Nursing Pathology Unit One
The nurse is caring for a patient with Marfan syndrome. Which body system should the nurse assess first? A. Gastrointestinal B. Respiratory C. Connective tissue D. Integumentary
C. Connective tissue
What does the nurse recognize as the reason why psychological stress may decrease the efficacy of immununizations? A. Increased antibody response B. Increased humoral response C. Decreased humoral response D. Decreased cell-mediated response
C. Decreased humoral response
How does psychological stress lead to decreased wound healing? A. Cortisol suppresses wound growth factors and decreases pro-inflammatory cytokines. B. Cortisol promotes wound growth factors and increases pro-inflammatory cytokines. C. Epinephrine increases wound epithelization and increases vasoconstriction. D. Epinephrine decreases wound epithelization and increases vasodilation.
A. Cortisol suppresses wound growth factors and decreases pro-inflammatory cytokines.
The nurse is caring for patients with disruption of psychological or physiological function. Which term describes these conditions? A. Disorder B. Sign C. Symptom D. Risk Factor
A. Disorder
The nurse is researching information regarding the frequency of a certain disease in a particular population. Which branch of medicine is the nurse exploring? A. Epidemiology B. Pathophysiology C. Genealogy D. Histology
A. Epidemiology
The nurse recognizes that techniques available to identify all genetic variations or modifications can influence a particular cell. Which term should the nurse use to describe this area of study? A. Epigenomics B. Genomics C. Genetics D. Genealogy
A. Epigenomics
Which hormone is most likely to contribute to the development of peptic ulcer disease as a result of the stress response? A. Epinephrine B. Cortisol C. Growth hormone D. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
A. Epinephrine
A mother is struggling to understand her newborn's chromosomal disorder. She asks the nurse, "How many pairs of chromosomes should be in the human cell?" Which response by the nurse is correct? A. "There are 46 pairs." B. "There are 15 pairs." C. "There are 23 pairs." D. "There are 30 pairs."
"There are 23 pairs."
The nurse is examining public surveillance data. Which data is the nurse examining? A. Prevalence B. Mortality C. Incidence D. Morbidity
B. Mortality
A patient reports increased stress at work, being unable to function during the day, and extreme exhaustion. The nurse suspects the patient has an increased allostatic load. The patient asks, "What does that mean?" Which statement by the nurse best describes allostatic load? A. "Allostatic load means you are experiencing physiological consequences of chronic stress." B. "Allostatic load means you are experiencing perceived consequences of chronic stress." C. "Allostatic load means you are experiencing acute exacerbation of acute stress." D. "Allostatic load means you are experiencing an adaptation mechanism of acute stress."
A. "Allostatic load means you are experiencing physiological consequences of chronic stress."
Which statement by the nurse accurately describes chronic illnesses as defined by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)? A. "Chronic diseases are prolonged noncommunicable diseases that are seldom cured or spontaneously resolved." B. "With appropriate and timely intervention, chronic diseases are usually curable." C. "Chronic diseases that are caused by modifiable risk factors are usually spontaneously reversed with removal of the risk factor." D. "Generally speaking, chronic diseases that are communicable are short-lived and not curable."
A. "Chronic diseases are prolonged noncommunicable diseases that are seldom cured or spontaneously resolved."
An obese young adult presents to the healthcare provider's office with complaints of periodic abdominal pain, particularly after eating. The patient is diagnosed with a stomach ulcer. During the visit, the patient mentions being under "a lot of stress" over an extended period of time. The patient then asks the nurse, "Why would I get an ulcer?" Which is the nurse's correct response to the patient's question? A. "Chronic stress can increase stomach acid production, leading to ulcer formation." B. "Chronic stress can decrease acidity in the stomach, leading to ulcer formation." C. "Chronic stress decreases the lining of the stomach, leading to ulcer formation." D. "Chronic stress increases the pH of the stomach, leading to ulcer formation."
A. "Chronic stress can increase stomach acid production, leading to ulcer formation."
The nurse is explaining coping as it relates to the stress of a patient. Which statement by the nurse is accurate? A. "Coping is the process in which a person applies psychological and behavioral methods to handle stress demands." B. "Coping consists of physiological and psychological processes used in response to stress." C. "Coping is a process that uses emotional and cultural methods to handle stress demands." D. "Coping consists of physiological and cultural processes used in response to stress."
A. "Coping is the process in which a person applies psychological and behavioral methods to handle stress demands."
The nurse is explaining the term genomics to a patient. Which statement is accurate? A. "Genomics is the study of the function of groups of genes in terms of mediating physiological functions." B. "Genomics refers to the complete disappearance of detectable manifestations of a disease." C. "Genomics refers to the genetic risk factors that put a person at a greater risk of developing a disease." D. "Genomics includes examining how genetic variations are passed through inheritance."
A. "Genomics is the study of the function of groups of genes in terms of mediating physiological functions."
The public health nurse is presenting Healthy People 2020 objectives and states that they are designed to improve health and prevent disease. Which statement is accurate in describing one of the objectives in genomics? A. "Increase the proportion of women with a family history of breast and/or ovarian cancer who receive genetic counseling." B. "Decrease the proportion of individuals with newly diagnosed colorectal cancer who receive genetic testing to identify familial colorectal cancer syndromes." C. "Increase survival rates for the early diagnosis and treatment of asymptomatic individuals with hypertension." D. "Decrease screening for individuals who require medications to decrease the risk of certain types of cancers."
A. "Increase the proportion of women with a family history of breast and/or ovarian cancer who receive genetic counseling."
The nurse is considering the purpose of mitosis. Which statement is accurate? A. "Mitosis is a process that supports new cell development" B. "Mitosis is the process that ensures unique traits in each generation." C. "Mitosis plays a role in destroying the aging cells." D. "Mitosis ensure the egg and sperm are created for reproduction."
A. "Mitosis is a process that supports new cell development"
When an individual reexperiences a trauma, the nurse recognizes that the release of which hormone leads to impairment of coding and retrieval of memory? A. Epinephrine B. Norepinephrine C. Cortisol D. Vasopressin
B. Norepinephrine
The nurse asks a colleague why it is important that DNA convert to RNA. Which response is accurate? ANSWER A. "RNA is used to synthesize proteins to create body tissues and organs." B. "Conversion to RNA helps to prevent the formation of mutations in cells." C. "This is only important during meiosis with the egg and sperm cells." D. "DNA will only convert to RNA when DNA replication is occurring."
A. "RNA is used to synthesize proteins to create body tissues and organs."
A patient diagnosed with an acute stress disorder (ASD) reports patchy areas on the skin that are very itchy. The patient asks the nurse why these areas have gotten worse in recent weeks. Which response by the the nurse is correct? A. "Skin conditions that you had before can be worsened with stress." B. "Skin is always the first organ to be affected by stress." C. "Increased blood flow to the skin during stress can make skin conditions worse." D. "Increased collagen production during stress can make skin conditions worse."
A. "Skin conditions that you had before can be worsened with stress."
A female patient reports irregular menstrual cycles. During the examination, the patient reveals she is going through a divorce and "feels really stressed out." The patient asks the nurse why her menstrual cycle is irregular. Which is the correct response by the nurse? A. "Stress can cause hormonal changes, which may lead to menstrual irregularities." B. "Stress can alter coagulation, which may lead to menstrual irregularities." C. "Stress can cause you to alter your eating habits, which may lead to menstrual irregularities." D. "Stress can cause decreased blood flow to certain organs, which may lead to menstrual irregularities."
A. "Stress can cause hormonal changes, which may lead to menstrual irregularities."
The nurse is caring for a patient who is preparing for chemotherapy for cancer. The nurse informs the patient that biomarker screening will first be performed. Which explanation describes the purpose of this test? A. "The results of this test will help to predict what the best dose for you will be." B. "The results of this test will help determine the interaction of chemotherapy with your other medications." C. "This test will predict the potential for genetic mutations that may result from your chemotherapy." D. "The results of this test will ensure that dose adjustments of your chemotherapy will not occur."
A. "The results of this test will help to predict what the best dose for you will be."
What does the nurse determine is the primary reason why chronic stress promotes the reactivation of chronic viruses? A. Chronic stress increases immunosuppression. B. Chronic stress increases the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) response. C. Chronic stress increases the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) system activation. D. Chronic stress increases exposure to infection.
A. Chronic stress increases immunosuppression.
Which project is aimed at identifying the order of approximately 3 billion DNA base pairs in all 23 pairs of chromosomes? A. Human Genome Project B. Human Epigenomic Project C. Mammal Genome Project D. Mammal Epigenomic Project
A. Human Genome Project
In which way can the epigenetic mechanism of DNA methylation be helpful to health? A. It can silence a harmful gene, such as an oncogene. B. It can change the DNA sequence to prevent a mutation from occurring. C. It can interfere with RNA replication. D. It can interfere with changing DNA to RNA.
A. It can silence a harmful gene, such as an oncogene.
The nurse is examining public surveillance data. Which reports are useful sources to provide this data? A. Morbidity and mortality B. Signs and symptoms C. Modifiable and non-modifiable risk factors D. Exacerbation and remission
A. Morbidity and mortality
Where does messenger RNA travel from in order to transport amino acids? A. Nucleus of the cell B. Golgi apparatus C. Mitochondria D. Ribosomes
A. Nucleus of the cell
When caring for a patient experiencing stress, the nurse understands that which action of the locus coeruleus-norepinephrine (LC/NE) occurs in response to stress? A. Regulation of the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine B. Regulation of the release of cortisol and corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) C. Regulation of the release of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) D. Regulation of the release of oxytocin and vasopressin
A. Regulation of the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine
Which type of mutation occurs when an amino acid is not changed? A. Silent mutation B. Nonsense mutation C. Missense mutation D. Translocation mutation
A. Silent mutation
What is the goal of gene therapy? A. To deliver engineered DNA or RNA so target cells take up the gene and then express its protein product B. To deliver sperm and eggs with reengineered DNA strands to prevent inheritance diseases C. To create a polymerase chain reaction (PMR) to enhance a patient's response to medications D. To change genetic variants in drug metabolic pathways for a better medication response
A. To deliver engineered DNA or RNA so target cells take up the gene and then express its protein product
What is the purpose of the Human Genome Project? A. To identify the DNA sequence of every gene B. To cure all genetically inherited diseases C. To clone every gene on a single chromosome D. To determine how pharmacological agents affect each gene
A. To identify the DNA sequence of every gene
What is the significant difference between posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and acute stress disorder (ASD)? A. of symptoms B. Onset of symptoms C. Severity of symptoms D. Type of symptoms
B. Onset of symptoms
What is the discipline that integrates pharmacology with genomic capabilities? ANSWER A. Pharmacokinetics B. Pharmacogenomics C. Polypharmacy D. Cytogenetics
B. Pharmacogenomics
A patient who reports increased family stress complains of persistent nausea to the nurse. He asks, "Why is happening?" Which is the correct response by the nurse? A. "Blood flow to the digestive system is increased when you experience stress." B. "Blood flow to the digestive system is decreased when you experience stress." C. "The center in the brain that controls this is heightened when you experience stress." D. "The center in the brain that controls this is decreased when you experience stress."
B. "Blood flow to the digestive system is decreased when you experience stress."
The nurse informs a patient that there are 23 pairs of chromosomes in most cells of the body. The patient asks, "I remember something different for the egg and sperm. How many do they have?" Which response by the nurse is accurate? A. "Egg and sperm cells each contain 24 chromosomes, each of which has either an X or a Y chromosome." B. "Egg and sperm cells each contain 23 chromosomes." C. "Each egg and sperm cell contains a set of 23 pairs of sex chromosomes." D. "In each egg and sperm cell, the sex chromosome is located in a different position in the strand."
B. "Egg and sperm cells each contain 23 chromosomes."
A patient self-reports feeling angry and upset "many days of the week." The nurse discusses risk factors of cardiovascular disease related to the patient's personality. Which is the best response the nurse can give to the patient's statement? A. "Negative personalities do not contribute to the risk of cardiovascular disease." B. "Negative personalities can increase the risk of cardiovascular disease." C. "Positive personalities do not necessarily decrease one's risk of cardiovascular disease." D. "Positive personalities prevent individuals from developing cardiovascular disease."
B. "Negative personalities can increase the risk of cardiovascular disease."
Which statement by the nurse indicates understanding of genomics? A. "Genomic DNA varies greatly between cells and is dependent on the function of the cell." B. "The genomic human sequence is 99.9% identical among all humans." C. "The human genome is a defined grouping of genes that vary based on cell structure." D. "Every human cell, except for mature red blood cells, possesses some part of the human genome."
B. "The genomic human sequence is 99.9% identical among all humans."
What does the nurse recognize as true statements regarding positive emotional states and the risk for developing cardiovascular disease? A. "These states are associated with lower cholesterol levels." B. "These states are associated with lower levels of aortic calcification." C. "These states are associated with increased stimulation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) system." D. "These states are associated with increased levels of vasopressin."
B. "These states are associated with lower levels of aortic calcification."
The nurse is caring for a newborn diagnosed with Down syndrome. Which type of genetic disorder is associated with this condition? A. X-linked recessive B. Chromosome nondisjunction C. Autosomal dominant D. Mitochondrial
B. Chromosome nondisjunction
Genes can be modified, which may impact an individual's health through epigenetic mechanisms. Which process can silence a harmful gene, such as an oncogene? A. Alteration of the underlying DNA B. DNA or histone methylation C. Changing RNA to DNA D. Changing the underlying DNA sequence
B. DNA or histone methylation
Which term describes the association with a memory that begins in the hippocampus? A. Implicit memory B. Explicit memory C. Encoding D. Consolidating
B. Explicit memory
In healthcare, which term is used to describe an individual's experience with a particular disease? A. Symptom B. Illness C. Sign D. Episode
B. Illness
Which theory correctly describes the early findings on the relationship between stress and the development of multiple sclerosis (MS)? A. Inappropriate stress responses increase IL-10 cytokine production. B. Inappropriate stress responses exacerbate a dysregulation of cytokine production. C. Inappropriate stress responses decrease overall cytokine production. D. Inappropriate stress responses decrease IL-6 cytokine production.
B. Inappropriate stress responses exacerbate a dysregulation of cytokine production.
The public health nurse is examining the number of new cases of syphilis within a year in the United States. Which data is the nurse studying? A. Prevalence B. Incidence C. Frequency D. Popularity
B. Incidence
The nurse assessing a patient should identify which clinical manifestation as a sign of disease? A. Altered taste sensation B. Increased heart rate C. Irretractable nausea D. Peripheral numbness
B. Increased heart rate
A nurse is caring for a patient with multiple sclerosis (MS). The nurse discusses the prevention of exacerbations in MS. Which lifestyle modification would be correct for the nurse to suggest to a patient? A. Increasing dietary protein B. Reducing external stressors C. Increasing strenuous exercise D. Decreasing carbohydrate intake
B. Reducing external stressors
According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, which fats should be limited to less than 30 percent of energy intake? A. Polyunsaturated B. Saturated C. Monounsaturated D. Trans-saturated
B. Saturated
The nurse is teaching a patient about the consumption of whole grains. Which example would the nurse not use? A. Quinoa B. White Bread C. Popcorn D. Oatmeal
B. White Bread
The nurse is orienting a new nurse to a family planning clinic. When discussing reproduction, the nurse queries the new nurse about the process. Which statement indicates understanding? A. "Through a process called mitosis, matching chromosomes of mother and father pair up." B. "During the formation of a diploid cell, chromosomes must be copied twice." C. "Egg and sperm cells are created by a process called meiosis." D. "During spermatogenesis, two cells are created, one of which will be a nonfunctional cell."
C. "Egg and sperm cells are created by a process called meiosis."
The nurse is orienting a new graduate and explains the goal of gene therapy. Which statement by the nurse is accurate? A. "The goal of gene therapy is to reengineer DNA strands in sperm and eggs to prevent inheritance diseases." B. "The goal of gene therapy is to create a polymerase chain reaction (PMR)." C. "The goal of gene therapy is to express or silence genes that are implicated in a disease process." D. "The goal of gene therapy is to change genetic variants in drug metabolic pathways."
C. "The goal of gene therapy is to express or silence genes that are implicated in a disease process."
A patient reports lower back pain that began about two months prior, when the patient began a new, stressful job. The patient asks why the back pain seemed to start at the same time the stress of the job started. Which response by the nurse is accurate? A. "The skeletal muscles lengthen in response to stress." B. "The bones of the spine lose calcium rapidly in response to stress." C. "The skeletal muscles become tense and rigid during times of stress." D. "The bones of the spine lose phosphate rapidly in response to stress."
C. "The skeletal muscles become tense and rigid during times of stress."
What is the explanatory theory for the role of anxiety and its relationship to stress? A. A traumatic event is an internal stressor that produces anxiety with which the individual is unable to cope. B. Anxiety is the end result of the activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. C. A traumatic event is an external stressor that produces anxiety with which the individual is unable to cope. D. Anxiety is the end result of the activation of the parasympathetic nervous system.
C. A traumatic event is an external stressor that produces anxiety with which the individual is unable to cope.
Which hormone, released by the pituitary gland during the adaptive stress response, would the nurse anticipate being elevated? A. Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) B. Epinephrine C. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) D. Cortisol
C. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
A patient experiencing a stress response displays a highly emotional state. Which does the nurse recognize as the relationship between emotional states and the sympathetic nervous system (SNS)? A. The SNS triggers emotional states. B. The SNS worsens emotional states. C. Emotional states trigger the SNS. D. Emotional states worsen the SNS response.
C. Emotional states trigger the SNS.
Which biochemical process can affect gene function without changing the underlying DNA sequence? A. Meiosis B. Meitosis C. Epigenetic mechanisms D. Mutation
C. Epigenetic mechanisms
The nurse is basing the care of a patient on the combination of individual clinical experience and the best available clinical proof from systematic research. Which type of practice is the nurse using? A. Verification-based B. Confirmation-based C. Evidence-based D. Collaboration-based
C. Evidence-based
As a nurse, you will be caring for patients with syndromes. Which response defines this term? A. Something that puts a patient at greater risk of developing a disease B. Situation that is impairing functional ability C. Group of signs and symptoms that emerge from a disease state D. Disruption of psychological function
C. Group of signs and symptoms that emerge from a disease state
The nurse is teaching a patient about healthy eating patterns as defined by the Dietary Guidelines for Americans. Which diet is not included in the guidelines? A. Healthy U.S.-Style B. Healthy Mediterranean-Style C. Healthy Paleo-Style D. Healthy Vegetarian
C. Healthy Paleo-Style
The nurse recognizes that RNA is responsible for protein synthesis. Knowing that there are several types of RNA involved in this process, which RNA serves as a template for protein synthesis? A. Transfer RNA (tRNA) B. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) C. Messenger RNA (mRNA) D. tRNA and rRNA
C. Messenger RNA (mRNA)
According to the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) model, which phase would the nurse identify as involving the release of catecholamines? A. Phase 2 B. Phase 3 C. Phase 1 D. Phase 4
C. Phase 1
The process of protein synthesis with mRNA is called translation. Where does this process occur? A. Nucleus B. Golgi apparatus C. Ribosomes D. Mitochondria
C. Ribosomes
During a seminar for young adults, the nurse discusses risks for developing cardiovascular disease. Which factor would be accurate to present? A. Consuming a low-fat diet B. Decreased intake of salt C. Smoking D. Exercising for 1 hour five times a week
C. Smoking
Why may an individual experiencing a stress response report diarrhea? A. Stress decreases motility of the colon. B. Stress increases gastric emptying. C. Stress increases motility of the colon. D. Stress decreases gastric acid.
C. Stress increases motility of the colon.
What characteristic of acute stress disorder (ASD) and posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) will the nurse recognize as being common between both disorders? A. The amount of time an individual copes with a traumatic situation B. The continual adaptation an individual experiences as a result of a traumatic situation C. The continual reexperiencing of a traumatic situation D. The intensity of symptoms related to a traumatic situation
C. The continual reexperiencing of a traumatic situation
The nurse is caring for a patient with cancer who is free of all signs and symptoms. Which type of remission describes this patient's presentation? A. Partial remission B. Periodic remission C. Total remission D. Entire remission
C. Total remission
The nurse is counseling a woman who has been identified as a carrier of a mitochondrial disorder. The patient asks, "What is the risk for passing this condition on to my child?" Which percentage is accurate? A. Up to 75% B. Up to 50% C. Up to 100% D. Up to 25%
C. Up to 100%
The nurse is caring for a child with trisomy 21. Which physical feature should the nurse expect as most predominant? A. Single deep crease across the palms A. Small head, ears, and mouth C. Upward slanting eyes, often with epicanthal fold D. Wide short hands and fingers
C. Upward slanting eyes, often with epicanthal fold
What infectious disease microorganisms are most likely to be identified in the human body by their genetic sequence? A. Bacteria B. Zoonoses C. Viruses D. Fungi
C. Viruses
Which food is not considered a highly pigmented fruit or vegetable? A. Spinach B. Beet C. White onion D. Blueberry
C. White onion
What is the time frame that adjustments in daily function typically occur in an adjustment disorder after exposure to an event? A. Within 4 months B. Within 6 months C. Within 3 months D. Within 8 months
C. Within 3 months
Nurses care for patients in a wide range of ages; however, specific lifespan groups may need special consideration. Which group is not considered a specific lifespan group that requires special consideration? A. Pediatric Patients B. Pregnant Patients C. Young Adults D. Geriatrics Patients
C. Young Adults
The nurse is discussing with a colleague how chromosomes are structured. Which statement indicates the nurse's understanding of an allele? A. "It is a compacted double helix combined with proteins called histones." B. "It is a collection of the chemical compounds that instruct the genome within the cell." C. "It is a segment of DNA that codes for the production of certain proteins." D. "It is an alternative form of an individual gene."
D. "It is an alternative form of an individual gene."
The nurse is teaching a sex education class for teenagers. When discussing reproduction, which statement is accurate? A. "Mitosis is the first action for the creation of an egg and a sperm cell." B. "During the formation of a diploid cell, chromosomes must be copied twice." C. "During spermatogenesis, two cells are created, one of which will be a nonfunctional cell." D. "Meiosis must occur in order for egg and sperm cells to be created for reproduction."
D. "Meiosis must occur in order for egg and sperm cells to be created for reproduction."
The nurse is caring for a patient with a chronic disease. Which disease or injury does the patient have? A. Flu B. Fractured bone C. Strep throat D. Alzheimer disease
D. Alzheimer disease
The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving treatment with an antisense oligonucleotide. For which disease is the patient being treated? A. Heart disease B. Diverticulitis C. Diabetes D. Cancer
D. Cancer
The nurse is caring for four children with inherited disorders. Which child's diagnosis is consistent with an autosomal recessive inherited disease? A. Marfan syndrome B. Fragile X syndrome C. Neurofibromatosis D. Cystic fibrosis
D. Cystic fibrosis
What is the end result of an individual reexperiencing an initial trauma and the activation of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS)? A. Consolidation and permanence of memory are impaired. B. Coping strategies are impaired. C. Adaptation strategies are impaired. D. Encoding and retrieval of memory are impaired.
D. Encoding and retrieval of memory are impaired.
The nurse is caring for a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which modifiable risk factor should the nurse discuss with this patient? A. Family history B. Genetics C. Race D. Exercise
D. Exercise
A patient with a history of asthma reports increased stress. Which respiratory clinical manifestation should the nurse recognize as most likely occurring in this patient? A. Bronchodilation of upper airways B. Decreased heart rate C. Bronchodilation of lower airways D. Increased respiratory rate
D. Increased respiratory rate
The nurse is preparing a patient education brochure regarding diseases that develop at an earlier age in men than in women. Which disease would not be included? A. Coronary heart disease B. Hypertension C. Diabetes D. Lupus
D. Lupus
As a nurse, it is important to understand the functional alterations at various levels of the body that are involved in disease states. What is this called? A. Genetics B. Molecular biology C. Microbiology D. Pathophysiology
D. Pathophysiology
Outside of the central nervous system (CNS), which major glands does the nurse recognize as being involved in the adaptive stress response? A. Thyroid and parathyroids B. Hypothalamus and adrenals C. Pituitary and pineal body D. Pituitary and adrenals
D. Pituitary and adrenals
The nurse is conducting a nutrition class for a group of patients. Which shortfall nutrients should the nurse encourage the patients to increase in their diet? A. Sodium, vitamin C, and magnesium B. Vitamin K, iron, and creatinine C. Glucose, vitamin E, and zinc D. Potassium, calcium, and vitamin D
D. Potassium, calcium, and vitamin D
The nurse is caring for a female carrier of fragile X syndrome. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect? A. Blindness and deafness B. Characteristic facial features and learning problems C. Intellectual disability and characteristic facial features D. Premature ovarian failure and learning problems
D. Premature ovarian failure and learning problems
Karyotyping is a visual test to examine chromosome structures and number. Which abnormality can this genetic test identify? A. Single-gene mutations B. HIV C. Tumor suppressor genes D. Trisomy 18
D. Trisomy 18