Nursing 403: Chapter 45: Management of Patients With Oral and Esophageal Disorders Prep U

To prevent gastroesophageal reflux in a client with hiatal hernia, the nurse should provide which discharge instruction? "Lie down after meals to promote digestion." "Avoid coffee and alcoholic beverages." "Take antacids with meals." "Limit fluid intake with meals."

"Avoid coffee and alcoholic beverages." To prevent reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus, the nurse should advise the client to avoid foods and beverages that increase stomach acid, such as coffee and alcohol. The nurse also should teach the client to avoid lying down after meals, which can aggravate reflux, and to take antacids after eating. The client need not limit fluid intake with meals as long as the fluids aren't gastric irritants.

The healthcare provider of a client with oral cancer has ordered the placement of a GI tube to provide nutrition and to deliver medications. What would be the preferred route? nasogastric intubation orogastric intubation nasoenteric intubation gastrostomy

nasogastric intubation The nasal route is the preferred route for passing a tube when the client's nose is intact and free from injury.

A patient tells the nurse that it feels like food is "sticking" in the lower portion of the esophagus. What motility disorder does the nurse suspect these symptoms indicate? Achalasia Diffuse spasm Gastroesophageal reflex disease Hiatal hernia

Achalasia Achalasia is absent or ineffective peristalsis of the distal esophagus accompanied by failure of the esophageal sphincter to relax in response to swallowing. Narrowing of the esophagus just above the stomach results in a gradually increasing dilation of the esophagus in the upper chest. The main symptom is difficulty in swallowing both liquids and solids. The patient has a sensation of food sticking in the lower portion of the esophagus.

A nurse is completing an assessment on a client with a postoperative neck dissection. The nurse notices excessive bleeding from the dressing site and suspects possible carotid artery rupture. What action should the nurse take first? Summon assistance Apply pressure to the bleeding site Elevate the head of the patient's bed Notify the surgeon to repair the vessel

Apply pressure to the bleeding site The first action for the nurse is to apply pressure to the bleeding site. The nurse will need to obtain assistance, elevate the head of the bed, and notify the surgeon, but client care is most important initially.

Which is an accurate statement regarding cancer of the esophagus? It is three times more common in women than men in the United States . It is seen more frequently in Caucasian Americans than in African Americans. It usually occurs in the fourth decade of life. Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor.

Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated with the ingestion of alcohol and the use of tobacco. In the United States, carcinoma of the esophagus occurs more than three times more often in men as in women. It is seen more frequently in African Americans than in Caucasian Americans. It usually occurs in the fifth decade of life.

A patient reports an inflamed salivary gland below the right ear. The nurse documents probable inflammation of which gland? Buccal Parotid Sublingual Submandibular

Parotid The salivary glands consist of the parotid glands, one on each side of the face below the ear; the submandibular and sublingual glands, both in the floor of the mouth; and the buccal gland, beneath the lips.

Which of the following is a proton pump inhibitor used in the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? Select all that apply. Lansoprazole (Prevacid) Rabeprazole (AcipHex) Esomeprazole (Nexium) Famotidine (Pepcid) Nizatidine (Axid)

Lansoprazole (Prevacid) Rabeprazole (AcipHex) Esomeprazole (Nexium)

Which of the following are functions of saliva? Select all that apply. Lubrication Protection against harmful bacteria Digestion Elimination Metabolism

Lubrication Protection against harmful bacteria Digestion The three main functions of saliva are lubrication, protection against harmful bacteria, and digestion. Elimination and metabolism are not functions of saliva.

Which of the following medications, used in the treatment of GERD, accelerate gastric emptying? Metoclopramide (Reglan) Famotidine (Pepcid) Nizatidine (Axid) Esomeprazole (Nexium)

Metoclopramide (Reglan) Prokinetic agents which accelerate gastric emptying, used in the treatment of GERD, include bethanechol (Urecholine), domperidone (Motilium), and metoclopramide (Reglan). If reflux persists, the patient may be given antacids or H2 receptor antagonists, such as famotidine (Pepcid) or nizatidine (Axid). Proton pump inhibitors (medications that decrease the release of gastric acid, such as esomeprazole (Nexium) may be used, also.

The nurse working in the recovery room is caring for a client who had a radical neck dissection. The nurse notices that the client makes a coarse, high-pitched sound upon inspiration. Which intervention by the nurse is appropriate? Document the presence of stridor Administer a breathing treatment Notify the physician Lower the head of the bed

Notify the physician The presence of stridor, a coarse, high-pitched sound upon inspiration, in the immediate postoperative period following radical neck dissection, indicates obstruction of the airway, and the nurse must report it immediately to the physician.

A client with a disorder of the oral cavity cannot tolerate tooth brushing or flossing. Which strategy should the nurse use to assist the client? Urge the client to regularly rinse the mouth with tap water. Recommend that the client drink a small glass of alcohol at the end of the day to kill germs. Provide the client with an irrigating solution of baking soda and warm water. Regularly wipe the outside of the client's mouth to prevent germs from entering.

Provide the client with an irrigating solution of baking soda and warm water If a client cannot tolerate brushing or flossing, an irrigating solution of 1 tsp of baking soda to 8 oz of warm water, half strength hydrogen peroxide, or normal saline solution is recommended. Using tap water is not enough to promote oral hygiene. Drinking a small glass of alcohol will not provide oral hygiene. Wiping the outside of the mouth will not promote oral hygiene.

The client has a chancre on the lips. What instruction should the nurse provide? Apply warm soaks to the lip. Gargle with an antiseptic solution. Avoid foods that could irritate the lesion. Take measures to prevent spreading the lesion to other people.

Take measures to prevent spreading the lesion to other people. A chancre is a primary lesion of syphilis and very contagious. It is important to instruct the client about ways to prevent spreading the lesion to others. Other nursing considerations include cold soaks to the lip, good mouth care (brushing and flossing), and administration of antibiotics as prescribed.

A patient has been diagnosed with a hiatal hernia. The nurse explains the diagnosis to the patient and his family by telling them that a hernia is a (an): Extension of the esophagus through an opening in the diaphragm. Involution of the esophagus, which causes a severe stricture. Protrusion of the upper stomach into the lower portion of the thorax. Twisting of the duodenum through an opening in the diaphragm.

Protrusion of the upper stomach into the lower portion of the thorax. It is important for the patient and his family to understand the altered association between the esophagus and the stomach. The diaphragm opening, through which the esophagus passes, becomes enlarged and part of the upper stomach moves up into the lower portion of the thorax. The abnormality is not an involuntary, protruding, or twisted segment.

The most common symptom of esophageal disease is nausea. vomiting. dysphagia. odynophagia.

dysphagia This symptom may vary from an uncomfortable feeling that a bolus of food is caught in the upper esophagus to acute pain upon swallowing. Nausea is the most common symptom of gastrointestinal problems in general. Vomiting is a nonspecific symptom that may have a variety of causes. Odynophagia refers specifically to acute pain upon swallowing.

Which is an accurate statement regarding cancer of the esophagus? It is three times more common in women than men in the United States. It is seen more frequently in Caucasian Americans than in African Americans. It usually occurs in the fourth decade of life. Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor.

Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated with the ingestion of alcohol and the use of tobacco. In the United States, carcinoma of the esophagus occurs more than three times more often in men as in women. It is seen more frequently in African Americans than in Caucasian Americans. It usually occurs in the fifth decade of life.

A client is diagnosed with a hiatal hernia. Which statement indicates effective client teaching about hiatal hernia and its treatment? "I'll eat three large meals every day without any food restrictions." "I'll lie down immediately after a meal." "I'll gradually increase the amount of heavy lifting I do." "I'll eat frequent, small, bland meals that are high in fiber."

"I'll eat frequent, small, bland meals that are high in fiber." In hiatal hernia, the upper portion of the stomach protrudes into the chest when intra-abdominal pressure increases. To minimize intra-abdominal pressure and decrease gastric reflux, the client should eat frequent, small, bland meals that can pass easily through the esophagus. Meals should be high in fiber to prevent constipation and minimize straining on defecation (which may increase intra-abdominal pressure from the Valsalva maneuver). Eating three large meals daily would increase intra-abdominal pressure, possibly worsening the hiatal hernia. The client should avoid spicy foods, alcohol, and tobacco because they increase gastric acidity and promote gastric reflux. To minimize intra-abdominal pressure, the client shouldn't recline after meals, lift heavy objects, or bend.

A client in the emergency department reports that a piece of meat became stuck in the throat while eating. The nurse notes the client is anxious with respirations at 30 breaths/min, frequent swallowing, and little saliva in the mouth. An esophagogastroscopy with removal of foreign body is scheduled for today. What would be the first activity performed by the nurse? Assess lung sounds bilaterally. Administer prescribed morphine intravenously. Obtain consent for the esophagogastroscopy. Suction the oral cavity of the client.

Assess lung sounds bilaterally All these activities are things the nurse may do for a client with a foreign body in the esophagus. This client is at risk for esophageal perforation, and thus pneumothorax. By auscultating lung sounds the nurse will be able to assess if a pneumothorax is present. The client has little saliva in the oral cavity and does not need to be suctioned. A client may also report pain with a foreign body. However, ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation) take priority. The consent for the esophagogastroscopy may be obtained after the nurse has completed the client assessment.

A client who is recovering from anesthesia following oral surgery for lip cancer is experiencing difficulty breathing deeply and coughing up secretions. Which of the following measures will help ease the client's discomfort? Keeping the head of the bed elevated. Positioning the client flat on the abdomen or side. Providing a tracheostomy tray near the bed. Turning the client's head to the side.

Keeping the head of the bed elevated It is essential to position the client with the head of the bed elevated because it is easier for the client to breathe deeply and cough up secretions after recovering from the anesthetic. Positioning the client flat either on the abdomen or side with the head turned to the side will facilitate drainage from the mouth. A tracheostomy tray is kept by the bed for respiratory distress or airway obstruction. When mouth irrigation is carried out, the nurse should turn the client's head to the side to allow the solution to run in gently and flow out.

A nurse is performing an assessment for a client who presents to the clinic with an erythemic, fissuring lip lesion with white hyperkeratosis. What does the nurse suspect that these findings are characteristic of? Actinic cheilitis Human papillomavirus lesion Frey syndrome Sialadenitis

Actinic cheilitis Actinic cheilitis is an irritation of the lips associated with scaling, crusting, fissure, and overgrowth of a white, horny layer of epidermis (hyperkeratosis). Human papillomavirus lesions appear as flat lesions, small cauliflower-like bumps, or tiny stem-like protrusions. Frey syndrome is damage to the parotid glands after surgery resulting in saliva disturbances. Sialadenitis is an infection associated with pain, tenderness, redness, and gradual, localized swelling affecting the salivary gland.

A client is postoperative following a graft reconstruction of the neck. What intervention is the most important for the nurse to complete with the client? Reinforce the neck dressing when blood is present on the dressing. Assess the graft for color and temperature. Administer prescribed intravenous vancomycin at the correct time. Cleanse around the drain using aseptic technique.

Assess the graft for color and temperature. Assessing the graft for color and temperature addresses circulation and is most important for the nurse to complete. Reinforcing the neck dressing is important, but not the priority. Administering medication and cleansing the drain site are not most important interventions with the client after graft reconstruction of the neck.

An elderly client seeks medical attention for a vague complaint of difficulty swallowing. Which of the following assessment findings is most significant as related to this symptom? Hiatal hernia Gastroesophageal reflux disease Gastritis Esophageal tumor

Esophageal tumor Esophageal tumor is most significant and can result in advancing cancer. Esophageal cancer is a serious condition that presents with a symptom of difficulty swallowing as the tumor grows. Hiatal hernia, gastritis, and GERD can lead to serious associated complications but less likely to be as significant as esophageal tumor/cancer.

The nurse is caring for a client during the postoperative period following radical neck dissection. Which finding should be reported to the physician? High epigastric pain and/or discomfort Crackles that clear after coughing Serous drainage on the dressing Temperature of 99.0°F (37.2°C)

High epigastric pain and/or discomfort The nurse should report high epigastric pain and/or discomfort because this can be a sign of impending rupture. Crackles that clear after coughing, serous drainage on the dressing, and a temperature of 99.0°F are normal findings in the immediate postoperative period and do not need to be reported to the physician.

A client has a cheesy white plaque in the mouth. The plaque looks like milk curds and can be rubbed off. What is the nurse's best intervention? Instruct the client to swish prescribed nystatin solution for 1 minute. Remove the plaque from the mouth by rubbing with gauze. Provide saline rinses prior to meals. Encourage the client to ingest a soft or bland diet.

Instruct the client to swish prescribed nystatin solution for 1 minute A cheesy white plaque in the mouth that looks like milk curds and can be rubbed off is candidiasis. The most effective treatment is antifungal medication such as nystatin (Mycostatin). When used as a suspension, the client is to swish vigorously for at least 1 minute and then swallow. Other measures such as providing saline rinses or ingesting a soft or bland diet are comfort measures. The nurse does not remove the plaques; doing so will cause erythema and potential bleeding.

Which mouth condition is most associated with HIV infection? Kaposi sarcoma Stomatitis Krythoplakia Candidiasis

Kaposi sarcoma Kaposi sarcoma appears first on the oral mucosa as a red, purple, or blue lesion. Of the conditions listed, it is the most associated with HIV infection. Stomatitis is associated with chemotherapy and radiation therapy. Krythoplakia is caused by a nonspecific inflammation. Candidiasis is caused by fungus.

The nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. For which mouth conditions associated with HIV infection should the nurse assess? Select all that apply. Kaposi sarcoma Stomatitis Erythroplakia Candidiasis

Kaposi sarcoma Stomatitis Kaposi sarcoma appears first on the oral mucosa as a red, purple, or blue lesion that is associated with HIV infection. Stomatitis is associated with chemotherapy and radiation therapy, as well as HIV infection. Erythroplakia is caused by a nonspecific inflammation, and candidiasis is caused by fungus.

The client has returned to the floor following a radical neck dissection. Anesthesia has worn off. What is the nurse's priority action? Place the client in the Fowler's position. Administer morphine for report of pain. Provide feeding through the gastrostomy tube. Empty the Jackson-Pratt device (portable drainage device).

Place the client in the Fowler's position All the options are activities the nurse may do; however, the nurse has to prioritize according to Maslow's hierarchy of needs. Physiological needs are addressed first. Under physiological needs, ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation) take priority. Placing the client in the Fowler's position facilitates breathing and promotes comfort.

A nurse practitioner, who is treating a patient with GERD, knows that responsiveness to this drug classification is validation of the disease. The drug classification is: H2-receptor antagonists. Antispasmodics Proton pump inhibitors. Antacids

Proton pump inhibitors. Proton pump inhibitors are the strongest inhibitors of acid secretions. The H2-receptor antagonists are the next most powerful.

A patient has been diagnosed with a hiatal hernia. The nurse explains the diagnosis to the patient and his family by telling them that a hernia is a (an): Extension of the esophagus through an opening in the diaphragm. Involution of the esophagus, which causes a severe stricture. Protrusion of the upper stomach into the lower portion of the thorax. Twisting of the duodenum through an opening in the diaphragm.

Protrusion of the upper stomach into the lower portion of the thorax It is important for the patient and his family to understand the altered association between the esophagus and the stomach. The diaphragm opening, through which the esophagus passes, becomes enlarged and part of the upper stomach moves up into the lower portion of the thorax. The abnormality is not an involuntary, protruding, or twisted segment.

A client with dysphagia is being prepared for discharge. Which outcome indicates that the client is ready for discharge? The client doesn't exhibit rectal tenesmus. The client is free from esophagitis and achalasia. The client reports diminished duodenal inflammation. The client has normal gastric structures.

The client is free from esophagitis and achalasia. Dysphagia may be the reason why a client with esophagitis or achalasia seeks treatment. Therefore, when the client is free of esophagitis or achalasia, he is ready for discharge. Dysphagia isn't associated with rectal tenesmus, duodenal inflammation, or abnormal gastric structures.

A client has a new order for metoclopramide. What extrapyramidal side effect should the nurse assess for in the client? Anxiety or irritability Hyperactivity Uncontrolled rhythmic movements of the face or limbs Dry mouth not relieved by sugar-free hard candy

Uncontrolled rhythmic movements of the face or limbs Metoclopramide is a prokinetic agent that accelerates gastric emptying. Because metoclopramide can have extrapyramidal side effects that are increased in certain neuromuscular disorders, such as Parkinson's disease, it should be used only if no other option exists, and the client should be monitored closely for uncontrolled rhythmic movements of the face or limbs. Metoclopramide side effects are headache, confusion, and drowsiness. Anxiety, hyperactivity, and a dry mouth are not common side effects.

A client with GERD develops esophagitis. Which diagnostic test would the nurse expect the physician to order to confirm the diagnosis? Barium swallow Upper endoscopy with biopsy Stool testing for occult blood 24-hour esophageal pH monitoring

Upper endoscopy with biopsy Upper endoscopy with biopsy confirms esophagitis. Barium-swallow would reveal inflammation or stricture formation from chronic esophagitis. Tests of stool may show positive findings of blood. Ambulatory 24-hour esophageal pH monitoring allows for observation of the frequency of reflux episodes and their associated symptoms.

The term for a reddened circumscribed lesion that ulcerates and becomes crusted and is a primary lesion of syphilis is a(n) lichen planus. actinic cheilitis. chancre. leukoplakia.

chancre. A chancre is a reddened circumscribed lesion that ulcerates and becomes crusted and is a primary lesion of syphilis. Lichen planus are white papules at the intersection of a network of interlacing lesions. Actinic cheilitis is an irritation of the lips associated with a scaling, crusting fissure. Leukoplakias are white patches usually found in the buccal mucosa.

The most common symptom of esophageal disease is nausea. vomiting. dysphagia. odynophagia.

dysphagia. Dysphagia may vary from an uncomfortable feeling that a bolus of food is caught in the upper esophagus to acute pain upon swallowing. Nausea is the most common symptom of gastrointestinal problems in general. Vomiting is a nonspecific symptom that may have a variety of causes. Odynophagia refers specifically to acute pain upon swallowing.

The nurse is obtaining a history on a patient who comes to the clinic. What symptom described by the patient is one of the first symptoms associated with esophageal disease? Dysphagia Malnutrition Pain Regurgitation of food

Dysphagia Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), the most common symptom of esophageal disease, may vary from an uncomfortable feeling that a bolus of food is caught in the upper esophagus to acute odynophagia (pain on swallowing).

Health teaching for a patient with GERD is directed toward decreasing lower esophageal sphincter pressure and irritation. The nurse instructs the patient to do which of the following? Select all that apply. Drink three, 8 oz. glasses of regular milk daily to coat the esophagus. Avoid beer, especially in the evening. Eat 1 hour before bedtime so there will be food in the stomach overnight to absorb excess acid. Elevate the head of the bed on 6- to 8-inch blocks. Elevate the upper body on pillows.

Elevate the upper body on pillows. Avoid beer, especially in the evening. Elevate the head of the bed on 6- to 8-inch blocks Milk should be avoided, as should eating before bed. Advise the patient not to eat or drink 2 hours before bedtime.

An elderly client states, "I don't understand why I have so many caries in my teeth." What assessment made by the nurse places the client at risk for dental caries? Exhibiting hemoglobin A1C 8.2 Drinking fluoridated water Eating fruits and cheese in diet Using a soft-bristled toothbrush

Exhibiting hemoglobin A1C 8.2 Measures used to prevent and control dental caries include controlling diabetes. A hemoglobin A1C of 8.2 is not controlled. It is recommended for hemoglobin A1C to be less than 7 for people with diabetes. Other measures to prevent and control dental caries include drinking fluoridated water; eating foods that are less cariogenic, which include fruits, vegetables, nuts, cheese, or plain yogurt; and brushing teeth evenly with a soft-bristled toothbrush.

After teaching a client who has had a Roux-en-Y gastric bypass, which client statement indicates the need for additional teaching? "I need to chew my food slowly and thoroughly." "I need to drink 8 oz of water before eating." "A total serving should amount to be less than 1 cup." "I should pick cereals with less than 2 g of fiber per serving."

"I need to drink 8 oz of water before eating." After a Roux-en-Y gastric bypass, the client should not drink fluids with meals, withhold fluids for 15 minutes before eating to 90 minutes after eating. Chewing foods slowly and thoroughly; keeping total serving sizes to less than 1 cup; and choosing foods such as breads, cereals, and grains that provide less than 2 g of fiber per serving.

The nurse fills a tube feeding bag with two 8-oz cans of commercially prepared formula. The client is to receive the formula at 80 mL/hour via continuous gastrostomy feeding tube and pump. How many hours will this bag of formula run before becoming empty? Record your answer using a whole number.

6hrs Step 1:2 × 8 oz = 16 oz Step 2:1 oz : 30 mL :: 16 oz : X mL X = 480 mL Step 3: 480 mL / 80 mL = 6 hours

When assessing a client during a routine checkup, the nurse reviews the history and notes that the client had aphthous stomatitis at the time of the last visit. How is aphthous stomatitis best described by the nurse? A canker sore of the oral soft tissues An acute stomach infection Acid indigestion An early sign of peptic ulcer disease

A canker sore of the oral soft tissues Aphthous stomatitis refers to a canker sore of the oral soft tissues, including the lips, tongue, and inside of the cheeks. Aphthous stomatitis isn't an acute stomach infection, acid indigestion, or early sign of peptic ulcer disease.

While caring for a patient who has had radical neck surgery, the nurse notices an abnormal amount of serosanguineous secretions in the wound suction unit during the first postoperative day. What does the nurse know is an expected amount of drainage in the wound unit? Between 40 and 80 mL Approximately 80 to 120 mL Between 120 and 160 mL Greater than 160 mL

Approximately 80 to 120 mL Wound drainage tubes are usually inserted during surgery to prevent the collection of fluid subcutaneously. The drainage tubes are connected to a portable suction device (e.g., Jackson-Pratt), and the container is emptied periodically. Between 80 and 120 mL of serosanguineous secretions may drain over the first 24 hours.

The nurse is creating a plan of care for a client who is not able to tolerate brushing his teeth. The nurse includes which mouth irrigation in the plan of care? Dextrose and water Baking soda and water Full-strength peroxide Mouthwash and water

Baking soda and water When a client is unable to tolerate teeth brushing, the following irrigating solutions are recommended: 1 tsp baking soda in 8 oz warm water, half-strength hydrogen peroxide, or normal saline solution.

Which clinical manifestation is not associated with hemorrhage? Tachycardia Bradycardia Tachypnea Hypotension

Bradycardia Hemorrhage may occur from carotid artery rupture as a result of necrosis of the graft or damage to the artery itself from tumor or infection. Tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension may indicate hemorrhage and impending hypovolemic shock.

A client has been receiving radiation therapy to the lungs and now has erythema, edema, and pain of the mouth. What instruction will the nurse give to the client? Use a hard-bristled toothbrush. Rinse with an alcohol-based solution. Brush and floss daily. Continue with the usual diet.

Brush and floss daily The description of erythema, edema, and pain of the mouth following radiation treatment describes stomatitis. Nursing considerations include prophylactic mouth care such as brushing and flossing daily. A soft-bristled toothbrush is recommended. The client is to avoid alcohol-based mouth rinses and hot or spicy foods that may be part of the client's usual diet.

A nurse inspects the Stensen duct of the parotid gland to determine inflammation and possible obstruction. What area in the oral cavity would the nurse examine? Buccal mucosa next to the upper molars Dorsum of the tongue Roof of the mouth next to the incisors Posterior segment of the tongue near the uvula

Buccal mucosa next to the upper molars The salivary glands consist of the parotid glands, one on each side of the face below the ear; the submandibular and sublingual glands, both in the floor of the mouth; and the buccal gland, beneath the lips.

Which term describes a reddened, circumscribed lesion that ulcerates and becomes crusted and is a primary lesion of syphilis? Lichen planus Actinic cheilitis Chancre Leukoplakia

Chancre A chancre is a reddened circumscribed lesion that ulcerates and becomes crusted and is a primary lesion of syphilis. Lichen planus is a white papule at the intersection of a network of interlacing lesions. Actinic cheilitis is an irritation of the lips associated with a scaling, crusting fissure. Leukoplakias are white patches usually found in the buccal mucosa.

Which is the primary symptom of achalasia? Difficulty swallowing Chest pain Heartburn Pulmonary symptoms

Difficulty swallowing The primary symptom of achalasia is difficulty in swallowing both liquids and solids. The client may also report chest pain and heartburn that may or may not be associated with eating. Secondary pulmonary complications may result from aspiration of gastric contents.

The nurse is caring for an older adult who reports xerostomia. The nurse evaluates for use of which medication? Steroids Antibiotics Antiemetics Diuretics

Diuretics Diuretics, frequently taken by older adults, can cause xerostomia (dry mouth). This is uncomfortable, impairs communication, and increases the client's risk for oral infection. Antibiotics, antiemetics, and steroids are not medications typically taken orally by adults that cause dry mouth.

Postoperatively, a client with a radical neck dissection should be placed in which position? Supine Fowler Prone Side-lying

Fowler The client should be placed in the Fowler position to facilitate breathing and promote comfort. This position expands the lungs because the diaphragm is pulled downward and the abdominal viscera are pulled away from the lungs. The other positions are not the position of choice postoperatively.

A patient describes a burning sensation in the esophagus, pain when swallowing, and frequent indigestion. What does the nurse suspect that these clinical manifestations indicate? Peptic ulcer disease Esophageal cancer Gastroesophageal reflux disease Diverticulitis

Gastroesophageal reflux disease Symptoms may include pyrosis (burning sensation in the esophagus), dyspepsia (indigestion), regurgitation, dysphagia or odynophagia (pain on swallowing), hypersalivation, and esophagitis.

A patient is experiencing painful, inflamed, and swollen gums, and when brushing the teeth, the gums bleed. What common disease of the oral tissue does the nurse understand these symptoms indicate? Candidiasis Gingivitis Herpes simplex Cancer of the oral mucosa

Gingivitis Gingivitis is a gum disease that results in painful, inflamed, swollen gums that bleed in response to light contact.

A client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) comes to the clinic and is experiencing white patches on the lateral border of the tongue. What type of lesions does the nurse document? Aphthous stomatitis Nicotine stomatitis Erythroplakia Hairy leukoplakia

Hairy leukoplakia Hairy leukoplakia is a condition often seen in people who are HIV positive in which white patches with rough, hairlike projections form, typically on lateral border of the tongue. Aphthous stomatitis is typically a recurrent round or oval sore or ulcer on the inside of the lips and cheeks or underneath the tongue and is not associated with HIV. Erythroplakia describes a red area or red spots on the lining of the mouth and is not associated with HIV. Nicotine stomatitis is a white patch in the mouth caused by extreme heat from smoking.

A patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has a diagnosis of Barrett's esophagus and has been admitted to a medical unit. The nurse is writing a care plan for this patient. What information is essential to include? He will need to undergo an upper endoscopy every 6 months to detect malignant changes. Liver enzymes must be checked regularly as H2 receptor antagonists may cause hepatic damage. Small amounts of blood are likely to be present in his stools and should not cause concern. Antacids may be discontinued when symptoms of heartburn subside

He will need to undergo an upper endoscopy every 6 months to detect malignant changes In the patient with Barrett's esophagus, the cells lining the lower esophagus have undergone change and are no longer squamous cells. The altered cells are considered precancerous and are a precursor to esophageal cancer. To facilitate early detection of malignant cells, upper endoscopies may be performed every 6 to 12 months. H2 receptor antagonists are commonly prescribed for patients with GERD; however, monitoring of liver enzymes is not routine. Stools that contain evidence of frank bleeding or which are tarry are not expected and should be reported immediately. When antacids are prescribed for patients with GERD, they should be taken as ordered whether or not the patient is symptomatic.

A client is being evaluated for esophageal cancer. What initial manifestation of esophageal cancer should the nurse assess? Increasing difficulty in swallowing Sensation of a mass in throat Foul breath Hiccups

Increasing difficulty in swallowing The client first becomes aware of intermittent and increasing difficulty in swallowing with esophageal cancer. As the tumor grows and the obstruction becomes nearly complete, even liquids cannot pass into the stomach. Other clinical manifestations may include the sensation of a mass in the throat, foul breath, and hiccups, but these are not the most common initial clinical manifestation with clients with esophageal cancer.

A client has a radical neck dissection to treat cancer of the neck. The nurse develops the care plan and includes all the following diagnoses. The nurse identifies the highest priority diagnosis as Impaired tissue integrity related to surgical intervention Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements, related to treatment Risk for infection related to surgical intervention Ineffective airway clearance related to obstruction by mucus

Ineffective airway clearance related to obstruction by mucus All the nursing diagnoses are appropriate for a client who has a radical neck dissection. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, physiological needs take priority. Under physiological needs, airway, breathing, circulation (ABCs) take highest priority. Thus, ineffective airway clearance is the highest priority nursing diagnosis.

A client who reports increasing difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and fatigue is diagnosed with esophageal cancer. Because this client has difficulty swallowing, what should the nurse assign highest priority to? Helping the client cope with body image changes Ensuring adequate nutrition Maintaining a patent airway Preventing injury

Maintaining a patent airway Rapid growth of cancer cells in the esophagus may put pressure on the adjacent trachea, jeopardizing the airway. Therefore, maintaining a patent airway is the highest care priority for a client with esophageal cancer. Helping the client cope with body image changes, ensuring adequate nutrition, and preventing injury are appropriate for a client with this disease, but are less crucial than maintaining airway patency.

A client has been taking a 10-day course of antibiotics for pneumonia. The client has been having white patches that look like milk curds in the mouth. What treatment will the nurse educate the client about? Nystatin Cephalexin Fluocinolone acetonide oral base gel Acyclovir

Nystatin Candidiasis is a fungal infection that results in a cheesy white plaque in the mouth that looks like milk curds. It commonly occurs in antibiotic therapy. Antifungal medications such as nystatin (Mycostatin), amphotericin B, clotrimazole, or ketoconazole may be prescribed.

A 59-year-old woman with a recent history of heartburn, regurgitation, and occasional dysphagia has been diagnosed with a sliding hiatal hernia following an upper GI series. The nurse is providing patient education about the management of this health problem. What should the nurse suggest as a management strategy to this patient? Minimizing her intake of highly spiced foods and dairy products Remaining upright for at least 1 hour following each meal Abstaining from alcohol Drinking one to two glasses of water before and after each meal

Remaining upright for at least 1 hour following each meal Management for a sliding hernia includes frequent, small feedings that can pass easily through the esophagus. The patient is advised not to recline for 1 hour after eating, to prevent reflux or movement of the hernia, and to elevate the head of the bed on 4- to 8-inch (10- to 20-cm) blocks to prevent the hernia from sliding upward. Fluid intake is encouraged, but this should be ingested throughout a meal, not just before and after the meal. It is not necessary to refrain from drinking alcohol, spicy foods, or dairy products.

The nurse notes that a client has inflammation of the salivary glands. The nurse documents which finding? Parotitis Sialadenitis Stomatitis Pyosis

Sialadenitis Sialadenitis is inflammation of the salivary glands. Parotitis is inflammation of the parotid glands. Stomatitis is inflammation of the oral mucosa. Pyosis is pus

Which term describes an inflammation of the salivary glands? Parotitis Sialadenitis Stomatitis Pyosis

Sialadenitis Sialadenitis is inflammation of the salivary glands. Parotitis is inflammation of the parotid glands. Stomatitis is inflammation of the oral mucosa. Pyosis is pus.

Which of the following refers to a bacterial or viral infection of the salivary glands? Sialadenitis Parotitis Mumps Stomatitis

Sialadenitis Sialadenitis refers to the bacterial or viral infection of the salivary glands. Parotitis (inflammation of the parotid gland) is the most common inflammatory condition of the salivary glands. Mumps (epidemic parotitis), a communicable disease caused by viral infection and most commonly affecting children, is an inflammation of a salivary gland, usually the parotid. Stomatitis involves inflammation and breakdown of the oral mucosa; it is often a side effect of chemotherapy or radiation therapy.

Which term is used to describe stone formation in a salivary gland, usually the submandibular gland? Sialolithiasis Parotitis Sialadenitis Stomatitis

Sialolithiasis Salivary stones are formed mainly from calcium phosphate. Parotitis refers to inflammation of the parotid gland. Sialadenitis refers to inflammation of the salivary glands. Stomatitis refers to inflammation of the oral mucosa.

An older adult patient who has been living at home alone is diagnosed with parotitis. What causative bacteria does the nurse suspect is the cause of the parotitis? Methicillin-resistant Streptococcus aureus (MRSA) Pneumococcus Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus viridans

Staphylococcus aureus People who are older, acutely ill, or debilitated with decreased salivary flow from general dehydration or medications are at high risk for parotitis. The infecting organisms travel from the mouth through the salivary duct. The organism is usually Staphylococcus aureus (except in mumps).

Select the assessment finding that the nurse should immediately report, post radical neck dissection. Temperature of 99°F Pain Stridor Localized wound tenderness

Stridor Stridor is the presence of coarse, high-pitched sounds on inspiration. The nurse would auscultate frequently over the trachea. This finding must be immediately reported because it indicates airway obstruction.

A client has been diagnosed with Zenker's diverticulum. What treatment does the nurse include in the client education? A low-residue diet Chemotherapeutic agents Radiation therapy Surgical removal of the diverticulum

Surgical removal of the diverticulum Because Zenker's diverticulum is progressive, the only means of cure is surgical removal of the diverticulum. A low-residue diet will not stop the progression of the disease. Chemotherapy and radiation therapy will not target the specific site of the Zenker's diverticulum.

A nurse enters the room of a client who has returned to the unit after having a radical neck dissection. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention? Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing Foley catheter bag containing 500 ml of amber urine A piggyback infusion of levofloxacin The client lying in a lateral position, with the head of bed flat

The client lying in a lateral position, with the head of bed flat A client who has had neck surgery is at risk for neck swelling. To prevent respiratory complications, the head of the bed should be at least at a 30-degree angle. This position gives the lungs room to expand and decreases swelling by promoting venous and lymphatic drainage. This position also minimizes the risk of aspiration. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing, a Foley bag containing amber urine, and levofloxacin infusing aren't causes for concern.

Which of the following assessment findings would be most important for indicating dumping syndrome in a postgastrectomy client? Abdominal distention, elevated temperature, weakness before eating Constipation, rectal bleeding following bowel movements Persistent loose stools, chills, hiccups after eating Weakness, diaphoresis, diarrhea 90 minutes after eating

Weakness, diaphoresis, diarrhea 90 minutes after eating Dumping syndrome produces weakness, dizziness, sweating, palpitations, abdominal cramping, and diarrhea from the rapid emptying of the chyme after eating. Elevated temperature and chills can be a significant finding for infection and should be reported. Constipation with rectal bleeding is not indicative of dumping syndrome.

Which of the following is the most common type of diverticulum? Zenker's diverticulum Mid-esophageal Epiphrenic Intramural

Zenker's diverticulum The most common type of diverticulum, which is found three times more frequently in men than women, is Zenker's diverticulum (also known as pharyngoesophageal pulsion diverticulum or a pharyngeal pouch).

A patient has been NPO for two days anticipating surgery which has been repeatedly delayed. In addition to risks of nutritional and fluid deficits, the nurse determines that this patient is at the greatest risk for: altered oral mucous membranes. physical injury. ineffective social interaction. confusion.

altered oral mucous membranes Not drinking anything by mouth can result in drying of the oral mucous membranes, compromising their integrity. Being NPO is unrelated to physical injury or ineffective social interaction. Confusion is unlikely to result from the client's NPO status.

The nurse provides health teaching to inform the client with oral cancer that most oral cancers are painful at the outset. blood testing is used to diagnose oral cancer. a typical lesion is soft and craterlike. many oral cancers produce no symptoms in the early stages.

many oral cancers produce no symptoms in the early stages. The nurse provides health teaching to inform the client with oral cancer that most oral cancers are painful at the outset. blood testing is used to diagnose oral cancer. a typical lesion is soft and craterlike. many oral cancers produce no symptoms in the early stages.

A client has received a diagnosis of oral cancer. During client education, the client expresses dismay at not having recognized any early signs or symptoms of the disease. The nurse tells the client that in early stages of this disease: there are usually no symptoms. symptoms include mouth pain. symptoms include oral bleeding. symptoms include oral numbness.

there are usually no symptoms. The early stage of oral cancer is characteristically asymptomatic.