O'neill
How does O'Neill use this interpretation to explain Kant's "lying" example?
Ex; cant lie to someone unless you have their consent and then they will know you are lying.
Why does O'Neill claim that Kant's theory has less scope but more precision than Utilitarianism?
Kant can only evaluate the morality of actions with intentions behind their actions. Utilitarians can evaluate any action intended or not by its outcomes. Kants theory is more precise. It seems straightforward in most situations to ask whether he other person is consenting to what you are about to do.
How does Onara O'Neill interpret what it means to treat someone as a mere means?
O'neil thinks we treat others as a means to our own ends when we do something to them that they do not consent to.
Notes: What problems does this interpretation have? (Kant's suicide example.)
O'neils interpretation may be unable to explain why Kant thinks it is morally wrong to kill oneself. It certainly looks at first glance at least like the person committing suicide is consenting to kill himself.
