ob test 3

A postpartum woman who developed deep vein thrombosis is being discharged on anticoagulant therapy. After teaching the woman about this treatment, the nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the woman states which of the following? A) "I will use a soft toothbrush to brush my teeth." B) "I can take ibuprofen if I have any pain." C) "I need to avoid drinking any alcohol." D) "I will call my health care provider if my stools are black and tarry.

" Ans: B Feedback: Individuals receiving anticoagulant therapy need to avoid use of any over-the-counter products containing aspirin or aspirin-like derivatives such as NSAIDs (ibuprofen) to reduce the risk for bleeding. Using a soft toothbrush and avoiding alcohol are appropriate measures to reduce the risk for bleeding. Black, tarry stools should be reported to the health care provider.

A postpartum woman is ordered to receive oxytocin to stimulate the uterus to contract. Which of the following would be most important for the nurse to do? A) Administer the drug as an IV bolus injection. B) Give as a vaginal or rectal suppository. C) Piggyback the IV infusion into a primary line. D) Withhold the drug if the woman is hypertensive

. Ans: C Feedback: When giving oxytocin, it should be diluted in a liter of IV solution and the infusion set up to be piggy-backed into a primary line to ensure that the medication can be discontinued readily if hyperstimulation or adverse effects occur. It should never be given as an IV bolus injection. Methylergonovine is not given if the woman is hypertensive. Dinoprostone is available as a vaginal or rectal suppository.

A postpartum woman is diagnosed with metritis. The nurse interprets this as an infection involving which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A) Endometrium B) Decidua C) Myometrium D) Broad ligament E) Ovaries F) Fallopian tubes

Ans: A, B, C Feedback: Metritis is an infectious condition that involves the endometrium, decidua, and adjacent myometrium of the uterus. Extension of metritis can result in parametritis, which involves the broad ligament and possibly the ovaries and fallopian tubes, or septic pelvic thrombophlebitis,

Assessment of a newborn reveals a heart rate of 180 beats/minute. To determine whether this finding is a common variation rather than a sign of distress, what else does the nurse need to know? A) How many hours old is this newborn? B) How long ago did this newborn eat? C) What was the newborn's birth weight? D) Is acrocyanosis present?

Ans: A The typical heart rate of a newborn ranges from 120 to 160 beats per minute with wide fluctuation during activity and sleep. Typically heart rate is assessed every 30 minutes until stable for 2 hours after birth. The time of the newborn's last feeding and his birth weight would have no effect on his heart rate. Acrocyanosis is a common normal finding in newborns.

A postpartum woman who is breast-feeding tells the nurse that she is experiencing nipple pain. Which of the following would be least appropriate for the nurse to suggest? A) Use of a mild analgesic about 1 hour before breast-feeding B) Application of expressed breast milk to the nipples C) Application of glycerin-based gel to the nipples D) Reinstruction about proper latching-on technique

Ans: A Nipple pain is difficult to treat, although a wide variety of topical creams, ointments, and gels are available to do so. This group includes beeswax, glycerin-based products, petrolatum, lanolin, and hydrogel products. Many women find these products comforting. Beeswax, glycerin-based products, and petrolatum all need to be removed before breast-feeding. These products should be avoided in order to limit infant exposure because the process of removal may increase nipple irritation. Mild analgesics such as acetaminophen or ibuprofen are considered relatively safe for breast-feeding mothers. Applying expressed breast milk to nipples and allowing it to dry has been suggested to reduce nipple pain. Usually the pain is due to incorrect latch-on and/or removal of the nursing infant from the breast. Early assistance with breast-feeding to ensure correct positioning can help prevent nipple trauma. In addition, applying expressed milk to nipples and allowing it to dry has been suggested to result in less nipple pain for many women.

When developing the plan of care for the parents of a newborn, the nurse identifies interventions to promote bonding and attachment based on the rationale that bonding and attachment are most supported by which measure? A) Early parent-infant contact following birth B) Expert medical care for the labor and birth C) Good nutrition and prenatal care during pregnancy D) Grandparent involvement in infant care after birth

Ans: A Optimal bonding requires a period of close contact between the parents and newborn within the first few minutes to a few hours after birth. Expert medical care, nutrition and prenatal care, and grandparent involvement are not associated with the promotion of bonding.

After reviewing information about postpartum blues, a group of students demonstrate understanding when they state which of the following about this condition? A) "Postpartum blues is a long-term emotional disturbance." B) "Sleep usually helps to resolve the blues." C) "The mother loses contact with reality." D) "Extended psychotherapy is needed for treatment."

Ans: A Postpartum blues are transient emotional disturbances beginning in the first week after childbirth and are characterized by anxiety, irritability, insomnia, crying, loss of appetite, and sadness (Hanley, 2010). These symptoms typically begin 3 to 4 days after childbirth and resolve by day 8 (Mattson & Smith, 2011). These mood swings may be confusing to new mothers but usually are self-limiting. The blues typically resolves with restorative sleep. Postpartum blues are thought to affect up to 75% of all new mothers; this condition is the mildest form of emotional disturbance associated with childbearing (March of Dimes, 2011). The mother maintains contact with reality consistently and symptoms tend to resolve spontaneously without therapy within 1 to 2 weeks.

A woman who is 12 hours postpartum had a pulse rate around 80 beats per minute during pregnancy. Now, the nurse finds a pulse of 60 beats per minute. Which of these actions should the nurse take? A) Document the finding, as it is a normal finding at this time. B) Contact the physician, as it indicates early DIC. C) Contact the physician, as it is a first sign of postpartum eclampsia. D) Obtain an order for a CBC, as it suggests postpartum anemia.

Ans: A Pulse rates of 40 to 80 beats per minute (bmp) are normal during the first week after birth. This pulse rate is called puerperal bradycardia. During pregnancy, the heavy gravid uterus causes a decreased flow of venous blood to the heart. After giving birth, there is an increase in intravascular volume. The cardiac output is most likely caused by an increased stroke volume from the venous return now. The elevated stroke volume leads to a decreased heart rate.

The nurse strokes the lateral sole of the newborn's foot from the heel to the ball of the foot when evaluating which reflex? A) Babinski B) Tonic neck C) Stepping D) Plantar grasp

Ans: A The Babinski reflex is elicited by stroking the lateral sole of the newborn's foot from the heel toward and across the ball of the foot. The tonic neck reflex is tested by having the newborn lie on his back and then turn his head to one side. The stepping reflex is elicited by holding the newborn upright and inclined forward with the soles of the feet on a flat surface. The plantar grasp reflex is elicited by placing a finger against the area just below the newborn's toes.

When assessing a newborn 1 hour after birth, the nurse measures an axillary temperature of 95.8° F, an apical pulse of 114 beats/minute, and a respiratory rate of 60 breaths/minute. Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority? A) Hypothermia related to heat loss during birthing process B) Impaired parenting related to addition of new family member C) Risk for deficient fluid volume related to insensible fluid loss D) Risk for infection related to transition to extrauterine environment

Ans: A The newborn's heart rate is slightly below the accepted range of 120 to 160 beats/minute; the respiratory rate is at the high end of the accepted range of 30 to 60 breaths per minute. However, the newborn's temperature is significantly below the accepted range of 97.7 to 99.5° F. Therefore, the priority nursing diagnosis is hypothermia. There is no information to suggest impaired parenting. Additional information is needed to determine if there is a risk for deficient fluid volume or a risk for infection.

While changing a female newborn's diaper, the nurse observes a mucus-like, slightly bloody vaginal discharge. Which of the following would the nurse do next? A) Document this as pseudomenstruation B) Notify the practitioner immediately C) Obtain a culture of the discharge D) Inspect for engorgement

Ans: A The nurse should assess pseudomenstruation, a vaginal discharge composed of mucus mixed with blood, which may be present during the first few weeks of life. This discharge requires no treatment. The discharge is a normal finding and thus does not need to be reported immediately. It is not an indication of infection. The female genitalia normally will be engorged, so assessing for engorgement is not indicated.

The nurse is inspecting the external genitalia of a male newborn. Which of the following would alert the nurse to a possible problem? A) Limited rugae B) Large scrotum C) Palpable testes in scrotal sac D) Absence of engorgement

Ans: A The scrotum usually appears relatively large and should be pink in white neonates and dark brown in neonates of color. Rugae should be well formed and should cover the scrotal sac. There should not be bulging, edema, or discoloration. Testes should be palpable in the scrotal sac and feel firm and smooth and be of equal size on both sides of the scrotal sac.

The nurse is assisting a postpartum woman out of bed to the bathroom for a sitz bath. Which of the following would be a priority? A) Placing the call light within her reach B) Teaching her how the sitz bath works C) Telling her to use the sitz bath for 30 minutes D) Cleaning the perineum with the peri-bottle

Ans: A Tremendous hemodynamic changes are taking place within the woman, and safety must be a priority. Therefore, the nurse makes sure that the emergency call light is within her reach should she become dizzy or lightheaded. Teaching her how to use the sitz bath, including using it for 15 to 20 minutes, is appropriate but can be done once the woman's safety is ensured. The woman should clean her perineum with a peri-bottle before using the sitz bath, but this can be done once the woman's safety needs are met.

Prior to discharging a 24-hour-old newborn, the nurse assesses her respiratory status. Which of the following would the nurse expect to assess? A) Respiratory rate 45, irregular B) Costal breathing pattern C) Nasal flaring, rate 65 D) Crackles on auscultation

Ans: A Typically, respirations in a 24-hour-old newborn are symmetric, slightly irregular, shallow, and unlabored at a rate of 30 to 60 breaths/minute. The breathing pattern is primarily diaphragmatic. Nasal flaring, rates above 60 breaths per minute, and crackles suggest a problem.

A client experienced prolonged labor with prolonged premature rupture of membranes. The nurse would be alert for which of the following in the mother and the newborn? A) Infection B) Hemorrhage C) Trauma D) Hypovolemia

Ans: A Feedback: Although hemorrhage, trauma, and hypovolemia may be problems, the prolonged labor with the premature rupture of membranes places the client at high risk for a postpartum infection. The rupture of membranes removes the barrier of amniotic fluid so bacteria can ascend.

After teaching the parents of a newborn with retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) about the disorder and treatment, which statement by the parents indicates that the teaching was successful? A) "Can we schedule follow-up eye examinations with the pediatric ophthalmologist now?" B) "We can fix the problem with surgery." C) "We'll make sure to administer eye drops each day for the next few weeks." D) "I'm sure the baby will grow out of it."

Ans: A Feedback: Parents of a newborn with suspected retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) should schedule follow-up vision screenings with a pediatric ophthalmologist every 2 to 3 weeks, depending on the severity of the findings at the initial examination.

A nurse suspects that a postpartum client is experiencing postpartum psychosis. Which of the following would most likely lead the nurse to suspect this condition? A) Delirium B) Feelings of anxiety C) Sadness D) Insomnia

Ans: A Feedback: Postpartum psychosis is at the severe end of the continuum of postpartum emotional disorders. It is manifested by depression that escalates to delirium, hallucinations, anger toward self and infant, bizarre behavior, mania, and thoughts of hurting herself and the infant. Feelings of anxiety, sadness, and insomnia are associated with postpartum depression.

A multipara client develops thrombophlebitis after delivery. Which of the following would alert the nurse to the need for immediate intervention? A) Dyspnea, diaphoresis, hypotension, and chest pain B) Dyspnea, bradycardia, hypertension, and confusion C) Weakness, anorexia, change in level of consciousness, and coma D) Pallor, tachycardia, seizures, and jaundice

Ans: A Feedback: Sudden unexplained shortness of breath and complaints of chest pain along with diaphoresis and hypotension suggest pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate action. Other signs and symptoms include tachycardia, apprehension, hemoptysis, syncope, and sudden change in the woman's mental status secondary to hypoxemia. Anorexia, seizures, and jaundice are unrelated to a pulmonary embolism.

While reviewing a newborn's medical record, the nurse notes that the chest x-ray shows a ground glass pattern. The nurse interprets this as indicative of: A) Respiratory distress syndrome B) Transient tachypnea of the newborn C) Asphyxia D) Persistent pulmonary hypertension

Ans: A Feedback: The chest x-ray of a newborn with RDS reveals a reticular (ground glass) pattern. For TTN, the chest x-ray shows lung overaeration and prominent perihilar interstitial markings and streakings. A chest x-ray for asphyxia would reveal possible structural abnormalities that might interfere with respiration, but the results are highly variable. An echocardiogram would be done to evaluate persistent pulmonary hypertension.

When assessing the postpartum woman, the nurse uses indicators other than pulse rate and blood pressure for postpartum hemorrhage based on the knowledge that: A) These measurements may not change until after the blood loss is large B) The body's compensatory mechanisms activate and prevent any changes C) They relate more to change in condition than to the amount of blood lost D) Maternal anxiety adversely affects these vital signs

Ans: A Feedback: The typical signs of hemorrhage do not appear in the postpartum woman until as much as 1,800 to 2,100 mL of blood has been lost. In addition, accurate determination of actual blood loss is difficult because of blood pooling inside the uterus and on perineal pads, mattresses, and the floor.

Assessment of a postpartum client reveals a firm uterus with bright-red bleeding and a localized bluish bulging area just under the skin at the perineum. The woman also is complaining of significant pelvic pain and is experiencing problems with voiding. The nurse suspects which of the following? A) Hematoma B) Laceration C) Bladder distention D) Uterine atony

Ans: A Feedback: The woman most likely has a hematoma based on the findings: firm uterus with bright-red bleeding; localized bluish bulging area just under the skin surface in the perineal area; severe perineal or pelvic pain; and difficulty voiding. A laceration would involve a firm uterus with a steady stream or trickle of unclotted bright-red blood in the perineum. Bladder distention would be palpable along with a soft, boggy uterus that deviates from the midline. Uterine atony would be noted by an uncontracted uterus.

Which action would be most appropriate for the nurse to take when a newborn has an unexpected anomaly at birth? A) Show the newborn to the parents as soon as possible while explaining the defect. B) Remove the newborn from the birthing area immediately. C) Inform the parents that there is nothing wrong at the moment. D) Tell the parents that the newborn must go to the nursery immediately.

Ans: A Feedback: When an anomaly is identified at or after birth, parents need to be informed promptly and given a realistic appraisal of the severity of the condition, the prognosis, and treatment options so that they can participate in all decisions concerning their child. Removing the newborn from the area or telling them that the newborn needs to go to the nursery immediately is inappropriate and would only add to the parents' anxieties and fears. Telling them that nothing is wrong is inappropriate because it violates their right to know.

After teaching a group of nursing students about variations in newborn head size and appearance, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following as a normal variation? (Select all that apply.) A) Cephalhematoma B) Molding C) Closed fontanels D) Caput succedaneum E) Posterior fontanel diameter 1.5 cm

Ans: A, B, D Normal variations in newborn head size and appearance include cephalhematoma, molding, and caput succedaneum. Microcephaly, closed fontanels, or a posterior fontanel diameter greater than 1 cm are considered abnormal.

A group of students are reviewing risk factors associated with postpartum hemorrhage. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which of the following as associated with uterine tone? (Select all that apply.) A) Rapid labor B) Retained blood clots C) Hydramnios D) Operative birth E) Fetal malposition

Ans: A, C Feedback: Risk factors associated with uterine tone include hydramnios, rapid or prolonged labor, oxytocin use, maternal fever, or prolonged rupture of membranes. Retained blood clots are a risk factor associated with tissue retained in the uterus. Fetal malposition and operative birth are risk factors associated with trauma of the genital tract.

The nurse is developing a discharge teaching plan for a postpartum woman who has developed a postpartum infection. Which of the following would the nurse most likely include in this teaching plan? (Select all that apply.) A) Taking the prescribed antibiotic until it is finished B) Checking temperature once a week C) Washing hands before and after perineal care D) Handling perineal pads by the edges E) Directing peribottle to flow from back to front

Ans: A, C, D Feedback: Teaching should address taking the prescribed antibiotic until finished to ensure complete eradication of the infection; checking temperature daily and notifying the practitioner if it is above 100.4° F; washing hands thoroughly before and after eating, using the bathroom, touching the perineal area, or providing newborn care; handling perineal pads by the edges and avoiding touching the inner aspect of the pad that is against the body; and directing peribottle so that it flows from front to back.

Assessment of a postpartum woman experiencing postpartum hemorrhage reveals mild shock. Which of the following would the nurse expect to assess? (Select all that apply.) A) Diaphoresis B) Tachycardia C) Oliguria D) Cool extremities E) Confusion

Ans: A, D Feedback: Signs and symptoms of mild shock include diaphoresis, increased capillary refill, cool extremities, and maternal anxiety. Tachycardia and oliguria suggest moderate shock. Confusion suggests severe shock

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a postpartum client. The nurse identifies that the woman is at risk for a postpartum infection based on which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A) History of diabetes B) Labor of 12 hours C) Rupture of membranes for 16 hours D) Hemoglobin level 10 mg/dL E) Placenta requiring manual extraction

Ans: A, D, E Risk factors for postpartum infection include history of diabetes, labor over 24 hours, hemoglobin less than 10.5 mg/dL, prolonged rupture of membranes (more than 24 hours), and manual extraction of the placenta.

A home health care nurse is assessing a postpartum woman who was discharged 2 days ago. The woman tells the nurse that she has a low-grade fever and feels "lousy." Which of the following findings would lead the nurse to suspect metritis? (Select all that apply.) A) Lower abdominal tenderness B) Urgency C) Flank pain D) Breast tenderness E) Anorexia

Ans: A, E Feedback: Manifestations of metritis include lower abdominal tenderness or pain on one or both sides, elevated temperature, foul-smelling lochia, anorexia, nausea, fatigue and lethargy, leukocytosis and elevated sedimentation rate. Urgency and flank pain would suggest a urinary tract infection. Breast tenderness may be related to engorgement or suggest mastitis.

Assessment of a newborn reveals uneven gluteal (buttocks) skin creases and a "clunk" when Ortolani's maneuver is performed. Which of the following would the nurse suspect? A) Slipping of the periosteal joint B) Developmental hip dysplasia C) Normal newborn variation D) Overriding of the pelvic bone

Ans: B A "clunk" indicates the femoral head hitting the acetabulum as the head reenters the area. This, along with uneven gluteal creases, suggests developmental hip dysplasia. These findings are not a normal variation and are not associated with slipping of the periosteal joint or overriding of the pelvic bone.

Just after delivery, a newborn's axillary temperature is 94° C. What action would be most appropriate? A) Assess the newborn's gestational age. B) Rewarm the newborn gradually. C) Observe the newborn every hour. D) Notify the physician if the temperature goes lower.

Ans: B A newborn's temperature is typically maintained at 36.5 to 37.5° C (97.7 to 99.7° F). Since this newborn's temperature is significantly lower, the nurse should institute measures to rewarm the newborn gradually. Assessment of gestational age is completed regardless of the newborn's temperature. Observation would be inappropriate because lack of action may lead to a further lowering of the temperature. The nurse should notify the physician of the newborn's current temperature since it is outside normal parameters.

A nurse is working as part of a committee to establish policies to promote bonding and attachment. Which practice would be least effective in achieving this goal? A) Allowing unlimited visiting hours on maternity units B) Offering round-the-clock nursery care for all infants C) Promoting rooming-in D) Encouraging infant contact immediately after birth

Ans: B Factors that can affect attachment include separation of the infant and parents for long times during the day, such as if the infant was being cared for in the nursery throughout the day. Unlimited visiting hours, rooming-in, and infant contact immediately after birth promote bonding and attachment.

29. Assessment of a newborn reveals transient tachypnea. The nurse reviews the newborn's medical record. Which of the following would the nurse be least likely to identify as a risk factor for this condition? A) Cesarean birth B) Shortened labor C) Central nervous system depressant during labor D) Maternal asthma

Ans: B Feedback: Transient tachypnea of the newborn occurs when the fetal liquid in the lungs is removed slowly or incompletely. This can be due to the lack of thoracic squeezing that occurs during a cesarean birth or diminished respiratory effort if the mother received central nervous system depressant medication. Prolonged labor, macrosomia of the fetus and maternal asthma also have been associated with this condition.

After a normal labor and birth, a client is discharged from the hospital 12 hours later. When the community health nurse makes a home visit 2 days later, which finding would alert the nurse to the need for further intervention? A) Presence of lochia serosa B) Frequent scant voiding C) Fundus firm, below umbilicus D) Milk filling in both breasts

Ans: B Infrequent or insufficient voiding may be a sign of infection and is not a normal finding on the second postpartum day. Lochia serosa, a firm fundus below the umbilicus, and milk filling the breasts are expected findings.

During a physical assessment of a newborn, the nurse observes bluish markings across the newborn's lower back. The nurse documents this finding as which of the following? A) Milia B) Mongolian spots C) Stork bites D) Birth trauma

Ans: B Mongolian spots are blue or purple splotches that appear on the lower back and buttocks of newborns. Milia are unopened sebaceous glands frequently found on a newborn's nose. Stork bites are superficial vascular areas found on the nape of the neck and eyelids and between the eyes and upper lip. Birth trauma would be manifested by bruising, swelling, and possible deformity.

Which statement would alert the nurse to the potential for impaired bonding between mother and newborn? A) "You have your daddy's eyes." B) "He looks like a frog to me." C) "Where did you get all that hair?" D) "He seems to sleep a lot."

Ans: B Negative comments may indicate impaired bonding. Pointing out commonalities such as "daddy's eyes" and expressing pride such as "all that hair" are positive attachment behaviors. The statement about sleeping a lot indicates that the mother is assigning meaning to the newborn's actions, another positive attachment behavior.

A nurse is teaching new parents about bathing their newborn. The nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the parents state which of the following? A) "We can put a tiny bit of lotion on his skin and then rub it in gently." B) "We should avoid using any kind of baby powder." C) "We need to bathe him at least four to five times a week." D) "We should clean his eyes after washing his face and hair."

Ans: B Powders should not be used because they can be inhaled, causing respiratory distress. If the parents want to use oils and lotions, have them apply a small amount onto their hand first, away from the newborn; this warms the lotion. Then the parents should apply the lotion or oil sparingly. Parents need to be instructed that a bath two or three times weekly is sufficient for the first year because too frequent bathing may dry the skin. The eyes are cleaned first and only with plain water; then the rest of the face is cleaned with plain water.

The nurse is assessing a postpartum client's lochia and finds that there is about a 4-inch stain on the perineal pad. The nurse documents this finding as which of the following? A) Scant B) Light C) Moderate D) Large

Ans: B The amount of lochia is described as light or small for an approximately 4-inch stain. Scant refers to a 1- to 2-inch stain of lochia; moderate refers to a 4- to 6-inch stain; and large or heavy refers to a pad that is saturated within 1 hour after changing.

A nurse is teaching a postpartum client and her partner about caring for their newborn's umbilical cord site. Which statement by the parents indicates a need for additional teaching? A) "We can put him in the tub to bathe him once the cord falls off and is healed." B) "The cord stump should change from brown to yellow." C) "Exposing the stump to the air helps it to dry." D) "We need to call the doctor if we notice a funny odor."

Ans: B The cord stump should change color from yellow to brown or black. Therefore the parents need additional teaching if they state the color changes from brown to yellow. Tub baths are avoided until the cord has fallen off and the area is healed. Exposing the stump to the air helps it to dry. The parents should notify their primary care provider if there is any bleeding, redness, drainage, or foul odor from the cord stump.

A nurse is observing a postpartum client interacting with her newborn and notes that the mother is engaging with the newborn in the en face position. Which of the following would the nurse be observing? A) Mother placing the newborn next to bare breast. B) Mother making eye-to-eye contact with the newborn C) Mother gently stroking the newborn's face D) Mother holding the newborn upright at the shoulder

Ans: B The en face position is characterized by the mother interacting with the newborn through eye-to-eye contact while holding the newborn.

Assessment of a newborn's head circumference reveals that it is 34 cm. The nurse would suspect that this newborn's chest circumference would be: A) 30 cm B) 32 cm C) 34 cm D) 36 cm

Ans: B The newborn's chest should be round, symmetric, and 2 to 3 cm smaller than the head circumference. Therefore, this newborn's chest circumference would be 31 to 32 cm to be normal.

When making a home visit, the nurse observes a newborn sleeping on his back in a bassinet. In one corner of the bassinet is a soft stuffed animal and at the other end is a bulb syringe. The nurse determines that the mother needs additional teaching because of which of the following? A) The newborn should not be sleeping on his back. B) Stuffed animals should not be in areas where infants sleep. C) The bulb syringe should not be kept in the bassinet. D) This newborn should be sleeping in a crib.

Ans: B The nurse should instruct the mother to remove all fluffy bedding, quilts, stuffed animals, and pillows from the crib to prevent suffocation. Newborns and infants should be placed on their backs to sleep. Having the bulb syringe nearby in the bassinet is appropriate. Although a crib is the safest sleeping location, a bassinet is appropriate initially.

The nurse is auscultating a newborn's heart and places the stethoscope at the point of maximal impulse at which location? A) Just superior to the nipple, at the midsternum B) Lateral to the midclavicular line at the fourth intercostal space C) At the fifth intercostal space to the left of the sternum D) Directly adjacent to the sternum at the second intercostals space

Ans: B The point of maximal impulse (PMI) in a newborn is a lateral to midclavicular line located at the fourth intercostal space.

The nurse administers RhoGAM to an Rh-negative client after delivery of an Rh-positive newborn based on the understanding that this drug will prevent her from: A) Becoming Rh positive B) Developing Rh sensitivity C) Developing AB antigens in her blood D) Becoming pregnant with an Rh-positive fetus

Ans: B The woman who is Rh-negative and whose infant is Rh-positive should be given Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) within 72 hours after childbirth to prevent sensitization.

After teaching a postpartum woman about breast-feeding, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the woman states which of the following? A) "I should notice a decrease in abdominal cramping during breast-feeding." B) "I should wash my hands before starting to breast-feed." C) "The baby can be awake or sleepy when I start to feed him." D) "The baby's mouth will open up once I put him to my breast."

Ans: B To promote successful breast-feeding, the mother should wash her hands before breast feeding, and make sure that the baby is awake and alert and showing hunger signs. In addition, the mother should lightly tickle the infant's upper lip with her nipple to stimulate the infant to open the mouth wide and then bring the infant rapidly to the breast with a wide-open mouth. The mother also needs to know that her afterpains will increase during breast-feeding.

After presenting a class on measures to prevent postpartum hemorrhage, the presenter determines that the teaching was successful when the class states which of the following as an important measure to prevent postpartum hemorrhage due to retained placental fragments? A) Administering broad-spectrum antibiotics B) Inspecting the placenta after delivery for intactness C) Manually removing the placenta at delivery D) Applying pressure to the umbilical cord to remove the placenta

Ans: B Feedback: After birth, a thorough inspection of the placenta is necessary to confirm its intactness because tears or fragments left inside may indicate an accessory lobe or placenta accreta. These can lead to profuse hemorrhage because the uterus is unable to contract fully. Administering antibiotics would be appropriate for preventing infection, not postpartum hemorrhage. Manual removal of the placenta or excessive traction on the umbilical cord can lead to uterine inversion, which in turn would result in hemorrhage.

The parents of a newborn become concerned when they notice that their baby seems to stop breathing for a few seconds. After confirming the parents' findings by observing the newborn, which of the following actions would be most appropriate? A) Notify the health care provider immediately. B) Assess the newborn for signs of respiratory distress. C) Reassure the parents that this is an expected pattern. D) Tell the parents not to worry since his color is fine.

Ans: B Feedback: Although periods of apnea of less than 20 seconds can occur, the nurse needs to gather additional information about the newborn's respiratory status to determine if this finding is indicative of a developing problem. Therefore, the nurse would need to assess for signs of respiratory distress. Once this information is obtained, then the nurse can notify the health care provider or explain that this finding is an expected one. However, it would be inappropriate to tell the parents not to worry, because additional information is needed. Also, telling them not to worry ignores their feelings and is not therapeutic.

A newborn has an Apgar score of 6 at 5 minutes. Which of the following is the priority? A) Initiating IV fluid therapy B) Beginning resuscitative measures C) Promoting kangaroo care D) Obtaining a blood culture

Ans: B Feedback: An Apgar score below 7 at 1 or 5 minutes indicates the need for resuscitation. Intravenous fluid therapy and blood cultures may be done once resuscitation is started. Kangaroo care would be appropriate once the newborn is stable.

Which of the following would the nurse include in the plan of care for a newborn receiving phototherapy? A) Keeping the newborn in the supine position B) Covering the newborn's eyes while under the bililights C) Ensuring that the newborn is covered or clothed D) Reducing the amount of fluid intake to 8 ounces daily

Ans: B Feedback: During phototherapy, the newborn's eyes are covered to protect them from the lights. The newborn is turned every 2 hours to expose all areas of the body to the lights and is kept undressed, except for the diaper area, to provide maximum body exposure to the lights. Fluid intake is increased to allow for added fluid, protein, and calories.

The nurse prepares to administer a gavage feeding for a newborn with transient tachypnea based on the understanding that this type of feeding is necessary for which reason? A) Lactase enzymatic activity is not adequate. B) Oxygen demands need to be reduced. C) Renal solute lead must be considered. D) Hyperbilirubinemia is likely to develop.

Ans: B Feedback: For the newborn with transient tachypnea, the newborn's respiratory rate is high, increasing his oxygen demand. Thus, measures are initiated to reduce this demand. Gavage feedings are one way to do so. With transient tachypnea, enzyme activity and kidney function are not affected. This condition typically resolves within 72 hours. The risk for hyperbilirubinemia is not increased.

A nurse is assessing a postpartum client who is at home. Which statement by the client would lead the nurse to suspect that the client may be developing postpartum depression? A) "I just feel so overwhelmed and tired." B) "I'm feeling so guilty and worthless lately." C) "It's strange, one minute I'm happy, the next I'm sad." D) "I keep hearing voices telling me to take my baby to the river."

Ans: B Feedback: Indicators for postpartum depression include feelings related to restlessness, worthlessness, guilt, hopeless, and sadness along with loss of enjoyment, low energy level, and loss of libido. Thus, the statement by the mother about feeling guilty and worthless suggest postpartum depression. The statements about being overwhelmed and fatigued and changing moods suggest postpartum blues. The statement about hearing voices suggests postpartum psychosis.

Which of the following would not be considered a risk factor for bronchopulmonary dysplasia (chronic lung disease)? A) Preterm birth (less than 32 weeks) B) Female gender C) White race D) Sepsis

Ans: B Feedback: Male gender is more commonly associated with bronchopulmonary dysplasia. Preterm birth of less than 32 weeks' gestation, sepsis, white race, excessive fluid intake during the first few days of life, severe RDS with mechanical ventilation for more than 1 week, and patent ductus arteriosus are all risk factors associated with chronic lung disease in the newborn.

A postpartum woman who is bottle-feeding her newborn asks the nurse, "About how much should my newborn drink at each feeding?" The nurse responds by saying that to feel satisfied, the newborn needs which amount at each feeding? A) 1 to 2 ounces B) 2 to 4 ounces C) 4 to 6 ounces D) 6 to 8 ounces

Ans: B Feedback: Newborns need about 108 cal/kg or approximately 650 cal/day (Dudek, 2010). Therefore, explain to parents that a newborn will need to 2 to 4 ounces to feel satisfied at each feeding.

Which of the following would the nurse include when teaching a new mother about the difference between pathologic and physiologic jaundice? A) Physiologic jaundice results in kernicterus. B) Pathologic jaundice appears within 24 hours after birth. C) Both are treated with exchange transfusions of maternal O- blood. D) Physiologic jaundice requires transfer to the NICU.

Ans: B Feedback: Pathologic jaundice appears within 24 hours after birth, whereas physiologic jaundice commonly appears around the third to fourth days of life. Kernicterus is more commonly associated with pathologic jaundice. An exchange transfusion is used only if the total serum bilirubin level remains elevated after intensive phototherapy. With this procedure, the newborn's blood is removed and replaced with nonhemolyzed red blood cells from a donor. Physiologic jaundice often is treated at home.

After teaching the parents of a newborn with periventricular hemorrhage about the disorder and treatment, which statement by the parents indicates that the teaching was successful? A) "We'll make sure to cover both of his eyes to protect them." B) "Our newborn could develop a learning disability later on." C) "Once the bleeding ceases, there won't be any more worries." D) "We need to get family members to donate blood for transfusion."

Ans: B Feedback: Periventricular-intraventricular hemorrhage has long-term sequelae such as seizures, hydrocephalus, periventricular leukomalacia, cerebral palsy, learning disabilities, vision or hearing deficits, and mental retardation. Covering the eyes is more appropriate for the newborn receiving phototherapy. The bleeding in the brain can lead to serious long-term effects. Blood transfusions are not used to treat periventricular hemorrhage.

When planning the care of a newborn addicted to cocaine who is experiencing withdrawal, which of the following would be least appropriate to include? A) Wrapping the newborn snugly in a blanket B) Waking the newborn every hour C) Checking the newborn's fontanels D) Offering a pacifier

Ans: B Feedback: Stimuli need to be decreased. Waking the newborn every hour would most likely be too stimulating. Measures such as swaddling the newborn tightly and offering a pacifier help to decrease irritable behaviors. A pacifier also helps to satisfy the newborn's need for nonnutritive sucking. Checking the fontanels provides evidence of hydration.

A postpartum client comes to the clinic for her routine 6-week visit. The nurse assesses the client and suspects that she is experiencing subinvolution based on which of the following? A) Nonpalpable fundus B) Moderate lochia serosa C) Bruising on arms and legs D) Fever

Ans: B Feedback: Subinvolution is usually identified at the woman's postpartum examination 4 to 6 weeks after birth. The clinical picture includes a postpartum fundal height that is higher than expected, with a boggy uterus; the lochia fails to change colors from red to serosa to alba within a few weeks. Normally, at 4 to 6 weeks, lochia alba or no lochia would be present and the fundus would not be palpable. Thus evidence of lochia serosa suggests subinvolution. Bruising would suggest a coagulopathy. Fever would suggest an infection.

A group of nursing students are reviewing the different types of congenital heart disease in infants. The students demonstrate a need for additional review when they identify which of the following as an example of increased pulmonary blood flow (left-to-right shunting)? A) Atrial septal defect B) Tetralogy of Fallot C) Ventricular septal defect D) Patent ductus arteriosus

Ans: B Feedback: Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital heart condition that results from decreased, not increased, pulmonary blood flow. Atrial septal defect, ventricular septal defect, and patent ductus arteriosus are heart conditions that involve increased blood flow from higher pressure (left side of heart) to lower pressure (right side of heart), resulting in left-to-right shunting.

A group of students are reviewing the causes of postpartum hemorrhage. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which of the following as the most common cause? A) Labor augmentation B) Uterine atony C) Cervical or vaginal lacerations D) Uterine inversion

Ans: B Feedback: The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage is uterine atony, failure of the uterus to contract and retract after birth. The uterus must remain contracted after birth to control bleeding from the placental site. Labor augmentation is a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. Lacerations of the birth canal and uterine inversion may cause postpartum hemorrhage, but these are not the most common cause.

A group of nursing students are reviewing information about mastitis and its causes. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which of the following as the most common cause? A) E. coli B) S. aureus C) Proteus D) Klebsiella

Ans: B Feedback: The most common infectious organism that causes mastitis is S. aureus, which comes from the breast-feeding infant's mouth or throat. E. coli is another, less common cause. E.coli, Proteus, and Klebsiella are common causes of urinary tract infections.

A nurse is massaging a postpartum client's fundus and places the nondominant hand on the area above the symphysis pubis based on the understanding that this action: A) Determines that the procedure is effective B) Helps support the lower uterine segment C) Aids in expressing accumulated clots D) Prevents uterine muscle fatigue

Ans: B Feedback: The nurse places the nondominant hand on the area above the symphysis pubis to help support the lower uterine segment. The hand, usually the dominant hand that is placed on the fundus, helps to determine uterine firmness (and thus the effectiveness of the massage). Applying gentle downward pressure on the fundus helps to express clots. Overmassaging the uterus leads to muscle fatigue.

27. A nursing instructor is describing the advantages and disadvantages associated with newborn circumcision to a group of nursing students. Which statement by the students indicates effective teaching? A) "Sexually transmitted infections are more common in circumcised males." B) "The rate of penile cancer is less for circumcised males." C) "Urinary tract infections are more easily treated in circumcised males." D) "Circumcision is a risk factor for acquiring HIV infection

Ans: B Feedback: The risk for penile cancer appears to be slightly lower for males who are circumcised. However, penile cancer is rare and other risk factors such as genital warts and HPV infection seem to play a larger role. Sexually transmitted infections are less common in circumcised males but the risk is believed to be related more to behavioral factors than circumcision status. Circumcised males have a 50% lower risk of acquiring HIV infection. Urinary tract infections are slightly less common in circumcised boys. However, rates are low in both circumcised and uncircumcised boys and are easily treated without long-term sequelae

After teaching a woman with a postpartum infection about care after discharge, which client statement indicates the need for additional teaching? A) "I need to call my doctor if my temperature goes above 100.4°F" B) "When I put on a new pad, I'll start at the back and go forward." C) "If I have chills or my discharge has a strange odor, I'll call my doctor." D) "I'll point the spray of the peribottle so the water flows front to back."

Ans: B Feedback: The woman needs additional teaching when she states that she should apply the perineal pad starting at the back and going forward. The pad should be applied using a front-to-back motion. Notifying the health care provider of a temperature above 100.4° F, aiming the peribottle spray so that the flow goes from front to back, and reporting danger signs such as chills or lochia with a strange odor indicate effective teaching.

The nurse is assessing a newborn's eyes. Which of the following would the nurse identify as normal? (Select all that apply.) A) Slow blink response B) Able to track object to midline C) Transient deviation of the eyes D) Involuntary repetitive eye movement E) Absent red reflex

Ans: B, C, D Assessment of the eyes should reveal a rapid blink reflex, ability to track objects to the midline, transient strabismus (deviation or wandering of the eyes independently), searching nystagmus (involuntary repetitive eye movement), and a red reflex.

The nurse is assessing the newborn of a mother who had gestational diabetes. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find? (Select all that apply.) A) Pale skin color B) Buffalo hump C) Distended upper abdomen D) Excessive subcutaneous fat E) Long slender neck

Ans: B, C, D Feedback: Infants of diabetic mothers exhibit full rosy cheeks with a ruddy skin color, short neck, buffalo hump over the nape of the neck, massive shoulders, distended upper abdomen, and excessive subcutaneous fat tissue.

A nurse is developing a teaching plan for a postpartum woman who is breast-feeding about sexuality and contraception. Which of the following would the nurse most likely include? (Select all that apply.) A) Resumption of sexual intercourse about two weeks after delivery B) Possible experience of fluctuations in sexual interest C) Use of a water-based lubricant to ease vaginal discomfort D) Use of combined hormonal contraceptives for the first three weeks E) Possibility of increased breast sensitivity during sexual activity

Ans: B, C, E Typically, sexual intercourse can be resumed once bright-red bleeding has stopped and the perineum is healed from an episiotomy or lacerations. This is usually by the third to the sixth week postpartum. Fluctuations in sexual interest are normal. In addition, breast-feeding women may notice a let-down reflex during orgasm and find that breasts are very sensitive when touched by the partner. Precoital vaginal lubrication may be impaired during the postpartum period, especially in women who are breast-feeding. Use of water-based gel lubricants (KY jelly, Astroglide) can help. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommend that postpartum women not use combined hormonal contraceptives during the first 21 days after childbirth because of the high risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE) during this period.

A nurse is observing a postpartum woman and her partner interact with their newborn. The nurse determines that the parents are developing parental attachment with their newborn when they demonstrate which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A) Frequently ask for the newborn to be taken from the room B) Identify common features between themselves and the newborn C) Refer to the newborn as having a monkey-face D) Make direct eye contact with the newborn E) Refrain from checking out the newborn's features

Ans: B, D Positive behaviors that indicate attachment include identifying common features and making direct eye contact with the newborn. Asking for the newborn to be taken out of the room, referring to the newborn as having a monkey-face and refraining from checking out the newborn's features are negative attachment behaviors.

After teaching a group of students about risk factors associated with postpartum hemorrhage, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following as a risk factor? (Select all that apply.) A) Prolonged labor B) Placenta previa C) Null parity D) Hydramnios E) Labor augmentation

Ans: B, D, E Risk factors for postpartum hemorrhage include precipitous labor less than 3 hours, placenta previa or abruption, multiparity, uterine overdistention such as with a large infant, twins, or hydramnios, and labor induction or augmentation. Prolonged labor over 24 hours is a risk factor for postpartum infection.

A postpartum client has a fourth-degree perineal laceration. The nurse would expect which of the following medications to be ordered? A) Ferrous sulfate (Feosol) B) Methylergonovine (Methergine) C) Docusate (Colace) D) Bromocriptine (Parlodel)

Ans: C A stool softener such as docusate (Colace) may promote bowel elimination in a woman with a fourth-degree laceration, who may fear that bowel movements will be painful. Ferrous sulfate would be used to treat anemia. However, it is associated with constipation and would increase the discomfort when the woman has a bowel movement. Methylergonovine would be used to prevent or treat postpartum hemorrhage. Bromocriptine is used to treat hyperprolactinemia.

When reviewing the medical record of a postpartum client, the nurse notes that the client has experienced a third-degree laceration. The nurse understands that the laceration extends to which of the following? A) Superficial structures above the muscle B) Through the perineal muscles C) Through the anal sphincter muscle D) Through the anterior rectal wall

Ans: C A third-degree laceration extends through the anal sphincter muscle. A first-degree laceration involves only the skin and superficial structures above the muscle. A second-degree laceration extends through the perineal muscles. A fourth-degree laceration continues through the anterior rectal wall.

To decrease the pain associated with an episiotomy immediately after birth, which action by the nurse would be most appropriate? A) Offer warm blankets. B) Encourage the woman to void. C) Apply an ice pack to the site. D) Offer a warm sitz bath.

Ans: C An ice pack is the first measure used after a vaginal birth to provide perineal comfort from edema, an episiotomy, or lacerations. Warm blankets would be helpful for the chills that the woman may experience. Encouraging her to void promotes urinary elimination and uterine involution. A warm sitz bath is effective after the first 24 hours.

The nurse encourages the mother of a healthy newborn to put the newborn to the breast immediately after birth for which reason? A) To aid in maturing the newborn's sucking reflex B) To encourage the development of maternal antibodies C) To facilitate maternal-infant bonding D) To enhance the clearing of the newborn's respiratory passages

Ans: C Breast-feeding can be initiated immediately after birth. This immediate mother-newborn contact takes advantage of the newborn's natural alertness and fosters bonding. This contact also reduces maternal bleeding and stabilizes the newborn's temperature, blood glucose level, and respiratory rate. It is not associated with maturing the sucking reflex, encouraging the development of maternal antibodies, or aiding in clearing of the newborn's respiratory passages.

While performing a physical assessment of a newborn boy, the nurse notes diffuse edema of the soft tissues of his scalp that crosses suture lines. The nurse documents this finding as: A) Molding B) Microcephaly C) Caput succedaneum D) Cephalhematoma

Ans: C Caput succedaneum is localized edema on the scalp, a poorly demarcated soft tissue swelling that crosses the suture lines. Molding refers to the elongated shape of the fetal head as it accommodates to the passage through the birth canal. Microcephaly refers to a head circumference that is 2 standard deviations below average or less than 10% of normal parameters for gestational age. Cephalhematoma is a localized effusion of blood beneath the periosteum of the skull.

The nurse is assessing the skin of a newborn and notes a rash on the newborn's face, and chest. The rash consists of small papules and is scattered with no pattern. The nurse interprets this finding as which of the following? A) Harlequin sign B) Nevus flammeus C) Erythema toxicum D) Port wine stain

Ans: C Erythema toxicum (newborn rash) is a benign, idiopathic, generalized, transient rash that occurs in up to 70% of all newborns during the first week of life. It consists of small papules or pustules on the skin resembling flea bites. The rash is common on the face, chest, and back. One of the chief characteristics of this rash is its lack of pattern. It is caused by the newborn's eosinophils reacting to the environment as the immune system matures. Harlequin sign refers to the dilation of blood vessels on only one side of the body, giving the newborn the appearance of wearing a clown suit. It gives a distinct midline demarcation, which is described as pale on the nondependent side and red on the opposite, dependent side. Nevus flammeus or port wine stain is a capillary angioma located directly below the dermis. It is flat with sharp demarcations and is purple-red. This skin lesion is made up of mature capillaries that are congested and dilated.

A primipara client who is bottle feeding her baby begins to experience breast engorgement on her third postpartum day. Which instruction would be most appropriate to aid in relieving her discomfort? A) "Express some milk from your breasts every so often to relieve the distention." B) "Remove your bra to relieve the pressure on your sensitive nipples and breasts." C) "Apply ice packs to your breasts to reduce the amount of milk being produced." D) "Take several warm showers daily to stimulate the milk let-down reflex."

Ans: C For the woman with breast engorgement who is bottle feeding her newborn, encourage the use of ice packs to decrease pain and swelling. Expressing milk from the breasts and taking warm showers would be appropriate for the woman who was breast-feeding. Wearing a supportive bra 24 hours a day also is helpful for the woman with engorgement who is bottle feeding.

A postpartum woman is having difficulty voiding for the first time after giving birth. Which of the following would be least effective in helping to stimulate voiding? A) Pouring warm water over her perineal area B) Having her hear the sound of water running nearby C) Placing her hand in a basin of cool water D) Standing her in the shower with the warm water on

Ans: C Helpful measures to stimulate voiding include placing her hand in a basin of warm water, pouring warm water over her perineal area, hearing the sound of running water nearby, blowing bubbles through a straw, standing in the shower with the warm water turned on, and drinking fluids.

The nurse completes the initial assessment of a newborn. Which finding would lead the nurse to suspect that the newborn is experiencing difficulty with oxygenation? A) Respiratory rate of 54 breaths/minute B) Abdominal breathing C) Nasal flaring D) Acrocyanosis

Ans: C Nasal flaring is a sign of respiratory difficulty in the newborn. A rate of 54 breaths/minute, diaphragmatic/abdominal breathing, and acrocyanosis are normal findings.

Which of the following factors in a client's history would alert the nurse to an increased risk for postpartum hemorrhage? A) Multiparity, age of mother, operative delivery B) Size of placenta, small baby, operative delivery C) Uterine atony, placenta previa, operative procedures D) Prematurity, infection, length of labor

Ans: C Risk factors for postpartum hemorrhage include a precipitous labor less than 3 hours, uterine atony, placenta previa or abruption, labor induction or augmentation, operative procedures such as vacuum extraction, forceps, or cesarean birth, retained placental fragments, prolonged third stage of labor greater than 30 minutes, multiparity, and uterine overdistention such as from a large infant, twins, or hydramnios.

A new mother who is breast-feeding her newborn asks the nurse, "How will I know if my baby is drinking enough?" Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? A) "If he seems content after feeding, that should be a sign." B) "Make sure he drinks at least 5 minutes on each breast." C) "He should wet between 6 to 12 diapers each day." D) "If his lips are moist, then he's okay."

Ans: C Soaking 6 to 12 diapers a day indicates adequate hydration. Contentedness after feeding is not an indicator for adequate hydration. Typically a newborn wakes up 8 to 12 times per day for feeding. As the infant gets older, the time on the breast increases. Moist mucous membranes help to suggest adequate hydration but this is not the best indicator.

After teaching parents about their newborn, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when they identify the development of a close emotional attraction to a newborn by parents during the first 30 to 60 minutes after birth as which of the following? A) Reciprocity B) Engrossment C) Bonding D) Attachment

Ans: C The development of a close emotional attraction to the newborn by parents during the first 30 to 60 minutes after birth describes bonding. Reciprocity is the process by which the infant's capabilities and behavioral characteristics elicit a parental response. Engrossment refers to the intense interest during early contact with a newborn. Attachment refers to the process of developing strong ties of affection between an infant and significant other.

A nurse is completing a postpartum assessment. Which finding would alert the nurse to a potential problem? A) Lochia rubra with a fleshy odor B) Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute C) Temperature of 101° F D) Pain rating of 2 on a scale from 0 to 10

Ans: C : Typically, the new mother's temperature during the first 24 hours postpartum is within the normal range. Some women experience a slight fever, up to 38º C (100.4º F), during the first 24 hours. A temperature above 38º C (100.4º F) at any time or an abnormal temperature after the first 24 hours may indicate infection and must be reported. Foul-smelling lochia or lochia with an unexpected change in color or amount, shortness of breath, or respiratory rate below 16 or above 20 breaths per minute would also be a cause for concern. The goal of pain management is to have the woman's pain scale rating maintained between 0 to 2 points at all times, especially after breast-feeding.

The nurse is assessing a woman with abruption placentae who has just given birth. The nurse would be alert for which of the following? A) Severe uterine pain B) Board-like abdomen C) Appearance of petechiae D) Inversion of the uterus

Ans: C Feedback: A complication of abruptio placentae is disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which is manifested by petechiae, ecchymoses, and other signs of impaired clotting. Severe uterine pain, a board-like abdomen, and uterine inversion are not associated with abruptio placentae.

A newborn is suspected of having fetal alcohol syndrome. Which of the following would the nurse expect to assess? A) Bradypnea B) Hydrocephaly C) Flattened maxilla D) Hypoactivity

Ans: C Feedback: A newborn with fetal alcohol syndrome exhibits characteristic facial features such as microcephaly (not hydrocephaly), small palpebral fissures, and abnormally small eyes, flattened or absent maxilla, epicanthal folds, thin upper lip, and missing vertical groove in the median portion of the upper lip. Bradypnea is not typically associated with fetal alcohol syndrome. Fine and gross motor development is delayed, and the newborn shows poor hand-eye coordination but not hypoactivity.

A nurse is developing a plan of care for a woman who is at risk for thromboembolism. Which of the following would the nurse include as the most cost-effective method for prevention? A) Prophylactic heparin administration B) Compression stocking C) Early ambulation D) Warm compresses

Ans: C Feedback: Although compression stockings and prophylactic heparin administration may be appropriate, the most cost-effective preventive method is early ambulation. It is also the easiest method. Warm compresses are used to treat superficial venous thrombosis.

A newborn is suspected of developing persistent pulmonary hypertension. The nurse would expect to prepare the newborn for which of the following to confirm the suspicion? A) Chest x-ray B) Blood cultures C) Echocardiogram D) Stool for occult blood

Ans: C Feedback: An echocardiogram is used to reveal right-to-left shunting of blood to confirm the diagnosis of persistent pulmonary hypertension. Chest x-ray would be most likely used to aid in the diagnosis of RDS or TTN. Blood cultures would be helpful in evaluating for neonatal sepsis. Stool for occult blood may be done to evaluate for NEC.

Which of the following would the nurse expect to assess in a newborn who develops sepsis? A) Increased urinary output B) Interest in feeding C) Hypothermia D) Wakefulness

Ans: C Feedback: Manifestations of sepsis are typically nonspecific and may include hypothermia (temperature instability), oliguria or anuria, lack of interest in feeding, and lethargy.

Which of the following would be most appropriate when massaging a woman's fundus? A) Place the hands on the sides of the abdomen to grasp the uterus. B) Use an up-and-down motion to massage the uterus. C) Wait until the uterus is firm to express clots. D) Continue massaging the uterus for at least 5 minutes.

Ans: C Feedback: The uterus must be firm before attempts to express clots are made because application of firm pressure on an uncontracted uterus could lead to uterine inversion. One hand is placed on the fundus and the other hand is placed on the area above the symphysis pubis. Circular motions are used for massage. There is no specified amount of time for fundal massage. Uterine tissue responds quickly to touch, so it is important not to overmassage the fundus.

Review of a primiparous woman's labor and birth record reveals a prolonged second stage of labor and extended time in the stirrups. Based on an interpretation of these findings, the nurse would be especially alert for which of the following? A) Retained placental fragments B) Hypertension C) Thrombophlebitis D) Uterine subinvolution

Ans: C Feedback: The woman is at risk for thrombophlebitis due to the prolonged second stage of labor, necessitating an increased amount of time in bed, and venous pooling that occurs when the woman's legs are in stirrups for a long period of time. These findings are unrelated to retained placental fragments, which would lead to uterine subinvolution, or hypertension.

30. A nurse is providing teaching to a new mother about her newborn's nutritional needs. Which of the following would the nurse be most likely to include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.) A) Supplementing with iron if the woman is breast-feeding B) Providing supplemental water intake with feedings C) Feeding the newborn every 2 to 4 hours during the day D) Burping the newborns frequently throughout each feeding E) Using feeding time for promoting closeness

Ans: C, D, E Feedback: Most newborns are on demand feeding schedules and are allowed to feed when they awaken. When they go home, mothers are encouraged to feed their newborns every 2 to 4 hours during the day and only when the newborn awakens during the night for the first few days after birth. Newborns swallow air during feedings, which causes discomfort and fussiness. Parents can prevent this by burping them frequently throughout the feeding. Feeding is also more than an opportunity to get nutrients into the newborn. It is also a time for closeness and sharing. Iron supplementation is recommended for infants who are bottle-fed. Fluid requirements for the newborn and infant do range from 100 to 150 mL/kg daily. This requirement can be met through breast or bottle feedings. Thus, additional water supplementation is not necessary.

The nurse places a newborn with jaundice under the phototherapy lights in the nursery to achieve which goal? A) Prevent cold stress B) Increase surfactant levels in the lungs C) Promote respiratory stability D) Decrease the serum bilirubin level

Ans: D Jaundice reflects elevated serum bilirubin levels; phototherapy helps to break down the bilirubin for excretion. Phototherapy has no effect on body temperature, surfactant levels, or respiratory stability.

When assessing a newborn's reflexes, the nurse strokes the newborn's cheek and the newborn turns toward the side that was stroked and begins sucking. The nurse documents which reflex as being positive? A) Palmar grasp reflex B) Tonic neck reflex C) Moro reflex D) Rooting reflex

Ans: D The rooting reflex is elicited by stroking the newborn's cheek. The newborn should turn toward the side that was stroked and should begin to make sucking movements. The palmar grasp reflex is elicited by placing a finger on the newborn's open palm. The baby's hand will close around the finger. Attempting to remove the finger causes the grip to tighten. The tonic neck reflex is elicited by having the newborn lie on the back and turning the head to one side. The arm toward which the baby is facing should extend straight away from the body with the hand partially open, whereas the arm on the side away from the face is flexed and the fist is clenched tightly. Reversing the direction to which the face is turned reverses the position. The Moro reflex is elicited by placing the newborn on his or her back, supporting the upper body weight of the supine newborn by the arms using a lifting motion without lifting the newborn off the surface. The arms are released suddenly and the newborn will throw the arms outward and flex the knees and then the arms return to the chest. The fingers also spread to form a C.

The nurse administers vitamin K intramuscularly to the newborn based on which of the following rationales? A) Stop Rh sensitization B) Increase erythropoiesis C) Enhance bilirubin breakdown D) Promote blood clotting

Ans: D Vitamin K promotes blood clotting by increasing the synthesis of prothrombin by the liver. RhoGAM prevents Rh sensitization. Erythropoietin stimulates erythropoiesis. Phototherapy enhances bilirubin breakdown.

A woman who is 2 weeks postpartum calls the clinic and says, "My left breast hurts." After further assessment on the phone, the nurse suspects the woman has mastitis. In addition to pain, the nurse would assess for which of the following? A) An inverted nipple on the affected breast B) No breast milk in the affected breast C) An ecchymotic area on the affected breast D) Hardening of an area in the affected breast

Ans: D Feedback: Mastitis is characterized by a tender, hot, red, painful area on the affected breast. An inverted nipple is not associated with mastitis. With mastitis, the breast is distended with milk, the area is inflamed (not ecchymotic), and there is breast tenderness.

A newborn has been diagnosed with a Group B streptococcal infection shortly after birth. The nurse understands that the newborn most likely acquired this infection from which of the following? A) Improper handwashing B) Contaminated formula C) Nonsterile catheter insertion D) Mother's birth canal

Ans: D Feedback: Most often, a newborn develops a Group B streptococcus infection during the birthing process when the newborn comes into contact with an infected birth canal. Improper handwashing, contaminated formula, and nonsterile catheter insertion would most likely lead to a late-onset infection, which typically occurs in the nursery due to horizontal transmission.

As part of an inservice program, a nurse is describing a transient, self-limiting mood disorder that affects mothers after childbirth. The nurse correctly identifies this as postpartum: A) Depression B) Psychosis C) Bipolar disorder D) Blues

Ans: D Feedback: Postpartum blues are manifested by mild depressive symptoms of anxiety, irritability, mood swings, tearfulness, increased sensitivity, feelings of being overwhelmed, and fatigue. They are usually self-limiting and require no formal treatment other than reassurance and validation of the woman's experience as well as assistance in caring for herself and her newborn. Postpartum depression is a major depressive episode associated with childbirth. Postpartum psychosis is at the severe end of the continuum of postpartum emotional disorders. Bipolar disorder refers to a mood disorder typically involving episodes of depression and mania.

A nurse is assessing a postpartum woman. Which finding would cause the nurse to be most concerned? A) Leg pain on ambulation with mild ankle edema B) Calf pain with dorsiflexion of the foot. C) Perineal pain with swelling along the episiotomy D) Sharp stabbing chest pain with shortness of breath

Ans: D Feedback: Sharp stabbing chest pain with shortness of breath suggests pulmonary embolism, an emergency that requires immediate action. Leg pain on ambulation with mild edema suggests superficial venous thrombosis. Calf pain on dorsiflexion of the foot may indicate deep vein thrombosis or a strained muscle or contusion. Perineal pain with swelling along the episiotomy might be a normal finding or suggest an infection. Of the conditions, pulmonary embolism is the most urgent.

A woman experiencing postpartum hemorrhage is ordered to receive a uterotonic agent. Which of the following would the nurse least expect to administer? A) Oxytocin B) Methylergonovine C) Carboprost D) Terbutaline

Ans: D Feedback: Terbutaline is a tocolytic agent used to halt preterm labor. It would not be used to treat postpartum hemorrhage. Oxytocin, methylergonovine, and carboprost are drugs used to manage postpartum hemorrhage.

Which of the following would alert the nurse to suspect that a newborn has developed NEC? A) Irritability B) Sunken abdomen C) Clay-colored stools D) Bilious vomiting

Ans: D Feedback: The newborn with NEC may exhibit bilious vomiting with lethargy, abdominal distention and tenderness, and bloody stools.

While making rounds in the nursery, the nurse sees a 6-hour-old baby girl gagging and turning bluish. Which of the following would the nurse do first? A) Alert the physician stat and turn the newborn to her right side. B) Administer oxygen via facial mask by positive pressure. C) Lower the newborn's head to stimulate crying. D) Aspirate the oral and nasal pharynx with a bulb syringe.

Ans: D Feedback: The nurse's first action would be to suction the oral and nasal pharynx with a bulb syringe to maintain airway patency. Turning the newborn to her right side will not alleviate the blockage due to secretions. Administering oxygen via positive pressure is not indicated at this time. Lowering the newborn's head would be inappropriate.

28. A newborn is scheduled to undergo a screening test for phenylketonuria (PKU). The nurse prepares to obtain the blood sample from the newborn's: A) Finger B) Heel C) Scalp vein D) Umbilical vein

Ans:B Feedback:Screening tests for genetic and inborn errors of metabolism require a few drops of blood taken from the newborn's heel. The finger, scalp vein, or umbilical vein are inappropriate sites for the blood sample

A newborn with severe meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS) is not responding to conventional treatment. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate as possibly necessary for this newborn? A) Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) B) Respiratory support with a ventilator C) Insertion of a laryngoscope for deep suctioning D) Replacement of an endotracheal tube via x-ray

y Ans: A Feedback: If conventional measures are ineffective, then the nurse would need to prepare the newborn for ECMO. Hyperoxygenation, ventilatory support, and suctioning are typically used initially to promote tissue perfusion. However, if these are ineffective, ECMO would be the next step.