Nutrition Final

Pataasin ang iyong marka sa homework at exams ngayon gamit ang Quizwiz!

Which vitamin is water soluble? a. A b. B c. D d. E e. K

B

Post Test 1: Values-based food choices include _____. a. skipping meals due to depression or anxiety b. choosing low-cost fast food over more expensive food c. eating more frequently to relieve boredom d. boycotting certain foods due to political views e. avoiding specific foods due to allergies

D

A Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points (HACCP) program would address which element of food service? a. cleaning and disinfecting of utensils b. developing healthy menus c. controlling patient kcalorie intake d. prescribing diets for patients with swallowing problems e. estimating appropriate energy needs of patients

a

A characteristic of unsaturated fats is that they can _____. a. become rancid more easily than saturated fats b. contribute greatly to elevated cholesterol levels c. usually remain solid at room temperature d. be obtained only from animal products e. not be hydrogenated

a

A glomerular filtration rate <15 mL/min per 1.73 m2 indicates which stage of chronic kidney disease?​ a. ​Stage 5: Kidney failure b. ​Stage 4: Severely decreased c. ​Stage 2: Mildly decreased d. ​Stage 3a: Mild to moderately decreased e. ​Stage 3b: Moderate to severely decreased

a

A hospitalized patient is on a progressive diet following surgery. One day, the patient experiences nausea and vomiting after consuming lunch. The nurse recognizes that it is his responsibility to: a. track the patient's tolerance and readiness to advance the diet. b. contact the kitchen immediately to report a case of foodborne illness. c. withhold all foods from the patient until the patient's physician has been contacted. d. ask the patient if he wants medication that would prevent vomiting. e. contact the dietitian and request that the diet order be changed.

a

A nurse is caring for a patient who takes warfarin daily. In terms of this patient's nutrition, the nurse recognizes that this patient will most likely need: a. to consume green leafy vegetables in consistent amounts. b. daily injections of vitamin K. c. to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. d. education regarding increasing iron intake. e. a high-kcalorie diet.

a

A patient at risk of mild malnutrition would demonstrate a weight that is what percent of usual body weight (%UBW)? a. 85-95% b. 75-84% c. 70-79% d. 68-72% e. less than 68%

a

A patient has begun taking furosemide to manage heart failure. What food should the nurse recommend that the patient consume frequently while taking this drug?​ a. ​bananas b. ​milk c. ​legumes d. ​cabbage e. ​peanut butter

a

A patient is discouraged by the dietary restrictions for her low-sodium diet. The most appropriate response from the nurse is to: a. emphasize foods the patient can eat. b. explain why the diet is necessary. c. allow the family to bring food to the patient. d. tell the patient the she will contact the dietitian. e. agree that the diet is unpalatable.

a

A patient who is suffering from increased intestinal gas should be advised to avoid which food? a. raisins b. lettuce c. ham d. bananas e. Greek yogurt

a

A patient's diet order is most often prescribed by the: a. physician. b. registered nurse. c. registered dietetic technician. d. registered dietitian. e. occupational therapist.

a

All blood that flows through the gastrointestinal tract travels to the _____ before returning to the heart. a. liver b. spleen c. pancreas d. appendix e. gallbladder

a

Along with environmental factors, genetic variation also determines susceptibilities to disease.​ a. True b. False

a

An NPO order would most likely be ordered for which situation?​ a. ​An upper GI tract study b. ​A chest x-ray c. ​Placement of a central venous catheter d. ​A head CT e. ​An echocardiogram

a

Antisecretory drugs such as proton pump inhibitors are associated with which gastrointestinal side effects? a. nausea and vomiting b. gastroparesis c. dumping syndrome d. flatulence e. abdominal bloating

a

Callie has a BMI of 29 and a waist circumference of 38 inches. Based on these factors, she is most likely to experience _____. a. heart disease b. lung cancer c. infertility d. bone fractures e. anorexia nervosa

a

Early clinical effects of chronic kidney disease include _____. a. headache and fatigue b. anemia and bleeding tendencies c. electrolyte imbalances d. itching and edema e. nausea and vomiting

a

Foods high in purines, such as _____, should be avoided by patients with gout. a. roast beef b. bananas c. white rice d. cucumbers e. avocados

a

Health practitioners may be able to motivate patients to improve intake of oral supplements by _____. a. serving supplements in smaller amounts at a time and serving them more frequently during the day b. offering a supplement in a clean glass on a plate when the smell bothers the patient c. warming the supplement before giving it to the patient d. wrapping the supplement in plastic wrap and serving it with a straw to make it more attractive in appearance e. changing the flavor of the supplements available on a weekly basis

a

Hepcidin is secreted by the liver in response to elevated blood _____. a. iron b. magnesium c. manganese d. selenium e. zinc

a

Intestinal wounds associated with Crohn's disease that develop in different areas in the intestine, with normal tissue separating affected regions, are known as _____. a. skip lesions b. fistulas c. fissures d. loop ulcerations e. intestinal adaptations

a

Jared Joiner is a 56-year-old African American insurance agent. He is single, eats most meals at restaurants, and leads a sedentary lifestyle. He is 5'9" tall and weighs 204 pounds. Mr. Joiner has been feeling particularly fatigued lately and decided to make an appointment with his physician for a check-up. The results of his laboratory tests include a fasting blood glucose level of 121 mg/dL. ​ Four months after his initial exam, Mr. Joiner returns to his physician for a follow-up appointment. He has lost 10 pounds, but his fasting blood glucose level is now 131 mg/dL. Mr. Joiner's prediabetes has progressed to: a. type 2 diabetes. b. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome. c. gestational diabetes. d. impaired glucose tolerance. e. type 1 diabetes.

a

John Wilson is a 74-year-old retired schoolteacher. He is 5'8" tall and weighs 136 pounds. His wife died nine months ago. During a routine visit to the doctor, it was noted that his weight had decreased 21 pounds since his visit a year ago. Mr. Wilson does not have any medical problems, though he does report feeling depressed and lonely. The physician ordered a panel of lab tests including hemoglobin, hematocrit, and albumin, which all were low. ​ Mr. Wilson's low hemoglobin and hematocrit may be indicative of a deficiency of dietary: a. iron. b. calcium. c. sodium. d. magnesium. e. potassium.

a

John Wilson is a 74-year-old retired schoolteacher. He is 5'8" tall and weighs 136 pounds. His wife died nine months ago. During a routine visit to the doctor, it was noted that his weight had decreased 21 pounds since his visit a year ago. Mr. Wilson does not have any medical problems, though he does report feeling depressed and lonely. The physician ordered a panel of lab tests including hemoglobin, hematocrit, and albumin, which all were low. ​ The most likely cause of Mr. Wilson's weight loss is: a. depression due to loss of his spouse. b. inadequate income to purchase food. c. a low hemoglobin level. d. a high level of physical activity. e. lack of knowledge about nutrition.

a

Jose Salazar has been hospitalized following a motor vehicle accident. He has several broken bones, including his left jaw, two ribs on the left side, and a compound fracture of his left leg. According to his medical record, he is 47 years old, his height is 5'9", and his weight is 171 pounds. His current medications include lovastatin to lower his cholesterol and an MAO inhibitor to treat depression. ​ Mr. Salazar will need a higher _____ intake to meet his nutritional needs for recovery.​ a. ​kcalorie b. ​iron c. ​potassium d. ​fiber e. ​vegetable

a

Kidney disease is classified according to: a. glomerular filtration rate. b. the degree of proteinuria. c. the amount of urine output in a 24-hour period. d. BUN levels. e. the ratio of albumin to creatinine in a urine sample.

a

Lipid infusions must be restricted in patients with: a. hypertriglyceridemia. b. hypercalcemia. c. hyperglycemia. d. hyperkalemia. e. hypernatremia.

a

M.L. is a 34-year-old male computer programmer with a BMI of 26 who is seeking dietary counseling. His dose of Prilosec was recently increased, and although he now suffers less often from heartburn symptoms, he is also leery of medical side effects and would like any and all suggestions to manage his GERD "naturally." Having had GERD for the past eight years and been on some form of antacid or antisecretory medication continuously during that time, M.L. knows what foods or factors cause symptoms, and is able to generally avoid them; hence, he has not had reflux esophagitis in over a year. A 24-hour diet history reveals M.L. ate these foods yesterday: Breakfast: Skipped Snack: Fresh pear; instant oatmeal made with water, eaten with brown sugar and two non-dairy creamers; skim milk Lunch: Lean turkey lunch meat on whole-grain bread with lettuce, tomato, and mustard; 100% grape juice diluted with water; snack pack of carrots, no dressing Snack: Sugar cookies; skim milk Dinner: Tempura (deep-fried, breaded) salmon; buttered rice; salad with lettuce and tomato; vinegar and oil dressing; water Snack, at bedtime: Ginger ale and ginger snap cookies ​ The medication M.L. takes is a proton-pump inhibitor medication that works by: a. decreasing gastric acid production. b. coating the esophagus. c. preventing tissue inflammation. d. inhibiting the lower esophageal sphincter. e. neutralizing gastric acid.

a

Mallory is a 43-year-old female with celiac disease who has just undergone a nutritional assessment where it was determined that she is suffering from moderate malnutrition. What data would most likely classify a patient as being moderately malnourished? a. five to ten percent weight loss b. muscle wasting c. multiple gastrointestinal symptoms that affect food intake d. recent weight gain e. functional impairment causing immobility

a

Mr. Avery is a 77-year-old retired engineer. He is 5'10" tall and weighs 171 pounds. He suffered a stroke, which left him with left-sided paralysis, and he is having difficulty swallowing so he is unable to meet his nutritional needs via oral intake at this time. After two weeks, Mr. Avery is moved to a rehab facility. It would be appropriate at this time to change his feeding method to: a. an intermittent feeding. b. an oral supplement. c. a clear liquid diet. d. total parenteral nutrition. e. peripheral parenteral nutrition.

a

Mr. Bradley is a 70-year-old man with a long medical history including uncontrolled diabetes mellitus since age 45 who presents to the West Smithtown Dialysis Center with new-onset end-stage kidney disease. Mr. Bradley lives in an assisted living facility where he receives full-time nursing care. As a dialysis nurse, your role is to review the nutrition guidelines with Mr. Bradley, who has diabetic retinopathy and loss of vision. He is a non-ambulatory war veteran, former smoker, and former alcohol abuser whose BMI is normal, though he has lost 3% of his body weight since being diagnosed with kidney failure one month ago. A food frequency questionnaire shows that Mr. Bradley generally meets his recommended intakes of all food groups, but his fiber intake is low, and his dairy foods consumption exceeds the recommendation by double due to his love of milk, ice cream, cheese, and other dairy products. ​ Since this is Mr. Bradley's first visit to the center, his primary care nurse spends hours speaking to him while his dialysis progresses. The nurse explains that within the next week he will be seen by _____, who will counsel him about his nutrition therapy.​ a. ​a dietitian who specializes in chronic kidney disease b. ​another client who has been following the diet for years c. ​a pharmacist who will address the nutrients administered via the dialysate d. ​a physician who oversees all aspects of clients' medical care e. ​a phlebotomy nurse who draws blood for and interprets laboratory values

a

Post Test 14: Which of the following describes a component of a diet order? a. recommendations regarding feeding methods b. nutritional counseling to motivate the patient c. goals derived from nursing diagnoses d. suggestions for making changes in food intake e. a discussion of a patient's readiness to change his diet

a

Post Test 3: hich pair of monosaccharides makes up the disaccharide lactose? a. glucose and galactose b. glucose and glucose c. glucose and fructose d. fructose and galactose e. fructose and fructose

a

Post Test 5: The part of an amino acid's structure that varies from one amino acid to the next is its_____. a. side group b. "backbone" c. acid group d. electrical charge e. amino group

a

Post Test 9: Which structure is responsible for triggering drinking in response to a dry mouth? a. hypothalamus b. liver c. thyroid gland d. pituitary gland e. thalamus

a

Post test 2: When eating, a person is protected from food entering the airway primarily by _____. a. the closing of the epiglottis b. the relaxing of the muscles in the pharynx c. extending the neck when swallowing d. forming food into a bolus using the cheek muscles e. salivary amylase breaking down the food

a

Rapid changes in infusion rates of a parenteral solution can cause: a. fluctuations in blood glucose levels. b. diarrhea. c. obstructions. d. a clogged IV tube. e. infection.

a

The act of performing assistive services rather than harmful ones is known as _____. a. beneficence b. disclosure c. maleficence d. justice e. autonomy

a

The body's ability to store fat is _____ due to the fat-storing capability of the adipose tissue. a. unlimited b. limited to 3500 kcal c. set at 35,000 kcal d. equivalent to 10,000 kcal e. equivalent to 2 hours of activity

a

The four steps of the nutrition care process include nutrition assessment, nutrition diagnosis, nutrition intervention, and nutrition monitoring and evaluation.​ a. True b. False

a

The primary symptom seen in patients with vitamin E deficiency is _____. a. erythrocyte hemolysis b. beriberi c. pellagra d. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome e. rickets

a

Type 1 diabetes accounts for ____ percent of diabetes cases.​ a. ​5 to 10 b. ​25 to 30 c. ​1 to 5 d. ​18 to 20 e. ​12 to 15

a

Weight gain due to fluid retention in a patient with liver cirrhosis can mask symptoms of: a. PEM. b. gallbladder disease. c. obesity. d. liver failure. e. heart failure.

a

What condition is an example of a potential cause of gastritis? a. bile reflux b. low salt intake c. hypophosphatasia d. gallstones e. hypermagnesemia

a

What condition would be classified as a single-gene disorder? a. phenylketonuria b. heart disease c. inflammatory bowel disease d. obesity e. diabetes

a

What factor is most likely a cause of xerostomia? a. radiation therapy to the head and neck b. poorly controlled cardiovascular disease c. excessive nose breathing d. high cholesterol levels e. poor taste sensation

a

What is a chief function of selenium? a. assists a group of enzymes that break down reactive chemicals that harm cells b. makes genetic material and proteins as part of the hormone insulin and other enzymes c. is essential to the absorption and use of iron in the formation of hemoglobin d. facilitates the formation of bones and teeth e. regulates growth, development, and metabolic rate as a hormone

a

What key quality makes a fatty acid unsaturated? a. It has at least one pair of carbon atoms joined by a double bond. b. Its carbon atoms are each bonded to two hydrogen atoms. c. It is less than 12 carbons in length. d. It has only one pair of carbon atoms joined by a single bond. e. It is attached to a glycerol backbone.

a

When a person eats protein, ______________ break(s) down peptides into amino acids. a. enzymes b. pancreatic and intestinal secretions c. lipoproteins d. saliva e. transporters

a

When there is a lack of protein in the interstitial spaces, fluid in the interstitial space remains there, resulting in _____. a. edema b. osmosis c. acidosis d. alkalosis e. kidney failure

a

Which best describes an appropriate recommendation for sugar consumption for adults with diabetes? a. Minimize food and beverages that contain added sugars. b. Avoid using artificial sweeteners instead of sugar. c. Increase intake of fructose while decreasing intake of sorbitol. d. Include table sugar but avoid sugar found in fruit. e. Avoid all forms of sugar completely.

a

Which chronic disease has been associated with increased risks of dental problems? a. diabetes mellitus b. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease c. Addison's disease d. asthma e. hypothyroidism

a

Which condition is an example of an intrarenal cause of acute kidney injury? a. kidney stones b. shock c. anti-hypertensive medications d. heart failure e. blood clots

a

Which condition is most closely associated with a high rate of gastroesophageal reflux disease? a. pregnancy b. anorexia c. hypertension d. diabetes mellitus e. Sjögren's syndrome

a

Which enzyme hydrolyzes triglycerides in the blood into fatty acids and glycerol for absorption into the cells? a. lipoprotein lipase b. lipoprotein hydrolase c. lipoprotein ligase d. ghrelin e. leptin

a

Which factor has been shown to increase the risk of development of atherosclerosis? a. menopause b. age greater than 35 c. increased levels of arachidonic acid d. elevated HDL cholesterol e. increased activity levels

a

Which factor is LEAST likely to influence the glycemic index value of a food? a. individual cholesterol levels b. fiber content c. protein content d. cooking the food e. individual glucose tolerance

a

Which food would the nurse include in a diet plan for a patient with celiac disease? a. scrambled eggs b. pancakes c. scalloped potatoes d. rye bread e. whole-wheat toast

a

Which is a cellular response to overeating? a. Fat cells enlarge. b. Skeletal cells atrophy. c. Muscle cells increase in size. d. Less energy is required to move the body. e. More ketone bodies are produced.

a

Which mechanism does Xenical, an FDA-approved drug for weight loss, utilize to decrease weight in patients? a. It inhibits pancreatic lipase activity in the GI tract to block digestion of fats. b. It enhances the release of the neurotransmitter norepinephrine, which suppresses appetite. c. It interacts with brain serotonin receptors to increase satiety. d. It increases norepinephrine receptor binding to increase the feeling of fullness. e. It decreases the release of serotonin to increase satiety.

a

Which nutrition-related side effect would most likely occur after head and neck surgery to treat cancer? a. aspiration b. acid reflux c. dumping syndrome d. diarrhea e. early satiety

a

Which of the following is an educational tool used to illustrate the five food groups? a. MyPlate b. food labels c. Dietary Guidelines d. USDA Food Guide e. DASH Eating Plan

a

Which organ stores the greatest amount of the body's total glycogen? a. muscles b. brain c. liver d. kidneys e. bones

a

Which person would be the most appropriate candidate when considering home nutrition support? a. a patient with a severe swallowing disorder b. a patient who has hearing loss c. a person with delayed cognitive functioning d. a patient who requires a mechanical ventilator e. a person with a severe head injury

a

Which phytochemical, found in chives, garlic, leeks and onions, acts as an antimicrobial to reduce ulcers? a. allicin b. capsaicin c. genistein d. lignans e. saponins

a

Which role does vitamin A perform for the body? a. It acts as a hormone, regulating embryonic development. b. It functions as a transcription factor, directly regulating gene transcription. c. It protects against cognitive decline. d. It protects the lungs against air pollutants. e. It activates genes involved in blood clotting.

a

Which structure facilitates maximum absorption of nutrients? a. microvilli b. lipoproteins c. chylomicrons d. lymphatic system e. hepatic portal vein

a

Which substances are fatty acid derivatives that can serve as fuel for some brain cells during fasting? a. ketone bodies b. proteins c. thyroid hormones d. adipokines e. insulin receptors

a

Which symptoms would most likely be associated with a transient ischemic attack? a. confusion and difficulty speaking b. headache and blurred vision c. chest pain and pressure d. claudication and peripheral edema e. dizziness and hearing loss

a

Which term refers to the dietary characteristic of providing foods in proportion to one another and in proportion to the body's needs? a. balance b. eating pattern c. adequacy d. nutrient density e. overnutrition

a

Which value is most likely associated with metabolic syndrome? a. waist circumference over 35 inches in women b. fasting plasma glucose over 60 mg/dL c. HDL levels less than 90 mg/dL d. blood pressure under 120/80 mmHg e. VLDL levels over 80 mg/dL

a

Your client, Larry, is attempting to limit added sugar. Which breakfast food should he eat less of? a. frozen pancakes b. whole-wheat toast c. oatmeal with raisins d. low fat milk e. egg-white omelets

a

A client is admitted to the emergency room and is found to have proteinuria, a low serum albumin, edema, and elevated blood lipids. The nurse recognizes these symptoms as those associated with: a. rejection of a kidney transplant. b. nephrotic syndrome. c. kidney stones. d. renal colic. e. acute kidney injury.

b

A client is making selections from the menu and asks you which item contains the most cholesterol per portion. Which food would you point out as the most likely culprit? a. vitamin D-fortified low-fat milk b. spinach and cheese quiche (egg pie) c. green beans with vegetable oil d. spaghetti with tomato sauce e. plain baked potato

b

A condition in which a portion of the stomach protrudes above the diaphragm is known as: a. Barrett's esophagus. b. hiatal hernia. c. gastroesophageal reflux. d. gastritis. e. gastric ulcer.

b

A condition that is conducive to the development of dental caries is said to be _____. a. periodontal b. cariogenic c. gingival d. bacteriophilic e. calculogenic

b

A measurement of head circumference in a child helps to _____. a. assess for specific nutrient deficiencies b. track brain growth c. track movement of the skull bones d. compare the measurement with the child's height e. supplement the weight measurement in a child who cannot stand

b

A normal hemoglobin result for an adult male would be _____ g/dL. a. 11.0-13.0 b. 13.5-17.5 c. 18.5-23.0 d. 35.0-39.5 e. 41.0-44.0

b

A nurse is caring for a patient who was brought to the hospital after suffering a stroke. Ideally, thrombolytic drugs should be used within _____ hours following an ischemic stroke to restore blood flow and prevent further brain damage.​ a.​1 b.4.5 c.8 d.​12 e. 2.5

b

A patient with a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 62 would be classified as which stage of chronic kidney disease? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3a d. 3b e. 4

b

A patient's lab results reveal hypoalbuminemia. The nurse realizes that this is likely to cause _____ in the patient.​ a. ​infection b. ​edema c. ​hypertension d. ​altered blood lipids e. ​rickets

b

A person trying to lower her heart disease risk should be encouraged to eat which foods? a. more ground turkey and less fatty fish b. more steamed vegetables and less cheddar cheese c. more pasta with cream sauce and less fruit salad d. more whole-milk yogurt and less whole-grain bread e. more red meat and less tuna

b

AIDS enteropathy is most commonly manifested as _____. a. abdominal pain and rectal bleeding b. diarrhea and weight loss c. abdominal bloating and flatulence d. rectal fissures and constipation e. ascites and splenomegaly

b

An estimated _____ percent of persons in the United States who have HIV infection are unaware that they are infected. a. 4 b. 21 c. 34 d. 49 e. 67

b

Approximately 70 to 80 percent of acute pancreatitis cases are caused by gallstones or _____. a. infection b. alcohol abuse c. diabetes d. obesity e. hernia

b

Asbestos exposure is associated with which type of cancer? a. liver cancer b. peritoneal cancer c. skin cancer d. esophageal cancer e. bladder cancer

b

Based on the AMDR, an 1800-kcalorie diet should provide approximately how many grams of carbohydrates? a. 45-158 b. 203-293 c. 364-639 d. 1265-1448 e. 2000

b

Cardiac cachexia would most likely be demonstrated as _____. a. decreased physical activity b. weight loss and tissue wasting c. poor urine output and tissue edema d. cardiac arrhythmia and wet lung sounds e. increased blood pressure and tachycardia

b

Dennis Wilson is a 57-year-old chemical engineer who has had type 1 diabetes since he was 12 years old. He spent 34 years working in oil refineries, and he is a smoker. He is 5'11" tall and weighs 160 pounds. Over the past several years, he has experienced a gradual decline in kidney function. His GFR has declined to 27 mL/min per 1.73 m2. Protein intake for Mr. Wilson should: a. be limited to animal protein foods. b. be restricted due to slow disease progression. c. be limited to plant protein foods. d. be increased due to PEM. e. remain the same until he begins to lose weight.

b

Dietary changes may be able to improve outcomes of some inborn errors by _____. a. preventing the breakdown of metabolites b. providing nutrients that support normal growth and development c. eliminating excess nutrients that appear as a metabolic abnormality d. screening for inborn errors of metabolism before damage occurs e. introducing DNA sequences into the chromosomes of affected cells

b

Enzymes from the intestine and pancreas work best in which type of bowel environment? a. acidic b. neutral or slightly alkaline c. motile d. microorganism-free e. protein-rich

b

Fluid retention can cause lab values to be deceptively high, whereas dehydration may cause the values to be deceptively low.​ a. True b. False

b

Foods useful for increasing dietary fiber include: a. bran, milk, and mashed potatoes. b. whole-grain bread, dried beans, and nuts. c. ground beef, sweet potatoes, and ice cream. d. saltine crackers, watermelon, and eggs. e. peanut butter, oranges, and strawberry jam.

b

For a protein to be of high quality, it must _____. a. contain all of the essential and nonessential amino acids b. contain enough of all the essential amino acids c. come from an animal-derived food d. come from a plant-derived food e. have both plant and animal-derived sources

b

Giant protein molecules called antibodies act to _____. a. promote antigen production b. destroy specific antigens c. maintain the integrity of the blood clotting system d. keep enzymes from attacking cells of the body e. restore acid-base balance

b

If food energy is restricted too severely, where does the body acquire the energy required for basal metabolic functions? a. liver b. lean tissue c. heart d. kidney e. nervous tissue

b

Live microbes that change the conditions in the GI tract in ways that seem to benefit health are known as: a. prebiotics b. probiotics c. gastrin d. hormones e. toxins

b

M.L. is a 34-year-old male computer programmer with a BMI of 26 who is seeking dietary counseling. His dose of Prilosec was recently increased, and although he now suffers less often from heartburn symptoms, he is also leery of medical side effects and would like any and all suggestions to manage his GERD "naturally." Having had GERD for the past eight years and been on some form of antacid or antisecretory medication continuously during that time, M.L. knows what foods or factors cause symptoms, and is able to generally avoid them; hence, he has not had reflux esophagitis in over a year. A 24-hour diet history reveals M.L. ate these foods yesterday: Breakfast: Skipped Snack: Fresh pear; instant oatmeal made with water, eaten with brown sugar and two non-dairy creamers; skim milk Lunch: Lean turkey lunch meat on whole-grain bread with lettuce, tomato, and mustard; 100% grape juice diluted with water; snack pack of carrots, no dressing Snack: Sugar cookies; skim milk Dinner: Tempura (deep-fried, breaded) salmon; buttered rice; salad with lettuce and tomato; vinegar and oil dressing; water Snack, at bedtime: Ginger ale and ginger snap cookies ​ The practitioner gives M.L. a checklist of lifestyle changes that can help minimize GERD symptoms. Based on the diet recall above, M.L. would benefit from education about which topic?​ a. ​Try eating bedtime snacks and lying down after meals. b. ​Elevate the foot of the bed by placing blocks under the mattress. c. ​During periods of esophagitis, avoid foods and beverages that may irritate the esophagus. d. ​Include foods that destroy gastric acid. e. ​Consume meals and liquids at the same time so that the stomach does not become overly distended.

b

Medications that reduce stomach acidity can impair the absorption of _____. a. calcium b. iron c. vitamin D d. vitamin C e. vitamin K

b

Most kidney stones are made up primarily of _____. a. uric acid b. calcium oxalate c. cystine d. calcium phosphate e. magnesium ammonium phosphate

b

Mr. Bradley is a 70-year-old man with a long medical history including uncontrolled diabetes mellitus since age 45 who presents to the West Smithtown Dialysis Center with new-onset end-stage kidney disease. Mr. Bradley lives in an assisted living facility where he receives full-time nursing care. As a dialysis nurse, your role is to review the nutrition guidelines with Mr. Bradley, who has diabetic retinopathy and loss of vision. He is a non-ambulatory war veteran, former smoker, and former alcohol abuser whose BMI is normal, though he has lost 3% of his body weight since being diagnosed with kidney failure one month ago. A food frequency questionnaire shows that Mr. Bradley generally meets his recommended intakes of all food groups, but his fiber intake is low, and his dairy foods consumption exceeds the recommendation by double due to his love of milk, ice cream, cheese, and other dairy products. ​ Mr. Bradley's comprehension of the need for a lower-phosphorus diet is reflected by which statement?​ a. ​"I will need to avoid legumes." b. ​"I will need to limit dairy products." c. ​"I can eat all the bread I want." d. ​"Becoming a vegetarian would best meet my protein needs." e. ​"I will need to eat fewer fatty meats."

b

Mr. Stanley Edward, a 58-year-old African American male, was admitted to the emergency room of the medical center and resuscitated after being found unconscious in his car in a parking lot. His history was obtained by contacting his daughter. The patient presents with: end-stage adenocarcinoma of the gastroesophageal juncture. chronic malnutrition and significant weight loss × 1 year. Low BMI, loss of muscle, loss of subcutaneous fat, bitemporal wasting. acute pancreatitis with intractable vomiting. Medical Hx: Hypertension; S/P stroke @ age 56; cataract surgery. Meds: antilipemic medication, antihypertensive medication. Hx: Lifelong chain smoker (2 packs per day); alcohol abuse since his late 20s. Ht: 5'8". Admission Wt: 107 lbs. Usual Wt, 1 year ago: 170 lbs. Social Hx: Lives alone; cooks and shops for himself despite illness. Dietary Hx: Previously followed a low-cholesterol, low-sodium, high-potassium diet. Mr. Edward is not being actively treated for cancer at his request. Plan is to keep Mr. Edward NPO and place a peripheral line for hydration and nutrition support. Which parenteral infusion complication is Mr. Edward at risk of developing? a. hypovolemia b. refeeding syndrome c. metabolic bone disease d. hypernatremia e. hypoglycemia

b

One way to increase your basal metabolic rate is to _____. a. increase your body mass to increase the total energy expended b. engage in regular aerobic and resistance exercises to increase lean muscle mass c. maximize the thermic effect of food d. sleep 8 to 9 hours each night e. focus on reducing stress in your life

b

Patients with kidney disease who take calcium and vitamin D supplements are at risk of _____ because of the use of phosphate binders.​ a. ​vitamin K deficiency b. ​hypercalcemia c. ​iron deficiency anemia d. ​hyperphosphatemia e. ​hypophosphatemia

b

Post Test 15: An example of a medical condition or treatment that would most likely indicate the need for tube feedings is _____. a. an intestinal obstruction b. a severe swallowing disorder c. intractable vomiting d. a paralytic ileus e. severe gastrointestinal bleeding

b

Post Test 22: A condition caused by significant urinary protein losses (more than 3 to 3½ grams daily) as a result of severe glomerular damage is called _____. a. hyperkalemia b. nephrotic syndrome c. hypoalbuminemia d. uremia e. plasma protein nephropathy

b

Red wine has been touted as having beneficial health effects due to the disease-fighting compound _____. a. phytoestrogen b. resveratrol c. genistein d. allicin e. indoles

b

Removal of fluids and solutes from the blood by using pressure to transfer the blood across a semipermeable membrane is known as _____. a. osmosis b. ultrafiltration c. urea kinetic modeling d. diffusion e. oncotic pressure

b

Sam attends a potluck lunch and eats some homemade potato salad that contains mayonnaise prepared with uncooked eggs. The next day he develops a fever and suffers from vomiting and diarrhea. Which foodborne illness did Sam most likely contract? a. Staphylococcus aureus intoxication b. Salmonella infection c. Toxoplasma gondii infection d. Listeria infection e. Clostridium perfringens infection

b

Symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome are most likely associated with disturbed defecation, bloating, and _____. a. rectal bleeding b. abdominal pain c. rectal fissures d. esophageal paralysis e. hematemesis

b

The BMI, taken by itself, is most useful in _____. a. assessing risk for disease b. assessing degrees of obesity c. determining the location of fat distribution d. evaluating body fatness in the nonobese e. determining how much of the body weight is fat

b

The hormone produced in the pancreas to raise the blood glucose level is called _____. a. pancrease b. glucagon c. lipase d. amylase e. insulin

b

The lower esophageal sphincter is responsible for _____. a. allowing chyme to enter the stomach b. preventing gastric contents from refluxing into the esophagus c. adding digestive juices to the bolus of food as it descends the esophagus d. allowing intermittent amounts of stomach contents to enter the duodenum e. controlling movement of bile from the gallbladder to the small intestine

b

The micronutrient _____ is often excluded from parenteral solutions because it can destabilize solutions that contain lipid emulsions. a. manganese b. iron c. copper d. selenium e. zinc

b

The most common cause of chronic kidney disease is: a. infection. b. diabetes. c. inflammation. d. a genetic disorder. e. peripheral vascular disease.

b

The obesity gene codes for _____. a. lipoprotein lipase b. leptin c. ghrelin d. adiponectin e. insulin

b

The potassium content of vegetables can be reduced through which process? a. boiling b. leaching c. sautéing d. spraying e. steaming

b

Use of antibiotics to treat H. pylori infection would most likely cause which type of gastrointestinal complication? a. hemoptysis b. altered taste sensation c. flatulence d. bloody stools e. abdominal pain

b

What describes the basic principles of carbohydrate counting to plan a diabetic diet?​ a. ​The patient can have most carbohydrates but must avoid artificial sweeteners. b. ​The patient has freedom to choose foods based on preference. c. ​The patient must count carbohydrates but typically has few limits on fat and protein intake. d. ​The patient follows a set schedule of when to eat. e. ​The patient can eat when he wants but must only eat certain foods.

b

What is the main function of vitamin K? a. to serve as an antioxidant to protect the body from free radical damage b. to activate blood-clotting proteins c. to maintain the cornea d. to provide immunity e. to facilitate reproduction

b

What laboratory value would be considered a high-risk measure for coronary heart disease assessment? a. triglycerides >150 mg/dL b. BMI >31 c. LDL cholesterol <128 mg/dL d. blood pressure of 128/82 mmHg e. total cholesterol >210 mg/dL

b

What menu selections would be appropriate for a patient placed on a clear liquid diet? a. yogurt, cranberry juice, beef broth b. chicken broth, apple juice, popsicle c. scrambled egg, coffee, orange juice d. milk, applesauce, and cottage cheese e. Jell-O, ice cream, coffee

b

What process do manufacturers use on a fat to extend its shelf life and alter the fat so it is more solid? a. oxidation b. hydrogenation c. dehydration d. enrichment e. fortification

b

What technique would most likely be used to assess brain development in an infant? a. ​skinfold measurement b. ​head circumference c. ​BMI d. ​measure of abdominal girth e. ​height and weight

b

What type of drug would most likely be given to a patient following a myocardial infarction? a. antiemetic b. anticoagulant c. anticonvulsant d. antibiotic e. antiviral

b

When assessing criteria for a patient's nutritional risk, which information would be included as part of admission data? a. height and weight b. medical diagnosis c. loss of muscle tone d. generalized edema e. serum protein levels

b

When deciding on a vitamin-mineral supplement, patients should avoid _____, because they are more expensive but not any better than standard brands. a. store brands b. organic products c. products with nutrition labels d. products containing vitamin D e. USP-labeled products

b

When evaluating the credibility of a nutrition website, which characteristic might indicate the site's legitimacy? a. links to multiple commercial and educational sites b. three-letter tags of ".edu" or ".gov" in the site's address c. permanent sources and infrequent updates d. clear listings of all products and services e. monthly fees with options to "opt out" at any time

b

When long-term nutrition changes are necessary, a care plan must take into account a person's current food practices, lifestyle, and _____. a. access to dietary supplements b. degree of motivation c. problems with the nutrition care plan d. knowledge of the role of the dietitian e. ability to list energy densities of foods

b

Which approach is a type of traditional Chinese medicine? a. magnet therapy b. acupuncture c. faith healing d. biofeedback e. reflexology

b

Which before-meal glucose level is an example of appropriate glycemic control for an adult with diabetes? a. 55 to 80 mg/dL b. 80 to 130 mg/dL c. 135 to 150 mg/dL d. 150 to 160 mg/dL e. 160 to 190 mg/dL

b

Which characteristic describe the "female athlete triad"? a. binge eating, amenorrhea, and stress fractures b. disordered eating, amenorrhea, and osteoporosis c. disordered eating, infertility, and laxative abuse d. steroid use, amenorrhea, and stress fractures e. disordered eating, anorexia nervosa, and osteoporosis

b

Which condition has been shown to be associated with esophageal dysphagia? a. myasthenia gravis b. achalasia c. Alzheimer's disease d. cerebral palsy e. stroke

b

Which criterion would be used to diagnose diabetes? a. a plasma glucose concentration of 100 mg/dL or higher after a fast of at least 12 hours b. a casual blood sample of 200 mg/dL or higher in a person with classic symptoms c. a plasma glucose concentration measured two hours after a 200-gram glucose load of 400 mg/dL or higher d. a HbA1C higher than 5 percent e. a plasma glucose concentration of less than 65 mg/dL after consuming 15 g of carbohydrates

b

Which disorder is characterized by elevated blood glucose resulting from insufficient insulin, ineffective insulin, or both? a. hyperlipidemia b. diabetes c. Addison's disease d. lactose intolerance e. Crohn's disease

b

Which drug is FDA approved for weight loss? a. ma huang b. Alli c. OTC weight-loss products d. ephedra e. ephedrine

b

Which food would most likely be included as part of a low-fiber diet? a. broccoli b. ripe bananas c. onions d. whole-grain bread e. dried apricots

b

Which information should be included in teaching a patient who will use parenteral nutrition at home? a. Formula can be prepared at home with proper instructions. b. Solutions need to be sterile and aseptically prepared. c. Nutrition can be delivered with or without a pump. d. The patient may learn to place the feeding catheter himself. e. Infusions must be delivered slowly to avoid obstructing the tubing.

b

Which medical problem is not generally associated with malnutrition? a. ​dementia b. ​incontinence c. major surgery​ d. ​pressure sores e. ​Celiac disease

b

Which nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate for a patient with heart failure? a. risk for infection b. fluid volume excess c. impaired body temperature d. ineffective airway clearance e. disturbed body image

b

Which organ plays the primary role in maintaining acid-base balance in body fluids? a. liver b. kidney c. lungs d. skin e. intestines

b

Which outcome is most commonly associated with uncontrolled diabetes during pregnancy? a. infant hyperglycemia b. miscarriage c. microsomia d. hypercalcemia e. placenta previa

b

Which person would be at greatest risk for negative nitrogen balance? a. a young woman consuming 25% of total kcalories as protein b. a young man in the hospital for a severe burn injury c. a women who is breastfeeding her newborn infant d. a normal-weight lacto-vegetarian child e. a body-builder who is preparing for a competition

b

Which set of standards defines the amounts of energy, nutrients, other dietary components, and physical activity that best support health? a. Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA) b. Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI) c. Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges (AMDR) d. Estimated Average Requirements (EAR) e. Tolerable Upper Intake Levels (UL)

b

Which statement should be included when teaching a healthy client about fat intake? a. Fat intake should not exceed 40% of total kcalories. b. Saturated fat intake should be less than 10% of total kcalories. c. Dietary intake of cholesterol should be at least 300 milligrams a day. d. An intake of fat and oils representing less than 10% of total kcalories can still supply needed fatty acids. e. Linoleic acid (omega-6 fatty acids) should provide at least 25% of daily energy intake.

b

Which substance is considered a non-B vitamin? a. folate b. inositol c. niacin d. biotin e. pantothenic acid

b

Which symptom can be observed in patients with a potassium deficiency? a. stunted growth b. irregular heartbeats c. constipation d. hallucinations e. normally undetected

b

Which toxicity symptom might present when a patient consumes too much manganese? a. liver injury b. loss of appetite c. nervous system disorders d. nausea e. vomiting

b

Which type of insulin is considered a long-acting preparation? a. Lispro b. Glargine c. Aspart d. Regular e. NPH

b

You would be more likely to find trans fat in which food item? a. avocado b. nondairy creamer c. tuna d. corn oil e. coconut oil

b

​Muscle weakness due to wasting would most likely be evaluated by which test? a. ​red blood cell levels b. ​handgrip strength c. ​recall of food intake d. ​serum sodium e. ​skinfold thickness

b

A barrier that prevents the normal emptying of stomach contents into the duodenum is known as _____. a. dumping syndrome b. gastritis c. gastric outlet obstruction d. hypochlorhydria e. dyspepsia

c

A biguanide medication such as metformin, when used as an antidiabetic drug, may have what metabolic side effect? a. decreased blood concentration of calcium b. weight loss c. decreased folate absorption d. fluid retention e. anemia

c

A detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period is known as a _____. a. food-frequency questionnaire b. 24-hour recall c. food record d. kcalorie count register e. food observation study

c

A female client with too little body fat will be most likely to experience _____. a. increased fertility b. only 35% of her mass as body fat c. irregular menstruation d. reduced bone fracture risk e. increased ability to fight a wasting disease, such as cancer

c

A gluten-free food choice that would be most appropriate for a patient with celiac disease would be _____. a. scalloped potatoes b. oatmeal c. eggs d. flour tortillas e. chicken nuggets

c

A high-protein diet can result in _____. a. development of SAM b. bone disease c. worsening of existing kidney disease d. wasting and edema e. stunting

c

A patient in the later stage of chronic kidney disease has been advised to increase his intake of potassium-rich foods. What food is an example of an item that is high in potassium? a. watermelon b. carrots c. potatoes d. strawberries e. cabbage

c

A patient is completing a food frequency questionnaire that is designed to evaluate calcium intake. This questionnaire would most likely include which foods? a. ​raspberries and kiwi b. ​ham and bacon c. ​yogurt and cheese d. ​summer squash e. ​lima or kidney beans

c

A patient who is being prepared to undergo a colonoscopy should be given which kind of diet? a. low-sodium diet b. blenderized diet c. clear liquid diet d. low-fiber diet e. high-kcalorie, high-protein diet

c

A patient with an ileostomy is suffering from frequent diarrhea. The clinician should advise the patient to increase his intake of which food to thicken stool output? a. celery b. salad greens c. potatoes d. dried beans and peas e. eggs

c

A patient with heart failure has developed cardiac cachexia as a result of the disease. The nurse understands that which medication would most likely be effective to reverse cardiac cachexia?​ a. ​Spironolactone b. ​Furosemide c. ​There is no treatment for cardiac cachexia. d. ​Digoxin e. ​Nicotinic acid

c

A patient with stomach cancer has been encouraged to increase his kcalorie intake to avoid weight loss and wasting. Which suggestion is most appropriate to increase kcalorie intake? a. Replace whole fat milk with skim milk or water. b. Avoid peanut butter and other nuts. c. Choose high-fat meat instead of lean meat. d. Limit alcohol intake to two drinks per day. e. Avoid caffeine in the morning or the late evening.

c

A patient with type 1 diabetes calls her physician's office complaining of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. The nurse should advise the patient to: a. cease her insulin injections and eat tolerated foods that provide the prescribed amount of carbohydrate. b. avoid consuming carbohydrates, but continue her insulin injections. c. continue her insulin injections and eat tolerated foods that provide the prescribed amount of carbohydrate. d. increase her carbohydrate intake but decrease her insulin injections. e. cease her insulin injections until she can tolerate food.

c

Adipose cells contain droplets of: a. muscle tissue b. blood c. lipid d. hormones e. vitamins

c

After packaging, chylomicrons are initially transported through the _____. a. arterial system b. venous system c. lymphatic system d. hepatic portal vein e. heart

c

An advance directive known as a durable power of attorney involves appointing another person called a(n) _____ to act as decision maker in the event of the patient's incapacitation. a. witness b. primary caregiver c. health care agent d. state proxy e. alternate representative

c

An example of complementary proteins would be _____. a. apples and walnuts b. milk and meat c. beans and rice d. bacon and eggs e. oatmeal and milk

c

Clinical judgments about actual or potential health problems that provide the basis for selecting appropriate nursing interventions are known as _____. a. nutrition assessments b. program evaluations c. nursing diagnoses d. nursing care plans e. nutrition screenings

c

Dextrose monohydrate found in parenteral nutrition provides _____ kcal per gram as/than pure glucose. a. half as many b. twice as many c. slightly fewer d. the same e. four times as many

c

During the nutrition diagnosis portion of the nutrition care process, the PES statement should include what data? a. the problem, patient education, and treatments b. patient identification, evaluation of needs, and successful interventions c. the patient's issue, its cause, and associated symptoms d. goals, interventions, and evaluation of tasks e. assessment data, lifestyle changes and interventions, and setbacks to treatments

c

Energy intake for a patient with nephrotic syndrome should be about _____ kcal/kg/body weight per day. a. 15 b. 25 c. 35 d. 45 e. 60

c

Following bariatric surgery, a patient would initially be given which type of diet? a. regular diet b. pureed diet c. clear liquid diet d. soft diet e. NPO

c

Health care personnel can best help hospitalized patients improve their food intakes by: a. choosing the most appropriate foods for the patient. b. confirming that the patient received the correct tray after the meal. c. helping a patient to open containers and set up the food tray. d. making sure that there are plenty of activities going on in the room during mealtimes. e. assisting patients to sit up in bed after their meal tray has arrived.

c

High-protein foods are omitted in the diets of individuals with _____. a. hemophilia b. galactosemia c. phenylketonuria d. hemochromatosis e. cystic fibrosis

c

If the body has synthesized more protein than it degrades, which statement is accurate? a. Nitrogen status is negative. b. Nitrogen status is in equilibrium. c. Nitrogen status is positive. d. An injury or infection has been sustained. e. Muscle is being broken down.

c

In addition to decreasing food intake by decreasing stomach volume, gastric bypass also directly aids in weight loss by _____. a. increasing pancreatic function b. increasing physical activity c. altering gastrointestinal hormones d. decreasing digestion time e. increasing basal metabolic rate

c

In the large intestine, bacteria digest many of the soluble fibers to produce _____. a. glucose b. protein c. fatty acids d. fructose e. starch

c

In treated diabetes, hypoglycemia is a possible complication of: a. overeating. b. insulin deficiency. c. inappropriate disease management. d. fluid overload. e. eating too many carbohydrates.

c

In which ethnic group is lactose intolerance most prevalent?​ a. ​Australians b. ​Arab Americans c. Asians d. Caucasians e. ​Pacific Islanders

c

Individuals who use antiretroviral drugs frequently develop insulin resistance and _____. a. hypertension b. hypothyroidism c. hyperlipidemia d. fluid retention e. hypocalcemia

c

Jared Joiner is a 56-year-old African American insurance agent. He is single, eats most meals at restaurants, and leads a sedentary lifestyle. He is 5'9" tall and weighs 204 pounds. Mr. Joiner has been feeling particularly fatigued lately and decided to make an appointment with his physician for a check-up. The results of his laboratory tests include a fasting blood glucose level of 121 mg/dL. ​ Mr. Joiner's blood glucose level meets the criteria for a diagnosis of: a. ketoacidosis. b. type 2 diabetes. c. prediabetes. d. type 1 diabetes. e. impaired glycemic control.

c

Jared Joiner is a 56-year-old African American insurance agent. He is single, eats most meals at restaurants, and leads a sedentary lifestyle. He is 5'9" tall and weighs 204 pounds. Mr. Joiner has been feeling particularly fatigued lately and decided to make an appointment with his physician for a check-up. The results of his laboratory tests include a fasting blood glucose level of 121 mg/dL. ​ The simplest and most flexible approach to teaching Mr. Joiner the principles of the diet for optimal management of his blood glucose level is: a. the exchange lists. b. portion control. c. carbohydrate counting. d. a high-protein diet plan. e. MyPlate.

c

Jose Salazar has been hospitalized following a motor vehicle accident. He has several broken bones, including his left jaw, two ribs on the left side, and a compound fracture of his left leg. According to his medical record, he is 47 years old, his height is 5'9", and his weight is 171 pounds. His current medications include lovastatin to lower his cholesterol and an MAO inhibitor to treat depression. ​ The most appropriate diet order for Mr. Salazar is a: a. mechanical soft diet. b. soft diet. c. blenderized diet. d. low-fiber diet. e. regular diet.

c

Lamivudine is an example of which type of drug used for management of HIV infection? a. CCR5 antagonist b. fusion inhibitor c. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor d. protease inhibitor e. integrase inhibitor

c

Long-term TPN administration may result in complications such as: a. heart disease. b. bone cancer. c. gallbladder disease. d. hearing loss. e. diabetes.

c

Mr. Avery is a 77-year-old retired engineer. He is 5'10" tall and weighs 171 pounds. He suffered a stroke, which left him with left-sided paralysis, and he is having difficulty swallowing so he is unable to meet his nutritional needs via oral intake at this time. Mr. Avery's feeding is being delivered continuously by an infusion pump. What best describes an advantage of using a continuous feeding? a. There is less risk of diarrhea. b. It is similar to usual patterns of eating for the patient. c. It provides an accurate and steady flow rate. d. It is a less expensive method. e. It provides more freedom of movement for the patient.

c

Overweight and obesity often accompany conditions such as _____ that limit mobility or result in short stature, which can lead to feeding difficulties. a. Parkinson's disease b. muscular dystrophy c. Down syndrome d. multiple sclerosis e. Huntington's chorea

c

Parenteral nutrition can be discontinued when _____ of estimated energy needs are being met by oral intake, tube feeding, or a combination of the two.​ a. ​35-75% b. ​35-50% c. ​60-75% d. ​80-90% e. ​25-35%

c

People with which health condition might benefit from limiting high glycemic index foods? a. heart disease b. constipation c. diabetes d. diverticulitis e. cancer

c

Post Test 13: Which type of treatment is associated with reduced food intake and can itself contribute to malnutrition? a. use of diuretics b. radiation therapy c. bowel rest d. limb prosthesis e. surgical immobilization

c

Post Test 18: The action of osmotic laxatives can best be described as that of _____. a. increasing stool weight b. acting as an irritant to colonic tissue c. attracting water and increasing liquidity of stools d. stimulating peristalsis e. increasing mucosal secretions

c

Post Test 23: Cancers that arise from epithelial tissues are known as _____. a. leukemias b. myelomas c. carcinomas d. sarcomas e. lymphomas

c

Post Test 6: During fasting, which of the following is a primary concern? a. liver glycogen surplus b. increased metabolic rate c. breakdown of muscle cells d. inability of protein to provide glucose for brain cells e. breakdown of nerve cells

c

Prednisone, a corticosteroid used following a kidney transplant, works to _____. a. reduce blood clots b. increase proteinuria c. reduce inflammation d. reduce blood lipids e. alleviate edema

c

Protein deficiency would most likely have which effect on dental tissues? a. decreased resistance to dental caries b. increased tooth size c. delayed tooth development d. increased enamel mineralization e. reduced protection against decay-causing bacteria

c

The "master switch" of a gene is known as the _____. a. transcriptor b. nucleotide c. promoter d. coding sequence e. methylator

c

The American Heart Association (AHA) recommends _____ to support a heart-healthy eating pattern. a. decreasing the amount of fat consumed that is solid at room temperature to 5% of total kilocalories b. increasing the use of corn and cottonseed oils in cooking c. eating at least 7 ounces of fatty fish each week d. taking moderate doses of fish oil supplements e. increasing red meat consumption

c

The calculated protein RDA for a healthy adult weighing 160 pounds would be _____. a. 16 grams b. 56 grams c. 58 grams d. 72 grams e. 80 grams

c

The energy density of most enteral formulas ranges from _____ kcal/mL of fluid. a. 0.5 to 1.0 b. 0.8 to 1.6 c. 1.0 to 2.0 d. 1.8 to 2.5 e. 2.0 to 3.0

c

The main focus of dietary treatment for a patient with galactosemia is the exclusion of _____. a. meat and poultry b. fiber c. dairy products d. legumes and nuts e. soft fruits

c

The normal intestinal flora (bacteria) that live in the intestines _____. a. break down protein into amino acids b. are a frequent cause of dangerous infections c. synthesize vitamin K d. interfere with the GI tract's immune defenses e. block the absorption of fats

c

The number of fat cells in a human increases most rapidly during which age period? a. birth b. toddler c. late childhood and early puberty d. late puberty e. adulthood

c

The nurse is working with a client who recently suffered from a stroke. The client complains of painful swallowing, nasal regurgitation during swallowing, and coughing during meals. The nurse recognizes these as symptoms of: a. peptic ulcer disease. b. GERD c. dysphagia. d. reflux esophagitis. e. hiatal hernia.

c

The nurse realizes that malnutrition is a common problem among people who are hospitalized and that it is associated with: a. lower mortality rates. b. high blood pressure. c. a weakened immune system. d. fewer complications. e. reduced health care costs.

c

The type of medicine that proposes that a person's inherent "life force" can foster self-healing is known as _____ medicine. a. homeopathic b. integrative c. naturopathic d. Ayurvedic e. osteopathic

c

Vitamin D precursors are manufactured in the _____, then travel to the _____, where they are converted into a second precursor before final conversion into the active vitamin. a. skin; liver b. liver; kidney c. liver; skin d. kidney; skin e. kidney; liver

c

What action would most likely prevent refeeding syndrome in a malnourished patient? ​ a. ​Include stomach acid-reducing medications in the TPN solution. b. ​Avoid adding dextrose to the TPN infusion. c. ​Start the patient's feedings at a slow rate. d. ​Provide extra vitamin supplements. e. ​Do not allow the patient to eat.

c

What describes an advantage of peritoneal dialysis over hemodialysis?​ a. ​It is less likely to cause blood clots. b. ​It is less likely to cause infection. c. ​It requires fewer dietary restrictions. d. ​It can be used for longer periods. e. ​Its dialyzer is typically more effective.

c

What food is most likely a source of trans fats in the diet? a. red meat b. peanut oil c. corn chips d. salmon e. walnuts

c

What systolic blood pressure measurement would be classified as prehypertension? a. 106 mmHg b. 119 mmHg c. 130 mmHg d. 141 mmHg e. 148 mmHg

c

When direct observations are used to generate an estimate of a client's current food intake, the procedure is called a: a. 24-hour recall. b. food diary. c. kcalorie count. d. food record. e. nutrient surveillance record.

c

When reading food labels, which ingredient does NOT indicate the presence of added sugars? a. concentrated fruit juice sweetener b. corn syrup c. sucralose d. honey e. raw cane sugar

c

Which dietary strategy would most likely be used as part of lifestyle management to reduce the risk of coronary heart disease? a. Avoid foods that contain polyunsaturated fat. b. Limit saturated fat to less than 10 percent of total calories. c. Limit alcohol intake to one drink daily for women and two drinks daily for men. d. Choose foods that are low in soluble fibers. e. Avoid consumption of fish and shellfish.

c

Which food contains lycopene? a. orange b. banana c. papaya d. asparagus e. squash

c

Which hormone stimulates appetite and food intake? a. adiponectin b. gastrin c. ghrelin d. insulin e. leptin

c

Which individuals are more likely to need vitamin-mineral supplements? a. people with high stress b. people who work out a lot c. people with lactose intolerance d. people who are sick e. people who are picky eaters

c

Which level of sodium restriction would be included as part of nutrition therapy for heart failure? a. <500 mg per day b. 1000 mg to 1500 mg per day c. 1500 mg to 3000 mg per day d. 3000 to 3500 mg per day e. 3500 to 4000 mg per day

c

Which mechanism does Belviq, an FDA-approved drug for weight loss, utilize to decrease weight in patients? a. It inhibits pancreatic lipase activity in the GI tract to block digestion of fats. b. It enhances the release of the neurotransmitter norepinephrine, which suppresses appetite. c. It interacts with brain serotonin receptors to increase satiety. d. It increases norepinephrine receptor binding to increase the feeling of fullness. e. It decreases the release of serotonin to increase satiety.

c

Which mineral deficiency is believed to cause hallucinations during alcohol detoxification? a. calcium b. chloride c. magnesium d. potassium e. sodium

c

Which mineral is considered a major mineral? a. iron b. copper c. magnesium d. iodine e. zinc

c

Which of the following best describes prevention measures for type 2 diabetes? a. blood pressure control b. monitoring urine output c. weight management d. increased sleep e. decreased protein intake

c

Which of the following is an example of a 15 g serving of carbohydrate? a. 1 cup of frozen corn b. 1 ounce of plain yogurt c. 1 slice of bread d. 1 cup of cooked pasta e. 1 large peach

c

Which patient would be the most likely candidate to receive peripheral parenteral nutrition (PPN)? a. a patient who has fluid restrictions b. a patient with high nutrient needs c. a patient who needs parenteral nutrition for one week d. a patient who needs lipid emulsions e. a patient with hyperglycemia

c

Which statement by your client indicates that he needs further education regarding how to improve his fat choices? a. "I should choose more nutrient-dense snacks, such as dry-roasted almonds or apple slices with peanut butter, rather than potato chips." b. "I should have ice cream for dessert less often, and only one cup with a banana instead of two cups." c. "I should avoid products that contain sunflower, safflower, or corn oil." d. "I should check the saturated and trans fat information on food labels while grocery shopping." e. "I should only eat a very small amount of chicken wings at a meal and accompany them with lots of fresh vegetables."

c

Which statement by your client indicates that the client needs further instruction? a. "Even though there is sugar in milk and fruits, they are still good for me because they have other nutrients in them." b. "When choosing my foods, I should try to limit my intake of added sugars, which can come from condiments like ketchup or processed foods like breakfast cereal as well as dessert foods." c. "Choosing foods containing sugar alcohols instead of real sugar is the best way to lose weight quickly." d. "Drinking plain water instead of sweetened beverages such as soft drinks can reduce my kcalorie intake, and therefore, help me lose weight." e. "I should limit my intake of sugar-sweetened beverages to help prevent elevated blood triglyceride levels."

c

Which symptom is most closely associated with peripheral vascular disease as a consequence of diabetes? a. gastroparesis b. vision loss c. claudication d. hypertriglyceridemia e. abnormal ventricle function

c

Which term refers to a characteristic of a nutritious diet that contributes to adequacy, balance, and kcalorie control? a. variety b. nutrient density c. moderation d. eating pattern e. nutrient profiling

c

Which type of bread, cereal, or pasta would most likely be recommended for a patient on a fat-restricted diet? a. popcorn b. fried rice c. English muffins d. granola e. biscuits

c

Which type of drug is most likely to cause unintentional weight gain? a. antiemetics b. sedatives c. corticosteroids d. antibiotics e. analgesics

c

A 52-year-old male patient recently required surgery for the removal of a large calcium oxalate stone. To prevent further stone formation, the nurse instructs him to consume plenty of fluids, but advises against drinking: a. apple juice. b. orange juice. c. coffee. d. tea. e. draft beer.

d

A diet manual would most likely contain which element? a. procedures for disinfection of cooking surfaces b. staff sanitation issues c. a particular patient's resting metabolic rates d. specific food preparation methods e. information regarding staff food handling permits

d

A patient experiences nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and lightheadedness after meals following gastric bypass surgery. The nurse recognizes these as symptoms of: a. high blood sugar. b. Sjögren's syndrome. c. gastroesophageal reflux. d. dumping syndrome. e. malabsorption.

d

A patient presents with elevated BUN, creatinine, and blood pressure. He complains of fatigue, confusion, easy bruising, and pruritus. The nurse recognizes these as symptoms of: a. renal osteodystrophy. b. gout. c. diuresis. d. uremia. e. cystinuria.

d

A patient with _____ is an appropriate candidate for home enteral nutrition support. a. short bowel syndrome b. radiation enteropathy c. gastrointestinal bleeding d. dysphagia e. a motility disorder

d

A patient with cystic fibrosis would most likely benefit from which type of diet? a. low-sodium b. low-fat c. clear liquid d. high-kcalorie, high-protein e. pureed

d

A test conducted to determine glycemic control over the preceding two- to three-week period is the _____ test. a. glycosylated hemoglobin b. fasting glucose tolerance c. hemoglobin A1C d. fructosamine e. albuminuria

d

Adequate intake of which two minerals poses the greatest concern for all vegetarians, and not just vegans? a. iron and calcium b. zinc and calcium c. vitamin D and iron d. iron and zinc e. vitamin D and calcium

d

Among people who are ill, significant weight loss may be masked by: a. dehydration. b. drug therapy. c. hypotension. d. fluid retention. e. a large tumor.

d

An Hispanic pregnant woman is visiting the community clinic for her first prenatal visit. She has a family history of diabetes, she is obese, and her last baby weighed 9 pounds, 8 ounces. The nurse realizes that she is at risk for: a. malnutrition. b. anemia. c. preeclampsia. d. gestational diabetes. e. poor weight gain.

d

An example of a food that is high in oxalate is: a. apples. b. carrots. c. milk. d. spinach. e. grapes.

d

An example of a nutrition intervention that involves coordination of nutrition care might be _____. a. determining the need for feeding assistance b. providing basic nutrition-related instruction c. helping an individual to set priorities d. arranging transfer of nutrition care to another location e. solving problems that interfere with the nutrition care plan

d

Bile is released from the gallbladder when _____. a. the gallbladder relaxes b. emulsification of fat is completed c. protein is to be broken down for absorption d. fats from the diet are present in the duodenum e. salivary amylase did not adequately break down ingested carbohydrates

d

Blindness due to a deficiency of vitamin A is called _____. a. xerosis b. osteomalacia c. keratomalacia d. xerophthalmia e. beriberi

d

Calcium oxalate stones are most often accompanied by what metabolic condition? a. hyperkalemia b. hypernatremia c. hyperphosphatemia d. hypercalciuria e. hypercholesterolemia

d

Cretinism, a disease characterized by mental and physical retardation, is caused by a deficiency of _____ during pregnancy a. fluoride b. zinc c. manganese d. iodine e. copper

d

Dennis Wilson is a 57-year-old chemical engineer who has had type 1 diabetes since he was 12 years old. He spent 34 years working in oil refineries, and he is a smoker. He is 5'11" tall and weighs 160 pounds. Over the past several years, he has experienced a gradual decline in kidney function. His GFR has declined to 27 mL/min per 1.73 m2. Mr. Wilson's laboratory reports indicate hyperkalemia. His intake of _____ should be restricted.​ a. ​vitamin D b. ​sodium c. ​phosphorus d. ​potassium e. ​protein

d

Dennis Wilson is a 57-year-old chemical engineer who has had type 1 diabetes since he was 12 years old. He spent 34 years working in oil refineries, and he is a smoker. He is 5'11" tall and weighs 160 pounds. Over the past several years, he has experienced a gradual decline in kidney function. His GFR has declined to 27 mL/min per 1.73 m2. The likely cause of Mr. Wilson's chronic kidney disease is: a. his history of smoking. b. unknown. c. male gender and age. d. his history of type 1 diabetes. e. exposure to chemicals in the workplace.

d

Elevated _____ levels are of particular concern with acute kidney injury because imbalances can alter heart rhythm and lead to heart failure. a. sodium b. magnesium c. chloride d. potassium e. iron

d

Fad diets that promote low protein consumption are difficult to follow and achieve results, because when protein levels become too low, _____. a. total caloric intake is decreased below acceptable levels b. sugar levels also decrease c. ketone body production increases d. a person may not feel satiated e. the low levels of proteins produce anxiety

d

Health practitioners evaluate disease progression in HIV-infected patients by measuring the concentrations of helper T cells and circulating virus, called _____. a. cross-resistance b. the immune response c. acquired resistance d. the viral load e. active immunity

d

How do some natural remedies cause toxicity? a. They are expensive, so they are not always used as prescribed. b. They are unfairly marketed at people with eating disorders, who are intolerant of many herbs. c. They are used in place of healthy foods, decreasing intake of other important nutrients. d. They are not subject to regulation, and can therefore contain unknown toxins. e. They are not entirely organic, and can be hard to digest.

d

Inorganic nutrients include _____. a. carbohydrates b. fats c. vitamins d. minerals e. protein

d

Low levels of physical activity are most commonly associated with which type of cancer? a. esophageal cancer b. pancreatic cancer c. lung cancer d. colon cancer e. prostate cancer

d

Malabsorption of some minerals, including calcium, magnesium, and zinc, often occurs because the minerals form _____ with the unabsorbed fatty acids. a. oxalates b. gallstones c. ketones d. soaps e. bile acids

d

Mr. Bradley is a 70-year-old man with a long medical history including uncontrolled diabetes mellitus since age 45 who presents to the West Smithtown Dialysis Center with new-onset end-stage kidney disease. Mr. Bradley lives in an assisted living facility where he receives full-time nursing care. As a dialysis nurse, your role is to review the nutrition guidelines with Mr. Bradley, who has diabetic retinopathy and loss of vision. He is a non-ambulatory war veteran, former smoker, and former alcohol abuser whose BMI is normal, though he has lost 3% of his body weight since being diagnosed with kidney failure one month ago. A food frequency questionnaire shows that Mr. Bradley generally meets his recommended intakes of all food groups, but his fiber intake is low, and his dairy foods consumption exceeds the recommendation by double due to his love of milk, ice cream, cheese, and other dairy products. ​ What principle regarding fluid is correctly conveyed to Mr. Bradley?​ a. ​"Your average fluid gain between dialysis treatments should ideally be 10 pounds." b. ​"Solid foods do not contribute to your fluid intake." c. ​"Most of your fluid intake should come when you take your medications." d. ​"Gelatin, soups, fruit ices, and frozen fruit juice bars contribute to your fluid intake." e. ​"Water losses from the skin and lungs are deducted from your fluid allowance."

d

Mr. Bradley is a 70-year-old man with a long medical history including uncontrolled diabetes mellitus since age 45 who presents to the West Smithtown Dialysis Center with new-onset end-stage kidney disease. Mr. Bradley lives in an assisted living facility where he receives full-time nursing care. As a dialysis nurse, your role is to review the nutrition guidelines with Mr. Bradley, who has diabetic retinopathy and loss of vision. He is a non-ambulatory war veteran, former smoker, and former alcohol abuser whose BMI is normal, though he has lost 3% of his body weight since being diagnosed with kidney failure one month ago. A food frequency questionnaire shows that Mr. Bradley generally meets his recommended intakes of all food groups, but his fiber intake is low, and his dairy foods consumption exceeds the recommendation by double due to his love of milk, ice cream, cheese, and other dairy products. ​ You explain to Mr. Bradley that the diet for end-stage renal disease: a. will not prevent the development of complications. b. contributes to elevated serum levels of nitrogenous wastes. c. has little influence on disease progression. d. can help to control electrolytes and avoid a life-threatening imbalance. e. will prevent him from developing further vision loss.

d

Much of the research investigating probiotics and intestinal illness has focused on the prevention and treatment of _____. a. irritable bowel syndrome b. Crohn's disease c. diverticulitis d. infectious diarrhea e. constipation

d

One benefit of the fat in foods is that it _____. a. suppresses the appetite without affecting hunger b. does not change the food's texture but improves flavor c. will cause weight gain even when energy intake balances expenditure d. facilitates the absorption of some vitamins and phytochemicals e. is always visible

d

One example of a catheter-related complication associated with administration of parenteral nutrition is _____. a. an electrolyte imbalance b. gallbladder disease c. refeeding syndrome d. infection e. liver disease

d

Post Test 4: The most important function of lipids in the body is _____. a. to provide a radiant skin complexion b. to insulate against extreme temperature fluctuations c. to cushion the body d. to provide energy e. to nourish hair and nails

d

Signs of zinc deficiency would most likely be demonstrated as what symptoms seen in the mouth during the nutritional assessment? a. dry, cracked lips b. swollen tongue c. bleeding gums d. decreased sensation of taste e. sore throat

d

The "Mediterranean-style" diet provides heart healthy benefits due to what characteristic? a. low olive oil consumption b. high saturated fat intake c. high fiber intake d. consumption of phytochemicals from olives e. low fat intake

d

The equal sharing of resources is known as _____. a. autonomy b. ethics c. disclosure d. distributive justice e. surrogacy

d

The nurse is instructing a client on a diet for the treatment of his hypertension. The nurse recognizes that the client understands his diet when he says: a. "I can eat what I want as long as I exercise." b. "I don't need to be concerned about the amount of alcohol I drink." c. "I can eat any foods I want in moderate amounts." d. "I need to increase my intake of fresh fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and milk products." e. "I can freely use salt substitutes and low-sodium products."

d

The nurse is working with a patient who recently had a stroke. The patient frequently chokes and coughs when eating and is having difficulty feeding herself. The nurse understands that the best way to ensure adequate nutrition for the patient may be: a. to have an aid feed her each meal. b. to ask a family member to be present at each meal. c. to place the patient on TPN. d. to provide tube feedings for the patient. e. to change the patient's status to NPO until another solution can be found.

d

Tim is trying to eat an adequate amount of fiber. Which lunch menu will best help him achieve this goal? a. baked salmon, lettuce salad, enriched wheat roll, orange juice b. turkey hot dog, enriched wheat bun, popcorn, diet cola c. cheese and mushroom omelet, cheese grits, cranberry juice cocktail, water d. black bean soup, baked sweet potato, large apple, iced tea e. soy burger, baked French fries, chocolate pudding, coffee

d

Type 2 diabetes is most closely associated with: a. destruction of pancreatic beta cells. b. environmental toxins. c. viral infection. d. insulin resistance. e. autoimmune diseases.

d

Tyrosine is a nonessential amino acid. What does this mean? a. Tyrosine is not needed or used by the body's cells. b. Tyrosine must be regularly consumed or a deficiency will develop. c. Consuming tyrosine is hazardous to health. d. The body can synthesize tyrosine from another amino acid. e. Tyrosine is indispensable.

d

Uric acid kidney stones are most commonly associated with what condition? a. atherosclerosis b. hypercalcemia c. diabetes d. gout e. diarrhea

d

What food intake method is most often used to monitor a client's response to and compliance with medical nutrition therapy? a. food frequency checklist​ b. ​usual intake record c. ​nutrition data assessment d. ​food record e. ​24-hour recall

d

What intervention would be most appropriate for a patient who has difficulty eating because of chewing problems? a. Use squeeze bottles to pour liquids into the mouth. b. Provide utensils that have modified handles. c. Offer plates with food guards. d. Provide soft foods. e. Apply slow strokes to the tongue after eating.

d

What is an advantage of using peritoneal dialysis over hemodialysis? a. less risk of infection b. more comfortable c. less likely for catheter to develop clots d. no requirement of vascular access e. no dietary restrictions

d

What is an example of a symptom or effect of an illness that would likely lead to impaired digestion and absorption? a. ​depression b. ​restrictive diets c. ​use of diuretics d. ​insufficient secretion of bile salts e. ​chemotherapy

d

What laboratory test would most likely aid in the diagnosis of anemia? a. ​C-reactive protein b. ​blood urea nitrogen c. ​white blood cell count d. ​red blood cell count e. ​​total protein

d

What situation best describes a potential cause of constipation? a. lactase deficiency b. a viral infection c. foodborne illness d. inadequate fluid intake e. a high-fiber diet

d

What symptom would most likely be associated with late dumping syndrome? a. abdominal cramps b. nausea c. diarrhea d. confusion e. flushing

d

What systematic plan was developed to identify and correct potential microbial hazards in the manufacturing, distribution, and commercial use of food products? a. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) b. Food Safety Modernization Act (FSMA) c. United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) d. Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points (HACCP) e. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

d

When a patient is expected to be tube fed for less than four weeks, the feeding tube that is generally used is a(n) _____. a. duodenostomy tube b. orogastric tube c. jejunostomy tube d. nasogastric tube e. percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube

d

When performing a nutrition assessment, what information would be gathered as part of the patient's personal and social history? a. ongoing medical treatments b. recent weight changes c. dietary restrictions d. cognitive abilities e. nutrition and health knowledge

d

Which B vitamin helps synthesize DNA for new cell growth? a. thiamin b. biotin c. riboflavin d. vitamin B12 e. niacin

d

Which behavior is most likely be observed in a male athlete with an eating disorder? a. self-starvation b. self-induced vomiting c. fear of fatness d. steroid drug abuse e. laxative abuse

d

Which factor is NOT part of an obesogenic environment? a. food deserts b. fast food c. screen time d. physical activity e. modern technology

d

Which factor may predispose an individual to kidney stone formation? a. decreased tissue perfusion b. increased volume of urine output c. intake of foods that contain tyrosine d. changes in urinary acidity e. recent gastrointestinal infection

d

Which feature is more likely associated with type 1 diabetes than with type 2 diabetes? a. onset at age over 40 years b. prevalent in up to 95 percent of cases of diabetes c. does not require insulin therapy d. caused by destruction of the pancreatic beta cells e. associated with obesity and inactivity

d

Which food is appropriate for a person on a low-sodium diet? a. olives b. biscuits c. cottage cheese d. yogurt e. pancakes

d

Which food is most appropriate to include in a diet plan for an individual who is limiting their consumption of solid fats and/or added sugars? a. frozen yogurt b. granola c. luncheon meats d. salmon e. baked beans

d

Which food would most likely be included in Level 1 of the National Dysphagia Diet? a. peanut butter b. oatmeal c. fruit preserves d. plain yogurt e. cottage cheese

d

Which health care professionals would most likely be involved with prescribing diet orders and making referrals for nutrition assessments? a. registered nurses b. social workers c. registered dietitians d. physicians e. registered dietetic technicians

d

Which individual is at highest risk for chronic illnesses such as diabetes, hypertension, and increased low-density lipoprotein? a. "pear-shaped" male b. tall person with large surface area c. person who consumes little alcohol d. female with a waist circumference of 40 inches e. male with a waist circumference of 38 inches

d

Which mineral is most likely to be lost with the prolonged use of diuretics? a. calcium b. chloride c. phosphorus d. potassium e. sodium

d

Which of the following is required to be on the updated Nutrition Facts panel but was NOT required on the original label? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin C c. Calcium d. Vitamin D

d

Which practice could increase your risk of contracting a foodborne illness? a. washing hands with hot, soapy water before meals b. refrigerating leftovers promptly c. cooking meat to the recommended internal temperature d. dicing vegetables on the same board that was used to cut up raw chicken e. using an alcohol-based sanitizing gel if soap and water are not available

d

Which risk factor is most closely associated with development of gestational diabetes? a. Caucasian ethnicity b. previous history of anorexia c. previous preterm birth d. family history of diabetes e. previous birth of twins

d

Your client, Sandy, wants to increase her energy expenditure. What is the most effective, practical way for her to do this? a. Consume more protein and less fat. b. Attempt to raise her basal metabolic rate. c. Focus on her arms instead of her legs when weight training. d. Participate in aerobics classes more frequently. e. Consume only very cold foods.

d

​An elderly male is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of malnutrition three months after his wife died. This situation describes which criteria that identify malnutrition risk? a. ​age b. ​history of chronic illness c. ​impaired mobility d. ​depression or social isolation e. ​recent unintentional weight change

d

A function of protein is to help maintain fluid distribution within the body by _____. a. diffusing through the membranes that separate compartments b. raising arterial pressure c. transporting water to cells that require it d. secreting hormones in response to the altered conditions e. attracting water into compartments where it is needed

e

A major challenge of developing an effective drug for obesity is to _____. a. provide benefits to both males and females b. generate long term effects with short-term treatments c. avoid drug interactions with other common over-the-counter drugs, such as ibuprofen d. encourage patient compliance e. decrease risks associated with long-term use

e

A nurse is working with a patient who is suffering from dysphagia. The most appropriate foods the nurse can suggest might be: a. sticky foods, such as peanut butter. b. foods with mixed textures, such as casseroles. c. dry foods, such as crackers. d. thin liquids, such as fruit juice. e. soft foods, such as mashed potatoes.

e

A patient suffering from nausea and vomiting should be counseled to do which activity to help alleviate his symptoms? a. Drink beverages during meals. b. Avoid dry, starchy foods. c. Avoid lying down for 30 minutes after meals. d. Drink citrus juice before meals. e. Avoid greasy or spicy foods.

e

A patient who takes methotrexate must be aware of which type of dietary interaction associated with this medication? a. It potentiates the effects of alcohol. b. It can cause liver toxicity when taken with high-fat foods. c. It leads to hypermagnesemia. d. It causes bone loss if calcium supplements are not added. e. It decreases folate absorption.

e

A patient with Crohn's disease who is suffering from malabsorption would most likely benefit from which nutrition intervention? a. a low-fat diet b. fluid and electrolyte replacement c. tube feedings d. avoidance of lactose-containing foods e. nutrient supplements

e

A patient with diabetes asks the nurse for ice cream. The nurse is aware that this will count as a carbohydrate portion, and the amount that equals one portion is: a. 1/3 cup. b. 1/4 cup. c. 2 cups. d. 1 cup. e. 1/2 cup.

e

A patient with fat malabsorption wants to use MCT oil with food preparation. Which suggestion is most appropriate when using MCT oil? a. MCT oil should only be used when frying foods. b. MCT oil has an unpleasant taste unless it is used on its own. c. MCT oil should replace all forms of oils and fats in the diet. d. MCT oil is cost effective and often cheaper than vegetable oil. e. MCT oil can be used when baking some foods.

e

An obese patient with type 2 diabetes wants to begin an exercise program. The nurse recommends that the patient: a. join a gym. b. start by walking 30 minutes a day. c. set a goal, such as training for a marathon. d. hire a personal trainer. e. seek a medical evaluation.

e

Assuming the GI tract is functioning normally, what is the most appropriate method for feeding patients who are unable to meet their nutritional needs orally? a. high-kcalorie, high-protein diet b. clear liquid diet c. intravenous feeding d. commercial supplement e. tube feeding

e

Beth is a 15-year-old, middle-class female who is extremely preoccupied with weight loss. She is dangerously thin, but still restricts food intake and considers herself to be too fat. Beth is most likely suffering from _____. a. bulimia nervosa b. relative energy deficit in sport (RED-S) c. binge eating disorder d. weight cycling e. anorexia nervosa

e

Cells actively maintain water amounts inside and outside the cell by pumping _____ into the cell and _____ out of the cell. a. sodium; calcium b. sodium; magnesium c. sodium; potassium d. potassium; magnesium e. potassium; sodium

e

Dennis Wilson is a 57-year-old chemical engineer who has had type 1 diabetes since he was 12 years old. He spent 34 years working in oil refineries, and he is a smoker. He is 5'11" tall and weighs 160 pounds. Over the past several years, he has experienced a gradual decline in kidney function. His GFR has declined to 27 mL/min per 1.73 m2. The primary goal(s) of medical nutrition therapy for Mr. Wilson at this time should be to: a. prevent osteoporosis. b. eliminate excess potassium from his diet. c. treat him for iron-deficiency anemia. d. lower his blood cholesterol levels. e. prevent PEM and weight loss.

e

Digestion of dietary fats _____. a. occurs primarily in the large intestine b. occurs primarily in the stomach c. involves the small intestine but not the pancreas d. results in triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols as end products e. requires bile and lipase

e

Enteral formulas that contain mostly intact proteins and polysaccharides are called _____. a. specialized formulas b. protein isolates c. elemental formulas d. blenderized formulas e. standard formulas

e

Excessive urine production is known as: a. polyphagia. b. ketonuria. c. polydipsia. d. glycosuria. e. polyuria.

e

Following gastric resection, the nurse understands the need to limit _____ in the patient's diet.​ a. ​dairy b. ​meat c. ​vegetables d. fiber​ e. ​sugar

e

Foods made from substances that are typically used in food preparation, but not consumed as foods themselves, are referred to as_______________. a. functional b. phytochemicals c. whole foods d. processed foods e. ultra-processed foods

e

Functions of the Healthy People Initiative include _____. a. coordinating nutrition-related activities of various federal agencies b. collecting data on the kinds and amounts of foods people eat c. examining individuals using nutrition assessment methods d. diagnosing and treating individuals' nutritional deficiencies e. guiding policies for health promotion and disease prevention

e

Grant is a 44-year-old patient who has been having difficulty eating his food while in the hospital. Which method should the clinician use that is most appropriate to encourage Grant to improve his food intake? a. Fill out the menu with foods the patient may like. b. Keep the patient's room dim and quiet during mealtimes. c. Encourage the patient to save the most appetizing foods for last. d. Help the patient to call a local restaurant to order take out. e. Suggest foods that require little effort to eat.

e

If a patient needs to gain weight, which strategy would you suggest? a. Increase lean meat consumption instead of peanut butter for protein. b. Eat the soup course before your main course. c. Decrease snacking in order to increase food consumption at meals. d. Drink water instead of juice. e. Consider weight lifting instead of running

e

In many bedridden, hospitalized individuals, the value obtained from _____ may be an accurate indicator of total energy needs without need for further adjustment. a. the resting metabolic rate b. the patient's height or length c. a growth chart d. the body mass index e. indirect calorimetry

e

Increased intake of vitamin C-rich foods may decrease the risk of which type of cancer? a. stomach cancer b. lung cancer c. liver cancer d. breast cancer e. esophageal cancer

e

Increased secretion of _____ in patients with chronic kidney disease helps to prevent elevations in serum phosphate but contributes to bone loss and renal osteodystrophy. a. erythropoietin b. renin c. vitamin D d. aldosterone e. parathyroid hormone

e

John Wilson is a 74-year-old retired schoolteacher. He is 5'8" tall and weighs 136 pounds. His wife died nine months ago. During a routine visit to the doctor, it was noted that his weight had decreased 21 pounds since his visit a year ago. Mr. Wilson does not have any medical problems, though he does report feeling depressed and lonely. The physician ordered a panel of lab tests including hemoglobin, hematocrit, and albumin, which all were low. ​ Mr. Wilson's low albumin level may indicate a depletion of: a. body fat. b. calcium. c. vitamin D. d. iron. e. body proteins.

e

Legumes include _____. a. winter squash b. artichokes c. Brussels sprouts d. mushrooms e. kidney beans

e

Most nutrients are absorbed in which compartment of the gastrointestinal tract? a. colon b. mouth c. stomach d. liver e. small intestine

e

Mr. Avery is a 77-year-old retired engineer. He is 5'10" tall and weighs 171 pounds. He suffered a stroke, which left him with left-sided paralysis, and he is having difficulty swallowing so he is unable to meet his nutritional needs via oral intake at this time. In the absence of any pre-existing medical problems or problems with digestion and absorption, the type of enteral formula that would be most appropriate for Mr. Avery is a(n): a. specialized formula. b. elemental formula. c. 3-in-1 solution. d. low-fiber formula. e. standard formula.

e

Mr. Avery is a 77-year-old retired engineer. He is 5'10" tall and weighs 171 pounds. He suffered a stroke, which left him with left-sided paralysis, and he is having difficulty swallowing so he is unable to meet his nutritional needs via oral intake at this time. Mr. Avery's swallowing ability and oral intake are improving. He is now consuming about 2/3 of his estimated nutrient needs from oral intake. It would be appropriate at this time to: a. include a vitamin-mineral supplement with the tube feeding. b. discontinue the parenteral feeding. c. decrease the rate of the parenteral feeding. d. increase the rate of the tube feeding. e. discontinue the tube feeding.

e

Mr. Avery is a 77-year-old retired engineer. He is 5'10" tall and weighs 171 pounds. He suffered a stroke, which left him with left-sided paralysis, and he is having difficulty swallowing so he is unable to meet his nutritional needs via oral intake at this time. Which form of nutrition support is appropriate for Mr. Avery at this time? ​ a. ​peripheral parenteral nutrition b. ​continuous parenteral nutrition c. ​cyclic parenteral nutrition d. ​oral enteral supplements e. ​tube feedings

e

Mrs. Harris suffers from hypertension and routinely has blood pressure levels greater than 150/90 mmHg. What lifestyle recommendation would be most appropriate to give to Mrs. Harris? a. Reduce body weight to maintain BMI <30. b. Adopt a diet that emphasizes protein intake through red meat. c. Consume no more than 3500 mg of sodium per day. d. Limit alcohol consumption to two drinks per day. e. Engage in moderate physical activity four days per week.

e

Nuts are significant sources of _____. a. fluoride b. iron c. selenium d. chromium e. manganese

e

Post Test 17: A patient who suffers from xerostomia should be given which suggestion to help manage dry mouth? a. Take frequent sips of coffee, tea, or soda. b. Consume foods with low fluid content. c. Increase the use of flavorings and salt with foods. d. Avoid bland or soft foods for meals. e. Chew sugarless gum to stimulate saliva.

e

Post Test 20: A lowering of blood pH that results from the excessive production of ketone bodies is known as _____. a. glycosuria b. gastroparesis c. ketonuria d. hyperglycemia e. ketoacidosis

e

Post Test 21: Most complications of atherosclerosis result from the deficiency of blood and oxygen within the tissue served by an obstructed artery, called _____. a. vasculitis b. aneurysm c. thrombocytopenia d. hyperlipidemia e. ischemia

e

Post Test 8: Which method of food handling will help minimize the loss of vitamins in foods? a. Wash raw fruits and vegetables after cutting. b. Cook vegetables in water rather than steaming them. c. Use high temperatures to cook your vegetables completely. d. Store fruits and vegetables at room temperature. e. Protect milk from light.

e

Prebiotics include some of the carbohydrates found in which foods? a. shellfish and tuna b. ice cream and milk c. oranges and lemons d. red meat and poultry e. leeks and onions

e

The best way to prevent the formation of kidney stones is to: a. minimize calcium intake. b. eat less meat. c. eat fewer oxalate-containing vegetables. d. add iron supplements to the diet. e. drink 12 to 16 cups of fluids per day.

e

The consumption of too much calcium will lead to an increased risk of _____. a. diarrhea b. hypertension c. vomiting d. diabetes e. constipation

e

The delivery of about 250 to 400 milliliters of formula over 30 to 45 minutes is an example of _____ feeding. a. cyclic b. continuous c. bolus d. routine e. intermittent

e

The drug warfarin is structurally similar to: a. vitamin D. b. vitamin C. c. vitamin E. d. vitamin A. e. vitamin K.

e

The function of low-density lipoprotein is to _____. a. increase the amount of low-density lipoproteins in the blood b. transport intact protein more easily through the blood c. carry lipids absorbed from foods to the liver d. move cholesterol from other body cells to the liver cells for breakdown e. carry cholesterol and triglycerides from the cells in the liver to other cells in the body

e

The liquefying process of digestion begins in the _____. a. small intestine b. large intestine c. gallbladder d. stomach e. mouth

e

The mode of action of antidiabetic drugs that are meglitinides is best described as _____. a. inhibiting liver glucose production b. increasing urinary glucose excretion c. suppressing glucagon secretion d. delaying stomach emptying e. stimulating insulin secretion by the pancreas

e

The nurse is reinforcing the dietitian's instructions for a post-gastrectomy diet. The nurse realizes the client understands his diet when he states that he should: a. eliminate meat and eggs. b. exclude decaffeinated coffee, tea, and artificially sweetened drinks. c. eliminate all dairy products. d. emphasize grains, fruits, and vegetables in his diet. e. limit the amount of sweets, such as colas, honey, and jam.

e

The nurse recognizes that a patient with peptic ulcer disease should avoid foods that may irritate the gastrointestinal lining, such as: a. yogurt, ice cream, and margarine. b. apples, broccoli, and sweet potatoes. c. eggs, spareribs, and cheese. d. tea, orange juice, and potato chips. e. alcohol, coffee, and spicy foods.

e

The physiological need to eat is referred to as _____, while _____ is the psychological desire to eat. a. appetite; hunger b. hunger; satiation c. satiation; appetite d. appetite; satiation e. hunger; appetite

e

The shape of a hemoglobin molecule can best be described as _____. a. a hollow ball b. stiff, sturdy, and rod-like c. ribbon-like d. circular e. globular

e

To best prevent gastric outlet syndrome following bariatric surgery, the patient would avoid which food? a. ice cream b. cottage cheese c. tuna d. bananas e. asparagus

e

To use the DRI equations to estimate a client's total energy expenditure, you will need your client's _____. a. height, weight, gender, and age b. gender, body temperature, age, weight, and height c. typical energy (kcal) intake, height, weight, age, and gender d. height, resting heart rate, age, and added sugar consumption e. age, gender, weight, height, and overall physical activity level

e

Unintentional weight gain can result from the use of: a. anticonvulsant medications. b. antihypertensive medications. c. antinausea medications. d. sedative medications. e. antidepressant medications.

e

Unripe bananas are considered what type of fiber? a. whole grain b. fermented fiber c. insoluble fiber d. viscous fiber e. resistant starch

e

Vitamin C toxicity symptoms include _____. a. liver damage b. calcium imbalance c. impaired glucose tolerance d. nerve degeneration e. diarrhea

e

What clinical sign is an indicator of good nutritional status? a. ​smooth tongue b. ​spoon-shaped nails c. rough skin​ d. ​lack of fat under the skin e. ​shiny hair

e

What is an advantage of using the 24-hour dietary recall as part of the nutrition assessment? a. The process does not rely on memory. b. The assessment represents the patient's usual intake. c. Seasonal variability does not affect results. d. The questionnaire is easy to follow. e. Results are obtained quickly.

e

What is an example of a food that has high tyramine content? a. cottage cheese b. green beans c. venison d. tuna e. beer

e

When checking laboratory values for electrolyte levels, the normal range for serum sodium should be between: a. 3.5 to 5.1 mEq/L. b. 98 to 106 mEq/L. c. 158 to 178 mEq/L. d. 7 to 35 mEq/L. e. 136 to 146 mEq/L.

e

Which B vitamin is deficient in beriberi, a disease characterized by the loss of sensation in the hands and feet? a. biotin b. folate c. niacin d. riboflavin e. thiamin

e

Which B vitamin is found in significant amounts in milk? a. thiamin b. folate c. biotin d. pantothenic acid e. riboflavin

e

Which diet is most likely to prevent or delay onset of type 2 diabetes? a. high-glycemic and high-fiber b. high-fat and low-carbohydrate c. low-fat and high-carbohydrate d. high-protein and high-glycemic e. low-glycemic and high-fiber

e

Which drug would most likely be prescribed for a patient following an ischemic stroke? a. nicotinic acid b. digoxin c. furosemide d. lisinopril e. warfarin

e

Which factor is LEAST likely to affect an individual's BMR? a. age b. fever c. pregnancy d. stress e. heart rate

e

Which food has the highest glycemic index? a. chickpeas b. apples c. sweet corn d. ice cream e. baked potato

e

Which food is an example of a source of high potassium per serving? a. cauliflower b. green pepper c. watermelon d. eggplant e. beets

e

Which food would most likely be included as part of a post-gastrectomy diet? a. hot dogs b. chocolate milk c. corn d. fruit juice e. beverages sweetened with artificial sweeteners

e

Which is a symptom of diabetes mellitus? a. mouth sores b. blurred vision c. high blood pressure d. hair loss e. frequent urination

e

Which nutrition recommendation should be given to a patient suffering from calcium oxalate kidney stones? a. Decrease intake of calcium-rich foods. b. Increase intake of fruits such as grapefruit, oranges, and pineapple. c. Follow a low-protein diet of less than 0.8 g/kg/body weight daily. d. Increase intake of foods that contain vitamin C. e. Limit sodium intake to no more than 2300 mg per day.

e

Which of the following does not provide energy? a. carbohydrates b. fats c. protein d. vegetables e. minerals

e

Which phrase is an example of a structure-function claim on a food label? a. "good source of fiber" b. "decreased sodium intake reduces the risk for hypertension" c. "cheese is rich in calcium" d. "adequate folate intake reduces the risk of neural tube defects" e. "promotes a healthy heart"

e

Which popular herb has commonly been used for relief of menopausal symptoms? a. echinacea b. ginger c. saw palmetto d. garlic e. black cohosh

e

Which set of values establishes an evidence-based goal for dietary intake that will meet the needs of almost all healthy people? a. Adequate Intakes (AI) b. Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) c. Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges (AMDR) d. Tolerable Upper Intake Levels (UL) e. Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)

e

Which statement about obesity is most accurate? a. All obese persons experience premature deaths. b. Obesity rates rose between 1998 and 2010 but then leveled off thanks to public health measures. c. Those who are obese are protected against social and economic discrimination. d. Those who are obese typically pay lower health insurance premiums. e. Obesity is second only to tobacco use as the most significant cause of preventable death in the United States.

e

Your client, Annie, follows a diet that includes eggs, but excludes meat, poultry, seafood, and milk products. Which term would best describe Annie? a. lacto-ovo vegetarian b. lacto-vegetarian c. macrobiotic vegetarian d. vegan e. ovo-vegetarian

e


Kaugnay na mga set ng pag-aaral

التحصيلي ( رياضيات ) ١

View Set

AT214 The Forearm, Wrist, Hand and Fingers Quiz

View Set

Physical Assessment SCENERIOS Chapter 2: Critical Thinking in Health Assessment

View Set

Community Exam 4 Bonus Questions

View Set