OB Quiz Questions
After delivery the nurse examines the umbilical cord and documents the cord is normal. This means the cord has a. Two arteries and one vein b. one artery and one vein c. two arteries and two veins d. one artery and two veins
a.
You are conducting a physical exam on a 28 weeks gestation infant 12 hours after delivery. The expected findings include: a. lanugo b. fused eyes c. chubby cheeks d. vernix caseosa covering body
a.
a fetus, 38 weeks gestation is diagnosed (small for gestational age)- SGA on ultrasound. Which of the following findings in the mothers history may be related to fetal diagnosis? a. mothers fundal height is 30cm b. mothers pregnancy weight Gian is 30 ibs c. mother has gestational diabetes d. mother has chronic HTN
d.
what factors would change during pregnancy if the hormone progesterone were reduced or withdrawn? a. hyperemesis gravidarum b. gingivitis and gum bleeding c. inhibition of prolactin hormone by pituitary gland d. increased peristalsis and uterine contractility
d.
which nursing action should take priority when caring for a client with suspected ectopic pregnancy? a. obtain surgical consent b. monitor VS c. provide emotional support d. administer O2
d.
a mother is experiencing nipple pain and discomfort while breast feeding. What should be the first priority in plan of care? a. allow mother to pump until nipples heal and bottle feed the breast milk to baby b. remove baby from breast and reposition c. provide a nipple shield to wear while feeding d. provide formula to baby until nipples are healed
b.
the common causes of postpartum bleeding include- SATA a. C section b. preterm labor c. retained placental tissues d. mulitparity e. multiple gestation
c. d. e.
a 38 week gestation client with. preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate and Pitocin IV for induction of labor. what is expected effect of magnesium sulfate on this client? a. she will be sedated b. she will experience seizures c. she will have no seizures d. she will have lower BP
C.
a nurse who is assessing a pregnant type 1 diabetic patient should monitor her for which of the following? SATA a. multiple gestation b. hypolipidemia c. metabolic acidosis d. maternal hypertension d. UTI
C. E.
a client has severe pre-eclampsia. The fetus of the client should be assessed for a. hypoprothrombinemia b. cardiac failure c. intrauterine growth restriction d. severe anemia
c. -large baby
The US has a high infant mortality rate and that preterm labor and deliver of low birth weight infants can be linked to the lack of prenatal care. The nurse suspects which of the following as a reason why many clients are unable to obtain prenatal care? a. prenatal care services and providers are not available in certain b. healthcare and other services are well coordinated for needy clients c. Many healthcare providers are willing to provide care in subsidized clinics d. all uninsured pregnant women are eligible for Medicaid
a.
The newborn nursery nurse is working with a client who is planning to place her infant for adoption. When considering the legal issues of this situation, rather than ethical aspects, the nurse should look to a. the rules and regulations b. motives, attitudes, and culture c. values and beliefs d. what is good for the individual
a.
the nurse is assessing the lab report oof a 40-week gestation client. Which of the following values would the nurse expect to find elevated pre-pregnancy levels? sata a. bilirubin b. glucose c. hematocrit d. WBC e. fibrinogen
d. e.
The nurse is providing single peri-menopausal woman with contraceptive counseling. The woman has four sex partners and smokes 1 pack of cigarettes a day. Which of the following methods is best suited for this client? a. male condom b. oral contraceptives c. NuvaRing d. intrauterine
a.
A client taking oral contraceptives pills calls the clinic and reports the presence of chest pain and SOB. The nurse should instruct the client to do which of the following? a. go tot eh nearest ER to be evaluated b. stop taking the pills and use a nonhormonal contraceptive method c. eat smaller meals more frequently to prevent gastric distension d. wait for the physician to return a telephone call to the client
a.
a client presents to ER with dark red vaginal bleeding, board-like abdomen and in severe pain. Symptoms are consistent with which of the following conditions? a. placental abruption b. placenta previa c. placenta accreta d. trophoblastic dx
a.
A 16 year old, G1P0000, is being seen at her 10-week gestation visit. She tells the nurse that she felt the baby move that morning. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate? a. " would you please let me see if i can feel the baby" b. "would you describe what you felt for me?" c. "That is very exciting. The baby must be very healthy" d "thats impossible. The baby is not big enough yet"
b.
Once oogenesis is complete, the resultant gamete cell contains how many chromosomes? a. 47 b. 23 c. 46 d. 45
b.
a client is receiving IV magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia. Which of the following assessment findings would make the nurse suspect that the client is developing hypermagnesmia? a. cool skin temp b. decrease patellar reflexes c. rapid pulse d. tingling in toes
b.
A client is asking you about potential complications of amniocentesis test. What is the response? a. there are no know complications of test b. if you cooperate during procedure by not moving, it should be safe c. you need to ask this question to. physician, as I. am not the one doing procedure d. there is a less than 1% chance that a complication could occur. Do you need to speak to the doctor again?
d.
A women is a carrier for Hemophilia A, an x-linked recessive illness. Her husband has normal genotype. The nurse can advise the couple that the probability of their daughter having the disease is: a. 75% b. 50% c. 25% d. 0%
d.
education related to prevention of preterm labor include.. SATA a. the need for C-section b. avoiding use of substances like cocaine and heroin c. screening lower genital tract for infections prior to 37 weeks d. the need for balanced nutrition e. avoid heavy lifting
b. c. d. e.
which of the following parameters are included in a biophysical profile? SATA a. fetal muscle tone b. fetal HR activity c. fetal measurement d. fetal body movement e. amniotic fluid volume
a. b. d. e.
a client is diagnosed to have category III fetal HR won tracing. The nursing actions include: sata a. administer O2 b. continue oxytocin if in use c. administer IV bolus fluids d. change maternal position e. continue to observe
a. c. d.
a client who is receiving epidural analgesia is given IV fluid bolus to? a. promote urine output b. prevent hypotension c. prevent oligohyramnios d. prevent respiratory depression
b.
A nurse is caring for a client with suspected abrupt placentae. Which of the following are considered risk factors for this condition? SATA a. blunt abdominal trauma b. smoking c.fetal position d. maternal age e. cocaine use
a. b. e.
a gravida G1 P0000 is having her first prenatal physical exam. Which of the following assessments will she have that day? SATA a. CBC b. Pap smear c. glucose tolerance test d. BPP e. mammogram
a. b.
a third trimester client is seen at the clinic for routine prenatal care. Which of the following assessments will the nurse perform during the visit? SATA A. BP B. fetal HR c. pelvic ultrasounf d. urine protein e. blood glucose
a. b. d.
a client is scheduled for an ultrasound at her first prenatal visit. She asks the nurse why she is having the test done. Which of the following is the appropriate answer? a. "The test will help determine how many weeks you've been pregnant" b. "the test will determine if your baby is in a good position for delivery c. "the test will predict the gender of your baby" d. "the test will determine if your baby has intrauterine growth restriction
a.
a postpartum mother complains of "afterpains" while breastfeeding her baby. The best nursing intervention would be. a. administer analgesic b. massage fundus c. gently asks her to stop feeding d. asses VS
a.
a primigravida client asks the nurse how much alcohol she is able to drink during her pregnancy. Which of the following is appropriate reply from nurse? a. "it is best to abstain from alcohol throughout pregnancy" b. "you can safely consume one or two drinks of alcohol per week" c. "you should limit your consumption to beer only" d. "the effects of small amounts of alcohol on the fetus are minimal"
a.
after delivering a large gestational age infant, the nurse notices bright red blood continuously trickling from clients vagina. Her fundus is from and midline. Nurse suspects bleeding is a cause of a. perineal lacerations b. retained fragments of conception c. hematoma d. uterine atony
a.
which of the following clients is at highest risk for developing a Hypertensive illness of pregnancy? a. G1, P0000, age 41 w history of DM b. G3, P1011, age 20 with history of celiac c. G3, P1102, age 38 with history of scoliosis d. G2, P0101, age 34 with history of rheumatic fever
a.
which of the following is an appropriate rational for nurses to communicate to clients to encourage them to attend childbirth education classes a. knowledge learned at child birth classes help reduce client fears b. mothers who attend childbirth education classes have shorter labors c. participants in childbirth education classes develop support groups after deliveries d, partners who attend childbirth education classes are allowed into delivery rooms
a.
A women has just completed her 1st trimester. Which of the fetal structures are well formed at this time? SATA a. kidneys b. genitals c. alveoli d. fingers e. hear
a. b d. e
you are providing breast feeding instructions to a postpartum client. To prevent breast engorgement you should instruct the client to SATA a. encourage her to breast feed her infant frequently b. teach breast feeding techniques soon after delivery and continue supprt c. wear a tight bra d. apply warm compresses if breast feel full e. alternate breast feeding with bottle feeding to rest breast
a. b. d.
The functions of amniotic fluid include? SATA a. the fluid enables the fetus to practice swallowing b. the fluid provides the fetus with a stable thermal environmental c. the fluid provides fetal nutrition d. the fluid enables the fetus to grow. e. the fluid cushions the fetus from injury
a. b. d. e.
during the postpartum period which of the following goals should the nurse include in the care plan in relation to the nursing diagnosis of "risk for intrauterine infection r/t vaginal delivery? a. the client will have stable WBC count b. the client will have a normal temp c. the client will drink sufficient quantities of fluid d. the client will have a normal smelling vaginal discharge e. the client will take 2-3 sitz baths daily
a. b. d.
a nurse is assessing a 38 week gestation gravid client. it has been 2 weeks since the clients last prenatal visit. The nurse should highlight which of the following findings for the clients primary healthcare practitioner? SATA a. dysuria b. decreased fundal height c. weight change from 146 Ib. to 158 Ib d. Orthopnea e. fetal Heart change from 156 to 148
a. c.
a nurse in a prenatal clinic is Caring for a client in her 1st trimester of pregnancy. The clients health record includes G3 T1 P0 A1 L1. This is interpreted as? SATA a. client has 1 living child b. client had 3 active labor c. client has had two prior pregnancies d. client has delivered one newborn at term e. client had no preterm Labor
a. c. d. e.
which of the following factors could delay uterine involution in a postpartum client? SATA a. grand mulitpara b. the use of epidural anesthesia c. prolonged labor d. distended bladder e. uterine infection
a. c. d. e.
the home care nurse is caring for a postpartum client and suspects the development of postpartum psychosis. Which client findings support the nurses judgement? SATA a. reports voices telling her baby is evil and must die b. is calm and seated and answers all questions c.is tearful without any identifiable reason d. unable to remember details of delivery or when she last fed baby e. has a history of bipolar disorder
a. d. e.
a new mother with mastitis is concerned about breast feeding her baby with her active infection. How will you respond to this mothers concern? a. mastitis is not an infection b. the organisms that cause mastitis is not passed in breast milk c. immunoglobins in the breast milk will protect the infant from getting the infection d. infant is protected from getting the infection as the gastric acid kills the organism
b.
a non-stress test is considered reactive when which oof the following occur? a. there is increase fetal movement b. there are two or more accelerations of 15 bpm lasting 15 secs long over a 20 min period c. there is one acceleration of 15 bpm lasting 20 secs over a 20 min period d. there is decreased fetal movement
b.
a pregnant client is undergoing non-stress test in her 3rd trimester. You explained the test to client. Which statement indicates a understanding of this test? a. This test can be done at home b. during the test I should push a button when I feel the baby move c. I will get an IV med to start contractions d. it will take 2 hours to complete test
b.
during ambulation to the bathroom, a postpartum client experiences a Gish of dark red blood that soon stops. On assessment, the nurse finds the uterus firm, midline and at level of umbilicus. The findings are? A. Indication of cervical or perineal laceration b. a normal postural discharge of lochia c. abnormally excessive loch rubra flow d. evidence of possible vaginal hematoma
b.
the nurse is assessing the uterine funds of a client 8 hours after C/S and finds it firm, round, 2cm above the umbilicus and displaced to right. Most appropriate intervention you should do is a. notify physician b. encourage client to empty bladder and reassess fundus c. massage fundus d. check the loch for excessive bleeding
b.
the nurse notes the presence of transient fetal HR accelerations on fetal monitoring strip. Which interventions would be most appropriate? a. reposition on left side b. document as normal pattern c. call physician d. begin 100% o2
b.
which activity would the nurse include in the teaching plan for parents with a newborn and older child to reduce sibling rivalry when newborn is brought home? a. punishing older child for bedwetting behavior b. planning a daily "special time" for older sibling c. allowing the sibling to share room with infant d. sending the sibling to grandparents house
b.
A nurse in an infertility clinic is providing care to clients who have been unable to conceive for 18 months. Which of the following data should the nurse assess? SATA a. history of falls b. menstrual hx c. occupation d. childhood infectious dx d. recent blood transfusions
b. c. d.
which finding would the nurse view as normal when evaluating lab reports of a 34-week gestation client? SATA a. polycythemia b. mild increase in fibrinogen c. thrombocytopenia d. mild anemia e. increase in WBC
b. c. d.
The nurse is providing counseling to a group of sexually active single women. Which of the following actions should the nurse suggest the woman take to protect their fertility for the future? SATA a. refrain from drinking carbonated bevs b. refrain from smoking c. Exercise in moderation d. maintain an appropriate weight for height e. use condoms during sex
b. c. d. e.
a postpartum unit nurse is discussing risk factors for UTI with a newly licensed nurse. which of the following conditions should the nurse include in her teaching? a. vaginal birth b. frequent pelvic exams c. urinary bladder catheterizations d. epidural anestheisa e. history of Otis
b. c. d. e.
a gravid woman is admitted to ER after an automobile accident. No injury noted externally. The nurse should monitor the woman for which of the complications of pregnancy? SATA a. transverse fetal lie b. severe pre-eclampsia c. placenta previa d. preterm labor e. placental abruption
b. d. e.
postpartum depression is on of the mood disorders found in many women. Which of the following clients would you consider to be at risk for postpartum depression? SATA a. has history of postpartum blues with previous pregnancy b. has history of depression with no supportive relationship c. is primipara living alone and was constantly ambivalent about her pregnancy d. is unmarried primipara with family support
b. c.
which of the following findings seen in a third trimester pregnancy woman would consider to be within normal limits? SATA a. fainting spells b. lordosis c. varicose veins d. leg cramps e. hemorrhoids
b. c. d. e.
Adverse effects of hormone therapy as contraceptive include. SATA a. gingival bleeding b. weight gain c. irregular vaginal d. tinnitus e. nausea
b. c. e.
a client at 33 weeks gestation has been diagnosed with mild preeclampsia and is on bed rest at home. The nurse instructs her to contact her primary care provider immediately if she experiences the following SATA a. constipation b. epigastric pain c. backache d. heart burn e. vision changes
b. e.
A pregnant client asks about the functions of the placenta. What information should the nurse include in the teaching plan. SATA a. The placenta filters urine b. substances are exchanged by the placenta without mixing maternal and fetal blood c. fetal and maternal blood mix in the placenta to exchange nutrients d. the fluid provide the fetus with a stable thermal environment e. fetal respiration, nutrition, and excretion are carried out by the placenta f. the placenta filters alcohol from the mothers blood
b. e. f.
A mother has just experienced quickening. Which of the following developmental changes would the nurse expect to occur at the same time in the woman's pregnancy? a. fetal heart. rate begins to beat b. kidneys secretes urine c. lanugo covers whole body d. alveoli starts to develop
c.
A women thinks she is pregnant and visits her obstetrician for confirmation of pregnancy. What are positive signs of pregnancy? a. positive heart beat, chawicks, positive urine drip test b. nausea/vomit, weight gain, uterine growth c. positive hR, visual of fetus, examiner feels mvoement d. uterine growth, fetal HR, cholasma e. linea nigra, positive urine dip test, verbalize quickening
c.
After teaching a group of students about fertilization, the instructor determines that the teaching was effective when the group identifies which as the usual site of fertilization? a. fundus of the uterus b. endometrium of uterus c. distal portion of fallopian tube d. follicular tissue of ovary
c.
The fetus recieves all oxygen and nutrients from mother through a. umbilical arteries b. amniotic sac c. umbilical vein d. aorta
c.
Which oof the hormone elevations will indicate a high probability that the client is pregnant? a. prolactin b. luteinizing hormone c. chronic gonadotropin d. oxytocin
c.
a client who is 41 weeks gestation just had a biophysical profile with a score of 2. What is the highest priority intervention at this time? a. recognize this as equivocal and have the mother come back tomorrow for a repeat b. tell the mother it indicates fetal feel-being c. contact physician immediately as there is a probable need for delivery d. schedule the mother for a repeat in 3 days
c.
assessment findings of C/S incision wound. of a client two days after delivery indicates the following red, edematous, and tender to touch. This best initial nursing action would be a. document findings b. check VS c. Notify physician d. clean incision site with Betadine and change dressing
c.
what signs of thrombophlebitis should a nurse include in her discharge teaching of a postpartum client? a. muscle soreness after exercise b. new areas of ecchymosis c. localized calf tenderness, heat, and swelling d. enlarging varicose veins in lower limbs
c.
which finding should the nurse expect when assessing a client with. placenta previa? a. severe headache b. previous premature delivery c. painless vaginal bleeding d. hx of pelvic inflammatory dx
c.
which of the following instructions does the nurse include in her client education to help women prevent contracting a toxoplasmosis infection during pregnancy? a. avoid eating soft cheese b. wash produce well c. avoid cleaning cat litter d. get vaccinated
c.
you are teaching potential mothers about complications of uncontrolled diabetes in a growing fetus. It will be accurate if you say a. hyperglycemia in early pregnancy can cause for large gestational baby b. hyperglycemia in early pregnancy can cause small gestational. baby c. hyperglycemia in early pregnancy can lead to congenital anomalies in baby d. hyperglycemia in early pregnancy can lead to maternal hypertension
c.
your client is receiving IV magnesium sulfate to stop premature labor. The most important nursing assessment to determine toxicity is? a. check I&O, LOC, and BP B. bp, pulse, and uterine activity c. deep tendon reflexes, hourly urine output, RR d. I&O, BP, Reflexes
c.
The nurse working in an outpatient clinic assesses four primigravida clients. Which of the client findings should the nurse highlight for the physician? SATA a. 37 weeks gestation, complaints of hemorrhoidal pain b. 27 weeks gestation, salivates excessively c. 34 weeks gestation, experiences uterine cramping d. 24 weeks gestation, fundal height at umbilicus e. 17 weeks gestation, Denies feeling of fetal movement
c. d.
a pregnant client with a history of placenta previa is admitted to L & D at 39 weeks of gestation. Which orders will you question the physician as inappropriate? SATA a. monitor for vaginal bleed b. monitor fetal HR c. Start Pitocin drip d. check dilation and effacement by vaginal exam e. check vital signs
c. d.
A nurse discusses teratogens with a client. during prenatal counseling. The client demonstrates understanding by making which statement? a. "i should stop taking meds while i am pregnant" b. "the fetus is at greatest risk for developing anomalies during first 16 weeks of pregnancy" c. "after 12 weeks the placenta protects the fetus from teratogens" D. " exposure to teratogens poses the greatest risk during first 8 weeks"
d.
A nursing student who is. pregnant asks the antenatal nurse why childbearing is considered a developmental crisis for family. What should be included in the response by nurse? a. it is an abnormal experience in the process of growth and development b. the family had already mastered the tasks of this maturational stage c. it is a stressful, unexpected event caused by external factors d. it is a period of physical, psychological and social change causing a sense of disorganization
d.
Four clients are scheduled for amniocentesis. For which of the following clients would the nurse question the procedure? a. 29 yO who had low serum level of AFP b. 40 yo old primigravida c. 30 yo who. gave birth to an infant trisomy 18 2 yrs ago d. 35 yo who is HIV +
d.
The nurse knows that severe preeclampsia is suspected when a. BP is 130/80 and proteinuria is +1 or +2 b. BP is 140/90 and proteinuria is +3 or +4 c. BP is 100/70 and proteinuria is +3 or +4 d. BP is 160/110 and proteinuria is +3 and +4
d.
a client has completed a home pregnancy test with positive results. Which client statement indicates that she understands the meaning of test results? a. "I understand that I have ovulated in the past 24 hours" b. "I understand that this means I am pregnant" c. "I understand that this means I am not pregnant" d. I understand that this means I might be pregnant"
d.
a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation tells the nurse that she is not sure she is happy about being pregnant. Which of the following responses should the nurse make? a. "I will inform the provider that you are having these feelings" b. "you should be happy that you are going to bring a new life into the world" c. "I am going to make an appt with the counselor for you to discuss these thoughts" d. "it is normal to have these feelings during the first few months"
d.