headache B. Abdominal pain C. Myopathy D. Muscle or joint pain E. Rhabdomyolysis

C. Myopathy E. Rhabdomyolysis

Which describes the​ nurse's understanding of the purpose for choosing the names for the​ colony-stimulating factors? A. Named according to the type of neurotransmitters that are stimulated. B. Named according to the type of hormones they stimulate. C. Named according to the type of blood cells they stimulate. D. Named according to the interleukins they stimulate.

C. Named according to the type of blood cells they stimulate.

Which statement is accurate regarding the use of nicotinic acid​ (Niacin) for lowering blood cholesterol​ levels? A. High doses of 25-30 mg per day are often necessary. B. Due to adverse​ effects, niacin should not be used with statins. C. Niacin may also reduce triglyceride levels. D. Works primarily by lowering LDL and HDL levels.

C. Niacin may also reduce triglyceride levels.

Which additional prescribed treatment should the nurse anticipate for the client prescribed heparin​ therapy? A. Weekly weights B. Low vitamin K diet C. Obtaining an aPTT D. Advil as needed​ (PRN) for headaches

C. Obtaining an aPTT

The nurse reviewing the records of a client diagnosed with hypertension notes a weight of 200​ lb., height​ 5' 4", dietary intake includes primarily​ starches, an alcohol intake of three beers per​ week, and stressors include​ 60-hour work weeks. Based on this​ information, which should the nurse identify as a priority​ outcome? A. Patient will eliminate alcohol from the diet. B. Patient will decrease stress by limiting work to 40​ hours/week. C. Patient will achieve and maintain optimum weight. D. Patient will balance diet according to the food pyramid.

C. Patient will achieve and maintain optimum weight.

For which assessment findings should the nurse hold enalapril​ (Vasotec)? A. Cough B. Lightheadedness on ambulation C. Periorbital edema D. Sneezing E. Difficulty swallowing

C. Periorbital edema E. Difficulty swallowing

A client is to receive intravenous​ (IV) dopamine​ (Intropin). Which should the nurse have immediately available prior to initiating the​ dopamine? A. Naltrexone​ (Revia) B. Epinephrine​ (Adrenalin) C. Phentolamine​ (Regitine) D. Flumazenil​ (Romazicon)

C. Phentolamine​ (Regitine)

Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for a client that has overdosed on Clopidogrel​ (Plavix)? A. Whole blood transfusion B. Vitamin K C. Platelet transfusion D. Protamine sulfate

C. Platelet transfusion

Which electrolytes should the nurse anticipate monitoring for a client prescribed losartan​ (Cozaar)? A. Calcium B. Sodium C. Potassium D. Chloride E. Magnesium

C. Potassium

Which laboratory value should the nurse notify the healthcare provider prior to administering amiodarone​ (Cordarone)? A. International normalized ratio​ (INR) of 12 seconds B. Sodium 140​ mEq/L C. Potassium 3.1​ mEq/L D. Potassium 4.9​ mEq/L

C. Potassium 3.1​ mEq/L

Which is a priority nursing intervention for a client who is newly prescribed enalapril​ (Vasotec)? A. Order a​ sodium-restricted diet for the client. B. Monitor the client for headaches. C. Take the​ client's blood pressure. D. Review the​ client's lab results for hypokalemia.

C. Take the​ client's blood pressure.

Which information should the nurse include in the teaching for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate​ (Feosol) tablets? A. Take this prescription with milk. B. Take this prescription with meals. C. Take this prescription with orange juice. D. Take this prescription before bedtime.

C. Take this prescription with orange juice.

Which occurs initially in the cardiac conduction​ pathway? A. The action potential travels across the bundle of His B. The action potential moves over the bundle branches C. The SA node generates an action potential D. The action potential moves through the AV node

C. The SA node generates an action potential

Which client prescribed metoprolol​ (Toprol-XL) is most risk for adverse​ effects? A. The client with an apical pulse rate of 100 B. The client with a history of migraines C. The client with chronic bronchitis D. The client with compensated heart failure

C. The client with chronic bronchitis

Which statement correctly identifies why restricting dietary intake of cholesterol generally will not result in a significant reduction of blood​ cholesterol? A. Most clients are not compliant with the dietary restriction. B. Cholesterol is found in nearly all​ foods, and it is not possible to eliminate it from the diet. C. The liver reacts to a​ low-cholesterol diet by making more cholesterol. D. Cholesterol is made within the body and cannot be absorbed via external sources.

C. The liver reacts to a​ low-cholesterol diet by making more cholesterol.

The nurse is reviewing the process of hemostasis after an injury with a client. Which should the nurse identify as the initial event in this​ process? A. Plasma proteins convert to active forms. B. Platelets become sticky. C. The vessel spasms. D. Von​ Willebrand's factor is activated.

C. The vessel spasms.

Which statement provides the best rationale for monitoring HDL and LDL as opposed to total​ cholesterol? A. HDL and LDL measurements are more general and frequently used to assessed clients that are not at risk for heart disease. B. Total cholesterol measurements are often inaccurate and not as reliable as HDL and LDL. C. Total cholesterol does not differentiate the amounts of​ "good" cholesterol and​ "bad" cholesterol. D. HDL and LDL monitoring is less expensive than measuring total cholesterol.

C. Total cholesterol does not differentiate the amounts of​ "good" cholesterol and​ "bad" cholesterol.

The nurse reviewing records should determine that which​ client's lab values are associated with the highest risk of developing heart​ disease? A. Total​ 210, LDL​ 135, HDL 58 B. Total​ 186, LDL​ 125, HDL 54 C. Total​ 220, LDL​ 162, HDL 20 D. Total​ 200, LDL​ 104, HDL 30

C. Total​ 220, LDL​ 162, HDL 20

Which is the most sensitive and effective biomarker of a myocardial​ infarction? A. Creatine kinase B. White blood cells C. Troponin D. Myoglobin

C. Troponin

Which antidysrhythmic agent also dilates coronary arteries and is frequently used to treat​ angina? A. Lidocaine​ (Xylocaine) B. Amiodarone​ (Cordarone) C. Verapamil​ (Calan) D. Procainamide​ (Pronestyl)

C. Verapamil​ (Calan)

Which laboratory study is used to evaluate the proper dosage for heparin​ therapy? A. Serum heparin levels B. Sedimentation rate C. aPtt D. Complete blood count

C. aPtt

A client asks the nurse if angina is the same thing as having a heart attack. Which response should the nurse​ provide? A. ​"They have some things in​ common, for​ example, severe emotional distress and panic can accompany both angina and myocardial​ infarction." B. ​"They are basically the​ same." C. ​"Angina means heart muscle is not getting enough​ oxygen, while heart​ attack, or myocardial​ infarction, means part of your heart has​ died." D. ​"Actually, it depends on what type of angina you​ mean; there are several​ types."

C. ​"Angina means heart muscle is not getting enough​ oxygen, while heart​ attack, or myocardial​ infarction, means part of your heart has​ died."

A client receiving diltiazem​ (Cardizem) asks the nurse why they get a headache after taking the prescription. Which response should the nurse provide the​ client? A. ​"Diltiazem (Cardizem) increases prostaglandin​ synthesis, giving you the​ headache." B. ​"Diltiazem (Cardizem) causes the blood vessels in your brain to​ narrow, giving you the​ headache." C. ​"Diltiazem (Cardizem) causes the blood vessels in your brain to​ widen, giving you the​ headache." D. ​"Diltiazem (Cardizem) releases Substance​ P, activating pain receptors in your brain and giving you the​ headache."

C. ​"Diltiazem (Cardizem) causes the blood vessels in your brain to​ widen, giving you the​ headache."

Which priority question should the nurse ask a client suspected of experiencing a stroke that is prescribed alteplase​ (Activase). A. ​"Are you currently being treated for​ hypertension?" B. ​"Do you have any other medical​ conditions?" C. ​"Do you know what time the stroke​ occurred?" D. ​"Do you take any other​ prescriptions?"

C. ​"Do you know what time the stroke​ occurred?"

The nurse has provided a client education about enoxaparin​ (Lovenox). Which statement made by a client indicates an understanding of the​ information? A. ​"Enoxaparin inhibits the synthesis of​ prostaglandins." B. ​"Enoxaparin increases the flexibility of my blood​ cells." C. ​"Enoxaparin increases the time it takes for me to form a​ clot." D. ​"Enoxaparin dissolves small clots so I​ won't have a​ stroke."

C. ​"Enoxaparin increases the time it takes for me to form a​ clot."

The nurse has completed the dietary teaching for a client prescribed spironolactone​ (Aldactone). Which statement made by the client indicates further teaching is​required? A. ​"I usually eat an apple a day to stay​ regular." B. ​"I am really happy that I can have my cranberry​ juice." C. ​"I can still have my orange juice and bananas for​ breakfast." D. ​"I love to eat eggs and toast in the​ morning."

C. ​"I can still have my orange juice and bananas for​ breakfast."

Which assessment data obtained from a client receiving a statin is a priority for the nurse to report to the healthcare​ provider? A. ​"Will you call my healthcare​ provider? I have a really bad​ headache." B. ​"I know I just started this medicine​ yesterday, but my stomach really is​ upset." C. ​"My calves​ hurt, and I had a hard time walking to the​ bathroom." D. ​"My heart rate really went up this​ morning."

C. ​"My calves​ hurt, and I had a hard time walking to the​ bathroom."

The educator is reviewing red blood cell formation with a nurse. Which statement made by the nurse indicates an​ understanding? A. ​"Red blood cell formation is regulated through chemicals called​ colony-stimulating factors." B. ​"Red blood cell formation is regulated through specific liver enzymes and a process called​ hemochromatosis." C. ​"Red blood cell formation is regulated through messages from the hormone​ erythropoietin." D. ​"Red blood cell formation is regulated through messages from the hormone​ secretin, which is located in the​ kidney."

C. ​"Red blood cell formation is regulated through messages from the hormone​ erythropoietin."

The client states to the​ nurse, "My healthcare provider says I have heart disease and I need to decrease the cholesterol in my diet. I​ don't understand how this​happened." Which response should the nurse provide the​ client? A. ​"Too much low density lipoprotein​ (LDL) cholesterol narrows all the arteries in your body so your heart does not receive enough blood to be​ healthy." B. ​"It is a good idea to decrease low density lipoprotein​ (LDL) cholesterol in your​ diet, although current research has not proven a correlation​ yet." C. ​"The arteries around your heart are narrowed by low density lipoprotein​ (LDL) cholesterol buildup in​ them. D. ​"Low density lipoprotein​ (LDL) cholesterol is converted to saturated​ fat, which is stored in your coronary​ arteries.

C. ​"The arteries around your heart are narrowed by low density lipoprotein​ (LDL) cholesterol buildup in​ them."

A client tells the nurse they will need a prescription for high cholesterol but does not know which would be best. Which information should the nurse provide the​ client? A. ​"The best drugs to raise the high density lipoprotein​ (HDL) levels are the fibric acid​ drugs." B. ​"The statin drugs are good but will cause a lot of flushing if you swallow them with warm​ fluids." C. ​"The bile resins keep cholesterol from being absorbed but have some side​ effects." D. ​"The statin drugs inhibit the making of cholesterol and are considered the best​ choice." E. ​"Fibric acid drugs will decrease​ triglycerides, but your low density lipoprotein​ (LDL) will still be​ high."

C. ​"The bile resins keep cholesterol from being absorbed but have some side​ effects." D. ​"The statin drugs inhibit the making of cholesterol and are considered the best​ choice." E. ​"Fibric acid drugs will decrease​ triglycerides, but your low density lipoprotein​ (LDL) will still be​ high."

A client with cirrhosis of the liver asks the nurse why they are at risk for bleeding. Which response should the nurse provide the​ client? A. ​"The liver is injured and unable to manufacture​ platelets." B. ​"The liver is breaking down your clotting factors too​ quickly." C. ​"The liver is injured and cannot make clotting​ factors." D. ​"The liver thickens your blood so it is less likely to​ clot."

C. ​"The liver is injured and cannot make clotting​ factors."

A client experiencing a severe allergic reaction to peanuts tells the nurse they have a known hypersensitivity to epinephrine​ (Adrenalin). Which response should the nurse provide the​ client? A. ​"Do you know what has been used before with this allergic​ response?" B. ​"I will let the healthcare prescriber know about this​ immediately; we will need to choose an alternative​ prescription." C. ​"This is a​ life-threatening situation; a prior hypersensitivity is not an absolute​ contraindication." D. ​"You most likely will be prescribed IV diphenhydramine​ (Benadryl)."

C. ​"This is a​ life-threatening situation; a prior hypersensitivity is not an absolute​ contraindication."

The nurse is preparing to administer nitroglycerine via the intravenous route. Which should the nurse do prior to the administration of the​ prescription? A. Darken the room to decrease light exposure. B. Use gloves to prevent​ self-administration. C. Instruct the client to avoid moving the arm in which the prescription is infusing. D. Cover the intravenous​ (IV) bottle to decrease light exposure.

D. Cover the intravenous​ (IV) bottle to decrease light exposure.

A client in heart failure asks the nurse how difficulty breathing is related to a heart problem. Which information should the nurse provide the​ client? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. ​"The right side of your heart has weakened and blood has entered your​ lungs." B. ​"The right side of your heart has enlarged and cannot effectively pump​ blood." C. ​"What you have is called congestive heart​ failure." D. ​"The left side of your heart is weak and pumps blood too​ quickly." E. ​"The left side of your heart has weakened and blood has entered your​ lungs."

C. ​"What you have is called congestive heart​ failure." E. ​"The left side of your heart has weakened and blood has entered your​ lungs."

The nurse has prescribed dietary education for a client prescribed nifedipine​ (Procardia XL). Which dietary choice should the nurse recognize requires further​education? A. ​Whole-wheat pancakes with​ syrup, and​ bacon, oatmeal, and orange juice B. Egg and cheese​ omelet, tea with sugar and​ lemon, hash brown​ potatoes, and prune juice C. ​Eggs, whole-wheat toast with​ butter, cereal,​ milk, and grapefruit juice D. Eggs and​ sausage, a biscuit with​ margarine, coffee with​ cream, and cranberry juice

C. ​Eggs, whole-wheat toast with​ butter, cereal,​ milk, and grapefruit juice

A nurse is reviewing dietary recommendations with a group of clients at a health fair. Which of the following information should the nurse include? A:Consume 1500 ml of water from liquids and solids daily B: Fats should be 5% to 15% of daily calorie intake C: Make protein 10% to 35% of total calories each day D: The body needs 40 mg of iron each day

C: Make protein 10% to 35% of total calories each day

A nurse is conducting a nutritional class on minerals and electrolytes. The nurse should include which of the following foods is a major source of magnesium? A: Tomatoes B: Oranges C: Tuna D: Eggs

C: Tuna

A community health nurse is assessing a client who reports numbness of the hands and feet for the past 2 weeks. This finding is associated with which of the following nutritional deficiencies? A: Iron B: Folic acid C: Vitamin B12 D: Potassium

C: Vitamin B12

Which action of Lisinopril​ (Prinivil) results in a decrease in the blood​ volume? A. Causes hypernatremia and increased renal tubule permeability resulting in a diuretic effect. B. Causes a diuretic effect by lowering the amount of sodium lost in the urine. C. Antagonistic effect on​ angiotensin-converting enzyme. D. Decrease aldosterone secretion.

D. Decrease aldosterone secretion.

A client prescribed furosemide​ (Lasix) and digoxin​ (Lanoxin) reports using an​ over-the-counter antacid for recurrent heartburn. Based on this​ information, which effect should the nurse be concerned​ about? A. Hypermagnesemia B. Hyponatremia C. Increased effectiveness of furosemide​ (Lanoxin) D. Decreased effectiveness of digoxin​ (Lanoxin)

D. Decreased effectiveness of digoxin​ (Lanoxin)

Which prescription should the nurse anticipate to increase the myocardial contractility for a client with heart​ failure? A. Furosemide​ (Lasix) B. Carvedilol​ (Coreg) C. Lisinopril​ (Prinivil) D. Digoxin​ (Lanoxin)

D. Digoxin​ (Lanoxin)

A client with an NG tube is prescribed potassium chloride​ (KCl). Which intervention should the nurse anticipate to include in the administration of the​ prescription? A. Flush the nasogastric tube with​ Coca-Cola before and after administration. B. Crush the tablet prior to administration through the nasogastric tube. C. Flush the nasogastric tube with normal saline before and after administration. D. Dilute the drug prior to administration through the nasogastric tube.

D. Dilute the drug prior to administration through the nasogastric tube.

Which prescription should the nurse be concerned about a pregnant client​ receiving? A. Potassium supplement B. Hydrochlorothiazide​ (HCTZ) C. Doxazosin​ (Cardura) D. Enalapril​ (Vasotec)

D. Enalapril​ (Vasotec)

Which condition should the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider to prescribe intravenous fluid​ therapy? A. Orthostatic hypotension B. Pulmonary edema C. Fluid intake of 2500​ mL/day D. Fluid output exceeds intake

D. Fluid output exceeds intake

A client receiving dextran 40​ (Gentran 40) begins experiencing​ tachycardia, dyspnea, and a cough. Which should the nurse understand is the causative factor of the​symptoms? A. Renal failure B. Allergic reaction C. Pulmonary edema D. Fluid overload

D. Fluid overload

The nurse notes a​ client's warfarin​ (Coumadin) level is 7​ mcg/mL. Which action should the nurse​ take? A. Continue the treatment and monitor the client. B. Administer protamine sulfate and hold the next dose of warfarin​ (Coumadin). C. Hold the next dose of warfarin​ (Coumadin) and contact the healthcare provider. D. Hold the next dose of warfarin​ (Coumadin) and request an international normalized ratio​ (INR).

D. Hold the next dose of warfarin​ (Coumadin) and request an international normalized ratio​ (INR).

A client receiving ferrous sulfate​ (Feosol) tells the nurse they are experiencing constipation. Which intervention should the nurse​ recommend? A. Laxatives B. Increase exercise C. ​Self-administer Fleet's enemas. D. Increase fluids and high fiber foods in the diet.

D. Increase fluids and high fiber foods in the diet.

Which are the goals of antianginal​ therapy? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Decreased oxygen consumption of the brain. B. Increased myocardial contractility. C. Increased blood flow to the peripheral blood vessels. D. Increased blood flow to the myocardium. E. Decreased myocardial oxygen demand.

D. Increased blood flow to the myocardium. E. Decreased myocardial oxygen demand.

Which equipment should the nurse secure for use when administering dopamine​ (Intropin)? A. Sequential compression devices B. Oxygen cannula C. Pulse oximeter D. Intravenous​ (IV) pump

D. Intravenous​ (IV) pump

The educator is discussing intravenous solutions with a nurse. Which should the educator include when discussing crystalloid isotonic​ solutions? A. Dextran 70 in normal saline B. Dextran 70 in normal saline C. ​5% albumin D. Lactated Ringers

D. Lactated Ringers

A client receiving cyanocobalamin​ (Nascobal) with a history of a gastrectomy tells the nurse that they have stopped taking the prescription months ago. Which assessment findings should the nurse​ anticipate? A. A gradual decrease in red blood cell counts B. Jaundice and tarry stools C. Low hemoglobin and hematocrit counts D. Memory​ loss, numbness in the​ limbs, and depression

D. Memory​ loss, numbness in the​ limbs, and depression

Which condition should the nurse review a​ client's records for prior to administering epinephrine​ (Adrenalin) for a​ client? A. Hypothyroidism B. Human immunodeficiency virus​ (HIV) infection C. Type 1 diabetes mellitus D. Narrow angle glaucoma

D. Narrow angle glaucoma

Which is the primary functional unit of the​ kidney? A. Loop of Henle B. ​Bowman's capsule C. Distal tubule D. Nephron

D. Nephron

Which general adverse effect is associated with the use of​ diuretics? A. Constipation B. Hypertension C. Weight gain D. Orthostatic hypotension

D. Orthostatic hypotension

Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse be concerned about for the client that is prescribed a thiazide​ diuretic? A. Chloride B. Magnesium C. Calcium D. Potassium

D. Potassium

Which describes the primary action of anticoagulant​ therapy? A. Dissolve blood clots B. Decrease the prothrombin time C. Increase the number of platelets D. Prevent the formation of blood clots

D. Prevent the formation of blood clots

The nurse suspects a client receiving chlorothiazide​ (Diuril) is experiencing side effects from the prescription. Which assessment finding supports the​ nurse's suspicion? A. Serum sodium level of 160​ mEq/L and headaches B. Ataxia and frequent diarrhea C. Mental confusion and dependent edema D. Serum potassium level of 3.0​ mEq/L and low blood pressure

D. Serum potassium level of 3.0​ mEq/L and low blood pressure

Which should the nurse suspect after reviewing noting the presence of protein on a routine​ analysis? A. Kidney infection B. Acute kidney injury C. Chronic kidney injury D. Structural damage

D. Structural damage

Which symptom should the nurse anticipate for a client experiencing cardiogenic​ shock? A. Low temperature B. Restlessness and anxiety C. Bradycardia D. Tachycardia and low blood pressure

D. Tachycardia and low blood pressure

The educator is preparing to review the movement of body fluids with a nurse. Which statement should the educator use when referring to​ tonicity? A. A solution that contains a greater concentration of solutes than plasma. B. The measure of the number of dissolved​ particles, or solutes in 1 liter of water. C. Water moves from areas of low concentration to areas of high solute concentration. D. The ability to cause change in water movement across a membrane.

D. The ability to cause change in water movement across a membrane.

Which is the priority outcome for the client with type 1 diabetes mellitus prescribed propranolol​ (Inderal)? A. The patient will perform activities of daily living. B. The client will decrease the required number of​ calories/day. C. The client will maintain adequate peripheral circulation. D. The client will maintain blood glucose within normal limits.

D. The client will maintain blood glucose within normal limits.

Which statement is accurate regarding the use of​ beta-adrenergic blockers for use in clients with heart​ failure? A. This drug class does not have an effect on the bronchioles of the lungs. B. Higher doses are used initially until optimal vital signs are achieved. C. Dosage changes are done on a daily basis for the first 2 weeks. D. They are generally used in combination with other​ heart-failure drugs.

D. They are generally used in combination with other​ heart-failure drugs.

Which describes the mechanism of action of​ norepinephrine? A. Increased blood flow B. Increase heart rate C. Decrease cardiac output D. Vasoconstriction

D. Vasoconstriction

Which is the most serious adverse effect associated with milrinone​ (Primacor)? A. Nausea B. Atrial dysrhythmia C. Headache D. Ventricular dysrhythmia

D. Ventricular dysrhythmia

Which prescription should the nurse prepare to administer for a client experiencing a warfarin sodium​ overdose? A. Protamine sulfate B. Heparin C. Aspirin D. Vitamin K

D. Vitamin K

Which current prescription should the nurse be concerned with for the client newly prescribed amiodarone​ (Cordarone)? A. Omeprazole​ (Prilosec) B. Fluoxetine​ (Prozac) C. Oxycodone​ (OxyContin) D. Warfarin​ (Coumadin)

D. Warfarin​ (Coumadin)

Which statements made by a client indicates an understanding of the education provided by the nurse regarding digoxin​ (Lanoxin) toxicity? ​Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. ​"I should limit my fluids while taking this​ medication." B. ​"It is okay to keep taking my​ ginseng." C. ​"If I have​ nausea, it means I must stop the​ medication." D. ​"I can drink orange juice every​ morning." E. ​"I must check my pulse and not take the medication if it is less than​ 60."

D. ​"I can drink orange juice every​ morning." E. ​"I must check my pulse and not take the medication if it is less than​ 60."

The nurse has completed the education for a client with angina prescribed nitroglycerine​ (Nitrostat). Which statement made by the client indicates further teaching is​required? A. ​"I can take three​ tablets, one every 5​ minutes." B. ​"I should take a tablet as soon as chest pain​ occurs." C. ​"If my pain is not reduced 5 minutes after taking one tablet I should call​ EMS." D. ​"I can take up to 5 tablets to resolve the chest​ pain."

D. ​"I can take up to 5 tablets to resolve the chest​ pain."

Which statement made by a client newly prescribed a​ beta-adrenergic blocker should the nurse be concerned​ about? A. ​"I don't handle stress​ well; I have a lot of​ diarrhea." B. ​"When I have a migraine​ headache, I need to have the room​ darkened." C. ​"My father died of a heart attack when he was​ 48-years-old." D. ​"I have always had problems with my​ asthma."

D. ​"I have always had problems with my​ asthma."

The nurse has discussed lifestyle modifications to help manage the​ client's hypertension. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the​information? A. ​"I won't be able to run in the marathon race​ anymore." B. ​"My father had​ hypertension, did​ nothing, and lived to be​ 90-years-old." C. ​"I need to get started on my medications right​ away." D. ​"I know I need to give up my cigarettes and​ alcohol."

D. ​"I know I need to give up my cigarettes and​ alcohol."

The nurse has provided education for a client with diabetes mellitus prescribed metoprolol​ (Lopressor) for hypertension. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the​ information? A. ​"I might not need to check my blood sugars as often with metoprolol​ (Lopressor)." B. ​"I might need more insulin when I take metoprolol​ (Lopressor)." C. ​"I might be able to change from insulin to a pill with metoprolol​ (Lopressor)." D. ​"I might need less insulin when I take metoprolol​ (Lopressor)."

D. ​"I might need less insulin when I take metoprolol​ (Lopressor)."

Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of​ self-care while taking prescriptions to treat their heart​ failure? A. ​"I will cut back on my​ smoking." B. ​"I will check my pulse every few​ days." C. ​"I will schedule my lab work if I am not feeling​ well." D. ​"I will weigh myself every day in the morning after I wake​ up."

D. ​"I will weigh myself every day in the morning after I wake​ up."

Which statement by the client receiving nitroglycerine​ (Nitrostat) should the nurse be concerned​ about? A. ​"I'm going water skiing​ tomorrow; I hope my angina​ isn't a​ problem." B. ​"I really​ don't like taking those little​ pills, I would like to use a​ patch." C. ​"My angina has been a little more frequent I would like something to take for the​ pain." D. ​"I'm getting married​ tomorrow; I hope my erectile dysfunction​ isn't a​ problem."

D. ​"I'm getting married​ tomorrow; I hope my erectile dysfunction​ isn't a​ problem."

Which information should the nurse include in the discharge plan for a client prescribed digoxin​ (Lanoxin)? A. ​"Stop the prescription if your pulse is​ irregular." B. ​"If you miss a​ dose, take two​ doses." C. ​"Report the development of a metallic taste in the​ mouth." D. ​"Report mental changes such as feelings of​ depression."

D. ​"Report mental changes such as feelings of​ depression."

A client prescribed verapamil​ (Calan) asks the nurse if it is okay to take herbal supplements with the prescription. Which response should the nurse provide the​ client? A. ​"Most herbal supplements are​ okay, but you should avoid St.​ John's wort." B. ​"Herbal supplements are okay as long as you take calcium salts with​ them." C. ​"Using herbal supplements may increase your blood pressure too​ much." D. ​"Some herbal supplements may interact with your​ prescription."

D. ​"Some herbal supplements may interact with your​ prescription."

Which information should the nurse include in the education for a client prescribed niacin to lower lipid​ levels? A. ​"It may be time to ask your healthcare provider about switching to another​ drug." B. ​"Take your niacin tablet with food and at least one full glass of​ water." C. ​"Be sure to take your niacin on an empty stomach as soon as you​ arise." D. ​"Take one aspirin 30 minutes before you take your​ niacin."

D. ​"Take one aspirin 30 minutes before you take your​ niacin."

Which information about the primary therapeutic action of an antianginal prescription should the nurse include in client​ teaching? A. ​"This prescription will thin your blood so your heart receives more​ oxygen." B. ​"This prescription increases the oxygen to your heart by increasing nitric oxide​ production." C. ​"This prescription increases the amount of oxygen your heart​ receives." D. ​"The prescription decreases how much oxygen your heart​ needs."

D. ​"The prescription decreases how much oxygen your heart​ needs."

A family member of a client receiving dobutamine intravenously asks the nurse how that will help their blood pressure. Which response should the nurse​ provide? A. ​"Vasopressor drugs act on the renin-angiotensin system which will increase the blood​ pressure." B. ​"The prescription is a vasopressor and helps the heart beat more​ effectively, which will increase blood​ pressure." C. ​"The prescription is a vasopressor which will help increase blood flow to peripheral​ muscles." D. ​"The prescription is a vasopressor and will help stabilize blood pressure by making the blood vessels​ smaller."

D. ​"The prescription is a vasopressor and will help stabilize blood pressure by making the blood vessels​ smaller."

The nurse has provided education about dysrhythmias for a group of clients. Which statement made by a client indicates an understanding of the​ information? A. ​"Enhancing potassium and sodium is how our prescriptions will work to prevent​ dysrhythmias." B. ​"The sodium,​ potassium, and magnesium levels must be okay for the heart to have an electrical​ impulse." C. ​"Potassium is the most important electrolyte when it comes to the electrical impulse in the​ heart." D. ​"The sodium,​ potassium, and calcium levels must be okay for the heart to have an electrical​ impulse."

D. ​"The sodium,​ potassium, and calcium levels must be okay for the heart to have an electrical​ impulse."

Which classification of prescription should the nurse anticipate to be prescribed to a client newly diagnosed with chronic heart​ failure? A. ​Beta-adrenergic blockers B. Cardiac glycosides C. Diuretics D. ​Angiotensin-converting enzyme​ (ACE) inhibitor

D. ​Angiotensin-converting enzyme​ (ACE) inhibitor

Which prescriptions reduce the​ heart's demand for oxygen by lowering heart​ rate? A. Calcium channel blockers and anticoagulants B. Anticoagulants and​ beta-adrenergic blockers C. Organic nitrates and calcium channel blockers D. ​Beta-adrenergic blockers and calcium channel blockers

D. ​Beta-adrenergic blockers and calcium channel blockers

The nurse reviewing a​ client's record notes the morphology of the​ client's erythrocytes is reported to be microcytic-hypochromic. Which anemia should the nurse associate with the​ morphology? A. Pernicious anemia B. Hemolytic anemia C. ​Sickle-cell anemia D. ​Iron-deficiency anemia

D. ​Iron-deficiency anemia

A nurse is teaching about diet restrictions to a client who has acute kidney injury and is on hemodialysis. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include in teaching? A: Limit calcium intake to 2,500 mg/day. B: Decrease total fat intake to 45% of daily calories. C: Limit sodium intake to 4.5 g/day. D: Decrease potassium intake to 60 to 70 mEq/kg.

D: Decrease potassium intake to 60 to 70 mEq/kg.

A nurse is conducting a nutrition class at a local community center. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? A: Normal functioning cardiac systems depend upon B-complex vitamins. B: Limit cholesterol consumption to 400 mg/day. C: Good bowel function requires 35 g/day of fiber for females. D: Progress toward limiting saturated fat to 7% of total daily intake.

D: Progress toward limiting saturated fat to 7% of total daily intake.

A nurse is completing discharge teaching about diet and fluid restrictions to a client who has a calcium oxalate based kidney stone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? A: Decrease broccoli intake. B: Increase intake of vitamin C supplements. C: Limit consumption of purine substances. D: Reduce intake of spinach.

D: Reduce intake of spinach.

A nurse should identify that which of the following drugs is only used short term for cardiac dysthymia due to its serious adverse effects? Quinidine Procainamide Nitroglycerin Verapamil

Procainamide

A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client who is recieving atleplase following an acute myocardial infarction (MI). Which of the following medications should the nurse expect the client to be taking in addition to atleplase? a) Protamine b) Desmopressin c) Ferrous sulfate d) Heparin

d) Heparin

A health care professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking asprin (Ecotrin) to reduce the risk of a cardiovascular event. The health care professional should understand that the drug inhibits platelet aggregation by which of the following mechanisms? a) Activating thromboxane A2 b) Blocking adenosine diphosphate receptor agonists c) Supressing specific clotting factors d) Inhibiting cyclooxygenase action in platelets

d) Inhibiting cyclooxygenase action in platelets

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking clopidogrel to prevent stent restenosis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions? a) Hyperuricemia b) Hyponatrmia c) Lyphocytopenia d) Thrombocytopenia

d) Thrombocytopenia

A patient who is taking warfarin (Coumadin) arrives at the emergency department and reports rectal bleeding. Which of the following drugs should the health care professional have available? a) Filgrastim (Neupogen) b) Deferoxamine (Desferal) c) Protamine d) Vitamin K

d) Vitamin K