Online Quiz Questions

The electrical stimulus that originates in the heart's primary pacemaker is controlled by impulses from the brain that arrive by way of the: Select one: A. parietal lobe. B. somatic nervous system. C. pons and medulla. D. autonomic nervous system.

D

A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin that is the result of an insect bite or sting is called: Select one: A. a pustule. B. purpura. C. urticaria. D. a wheal.

D

The first step in assessing a patient with a behavioral emergency is to: Select one: A. restrain the patient. B. obtain proper consent. C. take vital signs. D. ensure your safety.

D

A 29-year-old pregnant woman has had severe vomiting for the last 2 days. Today, she is vomiting large amounts of blood. Her skin is cool and pale and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: Select one: A. Mallory-Weiss tear. B. esophageal varices. C. esophagitis. D. acute pancreatitis.

A

A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival? Select one: A. Rapid transport to a trauma center B. Full immobilization of her spine C. High-flow oxygen administration D. Intravenous fluid administration

A

The _____________ supervisor is responsible for notifying area hospitals and determining their availability and capabilities. A. transportation B. triage C. medical D. treatment

A

The average pulse rate of persons b/w 19 and 60 years is typically: A. 70 bpm B. 90 bpm C. 60 bpm D. 80 bpm

A

The body's natural cooling mechanism, in which sweat is converted to a gas, is called: A. evaporation B. radiation C. conduction D. convection

A

The body's natural protective mechanisms against heat loss are: A. vasoconstriction and shivering B. respiration and vasoconstriction C. vasodilation and respiration D. shivering and vasodilation

A

The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within _________ following administration. Select one: A. 30 minutes B. 1 minute C. 1 hour D. 30 seconds

B

Common names for activated charcoal include all of the following EXCEPT: A. instaChar B. Acidose C. Fructose D. LiquiChar

C

Common signs and symptoms of a sprain include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. swelling B. ecchymosis C. deformity D. point tenderness

C

Patients w/ chest injuries will often present with _________ A. atonal respirations B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations C. tachypnea D. Kussmaul respirations

C

Patients w/ full-thickness (3rd degree) burns generally do not complain of pain because: A. blister formation protects the burn B. subcutaneous vessels are usually clotted C. the nerve endings have been destroyed D. they are generally not conscious

C

The areas of the infant's skull that have not yet fused together are called ____________ A. ventricles B. sutures C. fontanelles D. cranial valleys

C.

Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via: A. smoke or dust B. direct contact C. animals or insects D. intimate objects

C.

Which of the following are noticeable characteristics of a 9 month old infant? A. walks w/o help, becomes frustrated w/ restrictions B. knows his/her name, can walk w/o any assistance C. places objects in the mouth, pulls him/herself up D. responds to his/her name, crawls around efficiently

C.

Which of the following splinting devices would be MOST appropriate to use for a patient who has an open fracture of the forearm w/ external bleeding? A. cardboard splint B. vacuum splint C. air splint D. sling and swathe

C.

Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct? A. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B. B. HIV is transmitted exclusively via blood. C. There is no vaccine against HIV infection. D. HIV is easily transmittable in the EMS field.

C.

A 17 y/o female dislocated her patella while playing soccer. Her knee is flexed and she complains of severe pain. You should: A. keep her knee flexed and secure it w/ padded board splints B. make one attempt to return the patella to its normal position C. gently straighten her knee and apply a padded board splint D. flex her knee slightly more and assess for distal circulation

A

During the attempted resuscitation of an infant w/ suspected SIDS: A. allow the family to observe if they wish B. a law enforcement officer must be present C. give detailed updates to the infant's parents D. discourage the family from observing

A

In addition to severe bleeding, the MOST life-threatening complication associated w/ an open neck injury is: A. an air embolism B. an ischemic stroke C. a spinal fracture D. nerve fiber damage

A

In contrast to Lyme disease, Rocky Mountain spotted fever: A. can cause paralysis and cardiorespiratory collapse B. may be confused w/ rheumatoid arthritis C. causes painful joint swelling after a few days or weeks D. presents w/ flu-like symptoms and a bull's-eye rash

A

In contrast to adults, deterioration to cardiac arrest in infants and children is usually associated w/: A. severe hypoxia and bradycardia B. acute hypoxia and tachycardia C. a sudden ventricular arrhythmia D. irritability of the left ventricle

A

In general, musculoskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless: A. the patient is clinically unstable B. the patient is in severe pain C. deformity and swelling are present D. transport time is less than 15 min

A

In moving joints, the ends of the bones are covered w/: A. articular cartilage B. muscular fascia C. synovial tendons D. gliding cartilage

A

The cricoid cartilage: A. is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea B. is easier to see an palpate than the thyroid cartilage C. lies superior to the cricothyroid membrane in the neck D. lies superior to the thyroid cartilage in the neck

A

The direct carry is used to transfer a patient: Select one: A. from a bed to the ambulance stretcher. B. with a possible cervical spine injury. C. with multiple long bone injuries. D. who cannot be placed on a backboard.

A

Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to result in hypoxia? Select one: A. Severe anxiety B. Pulmonary edema C. Narcotic overdose D. Pleural effusion

A

Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to increase a person's risk of hypothermia? A. hyperglycemia B. severe infection C. head injury D. spinal cord injury

A

The effectiveness of pit crew CPR is dependent on: Select one: A. defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received. B. rapidly assessing the patient before assigning roles and responsibilities. C. a team leader who is capable of performing all of the patient care tasks. D. protocols that allow the EMT to function without medical control.

A

The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure by: Select one: A. removing sodium and water from the body. B. eliminating toxic waste products from the body. C. retaining key electrolytes, such as potassium. D. accommodating a large amount of blood volume.

A

The leaf-shaped structure located superior to the larynx is called the: Select one: A. epiglottis. B. cricoid ring. C. vallecula. D. thyroid cartilage.

A

The main advantage of the Venturi mask is: Select one: A. the use of its fine adjustment capabilities in the long-term management of physiologically stable patients. B. the ability to adjust the percentage of inspired oxygen when caring for a critically ill or injured patient. C. that it does not contain an oxygen reservoir, so the same percentage of oxygen can consistently be administered. D. the ability to adjust the amount of oxygen administered to the patient by increasing the flow rate on the regulator.

A

The optic nerve endings are located w/in the : A. retina B. sclera C. cornea D. pupil

A

The poison control center will be able to provide you with the most info regarding the appropriate treatment for a patient w/ a drug overdose if the center: A. is aware of the substance that is involved B. knows the location of the closest hospital C. knows why the patient overdosed on the drug D. is aware of the patient's age and gender

A

The reasons for rescue failure can be recalled by he mnemonic FILURE. According to this pneumonic, the "U" stands for: A. underestimating the logistics of the incident B. undertrained to correctly utilize equipment C. underutilizing personnel at the scene D. unprepared to effectively manage the scene

A

The smaller vessels that carry blood away from the heart and connect the arteries to the capillaries are called the: A. arterioles B. venules C. vena cavae D. capillary arteries

A

The superficial temporal artery can be palpated: A. just anterior to the tragus B. over the mastoid process C. slightly above the ear D. at the angle of the jaw

A

When a light is shone into the pupil: A. it should become smaller in size B. the opposite pupil should dilate C. both pupils should dilate together D. it should become larger in size

A

When a warm hand is immersed in water that is 70 deg F, heat is transferred from the hand to the water through a process called: A. conduction B. radiation C. convection D. evaporation

A

When an allergic reaction proceeds to life-threatening anaphylaxis, it will usually do so __________. Select one: A. quickly, within 30 minutes. B. slowly, over more than 30 minutes. C. slowly, over several hours. D. quickly, within 30 seconds.

A

When assessing a patient w/ a closed soft-tissue injury, it is MOST important to: A. remain alert for more severe underlying injuries B. manipulate the injury site for signs of a fracture C. recognize that the integrity of the skin is broken D. assess circulation distal to the site of the injury

A

When assessing a patient w/ a head injury, you note the presence of thin, bloody fluid draining from his right ear. This indicates: A. rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head B. significant pressure and bleeding in b/w the skull and dura mater C. fractures to the internal structures of the ear following direct trauma D. a linear full fracture and a significant increase in intracranial pressure

A

When assessing a patient who experienced a blast injury, it is important to remember that: A. primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked B. solid organs usually rupture from the pressure wave C. secondary blast injuries are usually the least obvious D. primary blast injuries are typically the most obvious

A

Complications associated with using a manually triggered ventilation device include: Select one: A. lung tissue injury and gastric distention. B. inadequate oxygenation and tracheal injury. C. inadequate ventilation and hypercarbia. D. reduced tidal volume delivery and hypoxia.

A

Covering a patient's _________ will significantly minimize radiation heat loss A. head B. extremities C. abdomen D. chest

A

Death caused by shaken baby syndrome is usually the result of: A. bleeding in the brain B. multiple open fractures C. fractures of the cervical spine D. intra-abdominal hemorrhage

A

Despite your attempts to coach a conscious young female's respirations, she continues to hyperventilate with a marked reduction in tidal volume. You should: Select one: A. explain to her that you will assist her ventilations. B. ventilate her at the rate at which she is breathing. C. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and give oxygen. D. restrain her and provide ventilatory assistance.

A

You have just delivered a premature baby. Your assessment reveals that he is breathing adequately, however, his HR is 90 bpm. You should: A. keep him warm and ventilate w/ a BVM B. begin chest compressions and reassess in 30 sec C. assess his skin color and give free-flow oxygen as needed D. clamp and cut the umbilical cord and keep him warm

A

What should an EMT do to limit errors in the field? A. follow the agency's written protocols B. carry an EMT text for reference at all times C. contact medical direction before initiating any treatments D. deviate from established standards when necessary

A. follow the agency's written protocols

Bleeding from the soft-tissue injuries to the face is MOST effectively controlled with: A. ice packs and elevation of the patient's head B. direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings C. digital pressure to an adjacent pulse point D. pressure dressings and chemical ice packs

B

Blood stasis, changes in the vessel wall, and certain medications affect the: A. systolic bp exclusively B. ability of the blood to effectively clot C. ability of RBCs to carry oxygen D. WBCs ability to fight infection

B

Burn patients w/o airway compromise and patients w/ multiple bone or joint injuries should be marked w/ a ________ triage tag at a mass-casualty incident A. black B. yellow C. red D. green

B

Burns to pediatric patients are generally considered more serious than burns to adults because: A. pediatric patients are more prone to hyperthermia B. pediatric patients have more surface area relative to total body mass C. pediatric patients have a proportionately larger volume of blood D. most burns in children are the result of child abuse

B

By the 20th week of pregnancy, the uterus is typically at or above the level of the mother's: A. xiphoid process B. belly button C. superior diaphragm D. pubic bone

B

CPR should be initiated when: Select one: A. rigor mortis is obvious. B. a valid living will is unavailable. C. the carotid pulse is very weak. D. signs of putrefaction are present.

B

Cardiac output may decrease if the heart beats too rapidly because: Select one: A. the volume of blood that returns to the heart is not sufficient with fast heart rates. B. there is not enough time in between contractions for the heart to refill completely. C. a rapid heartbeat causes a decrease in the strength of cardiac contractions. D. as the heart rate increases, more blood is pumped from the ventricles than the atria.

B

Children with N. meningitides would MOST likely present with: A. hypothermia and an irregular pulse B. cherry-red spots or a purplish rash C. a generalized rash w/ intense itching D. a low-grade fever and tachycardia

B

Command functions under the incident command system include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. liaison officer B. triage officer C. safety officer D. public information officer

B

Common causes of syncope in older patients include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. venous pooling B. vasoconstriction C. acute hypotension D. blood volume loss

B

Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. fear of medical personnel. B. assessment by the EMT. C. history of chronic disease. D. mental disorders.

B

Common signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. headache B. hot, dry skin C. tachycardia D. nausea

B

Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. a fractured sternum. B. gastric distention. C. liver laceration. D. rib fractures.

B

Flail chest occurs when: A. multiple ribs are fractured on both sides of the thoracic cage B. a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage C. a segment of fractured ribs bulges during the inhalation phase D. more than 3 ribs are fractured on the same side of the chest

B

Following a blunt injury to the head, a 22 y/o female is confused and complains of a severe headache and nausea. On the basis of these signs and symptoms, you should be MOST concerned w/ the possibility of: A. spinal cord injury B. intracranial bleeding C. airway compromise D. fracture of the skull

B

In contrast to AMI, a dissecting aortic aneurysm: Select one: A. is more commonly associated with pressure in the chest. B. often presents with pain that is maximal from the onset. C. usually presents gradually, often over a period of hours. D. is typically preceded by other symptoms, such as nausea.

B

The Adam's apple is: A. the small indentation in between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages B. the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage C. the lower part of the larynx that is formed by the cricoid cartilage D. below the thyroid cartilage and forms the upper part of the trachea

B

The EMT should ensure that vaginal bleeding is: A. controlled by the patient B. taken seriously and the patient is transported for gynecologic evaluation C. not caused by traumatic injury D. severe enough to warrant transport

B

The MOST serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is: A. confusion among team members. B. injury to you or your patient. C. causing patient anxiety or fear. D. unnecessarily wasting time.

B

The ________ and ________ are folds of tissue that surround the urethral and vaginal openings. A. Fallopian tubes, uterus B. labia majora, labia minora C. perineum, anus D. vagina, cervix

B

The concept of consistent care across the entire health care team from first patient contact to patient discharge is called: Select one: A. the standard of care. B. the continuum of care. C. patient care advocacy. D. the scope of practice.

B

The extremity lift would NOT be appropriate to use on a patient: Select one: A. without a spinal injury. B. with a deformed humerus. C. who complains of nausea. D. with forearm lacerations.

B

The function of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) is to: A. educate city and county governments regarding foreign terrorist attacks B. prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents C. prepare for the potential of a nuclear attack against the US D. facilitate a standard method of incident command for natural disasters

B

The incubation period for Ebola can be up to: Select one: A. 72 hours. B. 21 days. C. 6 months. D. 1 week.

B

The inferior vena cava returns deoxygenated blood to the right side of the heart from all of the following areas, EXCEPT the: Select one: A. legs. B. brain. C. kidneys. D. abdomen.

B

The term "pericardiocentesis" means: A. surgical repair of the sac around the heart. B. the removal of fluid from around the heart. C. a surgical opening made in the heart. D. narrowing of the arteries supplying the heart.

B

The term "pharmacology" is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. the study of how medications affect the brain. B. the study of drugs and their actions on the body. C. the study of drugs that are produced illegally. D. the study of drug excretion from the human body.

B

The three major parts of the brain are the: Select one: A. cerebellum, medulla, and occiput. B. cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem. C. brain stem, midbrain, and spinal cord. D. midbrain, cerebellum, and spinal cord.

B

The use of special tools to remove a patient from a vehicle is known as: A. vehicle stabilization B. complex access C. incident management D. simple access

B

The white portion of the eye is called the A. iris B. sclera C. cornea D. retina

B

Which of the following patients has decision-making capacity and can legally refuse emergency medical treatment? A. A man who is staggering and states that he had three beers B. A conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain C. A diabetic woman who has slurred speech and is not aware of the date D. A confused young male who says he is the president

B

Which of the following patients should be assigned an immediate (red tag) priority? A. 31 y/o male w/ an open fracture of the forearm and minimal external bleeding B. 22 y/o male w/ blunt abdominal trauma, tachycardia, pallor, and diaphoresis C. 20 y/o female w/ a back injury and numbness and tingling in her extremities D. 36 y/o female w/ an open head injury, atonal breathing, and a slow HR

B

Which of the following patients should you place in the recovery position? Select one: A. A 24-year-old unconscious female who overdosed and has a reduced tidal volume B. A 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing C. A 40-year-old conscious female with a possible neck injury and regular respirations D. A 19-year-old conscious male with a closed head injury and normal respirations

B

Which of the following patients would MOST likely have a delayed onset of an allergic reaction? Select one: A. A 50-year-old male who was exposed to latex B. A 45-year-old male who ingested penicillin C. A 30-year-old male who was stung by a bee D. A 21-year-old female who inhaled pollen

B

Which of the following statements regarding anterior nosebleeds is correct? A. they are usually caused by a fracture of the basilar skull B. they usually originate from the septum area and bleed slowly C. they cause blood to drain into the posterior pharynx D. they are usually severe and require aggressive treatment to control

B

When assessing motor function in a conscious patient's lower extremities, you should expect the patient to: Select one: A. identify different types of stimuli. B. wiggle his or her toes on command. C. note any changes in temperature. D. feel you touching the extremity.

B

When auscultating the blood pressure in a patient's upper extremity, you should place the head of the stethoscope over the _________ artery. Select one: A. radial B. brachial C. apical D. femoral

B

When caring for a female patient who has been sexually assaulted, you should: A. advise that she will not be allowed to change her clothes B. place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags C. ask the patient for a concise, detailed report of what happened to her D. allow law enforcement to take her statement before you begin treatment

B

When performing a secondary assessment on a conscious patient with nontraumatic abdominal pain and stable vital signs, you should: Select one: A. prepare the patient for transport first. B. focus on his or her chief complaint. C. examine the patient from head to toe. D. only palpate tender areas of the abdomen.

B

Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to mimic the signs and symptoms of a stroke? Select one: A. A postictal state B. Hypovolemia C. Hypoglycemia D. Intracranial bleeding

B

A patient w/ a head injury presents w/ abnormal flexion of his extremities. What numeric value should you assign him for motor response? A. 2 B. 4 C. 3 D. 5

C

A patient with hypoglycemia will often present with which of the following signs/symptoms? Select one: A. Deep, rapid respirations B. Hypertension C. Pale, cool, and clammy skin D. Warm, red, and dry skin

C

A patient with profuse sweating is referred to as being: Select one: A. flushed. B. plethoric. C. diaphoretic. D. edematous.

C

A person who experiences a calcaneus fracture after jumping and landing on his or her feet would MOST likely experience an accompanying fracture of the: A. symphysis pubis B. coccygeal spine C. lumbar spine D. thoracic spine

C

A pregnant trauma patient may lose a significant amount of blood before showing signs of shock because: A. pregnancy causes vasodilation and lower BP B. blood is shunted to the uterus and fetus during major trauma C. pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume D. pregnant patient can dramatically increase their HR

C

A strangulated hernia is one that: Select one: A. can be pushed back into the body cavity to which it belongs. B. spontaneously reduces without any surgical intervention. C. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues. D. is reducible if surgical intervention occurs within 2 hours.

C

A surgical procedure that creates an opening b/w the intestine and the surface of the body that allows for elimination of waste products is called a(n): A. intestinal shunt B. gastric stoma C. colostomy D. gastrostomy

C

A tube from the brain to the abdomen that drains excessive CSF is called a: A. cerebral bypass B. G-tube C. shunt D. CS tube

C

Before assessing the respiratory adequacy of a semiconscious infant or child, you must: A. routinely suction the mouth to remove oral secretions B. insert an NPA or OPA C. ensure that the airway is patent and clear of obstructions D. ensure that his/her head is in a hyperextended position

C

Before giving activated charcoal, you should: A. have the patient drink a glass of milk B. mix the suspension by stirring the bottle C. obtain approval from medical control D. mix it w/ an equal amount of water

C

Between each chest compression, you should __________. Select one: A. administer a breath B. check for a pulse C. allow full chest recoil D. remove your hands from the chest

C

Blood pressure is typically not assessed in children younger than _______ years A. 6 B. 5 C. 3 D. 4

C

Braxton-Hicks contractions are characterized by: A. regular contractions of progressively increasing intensity B. a rupture of the amniotic sac just before the contractions begin C. alleviation of pain w/ movement or changing positions D. pink or red bloody show in conjunction w/ the contractions

C

Bruising to the RUQ of the abdomen following blunt trauma is MOST suggestive of injury to the: A. stomach B. kidney C. liver D. spleen

C

Chronic renal failure is a condition that: Select one: A. occurs from conditions such as dehydration. B. can be reversed with prompt treatment. C. is often caused by hypertension or diabetes. D. causes dehydration from excessive urination.

C

Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include: Select one: A. warm, dry skin; hunger; abdominal pain; and deep, slow respirations. B. warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia; and rapid respirations. C. cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations. D. cold, clammy skin; bradycardia; hunger; and deep, rapid respirations.

C

For a patient with a gastrointestinal complaint, it is MOST important for the EMT to _________. Select one: A. perform all interventions prior to transport B. determine the cause of the patient's complaint C. identify whether the patient requires rapid transport D. avoid transporting the patient if the condition is minor

C

From a mental health standpoint, an abnormal or disturbing pattern of behavior is a matter of concern if it lasts for at least: Select one: A. 2 weeks. B. 3 weeks. C. 1 month. D. 1 week.

C

General guidelines for managing a patient with a behavioral emergency include: Select one: A. firmly identifying yourself as an EMS provider. B. placing the patient between yourself and an exit. C. being prepared to spend extra time with the patient. D. allowing the patient to be alone if he or she wishes.

C

In what area of the lungs does respiration occur? Select one: A. Capillaries B. Trachea C. Alveoli D. Bronchi

C

In which of the following situations would a direct ground lift be the MOST appropriate method of moving a patient? Select one: A. An unconscious patient with a possible ischemic stroke B. A patient who complains of hip pain following a fall C. A conscious patient complaining of abdominal pain D. A pedestrian with back pain after being struck by a car

C

Inadequate circulation of blood throughout the body is called ________. Select one: A. hypotension B. perfusion C. shock D. hypoxia

C

It would be MOST appropriate to perform a focused secondary assessment on a patient who A. has blood draining from the ears following a head injury B. was restrained during a high-speed MVC C. fainted and fell to the ground from a standing position D. struck his/her head and is experiencing nausea or vomiting

C

Peritonitis usually occurs when: A. bacteria or viruses invade the walls of the GI tract B. solid abdominal organs bleed secondary to penetrating trauma C. hollow abdominal organs are damaged and spill their contents into the peritoneal cavity D. the vessels that supply the abdominal organs become inflamed

C

Points of distribution (PODs) are strategically placed facilities where: Select one: A. weapons of mass destruction are distributed. B. chemical weapons are manufactured and distributed. C. antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed. D. chemical and biologic weapons are stockpiled.

C

Poor peripheral circulation will cause the skin to appear: Select one: A. cyanotic. B. flushed. C. ashen. D. pink.

C

Portable and mounted suction units must be powerful enough to generate a vacuum of at least ______ mm Hg when the tubing is clamped A. 100 B. 200 C. 300 D. 400

C

Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should: Select one: A. perform CPR for 30 seconds. B. assess for a pulse for 20 seconds. C. dry the chest if it is wet. D. contact medical control.

C

Rapid, labored breathing in a patient with signs and symptoms of AMI should make you suspicious for: Select one: A. a cardiac arrhythmia. B. right ventricular failure. C. congestive heart failure. D. significant hypotension.

C

Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by: Select one: A. reassessing the nature of illness. B. reviewing all treatment performed. C. repeating the primary assessment. D. taking another set of vital signs.

C

Risk factors for AMI that cannot be controlled include: Select one: A. lack of exercise. B. hyperglycemia. C. family history. D. excess stress.

C

Signs and symptoms of preeclampsia include: A. dyspnea and bradycardia B. dysuria and constipation C. headache and edema D. marked hypoglycemia

C

Situations in which you should use the rapid extrication technique include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. a patient who blocks access to another seriously injured patient. B. a patient who needs immediate care that requires a supine position. C. a patient who can be properly assessed while still in the vehicle. D. a patient whose condition requires immediate transport to the hospital.

C

Symptoms of both inhaled and ingested ricin include: Select one: A. joint pain and bradycardia. B. dehydration and convulsions. C. fever and headache. D. liver necrosis and diarrhea.

C

The Centennial Park bombing during the 1996 Summer Olympics is an example of: Select one: A. state-sponsored terrorism. B. apocalyptic violence. C. domestic terrorism. D. an ecoterrorist attack.

C

The EMT should use an AED on a child between 1 month and 8 years of age if: Select one: A. he or she is not breathing and has a weakly palpable pulse. B. special pads are used and the child has profound tachycardia. C. pediatric pads and an energy-reducing device are available. D. his or her condition is rapidly progressing to cardiac arrest.

C

The FIRST step in the START triage system is to: A. scan the area for patients w/ severe bleeding B. get a quick head count of all the patients involved C. move all walking patients to a designated area D. focus on the patients who are unconscious

C

The MOST common cause of dehydration in pediatric patients is: A. high fever B. internal blood loss C. vomiting and diarrhea D. refusal to drink fluids

C

The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the: A. spinous foramen. B. vertebral foramen. C. foramen magnum. D. foramen ovale.

C

The central nervous system (CNS)is composed of the: A. cerebellum and brain B. meninges and spinal cord C. brain and spinal cord D. cerebrum and meninges

C

The decline in cardiac function that commonly occurs in late adulthood is MOST often related to: A. hypotension B. medication use C. atherosclerosis D. kidney failure

C

The phrenic nerves control the diaphragm and exit the spinal cord at: A. C1, C2, and C3 B. C3 and C4 C. C3, C4, and C5 D. C1 and C2

C

To minimize the risk of litigation, the EMT should: A. always transport patients to the hospital of their choice. B. use universal precautions with every patient encounter. C. provide competent care that meets current standards. D. utilize at least four personnel when moving a patient.

C

Trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh ______ lb per cubic foot: A. 150 B. 50 C. 100 D. 200

C

Typically, medivac helicopters fly at speeds b/w: A. 150 and 200 mph B. 100 and 120 mph C. 130 and 150 mph D. 120 and 140 mph

C

Upon arrival at a trench rescue operation, you should __________ A. park as close to the incident as possible B. determine if rescuers are operating safely C. park at least 500 feet from the incident D. assist w/ the rescue operation

C

Upon arrival at a trench rescue operation, you should: A. park as close to the incident as possible B. determine if rescuers are operating safely C. park at least 500 feet from the incident D. assist with rescue operations

C

Causes of delirium in the older patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. low blood sugar level B. decreased cerebral perfusion C. Alzheimer disease D. acute hypovolemia

C

Upon arriving at the scene of a MVC, you can see three patients, one who is entrapped in his car and two who have been ejected from their vehicle. You should: A. begin triage to determine injury severity B. call medical control for further direction C. immediately request additional resources D. request law enforcement for traffic control

C

Urinary tract infections are more common in ____________. Select one: A. active adults B. sedentary adults C. women D. men

C

Urine is transported from the kidneys to the urinary bladder via the: A. urethra. B. renal duct. C. ureters. D. prostate.

C

Urticaria is the medical term for: Select one: A. burning. B. swelling. C. hives. D. a wheal.

C

Victims of inhaled poisoning will require which of the following? A. an oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal device to maintain an airway B. suctioning to clear the airway C. transport to an emergency department for evaluation D. ventilation w/ a BVM

C

What happens when blood volume is lost from the body? A. Arterial blood is diverted to the skin and muscles. B. Widespread vasodilation causes blood pressure to decrease. C. The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure. D. The veins dilate to increase systemic perfusion.

C

What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR? Select one: A. 3:2 B. 5:1 C. 30:2 D. 30:1

C

What is the route of administration for the EpiPen auto-injector? Select one: A. Sublingual B. Intravenous C. Intramuscular D. Intraosseous

C

What medication form does oral glucose come in? Select one: A. Liquid B. Suspension C. Gel D. Fine powder

C

What part of the nervous system controls the body's voluntary activities? A. central B. sensory C. somatic D. autonomic

C

When a mother is experiencing a contraction, you should instruct her to: A. hold her breath B. rest and breathe deeply C. take quick short breaths D. push for 30 sec

C

When a patient stiffens the muscles of the abdomen, it is known as _________ A. crepitus B. distention C. guarding D. instability

C

When a patient's respirations are shallow: Select one: A. oxygenation occurs more efficiently. B. carbon dioxide elimination is increased. C. tidal volume is markedly reduced. D. chest rise will be easily noticeable.

C

When activated, the SNS produces all of the following effects, EXCEPT: A. increase in HR B. dilation of the bronchiole smooth muscle C. pupillary constriction D. shunting of blood to vital organs

C

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock? Select one: A. Simple pneumothorax B. Spinal cord injury C. Cardiac tamponade D. Liver laceration

C

Which of the following inquiries should you make in private when obtaining a SAMPLE history from an adolescent patient? A. change in bladder habits B. duration of symptoms C. sexual activity D. past medical history

C

Which of the following interventions is the MOST critical to the outcome of a patient w/ multi system trauma? A. elevation of the lower extremities B. IV fluid administration C. rapid transport to a trauma center D. early administration of oxygen

C

Which of the following is NOT a common factor that would affect a 75 year old patient's vital signs? A. overall health B. medications C. increased weight D. medical conditions

C

Which of the following is NOT a component of the Apgar score? A. pulse B. grimace C. body size D. activity

C

Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin? A. Temperature regulation B. Sensory reception C. Metabolic coordination D. Pressure and pain perception

C

Which of the following is NOT generally considered an obstetrical emergency? A. significant bleeding after delivery of the placenta B. more than 500 mL of blood loss before placental delivery C. return of contractions following delivery of the baby D. failure of the placenta to deliver after 30 min

C

Which of the following is a metabolic cause of a seizure? Select one: A. Head trauma B. Brain tumor C. Poisoning D. Massive stroke

C

Which of your senses can be safely used to identify a HazMat incident? A. smell and sight B. sound and smell C. sight and sound D. sight and touch

C

Which organ or organ system has the greatest tolerance for lack of perfusion (shock)? A. kidneys B. skeletal muscle C. gastrointestinal system D. brain

C

Which portion of the blood carries oxygen and wastes away from body tissues? A. WBCs B. plasma C. RBCs D. platelets

C

Which type of communications equipment functions as a radio receiver and searches across several frequencies? A. Mobile repeater B. Duplex station C. Scanner D. Simplex station

C

While assisting a paramedic in the attempted resuscitation of a 55-year-old male in cardiac arrest, you should expect the paramedic to: Select one: A. withhold drug therapy until an intraosseous catheter is in place. B. give the patient activated charcoal to rule out a drug overdose. C. administer drugs via the IV route to achieve the fastest effect. D. give the patient nitroglycerin to increase his blood pressure.

C

While auscultating an elderly woman's breath sounds, you hear low-pitched "rattling" sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. This finding is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions? Select one: A. Acute asthma attack B. Widespread atelectasis C. Aspiration pneumonia D. Early pulmonary edema

C

While eating dinner, your partner suddenly grabs his throat and has a panicked look on his face. He has a weak cough, faint inspiratory stridor, and cyanosis around the lips. You should: Select one: A. deliver up to five back blows and reassess him. B. place him in a supine position and open his airway. C. stand behind him and administer abdominal thrusts. D. encourage him to cough as forcefully as he can.

C

As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient w/ chest pain based on: A. an order from a paramedic B. the patient's condition C. medical director approval D. the transport time to the hospital

C. medical director approval

A supracondylar or intercondylar fracture is aka a fracture of the: A. radial head B. proximal radius C. olecranon process D. distal humerus

D

Asthma is caused by a response of the: Select one: A. respiratory system. B. endocrine system. C. cardiovascular system. D. immune system.

D

At the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you determine that there are two critically injured patients and that another ambulance is needed. You attempt to contact the dispatcher with your portable radio but are unsuccessful. You should: A. make another attempt to contact dispatch from an area of higher terrain. B. place both patients in the ambulance and transport them at once. C. ask a police officer to call dispatch with his portable radio. D. use the mobile radio in the ambulance to contact dispatch.

D

Before positioning an infant or child's airway, you should: A. rule out an injury to the spinal cord B. thoroughly suction his/her airway C. put padding behind his or her head D. place him or her on a firm surface

D

Bleeding w/in the brain tissue itself is called a(n): A. subdural hematoma B. subarachnoid hemorrhage C. epidural hematoma D. intracerebral hematoma

D

Bones are connected to other bones by bands of tough fibrous tissues called: A. bursa B. cartilage C. tendons D. ligaments

D

Botulinum is: Select one: A. a disease of the leukocytes. B. rarely associated with death. C. an acute viral infection. D. a potent bacterial neurotoxin.

D

Burns assoc w/ lighting strikes are typically: A. partial-thickness B. full-thickness C. third-degree D. superficial

D

CPR is in progress on a pregnant woman. Shortly after manually displacing her uterus to the left, return of spontaneous circulation occurs. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this? Select one: A. Displacement of her uterus caused blood to flow backward, which increased blood flow to her heart. B. Increased blood flow to her heart caused her ventricles to stop fibrillating, which restored her pulse. C. Displacement of her uterus allowed her lungs to expand more fully, which restored her pulse. D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest compression effectiveness.

D

Capnography is used to: Select one: A. assess how much oxygen is bound to the hemoglobin. B. trend a patient's blood pressure and assess for shock. C. assess how much oxygen is reaching the body's tissues. D. determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled.

D

Cardiogenic shock following AMI is caused by: Select one: A. a profound increase in the patient's heart rate. B. widespread dilation of the systemic vasculature. C. hypovolemia secondary to severe vomiting. D. decreased pumping force of the heart muscle.

D

Care for a patient w/ a fractured tibia and suspected compartment syndrome includes: A. immobilizing the leg w/ an air splint B. applying chemical hot packs to the leg C. applying traction to maintain distal pulses D. keeping the leg at the level of the heart

D

Cerebral palsy is characterized by poorly controlled __________ movement A. neck B. eye C. extremity D. body

D

Epinephrine is indicated for patients with an allergic reaction when: Select one: A. the patient is anxious and tachycardic. B. the reaction produces severe urticarial. C. a paramedic is present at the scene. D. wheezing and hypotension are present.

D

As time progresses following a significant injury: Select one: A. the patient's injuries will most likely be irreparable. B. most patients will die secondary to internal bleeding. C. the patient's blood pressure elevates significantly. D. the body's ability to compensate for shock decreases.

D

Excessive eating caused by cellular "hunger" is called: Select one: A. polydipsia. B. dysphasia. C. dyspepsia. D. polyphagia.

D

Fetal complications assoc. w/ drug or alcohol-addicted mothers include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. low birth weight B. respiratory depression C. premature delivery D. profound tachycardia

D

Findings during the social assessment of an older patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. interaction with others B. delays in obtaining meals C. daily activity assistance D. outdated medications

D

Functions of the liver include: Select one: A. release of amylase, which breaks down starches into sugar. B. absorption of nutrients and toxins. C. production of hormones that regulate blood sugar levels. D. secretion of bile and filtration of toxic substances.

D

General care for a patient w/ a tracheostomy tube includes all of the following, except: A. maintaining the patient in a position of comfort when possible B. ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation at all times C. suctioning the tube as needed to clear a thick mucous plug D. removing the tube is the area around it appears to be infected

D

If applying a dressing to control the bleeding of a patient's arm, the EMT should: A. apply direct pressure first B. use large or small gauze pads or dressings depending upon the size of the wound C. cover the entire wound, above and below, with the dressing D. all of these answers are correct

D

In contrast to the sympathetic nervous system, the parasympathetic nervous system: Select one: A. prepares the body to handle stress. B. dilates the blood vessels in the muscles. C. causes an increase in the heart rate. D. slows the heart and respiratory rates.

D

Kussmaul respirations are an indication that the body is: Select one: A. severely hypoxic and is eliminating excess CO2. B. compensating for decreased blood glucose levels. C. trying to generate energy by breathing deeply. D. attempting to eliminate acids from the blood.

D

Substance abuse is MOST accurately defined as: A. unwillingly and unknowingly consuming drugs or alcohol B. knowingly selling illicit drugs in order to buy more drugs C. willfully using a therapeutic drug to treat a mental illness D. knowingly misusing a substance to produce a desired effect

D

Sudden death following AMI is MOST often caused by: Select one: A. severe bradycardia. B. cardiogenic shock. C. congestive heart failure. D. ventricular fibrillation.

D

Symptomatic hypoglycemia will MOST likely develop if a patient: Select one: A. eats a regular meal followed by mild exertion. B. markedly overeats and misses an insulin dose. C. misses one or two prescribed insulin injections. D. takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin.

D

Which of the following is the MOST reliable method of estimating a patient's cardiac output? Select one: A. Determine the average diastolic blood pressure. B. Listen to heart sounds with a stethoscope. C. Connect the patient to an electrocardiogram. D. Assess the heart rate and strength of the pulse.

D

Which of the following nerves carry info from the body to the brain via the spinal cord? A. somatic B. motor C. central D. sensory

D

Which of the following occurs after tissues are injured? A. RBCs separate from plasma B. RBCs become less sticky C. local blood vessels dilate D. platelets collect at the injury site

D

Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely when injured? A. intestine B. stomach C. bladder D. liver

D

The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to: Select one: A. ask all patients if they have recently traveled abroad. B. wear a HEPA mask when treating any respiratory patient. C. routinely place a surgical mask on all respiratory patients. D. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.

D

The spinal cord exits the cranium through the: Select one: A. foramen magnum. B. vertebral foramen. C. foramen lamina. D. cauda equina.

A

Which of the following would be LEAST likely to occur in a patient w/ a core body temp between 89-92 deg F? A. tachycardia B. bradypnea C. stiff muscles D. contusion

A

Your work uniform is an example of what level of protection? A. level D B. level A C. level B D. level C

A

Which of the following statements regarding the different stages of the grieving process is correct? A. The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously. B. Bargaining is the most unpleasant stage of the grieving process. C. The grieving process typically begins with severe depression. D. It is rare that people will jump back and forth between stages.

A.

A "silent" heart attack occurs when: A. the patient minimizes the chest pain B. the usual chest pain is not present C. a sudden dysrhythmia causes death D. sweating is the only presentation

B

Bone marrow produces: A. lymphocytes B. blood cells C. cartilage D. electrolytes

B

When the body loses sweat, it also loses: A. plasma B. electrolytes C. nutrients D. erythrocytes

B

Your assessment of an unresponsive patient reveals that her breathing is inadequate. Your MOST immediate action should be to: Select one: A. move her to the ambulance stretcher. B. check her airway for obstructions. C. ventilate her with a bag-valve mask. D. administer high-flow oxygen.

B

____________ is what you can see of a person's response to the environment. Select one: A. Affect B. Behavior C. Psychosis D. Neurosis

B

As you enter the residence of a patient who has possibly overdosed, you should: A. look for drug paraphernalia B. be alert for personal hazards C. observe the scene for drug bottles D. quickly gain access to the patient

B.

You should be MOST suspicious that a patient has experienced a significant head injury if his/her pulse is: A. weak B. rapid C. slow D. irregular

C

Which of the following courses requires about 150 hours of training? A. AEMT B. paramedic C. EMT D. EMR

C. EMT

Causes of vaginal bleeding include which of the following? A. ectopic pregnancy B. vaginal trauma C. spontaneous abortion D. all of these answers are correct

D

Which of the following structures does NOT contain smooth muscle? A. Blood vessels B. Urinary system C. Gastrointestinal tract D. Skeletal system

D

Which of the following would the EMT likely NOT perform on a responsive patient with a headache and no apparent life-threatening conditions? Select one: A. Assessment of oxygen saturation B. Noninvasive blood pressure monitoring C. Focused secondary assessment D. Systematic head-to-toe examination

D

The phenomenon of pressure waves emanating from a bullet, causing damage remote from its path, is known as: A. coughing up blood B. vomiting blood C. an irregular pulse D. multiple rib fractures

D

The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called: Select one: A. respiration. B. oxygenation. C. diffusion. D. ventilation.

D

When a person is lying supine at the end of exhalation, the diaphragm: A. contracts and flattens inferiorly B. descends below the level of the navel C. is less prone to penetrating trauma D. may rise as high as the nipple line

D

When a woman presents w/ abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he/she: A. has formed a general impression of the patient B. ascertains if the patient was ever pregnant C. has obtained a complete set of vital signs D. has gathered patient history information

D

When should nonlifesaving interventions be performed for your multisystem trauma patient? Select one: A. Prior to transport B. During the primary assessment C. Immediately after the injuries are discovered D. En route to the hospital

D

When the EMT assists a paramedic with an advanced intervention, he or she should recall that the focus of the intervention is on: Select one: A. learning to perform the skill. B. completing the procedure. C. following local protocol. D. solving a clinical problem.

D

When the parasympathetic nervous system is activated: A. hormones are released that prepare the body for stress B. blood is shunted away from the digestive organs C. HR and BP increase D. the HR decreases and blood vessels dilate

D

Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of adequately performed bag-valve mask ventilations in an apneic adult with a pulse? Select one: A. Consistently increasing heart rate B. Decreased compliance when squeezing the bag C. Twenty breaths/min being delivered to the adult D. Adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag

D

Which types of MVCs present the greatest potential for multiple impacts? A. lateral and rollover B. rear-end and rotational C. frontal and rotational D. rotational and rollover

D

Some women experience ________ during ovulation A. severe bleeding B. slight cramping C. hypotension D. severe abdominal pain

B

What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult?

12-20 breaths/min

A 17 y/o male was shot in the right anterior chest during an altercation. As your partner is applying oxygen, you perform a rapid assessment and find an open chest wound w/ a small amount of blood bubbling from it. You should: A. apply an occlusive dressing to the wound and continue your assessment B. direct your partner to assist the patient's ventilations w/ a BVM C. control the bleeding from the wound and prepare to transport at once D. place a sterile dressing over the wound and apply direct pressure

A

A 37-year-old male is found unresponsive in his car. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and labored. As you and your partner are assessing and treating the patient, a police officer hands you a medication named Alupent, which he found in the backseat of the patient's car. This medication suggests that the patient has a history of: Select one: A. asthma. B. allergic reactions. C. hypertension. D. heart disease.

A

A patient with spontaneous respirations is breathing: Select one: A. without assistance. B. at a normal rate. C. without difficulty. D. with shallow depth.

A

An attack on an abortion clinic would MOST likely be carried out by a(n): Select one: A. single-issue group. B. violent religious group. C. doomsday cult. D. extremist political group.

A

An infant or child w/ respiratory distress will attempt to keep his/her alveoli expanded at the end of inhalation by: A. grunting B. wheezing C. retracting the intercostal muscles D. assuming a tripod position

A

Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the: A. gallbladder. B. pancreas. C. stomach. D. kidneys.

A

By placing one hand on your head and the other hand over your abdomen, you are asking a hearing-impaired patient if he or she: A. is sick B. is nauseated C. is hurt D. needs help

A

CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is: Select one: A. prone. B. on a firm surface. C. horizontal. D. supine.

A

Causes of infant death that may be mistaken for SIDS include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hyperglycemia B. severe infection C. meningitis D. child abuse

A

Children are often "belly breathers" because ___________ A. their intercostal muscles are not developed B. they are routinely hypoxic C. their diaphragm is not functional D. they are consciously controlling ventilations

A

Children of which age group are considered toddlers? A. 1-3 years B. 3-6 years C. 1 month to 1 year D. over 6 years

A

Circulation of blood w/in an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' oxygen, nutritional, and waste-removal needs is termed __________ A. perfusion B. coagulation C. hypoperfusion D. hemorrhage

A

Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. absent peripheral pulses. B. cool and clammy skin. C. restlessness or anxiety. D. rapid, shallow breathing.

A

Closed chest injuries are typically caused by __________ A. blunt trauma B. high-velocity weapons C. penetrating trauma D. flying debris

A

Common complications associated w/ central venous catheters include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. rupture of a central vein B. clotting of the line C. a local infection D. bleeding around the line

A

Common side effects of epinephrine include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. drowsiness. B. headache. C. dizziness. D. tachycardia.

A

Common signs and symptoms of AMI include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. pain exacerbated by breathing. B. irregular heartbeat. C. sudden unexplained sweating. D. shortness of breath or dyspnea.

A

Early signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding include: A. pain and distention B. bruising only C. significant hypotension D. widespread ecchymosis

A

Following delivery of the placenta, the mother is experiencing vaginal bleeding. After massaging the uterine funds and allowing the mother to breastfeed, the bleeding stops. This occurred b/c: A. these actions stimulate the production of oxytocin and cause uterine contraction B. breastfeeding causes uterine blood vessels to dilate C. uterine massage increases blood flow to the uterus D. a portion of the placenta was retained in the uterus

A

Following direct trauma to the left upper back, a 44 y/o male presents w/ diaphoresis and restlessness. His BP is 100/50, pulse 120 and weak, and respirations are 24 and labored. Your assessment reveals abrasions and contusions over the left scapula. You should: A. apply high-flow oxygen, consider spinal precautions, and transport w/o delay B. apply high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed secondary assessment, and transport C. hyperventilate him w/ a BVM and monitor his oxygen saturation D. focus your assessment on his scapulae and clavicles and apply high-flow oxygen

A

How is nitroglycerin usually given by the EMT? Select one: A. Sublingually B. Inhaled C. Orally D. Injected

A

In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur: Select one: A. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane. B. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion. C. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed. D. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen.

A

In patients with deeply pigmented skin, changes in color may be apparent only in certain areas, such as the: Select one: A. lips or oral mucosa. B. dorsum of the hand. C. forehead and face. D. back of the neck.

A

Patients with tuberculosis pose the greatest risk for transmitting the disease when they: Select one: A. cough. B. vomit. C. are bleeding. D. have a fever.

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) typically does NOT affect the: A. urinary bladder B. fallopian tubes C. uterus D. ovaries

A

Reassessment is performed to determine all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. the reason why the patient called EMS. B. the nature of any newly identified problems. C. the patient's response to your treatment. D. whether or not the patient is deteriorating.

A

The EMT's role at the scene of a search and rescue attempt is to: A. stand by at the command post until the person is located B. direct the search effort from a centralized location C. accompany search team members and provide care D. report to a location where the patient will be carried

A

The _____ contain(s) about 75% of the brain's total volume A. cerebrum B. cerebellum C. brain stem D. meninges

A

The term used when individual units or different organizations make independent, and often inefficient, decisions regarding an incident is called: A. freelancing B. single command C. undermining D. logistical chaos

A

The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the: A. diaphragm B. anterior rib cage C. intercostal margin D. costovertebral angle

A

Unlike a multiple-casualty incident, a natural disaster: A. often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days B. exists when there are more than 100 critically injured patients C. usually does not require the incident command system process D. is typically short-lived and does not require as much manpower

A

Which of the following duties or responsibilities does NOT fall w/in the realm of the medical branch of the incident command system? A. extrication B. triage C. treatment D. transport

A

Which of the following is considered an organic brain syndrome? Select one: A. Alzheimer dementia B. Depression C. Schizophrenia D. Anxiety conditions

A

Which of the following is most likely to cause immediate death? A. aortic rupture B. pulmonary contusion C. myocardial contusion D. aortic dissection

A

Which of the following is probably NOT a multiple-casualty incident? A. a MVC w/ two critically injured patients and two ambulances B. a loss of power to a hospital or nursing home w/ ventilator-dependent patients C. a rollover crash of a school bus w/ eight children who have injuries of varying severity D. an apartment fire w/ one patient and the possibility of others trapped in the building

A

While en route to a major MVC, an on-scene police officer advises you that a 6 y/o male who was riding in the front seat is involved. He further states that the child was only wearing a lap belt and that the air bag deployed. On the basis of this info, you should be MOST suspicious that the child has experienced: A. neck and facial injuries B. open abdominal trauma C. blunt trauma to the head D. lower extremity fractures

A

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a middle-aged man who collapsed about 5 minutes ago. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Bystanders are present, but have not provided any care. You should: Select one: A. begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible. B. have your partner perform CPR while you question the bystanders. C. perform two-rescuer CPR for 5 minutes and request ALS backup. D. immediately apply the AED pads and analyze his cardiac rhythm.

A

You are dispatched to the county jail for an inmate who is "sick." When you arrive, you find the patient, a 33-year-old male, unresponsive. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and shallow. Your initial action should be to: Select one: A. provide assisted ventilation. B. apply a pulse oximeter. C. request a paramedic unit. D. assess his blood pressure.

A

You are performing mouth-to-mask ventilations with oxygen connected and set at a flow rate of 15 L/min. What percentage of oxygen is your patient receiving? Select one: A. 55% B. 65% C. 45% D. 75%

A

You are triaging four patients who were involved in a head-on MVC. Which of the following patients should be assigned the highest (red) triage category? A. 49 y/o w/ diabetes and difficulty breathing B. 36 y/o w/ back pain and numb extremities C. 29 y/o w/ bilaterally closed femur deformities D. 50 y/o w/ an open head injury and no pulse

A

Which of the following patient populations typically require a modified drug dose? Select one: A. Middle adults B. Pediatric patients C. Females D. Patients with asthma

B

A 12 y/o male jumped approx 12 feet from a tree and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his lower back. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for his back pain? A. secondary fall after the initial impact B. energy transmission to the spine C. lateral impact to the spine D. direct trauma to the spinal column

B

Which of the following does NOT usually contribute to or cause obesity? A. high caloric intake B. rapid metabolic rate C. rapid metabolism D. genetic predisposition

C

A man jumped from the roof of his house and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his heels, knees, and lower back. This mechanism of injury is an example of: A. distraction B. axial loading C. hyperflexion D. hyperextension

B

Activated charcoal may be indicated for a patient who ingested: A. iron B. aspirin C. methanol D. aspirin

B

As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of: A. the general public. B. another EMT. C. a paramedic supervisor. D. the medical director.

B

A "silent" heat attack occurs when: A. the patient minimizes the chest pain B. the usual chest pain is not present C. a sudden dysrhythmia causes death D. sweating is the only presentation

B

Which of the following veins is located inferior to the trunk? Select one: A. Cephalic B. Subclavian C. Saphenous D. Axillary

C

A 22 y/o female was ejected from her car after striking a tree head-on. As you approach her, you note obvious closed deformities to both of her femurs. She is not moving and does not appear to be conscious. You should: A. assess for a carotid pulse and assist her ventilations B. stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment C. administer oxygen and perform a rapid assessment D. apply manual stabilization to both of her femurs

B

A 6 month old male presents w/ 2 days of vomiting and diarrhea. He is conscious, but his level of activity is decreased. The infant's mother tells you that he has not had a soiled diaper in over 12 hours. The infant's HR is 140 and his anterior fontanelle appears to be slightly sunken. You should suspect: A. severe dehydration B. moderate dehydration C. hypovolemic shock D. mild dehydration

B

A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should: Select one: A. determine if he has a valid living will. B. begin CPR until an AED is available. C. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated. D. start CPR and transport immediately.

B

A Colles fracture involves a fracture of the: A. distal ulna B. distal radius C. proximal radius D. radius and ulna

B

A mucosal atomizer device (MAD) is used to deliver certain medications via the: Select one: A. transdermal route. B. intranasal route. C. inhalation route. D. sublingual route.

B

Aspirin is beneficial to patients suspected of having a heart attack because it: Select one: A. causes direct coronary vasodilation. B. prevents the aggregation of platelets. C. reduces the associated chest pain. D. dissolves the coronary artery clot.

B

Early signs of respiratory distress in the child include: A. bradycardia B. restlessness C. cyanosis D. decreased LOC

B

Following delivery of a full-term baby, you have properly cared for the baby and have clamped and cut the umbilical cord. During transport, you note that the mother is experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding. You should: A. place her legs together and position her on her left side B. firmly massage the uterine fundus w/ a circular motion C. elevate her legs 6-8 in and cover her w/ a blanket D. carefully insert a sterile trauma dressing into her vagina

B

In contrast to a behavioral crisis, a psychiatric emergency occurs when a person: Select one: A. exhibits impaired functioning due to a chemical or genetic disturbance. B. becomes agitated or violent and is a threat to him- or herself or others. C. experiences a sudden attack of panic secondary to a stressful situation. D. experiences feelings of sadness and despair for longer than a month.

B

In contrast to a cerebral concussion, a cerebral contusion: A. usually does not cause a loss of consciousness B. involves physical injury to the brain tissue C. does not cause pressure w/in the skull D. results from a laceration to the brain tissue

B

When performing the rapid extrication technique to remove a patient from his or her vehicle, you should: Select one: A. apply a cervical collar and immobilize the patient on a short backboard. B. apply a cervical collar and remove the patient on a long backboard. C. apply a vest-style extrication device prior to moving the patient. D. grasp the patient by the clothing and drag him or her from the car.

B

Which of the following areas of the body has the thinnest skin? A. soles of the feet B. ears C. back D. scalp

B

Which of the following drugs is commonly referred to as "roofies"? A. GHB B. Rohypnol C. MDMA D. Ketamine

B

Which of the following is characteristic of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)? Select one: A. The passage of bright red blood in the stool or coughing up blood B. Burning or pain in the stomach that subsides immediately after eating C. Symptom relief after taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs D. Sharp pain that is typically located in both lower abdominal quadrants

B

Which of the following questions is of LEAST pertinence when the EMT is determining whether or not to declare a multiple-casualty incident and activate the incident command system? A. what will happen if there are more than two patients that require emergency care? B. how many paramedics are able to respond to the scene and provide advanced care? C. how many seriously injured patients can be effectively cared for in my ambulance? D. how long will it take for additional resources to arrive at the scene once requested?

B

With regard to the legal implications of child abuse: A. child abuse must be reported only if it can be proven B. EMTs must report all suspected cases of child abuse C. you should document your perceptions on the run form D. a supervisor can forbid you from reporting possible abuse

B

You and your EMT partner are the first to arrive at the scene of an unresponsive 70-year-old man. Your assessment reveals that he is apneic and pulseless. A paramedic unit is en route to the scene and will arrive in approximately 5 minutes. You should: Select one: A. perform CPR only and wait for the manual defibrillator to arrive. B. begin CPR, apply the AED, and deliver a shock if it is indicated. C. begin CPR and have your partner update the responding paramedics. D. apply the AED while your partner provides rescue breathing.

B

You are treating a man who was assaulted and has a closed head injury. The patient, who has slurred speech, becomes verbally abusive and tells you to leave him alone. You should: A. allow the patient to refuse treatment because the injury was not his fault. B. proceed with treatment and utilize law enforcement for assistance if necessary. C. have the police arrest the patient so that you can legally begin treatment. D. ask a police officer to transport the patient to the hospital.

B

You should suspect that a patient is experiencing respiratory failure if he or she: Select one: A. is restless and is working hard to breathe. B. has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone. C. has an increased heart rate and retractions. D. is anxious, tachycardic, and leaning forward.

B

You receive a call for a domestic dispute. When you arrive at the scene, you find a young male standing on the front porch of his house. You notice that an adjacent window is broken. The patient has a large body, is clenching his fists, and is yelling obscenities at you. Which of the following findings is LEAST predictive of this patient's potential for violence? Select one: A. His shouting of obscenities B. His large body size C. The broken window D. His clenched fists

B

You suspect that a pregnant 16-year-old girl has a broken leg after she was hit by a car. You explain that you plan to splint her leg, and she agrees to treatment. Which type of consent is her agreement considered? A. Informed B. Expressed C. Implied D. Minor's

B

You suspect your patient is in shock. You note the patient's skin is pale. This is likely due to ___________. Select one: A. peripheral vasodilation B. peripheral vasoconstriction C. hypothermia D. an increased heart rate

B

Your patient is in shock, but the body's defense mechanisms are currently able to maintain adequate circulation. This is called ___________. Select one: A. irreversible shock B. compensated shock C. late shock D. decompensated shock

B

A precipitous labor and delivery is MOST common in women who: A. are younger than 30 B. have delivered a baby before C. are pregnant for the first time D. have gestational diabetes

B precipitous= fast

The EMT is legally obligated to protect a patient's privacy according to _______ A. APGAR B. HIPAA C. DCAP D. CQI

B. HIPAA

The ability to take appropriate action with little direction is known as __________ A. diplomacy B. self-motivation C. time management D. self-confidence

B. self-motivation

A 2 y/o child who has no recent history of illness suddenly appears cyanotic and cannot speak after playing w/ a small toy. You should: A. perform a blind finger sweep B. visualize the child's airway C. perform abdominal thrusts D. give oxygen and transport at once

C

A 20 y/o male collided w/ another player during a hockey game and complains of severe pain to the left shoulder. Assessment reveals that the clavicle is bulging anteriorly at the shoulder. The EMT should suspect: A. posterior dislocation of the shoulder B. dislocation of the glenohumeral joint C. separation of the acromioclavicular joint D. multiple fractures of the proximal humerus

C

A 25 y/o man overdosed on heroin and is unresponsive. His breathing is slow and shallow and he is bradycardic. He has track marks on both arms. The EMT should: A. administer naloxone via the intranasal route B. position the patient on his side and transport C. insert a nasal airway and ventilate w/ a BVM D. administer naloxone via the intramuscular route

C

A 26 y/o female presents w/ heavy vaginal bleeding. She is conscious, but restless. BP is 84/54, pulse 120 and weak, and respirations are 22 w/ adequate depth. She tells you that she inserted a tampon about 2 hrs ago. You should: A. assist her ventilations w/ a BVM, place one sterile dressing into her vagina, perform a rapid secondary assessment, and transport B. administer high-flow oxygen, ask her to remove the tampon, performa. detailed secondary assessment, and transport promptly C. administer high-flow oxygen, place a sterile pad over her vagina, keep her warm, elevate her lower extremities, and transport w/o delay D. administer high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed assessment of her vaginal area for signs of trauma, place her on her side, and transport

C

If you cannot palpate a pulse in an unresponsive patient whose collapse was not witnessed, you should: Select one: A. assess for adequate breathing. B. palpate at another pulse site. C. immediately begin CPR. D. apply an AED at once.

C

A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is: A. nitrogen. B. oxygen. C. heat. D. lactic acid.

C

A disposable oxygen humidifier should be considered for ambulance services that often transport patients for _______ hour(s) or more A. 3 B. 2 C. 1 D. 4

C

A man called EMS 12 hours after injuring his chest. Your assessment reveals a flail segment to the right side of the chest. The patient is experiencing respiratory distress and his oxygen saturation is 78%. His breath sounds are equal bilaterally and his jugular veins are normal. You should suspect: A. tension pneumothorax B. traumatic asphyxia C. pulmonary contusion D. massive hemothorax

C

A normal systolic bp for a 30 y/o is b/w: A. 80 and 120 mm Hg B. 70 and 140 mm Hg C. 90 and 140 mm Hg D. 60 and 120 mm Hg

C

A young female experienced a laceration to her left eyeball from flying glass when her boyfriend broke a soda bottle against a wall. There is moderate bleeding and the patient states that she cannot see out of the injured eye. You should: A. apply firm direct pressure to the uninjured eye and cover the opposite eye B. ask her to move the injured eye to assess the integrity of the optic nerve C. avoid applying pressure to the globe when you are covering the eye D. carefully examine her eye and remove any foreign objects if needed

C

Abdominal pain, vomiting, and fever are most likely due to _________ A. hypovolemia B. hemorrhage C. infection D. evisceration

C

According to the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA): A. all health care facilities are legally obligated to provide assessment and care only if the patient is critically ill or injured B. a patient maintains the legal right to recant his or her consent to emergency treatment, even after signing in to the emergency department C. all health care facilities must provide a medical assessment and required treatment, regardless of the patient's ability to pay D. a health care facility has the right to refuse assessment and treatment to a patient, but only if his/her condition is not deemed critical

C

According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient has a respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min, you should: A. assign an immediate category B. look for posturing C. assess for a distal pulse D. assess neurologic status

C

According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient is not breathing, you should: A. triage him/her as expectant B. give 5 rescue breaths and reassess C. immediately check for a pulse D. open the airway and reassess breathing

C

Acute pulmonary edema would MOST likely develop as the result of: Select one: A. right-sided heart failure. B. an upper airway infection. C. toxic chemical inhalation. D. severe hyperventilation.

C

Advil, Nuprin, and Motrin are trade names for the generic medication: Select one: A. aspirin. B. nitrostat. C. ibuprofen. D. acetaminophen.

C

An injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with his GCS score? Select one: A. Opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, localizes pain B. Opens eyes spontaneously, is confused when spoken to, exhibits abnormal flexion C. Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain D. Eyes remain closed, makes incomprehensible sounds, exhibits abnormal extension

C

An overdose of acetaminophen, the active ingredient in Tylenol, will MOST likely cause: A. CNS depression B. kidney failure C. liver failure D. gastric ulcers

C

An oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is less than: Select one: A. 1,500 psi. B. 200 psi. C. 500 psi. D. 1,000 psi.

C

Immediately after giving an epinephrine injection, you should: Select one: A. record the time and dose given. B. notify medical control of your action. C. properly dispose of the syringe. D. reassess the patient's vital signs.

C

Immediately after physically restraining a violent patient, the EMT should: Select one: A. inform medical control of the situation. B. document the time the restraints were applied. C. reassess the patient's airway and breathing. D. advise the patient why restraint was needed.

C

In a patient w/ a head injury, hypertension, bradycardia, and Biot respirations indicate: A. internal bleeding in the chest B. decreased cerebral blood flow C. herniation of the brain stem D. an underlying skull fracture

C

In contrast to inhalation, exhalation: Select one: A. is an active process caused by decreased intrathoracic pressure. B. occurs when the diaphragm lowers and expels air from the lungs. C. is a passive process caused by increased intrathoracic pressure. D. requires muscular effort to effectively expel air from the lungs.

C

In contrast to type 1 diabetes, type 2 diabetes: Select one: A. occurs when antibodies attack insulin-producing cells. B. is commonly diagnosed in children and young adults. C. is caused by resistance to insulin at the cellular level. D. is caused by a complete lack of insulin in the body.

C

In determining the potential for a terrorist attack, you should routinely observe all of the following on every call, EXCEPT: Select one: A. victim's statements. B. the location type. C. weather conditions. D. the type of call.

C

In pediatric patients, the liver and spleen are ________ A. smaller in proportion to the abdomen B. less likely to bleed when injured C. larger in proportion to the abdomen D. more protected by the thorax compared to adults

C

When an elderly patient presents you w/ multiple OTC meds that he/she is taking, it is MOST important to: A. contact each of the physicians whose names are on the medications B. look up all of the medications before providing care to the patient C. recall that the patient is at risk for negative medication interactions D. ask the patient to explain what each of the medications is used for

C

When assessing a 78 y/o female who complains of SOB, the EMT should: A. place the patient supine to see if the problem worsens B. conclude that the patient is experiencing a heart attack C. determine the position in which the patient normally sleeps D. give oxygen only if the patient has labored breathing

C

When assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would MOST likely reveal the cause of the problem? Select one: A. Primary assessment B. Baseline vital signs C. Medical history D. Index of suspicion

C

When determining the frequency of contractions, you should time the contractions from the: A. end of one to the end of the next B. start of one to the end of the next C. start of one to the start of the next D. end of one to the start of the next

C

When inserting an OPA in an infant or child, you should: A. ensure that his/her neck is hyperextended B. place padding under the child's head C. depress the tongue w/ a tongue depressor D. insert it until the flange rests on the teeth

C

You are dispatched to a residence for a 66-year-old male who, according to family members, has suffered a massive stroke. Your primary assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should: Select one: A. perform CPR for 5 minutes before applying the AED. B. obtain a blood glucose sample to rule out hypoglycemia. C. initiate CPR and attach an AED as soon as possible. D. assess the patient for a facial droop and hemiparesis.

C

You are dispatched to a state park for a young female experiencing an allergic reaction. Your assessment reveals that her breathing is severely labored and her blood pressure is very low. You carry epinephrine auto-injectors on your ambulance and have been trained and approved by your medical director to administer them. As your partner gives the patient supplemental oxygen, you attempt to contact medical control but do not have a signal from your cell phone. You should: Select one: A. immediately load the patient into the ambulance, begin transport, and reattempt to contact medical control when you receive a cell signal. B. notify dispatch and request that a paramedic unit respond to the scene so they can administer epinephrine to the patient. C. administer epinephrine to the patient, begin immediate transport, and attempt to contact medical control en route to the hospital. D. place her in a supine position, keep her warm, begin transport to the hospital, and request a paramedic intercept en route.

C

Elevation of the rib cage during inhalation occurs when: A. the diaphragm descends B. intrathoracic pressure decreases C. abdominal contents descend D. the intercostal muscles contract

D

Which section of the heart receives deoxygenated blood? A. atria B. ventricles C. right D. left

C.

The ability to handle multiple tasks based on their priority is called ________ A. patient empathy B. integrity C. time management D. patient advocacy

C. time management

"Gastro" in the word "gastroenteritis" means: A. bowel. B. tongue. C. intestine. D. stomach.

D

A 60-year-old female presents with a tearing sensation in her lower back. Her skin is sweaty and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: Select one: A. strangulated hernia. B. kidney stones. C. acute pancreatitis. D. aortic aneurysm.

D

A behavioral crisis interferes with which of the following? Select one: A. Activities of daily living B. Behavior that is acceptable to the community C. Dressing, eating, or bathing D. All of these answers are correct.

D

A patient regains consciousness en route from his office to the emergency department. The patient tells you that he feels fine and does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circumstances, you should: A. document the patient's request but continue to transport him. B. have the patient sign a refusal form and return him to his office. C. request that the police place the patient under protective custody. D. assess whether the patient's mental condition is impaired.

D

A patient requires medication, but does not require additional fluids. The EMT would MOST likely be asked to prepare: Select one: A. a 250-mL bag of fluid. B. Macrodrip tubing. C. Microdrip tubing. D. a saline lock.

D

A patient with high blood pressure would be expected to have skin that is: Select one: A. cyanotic and dry. B. pale and moist. C. mottled and cool. D. flushed and red.

D

Common side effects of nitroglycerin include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. hypotension. B. severe headache. C. bradycardia. D. hypertension.

D

EMTs and other health care providers function as a true team when they work: Select one: A. dependently. B. under standing orders. C. independently. D. interdependently.

D

Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it: Select one: A. is less resistant to treatment. B. is a more contagious type of disease. C. leads to chronic infection after exposure. D. has a greater ability to produce disease.

D

Hydroplaning of the ambulance on wet roads would MOST likely occur at speeds of greater than ___ mph A. 15 B. 20 C. 10 D. 30

D

If the incident command system is already established at the scene of a terrorist attack, the EMT should: Select one: A. remain in the rehabilitation area until he or she is assigned a task. B. contact the EMS medical director and obtain further instructions. C. begin triaging patients and start treating the most critical ones. D. locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment.

D

In ___________ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner. Select one: A. EMT-administered B. patient-assisted C. paramedic-administered D. peer-assisted

D

In order to avoid exacerbating a patient's injury, it is especially important to use extreme caution when providing positive-pressure ventilation to patients with a: A. myocardial contusion B. flail chest C. cardiac tamponade D. pneumothorax

D

Medical control gives you an order that seems inappropriate for the patient's condition. After confirming that you heard the physician correctly, you should: A. obtain consent from the patient and then carry out the order as usual. B. carry out the order and then carefully document it on the run form. C. state that you will not carry out the order because it is inappropriate. D. advise the physician that the order is unclear and ask for clarification.

D

Most AEDs are set up to adjust the voltage based on the impedance, which is the: Select one: A. direction that the electrical flow takes in the body. B. distance between the two AED pads on the chest. C. actual amount of energy that the AED will deliver. D. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity.

D

Of the four avenues of poisoning, generally _____________ is the most worrisome in terms of treatment to the EMS provider A. absorption B. injection C. inhalation D. injection

D

Older adults frequently ____________ A. are able to increase their muscle mass B. are unable to overcome medical problems C. experience a decrease in body fat as they age D. take multiple medications

D

Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient w/ a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless: A. sensory and motor functions remain intact B. the patient adamantly denies neck pain C. lateral immobilization has been applied D. it causes a problem managing the airway

D

Open pneumothorax occurs when: A. air enters the pleural space from a perforated lung B. extreme pleural pressure causes the lung to rupture C. a fractured rib perforates the tissue of the lung D. air enters the pleural space from outside the body

D

Pain that may be perceived at a distant point on the surface of the body, such as the back or shoulder, is called: Select one: A. visceral pain. B. remote pain. C. radiating pain. D. referred pain.

D

Palliating factors regarding a patient's pain involve those that: Select one: A. change the pain. B. initiate the pain. C. worsen the pain. D. alleviate the pain.

D

Prior to applying a nonrebreathing mask to a patient, you must ensure that the: Select one: A. one-way valve is sealed. B. flow rate is set at 6 L/min. C. patient has reduced tidal volume. D. reservoir bag is fully inflated.

D

Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during: Select one: A. anaphylactic shock. B. septic shock. C. neurogenic shock. D. cardiogenic shock.

D

The EMT should be MOST concerned when a child presents with fever and: A. a headache B. ear pain C. chills D. a rash

D

When caring for a patient w/ an open facial injury, the EMT's immediate priority should be to: A. consider the MOI B. closely assess the patient's airway C. manually stabilize the patient's head D. wear gloves and facial protection

D

When using the pulse oximeter as part of your assessment of a patient, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. carbon monoxide has no effect on pulse oximetry readings because the pulse oximeter presumes that oxygen is saturating the hemoglobin. B. pulse oximetry is especially useful in patients who have cold extremities because vasoconstriction forces blood to the capillary beds. C. as long as the patient's oxygen saturation is greater than 95%, oxygen is usually not necessary, even if the patient is experiencing respiratory distress. D. any situation that causes vasoconstriction or loss of red blood cells, such as anemia or bleeding, may result in an inaccurate or misleading value.

D

When working as an independent health care group member, the EMT should expect that he or she: Select one: A. will rely on the group leader for making virtually all decisions. B. will receive no support or guidance from an EMS supervisor. C. will be specifically instructed on how to perform a specific task. D. does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task.

D

Which of the following cardiac dysrhythmias has the greatest chance of deteriorating into a pulseless rhythm? Select one: A. Sinus bradycardia B. Sinus tachycardia C. Extra ventricular beats D. Ventricular tachycardia

D

Which of the following statements regarding epinephrine administration via the intramuscular (IM) route is correct? Select one: A. The preferred injection site is the upper arm. B. The IM route should not be used in children. C. The maximum single adult dose is 0.15 mg. D. The 1:1000 concentration should be used.

D

Which of the following statements regarding oxygenation and ventilation is correct? Select one: A. Oxygenation is the movement of air into and out of the lungs, whereas ventilation is the exchange of gases. B. In carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, ventilation is impaired because CO binds to oxygen very quickly. C. Oxygenation without adequate ventilation can occur in climbers who quickly ascend to an altitude of lower atmospheric pressure. D. In mines or confined places, where oxygen levels are low, ventilation may continue despite adequate oxygenation.

D

Which of the following statements regarding parenteral medications is correct? Select one: A. Tylenol is an example of a parenteral medication because it is taken orally. B. Parenteral medications are absorbed by the body through the digestive system. C. Compared to enteral medications, parenteral medications have fewer side effects. D. Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications.

D

Which of the following statements regarding the blood pressure is correct? Select one: A. Blood pressure is the most reliable indicator of perfusion. B. The systolic pressure represents ventricular relaxation. C. Blood pressure falls early in patients with hypoperfusion. D. Blood pressure is usually not measured in children younger than 3 years of age.

D

You are transporting to a 66-year-old patient with a history of heart problems. The patient chart indicates that he has hepatomegaly. The root of the term indicates that: A. the organ involved is enlarged. B. the problem is unrelated to the patient's heart condition. C. the problem is a direct consequence of the patient's heart disease. D. the problem is with the patient's liver.

D

You respond to the home of a 59-year-old man who is unconscious; has slow, shallow breathing; and has a weak pulse. The family states that the patient has terminal brain cancer and does not wish to be resuscitated. They further state that there is a DNR order for this patient, but they are unable to locate it. You should: A. transport the patient without providing any treatment. B. decide on further action once the DNR order is produced. C. honor the patient's wishes and withhold all treatment. D. begin treatment and contact medical control as needed.

D

A 49 year old male presents w/ confusion, sweating, and visual hallucinations. The patient's wife tells you that he is a heavy drinker and she thinks he ha a seizure shortly before your arrival. This patient is MOST likely experiencing: A. acute schizophrenia B. acute hypovolemia C. alcohol intoxication D. delirium tremens

D.

Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pinpoint pupils would be expected following an overdose of: A. ecstasy B. amphetamine sulfate (Benzedrine) C. crack cocaine D. oxycodone (Percocet)

D.

National guidelines for EMS care are intended to _______ A. unify EMS providers under a single medical director B. reduce expenses at the local and state levels C. facilitate a national EMS labor group D. provide more consistent delivery of EMS care across the US

D. provide more consistent delivery of EMS care across the US

What is an EMT's primary service area? A. the location where the EMT provides essential care during a 9-1-1 call B. the area serviced by the EMT's medical director C. the only area the EMT is certified to provide patient care D. the main area in which the EMS agency operates

D. the main area in which the EMS agency operates

Activated charcoal is an example of a(n): Select one: A. suspension. B. elixir. C. gel. D. solution.

A

A 30 y/o female presents w/ redness, inflammation, and pain to her left eye. During your assessment, you note that she is having difficulty keeping her eyes open. You should suspect that she is experiencing: A. conjunctivitis B. a detached retina C. a corneal abrasion D. acute retinitis

A

A 30 y/o male was rescued after being lost in the woods for approx 18 hours. The outside temp is 30 deg F. He is immediately placed in the warmed ambulance, where you perform a primary assessment. He is unresponsive, pale, and apnea. You should: A. assess for a carotid pulse for up to 60 sec B. open his airway and give two rescue breaths C. apply an AED and assess his cardiac rhythm D. apply chemical heat packs to his groin and axillae

A

A 33 y/o restrained driver of a MVC is awake and alert, complaining only of neck and left leg pain. The vehicle is stable and no hazards are present. When removing this patient from his vehicle, you should: A. immobilize him w/ a vest style device B. maintain slight traction to his neck area C. apply a full leg splint prior to extrication D. use the rapid extrication technique

A

A 37-year-old female with a history of diabetes presents with excessive urination and weakness of 2 days' duration. Her blood glucose level reads 320 mg/dL. If this patient's condition is not promptly treated, she will MOST likely develop: Select one: A. irreversible renal failure. B. hypoxia and overhydration. C. acidosis and dehydration. D. severe insulin shock.

A

A 38-year-old male with a history of schizophrenia is reported by neighbors to be screaming and throwing things in his house. You are familiar with the patient and have cared for him in the past for unrelated problems. Law enforcement officers escort you into the residence when you arrive. The patient tells you that he sees vampires and is attempting to ward them off by screaming and throwing things at them. He has several large lacerations to his forearms that are actively bleeding. The MOST appropriate way to manage this situation is to: Select one: A. restrain the patient with appropriate force in order to treat his injuries. B. try to gain the patient's trust by telling him that you see the vampires too. C. approach the patient and calm him by placing your hand on his shoulder. D. request that the police officers arrest him and take him to the hospital.

A

A 40-year-old male crashed his motorcycle into a tree. He is semiconscious, has snoring respirations, and has a laceration to the forearm with minimal bleeding. You should: Select one: A. open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver. B. tilt the patient's head back and lift up on his chin. C. apply a cervical collar and suction his airway. D. apply a pressure dressing to the patient's arm.

A

A 45 y/o female was the unrestrained passenger of a small car that rear-ended another vehicle at a moderate rate of speed. She is conscious and alert, but complains of pain to both of her knees. There is visible damage to the dashboard on the passenger's side of the vehicle. In addition to fractures or dislocations of the knees, you should be MOST suspicious for: A. posterior hip dislocation B. a thoracic spine fracture C. fracture of the tibia or fibula D. anterior hip dislocation

A

A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should: Select one: A. assess the adequacy of his respirations. B. obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history. C. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin. D. administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin.

A

A 50-year-old male presents with altered mental status. His wife tells you that he had a "small stroke" three years ago but has otherwise been in good health. The patient is responsive but unable to follow commands. After administering oxygen if needed, you should: Select one: A. prepare for immediate transport. B. repeat the primary assessment. C. inquire about his family history. D. perform a head-to-toe assessment.

A

A 52-year-old male presents with a fever of 102.5°F and a severe headache. As you assess him, you note the presence of multiple blisters on his face and chest, which are all identical in shape and size. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: Select one: A. smallpox. B. yellow fever virus. C. cutaneous anthrax. D. sarin toxicity.

A

A 56 y/o male has an incomplete avulsion to his right forearm. After controlling any bleeding from the wound, you should: A. replace the avulsed flap to its original position and cover it w/ a sterile dressing B. thoroughly irrigate the wound w/ sterile water and cover it w/ a sterile dressing C. carefully remove the avulsed flap and wrap it in a moist, sterile trauma dressing D. carefully probe the wound to determine if the bleeding is venous or arterial

A

A 56-year-old male is found semiconscious by his wife. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are rapid and shallow, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is low. The patient's wife states that he complained of left arm pain and nausea the day before, but would not allow her to call 9-1-1. The MOST likely cause of this patient's present condition is: Select one: A. cardiogenic hypoperfusion. B. a ruptured aortic aneurysm. C. severe septic hypoperfusion. D. acute myocardial infarction.

A

A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition? Select one: A. Spontaneous pneumothorax B. Rupture of the diaphragm C. Exacerbation of his COPD D. Acute pulmonary embolism

A

A 6 y/o female was riding her bicycle and struck a clothesline with her throat. She is breathing, but w/ obvious difficulty. Your assessment reveals a crackling sensation in the soft tissues of her neck and facial cyanosis. In addition to the appropriate airway management, the intervention that will MOST likely improve her chance of survival is: A. rapidly transporting her to the hospital B. requesting a paramedic ambulance C. quickly immobilizing her spinal column D. careful monitoring her vital signs

A

A 6 y/o male presents w/ acute respiratory distress. His mother states that she saw him put a small toy into his mouth shortly before the episode began. The child is conscious, obviously frightened, and is coughing forcefully. You should: A. encourage him to cough, give oxygen as tolerated, and transport B. carefully look into his mouth and remove the object if you see it C. place the child in a supine position and perform abdominal thrusts D. deliver a series of five back blows and then reassess his condition

A

A 66-year-old woman experienced a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She has a history of type 2 diabetes and deep vein thrombosis (DVT). On the basis of her medical history, which of the following should the EMT suspect? Select one: A. Pulmonary embolism B. Congestive heart failure C. Diabetic ketoacidosis D. Severe hypoglycemia

A

A 67-year-old female presents with difficulty breathing and chest discomfort that awakened her from her sleep. She states that she has congestive heart failure, has had two previous heart attacks, and has been prescribed nitroglycerin. She is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. Her blood pressure is 94/64 mm Hg and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. Treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. placing her in an upright position. B. ventilations with a BVM. C. oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. D. nitroglycerin for her chest pain.

A

A 69 y/o female was involved in a MVC. She is semiconscious w/ a BP of 80/50, HR of 74 that is weak. Her daughter, who was injured in the crash, tells you that her mother has a history of hypertension and takes beta-blockers. Considering the fact that this patient is probably in shock, what is the MOST likely explanation for the absence tachycardia? A. the effects of her antihypertensive medication B. failure of the parasympathetic nervous system C. deterioration of the cardiac conduction system D. intrathoracic bleeding and cardiac compression

A

A 70 y/o man complains of a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. He has dried blood on his lips and is very anxious. His left leg is red, swollen, and painful. The EMT should: A. administer high-flow oxygen B. suspect severe pneumonia C. position the patient supine D. apply a cold pack to his leg

A

A 70 y/o man presents w/ a severe nosebleed. His medical history includes COPD, depression, and a hemorrhagic stroke 3 years ago. BP is 190/110, pulse is 100, respirations are 24. His medications include albuterol, sertraline (Zoloft), and multivitamins. Which of the following is MOST likely causing his nosebleed today? A. high bp B. diabetic complications C. hemorrhagic stroke D. his prescribed albuterol

A

A 74-year-old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. She is conscious and alert, but anxious. Her blood pressure is 144/84 mm Hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. She took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4-mg tablets) before your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. You should: Select one: A. recall that geriatric patients often have slower absorption and elimination times, which may necessitate modification of the dosing of certain drugs. B. transport her at once and wait at least 20 minutes before you consider assisting her with a third dose of her prescribed nitroglycerin. C. assist her in taking one more of her nitroglycerin tablets, reassess her blood pressure, and contact medical control for further instructions. D. give her high-flow oxygen, avoid giving her any more nitroglycerin because it may cause a drop in her blood pressure, and transport.

A

A 75 y/o woman complains of SOB. Which of the following findings should alert the EMT to the possibility of a pulmonary embolism? A. history of deep venous thrombosis (DVT) B. frequent UTIs C. the patient is prescribed an inhaler D. the patient's abdomen is swollen

A

A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient's arm will give a: Select one: A. falsely high systolic and diastolic reading. B. falsely low systolic and diastolic reading. C. falsely high systolic but low diastolic reading. D. falsely low systolic but high diastolic reading.

A

A child may begin to show signs of separation anxiety as early as: A. 6 months B. 18 months C. 2 months D. 12 months

A

A closed soft-tissue injury characterized by swelling and ecchymosis is called a(n): A. contusion B. crush injury C. hematoma D. abrasion

A

A crackling sound produced by air bubbles under the skin is called: Select one: A. subcutaneous emphysema. B. Korotkoff sounds. C. crepitus D. rhonchi.

A

A factory worker was splashed in the eyes w/ a strong acid chemical. He complains of intense pain and blurred vision. Your ambulance does not carry bottles of sterile saline or water. You should: A. irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 min w/ plain water B. neutralize the acid chemical in his eye w/ an alkaline chemical C. flush both eyes w/ an alcohol-based solution and transport D. mix baking soda w/ water and irrigate his eyes w/ the solution

A

A laceration: A. is a jagged cut caused by a sharp object or blunt force trauma B. rarely penetrates through the subcutaneous tissue to the muscle C. is an injury that separates through the subcutaneous tissue to the muscle D. is a sharp, smooth cut that is made by a surgical scalpel

A

A palpable pulse is created by: Select one: A. pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction. B. electrical conduction in the heart producing ventricular contraction. C. the pressure of circulating blood against the walls of the arteries. D. the pressure that is caused when venous blood returns to the heart.

A

A partial-thickness burn involves the outer layer of skin and a portion of the A. dermal layer B. epidermis C. muscle fascia D. fatty layer

A

A patient is sitting in a chair, leaning forward on his outstretched arms. His head and chin are thrust forward. This position indicates that he: Select one: A. is experiencing difficulty breathing. B. has a decreased level of consciousness. C. is experiencing severe back pain. D. has abdominal muscle spasms.

A

A patient who is complaining of seeing flashing lights, specks, or "floaters" in his/her field of vision has MOST likely experienced: A. a detached retina B. conjunctivitis C. acute hyphema D. a blowout fracture

A

A patient whose speech is slurred and difficult to understand is experiencing: Select one: A. dysarthria. B. aphasia. C. dysphagia. D. paraplegia.

A

A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because: Select one: A. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow. B. the ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing. C. the coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow. D. tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen.

A

A portable oxygen container should have a minimum capacity of _______ L of oxygen A. 500 B. 750 C. 1,000 D. 250

A

A pulse with a consistent pattern is considered to be: Select one: A. regular. B. irregular. C. weak. D. strong.

A

A short backboard or vest-style immobilization device is indicated for patients who: A. are in a sitting position and are clinically stable B. are sitting in their car and are clinically unstable C. require prompt extrication from an automobile D. are found supine and have stable vital signs

A

A spinal cord injury at the level of C7 would MOST likely result in: A. paralysis of the intercostal muscles B. paralysis of all the respiratory muscles C. paralysis of the diaphragm D. immediate cardiac arrest

A

A tight-fitting motorcycle helmet should be left in place unless: A. it interferes w/ you assessment of the airway B. the helmet is equipped w/ a full face shield or visor c. the patient must be placed onto a long backboard D. the patient complains of severe neck or back pain

A

A transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when: Select one: A. a small clot in a cerebral artery causes temporary symptoms. B. medications are given to dissolve a cerebral blood clot. C. a small cerebral artery ruptures and causes minimal damage. D. signs and symptoms resolve spontaneously within 48 hours.

A

A young male sustained a GSW to the abdomen during an altercation. As your partner is assessing and managing his airway, you should control the obvious bleeding and then: A. assess for an exit wound B. auscultate bowel sounds C. apply a cervical collar D. obtain baseline vital signs

A

A young male was shot in the abdomen by an unknown type of gun. He is semiconscious, has shallow breathing and is bleeding externally from the wound. As you control the external bleeding, your partner should: A. assist the patient's ventilations B. apply a nonrebreathing mask C. obtain baseline vital signs D. perform a secondary assessment

A

Abruptio placenta occurs when: A. the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall B. a tear in the placenta causes severe internal hemorrhage C. the placenta affixes itself to the outer layer of the uterus D. the placenta develops over and covers the cervical opening

A

According to the "E" in the DOPE mnemonic, which of the following actions should you perform to troubleshoot inadequate ventilation in a patient w/ a tracheostomy tube? A. check the mechanical ventilator for malfunction B. look for blood or other secretions in the tube C. attempt to pass a suction catheter into the tube D. listen to breath sounds to assess for a pneumothorax

A

According to the Association of Air Medical Services, you should consider air medical transport of a trauma patient if: A. traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome B. the patient requires ALS care and stabilization, and the nearest ALS-ground ambulance is more than 5-10 min away C. ground transport will take your ambulance out of service for an extended period of time, regardless of the severity of the patient's injuries D. he/she was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another occupant in the same vehicle was killed, even if your patient's injuries are minor

A

After administering 0.3 mg of epinephrine via auto-injector to a 22-year-old female with an allergic reaction, you note improvement in her breathing and resolution of her hives. However, she is still anxious and tachycardic. You should: Select one: A. monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine. B. contact medical control and obtain authorization to administer another 0.3 mg of epinephrine. C. consider administering 0.15 mg of epinephrine to completely resolve her allergic reaction. D. transport her rapidly, as it is obvious that she is having a severe reaction to the epinephrine.

A

An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. Your initial care should focus on: Select one: A. airway, breathing, and circulation. B. gathering medical history data. C. providing immediate transport. D. obtaining baseline vital signs.

A

After administering 0.3 mg of epinephrine via auto-injector to a 22-year-old woman with an allergic reaction, you note improvement in her breathing and dissipation of her hives. However, she is still anxious and tachycardic. You should: Select one: A. monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine. B. contact medical control and obtain authorization to administer another 0.3 mg of epinephrine. C. consider administering 0.15 mg of epinephrine to completely resolve her allergic reaction. D. transport her rapidly, as it is obvious that she is having a severe reaction to the epinephrine.

A

After administering activated charcoal to a patient, it is MOST important to: A. be alert for vomiting B. call medical control C. monitor the patient's BP D. document the intervention

A

After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient's leg stops bleeding. This is called: A. hemostasis. B. hemolysis. C. hemiplegia. D. hematemesis.

A

After assessing a patient's blood glucose level, you accidentally stick yourself with the contaminated lancet. You should: A. report the incident to your supervisor after the call. B. immerse your wound in an alcohol-based solution. C. discontinue patient care and seek medical attention. D. get immunized against hepatitis as soon as possible.

A

After assisting your patient with prescribed nitroglycerin, you should: Select one: A. reassess his or her blood pressure within 5 minutes to detect hypotension. B. avoid further dosing if the patient complains of a severe headache. C. perform a secondary assessment before administering further doses. D. place the patient in a recumbent position in case of fainting.

A

After performing a head tilt-chin lift maneuver to open the airway of an unresponsive patient who has a pulse, you should: Select one: A. suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct. B. place him or her in the recovery position. C. assess respiratory rate, depth, and regularity. D. provide positive-pressure ventilatory assistance.

A

After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to: Select one: A. identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment. B. look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion. C. determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions. D. find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life.

A

After receiving online orders from medical control to perform a patient care intervention, you should: A. repeat the order to medical control word for word. B. ask the physician to repeat the order. C. confirm the order in your own words. D. perform the intervention as ordered.

A

After spiking a bag of IV fluid for the paramedic, the EMT notices that the drip chamber is too full. The EMT should: Select one: A. invert the IV bag and squeeze the drip chamber. B. let the IV flow rapidly for 20 to 30 seconds. C. replace the administration set with a new one. D. squeeze the IV bag to force fluid into the tubing.

A

After squeezing the end of a child's finger or toe for a few seconds, blood should return to the area w/in: A. 2 seconds B. 3 seconds C. 4 seconds D. 5 seconds

A

After your partner assumes manual in-line stabilization of the patient's head, you should: A. assess distal neuromuscular status in the extremities B. use four people to log roll the patient onto a backboard C. thoroughly palpate the patient's head for deformities D. apply an appropriately sized rigid cervical collar

A

Air bags are designed to: A. decrease the severity of deceleration injuries B. prevent the driver from sustaining head trauma C. prevent a second collision inside the car D. be used w/ or w/o a shoulder harness

A

Airway management can be challenging in patients w/ down syndrome because their: A. teeth are misaligned and they have a large tongue B. tongue is relatively small and falls back in the throat C. mandible is large, which inhibits a mask-to-face seal D. occiput is round, which causes flexion of the neck

A

An 81-year-old female fell and struck her head. You find the patient lying on her left side. She is conscious and complains of neck and upper back pain. As you are assessing her, you note that she has a severely kyphotic spine. What is the MOST appropriate method of immobilizing this patient? Select one: A. Leave her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobilize her to the long backboard. B. Immobilize her in a supine position on a long backboard and secure her with straps. C. Apply a cervical collar and place her in a sitting position on the wheeled stretcher. D. Move her to a supine position and immobilize her with a scoop stretcher and padding.

A

An EMT may injure his or her back, even if it is straight, if the: Select one: A. back is bent forward at the hips. B. hands are held close to the legs. C. force is exerted straight down the spine. D. shoulder is aligned over the pelvis.

A

An elderly patient may understate or minimize the symptoms of his/her illness because: A. he/she fears hospitalization B. the nervous system has deteriorated C. of conditions such as dementia D. of decreased perceptions of pain

A

An important aspect in the treatment of a patient with severe abdominal pain is to: Select one: A. provide emotional support en route to the hospital. B. give 100% oxygen only if signs of shock are present. C. encourage the patient to remain in a supine position. D. administer analgesic medications to alleviate pain.

A

An infant's bp typically increases w/ age b/c: A. bp directly corresponds to body weight B. the infant's total blood volume decreases w/ age C. as the infant gets older, his/her blood vessels dilate D. his/her normal HR usually increases w/ age

A

An unconscious patient found in a prone position must be placed in a supine position in case he or she: Select one: A. requires CPR. B. begins to vomit. C. has increased tidal volume. D. regains consciousness.

A

Angina pectoris occurs when: Select one: A. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply. B. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm. C. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque. D. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand.

A

As you and your partner report for duty, you check your ambulance and begin talking about the possibility of a terrorist attack. The MOST effective and appropriate way to determine the likelihood of this happening is to: Select one: A. know the current threat level issued by the Department of Homeland Security. B. check with local businesses to see if they have received any terrorist threats. C. ascertain the current situation overseas with regard to the number of casualties. D. ask your immediate supervisor if he or she has been watching the local news.

A

As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should: A. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician. B. inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once. C. leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call. D. place the patient in a high-visibility area and then respond to the call.

A

Assessment of a patient's blood pressure with an automatic BP cuff reveals that it is 204/120 mm Hg. The patient is conscious and alert and denies any symptoms. The EMT should: Select one: A. obtain a manual blood pressure. B. conclude that she has hypertension. C. reassess her blood pressure in 5 minutes. D. prepare for immediate transport.

A

Assessment of the medical patient is usually focused on the _________. Select one: A. nature of illness B. field diagnosis C. associated symptoms D. medical history

A

At the site of the injury, signs and symptoms of an animal or insect bite or sting may include pain, localized heat, and a wheal, which appears as __________. Select one: A. a raised, well-defined area of the skin B. a series of small, raised pustules C. an uncomfortable depression in the skin D. a large area of red, blotchy skin

A

At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children? A. 10 to 18 months B. 6 to 8 months C. 24 to 36 months D. 18 to 24 months

A

During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions: Select one: A. before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact. B. before you load the patient into the ambulance. C. after it has been determined that the patient is bleeding. D. immediately after completion of your primary assessment.

A

During your assessment of a 20-year-old man with a severe headache and nausea, you ask him when his headache began, but he does not answer your question immediately. You should: A. allow him time to think about the question and respond to it. B. repeat your question because he probably did not hear you. C. tell him that you cannot help him unless he answers your questions. D. ask him if he frequently experiences severe headaches and nausea.

A

During your assessment of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear wheezing when listening to breath sounds. This indicates: Select one: A. a lower airway obstruction. B. fluid in the alveoli. C. secretions in the airway. D. swelling of the upper airway.

A

During your monthly internal quality improvement (QI) meeting, you review several patient care reports (PCRs) with the staff of your EMS system. You identify the patient's name, age, and sex, and then discuss the treatment that was provided by the EMTs in the field. By taking this approach to the QI process, you: A. are in violation of HIPAA because you did not remove the PHI from the PCR beforehand. B. violated the patient's privacy because you should have discussed the information only with the EMTs involved. C. acted appropriately but must have each EMT sign a waiver stating that he or she will not discuss the cases with others. D. adequately safeguarded the patient's PHI because the cases were discussed internally.

A

EMTs are dispatched for a fall. The patient, a 16 y/o female w/ Down syndrome, is experiencing difficulty walking and says that her fingers "feel like needles". The EMTs should suspect: A. a cervical spine injury B. a seizure C. an intracranial hemorrhage D. hydrocephalus

A

EMTs are dispatched to a residence for an 80 y/o woman who is ill. The patient's daughter states that her mother almost fainted after going to the bathroom, and that her pulse was very slow. The patient's pulse rate is 80 and irregular and she is conscious and alert. The EMTs should suspect that the patient: A. experienced a vasovagal response B. took too much of her medication C. has a gastrointestinal hemorrhage D. has an AAA

A

EMTs should have a strong working knowledge of medical terminology in order to: A. communicate effectively with other members of the health care team. B. more clearly explain to patients the nature of their condition. C. determine and document more accurate patient diagnoses. D. perform and document more accurate patient assessments.

A

Early signs of respiratory distress in the pediatric patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. cyanosis B. retractions C. tachypnea D. abnormal airway noise

A

End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring is clearly indicated for patients who present with: Select one: A. respiratory distress. B. abdominal pain. C. high blood pressure. D. headache.

A

Following blunt trauma to the abdomen, a 21 year old female complains of diffuse abdominal pain and pain to the left shoulder. Your assessment reveals that her abdomen is distended and tender to palpation. On the basis of these findings, you should be MOST suspicious of injury to the: A. spleen B. pancreas C. gallbladder D. liver

A

Foods, medications, and insects are common causes of ________. Select one: A. anaphylactic shock B. psychogenic shock C. septic shock D. neurogenic shock

A

For an adult, the normal resting pulse should be between: Select one: A. 60 and 100 beats/min. B. 50 and 70 beats/min. C. 70 and 110 beats/min. D. 50 and 60 beats/min.

A

Fractures of the pelvis in older patients often occur as the result of a combination of: A. osteoporosis and low-energy trauma B. arthritic joints and high-energy trauma C. acetabular separation and severe falls D. increased bone density and car crashes

A

From what internal female organ is the fetus expelled during delivery? A. uterus B. perineum C. cervix D. vagina

A

GI bleeding should be suspected if a patient presents with: A. hematemesis B. hemoptysis C. dyspnea D. hematuria

A

Gastric distention will MOST likely occur: Select one: a. if you ventilate a patient too quickly. b. in patients who are intubated. c. when the airway is completely obstructed. d. when you deliver minimal tidal volume.

A

General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases? A. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery B. Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion C. Immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery D. Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery Feedback

A

General techniques for communicating w/ hearing-impaired patients include: A. positioning yourself approx 18 in directly in front of the patient B. exaggerating your lip movements to ensure the patient understands C. speaking directly into the patient's ear with an increased voice pitch D. removing any hearing aids and using pen and paper to ask questions

A

Health care teams that infrequently train and work together: Select one: A. can create delays in patient care. B. often work better under pressure. C. need less-explicit verbal direction. D. are unable to accomplish their tasks.

A

Heroin is an example of a(n): A. opioid B. cholinergic C. hypnotic D. sympathomimetic

A

Historically, the weak point at most major incidents has been: A. communications B. accountability C. incident briefing D. lack of personnel

A

Hyperthermia differs from fever in that is in an increase in body temperature: A. caused by the inability of the body to cool itself B. of more than 2 to 3 deg F per hour C. secondary to a severe bacterial infection D. caused by inflammation of the spinal cord

A

Hyperventilation during the preoxygenation phase of endotracheal intubation: Select one: A. can cause gastric distention and hypotension. B. will decrease the likelihood of aspiration. C. is acceptable if done for fewer than 2 minutes. D. provides a better oxygen reserve for the patient.

A

Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of: Select one: A. plasma. B. platelets. C. red blood cells. D. whole blood.

A

If a baby is born at 7:52, the second Apgar score should be calculated at: A. 7:57 B. 7:53 C. 7:59 D. 8:00

A

If a patient develops difficulty breathing after your primary assessment, you should immediately: Select one: A. reevaluate his or her airway status. B. auscultate his or her breath sounds. C. begin assisting his or her breathing. D. determine his or her respiratory rate.

A

If hydroplaning of the ambulance occurs, the driver should: A. gradually slow down w/o jamming on the brakes B. slowly pump the brakes until he or she regains vehicle control C. slowly moves the steering wheel back and forth D. quickly jerk the steering wheel

A

If one or more occupants int he same vehicle are killed in a crash, the EMT should: A. suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious trauma B. transport the survivors only if they have injuries or complain of pain C. rapidly assess only the survivors who have experienced obvious trauma D. allow the survivors to refuse transport if they have no obvious injuries

A

Immediate transport is indicated for a child when he/she: A. has a history compatible w/ serious illness B. is experiencing mild to moderate pain C. is breathing rapidly D. has a possible closed fracture of the radius

A

Immediately life-threatening chest injuries must be found and managed during the _______ A. primary assessment B. secondary assessment C. patient history D. scene size-up

A

In contrast to the parietal peritoneum, the visceral peritoneum: Select one: A. is supplied by nerves of the autonomic nervous system, which are less able to localize pain or sensation. B. is less likely to become inflamed or infected because it lines the abdominal organs themselves. C. lines the walls of the abdominal cavity and is stimulated when the solid abdominal organs contract. D. is supplied by the same nerves from the spinal cord that supply the skin of the abdomen.

A

In older patients, the first indicator of non traumatic internal bleeding may be: A. weakness or dizziness B. a HR over 120 C. low BP D. diaphoresis and pale skin

A

In the eyes of the courts, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates: A. inadequate patient care was administered. B. the EMT was too busy providing patient care to fill out the form. C. potential falsification of the patient care form. D. thorough documentation was not required.

A

In which of the following patients should you remove an impaled object? A. a pulseless and apnea patient w/ a knife impaled in the back B. a semiconscious patient w/ an ice pick impaled in the chest C. a conscious and alert patient w/ a fishhook impaled in the eye D. an apnea patient w/ a shard of glass impaled in the abdomen

A

Individuals with chronic alcoholism are predisposed to intracranial bleeding and hypoglycemia secondary to abnormalities in the: Select one: A. liver. B. brain. C. kidneys. D. pancreas.

A

Initial signs and symptoms associated with viral hemorrhagic fevers include: Select one: A. headache and sore throat. B. acute onset of double vision. C. severe abdominal muscle spasms. D. joint pain and unequal pupils.

A

Internal bleeding into a fractured extremity is MOST often controlled by: A. splinting the extremity B. applying a tourniquet C. applying chemical ice pack D. keeping the patient warm

A

Ischemic heart disease is defined as: Select one: A. decreased blood flow to one or more portions of the myocardium. B. death of a portion of the heart muscle due to a decrease in oxygen. C. decreased blood flow to the heart muscle due to coronary dilation. D. absent myocardial blood flow due to a blocked coronary artery.

A

Jugular venous distention suggests a problem with blood returning to the heart if the patient is: Select one: A. sitting up at a 45° angle. B. in a supine position. C. in a recumbent position. D. in a prone position.

A

Large amounts of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) are generated when: A. the cells function with adequate oxygen. B. carbon dioxide levels in the blood are high. C. the cells function without oxygen. D. circulating blood glucose levels fall.

A

Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: A. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons. B. quickly moving any weapons out of the patient's sight. C. making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later. D. placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive.

A

Most cases of external bleeding from an extremity can be controlled by: A. applying local direct pressure B. packing the wound w/ gauze C. elevating the injured extremity D. compressing a pressure joint

A

Most of the serious injuries assoc w/ scuba diving are caused by: A. too rapid of an ascent B. cold water temp C. too rapid of a descent D. alcohol consumption

A

Most terrorist attacks: Select one: A. require multiple terrorists working together. B. are carried out by fewer than three people. C. occur within the continental United States. D. involve the use of nuclear explosive devices.

A

Neurogenic shock occurs when: Select one: A. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation. B. massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury. C. the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging. D. there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container.

A

Nitroglycerin, when given to patients with cardiac-related chest pain: Select one: A. relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries. B. increases blood return to the right atrium. C. increases myocardial contraction force. D. constricts the veins throughout the body.

A

Once entrance and access to the patient have been provided, you should: A. perform a primary assessment B. begin treating his/her injuries C. allow extrication to commence D. provide high-flow oxygen

A

Organic brain syndrome is defined as: Select one: A. a dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function. B. a disorder that cannot be traced to the abnormal structure or function of an organ. C. a change in behavior or mental status secondary to decreased cerebral blood flow. D. bizarre behavior secondary to a chemical imbalance or disturbance in the brain.

A

Peritonitis may result in shock because: Select one: A. fluid shifts from the bloodstream into body tissues. B. severe pain causes systemic dilation of the vasculature. C. abdominal distention impairs cardiac contractions. D. intra-abdominal hemorrhage is typically present.

A

Placards and labels on a storage container are intended to: A. give a general idea of the hazard inside that particular container B. provide specific info about the chemical being carried C. advise responders of the appropriate neutralizing measures D. broadly classify chemicals as being explosive or nonexplosive

A

Pleural fluid is contained b/w the: A. visceral and parietal pleurae B. parietal pleura and the heart C. visceral pleura and the lung D. visceral pleura and the chest wall

A

Prior to assisting a patient with his or her prescribed nitroglycerin, the EMT must: Select one: A. obtain authorization from medical control. B. ensure the medication is in tablet form. C. determine who prescribed the nitroglycerin. D. wait at least 5 minutes after assessing the blood pressure.

A

Regardless of where probable and mounted oxygen cylinders are located in the ambulance, they must: A. be capable of delivering oxygen at 1 to 15 L/min B. be easily identifiable by their bright green color C. undergo hydrostatic testing on a weekly basis D. hold a minimum capacity of 1500 L of oxygen

A

Solid abdominal organs include the: Select one: A. spleen, kidneys, and pancreas. B. stomach and small intestine. C. urinary bladder, colon, and ureters. D. gallbladder and large intestine.

A

Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. the epiglottis. B. the trachea. C. bronchioles. D. alveoli.

A

The AED has delivered a shock to an elderly male in cardiac arrest. Following 2 minutes of CPR, you re-analyze the patient's cardiac rhythm and receive a "no shock advised" message. After further resuscitation, you restore a palpable carotid pulse. Your next action should be to: Select one: A. reassess airway and breathing and treat accordingly. B. obtain a blood pressure and apply the pulse oximeter. C. transport at once and re-analyze his rhythm en route. D. place him in the recovery position and apply oxygen.

A

The GCS is used to assess: A. eye opening, verbal response, and motor response B. verbal response, eye opening, and mental status C. mental status, eye opening, and respiratory rate D. sensory response, pupil reaction, and heart rate

A

The JumpSTART triage system is intended to be used for children younger than _______ years who appear to weigh less than ______ lb A. 8, 100 B. 5, 50 C. 7, 90 D. 6, 70

A

The MOST common and serious complication of a significant head injury is: A. cerebral edema B. a hypoxic seizure C. a skull fracture D. acute hypotension

A

The MOST significant complication associated with oropharyngeal suctioning is: Select one: A. hypoxia due to prolonged suction attempts. B. clogging of the catheter with thick secretions. C. oral abrasions from vigorous suctioning. D. vomiting from stimulating the anterior airway.

A

The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is: Select one: A. hypertension. B. severe stress. C. heavy exertion. D. diabetes mellitus.

A

The _______ connect(s) each ovary w/ the uterus A. fallopian tubes B. cervix C. abdomen D. egg

A

The ________ nerves control the diaphragm A. phrenic B. intercostal C. vagus D. costal

A

The ___________ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium. A. orbit B. occiput C. mastoid D. sphenoid

A

The ___________ of the heart is the inferior portion of the ventricles. A. apex B. dorsum C. septum D. base

A

The cervical spine is MOST protected from whiplash-type injuries when the: A. headrest is appropriately positioned B. rear end of the vehicle is initially struck C. air bag correctly deploys upon impact D. patient tenses up at the time of impact

A

The chief complaint is MOST accurately defined as the: Select one: A. most serious thing the patient is concerned about. B. gross physical signs that you detect on assessment. C. condition that exacerbates an underlying problem. D. most life-threatening condition that you discover.

A

The goal of invaders such as bacteria and viruses is to __________. Select one: A. use a human body as a home B. cause an immune response C. kill their human host D. spread disease and destruction

A

The head and brain receive their supply of oxygenated blood from the: Select one: A. carotid arteries. B. iliac arteries. C. brachial arteries. D. subclavian arteries.

A

The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: A. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries B. the detection of less obvious life-threatening injuries C. the way in which traumatic injuries occur D. a predictable pattern that leads to serious injuries

A

The inner surface of the eyelids and the exposed surface of the eye itself are covered by a delicate membrane called the: A. conjunctiva B. retina C. cornea D. sclera

A

The posterior tibial pulse can be palpated: Select one: A. behind the medial malleolus, on the inside of the ankle. B. on the dorsum of the foot. C. between the trachea and the neck muscle. D. in the fossa behind the knee.

A

The primary waste product of aerobic metabolism is: Select one: A. carbon dioxide. B. lactic acid. C. pyruvic acid. D. adenosine triphosphate.

A

The reasons for rescue failure can be recalled by the pneumonic FAILURE. According to this pneumonic, the "U" stands for: A. underestimating the logistics of the incident B. undertrained to correctly utilize equipment C. underutilizing personnel at the scene D. underprepared to effectively manage the scene

A

The sebaceous glands produce sebum, a material that: A. waterproofs the skin and keeps it supple B. discharges sweat onto the skin's surface C. facilitates shedding of the epidermis D. pulls the hair erect when you are cold

A

The suture of the anterior fontanelle is typically closed by ___ months of age, and the suture of the posterior fontanelle is typically closed by ___ months of age A. 18, 6 B. 6, 12 C. 2, 4 D. 12, 4

A

The tough, fibrous outer meningeal layer is called the: A. dura mater B. arachnoid mater C. gray mater D. pia mater

A

The two main types of cells contained in blood are called _________. Select one: A. erythrocytes and leukocytes B. transport and clotting C. platelets and plasma D. hemoglobin A and S

A

To assess a patient's general body temp, pull back your glove and place the back of your hand on his/her skin at the: A. abdomen B. neck C. forehead D. chest

A

To help protect patients, EMS agencies are required to have __________. A. a privacy officer to answer questions B. public forums with their medical director C. online access to patient records D. an anonymous reporting system

A

To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should: A. keep the weight as close to your body as possible. B. avoid the use of log rolls or body drags. C. use a direct carry whenever possible. D. flex at the waist instead of the hips.

A

Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after: Select one: A. all the patients have been triaged. B. the number of patients is known. C. area hospitals have been notified. D. a physician arrives at the scene.

A

Treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) would MOST likely be contraindicated in which of the following situations? Select one: A. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg B. Pulmonary edema, history of hypertension, and anxiety C. Difficulty breathing, two-word dyspnea, and tachycardia D. Conscious and alert patient with an oxygen saturation of 85%

A

Under what circumstances is a left ventricular assist device used? A. as a bridge to heart transplantation while a donor heart is being located B. to permanently replace the function of one or both of the ventricles C. to ensure that the ventricles contract at an adequate and consistent rate D. to reduce ventricular pumping force in patients w/ aortic aneurysms

A

Upon arrival at a MVC, the EMT should: A. leave only the essential warning lights activated B. park at least 300 ft away from the accident scene C. turn off emergency flashing lights and headlights D. turn off the ambulance and set the emergency brake

A

Upon arriving at a potentially unsafe scene, you should: Select one: A. ensure that you are safe. B. move the patient to safety. C. remove all bystanders. D. request another ambulance.

A

Upon arriving at the scene of a law enforcement tactical situation, you should ensure your own safety and then: A. report to the incident commander for instructions B. begin immediate triage of any injured personnel C. locate all injured personnel and begin treatment D. apprise medical control of the tactical situation

A

W/ regard to musculoskeletal injuries, the zone of injury is defined as the: A. area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury B. exact part of the bone or joint that was disrupted C. part of the body that sustained secondary injury D. area of obvious deformity over the site of impact

A

What layer of the skin forms a watertight, protective seal for the body? A. epidermis B. muscular layer C. subcutaneous layer D. dermis

A

What maneuver should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive patient with suspected trauma? Select one: A. Jaw-thrust maneuver B. Head tilt-chin lift C. Head tilt-neck lift D. Tongue-jaw lift

A

What part of the patient assessment process focuses on obtaining additional information about the patient's chief complaint and any medical problems he or she may have? Select one: A. History taking B. Primary assessment C. General impression D. Secondary assessment

A

When a hollow organ is punctured during a penetrating injury to the abdomen: A. peritonitis may not develop for several hours B. the abdomen will become instantly distended C. it will bleed profusely and rapidly cause shock D. it commonly protrudes through the injury site

A

When a psychiatric emergency arises, a patient is most likely to exhibit which of the following behaviors? Select one: A. Any behaviors that are a violent threat to the patient, EMTs, or others B. Any behaviors unacceptable to the patient, family, or community C. Visual or auditory hallucinations D. Disruptions to activities of daily living

A

When assessing or providing care to a patient w/ an intellectual disability, you should: A. be observant for signs of fear or reluctance from the patient B. move swiftly and deliberately to quickly accomplish the task C. explain procedures while in the process of performing them D. frequently reassure him or her that everything will be okay

A

When assessing the heart rate of a 6 month old infant, you should palpate the brachial or __________ pulse. A. femoral B. popliteal C. carotid D. radial

A

When assessing the skin of an unresponsive patient, you note that it has a bluish tint to it. This finding is called: Select one: A. cyanosis. B. pallor. C. mottling. D. flushing.

A

When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has: Select one: A. abnormal breath sounds. B. an absence of breath sounds. C. normal breath sounds. D. diminished breath sounds.

A

Which of the following is NOT a known risk factor of SIDS? A. putting a baby to sleep on his/her back B. low birth weight C. mother younger than 20 years D. mother smoked during pregnancy

A

When caring for a known alcoholic patient w/ severe trauma to the chest and abdomen, you should be concerned that: A. internal bleeding may be profuse b/c prolonged alcohol use may impair the blood's ability to clot B. signs and symptoms of shock may be masked by the stimulant effects produced by alcohol C. delirium tremens (DTs) are commonly induced by physical trauma and can lead to life-threatening seizures D. long bone fractures are likely because chronic alcohol consumption weakens the structure of the bones

A

When caring for a patient w/ a possible fracture of the scapula, the EMT should: A. carefully assess the patient for breathing problems B. recognize that scapular fractures are life threatening C. assume that minimal force was applied to the back D. apply rigid board splints across the chest and back

A

When caring for a patient whose arm is covered with a dry chemical, you should: A. brush away the chemical before flushing w/ water B. quickly irrigate the arm w/ large amounts of water C. deactivate the chemical w/ a 5% vinegar solution D. use forceful streams of water to remove the chemical

A

When caring for a patient with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for: Select one: A. a seizure. B. a febrile convulsion. C. an acute stroke. D. respiratory distress.

A

When caring for an occupant inside a motor vehicle equipped w/ an air bag that did not deploy upon impact, you should: A. remember that it could still deploy and seriously injure you B. suspect that the patient may have experienced serious injuries C. recognize that the force of impact was most likely not severe D. realize that the air bag malfunctioned at the time of impact

A

When caring for patients w/ cerebral palsy, it is important to remember that: A. their limbs are often underdeveloped and are prone to injury B. most patients have the ability to walk, but have an unsteady gait C. hearing aids are usually ineffective for patients w/ hearing loss D. they are unable to walk and are totally dependent on you

A

When explaining the need for a particular procedure to an elderly patient, you should: A. use plain language and simple terms B. realize that he/she will not understand you C. be complex so the patient fully understands D. use the appropriate medical terminology

A

When immobilizing a patient on a long backboard, you should: A. ensure that you secure the torso before securing the head B. secure the torso and then center the patient on the board C. follow the commands of the person at the patient's torso D. have the patient exhale before fastening the torso straps

A

When immobilizing an injured child in a pediatric immobilization device, you should: A. secure the torso before the head B. pad underneath the child's head C. secure the head before the torso D. slide the device under the child

A

When multiple patients present with an acute onset of difficulty breathing, chest tightness, and hoarseness or stridor, you should be MOST suspicious of exposure to: Select one: A. phosgene or chlorine. B. a vesicant agent. C. a nerve agent. D. sarin or soman.

A

When obtaining a SAMPLE history from a patient with diabetes, it would be MOST important to determine: Select one: A. if he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress. B. if there is a family history of diabetes or related conditions. C. approximately how much water the patient drank that day. D. the name of the physician who prescribed his or her insulin.

A

When performing a full body scan, you should assess for _____ A. DCAP-BTLS B. AVPU C. OPQRST D. SAMPLE

A

When performing his or her duties, the EMT is generally expected to: A. exercise reasonable care and act prudently. B. consistently exceed the standard of care. C. contact medical control on every EMS call. D. function above his or her scope of practice.

A

When preparing to obtain a 12-lead ECG, the "LL" and "RL" electrodes should be placed: Select one: A. on the thighs or ankles. B. on the lower abdomen. C. anywhere on the arms. D. on either side of the chest.

A

When preparing to obtain a 12-lead ECG, the V1 and V2 electrodes should be placed: Select one: A. on either side of the sternum. B. in the midaxillary line. C. in the midclavicular line. D. on the left and right arms.

A

When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be: A. brief and easily understood. B. spoken in a loud voice. C. lengthy and complete. D. coded and scripted.

A

When removing a critically injured patient from his/her vehicle, you should: A. remove him/her using a short backboard B. protect the cervical spine during the entire process C. move him/her in one fast, continuous step D. release c-spine control to facilitate rapid removal

A

When the level of arterial carbon dioxide rises above normal: Select one: A. respirations increase in rate and depth. B. the brain stem inhibits respirations. C. exhalation lasts longer than inhalation. D. respirations decrease in rate and depth.

A

When transporting a stable older patient to the hospital, the MOST effective way to reduce his/her anxiety is to: A. transport him/her to a hospital that he/she is familiar with B. avoid the use of a long backboard, even if trauma is suspected C. allow at least two family members to accompany the patient D. perform frequent detailed assessments to gain the patient's trust

A

When victims involved in a multiple-casualty incident are moved to the treatment area: A. secondary triage is performed and the appropriate treatment is rendered B. all uninjured patients are placed in a holding area and closely observed C. they will be rapidly assessed and prioritized according to their injuries D. definitive care is provided and preparations for transport will be made

A

When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: A. most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions. B. hostility and confusion should be presumed to be due to the patient's age. C. your questions should focus exclusively on the patient's obvious problem. D. speaking loudly and distinctly will ensure that the patient can hear you.

A

When you shine a light into one pupil, the normal reaction of the other pupil should be to: Select one: A. become smaller. B. become larger. C. not react. D. dilate.

A

Whether you are using a commercial device or a stick and triangular bandage as a tourniquet, it is important to remember that: A. the tourniquet should only be removed at the hospital b/c bleeding may return if the tourniquet is released B. bulky dressings should be securely applied over the tourniquet to further assist in controlling the bleeding C. you should try to control the bleeding by applying pressure to. a proximal arterial pressure point first D. the tourniquet should be applied directly over a joint if possible b/c this provides better bleeding control

A

Which of the following agents blocks the body's ability to use oxygen and possesses an odor similar to almonds? Select one: A. Hydrogen cyanide B. Phosgene oxime C. Organophosphates D. Carbon monoxide

A

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely be encountered in a patient w/ cerebral palsy? A. seizure disorder B. brain tumors C. type 2 diabetes D. paralysis

A

Which of the following findings indicates that your patient has a patent airway? Select one: A. Forceful coughing B. Inspiratory stridor C. Unresponsiveness D. Audible breathing

A

Which of the following has the weakest transmission signal and, as a result, is LEAST likely to be heard by the party being called? A. Hand-held portable radio B. Multiplex base station C. Land-base repeater station D. Mobile repeater station

A

Which of the following infections, when left untreated, may lead to infection of the blood and brain? A. gonorrhea B. bacterial vaginosis C. chlamydia D. PID

A

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely occur as a direct result of the third collision in a motor vehicle crash? A. aortic rupture B. flail chest C. forehead lacerations D. extremity fractures

A

Which of the following interventions may be used to help reduce intracranial pressure? A. a 30 degree elevation of the head B. increasing the patient's body temp C. supine w/ the legs elevated D. maintaining SpO2 at 90%

A

Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom associated with malfunction of an implanted cardiac pacemaker? Select one: A. A rapid heart rate B. Syncope or dizziness C. Heart rate less than 60 beats/min D. Generalized weakness

A

Which of the following is NOT a function of the sympathetic nervous system? Select one: A. Constriction of blood vessels in the muscles B. Dilation of blood vessels in the muscles C. Constriction of blood vessels in the digestive system D. Increases in the heart and respiratory rates

A

Femoral shaft fractures can result in up to _____ mL of internal blood loss A. 4,000 B. 1,500 C. 1,000 D. 2,000

C

Which of the following is a physical change that typically occurs in the adolescent age group? A. secondary sexual development begins B. the systolic bp decreases C. muscle and bone growth both decrease D. the normal pulse rate steadily increases

A

Which of the following is the ONLY action that can prevent eventual death from a tension pneumothorax? Select one: A. Decompression of the injured side of the chest B. Positive-pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask C. Early administration of high-flow oxygen D. Rapid administration of intravenous fluids

A

Which of the following may help reduce your patient's nausea? Select one: A. Low-flow oxygen B. Cricoid pressure C. Positive-pressure ventilation D. Oral glucose

A

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would MOST likely result in deformity? A. displaced fracture B. severe strain C. hairline fracture D. moderate strain

A

Which of the following must be assessed in every respiratory patient? Select one: A. Lung sounds B. Distal pulse, motor, sensation C. Orthostatic vital signs D. Blood glucose levels

A

Which of the following organs assists in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies? Select one: A. Spleen B. Kidney C. Liver D. Pancreas

A

Which of the following organs lies in the retroperitoneal space? Select one: A. Pancreas B. Gallbladder C. Spleen D. Liver

A

Which of the following organs or structures does NOT reside w/in the mediastinum? A. lungs B. trachea C. vena cavae D. esophagus

A

Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder? Select one: A. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter B. Pressure-compensated flowmeter C. Ball-and-float flowmeter D. Vertical-position flowmeter

A

Which of the following patients is breathing adequately? Select one: A. A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin B. A conscious male with respirations of 18 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume C. A conscious female with facial cyanosis and rapid, shallow respirations D. An unconscious 52-year-old female with snoring respirations and cool, pale skin

A

Which of the following represents a low normal systolic BP for a 6 y/o child? A. 82 B. 90 C. 98 D. 88

A

Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms? Select one: A. A 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis B. A 44-year-old male with abdominal pain and severe dizziness C. A 49-year-old female with blurred vision and ringing in the ears D. A 55-year-old male with a severe headache and 2 days of nausea

A

Which of the following statements regarding a basilar skull fracture is correct? A. the absence of raccoon eyes or Battle sign does not rule it out B. they are typically the result of local, low-energy trauma to the head C. bloody CSF commonly leaks from the nose D. in most cases, mastoid bruising occurs

A

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylaxis is correct? Select one: A. Anaphylaxis is characterized by airway swelling and hypotension. B. Patients with asthma are at lower risk of developing anaphylaxis. C. The signs of anaphylaxis are caused by widespread vasoconstriction. D. Most anaphylactic reactions occur within 60 minutes of exposure.

A

Which of the following statements regarding autism is correct? A. most cases of autism are diagnosed by 3 years of age B. autism affects females 4x greater than males C. impairment of motor activity is a classic sign of autism D. the majority of patients w/ autism do not speak at all

A

Which of the following statements regarding blast injuries is correct? Select one: A. Solid organs are relatively protected from shock wave injury but may be injured during the secondary or tertiary blast phase. B. The gastrointestinal tract is the organ system most sensitive to blast injuries and is the leading cause of death following an explosion. C. Solid organs such as the middle ear, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract are the most susceptible to pressure changes. D. Tertiary blast injuries are penetrating or nonpenetrating injuries that result from flying debris, such as ordnance projectiles.

A

Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is correct? A. compartment syndrome typically develops w/in 6-12 hours after an injury B. in most cases, compartment syndrome develops w/in a few min after an injury C. most cases of compartment syndrome occur following a severe fracture of the pelvis D. compartment syndrome occurs because of increased pressure w/in the bone cavity

A

Which of the following statements regarding dialysis is correct? Select one: A. Patients who miss a dialysis treatment often present with weakness. B. The purpose of dialysis is to help the kidneys retain salt and water. C. Hemodialysis is effective but carries a high risk of peritonitis. D. Acute hypertension is a common adverse effect of dialysis.

A

Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? Select one: A. Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream. B. Glucose is given to patients who are suspected of being hyperglycemic. C. Glucose is a complex sugar that rapidly absorbs into the bloodstream. D. Glucose is usually administered by the EMT via the intravenous route.

A

Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? Select one: A. The brain requires glucose as much as it requires oxygen. B. Blood glucose levels decrease in the absence of insulin. C. Most cells will function normally without glucose. D. The brain requires insulin to allow glucose to enter the cells.

A

Which of the following statements regarding gonorrhea is correct? A. painful urination is a common symptom of gonorrhea in both men and women B. mild infections w/ gonorrhea cause abdominal pain, vomiting, and fever C. most men who are infected w/ gonorrhea do not experience symptoms D. symptoms of gonorrhea usually appear w/in 3 months of being infected

A

Which of the following statements regarding nitroglycerin is correct? Select one: A. Nitroglycerin usually relieves anginal chest pain within 5 minutes. B. Nitroglycerin should be administered between the cheek and gum. C. The potency of nitroglycerin is increased when exposed to light. D. A maximum of five nitroglycerin doses should be given to a patient.

A

Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct? A. The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso. B. The EMT at the patient's head will bear the least amount of weight. C. A semi-sitting patient's weight is equally distributed on both ends. D. Most of the patient's weight rests on the foot end of the stretcher.

A

Which of the following statements regarding positive-pressure ventilation is correct? Select one: A. With positive-pressure ventilation, more volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing. B. Positive-pressure ventilation allows blood to naturally be pulled back to the heart from the body. C. Unlike negative-pressure ventilation, positive-pressure ventilation does not affect the esophageal opening pressure. D. To prevent hypotension, the EMT should increase the rate and force of positive-pressure ventilation.

A

Which of the following statements regarding storage containers and hazardous materials is correct? A. in most cases, there is no correlation b/w the color of the container and the possible contents B. the Emergency Response Guidebook tells you the type and color of the container used to store hazardous materials C. red phosphorous from a drug laboratory is found in a blue container that is clearly labeled D. steel utility drums are used to contain acids, bases, and other corrosive chemicals and substances

A

Which of the following statements regarding striated muscle is correct? A. it forms the major muscle mass of the body and usually crosses at least one joint B. striated muscle is involuntary b/c you haven conscious control over it C. striated muscle tissue is attached directly to the bones by tough bands of cartilage D. most of the body's striated muscle is found w/in the walls of the blood vessels

A

Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct? Select one: A. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized. B. The parietal peritoneum is typically the first abdominal layer that becomes inflamed or irritated. C. An acute abdomen almost always occurs as the result of blunt trauma to solid abdominal organs. D. The most common cause of an acute abdomen is inflammation of the gallbladder and liver.

A

Which of the following statements regarding the dermis is correct? A. the dermis contains hair follicles, what glands, and nerve endings B. the cells of the dermis are worn away and are constantly replaced C. the dermis lies above the germinal layer and provides protection D. the dermis produces a substance that provides color to the skin

A

Which of the following statements regarding the epinephrine auto-injector is correct? Select one: A. The epinephrine auto-injector delivers a preset amount of the drug. B. The adult auto-injector delivers 0.5 to 1 mg of epinephrine. C. The auto-injector delivers epinephrine via the subcutaneous route. D. EMTs do not need physician authorization to use the auto-injector.

A

Which of the following statements regarding the one-person bag-valve mask technique is correct? Select one: A. Adequate tidal volume is often difficult to achieve when one EMT is operating the bag-valve mask. B. The C-clamp method of holding the mask to the face is not effective when ventilating a patient with a bag-valve mask. C. Bag-valve mask ventilations should be delivered every 2 seconds when the device is being operated by one person. D. The bag-valve mask delivers more tidal volume and a higher oxygen concentration than the mouth-to-mask technique.

A

Which of the following statements regarding the pain associated with AMI is correct? Select one: A. It can occur during exertion or when the patient is at rest. B. It often fluctuates in intensity when the patient breathes. C. It is often described by the patient as a sharp feeling. D. Nitroglycerin usually resolves the pain within 30 minutes.

A

Which of the following will help improve radio communications? A. Wait 1 second after pressing the transmit button before speaking. B. Use codes to speed communication. C. Hold the radio at least 6 inches from your mouth. D. Answer questions with "yes" or "no."

A

Which of the following would MOST likely occur as the direct result of the second collision in a MVC? A. deformed steering wheel B. caved-in passenger door C. collapsed dashboard D. intrathoracic hemorrhage

A

Which of the following would be the MOST practical method of communicating w/ a hearing-impaired patient until his or her hearing aids can be located? A. using a piece of paper and writing utensil to ask questions B. attempting to use body language to determine the problem C. using a high-pitched voice while speaking directly into the ear D. contacting dispatch and requesting a sign language interpreter

A

Which of the following would indicate that the endotracheal tube is NOT in the trachea? Select one: A. Absence of an end-tidal CO2 waveform B. Decreased resistance when ventilating C. Absence of sounds over the epigastrium D. Steady increase in the oxygen saturation

A

Which of the following would provide the EMT with the BEST cover in a situation involving active gunfire? A. A concrete barricade B. Stacked empty barrels C. Behind a car door D. A large cluster of shrubs

A

Which type of consent is involved when a 39-year-old mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital? A. Expressed B. Formal C. Implied D. Informed

A

While jogging, a 19 y/o male experienced an acute onset of shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. He is conscious and alert w/ stable vital signs. Your assessment reveals that he has diminished breath sounds over the left side of the chest. You should: A. administer oxygen and transport to the hospital B. immediately perform a rapid head-to-toe exam C. recognize that he needs a needle decompression D. circumferentially tape a dressing around his chest

A

While obtaining a 12-lead ECG prior to ALS arrival, you note the presence of artifacts on the tracing. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this? Select one: A. Excessive movement of the patient B. Incorrect placement of the leads C. The patient's pulse is irregular. D. Abnormal cardiac electrical activity

A

While transporting a stable patient with chest pain to the hospital, you come across a major motor vehicle crash involving several critically injured patients. You should: A. continue transporting your patient and notify the dispatcher of the crash. B. remain at the scene until law enforcement and another ambulance arrive. C. stop and triage the patients while your partner remains in the ambulance. D. ask a bystander to remain with your patient as you treat the crash victims.

A

While transporting a woman with diabetes, you inadvertently give her oral glucose even though her blood glucose level was high. You reassess the patient and note that her condition did not change; she remained stable. You should: A. contact medical control and notify them of the error. B. notify law enforcement so they can file an incident report. C. exclude this intervention from the PCR because it did not harm the patient. D. document the error and report it to your supervisor.

A

Why does the incidence of diabetes mellitus increase w/ age? A. decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased insulin production B. decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased sugar levels C. decreased food intake, decreased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels D. increased physical activity, increased food intake, and decreased insulin production

A

With regard to the pediatric rule of nines: A. legs are proportionately smaller than an adults B. arms are proportionately larger than an adult's C. head is proportionately smaller than an adult's D. thorax is proportionately larger than an adult's

A

You are assessing a 13 month old female who is running a fever and has been vomiting. While you are performing your physical examination on this child, you will MOST likely find that she: A. responds to his/her name but is fearful of your presence B. is unable to track your movements with her eyes C. will readily allow you to separate her from her mother D. has bulging fontanelles secondary to severe dehydration

A

You are assessing a 59 y/o male and note that his pupils are unequal. He is conscious and alert. When obtaining his medical history, it is MOST pertinent to ask him if he: A. has a history of eye surgeries B. noticed the change during a meal C. is allergic to any medications D. regularly sees a family physician

A

You are assessing a conscious 55-year-old male with a sudden change in behavior. Which of the following clinical findings would be MOST suggestive of dysfunction of this patient's central nervous system? Select one: A. Rapid eye movement B. Consistent eye contact C. Excessive tearing or crying D. An irregular pulse

A

You are assessing the arm drift component of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale on a 60-year-old woman. When she holds both of her arms out in front of her and closes her eyes, both of her arms immediately fall to her sides. You should: Select one: A. repeat the arm drift test, but move the patient's arms into position yourself. B. repeat the arm drift test and ensure that her palms are facing downward. C. instruct the patient to keep her eyes open and then repeat the arm drift test. D. defer this part of the test and assess her for facial droop and slurred speech.

A

You have just delivered a baby boy. His body is pink, but his hands and feet are blue. His HR is 110, respirations are rapid and irregular. He has a weak cry when stimulated and resists attempts to straighten his legs. His Apgar score is: A. 8 B. 6 C. 7 D. 9

A

You have sealed the open chest wound of a 40 y/o male who was stabbed in the anterior chest. Your reassessment reveals that he is experiencing increasing respiratory distress and tachycardia, and is developing cyanosis. You should: A. partially remove the dressing B. call for a paramedic ambulance C. begin ventilatory assistance D. begin rapid transport at once

A

You respond to a residence for a patient who is "not acting right." As you approach the door, the patient, a 35-year-old male, begins shouting profanities at you and your partner while holding a baseball bat. The man is confused and diaphoretic, and is wearing a medical identification bracelet. You should: Select one: A. retreat at once and call law enforcement. B. contact medical control for instructions. C. calm him down so you can assess him. D. be assertive and talk the patient down.

A

You respond to a residence for a patient with a severe leg injury following an accident with a chainsaw. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 44-year-old male, lying supine in the backyard. He has a partial amputation of his right lower leg that is actively bleeding. The patient is conscious and breathing adequately; however, he is restless and his skin is diaphoretic. You should: Select one: A. apply direct pressure to the wound. B. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. C. assess the rate and quality of his pulse. D. immediately evaluate his airway.

A

You should gently palpate a patient's pelvis only if: Select one: A. the patient does not complain of pelvic pain. B. the MOI suggests significant trauma to the pelvis. C. the possibility of a pelvic fracture has been ruled out. D. you note gross deformity to the pelvic area.

A

You should not attempt to lift a patient who weighs more than 250 lb with fewer than _______ rescuers, regardless of individual strength. Select one: A. four B. three C. five D. six

A

Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should: Select one: A. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads. B. move the patch to another area of the patient's chest and then properly apply the AED pads. C. apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns. D. continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch.

A

Your patient has a chronic respiratory condition. His stimulus to breathe is triggered by low oxygen levels in the blood. This is known as the ___________. Select one: A. hypoxic drive B. COPD drive C. CO2 drive D. alternate drive

A

When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should: A. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions. B. clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water. C. spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry with a towel. D. use a bleach and water solution at a 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe all surfaces.

A.

You are caring for a driver who struck a light pole. She admits to drinking alcohol but orders you not to tell anyone. You should report the info to ________ A. the receiving nurse or doctor B. your medical director C. the state motor vehicle department D. law enforcement personnel

A.

Prehospital patient care decisions should be based on ______ A. EMS research B. the opinions of physicians C. the experience of EMTs D. an EMS agency's fiscal resources

A. EMS research

The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on A. EMS research B. local protocols C. regional trauma guidelines D. the lead EMT's decision

A. EMS research

Online medical control requires _________ A. phone or radio contact w/ the medical director B. the presence of an advanced-level provider C. written protocols approved by medical control D. a physician's presence on the scene of the call

A. phone or radio contact w/ the medical director

Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by: Select one: A. pulmonary capillary constriction. B. adequate amounts of surfactant. C. surfactant-destroying organisms. D. water or blood within the alveoli.

B

A patient who has experienced a back injury, w/ or w/o spinal cord damage, would be triaged with a ________ tag during a mass-casualty incident. A. green B. yellow C. black D. red

B

A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a: Select one: A. mouth-to-mask device. B. nonrebreathing mask. C. nasal cannula. D. bag-valve mask.

B

A 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should: Select one: A. continue to insert the airway as you suction her oropharynx. B. remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx. C. insert the airway no further but leave it in place as a bite block. D. select a smaller oropharyngeal airway and attempt to insert it.

B

A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should: Select one: A. apply pressure to the brachial artery. B. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist. C. administer high-flow supplemental oxygen. D. wrap the towel with pressure bandages.

B

A 22-year-old female patient is complaining of dyspnea and numbness and tingling in her hands and feet after an argument with her fiancé. Her respirations are 40 breaths/min. You should: Select one: A. request a paramedic to give her a sedative. B. provide reassurance and give oxygen as needed. C. have her breathe into a paper or plastic bag. D. position her on her left side and transport at once.

B

A 23-year-old male experienced severe head trauma after his motorcycle collided with an oncoming truck. He is unconscious, has rapid and shallow breathing, and has copious bloody secretions in his mouth. How should you manage his airway? Select one: A. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and provide suction and assisted ventilations. B. Alternate 15 seconds of oral suctioning with 2 minutes of assisted ventilation. C. Suction his oropharynx with a rigid catheter until all secretions are removed. D. Provide continuous ventilations with a bag-valve mask to minimize hypoxia.

B

A 33 y/o woman who is 36 weeks pregnant is experiencing vaginal bleeding. During transport, you note that she suddenly becomes diaphoretic, tachycardia, and hypotensive. You should: A. carefully place sterile gauze into her vagina B. place her in a left lateral recumbent position C. ventilate her w/ BVM D. position her supine and elevate her legs 12 in

B

A 37 y/o male was pinned b/w a flatbed truck and a loading dock. On exam, you find bruising to the chest, distended neck veins, bilaterally diminished breath sounds, and bilateral scleral hemorrhaging. You should: A. perform a secondary assessment B. aggressively manage his airway C. request a paramedic ambulance D. suspect a severe hemopneumothorax

B

A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious. He is screaming in pain and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should: Select one: A. ensure that his airway is patent. B. apply direct pressure to the wound. C. elevate his legs and keep him warm. D. administer 100% supplemental oxygen.

B

A 4 y/o, 15 kg male ingested an unknown quantity of acetaminophen (Tylenol). The child's mother states that she does not know when the ingestion occurred. The child is conscious and alert and in no apparent distress. The EMT should: A. give the child milk to absorb the Tylenol B. administer 15 g of activated charcoal C. administer high-flow supplemental oxygen D. contact medical control for guidance

B

A 40-year-old male intentionally cut his wrist out of anger after losing his job. Law enforcement has secured the scene prior to your arrival. As you enter the residence and visualize the patient, you can see that he has a towel around his wrist and a moderate amount of blood has soaked through it. You should: Select one: A. approach the patient with caution. B. calmly identify yourself to the patient. C. quickly tend to the bleeding wound. D. tell the patient that you want to help.

B

A 40-year-old male presents with pain to the right upper quadrant of his abdomen. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. During your assessment, you note that his skin and sclera are jaundiced. You should suspect: Select one: A. gallbladder disease. B. liver dysfunction. C. acute pancreatitis. D. renal insufficiency.

B

A 40-year-old man is in cardiac arrest. Your partner is performing CPR. You are attaching the AED when the patient's wife tells you that he has an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD). The AED advises that a shock is indicated. What should you do? Select one: A. Continue CPR and transport the patient to the closest appropriate hospital. B. Deliver the shock followed by immediate resumption of CPR. C. Contact medical control and request permission to defibrillate. D. Avoid defibrillation as this will damage the patient's AICD.

B

A 62-year-old male is seen with crushing chest pain, which he describes as being the same kind of pain that he had with a previous heart attack. He has prescribed nitroglycerin but states that he has not taken any. After administering supplemental oxygen if needed and contacting medical control, you should: Select one: A. begin immediate transport and request a rendezvous with a paramedic unit. B. assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg. C. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin before assessing his blood pressure. D. administer the nitroglycerin unless he has taken Viagra within the past 72 hours.

B

A 62-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure presents with severe respiratory distress and with an oxygen saturation of 82%. When you auscultate his lungs, you hear widespread rales. He is conscious and alert, is able to follow simple commands, and can only speak in two- to three-word sentences at a time. You should: Select one: A. place him in a position of comfort, deliver oxygen via nasal cannula, and closely monitor his breathing. B. apply a CPAP device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration. C. place him in a supine position and assist his ventilations with a bag-valve mask and high-flow oxygen. D. force fluid from his alveoli by hyperventilating him with a bag-valve mask at a rate of at least 20 breaths/min.

B

A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours' duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 22 breaths/min, and her oxygen saturation is 92%. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should: Select one: A. give her high-flow oxygen, attach the AED, and transport at once. B. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further. C. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure. D. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice.

B

A 66-year-old male presents with bizarre behavior. His daughter states that he did not seem to recognize her and was very rude to her. The patient is conscious, and has a patent airway and adequate breathing. You should: Select one: A. carefully restrain the patient and transport at once. B. ask the daughter how her father normally behaves. C. advise the patient that his behavior is unacceptable. D. conclude that the patient has Alzheimer disease.

B

A 75-year-old male with type 1 diabetes presents with chest pain and a general feeling of weakness. He tells you that he took his insulin today and ate a regular meal approximately 2 hours ago. You should treat this patient as though he is experiencing: Select one: A. hyperglycemia. B. a heart attack. C. hypoglycemia. D. an acute stroke.

B

A decrease in blood pressure may indicate: Select one: A. arterial constriction. B. loss of vascular tone. C. forceful cardiac contraction. D. increased blood volume.

B

A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when: Select one: A. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding. B. the inner layers of the aorta become separated. C. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall. D. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract.

B

A female patient w/ a suspected head injury has slow, shallow breathing. The MOST appropriate treatment for her includes: A. hyperventilating her at 30 breaths/min B. ventilation assistance to maintain an ETCO2 of 30 to 35 mm Hg C. ventilation assistance to maintain an oxygen saturation of 90% D. administering oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask

B

A fracture caused by minimal force that is assoc. w/ diseases such as cancer and osteoporosis is called a _______ fracture. A. comminuted B. pathologic C. transverse D. greenstick

B

A functional disorder is a: Select one: A. physiological disorder caused by a structural abnormality. B. physiological disorder in the absence of a structural abnormality. C. psychological disorder caused by a structural abnormality.

B

A general impression of the patient is formed by an EMT: Select one: A. when the patient is in the ambulance. B. at a distance when the patient is first seen. C. speaking privately with the patient. D. speaking with family members or bystanders first.

B

A high-pitched inspiratory sound that indicates a partial airway obstruction is called: A. grunting B. stridor C. rhonchi D. wheezing

B

A nuchal cord is defined as an umbilical cord that: A. has abnormally developed blood vessels B. is wrapped around the baby's neck C. has separated from the placenta D. is lacerated due to a traumatic delivery

B

A patient has a large accumulation of blood in the sac surrounding the heart. Which type of shock would this condition cause? A. Hypovolemic B. Obstructive C. Neurogenic D. Cardiogenic

B

A patient in respiratory arrest at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident would typically be classified as a fourth priority (black tag; expectant) patient, unless: A. there are at least three other patients in respiratory arrest B. there are enough resources to provide care for him/her C. he/she has signs of an injury to the cervical spine D. he/she has external signs of severe thoracic trauma

B

A patient w/ PID will typically complain of _______ A. bleeding assoc w/ stress B. abdominal pain assoc w/ menstruation C. nausea and vomiting assoc w/ intercourse D. aches and fever assoc w/ urination

B

A patient with a history of schizophrenia called EMS because he was experiencing abdominal pain. When law enforcement arrived, the patient became violent, necessitating the placement of handcuffs. When you assess the patient, he tells you that killing someone will make his abdominal pain go away. His vital signs are stable. How should you manage this situation? Select one: A. Transport the patient in a prone position on the stretcher B. Request a police officer to accompany you in the ambulance C. Refuse to transport the patient because of his homicidal threat D. Request that a police officer transport him to the hospital

B

A patient with an altered mental status is: Select one: A. completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli. B. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused. C. usually able to be aroused with a painful stimulus. D. typically alert but is confused as to preceding events.

B

A patient with an altered mental status; high blood glucose levels; and deep, rapid breathing may have a condition known as __________. Select one: A. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma B. diabetic ketoacidosis C. hyperglycemic crisis D. hypoglycemic crisis

B

A patient's short-term memory is MOST likely intact if he or she correctly answers questions regarding: Select one: A. person and place. B. date and event. C. event and person. D. time and place.

B

A reflex arc occurs when: A. a sensory nerve sends a message to the brain but the motor nerve fails to send the appropriate response to the body B. a sensory nerve detects an irritating stimulus and bypasses the brain by sending a direct message to the motor nerve C. the motor nerves function w/o receiving a message from the CNS D. the brain interprets sensory info that it receives from peripheral and cranial nerves and sends a signal to the muscles

B

A technique used to gain insight into a patient's thinking, which involves repeating in question form what the patient has said, is called: Select one: A. active listening. B. reflective listening. C. intuitive listening. D. passive listening.

B

A ventilation/perfusion (V/Q ratio) mismatch occurs when: Select one: A. ventilation is inadequate due to a traumatic injury or medical condition, which results in an impairment in pulmonary gas exchange. B. a disruption in blood flow inhibits the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, even though the alveoli are filled with fresh oxygen. C. ventilation is compromised, resulting in the accumulation of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream, alveoli, and the tissues and cells of the body. D. a traumatic injury or medical condition impairs the body's ability to effectively bring oxygen into the lungs and remove carbon dioxide from the body.

B

A young female presents with costovertebral angle tenderness. She is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Which of the following organs is MOST likely causing her pain? Select one: A. Liver B. Kidney C. Pancreas D. Gallbladder

B

A(n) ________ fracture occurs in the growth section of a child's bone and may lead to bone growth abnormalities. A. greenstick B. epiphyseal C. diaphyseal D. metaphyseal

B

According to the terminal drop hypothesis: A. most late-stage adults retain high bran function until 1 month before death B. mental function is presumed to decline in the 5 years preceding death C. a person's physical health begins to decline after the age of 75 years D. most elderly patients experience depression after the death of a loved one

B

Accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity will MOST likely cause: A. nausea or vomiting B. distention C. diffuse bruising D. referred pain

B

Activated charcoal is given to patients who have ingested certain substances because it: A. decreases absorption of poisons into the lungs B. binds to the substances and prevents absorption C. induces vomiting and empties the stomach D. is a direct antidote for many toxic substances

B

Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term used to describe: Select one: A. the exact moment that a coronary artery is completely occluded. B. a group of symptoms that are caused by myocardial ischemia. C. the warning signs that occur shortly before a heart attack. D. a severe decrease in perfusion caused by changes in heart rate.

B

After primary triage, the triage supervisor should communicate all of the following info to the medical branch officer, EXCEPT: A. the number of patients in each triage category B. the recommended transport destination for each patient C. recommendations for movement to the treatment area D. the total number of patients that have been triaged

B

After recognizing that an incident involves a hazardous material, you should contact the hazmat team and then: A. don standard equipment before gaining access to any patients B. take measures to ensure the safety of yourself and others C. not allow anyone w/in 25-50 ft of the incident scene D. identify the chemical using the Emergency Response Guidebook

B

After taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for an allergic reaction, a person begins experiencing drowsiness and a dry mouth. These findings are an example of a(n): Select one: A. therapeutic effect. B. side effect. C. untoward effect. D. unpredictable effect.

B

Age-related changes in the renal system result in: A. dilation of the blood vessels that supply the nephrons, which allows the kidneys to maintain their function B. a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed C. a significant increase in filtration, which causes the excretion of large amounts of water from the body D. the formation of large amounts of urine secondary to an increase in kidney mass of up to 20%

B

All of the following biologic agents or diseases can be transmitted from person to person, EXCEPT: Select one: A. smallpox. B. ricin. C. viral hemorrhagic fevers. D. pneumonic plague.

B

An adult patient who is NOT experiencing difficulty breathing will: Select one: A. exhibit an indentation above the clavicles and in between the ribs. B. be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses. C. assume a position that will facilitate effective and easy breathing. D. have a respiratory rate that is between 20 and 24 breaths/min.

B

An air embolism assoc w/ diving occurs when: A. the diver hyperventilates prior to entering the water B. the diver holds his/her breath during a rapid descent C. high water pressure forces air into the mediastinum D. the alveoli completely collapse due to high pressure

B

An organ or tissue may be better able to resist damage from hypo perfusion if the: A. systolic arterial bp is at least 60 B. body's temp is considerably less than 98.6 deg F C. body's demand for oxygen is markedly increased D. hr is maintained at >100 bpm

B

Anaphylaxis is MOST accurately defined as a(n): Select one: A. moderate allergic reaction that primarily affects the vasculature. B. extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems. C. allergic reaction that causes bronchodilation and vasoconstriction. D. severe allergic reaction that typically resolves without treatment.

B

Approximately 25% of severe injuries to the aorta occur during: A. frontal collisions B. lateral collisions C. rear-end collisions D. rollover collisions

B

At a flow rate of 6 L/min, a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of up to: Select one: A. 35%. B. 44%. C. 52%. D. 24%.

B

At a scene w/ downed electrical lines, the EMT should __________ A. stabilize the patient in the danger (hot) zone B. remain outside the danger (hot) zone C. enter the danger (hot) zone for patient removal only D. relocate the danger (hot) zone away from the patient

B

At a scene with downed electrical lines, the EMT should: A. stabilize the patient in the danger (hot) zone B. remain outside the danger (hot) zone C. enter the danger (hot) zone for patient removal only D. relocate the danger (hot) zone away from the patient

B

At a very large incident, the ___________ section is responsible for managing the tactical operations usually handled by the incident commander on routine EMS calls. A. finance B. operations C. logistics D. planning

B

At present, the likelihood of a nuclear attack against the United States is very low because: Select one: A. all nuclear devices or weapons that different countries are in possession of are currently accounted for. B. terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb. C. other than the United States, no other countries are currently in possession of nuclear weapons. D. the United States has an effective early warning system to detect an incoming nuclear missile.

B

Atherosclerosis is defined as _________ A. the buildup of plaque inside the blood vessels B. the blockage of a coronary artery C. dilation of the arteries D. constriction of blood vessels

B

Bacterial vaginosis is a condition that occurs when: A. abnormal bacteria enter the vagina and cause damage w/o causing any symptoms B. normal bacteria in the vagina are replaced by an overgrowth of other bacterial forms C. harmful bacteria infect and cause damage to the uterus, cervix, and fallopian tubes D. numerous bacteria enter the uterus through the cervix and cause severe tissue damage

B

Based on current guidelines, in which of the following situations should supplemental oxygen be administered? Select one: A. Any diabetic patient whose oxygen saturation is less than 98% B. Exposure to carbon monoxide and an oxygen saturation of 95% C. Any elderly patient whose oxygen saturation is less than 95% D. Signs of myocardial infarction and an oxygen saturation of 97%

B

Because a tracheostomy tube bypasses the nose and mouth: A. severe swelling of the trachea and bronchi can occur B. secretions can build up in and around the tube C. bleeding or air leakage may occur around the tube D. the risk of a local infection is significantly high

B

Because the depth of an open abdominal wound is often difficult to determine: A. the EMT must perform a thorough exam B. prompt transport to the hospital is essential C. vital signs should be monitored frequently D. the abdomen must be vigorously palpated

B

CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it: Select one: A. is delivered by computer. B. involves hands-on practice. C. is self-paced and brief. D. occurs every 24 months

B

Common signs and symptoms of acute hyperventilation syndrome include: Select one: A. altered mental status and bradycardia. B. tachypnea and tingling in the extremities. C. anxiety, dizziness, and severe bradypnea. D. unilateral paralysis and slurred speech.

B

Compared to adults, infants and children are at higher risk for hypothermia for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: A. a decreased ability to shiver B. a relatively small surface area C. a smaller amount of body fat D. a smaller overall muscle mass

B

Most patients with an infectious disease will have _________. Select one: A. a low blood glucose level B. a fever C. seizures D. abdominal pain

B

Compared to an adult, the diaphragm dictates the amount of air that a child inspires because the: A. upper airway is smaller and easily collapsible B. intercostal muscles are not well developed C. abdominal organs force the diaphragm upward D. rib cage is rigid and provides little flexibility

B

Compression injury is most likely due to which of the following? A. ejection of unrestrained driver B. improperly placed lap belt C. hollow organ rupture D. stabbing

B

Distributive shock occurs when: Select one: A. an injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its pumping function. B. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds. C. temporary but severe vasodilation causes a decrease in blood supply to the brain. D. severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the organs faster.

B

During a 30-minute transport of a stable patient, you should reassess him or her at least ________ times. Select one: A. 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6

B

During a HazMat incident, you are working in the treatment area. As patents are removed from the danger zone, you should: A. quickly decontaminate the patients and begin assessing them B. remain where you are and have the patients brought to you C. perform a rapid assessment and then have them decontaminated D. retrieve patients from the decontamination area and begin treatment

B

During the normal wound-healing process, bleeding may occur from even a minor injury because: A. bacteria and other microorganisms invade the wound site and damage the capillaries, which makes them prone to bleeding B. new capillaries that stem from intact capillaries are delicate and take time to become as stable as the preexisting capillaries C. There is a substantial decrease in the umber of platelets in and around the wound, which increases the risk of bleeding D. histamines released by the immune system constrict the blood vessels, which increases the pressure w/in them

B

During your assessment of a patient w/ blunt chest trauma, you note that the patient has shallow breathing and paradoxical movement of the left chest wall. You should: A. apply high-flow oxygen via NRB mask B. assist ventilations w/ a BVM C. make note of it and continue your assessment D. request a paramedic to decompress the chest

B

During your primary assessment of a 19 y/o unconscious male who experienced severe head trauma, you note that his respirations are rapid, irregular, and shallow. He has bloody secretions draining from his mouth and nose. You should: A. immobilize his spine and transport immediately B. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds C. assist his ventilations w/ a BVM D. pack his nostrils to stop the drainage of blood

B

During your treatment of a woman in cardiac arrest, you apply the AED, analyze her cardiac rhythm, and receive a "no shock advised" message. This indicates that: Select one: A. the AED has detected asystole. B. she is not in ventricular fibrillation. C. she has a pulse and does not need CPR. D. the AED detected patient motion.

B

Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. a complete cessation of respiratory effort. B. shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. C. a marked increase in the exhalation phase. D. labored breathing with reduced tidal volume.

B

EMTs arrive at the scene of an ill person. The EMR, who arrived before the EMTs, advises that the patient had a syncopal episode. The patient is conscious and alert and remains so throughout transport. When transferring patient care to the emergency department nurse, the EMT should advise the nurse that: Select one: A. there is no evidence to support the syncopal episode. B. the patient had a reported syncopal episode. C. the EMR was probably mistaken about the episode. D. she should contact the EMR about the incident.

B

Effective therapeutic communication skills require _________. A. supervision by advanced life support personnel B. verbal and nonverbal communication techniques C. correct use of complex medical terminology D. English-speaking patients or family members

B

Epinephrine stimulates the ________ response, increasing blood pressure and relieving bronchospasm. Select one: A. respiratory B. sympathetic C. parasympathetic D. cardiac

B

Everyone exhibits some signs and symptoms of mental illness at some point in life ____________. Select one: A. and should be physically restrained for their own safety and the safety of the EMT B. but that does not mean a person is mentally ill C. and needs medication administered to control them D. because mental illness affects everyone

B

For every emergency request, the dispatcher should routinely gather and record all of the following info, EXCEPT the: A. caller's phone number B. patient's medical history C. nature of the call D. location of the patient(s)

B

Force acting over a distance is the definition of: A. potential energy B. work C. kinetic energy D. latent energy

B

Heat loss from the body through respiration occurs when: A. the core body temp is greater than 98 deg F B. warm air is exhaled into the atmosphere C. air temp is greater than body temp D. cool air is inhaled and displaces warm air

B

Heat stroke occurs when: A. a person's core body temp rises above 103 deg F B. the body's heat-eliminating mechanisms are overwhelmed C. the ambient temp exceeds 90 deg F and the humidity is high D. a person becomes dehydrated secondary to excess water loss

B

High air temp reduces the body's ability to lose heat by: A. conduction B. radiation C. evaporation D. convection

B

His parents tell you that their son has had a chest infection for the past two days and when they took him to their family doctor, they were told it was likely due to the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). They have kept him well hydrated, but the infection seems to have gotten worse. On auscultation, you hear decreased air entry bilaterally with fine expiratory wheezes and the occasional coarse wet crackle. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from: Select one: A. croup. B. bronchiolitis. C. pertussis. D. epiglottitis.

B

How does CPAP improve oxygenation and ventilation in patients with certain respiratory problems? Select one: A. It pushes thick, infected pulmonary secretions into isolated areas of the lung. B. It forces the alveoli open and pushes oxygen across the alveolar membrane. C. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which allows more room for lung expansion. D. It prevents alveolar collapse by pushing air into the lungs during inhalation.

B

Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. high blood glucose levels. B. a narcotic overdose. C. an overdose of aspirin. D. a respiratory infection.

B

If a problem with a team member is not directly or immediately impacting patient care, the team leader should: Select one: A. engage the team member at once. B. discuss the problem after the call. C. ignore the problem to avoid conflict. D. contact the medical director at once.

B

If a technical rescue team is required at the scene, but is not present when you arrive, you should: A. don PPE and begin the rescue process B. check w/ the incident commander to ensure the team is en route C. remain w/ your ambulance until the team arrives at the scene D. have fire personnel initiate the rescue process if they are at the scene

B

If a woman w/ vaginal bleeding reports syncope, the EMT should assume that she: A. has an infection B. is in shock C. has an ectopic pregnancy D. is pregnant

B

If an NPA is too long, it may: A. push the tongue anteriorly B. stimulate the vagus nerve C. result in tachycardia D. become obstructed by mucus

B

If the situation allows, a child should be transported in a car seat if he/she weighs less than ______ lb A. 60 B. 40 C. 50 D. 70

B

Immediately after being dispatched to a residence for an elderly patient with diabetic complications, you should: A. ask the dispatcher to obtain a medical history from the caller. B. confirm with dispatch that you received the call information. C. ask the dispatcher if the patient is conscious or unconscious. D. request that law enforcement secure the scene before you arrive.

B

In 2009, the H1N1 virus accounted for over 200,000 deaths worldwide in the form of the swine flu. In 1919, a similar outbreak of the H1N1 occurred in the form of the Spanish flu. Starting in Kansas City, the virus spread rapidly worldwide, claiming up to 50 million lives. These are both examples of: Select one: A. uncontrolled outbreaks. B. pandemics. C. parasitic infection. D. epidemics.

B

In addition to ensuring his or her own safety, the EMT's responsibility when caring for a patient with a behavioral emergency is to: Select one: A. transport the patient directly to a specialized psychiatric facility. B. diffuse and control the situation and safely transport the patient. C. diagnose the patient's problem and provide definitive treatment. D. determine the underlying cause of the problem and offer advice.

B

In an acute injury setting, neurogenic shock is commonly accompanied by: Select one: A. diaphoresis. B. hypothermia. C. hypovolemia. D. tachycardia.

B

In contrast to bleeding caused by external trauma to the vagina, bleeding caused by conditions such as polyps or cancer: A. often presents w/ acute pain B. may be relatively painless C. can be controlled in the field D. is typically not severe

B

In contrast to the brown recluse spider, the black widow spider: A. is very small and has a violin-shaped mark on its back B. is large and has a red-orange hourglass mark on its abdomen C. has a bite that is typically painless until a blister develops D. has a bite that usually produces local pain bu no systemic signs or symptoms

B

In contrast to viral hepatitis, toxin-induced hepatitis: Select one: A. is a far more transmittable disease. B. is not a communicable disease. C. can be prevented with a vaccination. D. typically does not cause yellow skin.

B

In infant is considered to be premature if it: A. weighs <5.5 lb or is born before 37 weeks gestation B. weighs <5 lb or is born before 36 weeks gestation C. is born before 38 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 6 lb D. is born before 40 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 7 lb

B

Most poisonings occur via the ________ route A. inhalation B. ingestion C. absorption D. injection

B

In late adults, the amount of air left in the lungs after expiration of the maximum amount of air: A. decreases, which increases diffusion in the lungs and causes an accumulation of carbon dioxide B. increases, which hampers diffusion of gases b/c of the stagnant air that remains in the alveoli C. remains unchanged b/c the lungs have become accustomed to years of breathing pollution D. decreases, resulting in widespread collapsing of the alveoli and impaired diffusion of gases

B

In nontrauma patients, an early indicator of internal bleeding is: A. rapid, shallow bleeding B. dizziness upon standing C. a rapid, thready pulse D. a decreasing blood pressure

B

In order for sweating to be an effective cooling mechanism: A. several layers of clothing must be worn B. it must be able to evaporate from the body C. the body must produce at least 1 L per hour D. the relative humidity must be above 90%

B

In order to accomplish the goal of primary triage, it is important to: A. begin life-saving care immediately upon detecting critical injuries B. keep the triage assessment brief and the patient categories basic C. perform a rapid assessment on all patients who appear to be unstable D. take no more than 2 min to determine the patient's status

B

In order to evaluate hazards present at the scene and determine the number of patients, you should: A. use the info provided by dispatch B. perform a 360 degree walk around the scene C. interview bystanders present at the scene D. request the fire dept at all scenes

B

In preparing for a disaster, EMS systems should have enough supplies for at least a ________ period of self-sufficiency. A. 48 hour B. 72 hour C. 24 hour D. 96 hour

B

In which of the following circumstances can the EMT legally release confidential patient information? A. A police officer requests a copy to place on file B. The patient is competent and signs a release form C. A media representative inquires about the patient D. The family requests a copy for insurance purposes

B

In which of the following patients would the head tilt-chin lift maneuver be the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway? Select one: A. A 24-year-old male who is found unconscious at the base of a tree B. A 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed C. A 50-year-old male who is unconscious following head trauma D. A 45-year-old male who is semiconscious after falling 20 feet

B

In which of the following situations should the EMT splint an injured limb in the position of deformity? A. when distal circulation and neurological functions are absent B. if resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain C. if a traction splint will be used to immobilize the injured extremity D. if transport time to the hospital is greater than 20 to 30 min

B

Injury to a hollow abdominal organ would MOST likely result in: Select one: A. pain secondary to blood in the peritoneum. B. leakage of contents into the abdominal cavity. C. impairment in the blood's clotting abilities. D. profound shock due to severe internal bleeding.

B

Interruption of cerebral blood flow may result from all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. an embolism. B. cerebral vasodilation. C. an acute arterial rupture. D. a thrombus.

B

It is common for young females who experience their first menstrual period to: A. have a false positive home pregnancy test result B. experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted C. become so emotionally distraught that they contemplate suicide D. lose up to 500 mL of blood w/in the first 24 hours

B

It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ___________ problem. Select one: A. respiratory B. neurologic C. endocrine D. cardiac

B

It would be MOST appropriate for a patient to take his or her prescribed nitroglycerin when experiencing: Select one: A. an acute onset of dizziness during a period of exertion. B. chest pain that does not immediately subside with rest. C. sharp chest pain that lasts longer than 10 to 15 minutes. D. difficulty breathing that awakens the patient from sleep.

B

Major risk factors for AMI include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. elevated cholesterol. B. hypoglycemia. C. diabetes mellitus. D. hypertension.

B

Many older victims of physical abuse may make false statements or lie about the origin of their injuries because: A. most elderly patients have dementia B. they fear retribution from the abuser C. they are protective of the abuser D. they do not want to be bothersome

B

Most cases of anthrax begin with: Select one: A. pulmonary edema. B. flulike symptoms. C. respiratory distress. D. signs of shock.

B

Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to: Select one: A. sit in a semi-Fowler position with their knees slightly bent. B. lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen. C. lie in a supine position with their knees in a flexed position. D. sit fully upright because it helps relax the abdominal muscles.

B

Motor nerve neuropathy is characterized by: A. numbness, tingling, and severe muscle pain B. loss of balance, muscle weakness, and spasms C. loss of bladder control and sensitivity to touch D. constipation, low BP, and bradycardia

B

Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients: Select one: A. with a history of an ischemic stroke. B. who have experienced a head injury. C. with a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg. D. who have taken up to two doses.

B

Nitroglycerin relieves cardiac-related chest pain by: Select one: A. constricting the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow. B. dilating the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow. C. increasing the amount of stress that is placed on the myocardium. D. contracting the smooth muscle of the coronary and cerebral arteries.

B

Pathophysiology is the study of the functional changes that occur when the body reacts to a particular: A. protocol. B. disease. C. medication. D. assessment.

B

Patient complains of pain during intercourse, over abdominal discomfort, and nausea may be indicative of which of the following? A. gonorrhea B. PID C. bacterial vaginosis D. chlamydia

B

Patients may experience allergic reactions to which of the following substances? Select one: a. Food and medications b. All of these answers are correct. c. Plant material d. Insect or animal bites and stings

B

Phosgene (CG) has an odor that resembles: Select one: A. garlic. B. cut grass. C. bleach. D. almonds.

B

Physical changes that typically occur in early adults include an: A. increase in muscle strength and reflexes B. increase in fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain C. increase in respiratory rate due to increased metabolism D. increase in height b/c of spinal disc expansion

B

Proper procedure for administering oral glucose to a patient includes all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. assessing the patient's mental status. B. ensuring the absence of a gag reflex. C. checking the medication's expiration date. D. requesting permission from medical control.

B

Proper technique for suctioning the oropharynx of an adult patient includes: Select one: A. removing large, solid objects with a tonsil-tip suction catheter. B. suctioning while withdrawing the catheter from the oropharynx. C. suctioning for up to 1 minute if the patient is well oxygenated. D. continuously suctioning patients with copious oral secretions.

B

Putrefaction is defined as: A. separation of the torso from the rest of the body. B. decomposition of the body's tissues. C. profound cyanosis to the trunk and face. D. blood settling to the lowest point of the body.

B

Question 68 Correct 1 points out of 1 Flag question Question text When assessing a 62-year-old female with crushing chest pain, you note that her pulse is rapid and irregular. You should administer supplemental oxygen if needed and then: Select one: A. conclude that the irregular pulse is normal based on her age. B. transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit. C. apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm. D. document your findings and perform a detailed assessment.

B

Rapid deceleration of the head, such as when it impacts the windshield, causes: A. compression injuries and contusions to the anterior, posterior, and lateral aspects of the brain B. compression injuries or bruising to the anterior portion of the brain and stretching or tearing to the posterior portion of the brain C. primary impact to the posterior aspect of the brain, resulting in compression injuries, bruising, or torn blood vessels D. stretching or tearing of the anterior aspect of the brain and compression injuries or bruising to the posterior aspect of the brain

B

Returning the emergency unit to service is part of the: A. hazard-control phase B. termination phase C. support phase D. transfer phase

B

The development of an incident action plan is the responsibility of the : A. logistics section B. planning section C. finance section D. operations section

B

Shortly after assisting a 65-year-old female with her prescribed nitroglycerin, she begins complaining of dizziness and experiences a drop of 30 mm Hg in her systolic blood pressure. The patient remains conscious and her breathing is adequate. You should: Select one: A. assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask. B. place her in a supine position. C. wait 5 minutes and reassess her blood pressure. D. transport her in a sitting position.

B

Shortly after you load your patient, a 50-year-old man with abdominal pain, into the ambulance, he tells you that he changed his mind and does not want to go to the hospital. The patient is conscious and alert and has no signs of mental incapacitation. You are suspicious that the man has a significant underlying condition and feel strongly that he should go to the hospital. Which of the following statements regarding this situation is correct? A. Because of your suspicions, the best approach is to transport him to the hospital. B. A mentally competent adult can withdraw his or her consent to treat at any time. C. Any patient who refuses EMS treatment must legally sign a patient refusal form. D. Once the patient is in the ambulance, he cannot legally refuse EMS treatment.

B

Signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency would MOST likely be delayed in patients who: Select one: A. are older than 40 years of age. B. have chronic hypertension. C. have had a stroke in the past. D. regularly take illegal drugs.

B

Signs of an upper airway obstruction in an infant or child include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. stridorous breathing B. wheezing C. a cough that resembles the bark of a seal D. a weak cough

B

Signs of severe dehydration in an infant include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. delayed capillary refill B. bulging fontanelles C. profound tachycardia D. dry mucous membranes

B

Signs of vasoconstriction in the infant or child include: A. warm, dry skin B. weak distal pulses C. a rapid heart rate D. brisk capillary refill

B

Spina bifida is a developmental defect in which: A. an excessive amount of CSF damages the spinal cord B. a portion of the spinal cord or meninges protrudes outside of the vertebrae C. the spinal column is severely deformed, resulting in permanent paralysis D. nerve fibers that arise from the spinal cord do not function properly

B

Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that: Select one: A. you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately. B. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient. C. you contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions. D. the disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms.

B

The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the: A. local health district. B. medical director. C. EMS supervisor. D. state EMS office.

B

The MOST common reason that many people experiencing AMI do not seek immediate medical attention is because they: Select one: A. do not trust EMTs. B. are in denial. C. are elderly. D. cannot afford it.

B

The _________ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle. Select one: A. coccyx B. sacrum C. ischium D. thorax

B

The ____________ area is where incoming ambulances meet and await further instructions at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident. A. triage B. staging C. transportation D. support

B

The adult epinephrine auto-injector delivers ______ mg of epinephrine, and the infant-child auto-injector delivers ______ mg. Select one: A. 0.01; 0.1 B. 0.3; 0.15 C. 0.1; 0.01 D. 0.03; 0.3

B

The central nervous system is composed of the: A. brain and sensory nerves. B. brain and spinal cord. C. motor and sensory nerves. D. spinal cord and sensory nerves.

B

The mental status of a patient who has experienced a generalized seizure: Select one: A. typically does not improve, even after several minutes. B. is likely to improve over a period of 5 to 30 minutes. C. is easily differentiated from that of acute hypoglycemia. D. progressively worsens over a period of a few hours.

B

The nasopharyngeal airway is MOST beneficial because it: Select one: A. can effectively stabilize fractured nasal bones if it is inserted properly. B. can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex. C. effectively maintains the airway of a patient in cardiopulmonary arrest. D. is generally well tolerated in conscious patients with an intact gag reflex.

B

The parietal peritoneum lines the: Select one: A. surface of the abdominal organs. B. walls of the abdominal cavity. C. retroperitoneal space. D. lungs and chest cavity.

B

The presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid indicates: A. that the fetus is at least 4 weeks premature B. that the baby's airway may be obstructed C. an expected finding in full-term infants D. that full newborn resuscitation will be needed

B

The primary clinical feature associated with exposure to phosgene oxime is: Select one: A. miosis. B. skin blistering. C. a red rash. D. bradycardia.

B

The process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and the blood of the capillaries is called: Select one: A. alveolar ventilation. B. external respiration. C. cellular metabolism. D. pulmonary ventilation.

B

The proper technique for using the power grip is to: Select one: A. hold the handle with your fingers. B. lift with your palms up. C. position your hands about 6² apart. D. rotate your palms down.

B

The right coronary artery supplies blood to the: Select one: A. left ventricle and posterior wall of the right ventricle. B. right ventricle and inferior wall of the left ventricle. C. right atrium and posterior wall of the right ventricle. D. left ventricle and inferior wall of the right atrium.

B

The secondary assessment of a medical patient: Select one: A. should routinely include a comprehensive examination from head to toe. B. is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short. C. should be performed at the scene, especially if the patient is critically ill. D. is typically limited to a focused exam for patients who are unconscious.

B

The severity of bleeding should be based on all of the following findings, EXCEPT: A. a poor general appearance B. systolic bp C. the mechanism of injury D. clinical signs and symptoms

B

The stinger from a honeybee should be: Select one: A. irrigated with copious amounts of water. B. scraped away from the skin. C. left in place and covered D. squeezed with tweezers and removed.

B

The systematic head-to-toe assessment should be performed on: Select one: A. all patients with traumatic injuries who will require EMS transport. B. patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients. C. stable patients who are able to tell you exactly what happened. D. responsive medical patients and patients without a significant MOI.

B

The systemic veins function by: A. returning oxygen-rich blood back to the left atrium B. returning deoxygenated blood back to the heart C. delivering oxygen-poor blood to the capillaries D. delivering deoxygenated blood to the capillaries

B

The use of special tools to remove an entrapped patient from a vehicle is known as ________ A. vehicle stabilization B. complex access C. incident management D. simple access

B

To date, the preferred weapons of mass destruction for terrorists have been: Select one: A. nuclear weapons. B. explosive weapons. C. biologic weapons. D. chemical weapons.

B

To facilitate a safe and coordinated move, the team leader should: A. be positioned at the feet so the team can hear. B. use preparatory commands to initiate any moves. C. never become involved in the move, only direct the move. D. speak softly but clearly to avoid startling the patient.

B

To protect vital organs, the body compensates by directing blood flow away from organs that are more tolerant of low flow, such as: Select one: A. the brain. B. the skin. C. the lungs. D. the heart.

B

To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, you should measure from the: Select one: A. corner of the mouth to the superior ear. B. corner of the mouth to the earlobe. C. angle of the jaw to the center of the mouth. D. center of the mouth to the posterior ear.

B

To which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose? Select one: A. A conscious 37-year-old female with nausea and vomiting B. A confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor C. A semiconscious 40-year-old female without a gag reflex D. An unconscious 33-year-old male with cool, clammy skin

B

Upon arrival at a search-and-rescue incident, the EMS crew should _______ A. split up and request a search grid B. prepare the equipment to carry the patient C. provide the incident commander w/ the crew's names and certification level(s) D. being searching for the patient

B

Upon arrival at a search-and-rescue incident, the EMT crew should: A. split up and request a search grid B. prepare the equipment to carry to the patient C. provide the incident commander w/ the crew's names and certification level(s) D. begin searching for the patient

B

Upon arriving at the residence of a patient with a possible cardiac problem, it is MOST important to: Select one: A. determine if you need additional help. B. assess the scene for potential hazards. C. request a paramedic unit for assistance. D. gain immediate access to the patient.

B

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and has a large laceration to his forehead. You should: Select one: A. apply a vest-style extrication device before attempting to move the patient. B. direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head. C. slide a long backboard under his buttocks and lay him sideways on the board. D. apply a cervical collar and quickly remove the patient with a clothes drag.

B

Upon arriving at the scene of a patient with difficulty breathing, you determine that the scene is safe. You enter the residence and find the patient sitting in a chair in respiratory distress. Your first action should be to: Select one: A. obtain a set of baseline vital signs. B. introduce yourself to the patient. C. ask the patient what's wrong. D. assess the patient's airway status.

B

Upon arriving at the scene of a possible HazMat incident involving several patients, you should: A. rope off the entire perimeter B. carefully assess the situation C. divert traffic away from the scene D. retrieve all critical patients

B

Viral hemorrhagic fevers (VHF), such as Ebola, cause the blood to: Select one: A. attack the bone marrow and destroy cells. B. seep out of the blood vessels and tissues. C. engorge the brain and cause hemorrhaging. D. become thick and spontaneously clot.

B

What are the three components of the "perfusion triangle"? Select one: A. Arteries, veins, capillaries B. Heart, blood vessels, blood C. Plasma, red blood cells, platelets D. Heart, brain, lungs

B

What is the function of the left atrium? Select one: A. It receives blood from the pulmonary arteries. B. It receives oxygenated blood from the lungs. C. It ejects oxygenated blood into the aorta. D. It receives oxygenated blood from the vena cava.

B

What is the most common misconception surrounding mental illness? Select one: A. Everyone has some form of mental illness. B. Feeling "bad" or "depressed" means that you must be "sick." C. Many mental illnesses stem from drug or alcohol abuse. D. All persons with mental disorders are physically violent and dangerous.

B

When a motor vehicle strikes a tree while traveling at 40 mph, the unrestrained occupant: A. will decelerate at the same rate as the motor vehicle B. remains in motion until acted upon by an external force C. is thrust under the steering column onto the floorboard D. will most likely be thrown over the steering column

B

When a person is exposed to a cold environment: A. blood vessels dilate and divert blood to the core of the body B. peripheral vessels constrict and divert blood away from the skin C. sweat is produced and is warmed when the vessels constrict D. the skin becomes flushed secondary to peripheral vasodilation

B

When an electrical impulse reaches the AV node, it is slowed for a brief period of time so that: Select one: A. the impulse can spread through the Purkinje fibers. B. blood can pass from the atria to the ventricles. C. blood returning from the body can fill the atria. D. the SA node can reset and generate another impulse.

B

When assessing a patient with abdominal pain, you should: Select one: A. observe for abdominal guarding, which is characterized by sudden relaxation of the abdominal muscles when palpated. B. palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction, beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful. C. visually assess the painful area of the abdomen, but avoid palpation because this could worsen his or her condition. D. ask the patient to point to the area of pain or tenderness and assess for rebound tenderness over that specific area.

B

When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that: A. bilateral hip fractures usually occur when an elderly person falls B. osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position C. any fall in the elderly is considered to be high-energy trauma D. elderly patients who fall usually have a secondary head injury

B

When assessing an unresponsive diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia is the: Select one: A. patient's mental status. B. rate and depth of breathing. C. rate of the patient's pulse. D. presence of a medical identification tag.

B

When caring for a woman who is experiencing a gynecologic emergency, the EMT's main focus should be to: A. ask Q's related to her gynecologic history B. maintain her ABCs and transport w/o delay C. determine the underlying cause of her problem D. keep her assessment and treatment to. aminimum

B

When documenting a case of suspected elder abuse, it is MOST important for the EMT to: A. document his/her perceptions of the event B. avoid documenting any unsupported opinions C. theorize as to why the patient was abused D. list the names of all the suspected abusers

B

When documenting a patient's description of his or her chest pain or discomfort, the EMT should: Select one: A. document his or her own perception. B. use the patient's own words. C. underline the patient's quotes. D. use medical terminology.

B

When interacting w/ an intellectually disabled patient, the best approach is to: A. speak primarily w/ the patient's family to establish the degree of disability B. ask your team members to wait until you can establish a rapport w/ the patient C. position yourself slightly above the patient's level to reduce his or her anxiety D. approach the patient as a team to reassure him or her that you are there to help

B

When is forcible restraint permitted? A. Anytime that the EMT feels threatened B. When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others C. Only if law enforcement personnel have witnessed threatening behavior D. Only if consent to restrain is given by a family member

B

When moving a critically injured patient from his/her vehicle, you should: A. remove him/her using a short backboard B. protect the cervical spine during the entire process C. move him/her in one fast, continuous step D. release c-spine control to facilitate rapid removal

B

When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that it is grossly irregular. You should: Select one: A. count the number of pulsations in 30 seconds and multiply by two. B. count the pulse rate for a full minute to obtain an accurate reading. C. count the number of pulsations in 15 seconds and multiply by four. D. count the pulse rate for at least 30 seconds to ensure accuracy.

B

When performing a rapid exam on a supine patient, what part of the body is typically assessed last? Select one: A. Anterior chest B. Posterior C. Abdomen D. Extremities

B

When performing the secondary assessment on a trauma patient, you note the presence of Battle sign. This is defined as: Select one: A. unequal pupils. B. bruising behind the ear. C. swelling to the orbital area. D. fluid drainage from the nose.

B

When the myocardium requires more oxygen: Select one: A. the AV node conducts fewer impulses. B. the arteries supplying the heart dilate. C. the heart contracts with less force. D. the heart rate decreases significantly.

B

When treating an 80-year-old patient who is in shock, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. the older patient's central nervous system usually reacts more briskly to compensate for shock. B. changes in gastric motility may delay gastric emptying, which increases the risk for vomiting. C. compensation from the respiratory system usually manifests with increased tidal volume. D. medications older patients take for hypertension often cause an unusually fast heart rate.

B

When ventilating a pediatric patient w/ a BVM, the EMT should: A. ventilate the child w/ sharp, quick breaths at the appropriate rate B. block the pop-off valve if needed to achieve adequate chest rise C. use a neonatal device for children younger than 12 months D. squeeze the bag 40x/min when ventilating an infant

B

When worn properly, a seatbelt should be: A. above the anterior posterior iliac spines of the pelvis and below the hip joints B. below the anterior superior iliac spines of the pelvis and against the hip joints C. across the abdominal wall at the level of the umbilicus and against the hip joints D. across the abdominal wall at the level of the diaphragm and below the hip joints

B

When you and your partner arrive at the residence of a man in cardiac arrest, you immediately recognize the patient as the drunk driver who killed your brother several years earlier. A backup ambulance is en route to the scene. You should: A. wait for the backup ambulance while your partner performs CPR. B. begin two-rescuer CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible. C. advise your partner that you cannot provide care to this patient. D. obtain permission from medical control to not attempt resuscitation.

B

When you are obtaining medical history from the family of a suspected stroke patient, it is MOST important to determine: Select one: A. if there is a family history of a stroke. B. when the patient last appeared normal. C. the patient's overall medication compliance. D. if the patient has been hospitalized before.

B

When you inspect a patient's pupils with a penlight, the pupils should normally react to the light by: Select one: A. enlarging. B. constricting. C. fluttering. D. dilating.

B

Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) MOST affects EMS personnel? A. Preventing insurance fraud B. Protecting patient privacy C. Ensuring access to insurance D. Controlling insurance costs

B

Which is the MOST appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to a wheeled stretcher? Select one: A. Direct carry B. Draw sheet method C. Extremity carry D. Log roll

B

Which of the following MOST accurately defines negligence? A. Providing care that is consistent with care provided by other EMTs B. Deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury C. Transferring patient care to a provider with a lower level of training D. Transport of a mentally incompetent patient against his or her will

B

Which of the following MOST accurately describes hyperthermia? A. heat evaporates a significant amount of body water B. the body is exposed to more heat than it can lose C. the body eliminates more heat than it can generate D. the core body temp exceeds 99.5 deg F

B

Which of the following assessments would be the MOST useful in determining the possible cause of a patient's altered mental status? Select one: A. Capillary refill time B. Blood glucose level C. Blood pressure D. Respiratory rate

B

Which of the following body systems or components is the LEAST critical for supplying and maintaining adequate blood flow to the body? A. an effectively pumping heart B. the filtering of blood cells in the spleen C. an intact system of blood vessels D. adequate blood in the vasculature

B

Which of the following chemicals requires identification w/ a placard, regardless of how many pounds the shipment weighs? A. nonflammable gases B. water-reactive solids C. flammable liquids D. air-reactive solids

B

Which of the following children would benefit the LEAST from a NRB mask? A. a semiconscious 7 y/o female w/ normal ventilation B. an unresponsive 5 y/o male w/ shallow respirations C. a conscious 4 y/o male w/ adequate tidal volume D. a responsive 6 y/o male who responds appropriately

B

Which of the following clinical presentations is most consistent w/ PID? A. pain around the umbilicus, low-grade fever, and generalized weakness B. lower abdominal pain, fever, general malaise, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge C. upper abdominal cramping, severe headache, and heavy vaginal bleeding D. LLQ pain, referred pain to the left shoulder, and fever

B

Which of the following clinical signs would necessitate the administration of naloxone (Narcan)? Select one: A. Tachycardia B. Slow respirations C. Extreme agitation D. Hypertension

B

Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence? A. Abandonment, breach of duty, damages, and causation B. Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation C. Duty to act, abandonment, breach of duty, and causation D. Breach of duty, injury/damages, abandonment, and causation

B

Which of the following conditions is the diabetic patient at an increased risk of developing? Select one: A. Hepatitis B B. Blindness C. Depression D. Alcoholism

B

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely lead to PID if left untreated? A. genital herpes B. chlamydia C. ectopic pregnancy D. ovarian cysts

B

Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)? A. a team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients B. a team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transport to the sick and injured C. a vast network of ALS providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting D. a system composed exclusively of EMRs and EMTs who are responsible for providing care to the sick and injured patients

B

Which of the following destinations is most appropriate for a 41 y/o male patient who was involved in a rollover MVC and is unconscious and unresponsive, assuming that travel times to each are equal? A. level IV or III trauma center B. level I or II trauma center C. any designated trauma center is acceptable D. only a level I trauma center

B

Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of the presence of high-energy trauma? A. intrusion into the vehicle B. deployment of the air bag C. dismounted seats D. steering wheel deformity

B

Which of the following head injuries would cause the patient's condition to deteriorate MOST rapidly? A. subdural hematoma B. epidural hematoma C. cerebral contusion D. cerebral concussion

B

Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing? Select one: A. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin B. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin C. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor D. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis

B

Which of the following is NOT a function of the Federal Communications Commission (FCC)? A. Licensing base stations and assigning appropriate radio call signs B. Maintaining communications equipment on the ambulance C. Allocating specific radio frequencies for use by EMS providers D. Monitoring all radio traffic and conducting field spot checks

B

Which of the following is a good guideline for physical examination of any patient? Select one: A. Examine extremities first. B. Avoid touching without permission. C. Complete the physical exam first, then check the ABCs. D. Always work toe-to-head.

B

Which of the following is an appropriate dose of activated charcoal for a 20 kg child? A. 25 g B. 20 g C. 12.5 g D. 50 g

B

Which of the following is an early sign of pit viper envenomation? A. general weakness and diaphoresis B. local swelling and ecchymosis C. syncope and bleeding at distal sites D. signs and symptoms of hypoperfusion

B

Which of the following is an example of a generic drug? Select one: A. Excedrin B. Aspirin C. Bayer D. Advil

B

Which of the following is fo LEAST importance when initially assessing the severity of a burn? A. past medical history B. known drug allergies C. area(s) burned D. age of the patient

B

Which of the following is the MOST accurate guide to palpating a pulse? Select one: A. Apply firm pressure to the artery with your ring and little fingers. B. Place the tips of your index and long fingers over the pulse point. C. Use your thumb to increase the surface area that you are palpating. D. Avoid compressing the artery against a bone or solid structure.

B

Which of the following is true regarding injury to the kidneys? A. kidney injuries are rarely caused by blunt trauma B. injuries to the kidneys usually indicates injuries to other organs C. the kidneys are not well protected D. only minimal force is needed to damage the kidneys

B

Which of the following medication routes would be the MOST appropriate to use in an unresponsive patient when intravenous access cannot be obtained? Select one: A. Subcutaneous B. Intraosseous C. Transcutaneous D. Intramuscular

B

Which of the following medications would the EMT be LEAST likely to administer to a patient with a medical complaint? Select one: A. Aspirin B. Ibuprofen C. Albuterol D. Oral glucose

B

Which of the following negative effects of anaphylaxis will be the MOST rapidly fatal if not treated immediately? Select one: A. Severe hypotension B. Upper airway swelling C. Diffuse urticaria D. Systemic vasodilation

B

Which of the following occurs during true labor? A. uterine contractions decrease in intensity B. uterine contractions become more regular C. the uterus becomes very soft and movable D. uterine contractions last about 10 seconds

B

Which of the following organs can tolerate inadequate perfusion for 2-3 hours? A. kidneys B. skeletal muscle C. brain D. heart

B

Which of the following questions is used to determine a patient's chief complaint? Select one: A. "Do you have a history of diabetes?" B. "What seems to be the matter?" C. "When did the chest pain begin?" D. "Are you having trouble breathing?"

B

Which of the following questions would you ask a patient to ascertain the "M" in the SAMPLE history? Select one: A. "Have you ever had any major surgeries?" B. "How much Tylenol do you take each day?" C. "When was the last time you ate a meal?" D. "How long have you had your chest pain?"

B

Which of the following sets of vital signs depicts Cushing triad? A. BP 80/40, pulse 30, respirations 32 B. BP 190/110, pulse 55, respirations 30 C. BP 200/100, pulse 140, respirations 28 D. BP 90/50m pulse 120, respirations 10

B

Which of the following sets of vital signs would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient w/ acute cocaine overdose? A. BP 60/40, pulse 140 B. BP 200/100, pulse 150 C. BP 190/90, pulse 40 D. BP 180/100, pulse 50

B

Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure? Select one: A. Pulmonary edema B. Dependent edema C. Labored breathing D. Flat jugular veins

B

Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is seen MOST commonly in pediatric patients? Select one: A. Rapid respirations B. Seesaw breathing C. Accessory muscle use D. Pursed-lip breathing

B

Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities? A. Cardiac arrest B. Attempted suicide C. Drug overdose D. Accidental knife wound

B

Which of the following statements regarding GSWs is correct? A. low-velocity bullets will cause the greatest amount of trauma B. the speed of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced C. high-velocity bullets will cause less severe internal injuries D. the size of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced

B

Which of the following statements regarding a "dedicated line" is correct? A. It is a frequency that is used exclusively by EMTs to communicate with one another in the field. B. It is a constantly open line of communication that cannot be accessed by outside users. C. It is a designated frequency on a portable radio that provides direct access to medical control. D. It is a constantly open line of communication that is under exclusive control of a single user.

B

Which of the following statements regarding abdominal eviscerations is correct? A. the organs should be replaced carefully to avoid heat loss B. the protruding organs should be kept warm and moist C. adherent material is preferred when covering an evisceration D. most eviscerations occur to the LUQ

B

Which of the following statements regarding anthrax is correct? Select one: A. Cutaneous anthrax has a 90% mortality rate. B. Pulmonary anthrax is the most deadly form. C. Anthrax is a deadly virus that replicates. D. There is presently no vaccine against anthrax.

B

Which of the following statements regarding electrical burns is correct? A. the exit wound caused by electrical burns is smaller than the entrance wound B. entrance wounds are small relative to the amount of internal tissue damage C. the size of the entry and exit wounds is a reliable indicator of internal damage D. respiratory or cardiac arrest following an electrical burn is very uncommon

B

Signs and symptoms of a sympathomimetic drug overdose include: A. hypotension B. slurred speech C. tachycardia D. hypothermia

C.

Which of the following statements regarding gestational diabetes is correct? A. gestational diabetes results in permanent diabetes mellitus after delivery B. in some cases, women w/ gestational diabetes require insulin injections C. diet and exercise are typically ineffective in controlling gestational diabetes D. the onset of gestational diabetes typically manifests w/ hypoglycemia

B

Which of the following statements regarding hemophilia is correct? A. hemophiliacs take aspirin to enhance blood clotting B. patients w/ hemophilia may bleed spontaneously C. approx 25% of the population has hemophilia D. hemophilia is defined as a total lack of platelets

B

Which of the following statements regarding methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is correct? Select one: A. Studies have shown that fewer than 1% of health care providers are MRSA carriers. B. MRSA is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics. C. Most cases of MRSA transmission occur following an accidental needlestick. D. The communicable period for MRSA is 10 days to 2 weeks after being infected.

B

Which of the following statements regarding motor nerves is correct? A. they transmit info from the body to the brain via the spinal cord B. they carry info from the CNS to the muscles C. they are part of the CNS and control reflexes D. they perform special functions such as sight, smell, and hearing

B

Which of the following statements regarding pediatric trauma is correct? A. inexperience and poor judgement are rare causes of pediatric trauma B. children are more likely to experience diving-related injuries C. a child's head is less-frequently injured than an adult's D. children are less likely than adults to be struck by a car

B

Which of the following statements regarding rape is correct? A. the EMT should try to determine if rape occurred B. rape is a legal diagnosis, not a medical diagnosis C. rape causes more physical harm than emotional harm D. only a licensed physician can make a diagnosis of rape

B

Which of the following statements regarding secondary brain injury is correct? A. it results from direct brain trauma following an impact to the head B. hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury C. because cerebral edema develops quickly, it is considered to be a primary brain injury D. signs are often present immediately after an impact to the head

B

Which of the following statements regarding spinal injuries in pediatric patients is correct? A. most cervical spine fractures in infants and children occur b/w the first and second cervical vertebrae B. if the cervical spine is injured, it is most likely to be an injury to the ligaments b/c of rapid movement of the head c. b/c of a child's proportionately large head, they are more prone to spinal cord injuries than adults D. the majority of cervical spine injuries in children are partial transections of the spinal cord, resulting in partial paralysis

B

Which of the following statements regarding stridor is correct? Select one: A. It suggests the presence of fluid in the lungs. B. It is a high-pitched, crowing upper airway sound. C. It is a whistling sound heard in the lower airway. D. It is caused by incorrect airway positioning.

B

Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct? A. EMS training standards are regulated by the NREMT B. the NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing C. the NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs D. the NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs

B

Which of the following statements regarding the hypoxic drive is correct? Select one: A. 100% supplemental oxygen will always cause apnea in patients with a hypoxic drive. B. The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels. C. The hypoxic drive serves as the primary stimulus for breathing in healthy individuals. D. Chronic carbon dioxide elimination often results in activation of the hypoxic drive.

B

Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct? Select one: A. The exact location of a patient's injuries can be determined by the MOI. B. The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries. C. A nonsignificant MOI rules out the possibility of serious trauma. D. A significant MOI always results in patient death or permanent disability.

B

You are caring for a 70-year-old female with signs and symptoms of an acute stroke. She is conscious, has secretions in her mouth, is breathing at a normal rate with adequate depth, and has an oxygen saturation of 96%. You should: Select one: A. insert an oral airway, apply oxygen, and transport. B. suction her oropharynx and transport immediately. C. assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask. D. administer one tube of oral glucose and transport.

B

Which of the following statements regarding the physical examination of a patient with a behavioral problem is correct? Select one: A. Performing a physical examination on a patient with a behavioral problem will likely cause him or her to become violent and should be avoided in the field. B. Although the physical exam can be difficult, the patient's emotional state may be determined by noting facial expressions, pulse rate, and respirations. C. The physical examination of a patient with a behavioral problem often yields crucial information and should always be performed, even if the patient is violent. D. It is only appropriate to perform a physical examination on a patient with a behavioral problem if he or she is unconscious or is being physically restrained.

B

Which of the following statements regarding the placenta is correct? A. the placental barrier consists of two layers of cells and allows the mother's blood that contains high concentrations of oxygen to directly mix w/ the blood of the fetus B. the placenta allows oxygen, CO2, and other products to transfer b/w the mother and fetus but does not allow blood to mix b/w the mother and fetus C. the placenta allows for the transfer of oxygen and CO2 b/w the mother and fetus but prevents most medications from passing b/w the mother and fetus D. the placenta provides oxygen and nutrients to the fetus and is expelled from the vagina about 30 min before the baby is born

B

Which of the following statements regarding the scoop stretcher is NOT correct? Select one: A. You must fully secure the patient to the scoop stretcher before moving him or her. B. A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient's spinal column. C. Both sides of the patient must be accessible for a scoop stretcher to be used. D. The construction of the scoop stretcher prohibits X-rays while the patient is on it.

B

Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct? Select one: A. During the secondary assessment, the EMT's primary focus should be on taking the patient's vital signs and obtaining a SAMPLE history. B. The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint. C. A secondary assessment should always be performed, even if you must continually manage life threats that were identified in the primary assessment. D. The secondary assessment should be performed en route to the hospital, regardless of the severity of the patient's condition.

B

Which of the following statements regarding the vitreous humor is correct? A. it is a clear fluid that is produced by the lacrimal glands and cannot be replaced if it is lost B. it is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye that cannot be replaced if it is lost C. it is a clear, watery fluid surrounding the eye and can be replaced if it is lost D. it is a clear, watery fluid that is located in front of the lens and can be replaced if it is lost

B

Which of the following systems is responsible for releasing hormones that regulate body activities? A. Reproductive B. Endocrine C. Nervous D. Skeletal

B

Which of the following would the EMT MOST likely be asked to do when assisting a paramedic with endotracheal intubation? Select one: A. Placement of the endotracheal tube B. Preoxygenation with a BVM C. Suction under direct laryngoscopy D. Visualization of the vocal cords

B

You and your EMT partner arrive at the residence of a 50-year-old man who complains of weakness. Your primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should: Select one: A. administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and obtain as much of his medical history as possible. B. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit. C. perform a detailed secondary assessment, assess his vital signs, and then transport rapidly. D. load him into the ambulance, begin transport, and perform all treatment en route to the hospital.

B

You and your paramedic partner are caring for a patient who ingested codeine, acetaminophen (Tylenol), and hydrocodone (Vicodin). The patient is unresponsive, his breathing is slow and shallow, and his pulse is slow and weak. Treatment for this patient should include: A. assisted ventilation and flumazenil (Romazicon) B. assisted ventilation and naloxone (Narcan) C. high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask D. oxygen via a nasal cannula and atropine sulfate

B

You and your partner are attempting to resuscitate a middle-aged female in cardiac arrest. Because of the remote geographic location, you are unable to contact medical control. What should you do? A. Ask the husband if he wants to continue resuscitation. B. Follow locally established protocols or standing orders. C. Make continuous attempts to contact medical control. D. Perform CPR only and initiate immediate transport.

B

You are at a mass-casualty scene and in the process of organizing a group to be responsible for ongoing patient care. In order for the group to be successful: Select one: A. individuals see this as a one-time exercise and that the group may change. B. individuals have an understanding of how the group will accomplish its goals. C. all individuals have the same roles. D. individual goals are accomplished.

B

You are at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident when your partner trips and falls, injuring his leg. He is alert and responds appropriately to your questions. His respirations are 20 breaths/min and radial pulses are strong. What triage category should you assign your partner? A. expectant B. immediate C. delayed D. minimal

B

You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and alert, but is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should: A. use a pry bar to attempt to open the door B. ask the patient if he can unlock the door C. request the rescue team to extricate him D. break the window and unlock the door

B

You are attending to a 27-year-old male driver of a car. According to his passenger, the patient had been acting strangely while driving, then slumped forward against the steering wheel, apparently unconscious. The car drove off the road and struck a telephone pole. The patient remains unconscious, and physical assessment reveals only a large hematoma on his right forehead with no other physical signs. Your patient is a diabetic who had been under a lot of stress lately and may have missed meals. This is an example of a: Select one: A. medical emergency. B. combination of a medical and trauma emergency. C. combination of a psychiatric and trauma emergency. D. trauma emergency.

B

You are attending to a 27-year-old patient with a history of depression. The patient's family tells you that she has been openly talking about harming herself and suicide, and they got scared when she tried to overdose on some medications. The patient did not take the pills and is alert and oriented. Despite all of your best efforts to convince her, the patient refuses to go to hospital for treatment. Based on this information, you should: Select one: A. call for the police to attend the scene and, once they arrive, release responsibility for patient transport to them B. stay with the patient while you arrange for other transport options as a potentially life-threatening emergency exists. C. ensure that the patient is competent and completes the required documentation, and leave her in the care of her family. D. restrain the patient and transport her to the hospital as she represents a threat to her safety.

B

You are attending to a 34-year-old male patient who requires transport to the hospital for assessment of his chronic back pain. The patient weighs over 750 pounds. Your bariatric stretcher has a wider surface area to allow for: A. increased stability and leverage when lifting with more than two providers. B. increased patient comfort and dignity. C. better stability when moving the patient on uneven ground. D. increased lifting capacity and patient weight load.

B

You are attending to a 66-year-old male patient in cardiac arrest. As you gather history and begin the resuscitation, an Advanced Life Support (ALS) provider arrives on scene. You should: Select one: A. . continue the resuscitation and provide a patient care report while you work. B. ensure that CPR is ongoing by the other providers present and then provide a patient care report off to the side. C. pause the resuscitation and provide a patient care report as quickly as possible. D. stay focused on the resuscitation and allow the ALS provider to make his or her own assessment.

B

You are attending to a 68-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. An ALS provider arrives shortly after you do and the transfer of care is made. The ALS provider asks that you assist in the endotracheal intubation. As part of this process, you may be required to: Select one: A. visualize the airway and look for any potential complications in advance of the intubation. B. help position the patient for a better view of the airway during the procedure. C. perform the intubation with assistance. D. ventilate and preoxygenate the patient but not handle any of the equipment required for the intubation.

B

You are caring for a 52-year-old man who complains of chest discomfort. The patient is a retired paramedic and is very anxious because he thinks he is having a heart attack. Which of the following statements would be appropriate? A. "This is nothing to worry about. Please try to stay calm. The physician at the hospital will probably not find any signs of a heart problem." B. "It is possible that you are experiencing a heart attack. I am going to give you four baby aspirin to chew and swallow." C. "I notice that you are a retired paramedic, so I'm sure you will understand all of the things that we will be doing to you." D. "We need to take you to the ED stat. We will give you ASA and NTG en route and then reassess your vitals. Do you have any questions?"

B

You are dispatched to an apartment complex for a shooting. Law enforcement personnel are present and have the suspect in custody. You find the patient lying in a narrow space between the couch and coffee table of his small apartment. He is semiconscious and has a large gunshot wound to his chest. You should: A. treat the patient where he is so that you do not destroy any evidence. B. quickly move the coffee table so you can access and treat the patient. C. obtain permission from law enforcement before moving anything. D. drag the patient into a larger area so that you can begin treatment.

B

You are dispatched to an apartment complex where a 21-year-old female has apparently overdosed on several narcotic medications. She is semiconscious and has slow, shallow respirations. You should: Select one: A. place her in the recovery position and monitor for vomiting. B. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisted ventilation. C. insert an oropharyngeal airway and perform oral suctioning. D. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and transport at once.

B

You are ventilating a 40-year-old uninjured man who is apneic but has a pulse. When your partner reassesses his blood pressure, she notes that it has decreased significantly from previous readings. You should: Select one: A. increase the volume of your ventilations and reassess his blood pressure. B. reduce the rate or volume of the ventilations you are delivering. C. perform a head-to-toe assessment to look for signs of bleeding. D. increase the rate at which you are ventilating and reassess his blood pressure.

B

You arrive at a local grocery store approximately 5 minutes after a 21-year-old female stopped seizing. She is confused and disoriented; she keeps asking you what happened and tells you that she is thirsty. Her brother, who witnessed the seizure, tells you that she takes valproate (Depakote) for her seizures, but has not taken it in a few days. He also tells you that she has diabetes. In addition to administering oxygen, you should: Select one: A. administer one tube of oral glucose and prepare for immediate transport. B. monitor her airway and breathing status and assess her blood glucose level. C. give her small cups of water to drink and observe for further seizure activity. D. place her in the recovery position and transport her with lights and siren.

B

You arrive at the residence of a 33-year-old woman who is experiencing a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure. She has a small amount of vomitus draining from the side of her mouth. After protecting her from further injury, you should: Select one: A. restrain her extremities to prevent her from injuring herself, suction her airway to remove the vomitus, and assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device. B. maintain her airway with manual head positioning, suction her airway to remove the vomitus, insert a nasopharyngeal airway, and administer high-flow oxygen. C. wait for the seizure to stop, manually open her airway, insert an oropharyngeal airway, and assess her oxygen saturation with the pulse oximeter. D. place a bite block in between her teeth, apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, and consider inserting a nasopharyngeal airway.

B

You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle-versus-pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13-year-old male, is unconscious and has multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child's parents will be at the scene in approximately 15 minutes. What should you do? A. Treat the child at the scene and wait for the parents to arrive and give consent. B. Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital. C. Withhold treatment until the parents arrive and give you consent for treatment. D. Begin transport at once and have the parents meet you en route to the hospital.

B

You have administered one dose of epinephrine to a 40-year-old female to treat an allergic reaction that she developed after being stung by a scorpion. Your reassessment reveals that she is still having difficulty breathing, has a decreasing mental status, and has a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg. You should: Select one: A. administer a nebulized bronchodilator to improve the status of her breathing. B. request permission from medical control to give another dose of epinephrine. C. crush up an antihistamine tablet and place it in between her cheek and gum. D. monitor her en route to the hospital and call medical control if she worsens.

B

You receive a call from a residence where a man found his wife unresponsive on the couch. The patient's respiratory rate is 8 breaths/min, her breathing is shallow, her HR is 40 breaths/min, and her pulse is weak. The husband hands you an empty bottle of hydrocodone (Vicodin), which was refined the day before. You should: A. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask B. ventilate her w/ a BVM C. perform a rapid head to toe exam D. contact the poison control center

B

You receive a call to a daycare center for an unresponsive 8-month-old infant. Upon arrival, you perform an assessment and determine that the infant is not breathing. Your next action should be to: Select one: A. immediately transport the child to the hospital. B. assess for a brachial pulse for 5 to 10 seconds. C. open the airway and give two rescue breaths. D. begin chest compressions and request backup.

B

You respond to a residence for a child who is having a seizure. Upon arrival at the scene, you enter the residence and find the mother holding her child, a 2-year-old male. The child is conscious and crying. According to the mother, the child had been running a high fever and then experienced a seizure that lasted approximately 3 minutes. You should: Select one: A. cover the child with wet towels and give oxygen via nasal cannula. B. transport the child to the hospital and reassure the mother en route. C. advise the mother to take her child to the doctor the following day. D. call medical control and request permission to give the child aspirin.

B

You respond to the residence of a 62-year-old male who is unresponsive. Your primary assessment reveals that he is apneic and pulseless. You should: Select one: A. notify dispatch and request a paramedic ambulance. B. start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible. C. ask the family if the patient has a terminal disease. D. perform CPR and transport the patient immediately.

B

Your 22 y/o patient is in active labor. Upon visual inspection, you note that the infant's leg is protruding from the vagina. Appropriate management of this situation includes: A. carefully attempting to push the infant's leg off of the umbilical cord B. placing the mother supine w/ her head down and pelvis elevated C. placing the mother in a recumbent position and rapidly transporting D. gently pulling on the infant's leg in an attempt to facilitate delivery

B

Your patient opens his eyes, moans, and pulls away from you when you pinch his trapezius muscle. You should assign a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of: Select one: A. 6. B. 8. C. 7. D. 9.

B

Your presence is requested by law enforcement to assess a 33 y/o female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious and obviously upset. As you are talking to her, you note BP is 98/58, pulse 130, and respirations are 24. You should: A. visualize the vaginal area and pack the vagina w/ sterile dressings B. control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once C. arrange for a rape crisis center representative to speak w/ the patient D. allow her to change her clothes and take a shower before you transport

B

Your primary assessment of an elderly woman reveals that she is conscious and alert, but is experiencing difficulty breathing. She has a history of emphysema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. As you assess the patient's circulatory status, you should direct your partner to: Select one: A. perform a head-to-toe secondary assessment. B. administer oxygen with the appropriate device. C. retrieve the stretcher and prepare for transport. D. assess her oxygen saturation and blood pressure.

B

Your protocols state that during the first few minutes of working on a cardiac arrest patient, you should provide passive ventilation. This means that you will: Select one: A. deliver positive-pressure ventilation at rate of only 5 or 6 breaths/min. B. allow recoil of the chest between compressions to draw air into the lungs. C. time your positive-pressure ventilations to occur during chest recoil. D. ventilate with a bag-valve mask that is not attached to oxygen.

B

__________ rays easily penetrate through the human body and require lead or several inches of concrete to prevent penetration. Select one: A. Beta B. Gamma C. Neutron D. Alpha

B

In an apparent suicide attempt, a 19 y/o female ingested a full bottle of amitriptyline (Elavil). At present, she is conscious and alert and states that she swallowed the pills approx 30 minutes earlier. Her BP is 90/50 mm Hg, her pulse is 140 bpm and irregular, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min w/ adequate depth. When transporting this patient, you should be MOST alert for: A. acute respiratory depression B. seizures and cardiac arrhythmia's C. an increase in bp D. a sudden outburst of violence

B.

Which of the following is a specific example of the Mobile Integrated Healthcare (MIH) model? A. EMTs respond to a woman who complains of high fever B. the paramedic administers a patient's flu vaccination C. paramedics pick up a patient from an acute care clinic D. EMTs assess a patient whose lung disease is "acting up"

B.

Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct? A. the ADA applies only to individuals w/ diagnosed and well-documented physical disabilities B. the ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled C. the minimum number of hours required to successfully complete an EMT course is less for candidates who are disabled D. according to the ADA, EMT candidates w/ a documented disability are exempt from taking the NREMT exam

B.

"PASTE" is an alternate assessment tool for ___________. Select one: A. seizure patients B. cardiac patients C. respiratory patients D. stroke patients

C

A patient in cardiac arrest is wearing an external defibrillator vest, which is interfering with effective chest compressions. The EMT should: Select one: A. leave the battery attached to the monitor and remove the vest. B. perform ventilations only and allow the vest device to defibrillate. C. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest. D. remove the battery from the monitor and leave the vest in place.

C

36 Correct 1 points out of 1 Flag question Question text Intrapulmonary shunting occurs when: Select one: A. a decrease in respiratory rate and depth causes carbon dioxide accumulation in the alveoli and an overall decrease in blood oxygen levels. B. any impairment in circulatory function causes a reduced ability for oxygen and carbon dioxide to diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane. C. blood coming from the right side of the heart bypasses nonfunctional alveoli and returns to the left side of the heart in an unoxygenated state. D. the presence of pulmonary surfactant causes a decrease in alveolar surface tension, thus impairing the exchange of gases in the lungs.

C

A 13 y/o child is on a home ventilator. The parents called b/c the mechanical ventilator is malfunctioning and the child has increasing respiratory distress. You should: A. place a call to the home health agency treating this patient B. attempt to troubleshoot the mechanical ventilator problem C. disconnect the ventilator and apply a tracheostomy collar D. reset the ventilator by unplugging it for 30-60 sec

C

A 15 y/o female was struck by a small car while riding her bicycle. She was wearing a helmet and was thrown to the ground, striking her head. In addition to managing problems associated w/ ABCs, it is MOST important for you to: A. inspect the helmet for cracks B. leave her bicycle helmet on C. stabilize her entire spine D. obtain baseline vital signs

C

A 16 y/o female complains of vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping that began several hours ago. During your assessment interview, you should: A. obtain the majority of your info from one of her parents B. avoid asking questions that she will feel uncomfortable answering C. inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible D. recall that patients in this age group prefer not to be treated as adults

C

A 19-year-old male was stung multiple times by fire ants. He is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock. You administer high-flow oxygen and give him epinephrine via intramuscular injection. Upon reassessment, you determine that his condition has not improved. You should: Select one: A. request a paramedic unit that is stationed approximately 15 miles away. B. transport him immediately and provide supportive care while en route. C. repeat the epinephrine injection after consulting with medical control. D. consider that he may actually be experiencing an acute asthma attack.

C

A 26 y/o female who is 34 weeks pregnant is experiencing a seizure. Her husband tells you that her BP has been high and that she had been complaining of a headache for the past few days. You should: A. administer oral glucose for presumed hypoglycemia and transport B. insert an OPA and ventilate her w/ a BVM C. place her on her side, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport D. elevate her legs to improve brain perfusion and keep her warm

C

A 28 y/o male was struck in the chest w/ a baseball bat during an altercation. He is conscious and alert and complains of severe chest pain. Your assessment reveals a large area of ecchymosis over the sternum and a rapid, irregular pulse. In addition to providing supplemental oxygen, you should: A. determine if he has cardiac problems B. apply an AED and assess his BP C. prepare for immediate transport D. apply bulky dressings to the sternum

C

A 30-year-old male experienced a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure, which stopped before you arrived at the scene. The patient is conscious, is answering your questions appropriately, and refuses EMS transport. Which of the following would be the MOST compelling reason to disagree with his refusal of transport? Select one: A. He has experienced seizures since he was 20 B. His wife states that this was his "usual" seizure C. He is currently not prescribed any medications D. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15

C

A 31 y/o male was bitten on the leg by an unidentified snake. The patient is conscious and alert and in no apparent distress. Your assessment of his leg reveals two small puncture marks w/ minimal pain and swelling. In addition to administering oxygen and providing reassurance, further care for this patient should include: A. applying ice to the wound and transporting quickly B. transporting only w/ close, continuous monitoring C. supine positioning, splinting the leg, and transporting D. elevating the lower extremities and giving antivenin

C

A 31-year-old female is experiencing an acute asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in obvious respiratory distress. After assisting her with her prescribed MDI, you should: Select one: A. administer another treatment in 30 seconds if she is still in distress. B. check the drug's expiration date to ensure that it is still current. C. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication. D. contact medical control and apprise him or her of what you did.

C

A 4-year-old boy had an apparent seizure. He is conscious and calm and is sitting on his mother's lap. His father is sitting in a nearby chair. The child's mother suddenly begins crying uncontrollably, which causes the child to start crying. You should: A. attempt to calm the child's mother, but avoid separating her from her child because this will increase her anxiety. B. reassure the child's mother that seizures in children are very common and that there is nothing to worry about. C. ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother. D. give the child a favorite toy or blanket to hold onto and perform your assessment to the best of your ability.

C

A 43 y/o man is experiencing a severe nosebleed. His bp is 190/110 and hr is 90 and bounding. Preferred treatment for this patient includes: A. packing both nostrils w/ gauze pads until the bleeding stops B. placing a rolled 4 by 4 dressing b/w his lower lip and gum C. pinching the patient's nostrils and having him lean forward D. having the patient pinch his own nostrils and then lie supine

C

A 45 y/o male was working on his roof when he fell approx 12 feet, landing on his feet. He is conscious and alert and complains of an ache in his lower back. He is breathing adequately and has stable vital signs. You should: A. obtain GCS value and give him oxygen B. allow him to refuse transport if his vital signs remain stable C. immobilize his spine and perform a focused secondary exam D. perform a rapid heat-to-toe exam and immobilize his spine

C

A 47-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain of 3 hours' duration. His abdomen is distended and guarded. Your MOST important consideration for this patient should be to: Select one: A. transport him in a supine position. B. determine the exact location and cause of his pain. C. be alert for signs and symptoms of shock. D. assess his blood pressure to determine perfusion adequacy.

C

A 51-year-old female presents with a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She is conscious and alert and able to speak in complete sentences. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular. You should: Select one: A. insert a nasal airway in case her mental status decreases. B. assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask. C. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. perform a secondary assessment and then begin treatment.

C

A 54 y/o male experienced an avulsion to his penis when his foreskin got caught in the zipper of his pants. He was able to unzip his pants and remove the foreskin prior to your arrival. Your assessment reveals that he is in severe pain and that the avulsion is bleeding moderately. The MOST appropriate treatment for his patient includes: A. requesting a paramedic to administer pain medications B. covering the avulsion w/ moist, sterile dressings C. applying direct pressure w/ a dry, sterile dressing D. administering 100% oxygen via NRB mask

C

A 67 y/o male presents w/ weakness, dizziness, and Selena that began approx 2 days ago. He denies a history of trauma. His bp is 90/50 and pulse is 120 and thready. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient is experiencing: A. an aortic aneurysm B. intrathoracic hemorrhaging C. GI bleeding D. acute appendicitis

C

A 70 y/o male complains of SOB. During your assessment, you note that he has bilateral hearing aids. When you ask him questions related to his chief complaint, he does not answer you. You can hear a whistling sound coming from his hearing aids. You should: A. remove both of his hearing aids and use pencil and paper to communicate B. recognize that the batteries in his hearing aids are probably depleted C. try repositioning the hearing aid or remove it and turn down the volume D. remove his hearing aids, turn up the volume, and replace them in his ears

C

A 71-year-old female slipped on a rug and fell. She is conscious and alert and complains of severe pelvic pain. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. Which of the following is NOT indicated for this patient? Select one: A. Application of a cervical collar B. Rapid head-to-toe exam C. Gentle palpation of the pelvis D. Treating her for possible shock

C

A man finds his 59-year-old wife unconscious on the couch. He states that she takes medications for type 2 diabetes. He further tells you that his wife has been ill recently and has not eaten for the past 24 hours. Your assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive. You should: Select one: A. administer oral glucose between her cheek and gum. B. administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. open and maintain her airway and assess breathing. D. assess for the presence of a medical identification tag.

C

A normal LOC in an infant or child is characterized by: A. crying or combativeness, good muscle tone, and awareness to time B. awareness to place, pink and dry skin, and consistent eye contact C. age-appropriate behavior, good muscle tone, and good eye contact D. normal interactiveness, awareness to time, and pink skin color

C

A patient is bleeding severely from a severed femoral artery high in the groin region. Which of the following would MOST likely control the bleeding? A. position the patient w/ his injured side down B. apply a pelvic binder device to stabilize the pelvis D. apply chemical ice packs to the wound and transport

C

A patient who does not respond to your questions, but moves or cries out when his or her trapezius muscle is pinched, is said to be: Select one: A. conscious and alert. B. responsive to verbal stimuli. C. responsive to painful stimuli. D. completely unresponsive.

C

A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible for thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she: Select one: A. is older than 60 years of age. B. has had a prior heart attack. C. has bleeding within the brain. D. has a GCS score that is less than 8.

C

A patient who presents w/ profound cyanosis following a chest injury: A. is most likely experiencing severe blood loss B. should be placed in the Trendelenburg position C. requires prompt ventilation and oxygenation D. has most likely experienced a ruptured aorta

C

A simple pneumothorax: A. heals on its own w/o any treatment B. is caused by penetrating chest trauma C. is commonly caused by blunt chest trauma D. often has a non traumatic cause

C

A supervisory who has more than seven people reporting to him/her: A. should regularly report to the incident commander (IC) to inform him/her of the functions that his/her team is performing B. should assign a specific task to each person reporting him/her and regularly follow up to ensure that the tasks were carried out C. has exceeded an effective span of control and should divide tasks and delegate the supervision of some tasks to another person D. is more beneficial to the overall effort than a supervisor w/ fewer personnel b/c his/her team can accomplish more tasks

C

A temporary loss or alteration of part or all of the brain's abilities to function w/o physical damage to the brain MOST accurately describes a(n): A. intracranial hemorrhage B. cerebral contusion C. cerebral concussion D. intracerebral hematoma

C

After determining that an infant or child has strong central pulses, you should: A. conclude that the child is stable B. assess his/her respiratory effort C. not rule out compensated shock D. assume the child is hypertensive

C

After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to: Select one: A. quickly access the patient. B. notify law enforcement. C. take standard precautions. D. contact medical control.

C

After the fetus has descended into the pelvis at the end of the third trimester, many mothers experience: A. a bloated feeling B. mid-back pain C. easier breathing D. an urge to push

C

Alkalosis is a condition that occurs when: Select one: A. the level of carbon dioxide in the blood increases. B. dangerous acids accumulate in the bloodstream. C. blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing. D. slow, shallow breathing eliminates too much carbon dioxide.

C

All of the following are hollow abdominal organs, EXCEPT the: A. bladder B. stomach C. spleen D. ureters

C

All of the following are normal findings in an infant or child, EXCEPT: A. fear or anxiety B. quiet breathing C. head bobbing D. belly breathing

C

All of the following body structures are lined w/ mucous membranes, EXCEPT for the: A. anus B. nose C. lips D. mouth

C

An 8 y/o male was bitten by a stray dog. He has a large laceration to the back of his left hand, which your partner covered w/ a sterile dressing and bandage. In addition to transporting the child to the hospital, you should: A. advise the child that he will need rabies shots B. ask the child's father to try to locate the dog C. report the incident to the appropriate authorities D. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask

C

An alert patient presents with a regular pattern of inhalation and exhalation and breath sounds that are clear and equal on both sides of the chest. These findings are consistent with: Select one: A. respiratory insufficiency. B. respiratory difficulty. C. adequate air exchange. D. an obstructed airway.

C

An indicator of an expanding intracranial hematoma or rapidly progressing brain swelling is: A. an acute increase in the patient's pulse rate B. acute unilateral paralysis following the injury C. a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs D. a progressively lowering BP

C

An infant of small child's airway can be occluded if it is overextended or overflowed because: A. he/she has a long neck, which makes the trachea prone to collapse B. the back of the head is flat, which prevents a neutral position C. the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexible D. the tongue is proportionately small and can fall back into the throat

C

An infant w/ a total blood volume of 800 mL would start showing signs of shock when as little as ________ of blood is lost A. 50 mL B. 150 mL C. 100 mL D. 200 mL

C

An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional. B. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms. C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body. D. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs.

C

As the single EMT managing an apneic patient's airway, the preferred initial method of providing ventilations is the: Select one: A. one-person bag-valve mask. B. manually triggered ventilation device. C. mouth-to-mask technique with a one-way valve. D. mouth-to-mouth technique.

C

As you approach a patient lying at the side of the roadway, you observe severe bleeding from the leg. What should your first action be? Select one: A. Check for a pulse. B. Open the airway. C. Control the bleeding. D. Administer oxygen.

C

As you approach a young male who was involved in an industrial accident, you note that his eyes are closed and that he is not moving. You can see several large contusions to his arms, a laceration to his forehead w/ minimal bleeding, and a closed deformity to his right leg. You should: A. assess his pulse for rate, regularity, and quality B. perform an immediate head-to-toe assessment C. open his airway and assess his breathing status D. apply high-flow oxygen and assess his injuries

C

As you assess the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, your partner should: Select one: A. prepare the immobilization equipment. B. assess the rest of the body for bleeding. C. maintain stabilization of the head. D. look in the ears for gross bleeding.

C

At the scene of an automobile crash, a utility pole has been broken and power lines are lying across the car. The patients inside the car are conscious. You should: A. advise the patients to carefully get out of the car. B. remove the lines with a nonconductive object. C. mark off a danger zone around the downed lines. D. proceed with normal extrication procedures.

C

Atrophy is a condition that occurs when: A. carbon dioxide, lactic acid, and other wastes accumulate in the muscle B. the tendons that attach muscle to bone become stretched or injured C. muscle decreases in size and function D. increased use of skeletal muscle causes an increase in its strength

C

Basic life support (BLS) is defined as: Select one: A. invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy, manual defibrillation, and advanced airway management. B. basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS providers are en route to the scene of an emergency. C. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest. D. any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by advanced EMTs, paramedics, physicians, and emergency nurses.

C

Because the stinger of a honeybee remains in the wound following a sting: Select one: A. the stinger should quickly be removed with tweezers. B. the toxicity of the venom decreases within 10 minutes. C. it can continue to inject venom for up to 20 minutes. D. the body's immune system deactivates the bee's venom.

C

Capillary refill time is MOST reliable as an indicator of end-organ perfusion in children younger than: A. 10 years B. 8 years C. 6 years D. 4 years

C

Central chemoreceptors located in the medulla provide feedback to increase the rate and depth of breathing when they sense: Select one: A. decreased levels of oxygen in the blood and an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. B. increased levels of oxygen in the blood and a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. C. slight increases in carbon dioxide or a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. D. slight decreases in carbon dioxide and an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

C

Communicating with patients who are deaf or hard-of-hearing can be facilitated by doing all of the following, EXCEPT: A. placing yourself in a position to ensure that the patient can see your lips. B. providing pen and paper if the patient prefers to write his or her response. C. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation. D. shining a light on your face when you are in a darkened environment.

C

Crackles (rales) are caused by _________. Select one: A. mucus in the larger airways B. severe bronchoconstriction C. air passing through fluid D. narrowing of the upper airways

C

Crepitus and false motion are: A. indicators of a severe sprain B. most common w/ dislocations C. positive indicators of a fracture D. only seen w/ open fractures

C

Cyanosis of the skin is caused by: Select one: A. venous vasoconstriction. B. increased blood oxygen. C. decreased blood oxygen. D. peripheral vasodilation.

C

Deformity caused by a fracture would MOST likely be masked by: A. crepitus B. guarding C. swelling D. ecchymosis

C

Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the: Select one: A. left ventricle. B. left atrium. C. right atrium. D. right ventricle.

C

Down syndrome is a genetic defect that occurs as a result of: A. an extra pair of chromosomes B. a separation of chromosome 21 C. a triplication of chromosome 21 D. a sperm that contains 24 chromosomes

C

During an altercation in a bar, two patrons got into a fist fight. The first patient, a 44 y/o female, was struck in the mouth and refuses EMS care. The second patient, a 39 y/o female, has a small laceration to her left knuckle and also refuses EMS care. Which of the following statements regarding this scenario is correct? A. you should contact the police and have the patients arrested B. the patient struck in the mouth should be immobilized C. the 39 y/o female is at high risk for an infection D. the 44 y/o female is at high risk for an infection

C

During your assessment of a 19-year-old male, you are told that he is being treated with factor VIII. This indicates that: Select one: A. he has a thrombosis. B. he has thrombophilia. C. he has hemophilia A. D. his blood clots too quickly.

C

During your assessment of a patient who was shot in the abdomen, you notice a large entrance wound w/ multiple small puncture wounds surrounding it. This wound pattern is MOST consistent with a: A. .22 caliber pistol B. .357 magnum C. shotgun D. handgun

C

During your secondary assessment of a 30 y/o male who fell 25 ft, you note crepitus when palpating the pelvis. Your partner advises you that the patient's BP is 80/50, HR is 120 and weak. After completing your assessment, you should: A. defer spinal immobilization and transport to a trauma center B. log roll the patient onto a long backboard and transport at once C. stabilize the pelvis w/ a pelvic binder and protect the spine D. perform a focused physical exam w/ emphasis on the pelvis

C

During your visual inspection of a 25 y/o woman in labor, you see the baby's head crowning at the vaginal opening. What should you do? A. tell the mother not to push and transport her immediately B. place your fingers in the vagina to assess for a nuchal cord C. apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers D. maintain firm pressure to the head until it completely delivers

C

EMTs are called for an unresponsive infant. When they arrive, they find the mother holding her child. She advises that the child became limp, blue, and stopped breathing. Assessment reveals that the infant is conscious and crying, and has good muscle tone and pink skin color. The mother states that she will take her child to the doctor. The EMTs should: A. allow the mother to take her child to the doctor, but inform her that the risk for SIDs is high B. advise the mother that the danger has passed and that she can take the child to the pediatrician C. inform the mother that, although the events seemed to have resolved, transport via EMS is advisable D. contact law enforcement personnel and advise them that they are suspicious for child abuse

C

EMTs respond to a known heroin abuser who is unresponsive. If they give naloxone (Narcan) to this patient, the EMTs should recall that: Select one: A. naloxone should not be given if the patient's breathing is slow. B. the effects of naloxone last longer than most opioid drugs. C. naloxone administration could cause seizures in this patient. D. naloxone should be administered in increments of 2 mg.

C

Effective methods for providing pain relief to a child w/ an extremity injury include: A. avoiding the placement of a splint, if possible B. heat compresses and lowering the injured extremity C. positioning, ice packs, and extremity elevation D. separating the child from his/her parents

C

Ethnocentrism is defined as: A. understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently. B. suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of his or her voice when answering a question. C. considering your own cultural values to be more important when interacting with people of a different culture. D. subconsciously forcing your cultural values onto a patient because you feel that your own values are more acceptable.

C

Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. a loss of respiratory muscle mass B. increased stiffness of the thoracic cage C. increased surface area available for air exchange D. decreased residual volume

C

Febrile seizures in a child: A. occur after a week of a febrile illness B. typically last less than 30 min C. may indicate a serious underlying illness D. are usually caused by viral meningitis

C

Febrile seizures: Select one: A. occur when a child's fever rises slowly. B. are also referred to as absence seizures. C. are usually benign but should be evaluated. D. often result in permanent brain damage.

C

Following a stab wound to the left anterior chest, a 25 y/o male presents w/ a decreased LOC and signs of shock. Which of the following additional assessment findings should increase your index of suspicion for a cardiac tamponade? A. diminished breath sounds B. a rapid, irregular pulse C. engorged jugular veins D. widening pulse pressure

C

Following blunt trauma to the face, a 21 y/o male complains of a severe headache and decreased ability to move his eyes. The patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent w/: A. a lacerated globe B. optic vessel compression C. a blowout fracture D. a ruptured eyeball

C

Following proper decontamination, a 30 y/o male is brought to you. He is semiconscious and has rapid, shallow respirations. A quick visual assessment reveals no obvious bleeding. You should: A. ask a firefighter what the patient was exposed to B. administer high-flow oxygen via NRB C. begin some form of positive-pressure ventilation D. perform a rapid assessment to locate critical injuries

C

How do poisons typically act to harm the body? A. by causing a slowing of nearly all bodily functions B. by interfering w/ normal neurologic function C. by changing the normal metabolism of cells or by destroying them D. by causing burns and damage to either external or internal organs

C

Hypovolemic shock occurs when: A. the clotting ability of the blood is enhanced B. the patient's systolic bp is <100 C. the body cannot compensate for rapid blood loss D. at least 10% of the patient's blood volume is lost

C

If a dislocated shoulder has spontaneously reduced before your arrival, the only way to confirm the injury is by noting: A. bruising to the shoulder B. the presence of deformity C. the patient history D. distal circulation

C

If a newborn's heat rate is less than 60 bpm following delivery, you should: A. begin chest compressions B. resuction the mouth only C. provide ventilations for 30 sec D. flick the soles of his/her feet

C

If a patient w/ a chest injury is only able to inhale small amounts of air per breath, he or she: A. will eliminate more carbon dioxide than if he/she were breathing deeply B. will maintain adequate minute volume if his/her respiratory rate stays the same C. must increase his/her respiratory rate to maintain adequate tidal volume D. often breathes at a slower rate b/c of lung damage caused by the injury

C

If an object is visible in the unconscious patient's airway, you should __________. Select one: A. leave it in place B. continue chest compressions C. remove it D. place the patient on his or her side

C

If the victim of a toxicologic emergency vomits, an EMT should _________ A. have the patient enclose the vomitus in a container and take it to the emergency department B. not approach the vomitus C. use appropriate PPE and examine the vomitus for pill fragments or other clues for patient care D. safely dispose of the vomitus ASAP and decontaminate the vehicle as necessary

C

If you properly assess and stabilize a patient at the scene, driving to the hospital w/ excessive speed: A. is allowable according to state law B. is often necessary if the patient is critical C. will decrease the driver's reaction time D. increases the patient's chance for survival

C

If your patient swallows blood following facial trauma, there is an increased risk of ____________ A. altered LOC B. hypotension C. vomiting D. GI trauma

C

In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor: A. is mentally competent and able to refuse. B. has a poor relationship with his or her parents. C. is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself. D. possesses a valid driver's license.

C

In most instances, you should move a patient on a wheeled ambulance stretcher by: Select one: A. slightly lifting the stretcher to prevent unnecessary patient movement. B. pushing the foot of the stretcher while your partner guides the head. C. pushing the head of the stretcher while your partner guides the foot. D. retracting the undercarriage and carrying the stretcher to the ambulance.

C

In preconventional reasoning, children: A. look for approval from their peers and society B. make decisions based on their conscience C. act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want D. blame their actions on what they have observed in older children

C

In the adult, bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than _______ beats/min, and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than _______ beats/min. Select one: A. 50, 110 B. 30, 130 C. 60, 100 D. 40, 120

C

In which of the following situations would the EMT be the LEAST likely to immobilize a patient's spine? A. pain to the c-spine, but no numbness or tingling B. unresponsive, but moving all extremities equally C. no distracting injuries or evidence of intoxication D. no spinal pain, but tingling in the extremities

C

Information included in a radio report to the receiving hospital should include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. a brief history of the patient's current problem. B. a brief summary of the care you provided. C. a preliminary diagnosis of the patient's problem. D. your perception of the severity of the problem.

C

Injuries to the male genitalia _________ A. usually result in permanent damage B. frequently lead to hypovolemic shock C. are rarely life-threatening D. are often life-threatening

C

It is essential that you ____________ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease. Select one: A. throw out B. properly store C. decontaminate D. incinerate

C

Medications encased in a gelatin shell that are taken by mouth are called: Select one: A. pills. B. caplets. C. capsules. D. tablets.

C

Most medical models base a pregnant woman's due date: A. two weeks before her last menstrual cycle B. two weeks after her last menstrual cycle C. on the first day of her last menstrual cycle D. on the last day of her last menstrual cycle

C

Most patients are instructed by their physician to take up to _______ doses of nitroglycerin before calling EMS. Select one: A. two B. five C. three D. four

C

Most treatments provided in the prehospital setting are intended to _________. Select one: A. reduce the need for transport to the hospital B. correct the patient's underlying problem C. address the patient's symptoms D. confirm the patient's diagnosis

C

Multiple people in a small town began experiencing abdominal cramps, excessive salivation and urination, and muscle twitching shortly after a small crop duster plane made several passes over the community. As you are assessing the patients, you further determine that most of them are bradycardic and have miosis. In addition to high-flow oxygen, the MOST appropriate treatment for these patients includes: Select one: A. activated charcoal and glucose. B. epinephrine and hyperbaric oxygen. C. atropine and pralidoxime chloride. D. amyl nitrate and naloxone.

C

Nerve agents, a class of chemicals called organophosphates, were first discovered while in search of a superior: Select one: A. antibiotic. B. vaccine. C. pesticide. D. detergent.

C

Normal respiratory rates should not exceed _______ breaths per minute in toddlers and _______ breaths per minute in infants. Select one: A. 18, 28 B. 20, 30 C. 40, 60 D. 30, 40

C

Normal skin color, temperature, and condition should be: Select one: A. pale, cool, and moist. B. pink, warm, and moist. C. pink, warm, and dry. D. flushed, cool, and dry.

C

Padding underneath the torso when immobilizing an injured child is generally not necessary if he or she is: A. experiencing cardiopulmonary arrest B. immobilized on a long backboard C. older than 8-10 years of age D. complaining of severe back pain

C

Pain that moves from its point of origin to another body location is said to be: Select one: A. referred. B. palliating. C. radiating. D. provoking.

C

Patients who have experienced even minor-appearing head injuries should be suspected of having a brain injury, especially if they: A. have a history of Alzheimer disease B. have minor abrasions to the head area C. are taking blood-thinning medications D. do not have deformities to the skull

C

Placenta previa is defined as: A. delivery of a portion of the placenta before the baby B. abnormal development and functioning of the placenta C. development of the placenta over the cervical opening D. premature placental separation from the uterine wall

C

Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike, fibrous structures called: A. ligaments B. fascia C. tendons D. cartilage

C

Supplemental oxygen without assisted ventilation would MOST likely be administered to patients: Select one: A. who have accessory muscle use and slow breathing. B. who are semiconscious with shallow respirations. C. with difficulty breathing and adequate tidal volume. D. with rapid respirations and a reduced tidal volume.

C

The MOST commonly fractured bone(s) in the body is/are the: A. scapula B. mid shaft femur C. clavicle D. radius and ulna

C

The MOST prominent symptom of decompression sickness is: A. dizziness and nausea B. tightness in the chest C. abdominal or joint pain D. difficulty w/ vision

C

The MOST significant complication associated w/ facial injuries is: A. mandibular immobility B. cervical spine injury C. airway compromise D. damage to the eyes

C

The Microdrip administration delivers 1 mL of fluid for every ____ drops. Select one: A. 15 B. 45 C. 60 D. 10

C

The ability of a person's cardiovascular system to compensate for blood loss is MOST related to : A. the part of the body injured B. his/her baseline bp C. how rapidly he/she bleeds D. how fast his/her heart beats

C

Which of the following assessment findings should concern the EMT the MOST when assessing a child who experienced a seizure? A. high fever B. short postictal phase C. neck stiffness D. tachycardia

C

The descending aorta divides into the two iliac arteries at the level of the: Select one: A. pubic symphysis. B. iliac crest. C. umbilicus. D. nipple line.

C

The diaphragm is innervated by the _________ nerve, which allows it to contract. Select one: A. hypoglossal B. vestibulocochlear C. phrenic D. vagus

C

The effectiveness of positive-pressure ventilations when treating a head-injured patient can ONLY be determined by: A. reassessing the patient's bp after 10 min B. a neurosurgeon or emergency dept physician C. immediate reassessment following the intervention D. noting a decrease in the HR during ventilations

C

The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the: Select one: A. coronary sinus. B. bundle of His. C. sinoatrial node. D. atrioventricular node.

C

The foreign substance responsible for causing an allergic reaction is called a(n): Select one: A. leukotriene. B. antibody. C. allergen. D. histamine.

C

The frontal and parietal bones of the skull are especially susceptible to A. basilar skull fractures B. linear skull fractures C. depressed skull fractures D. non displaced skull fractures

C

The hypoxic drive is influenced by: Select one: A. low blood carbon dioxide levels. B. high blood oxygen levels. C. low blood oxygen levels. D. high blood carbon dioxide levels.

C

The ideal procedure for moving an injured patient from the ground to the backboard is: A. the direct patient carry B. the use of a scoop stretcher C. the four-person log roll D. the clothes drag

C

The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression-decompression CPR by: Select one: A. drawing all of the air out of the lungs in between chest compressions, which causes positive intrathoracic pressure and a reduction of blood return to the right side of the heart. B. maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward stroke of each chest compression, which forces more blood from both of the ventricles. C. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling. D. maximizing the amount of air in the lungs following chest recoil, which hyperinflates the lungs and forces more blood from the ventricle during each compression.

C

The lower jawbone is called the: A. maxillae B. zygoma C. mandible D. mastoid

C

The main function of the endocrine system is to _________. Select one: A. regulate glucose and calcium B. regulate blood flow C. maintain homeostasis D. produce glandular secretions

C

The major side effect associated w/ administration of activated charcoal is: A. headache B. abdominal pain C. black stools D. ringing in the ears

C

The mesentery is: A. a layer of thick skeletal muscles that protects the abdominal organs B. the point of attachment b/w the small and large intestines C. a membranous fold that attaches the intestines to the walls of the body D. a complex network of blood vessels that supply blood to the liver

C

The normal respiratory rate for a newborn should not exceed _______ breaths/min A. 70 B. 50 C. 60 D. 80

C

The pressure exerted against the walls of the artery when the left ventricle contracts is called the: Select one: A. diastolic pressure. B. pulse pressure. C. systolic pressure. D. blood pressure.

C

The pressure of gas in a full cylinder of oxygen is approximately _______ pounds per square inch (psi). Select one: A. 3,000 B. 500 C. 2,000 D. 1,000

C

Which of the following chemicals is a nerve agent? Select one: A. Chlorine B. Phosgene C. Soman D. Lewisite

C

The process of binding or sticking to a surface is called: Select one: A. digestion. B. suspension. C. adsorption. D. absorption.

C

The purpose of a ventricular peritoneum shunt is to: A. divert excess CSF to the ventricles of the brain B. monitor pressure w/in the skull in patients w/ a head injury C. prevent excess CSF from accumulating in the brain D. remove fluid from the abdomen of patients w/ right-sided heart failure

C

The recommended treatment for absorbed or contact poisons includes ___________ A. collecting and transporting the poisonous substance to the emergency department for identification B. transporting the patient to the emergency department w/ the poisonous substance in place C. safely removing or diluting the poisonous substance D. neutralizing the poisonous substance w/ a chemical

C

The reduction in brain weight and volume increases an older person's risk for: A. delirium B. stroke C. head trauma D. dementia

C

The risk of bleeding in the skull, which increases w/ age, is MOST directly related to: A. blood vessel dilation B. a decrease in neurons C. shrinkage of the brain D. meningeal deterioration

C

The skin lesions associated with smallpox: Select one: A. are of different shapes and sizes. B. develop early during the disease. C. are identical in their development. D. initially form on the lower trunk.

C

The spinal cord is encased in and protected by the: A. intervertebral disc B. vertebral arch C. spinal canal D. vertebral body

C

The suffix "-pathy" means: A. enlargement. B. study of. C. disease. D. specialist.

C

The two MOST efficient ways for the body to eliminate excess heat are: A. respiration and bradycardia B. perspiration and tachycardia C. sweating and vasodilation D. hyperventilation and tachycardia

C

The two basic categories of diagnosis that a physician will use for behavioral crises or psychiatric emergencies are ____________. Select one: A. organic brain syndrome and altered mental status B. functional and nonfunctional C. physical and psychological D. All of these answers are correct.

C

To avoid injury when pushing a patient or other object, you should: Select one: A. kneel if you are pushing an object that is above waist level. B. push the patient from an overhead position if possible. C. avoid pushing the patient with your elbows fully extended. D. push from the area of your body between the knees and hips.

C

Ventricular tachycardia causes hypotension because: Select one: A. the volume of blood returning to the atria increases. B. the right ventricle does not adequately pump blood. C. the left ventricle does not adequately fill with blood. D. blood backs up into the lungs and causes congestion.

C

When a rehabilitation area is established at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident, it should: A. be staffed by the treatment supervisor and at least one physician B. provide rehab services to both responders and patients C. be in a location that prevents visualization of the scene itself D. be mandated that responders participate in a defusing session

C

When administering epinephrine via auto-injector, you should hold the injector in place for: Select one: A. 20 seconds. B. 5 seconds. C. 10 seconds. D. 15 seconds.

C

When assessing a patient's abdomen, you will evaluate for all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. gross bleeding and tenderness. B. open wounds or eviscerations. C. subcutaneous emphysema. D. rigidity and obvious bleeding.

C

When caring for a 65-year-old male with respiratory distress, you place him in a comfortable position but do not apply oxygen. The patient's condition continues to deteriorate and he develops cardiac arrest and dies at the hospital. This scenario is an example of: A. battery. B. abandonment. C. negligence. D. assault.

C

When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid: Select one: A. flexing your body at the knees. B. the use of a long backboard or scoop stretcher. C. using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible. D. the use of more than two EMTs.

C

When enlisting the help of an interpreter who signs, it is important for you to ask the interpreter to: A. document the answers to the questions that the patient has responded to B. voice what he/she is signing while communicating w/ the patient C. report exactly what the patient signs and do not add any commentary D. avoid any kind of lip movement while he/she is signing w/ the patient

C

When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. the majority of medical patients you encounter are also injured. B. it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABCs occurs. C. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first. D. most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms.

C

When functioning at the scene of a MVC in which a patient will require complex extrication, you should enter the vehicle and provide care to the patient: A. after rescue personnel have cut the battery cables B. only after you believe the vehicle has been stabilized C. after receiving approval from the incident commander D. only if the patient has experienced a major injury

C

When immobilizing a seated patient w/ a short backboard or vest-style immobilization device, you should apply a cervical collar: A. after moving the patient to a long backboard B. before manually stabilizing the patient's head C. after assessing distal neuromuscular functions D. after the torso has been adequately secured

C

When interviewing a patient, you can show him or her that you understand the situation by: Select one: A. using medical terminology whenever possible. B. maintaining constant eye contact with him or her. C. repeating statements back to him or her. D. interrupting him or her as needed for clarification.

C

When moving a conscious, weak patient down a flight of stairs, you should: A. collapse the undercarriage of the wheeled stretcher and carefully carry the patient down the stairs on the stretcher. B. secure the patient to a scoop stretcher and carry him or her headfirst down the stairs to the awaiting stretcher. C. place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair. D. assist the patient in walking down the stairs and place him or her on the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs.

C

When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that there is a short interval between pulsations. This indicates that the pulse is: Select one: A. slow. B. thready. C. rapid. D. irregular.

C

When palpating the carotid pulse of a responsive patient, you should: Select one: A. ensure that his or her head is in a hyperextended position. B. avoid gentle pressure so that weak pulses can be detected. C. avoid compressing both carotid arteries simultaneously. D. firmly compress the artery because the pulse is often weak.

C

When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest: Select one: A. to a depth of 1 to 2 inches. B. 80 to 100 times per minute. C. with one or two hands. D. until a radial pulse is felt.

C

Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition? Select one: A. Depression B. Alzheimer disease C. Substance abuse D. Schizophrenia

C

When preparing a pregnant patient for delivery, you should position her: A. in a sitting position w/ her hips elevated 12 in B. in a supine position w/ her legs spread C. on a firm surface w/ her hips elevated 2-4 in D. on her left side w/ the right leg elevated

C

When pulling a patient, you should extend your arms no more than ________ in front of your torso. Select one: A. 10 to 15 inches B. 20 to 30 inches C. 15 to 20 inches D. 5 to 10 inches

C

When should you visually inspect the external genitalia on your patient? A. always during the secondary assessment B. only when ordered by medical direction C. only when there is a complaint of severe pain or other injury D. anytime the patten agrees to treatment and transport

C

When testing a mechanical suctioning unit, you should turn on the device, clamp the tubing, and ensure that it generates a vacuum pressure of more than: Select one: A. 400 mm Hg. B. 200 mm Hg. C. 300 mm Hg. D. 100 mm Hg.

C

When the speed to a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy: A. doubles B. is not affected C. quadruples D. triples

C

When transporting a patient w/ a facial injury, it is MOST important to be as descriptive as possible w/ the hospital regarding the patient's injuries because: A. most patients w/ facial trauma will need surgery B. they must make arrangements for an ICU bed C. they may need to call a specialist to see the patient D. it saves time on repeat assessments at the hospital

C

When transporting a stable stroke patient with a paralyzed extremity, place the patient in a: Select one: A. sitting position with the head at a 45° to 90° angle. B. supine position with the legs elevated 6 feet to 12 feet. C. recumbent position with the paralyzed side down. D. recumbent position with the paralyzed side up.

C

When treating a patient with chest pain, you should assume that he or she is having an AMI because: Select one: A. most patients with chest pain are experiencing an AMI. B. angina usually occurs after an AMI. C. the cause of the pain cannot be diagnosed in the field. D. angina and AMI present identically.

C

When you are communicating w/ an older patient, it is important to remember that: A. deafness and blindness are a normal part of the process of aging B. most older patients are confused due to a decrease in brain cells C. age-related changes diminish the effectiveness of the eyes and ears D. the majority of older patients experience a loss of low-frequency hearing

C

When you use the palpation method to obtain a blood pressure, the measurement you obtain is the: Select one: A. cardiac output pressure. B. diastolic blood pressure. C. systolic blood pressure. D. pulse pressure.

C

Which of the following MOST accurately describes a mass-casualty incident? A. an incident that involves more than 5 critically injured or ill patients B. an incident where patients have been exposed to hazardous materials C. an incident that greatly taxes or depletes a systems available resources D. an incident in which at least half of the patients are critically injured

C

Which of the following MOST accurately describes septic shock? Select one: A. Widespread vasoconstriction and plasma loss due to a severe viral infection B. Bacterial infection of the nervous system with widespread vasodilation C. Bacterial damage to the vessel wall, leaking blood vessels, and vasodilation D. Viral infection of the blood vessels, vascular damage, and vasoconstriction

C

Which of the following abnormal breath sounds indicates obstruction of the upper airway? Select one: A. Crackles B. Rales C. Stridor D. Rhonchi

C

Which of the following activities occurs in the warm zone? A. command B. personnel staging C. decontamination D. medical monitoring

C

Which of the following assessment findings is MOST indicative of a cardiovascular problem? Select one: A. Palpable pain to the epigastrium B. Unequal breath sounds C. Jugular venous distention D. Use of the accessory muscles

C

Which of the following conditions or factors would be the LEAST likely to result in a change in behavior? Select one: A. Exposure to excess heat or cold B. Inadequate blood flow to the brain C. Antihypertensive medications D. Low blood glucose levels

C

Which of the following conditions or situations presents the MOST unique challenge to the EMT when immobilizing an elderly patient on a long backboard? A. Patient disorientation B. Naturally deformed bones C. Abnormal spinal curvature D. Joint flexibility

C

Which of the following conditions or situations would MOST likely make excited delirium worse? Select one: A. Elevated blood glucose B. Limited physical contact C. Alcohol withdrawal D. Dimly lit environment

C

Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to cause an altered level of consciousness? Select one: A. Poisoning B. Inadequate perfusion C. Acute anxiety D. Drug overdose

C

Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct? A. All patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or transport. B. Expressed consent is valid only if given in writing by a family member. C. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated. D. Patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment.

C

Which of the following helps filter the blood and has no digestive function? Select one: A. Large intestine B. Stomach C. Spleen D. Small intestine

C

Which of the following is NOT true of the lymphatic system? A. It circulates waste products of metabolism away from cells. B. It relies on muscle movement to circulate lymph. C. Its vessels closely parallel the major arteries in the body. D. It circulates oxygen, nutrients and hormones to the cells.

C

Which of the following is a genetic disorder that predisposes the patient to repeated lung infections? Select one: A. Celiac sprue B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cystic fibrosis D. Severe acute respiratory syndrome

C

Which of the following is a severe burn in a 35 y/o patient? A. superficial burn covering 50% of the BSA B. full-thickness burn to 5% of the BSA C. circumferential partial-thickness burn to the chest D. partial-thickness burn to 20% of the BSA

C

Which of the following is a severe burn in a 65 y/o patient? A. full-thickness burn to 1% of the BSA B. second-degree burn covering 10% of the BSA C. partial-thickness burn to 20% of the BSA D. superficial burn to 30% of the BSA

C

Which of the following is an example of a psychiatric emergency? Select one: A. A person who is experiencing a panic attack B. A person who is depressed and no longer caring for himself C. A person violently attacking family members D. A person going on a week-long "bender" after losing a job

C

Which of the following is bacterium resistant to most antibiotics and causes skin abscesses? Select one: A. H1N1 B. Avian flu C. MRSA D. Whooping cough

C

Which of the following is correct about the secondary assessment for a high-priority patient? Select one: A. Never contact medical direction before completing the secondary assessment. B. The secondary assessment must be performed prior to transport. C. You may not have time to complete a secondary assessment. D. Never perform a secondary assessment on a high-priority patient.

C

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury? Select one: A. Portable stretcher B. Scoop stretcher C. Long backboard D. Wheeled stretcher

C

Which of the following is the MOST common MOI in older patients? A. abuse B. burns C. falls D. suicide

C

Which of the following is the MOST effective method of assessing the quality of air movement in the lungs? Select one: A. Evaluating the patient's chest for cyanosis B. Applying a pulse oximeter and monitoring the SpO2 C. Auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope D. Looking for the presence of accessory muscle use

C

Which of the following joints allows no motion? A. sacroiliac joint B. sternoclavicular joint C. skull sutures D. shoulder joint

C

Which of the following medical history questions would be of LEAST pertinence in an acute situation? Select one: A. "Does the pain stay in your chest?" B. "Are there medications that you cannot take?" C. "Does your mother have diabetes?" D. "Has this ever happened to you before?"

C

Which of the following medication routes delivers a drug through the skin over an extended period of time, such as a nitroglycerin or nicotine patch? Select one: A. Intraosseous B. Subcutaneous C. Transcutaneous D. Sublingual

C

Which of the following medications blocks the release of histamines? Select one: A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) B. Epinephrine (Adrenalin) C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) D. Albuterol (Ventolin)

C

Which of the following medications increases a person's risk of a heat-related emergency? A. aspirin B. tylenol C. diuretics D. motrin

C

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life? A. an amputated extremity B. non displaced long bone fractures C. pelvic fracture w/ hypotension D. bilateral femur fractures

C

Which of the following nerves allow sensory and motor impulses to be sent from one nerve directly to another? A. peripheral B. autonomic C. connecting D. somatic

C

Which of the following organs or tissues can survive the longest without oxygen? Select one: A. Liver B. Kidneys C. Muscle D. Heart

C

Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely if injured? Select one: A. Appendix B. Stomach C. Liver D. Gallbladder

C

Which of the following patient responses would establish the "E" in the SAMPLE history? Select one: A. "I was in the hospital a week ago." B. "The chest pain started about 45 minutes ago." C. "I was mowing the lawn when the pain began." D. "I am not having any difficulty breathing."

C

Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for complications caused by the influenza virus? Select one: A. 50-year-old woman moderate obesity B. 12-year-old child with a fractured arm C. 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes D. 39-year-old man with mild hypertension

C

Which of the following physiologic actions does epinephrine produce when given for an allergic reaction? Select one: A. Bronchodilation and vasodilation B. Blocking of further histamine release C. Vasoconstriction and bronchodilation D. Bronchoconstriction and vasoconstriction

C

Which of the following regarding suctioning of a newborn's mouth and oropharynx is correct? A. suctioning should be performed on all newborns immediately following delivery B. if the head delivers facedown, the mouth and nose should be suctioned at once C. suctioning is indicated prior to curbing the cord if respiratory distress is present D. newborns rapidly expel fluid from their lungs and do not require suctioning

C

Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts a posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction? A. An EMT is emotionally exhausted and depressed after a school bus crash involving critical injuries and the death of several children. B. An EMT with many years of field experience becomes irritable with her coworkers and experiences headaches and insomnia. C. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed. D. A newly certified EMT becomes extremely nauseated and diaphoretic at the scene of an incident involving grotesque injuries.

C

Which of the following signs or symptoms would MOST likely cause the EMT to mistake a head injury for an abdominal injury in a child? A. lethargy B. restlessness C. vomiting D. tachycardia

C

Which of the following signs or symptoms would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with new-onset type 1 diabetes? Select one: A. Total lack of appetite B. Weight gain and edema C. Weight loss and polyuria D. Low blood glucose level

C

Which of the following statements regarding an infant's vital signs is correct? A. an infant's HR generally ranges b/w 70-110 bpm B. an infant's normal HR increases by 10 bpm each month C. an infant's normal body temp is typically higher than a preschoolers D. by 6 months of age, an infant's normal tidal volume is 2-4 mL/kg

C

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is correct? Select one: A. Sensitized people will experience less severe reactions upon subsequent exposure. B. Anaphylactic shock occurs immediately after a person is sensitized to an allergen. C. Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction. D. Anaphylactic shock is caused by immune system failure due to a toxic exposure.

C

Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct? Select one: A. A patient with slow respirations and adequate depth will experience an increase in minute volume. B. The single most reliable sign of breathing adequacy in the adult is his or her respiratory rate. C. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate. D. Patients with a grossly irregular breathing pattern usually do not require assisted ventilation.

C

Which of the following statements regarding communications at a disaster or multiple-casualty incident is correct? A. when possible, all communication should occur via two-way radio B. ten-codes or signals should be used when communicating via radio C. if possible, use face-to-face communications to minimize radio traffic D. each command group should utilize a separate radio frequency

C

Which of the following statements regarding crush syndrome is correct? A. tissue damage that occurs in crush syndrome is severe, but kidney injury is unlikely b/c toxins are quickly eliminated from the body B. with crush syndrome, massive blood vessel damage occurs following severe soft-tissue injuries, such as amputation of an extremity C. compromised arterial blood flow leads to crush syndrome and can occur when an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours D. provided that a patient w/ a crush injury is freed from entrapment w/in 6 hours, the amount of tissue damaged is generally minimal

C

Which of the following statements regarding hazardous materials is correct? A. most hazardous materials are odorless and colorless, even when a substantial leak or spill has occurred B. identifying the presence of a hazardous material is generally very easy b/c of the consistent use of placards C. some substances are not hazardous by themselves, but become toxic when mixed w/ another chemical D. a package or truck need only contain small quantities of a hazardous chemical before it must beat a placard or label

C

Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct? Select one: A. Blood that returns to the lungs from the body has low levels of carbon dioxide. B. The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries. C. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries. D. The oxygen content in the alveoli is highest during the exhalation phase.

C

Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct? Select one: A. Oxygen is most safely administered in an enclosed environment. B. Oxygen is flammable and may explode if under high pressure. C. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire. D. Oxygen cylinders must always remain in an upright position.

C

Which of the following statements regarding patients w/ intellectual disabilities is correct? A. most patients w/ intellectual disabilities have normal cognitive function, but abnormal physical features B. speaking w/ the patient's family is the least effective way to determine how much the patient understands C. patients w/ intellectual disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients D. an intellectual disability differs from mental retardation in that it is the result of a congenital abnormality

C

Which of the following statements regarding salmonella bacterium is correct? A. symptoms of salmonellosis appear w/in 12 hours B. the salmonella bacterium produces toxins that cause food poisoning C. the salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning D. refrigeration of food will prevent salmonellosis

C

Which of the following statements regarding the rule of nines is correct? A. the anterior arm in the adult is equal to 9% of the total BSA B. the posterior of a child's leg is equal to 13.5% of the BSA C. the anterior trunk of an adult is equal to 18% of the BSA D. a child's head is equal to 14% of his/her total BSA

C

Which of the following statements regarding twins is correct? A. fraternal twins have two cords coming from one placenta B. twins are typically larger than single infants C. most twins are born w/in 45 min of each other D. identical twins are typically of different gender

C

Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway? Select one: A. Oropharynx B. Larynx C. Bronchus D. Pharynx

C

Which of the following suffixes mean "pertaining to"? A. "-ology" and "-oma" B. "-al" and "-ology" C. "-al" and "-ic" D. "-ic" and "-ology"

C

Which of the following symptoms would lead the EMT to believe that a patient's headache is caused by sinus congestion? Select one: A. The headache began suddenly B. There is numbness in the extremities C. The pain is worse when bending over D. There is associated neck stiffness

C

Which of the following terms applies to a state of delusion in which the patient is out of touch with reality? Select one: A. Suicidal B. Schizophrenia C. Psychosis D. Agitated delirium

C

While evaluating a patient with chest pain, your partner tells you that the patient's blood pressure is 140/94 mm Hg. The lower number represents the pressure from the: Select one: A. atria relaxing. B. ventricles contracting. C. ventricles relaxing. D. atria contracting.

C

While providing CPAP to a patient in severe respiratory distress, you note that his heart rate has increased by 20 beats/min. He is conscious, but is no longer following verbal commands. You should: Select one: A. remove the CPAP device and apply oxygen by nonrebreathing mask. B. increase the amount of pressure that the CPAP device is delivering. C. remove the CPAP device and ventilate him with a bag-valve mask. D. decrease the amount of pressure that the CPAP device is delivering.

C

While providing care to a patient, blood got onto the ambulance stretcher. Because the stretcher was not properly cleaned afterward, a virus was transmitted to another emergency medical technician (EMT) several days later. Which route of transmission does this scenario describe? A. Direct contact B. Vector-borne transmission C. Indirect contact D. Airborne transmission

C

While rescuer one is finishing his or her fifth cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should: Select one: A. give two breaths and prepare to start compressions. B. suction the patient's mouth and give two more ventilations. C. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest. D. assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds.

C

With a good mask-to-face seal and an oxygen flow rate of 15 L/min, the nonrebreathing mask is capable of delivering up to ______% inspired oxygen. Select one: A. 80 B. 70 C. 90 D. 100

C

With age, the spine stiffens as a result of shrinkage of the intervertebral disc spaces, and the vertebrae become brittle. This increases the risk of: A. distracting injuries B. severe kyphosis C. compression fractures D. spinal cord tearing

C

With regard to the assessment of a patient's cardiovascular status, capillary refill time is MOST reliable in: Select one: A. patients who were exposed to cold temperatures. B. patients who are significantly hypotensive. C. patients who are younger than 6 years of age. D. patients who are older than 70 years of age.

C

You and your partner are caring for a critically injured patient. Your partner is controlling severe bleeding from the patient's lower extremities as you attempt ventilations with a bag-valve mask. After repositioning the mask several times, you are unable to effectively ventilate the patient. You should: Select one: A. suction the patient's airway for 30 seconds and reattempt ventilations. B. continue attempted ventilations and transport immediately. C. begin ventilations using the mouth-to-mask technique. D. hyperextend the patient's head and reattempt ventilations.

C

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a fire at a large office complex. Witnesses tell you that they heard a loud explosion shortly before the building caught fire. You should: A. carefully document the witnesses' statements and report them immediately. B. tell the witnesses that you suspect that the explosion was the work of a terrorist. C. ensure that your ambulance is parked upwind and uphill from the building. D. take standard precautions and begin searching for critically injured patients.

C

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The driver, a young male, is severely entrapped in his car. He has an open head injury and massive facial trauma. He is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a palpable carotid pulse. You should: A. ventilate the patient for 5 minutes and then stop if there is no response. B. stop any active bleeding and advise dispatch to send a paramedic crew. C. have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased. D. request the fire department to extricate the patient so you can begin CPR.

C

You are assessing a 45-year-old female who is severely depressed. She states that it seems as though her entire world is crashing down around her. She further states that she has had frequent thoughts of suicide, but is not sure if she can actually go through with it. How should you manage this situation? Select one: A. Have law enforcement place her in protective custody. B. Leave the scene and have a neighbor check in on her. C. Ask the patient if she has developed a suicidal plan. D. Encourage the patient to remain quiet during transport.

C

Airborne substances should be diluted with: A. an alkaline antidote B. activated charcoal C. oxygen D. syrup of ipecac

C.

You are assessing a 49-year-old man who complains of chest pressure that began the night before. He is conscious, but anxious, and tells you he has a history of angina and hypertension. After applying high-flow oxygen, you expose his chest to auscultate his lungs and note that he has a nitroglycerin patch on his right upper chest. His skin is cool and pale, his blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg, and his pulse is 110 beats/min and irregular. You should: Select one: A. ask him if the nitroglycerin patch he is wearing has improved his chest pressure, complete your secondary assessment, and transport promptly. B. immediately remove the nitroglycerin patch, apply the AED in case he develops cardiac arrest, and transport to the closest hospital. C. remove the nitroglycerin patch, place him in a supine position and elevate his lower extremities, and prepare for immediate transport. D. move the nitroglycerin patch to the other side of his chest in case you need to apply the AED, keep him warm, and transport without delay.

C

You are assessing a 72-year-old man with abdominal pain. The patient is sitting in a chair; he is conscious, alert, and calm. As you are talking to the patient, your partner discreetly directs your attention to a handgun, which is located on a nearby table. You should: Select one: A. document the presence of the weapon, including its specific location, and continue your assessment of the patient. B. immediately cease all patient care, carefully back out of the residence, and request law enforcement assistance. C. position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance. D. direct your partner to move the gun to a safe area and then advise the patient that his weapon has been secured.

C

You are attending to a 22-year-old female patient who has overdosed. The patient is unresponsive in an upstairs bedroom. The most appropriate way to bring the patient downstairs is: A. secured to a stair chair with the strongest provider at the head end. B. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the foot end. C. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the head end. D. secured to a stair chair with the strongest provider at the foot end.

C

You are attending to a 32-year-old male patient. The patient's wife tells you that he returned from Afghanistan last year. While he initially seemed fine, lately he has become withdrawn and distanced himself from his family and friends. He does not talk about it, but she knows that he has been having terrible nightmares that wake him up. The most appropriate question to ask regarding his experience in Afghanistan is: Select one: A. Have you ever been diagnosed with PTSD? B. Can you tell me about your experience? C. Were you shot at or under fire? D. Were you in combat?

C

You are called to the scene of a 56-year-old female patient who was the driver of a car that struck a telephone pole. The patient is sitting in her vehicle with her seat belt on and the air bag has deployed. A bystander approaches as you arrive and informs you that he is an off-duty firefighter and was first on the scene. The bystander wishes to provide you with a patient care report. You should: Select one: A. ask the bystander to wait and you will take their report after you have finished your assessment. B. ask the bystander for any formal identification and listen to the report once it is verified. C. ask your partner to perform the primary survey while you listen to the report. D. listen to the report while you perform a primary survey and render care to the patient.

C

You are caring for a 56-year-old male patient complaining of abdominal pain. Your service has recently switched to an electronic PCR system (ePCR). When completing the ePCR, it is important to be aware that: A. the ePCR is relatively unsecured and should not contain patient-specific information. B. the ePCR does not contain the same level of information as the written version and your verbal report should be expanded. C. the ePCR allows patient information to be transmitted directly to the receiving hospital's computers. D. a written patient care record will need to be completed on arrival at the hospital.

C

You are caring for a 68-year-old man with sudden onset of left-sided paralysis and slurred speech. His airway is patent, his respirations are 14 breaths/min with adequate depth, and his oxygen saturation is 98%. Treatment for this patient should include: Select one: A. oral glucose gel and transport. B. high-flow oxygen and transport. C. recovery position and transport. D. ventilatory assistance and transport.

C

You are providing care to a 61-year-old female complaining of chest pain that is cardiac in origin. Your service utilizes a multiplex communication system. You wish to transmit the patient's electrocardiogram to the hospital. In order to accomplish this, you must: A. be aware that only audio or data transmissions can be sent at any one time. B. send the electrocardiogram from the back of the ambulance. C. use the multiplex system to transmit the information . D. wait until you reach the hospital to transmit the information.

C

You are standing by at the scene of a hostage situation when the incident commander advises you that one of his personnel has been shot. The patient is lying supine in an open area and is not moving. As the SWAT team escorts you to the patient, you should: A. limit your primary assessment to airway and breathing only B. perform a rapid assessment and move him to a place of safety C. grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety D. treat only critical injuries before moving him to a safe place

C

You are transporting a 28 y/o man w/ a frostbitten foot. The patient's vital signs are stable and he denies any other injuries or symptoms. The weather is treacherous and your transport time to the hospital is approx 45 min. During transport, you should: A. administer oxygen via NRB mask B. cover his foot w/ chemical heat compresses C. protect the affected part from further injury D. rewarm his foot in 102 deg F to 104 deg F water

C

You are ventilating an apneic woman with a bag-valve mask. She has dentures, which are tight fitting. Adequate chest rise is present with each ventilation, and the patient's oxygen saturation reads 96%. When you reassess the patency of her airway, you note that her dentures are now loose, although your ventilations are still producing adequate chest rise. You should: Select one: A. remove her dentures at once and increase the rate and volume of your ventilations. B. leave her dentures in place, but carefully monitor her for an airway obstruction. C. remove her dentures, resume ventilations, and assess for adequate chest rise. D. attempt to replace her dentures so that they fit tightly and resume ventilations.

C

You receive a call to a residence for a sick patient. Upon your arrival, you find the patient, a 53 y/o diabetic male, lying down on his front porch. His wife tells you that he had been moving the lawn in the heat for the past 3 hrs. The patient is confused and has hot, moist skin. His pulse is weak and thready, and his BP is 90/50. You should: A. perform a head-to-toe assessment and look for signs of trauma B. administer one tube of oral glucose and reassess his mental status C. load him into the ambulance and begin rapid cooling interventions D. place him in a sitting position and have him drink 1 L of water

C

You respond to a local lake where a diver complains of difficulty breathing that occurred immediately after rapidly ascending from a depth of approx 30 feet. On assessment, you note that he has cyanosis around his lips and has pink froth coming from his nose and mouth. You should: A. position him supine w/ his head elevated 30 degrees, suction his mouth and nose, hyperventilate him w/ a BVM, and contact medical control for further guidance B. place him in a semi-sitting position, suction his mouth and nose, apply a CPAP device, and transport to the closest ED C. suction his mouth and nose, apply high-flow oxygen, monitor the patient's breath sounds for a pneumothorax, and contact medical control regarding transport to a recompression facility D. suction his mouth and nose, keep him supine and elevate his legs to prevent air bubbles from entering his brain, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport to a hyperbaric chamber

C

Your conscious patient has a mild partial airway obstruction. You should: Select one: A. administer back blows. B. place the patient supine. C. encourage the patient to cough. D. perform abdominal thrusts.

C

Your patient complains of abdominal pain that occurs mostly at night or after eating fatty foods. You should suspect ____________. Select one: A. a hernia B. appendicitis C. cholecystitis D. kidney stones

C

Your patient has a GCS of 13, systolic BP of 80, and respiratory rate of 8. His Revised Trauma Score (RTS) is: A. 11 B. 8 C. 9 D. 10

C

hich of the following signs/symptoms are indicative of respiratory involvement of an allergic reaction? Select one: A. Flushed, itching, or burning skin B. A sense of impending doom C. Tightness in the chest or throat D. All of these answers are correct.

C

You are encouraging a patient to go to the hospital by ambulance. You know that a transport will keep you on duty several hours after your regular quitting time. This is an example of __________ A. undue hardship B. scope of practice C. patient advocacy D. abuse of authority

C.

You are transporting an elderly woman who has possibly experienced a stroke. She is obviously scared but is unable to talk and cannot move the entire right side of her body. In addition to providing the medical care that she needs, you should: A. reassure her that after proper treatment in the hospital, she will regain her speech in time B. tell her that you understand why she is scared and that everything will likely be okay C. acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you will take good care of her D. maintain eye contact at all times and tell her that there is no need for her to be scared

C.

American Heart Association protocols are based on ________ A. opinions from a core group of cardiologists B. theories ready for field trial C. evidence-based research D. trends in the EMS community

C. evidence-based research

A "hip" fracture is actually a fracture of the: A. pubic symphysis B. pelvic girdle C. femoral shaft D. proximal femur

D

A 19-year-old female was stung multiple times on the legs by fire ants. She states that she is allergic to fire ants, but does not carry her own epinephrine. The patient is conscious and alert and complains of pain to the area of the bites. Her blood pressure is 122/70 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and strong, and her respirations are 18 breaths/min and unlabored. You should: Select one: A. advise her to see her physician as soon as possible. B. position her legs well above the level of her heart. C. request a paramedic unit to administer epinephrine. D. administer oxygen and transport her to the hospital.

D

A 21 y/o male was working in an auto repair shop and sustained radiator burns to the anterior aspect of both arms and to his anterior chest. According to the rule of nines, this patient has burns that cover _____ of his BSA A. 36% B. 45% C. 27% D. 18%

D

A 22-year-old male with a history of clinical depression called 9-1-1 and stated that he has attempted to kill himself. Your unit and law enforcement officers arrive at the scene simultaneously. You find the patient lying supine on the living room floor. He is unresponsive and cyanotic. An empty bottle of hydromorphone (Dilaudid) is found on an adjacent table. You should: Select one: A. wait for the police to examine him before providing care. B. ask the police to handcuff the patient for safety purposes. C. provide care after determining what Dilaudid is used for. D. open the patient's airway and assess his respirations.

D

A 29-year-old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is: Select one: A. 14. B. 12. C. 10. D. 13.

D

A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all the lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him high-flow oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is: Select one: A. a beta-antagonist. B. albuterol. C. an antihistamine. D. epinephrine.

D

A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli. B. a bacterial infection of the lung tissue. C. a unilaterally collapsed lung. D. fluid accumulation outside the lung.

D

A 30-year-old woman with a history of alcoholism presents with severe upper abdominal pain and is vomiting large amounts of bright red blood. Her skin is cool, pale, and clammy; her heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak; and her blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg. Your MOST immediate action should be to: Select one: A. rapidly transport her to the hospital. B. keep her supine and keep her warm. C. give her high-flow supplemental oxygen. D. protect her airway from aspiration.

D

A 33 y/o male sustained an abdominal evisceration to the LLQ of his abdomen after he was cut with a large knife. After appropriately managing his ABCs and assessing him for other life-threatening injuries, how should you care for his wound? A. irrigate it w/ sterile water and cover it w/ a dry dressing B. carefully replace the exposed bowel into the abdomen and transport C. cover the exposed bowel and keep his legs in a straight position D. cover it w/ moist, sterile gauze and secure w/ an occlusive dressing

D

A 37-year-old male is having a severe allergic reaction to penicillin. He does not have an epinephrine auto-injector and your protocols do not allow you to carry epinephrine on the ambulance. How should you proceed with the treatment of this patient? Select one: A. Quickly determine if there are any bystanders who may carry epinephrine. B. Ask the patient if he has any diphenhydramine tablets that you can administer. C. Remain at the scene with the patient and request a paramedic ambulance. D. Administer oxygen, transport at once, and request a paramedic intercept.

D

A 38 y/o male was electrocuted while attempting to wire a house. Your assessment reveals that he is unresponsive, pulseless, and apnea. A coworker has shut off the power to the house. You should: A. fully immobilize his spinal column B. begin CPR and transport at once C. assess for entry and exit wounds D. begin CPR and apply the AED

D

A 39 y/o female experienced a severe closed head injury. She is unresponsive w/ her eyes slightly open; her pupils are bilaterally dilated and slow to react. In addition to managing problems w/ ABCs, you should: A. inspect her eyes and gently remove impaled objects B. secure her eyes open so you can assess her pupils C. irrigate her eyes w/ water to prevent mucosal drying D. close her eyes and cover them w/ a moist dressing

D

A 39 y/o male sustained a large laceration to his leg during an accident w/ a chainsaw and is experiencing signs and symptoms of shock. You should first: A. place the patient on high-flow oxygen B. apply direct pressure to the wound C. perform an RTA D. follow appropriate standard precautions

D

A 39 y/o male was struck in the head by a baseball during a game. He is confused and has slurred speech. He has a large hematoma in the center of his forehead and cannot remember the events preceding the injury. After manually stabilizing his head and assessing his airway, you should: A. palpate his radial pulses B. perform a neurologic exam C. apply ice to the hematoma D. administer high-flow oxygen

D

A 4 y/o female has a peanut lodged in the external auditory canal of her right ear. You should: A. remove the peanut w/ a cotton-tipped swab B. use tweezers to try to remove the object C. thoroughly flush her ear w/ sterile saline D. transport her to the emergency department

D

A 59-year-old male presents with sudden-onset severe lower back pain. He is conscious and alert, but very restless and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals a pulsating mass to the left of his umbilicus. You should: Select one: A. vigorously palpate the abdomen to establish pain severity. B. place the patient in a sitting position and transport at once. C. request a paramedic unit to give the patient pain medication. D. administer oxygen and prepare for immediate transport.

D

A properly sized blood pressure cuff should cover: Select one: A. one third the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow. B. the entire upper arm between the armpit and the crease at the elbow. C. one half the length between the armpit and the crease at the elbow. D. two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow.

D

A 77 y/o woman slipped and fell on a throw rug and landed on her left hip. She denies striking her head or losing consciousness. Assessment of her left leg reveals that it is shortened and externally rotated. Distal pulses, sensory, and motor functions are intact. You should: A. bind both her legs together w/ triangular bandages and carefully secure her onto the ambulance stretcher B. carefully slide a long backboard underneath her, keep her in a supine position, and apply a splint to her leg C. manually stabilize her left leg, apply a traction splint, and then secure her to a long backboard or scoop D. place her onto a scoop stretcher, pad around her left hip w/ pillows, and secure her to the scoop w/ straps

D

A burn that is characterized by redness and pain is classified as a: A. partial-thickness burn B. full-thickness burn C. second-degree burn D. superficial burn

D

A critical function of the safety officer is to: A. monitor emergency responders for signs of stress and anxiety B. determine the most efficient approach to extricate a victim C. brief responders during the demobilization phase of an incident D. stop an emergency operation whenever a rescuer is in danger

D

A driver involved in a rollover motor vehicle crash will MOST likely experience serious injuries or death if he/she: A. is wearing only a lap belt B. remains w/in the vehicle C. experiences multiple impacts D. is ejected or partially ejected

D

A man was found unresponsive in his bed at home. There is no evidence of injury and the patient's medical history is not known. The patient's face is cyanotic, yet the pulse oximeter reads 98%. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this? Select one: A. Severe pulmonary edema B. Increased body temperature C. His extremities are cold D. Carbon monoxide poisoning

D

A mother who is pregnant w/ her first baby is typically in the first stage of labor for approx: A. 8 hours B. 10 hours C. 4 hours D. 16 hours

D

A nasopharyngeal airway is inserted: Select one: A. with the bevel pointing downward if inserted into the left nare. B. into the larger nostril with the tip pointing away from the septum. C. into the smaller nostril with the tip following the roof of the nose. D. with the bevel facing the septum if inserted into the right nare.

D

A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The "130" in this measurement represents: A. ventricular relaxation. B. ventricular filling. C. atrial contraction. D. ventricular contraction.

D

A patient tells you that he has a left ventricular assist device (LVAD). Which of the following conditions should you suspect that he has experienced? Select one: A. Uncontrolled hypertension B. Obstructive lung disease C. Thoracic aortic aneurysm D. Acute myocardial infarction

D

A patient's refusal of EMS treatment and/or transport must be: A. witnessed by a notary. B. authorized by a judge. C. reported to the police. D. an informed refusal.

D

A percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) restores blood flow to the ischemic myocardium by: Select one: A. placing a stent inside the coronary artery to keep it from narrowing. B. bypassing the coronary artery with a vessel from the chest or leg. C. scraping fatty deposits off of the lumen of the coronary artery. D. dilating the affected coronary artery with a small inflatable balloon.

D

A person is said to be obese when he or she is ________% over his/her ideal weight A. 40 B. 10 C. 20 D. 30

D

A person who routinely misuses a substance and requires increasing amounts to achieve the same effect is experiencing: A. dependence B. withdrawal C. addiction D. tolerance

D

A person's ability to shiver is lost when his/her body temp falls below: A. 94 deg F B. 92 deg F C. 95 deg F D. 90 deg F

D

A team of EMTs is caring for a critically injured patient. The team leader advises the EMT that transport will not begin until the patient's closed forearm fracture is splinted. Utilizing the crew resource management model, the EMT should: Select one: A. ensure that the entire team is aware that transport will be delayed for splinting. B. disregard the team leader's request and contact medical control for guidance. C. repeat the request back to the team leader and then splint the patient's arm. D. advise the team leader that immediate transport is more important than splinting.

D

A utility worker was trimming branches and was electrocuted when he accidentally cut a high-power line. He fell approx 20 feet and is lying unresponsive on the ground; the power line is lying across his chest. You should: A. manually stabilize his head as your partner assesses for breathing B. apply insulated gloves and assume manual control of his c spine C. quickly but carefully move the patient away from the power line D. rapidly assess the patient after ensuring that the power line is not live

D

According to the American College of Surgeons Committee on Trauma (ACS-COT), an adult trauma patient should be transported to the highest level of trauma center if he/she: A. has a systolic bp of <110 or a HR >110 B. has a bleeding disorder or takes anticoagulant medications and has any blunt or penetrating injury C. was involved in a a motor vehicle crash in which another patient in the same vehicle was killed D. has a GCS score of less than or equal to 13 w/ a mechanism attributed to trauma

D

According to the START triage system, what should you do if a patient is found to have a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min? A. assess his/her neurologic status B. administer high-flow oxygen C. triage the patient as delayed D. assess for bilateral radial pulses

D

According to the START triage system, which of the following patients should be triaged as an immediate priority (red tag)? A. conscious, in severe pain, w/ radial pulses present B. apneic, despite manually opening the airway C. conscious w/ a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min D. unresponsive w/ a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min

D

After eating at a local restaurant, a 20-year-old male complains of blurred vision, difficulty speaking, and difficulty breathing. He is conscious; however, his respirations are profoundly labored and producing minimal tidal volume. You should: Select one: A. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. request a paramedic to administer atropine. C. position him supine and elevate his legs. D. assist his ventilations with high-flow oxygen.

D

After the AED has delivered a shock, the EMT should: Select one: A. assess for a carotid pulse. B. re-analyze the cardiac rhythm. C. transport the patient at once. D. immediately resume CPR.

D

All of the following are vesicant agents, EXCEPT: Select one: A. phosgene oxime. B. sulfur mustard. C. lewisite. D. sarin.

D

All of the following terms refer to a body part that is cold but not frozen, EXCEPT: A. trench foot B. immersion foot C. frostnip D. frostbite

D

An EMT may administer aspirin to a patient if: Select one: A. the patient is believed to be experiencing an acute stroke. B. the patient is currently experiencing hypotension. C. transport time to the hospital is greater than 30 minutes. D. authorization from medical control has been obtained.

D

An OPA should not be used in children who have ingested a caustic or petroleum-based product because it may: A. depress the gag reflex B. result in a soft-tissue injury C. result in airway swelling D. cause the child to vomit

D

An epidural hematoma is MOST accurately defined as: A. an injury caused by a damaged cerebral artery B. bleeding b/w the dura mater and brain C. venous lacerations that occur w/in the brain D. bleeding b/w the skull and dura mater

D

An injury that separates various layers of soft tissue, resulting in complete detachment or a flap of skin, is called a(n) A. laceration B. amputation C. incision D. avulsion

D

An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body's position? A. Dorsal B. Supine C. Recumbent D. Prone

D

An older woman w/ osteoporosis presents w/ pain and deformity to her left hip after she shifted her weight onto her other foot. She has MOST likely experienced a(n): A. idiopathic fracture B. comminuted fracture C. compression fracture D. pathologic fracture

D

An unrestrained patient is sitting in his car after an automobile crash. He is conscious and alert, has no visible trauma, and is complaining of neck and back pain. Before removing him from his car, you should: Select one: A. slide a scoop stretcher under his buttocks and rotate him laterally. B. maintain manual stabilization of his head and grasp him by the clothes. C. perform a detailed head-to-toe assessment and apply a cervical collar. D. apply a cervical collar and immobilize him with a vest-style device.

D

Anaphylaxis caused by stinging insects is typically an allergic reaction to ____________ rather than the bite or sting itself. Select one: A. injected poison B. irritating toxin C. deadly venom D. All of these answers are correct.

D

As a triage supervisor, you: A. are responsible for providing initial treatment to all patients B. must prepare patients for transport before they leave the triage area C. should communicate w/ area hospitals regarding their capabilities D. must not begin treatment until all patients have been triaged

D

As you and your partner are carrying a stable patient down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden, sharp pain in your lower back. You should: A. reposition your hands and continue to move the patient. B. stop the move and have the patient walk down the stairs. C. guide your partner while moving the chair backwards. D. stop the move and request additional lifting assistance.

D

Assuming that no obvious signs of intra-abdominal injury are present, which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause an injury to the liver or spleen to be overlooked? A. femur fracture B. pelvic fracture C. lumbar spine fracture D. shoulder fracture

D

Blood that is ejected from the right ventricle: Select one: A. was received directly from the aorta. B. has a high concentration of oxygen. C. enters the systemic circulation. D. flows into the pulmonary arteries.

D

Care for a victim of an immunologic emergency who is severely hypotensive should include which of the following? Select one: A. Position the patient's airway and initiate positive-pressure ventilations. B. Routine spinal immobilization due to the potential for traumatic injury C. Initiate basic life support measures, including the use of an automated external defibrillator, if necessary. D. Apply high-flow oxygen therapy, place the patient in a shock position, and help maintain the patient's body temperature.

D

Cerebral palsy is a condition that results from damage or injury to the: A. spinal cord B. voluntary muscles C. peripheral nervous system D. brain

D

Clinical signs of labored breathing include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. supraclavicular retractions. B. gasping attempts to breathe. C. use of accessory muscles. D. shallow chest movement.

D

Common interventions used to stimulate spontaneous respirations in the newborn include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. thorough drying w/ a towel B. suctioning of the upper airway C. some form of tactile stimulation D. positive-pressure ventilations

D

Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. CSF leakage from the ears B. widening pulse pressure C. decerebrate posturing D. a rapid, thready pulse

D

Common signs and symptoms of severe hyperglycemia include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. rapid, thready pulse. B. warm, dry skin. C. acetone breath odor. D. cool, clammy skin.

D

Continual reassessment of the scene at a suspected terrorist or weapon of mass destruction incident is MOST important because: Select one: A. terrorists are often at the scene after an attack. B. weather conditions may change quickly. C. bystanders may destroy the evidence. D. a secondary explosive device may detonate.

D

Difficulty breathing and a sunken appearance of the anterior abdominal wall is MOST indicative of a ruptured: A. stomach B. spleen C. aorta D. diaphragm

D

Drowning is MOST accurately defined as: A. water in the lungs following submersion in water B. temporary survival after submersion in water C. death beyond 24 hours after submersion in water D. death from suffocation after submersion in water

D

During gynecologic emergencies, in addition to the standard SAMPLE questions, the EMT should attempt to determine which of the following? A. the amount of time since the patient's last menstrual cycle B. the possibility that the patient may be pregnant C. if the patient is sexually active D. all these answers are correct

D

During the alert and dispatch phase of EMS communications, the dispatcher's responsibilities include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. screening and assigning a priority to each call based on local protocols. B. selecting and notifying the correct EMS response units and personnel. C. coordinating responding EMS units with other public safety personnel. D. discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS unit arrives.

D

During the primary assessment of a semiconscious 70-year-old female, you should: Select one: A. immediately determine the patient's blood glucose level. B. ask family members if the patient has a history of stroke. C. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and assist ventilations. D. ensure a patent airway and support ventilation as needed.

D

During your assessment of a 29 y/o female w/ significant deformity to her left elbow, you are unable to palpate a radial pulse. Your transport time to the hospital is approx 40 min. You should: A. carefully straighten the injured arm and secure it w/ padded board splints B. make 2 or 3 attempts to restore distal circulation by manipulating the elbow C. splint the elbow in the position of deformity and transport immediately D. apply gentle manual traction in line w/ the limb and reassess for a pulse

D

During your assessment of a patient who experienced blunt trauma to the abdomen, you notice bruising around the umbilicus. This is a sign of: A. a ruptured spleen B. a severe liver laceration C. rupture of a hollow organ D. intra-abdominal bleeding

D

Each ovary produces an ovum in alternating months and releases it into the: A. uterus B. vagina C. cervix D. fallopian tube

D

Early bruising following abdominal trauma often manifests as: A. gross distention B. dark purple marks C. localized pain D. red areas of skin

D

Gloves, a mask, eye protection, and a face shield should be used: A. whenever you touch nonintact skin. B. while handling needles or other sharps. C. during routine cleaning of the ambulance. D. when performing endotracheal intubation.

D

Hyperextension injuries of the spine are MOST commonly the result of: A. diving B. compression C. falls D. hangings

D

Hypothermia can worsen internal bleeding secondary to: A. a decreased HR B. severe muscular rigidity C. cardiac arrhythmias D. blood-clotting abnormalities

D

Hypothermia occurs when the core body temp falls below: A. 88 deg F B. 98 deg F C. 90 deg F D. 95 deg F

D

If a patient's chest barely moves during inhalation, even if the patient's respiratory rate is normal, you should suspect that: A. expiratory reserve volume is decreased. B. overall tidal volume is increased. C. inspiratory reserve is increased. D. minute volume is decreased.

D

If an incident increases in scope and complexity, the incident commander should consider: A. requesting a second incident commander to assist him/her B. ceasing all operations until a revised plan is established C. maintaining responsibility for all of the command functions D. relinquishing command to someone w/ more experience

D

In addition to looking for severe bleeding, assessment of circulation in the conscious patient should involve: Select one: A. taking a blood pressure and determining if the patient is alert and oriented or confused. B. applying a pulse oximeter probe to the finger to determine if peripheral perfusion is adequate. C. palpating the carotid pulse to determine the approximate rate and checking capillary refill time. D. checking the radial pulse and noting the color, temperature, and condition of the skin.

D

In anticipation of receiving a fertilized ovum, the lining of the uterine wall: A. sheds and is expelled externally B. thins and begins to separate C. diverts blood flow to the vagina D. becomes engorged w/ blood

D

In cases of sexual assault, it is important to ensure that you do which of the following? A. immediately write down your observations of the scene before assessing the patient B. call for a female EMT or ALS care provider C. discuss w/ law enforcement any suspicions that you may have about the perpetrator D. all of these answers are correct

D

In contrast to abrupt placenta, placenta previa: A. is caused by hypertension or abdominal trauma B. is typically assoc w/ severe abdominal pain C. may present w/o significant abdominal pain D. may not present w/ heavy vaginal bleeding

D

In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include: Select one: A. a collapsible undercarriage. B. weight capacity of up to 650 lb. C. two safety rails on both sides of the stretcher. D. increased stability from a wider wheelbase.

D

In general, injected poisons are impossible to dilute or remove because they: A. are usually fatal w/in 30 min of exposure B. absorb slowly into the body, despite their potency C. react w/ the blood, which increases their toxicity D. are usually absorbed quickly into the body

D

In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by: Select one: A. a drug overdose. B. a cardiac dysrhythmia. C. severe chest trauma. D. respiratory arrest.

D

In most children, febrile seizures are characterized by: A. isolated tonic-clonic activity, a duration of greater than 15 min, and a short postictal phase B. unresponsiveness, complete body relaxation, a fever greater than 105 deg F, and a short postictal phase C. a blank stare, a duration of b/w 15-30 min, and a prolonged postictal phase D. generalized tonic-clonic activity, a duration of less than 15 min, and a short or absent postictal phase

D

In responsive patients who are older than 1 year of age, you should palpate the pulse at the ________ artery. Select one: A. brachial B. femoral C. carotid D. radial

D

In which of the following situations is a pertinent negative identified? Select one: A. A 56-year-old woman states that her chest hurts when she takes a deep breath. B. A 50-year-old woman states that nothing makes her chest pain better or worse. C. A 53-year-old man with dizziness also tells you that he has vomited three times. D. A 59-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain but denies shortness of breath.

D

In which of the following situations would it be MOST appropriate to utilize an air medical transportation service? Select one: A. 50-year-old conscious woman with severe nausea and vomiting, fever, and chills of 3 days' duration B. 43-year-old man experiencing a heart attack, and the closest appropriate hospital is 15 minutes away C. 29-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant, has light vaginal bleeding, and stable vital signs D. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and a ground transport time of 50 minutes

D

Inhalation occurs when the: Select one: A. diaphragm and intercostal muscles ascend and cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure. B. diaphragm ascends and the intercostal muscles contract, causing a decrease in intrathoracic pressure. C. diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax and cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure. D. diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and cause a decrease in intrathoracic pressure.

D

Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called: Select one: A. ataxic respirations. B. agonal respirations. C. eupneic respirations. D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

D

Ketone production is the result of: Select one: A. rapid entry of glucose across the cell membrane. B. acidosis when blood glucose levels are low. C. blood glucose levels higher than 120 mg/dL. D. fat metabolization when glucose is unavailable.

D

Level _____ hazardous materials would cause irritation on contact but only mild residual injury, even w/o treatment. A. 2 B. 3 C. 0 D. 1

D

Patients w/ generalized hypothermia are at an increased risk of local cold injury because: A. the patient is usually unable to escape the cold ambient temperature B. the major muscles of the body become rigid during hypothermia C. peripheral vasodilation brings warm blood to the skin's surface D. blood is shunted away from the extremities to the body's core

D

People at a higher risk for suicide include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. those with a recent diagnosis of a serious illness. B. children with parents addicted to alcohol. C. substance abusers. D. married males older than 30 years.

D

Placing a pregnant patient in a supine position during the third trimester of pregnancy: A. is recommended if the patient has severe abdominal discomfort B. often causes hypotension secondary to cardiac compression C. results spontaneous urinary incontinence if the bladder is full D. may decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart

D

Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient's airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should: Select one: A. when you deliver minimal tidal volume. B. in patients who are intubated. C. when the airway is completely obstructed. D. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.

D

Shock due to severe infection is called ________. Select one: A. anaphylactic shock B. neurogenic shock C. hypovolemic shock D. septic shock

D

Significant trauma to the face should increase the EMT's index of suspicion for a(n): A. displaced mandible B. basilar skull fracture C. airway obstruction D. spinal column injury

D

Significant vital sign changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than _____ of his/her total blood volume A. 5% B. 10% C. 15% D. 20%

D

Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. acute cyanosis. B. inability to speak. C. grasping the throat. D. forceful coughing.

D

Signs of excited delirium include: Select one: A. subdued behavior, crying, and suicidal thoughts. B. slurred speech, bradycardia, and a high fever. C. pallor, hypotension, and constricted pupils. D. diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hallucinations.

D

Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs when: A. the superior vena cava is compressed by the uterus B. a supine position kinks the ascending aorta C. BP decreases as a result of hypovolemia D. the pregnant uterus compresses the inferior vena cava

D

The "Golden Hour" begins when an injury occurs and ends when: Select one: A. you arrive at the emergency department. B. the patient is admitted to the ICU. C. you depart the scene for the hospital. D. the patient receives definitive care.

D

The CSF that circulates b/w each meningeal layer: A. produces leukocytes that protect the brain from infection B. regenerates brain cells after they have been damaged C. delivers oxygen directly to the CNS D. acts as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord

D

The EMT should assess for hypoglycemia in small children with a severe illness or injury because: Select one: A. a child's cells do not uptake glucose as rapidly as adults' do. B. children overproduce insulin during severe illness or injury. C. illness or injury causes the pancreas to produce less insulin. D. children cannot store excess glucose as effectively as adults.

D

The EMT should expect that a patient who was exposed to cyanide will have: Select one: A. an abnormally slow pulse rate. B. skin that is cherry red and hot. C. an abnormally slow respiratory rate. D. a normal pulse oximetry reading.

D

The MOST common and significant complication associated w/ fractures or dislocations of the knee is: A. total depletion of synovial fluid B. ligament and cartilage damage C. internal bleeding and shock D. neuromuscular compromise

D

The MOST common error associated with the use of the AED is: Select one: A. inability of the EMT to recognize ventricular fibrillation. B. inappropriately placed adhesive defibrillation electrodes. C. malfunction of the AED's internal computer processor. D. failure of the EMT to ensure the battery is charged.

D

The MOST important treatment for a patient with severe abdominal pain and signs of shock is: Select one: A. positioning the patient on his or her side. B. giving oral fluids to maintain perfusion. C. administering high-flow oxygen. D. transporting the patient without delay.

D

The MOST reliable sign of a head injury is: A. decreased sensation in the extremities B. an abnormally low bp C. a pulse that is rapid and thready D. a decreased LOC

D

The MOST serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is: A. punitive action and the loss of a job. B. low morale and frequently missed shifts. C. tension among coworkers and supervisors. D. substandard or inappropriate patient care.

D

The MOST significant hazard associated w/ splinting is: A. compression of nerves, tissues, and vasculature B. aggravation of the injury or worsened pain C. reduction in circulation distal to the injury site D. delaying transport of a critically injured patient

D

The ONLY indications for placing your gloved fingers in the vagina during delivery are: A. limb presentation and severe vaginal hemorrhage B. nuchal cord and presentation of an arm or leg C. vertex presentation and delivery of the placenta D. breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord

D

The ______ is the best-protected part of the CNS and controls the functions off the cardiac and respiratory systems A. cerebellum B. cerebral cortex C. spinal cord D. brain stem

D

The ____________ is a muscular dome that forms the inferior boundary of the thorax, separating the thorax from the abdomen. A. costovertebral angle B. costal arch C. mediastinum D. diaphragm

D

The amount of medication that is given is known as the _________. Select one: A. side effect B. indication C. contraindication D. dose

D

The anterior fontanelle fuses together b/w the ages of: A. 3 and 4 months B. 6 and 8 months C. 7 and 14 months D. 9 and 18 months

D

The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made: Select one: A. upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment. B. as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint. C. once the patient's baseline vital signs are known. D. after the primary assessment has been completed.

D

The diastolic blood pressure represents the: Select one: A. average pressure against the arterial walls during a cardiac cycle. B. increased arterial pressure that occurs during ventricular contraction. C. difference in pressure between ventricular contraction and relaxation. D. minimum amount of pressure that is always present in the arteries.

D

The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the: A. coccygeal, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical B. cervical, coccygeal, thoracic, sacral, and lumbar C. thoracic, cervical, lumbar, coccygeal, and sacral D. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal

D

The goal of the systematic head-to-toe exam that is performed during the secondary assessment is to: Select one: A. assess only the parts of the body that are injured. B. definitively rule out significant internal injuries. C. detect and treat all non-life-threatening injuries. D. locate injuries not found in the primary assessment.

D

The hormone responsible for the actions of the SNS is: A. aldosterone B. thyroxine C. insulin D. epinephrine

D

The human body should be functioning at its optimal level b/w the ages of: A. 25 and 35 years B. 21 and 30 years C. 18 and 22 years D. 19 and 25 years

D

The iliac arteries immediately subdivide into the: Select one: A. posterior tibial arteries. B. peroneal arteries. C. anterior tibial arteries. D. femoral arteries.

D

The left cerebral hemisphere controls: Select one: A. heart rate and pupil reaction. B. the right side of the face. C. breathing and blood pressure. D. the right side of the body.

D

The mastoid process is located approx: A. 1 in inferior to the external opening of the ear B. half an inch anterior to the external opening of the ear C. 1 in posterior to the angle of the mandible D. 1 in posterior to the external opening of the ear

D

The means by which a terrorist will spread a particular agent is called: Select one: A. aerosolization. B. weaponization. C. incubation. D. dissemination.

D

The medical term for an extremely low blood glucose level is: Select one: A. hyperglycemia. B. hypertension. C. hypotension. D. hypoglycemia.

D

The most basic functions of the body, such as breathing, blood pressure, and swallowing, are controlled by the: Select one: A. cerebellum. B. cerebrum. C. cerebral cortex. D. brain stem.

D

The musculoskeletal system refers to the: A. connective tissue that supports the skeleton B. involuntary muscles of the nervous system C. nervous system's control over the muscles D. bones and voluntary muscles of the body

D

The myocardium receives oxygenated blood from the __________, which originate(s) from the __________. Select one: A. aorta, inferior vena cava B. coronary sinus, vena cava C. vena cava, coronary veins D. coronary arteries, aorta

D

The normal blood glucose level is between: Select one: A. 60 and 80 mg/dL. B. 30 and 150 mg/dL. C. 160 and 200 mg/dL. D. 80 and 120 mg/dL.

D

The official transfer of patient care does not occur until the EMT: A. informs dispatch of the patient's arrival at the emergency department. B. gives a radio report to the receiving medical facility. C. notifies the admitting clerk of the patient's arrival at the hospital. D. gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse.

D

The onset of labor begins w/: A. thinning of the uterus B. increased fetal movement C. full dilation of the cervix D. contractions of the uterus

D

The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg, while the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg. Select one: A. 88, 30 B. 70, 28 C. 90, 50 D. 104, 40

D

The physical examination of a sexual assault victim should be: A. deferred until the patient can be evaluated by a physician B. performed in the presence of at least two police officers C. as detailed as possible so all injuries can be documented D. limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries

D

The presence of tachycardia following a significant abdominal injury: A. is most commonly caused by severe pain B is always accompanied by hypotension C. indicates a state of decompensated shock D. should be assumed to be a sign of shock

D

The primary route of exposure of vesicant agents is the: Select one: A. vascular system. B. respiratory tract. C. nervous system. D. skin.

D

The purpose of defibrillation is to: Select one: A. cause a rapid decrease in the heart rate of an unstable patient. B. prevent asystole from deteriorating into ventricular fibrillation. C. improve the chance of CPR being successful in resuscitation. D. stop the chaotic, disorganized contraction of the cardiac cells.

D

The rapid exam of a patient that occurs following the primary assessment should take no longer than: Select one: A. 30 seconds. B. 90 to 120 seconds. C. 120 to 180 seconds. D. 60 to 90 seconds.

D

The rescue team is in the process of extricating a male from his truck. The patient's wife, who was uninjured in the crash, is calmly observing the extrication and asks if her husband will be all right. You should: A. ask her follow-up questions about the details of the crash B. allow her to observe the extrication and keep her calm C. allow her to talk to her husband during the extrication D. ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene

D

The respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min in an infant is _________ A. too fast B. too slow C. too shallow D. normal

D

The scene size up at a MVC or other incident: A. should be performed by the most experienced EMT B. is a quick visual assessment of the scene prior to entry C. determines who his allowed to safely enter the hot zone D. is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated

D

The single most significant factor that contributes to suicide is: Select one: A. a chronic illness. B. advanced age. C. drug abuse. D. depression.

D

The sings and symptoms of poisoning in children: A. are most severe if the child ingested a poisonous substance B. are typically consistent among all age and weight groups C. usually present w/in the first 10 min of ingestion D. vary widely, depending on the child's age and weight

D

The slow onset of progressive disorientation, shortened attention span, and loss of cognitive function is known as: A. delusion B. delirium C. paranoia D. dementia

D

The type and severity of wounds sustained from incendiary and explosive devices primarily depend on the: Select one: A. size of the structure that was involved in the explosion. B. type of material used to manufacture the device. C. pressure that is generated from the explosion itself. D. patient's distance from the epicenter of the explosion.

D

The umbilical cord: A. contains two veins and one large umbilical artery B. carries blood away from the baby via the artery C. separates from the placenta shortly after birth D. carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein

D

The upper jawbones are called the: A. zygoma B. mandible C. mastoid D. maxillae

D

The vagina and the neck of the uterus comprise the: A. fundus B. cervix C. womb D. birth canal

D

The venom of a black widow spider is toxic to the: A. renal system B. cardiovascular system C. respiratory system D. nervous system

D

The waste products of aerobic metabolism include: A. glucose and lactic acid. B. ATP and glucose. C. uric acid and nitrogen. D. carbon dioxide and water.

D

Three days after delivering her baby, a 30 y/o woman complains of a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. Her LOC is decreased and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: A. intrauterine bleeding B. spontaneous pneumothorax C. acute pulmonary edema D. pulmonary embolism

D

To protect a restrained patient and prevent him from using leverage to break free, the EMT should secure __________. A. only the patient's torso B. both arms above the head C. both arms at the patient's sides D. one arm above the head

D

Unlike viral agents, bacterial agents: Select one: A. are usually not treatable. B. are far less infectious. C. do not replicate in the body. D. respond to antibiotics.

D

Upon entering the residence of a geriatric patient w/ a medical or trauma complaint, the EMT should: A. begin his/her assessment after gathering any medication bottles B. talk to the patient after performing his/her primary assessment C. immediately seek out a family member or other caregiver D. observe for conditions that may make the residence unsafe

D

Use of a NRB mask or nasal cannula in a child is appropriate ONLY if: A. his/her respirations are shallow B. an oral airway has been inserted C. he/she is breathing inadequately D. his/her tidal volume is adequate

D

Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you: A. are older than 35 years of age. B. received a hepatitis B vaccination. C. have a weak immune system. D. have been infected with hepatitis in the past.

D

What is the function of the fallopian tubes? A. To produce progesterone and estrogen B. To connect the ovaries C. To supply blood to the uterine lining D. To transport a mature egg to the uterus

D

What mechanism(s) does the body use to control bleeding? A. clotting B. coagulation C. vasoconstriction D. all of these answers are correct

D

What occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly? Select one: A. Air is forcefully drawn into the lungs due to the negative pressure created by the rapid respirations. B. The majority of tidal volume reaches the lungs and diffuses across the alveolar-capillary membrane. C. Minute volume increases because of a marked increase in both tidal volume and respiratory rate. D. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange.

D

What type of muscle contracts and relaxes to control the movement of the contents w/in its structures? A. cardiac B. striated C. skeletal D. smooth

D

When a foreign substance invades the body, the body will __________. Select one: A. protect itself B. go on alert C. attempt to inactivate the foreign substance D. All of these answers are correct.

D

When administering oxygen to a frightened child, it would be MOST appropriate to: A. have a parent restrain the child as you give oxygen B. use a nasal cannula instead of a NRB C. tightly secure the oxygen mask straps to the face D. place oxygen tubing through a hole in a paper cup

D

When administering supplemental oxygen to a hypoxemic patient with a chronic lung disease, you should: Select one: A. recall that most patients with chronic lung diseases are stimulated to breathe by increased carbon dioxide levels. B. begin with a low oxygen flow rate, even if the patient is unresponsive, because high-flow oxygen may depress his or her breathing. C. avoid positive-pressure ventilation because the majority of patients with chronic lung disease are at increased risk for lung trauma. D. adjust the flow rate accordingly until you see symptom improvement, but be prepared to assist his or her ventilations.

D

When approaching a 32-year-old male who is complaining of traumatic neck pain, you should: Select one: A. stand behind him and immediately stabilize his head. B. approach him from behind and ask him not to move. C. assess his mental status by having him move his head. D. ensure that the patient can see you approaching him.

D

When assessing a geriatric patient who has possibly experienced an acute ischemic stroke, it is MOST important to: A. administer 324 mg of aspirin ASAP B. determine if the patient has risk factors for a stroke C. ascertain if there is a history of atrial fibrillation D. determine the onset of the patient's symptoms

D

When assessing a patient with a behavioral crisis, you should: Select one: A. frisk the patient for the presence of weapons. B. ask the police to handcuff the patient for safety. C. spend as little time with the patient as possible. D. be direct and clearly state your intentions.

D

When assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of shock, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. the patient's respirations are deep during the early stages of shock. B. irreversible shock often responds well to a prompt blood transfusion. C. multiple fractures are the most common cause of hypovolemic shock. D. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock.

D

When assessing an elderly male who complains of nausea and generalized weakness, you find that he takes atorvastatin (Lipitor) and amlodipine (Norvasc). These medications suggest a history of: Select one: A. non-insulin-dependent diabetes. B. reactive airway disease. C. bacterial infection. D. cardiovascular disease.

D

When assessing an infant's ventilation status, you should: A. rule out hypoxia if cyanosis is absent B. give oxygen if the SpO2 is less than 90% C. observe the chest for rise and fall D. palpate the abdomen for rise and fall

D

When assessing for arm drift of a patient with a suspected stroke, you should: Select one: A. ask the patient to hold his or her arms up with the palms down. B. expect to see one arm slowly drift down to the patient's side. C. observe movement of the arms for approximately 2 minutes. D. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment.

D

When caring for a patient experiencing excited delirium, the EMT should remember that: Select one: A. excited delirium is worsened by nervous system depressant drugs. B. lights and siren are effective in redirecting the patient's behavior. C. most patients will have low blood pressure and hyperglycemia. D. sudden death can occur if the patient's violence is not controlled.

D

When caring for a patient who takes numerous medications, it is best to: Select one: A. let the hospital staff retrieve the patient's medical records, which should show a list of his or her current medications. B. send the patient's medications to the hospital with a family member or other person who will safeguard them. C. document the medications on your patient care report, but leave them at home so they do not get misplaced. D. take all of the patient's medications with you to the hospital and document them on your patient care report.

D

When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should: Select one: A. have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away. B. perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient. C. transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en route to the hospital. D. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible.

D

When examining a woman in labor, you see the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. You should: A. cover the umbilical cord w/ a dry dressing B. gently pull on the cord to facilitate delivery C. carefully push the cord back into the vagina D. push the infant's head away from the cord

D

When faced w/ a situation in which an older patient w/ a terminal illness is in cardiac arrest, but written documentation regarding the patient's wishes cannot be located, the EMT should: A. allow the patient to die in peace B. try to locate the documentation C. contact medical control for advice D. attempt to resuscitate the patient

D

When immobilizing a trauma patient's spine, the EMT manually stabilizing the head should not let go until: A. the head has been stabilized w/ lateral immobilization B. an appropriately sized cervical collar has been applied C. the patient has been secured to an ambulance stretcher D. the patient has been completely secured to the backboard

D

When you assess capillary refill time in an infant, normal color to the tested area should return within: Select one: A. 1 second. B. 3 seconds. C. 4 seconds. D. 2 seconds.

D

Whenever possible, a female sexual assault victim should be: A. asked to provide a brief description of the perpetrator B. encouraged to take a shower and change her clothes C. thoroughly assessed, even if no signs of injury exist D. given the option being treated by a female EMT

D

Which of the following MOST accurately describes a simple partial seizure? Select one: A. A generalized seizure without incontinence B. A seizure that causes the patient to stare blankly C. A seizure that is not preceded by an aura D. A seizure that begins in one extremity

D

Which of the following MOST accurately describes paradoxical movement of the chest wall? Select one: A. One side of the chest wall moves opposite the direction of the other B. A marked decrease in chest wall movement due to abdominal breathing C. Multiple rib fractures that cause a marked deformity of the chest wall D. Only one section of the chest rises on inspiration, while another area falls

D

Which of the following MOST accurately describes what the patient will experience during the postictal state that follows a seizure? Select one: A. A gradually decreasing level of consciousness B. A rapidly improving level of consciousness C. Hyperventilation and hypersalivation D. Confusion and fatigue

D

Which of the following actions would NOT be performed during the scene size-up? Select one: A. Notifying the dispatcher to send fire personnel B. Noting the position of a crashed motor vehicle C. Asking a neighbor to secure the patient's dog D. Rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status

D

Which of the following are normal physiologic changes that occur in the mother's respiratory system during pregnancy? A. increased respiratory depth and decreased respiratory rate B. increased respiratory reserve and decreased oxygen demand C. decreased respiratory rate and increased minute volume D. increased respiratory rate and decreased respiratory volume

D

Which of the following breathing patterns is MOST indicative of increased intracranial pressure? A. slow, shallow, occasional gasps that progress to prolonged periods of apnea B. increased rate w/ a normal inspiratory time and a prolonged expiratory time C. increased rate and depth w/ the distinct odor of acetone on the patient's breath D. irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing w/ intermittent periods of apnea

D

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely affect the entire brain? Select one: A. Reduced blood supply to the left hemisphere B. Blocked cerebral artery in the frontal lobe C. Ruptured cerebral artery in the occipital lobe D. Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest

D

Which of the following describes the Moro reflex? A. when something touches a neonate's cheek, he/she instinctively turns his/her head toward the touch B. an infant's HR decreases secondary to hypoxia because he/she depends heavily on the HR to perfuse the body C. when the sole of the foot is stoked w/ a blunt object, the big toe lifts upward and the other toes fan outward D. the neonate opens his/her arms wide, spreads his/her fingers, and seems to grasp at something after being startled

D

Which of the following factors will cause a decreased minute volume in an adult? Select one: A. Slight decrease in respiratory rate B. Respirations of 20 breaths/min C. Increased tidal volume D. Shallow breathing

D

Which of the following factors would MOST likely cause a patient's pulse rate to be slower than normal? Select one: A. Lack of a regular exercise routine B. Internal bleeding from trauma C. Anxiety or severe stress D. Beta-blocker medications

D

Which of the following findings would be MOST significant when assessing a patient with possible internal bleeding? A. the patient has not eaten in 24 hours B. the patient had a stroke 5 years prior C. the patient has a history of hypertension D. the patient takes rivaroxaban (Xeralto)

D

Which of the following groups of people is associated w/ the lowest risk of meningitis? A. children w/ HIV/AIDS B. children w/ shunts C. newborns D. females

D

Which of the following is LEAST important when obtaining a medical history from a patient complaining of chest discomfort? Select one: A. History of previous heart attack B. History of cigarette smoking C. Presence of personal risk factors D. Family history of hypertension

D

Which of the following is MORE common in children than in adults following a head injury? A. loss of consciousness B. spinal cord injury C. seizures and hypoxia D. nausea and vomiting

D

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epinephrine? Select one: A. Dilates passages in the lungs B. Secreted naturally by the adrenal glands C. Constricts the blood vessels D. Decreases heart rate and blood pressure

D

Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia? Select one: A. Tachycardia B. Anxiety C. Restlessness D. Cyanosis

D

Which of the following is a severe burn in a 2 y/o A. superficial burn that covers 25% of the BSA B. any burn that involves the arms, legs, or posterior part of the body C. partial-thickness burn that covers 10% of the BSA D. any full-thickness burn, regardless of its location on the body

D

Which of the following is an effective stress management strategy? A. Requesting overtime to occupy your mind B. Frequently reflecting on troublesome calls C. Modestly increasing caffeine consumption D. Developing a social network outside of EMS

D

Which of the following is an example of a rules-based medication error? Select one: A. The EMT accidentally gives a higher drug dose than what is indicated. B. The EMT administers the correct drug, but gives it by the wrong route. C. The EMT administers a drug that is contraindicated for the patient. D. The EMT administers a drug that is not approved by the medical director.

D

Which of the following is required for an EMT to administer a drug to a patient? Select one: A. A patient with stable vital signs B. A patient with an altered level of consciousness C. An alert adult patient D. Medical direction approval

D

Which of the following open soft-tissue injuries is limited to the superficial layer of the skin and results in the least amount of blood loss? A. laceration B. incision C. avulsion D. abrasion

D

Which of the following processes occurs during the inflammation phase of the healing process? A. WBCs are forced away from the injury site, thus allowing an increase in the flow of RBCs, resulting in increased blood flow B. the blood vessels in and around the injury site constrict, which forces bacteria and other microorganisms away, thus preventing significant infection C. the veins and arteries at the injury site constrict and platelets aggregate, which stops bleeding and causes a temporary increase the size of the wound D. the immune system releases histamines, which cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, resulting in local redness and swelling

D

Which of the following questions would be LEAST pertinent during the initial questioning of a patient who ingested a substance? A. what type of substance was taken? B. how long ago was the substance taken? C. how much of the substance was taken? D. why was the substance ingested?

D

Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts abandonment? A. An AEMT transfers patient care to a paramedic. B. An EMT gives a verbal report to an emergency room nurse. C. A physician assumes patient care from an EMT. D. A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT.

D

Which of the following situations or conditions warrants immediate transport? Select one: A. Responsiveness and ability to follow commands B. Decreased ability to move an extremity C. Mild pain in the lower abdomen D. Severe chest pain and cool, pale skin

D

Which of the following statements about the patient care report is correct? A. EMTs are not liable for any actions that are accurately documented. B. Incomplete reports are common and accepted in EMS. C. Patient care cannot be discredited based on poor documentation. D. It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report.

D

Which of the following statements is NOT appropriate to document in the narrative section of a PCR? A. "Significant damage was noted to the front end of the vehicle." B. "The patient admits to smoking marijuana earlier in the day." C. "After oxygen was administered, the patient's breathing improved." D. "General impression revealed that the patient was intoxicated."

D

Which of the following statements regarding an emergency patient move is correct? Select one: A. The patient is dragged against the body's long axis during an emergency move. B. The spine must be fully immobilized prior to performing an emergency move. C. It is not possible to perform an emergency move without injuring the patient. D. An emergency move is performed before the primary assessment and treatment.

D

Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is correct? Select one: A. Because of their abnormal shape, red blood cells in patients with sickle cell disease are less apt to lodge in a blood vessel. B. Sickle cell disease is an inherited blood disorder that causes the blood to clot too quickly. C. The red blood cells of patients with sickle cell disease are round and contain hemoglobin. D. In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen.

D

Which of the following statements regarding the AED and defibrillation is correct? Select one: A. The AED will shock any rhythm not accompanied by a pulse. B. Defibrillation is the first link in the AHA chain of survival. C. CPR should be performed for 5 minutes before using the AED. D. The AED will not analyze the rhythm of a moving patient.

D

Which of the following statements regarding the persistency and volatility of a chemical agent is correct? Select one: A. Sarin, a powerful nerve agent, is nonvolatile and can remain on a surface for long periods. B. Sulfur mustard, a vesicant agent, is generally considered to have a low level of persistence. C. Lewisite, a vesicant agent, is nonvolatile and evaporates quickly in an optimum temperature. D. VX, a highly persistent nerve agent, can remain in the environment for weeks to months.

D

Which of the following statements regarding the rapid extrication technique is correct? A. involves the use of heavy equipment to disentangle a patient from his/her vehicle B. only indicated if the patient is not entrapped and is in cardiac arrest C. involves rapidly removing a patient from his/her vehicle after immobilizing him/her w/ a short backboard D. indicated if the scene is unsafe and the patient is not entrapped in his/her vehicle

D

Which of the following statements regarding the unified command system is correct? A. there are separate ICs for fire, police, EMS, and any other agencies that respond to the incident B. one person is in charge, even if multiple agencies respond to a disaster or mass-casualty incident C. ideally used for short-duration, limited incidents that require the services of a single agency from one jurisdiction D. plans are drawn up in advance by all cooperating agencies that assume a shared responsibility for decision making

D

Which of the following statements regarding the use of NPAs in children is correct? A. blanching of the nares after insertion indicates correct placement B. it is the recommended adjunct for children w/ head trauma C. they are usually not well tolerated in children w/ a gag reflex D. they are rarely used in infants younger than 1 year

D

Which of the following statements regarding trench rescue is correct? A. most deaths involving cave-ins are caused by head injury B. a trench deeper than 10 ft should be shored prior to entry C. rescue vehicles should park at least 250 ft from the scene D. ground vibration is a primary cause of secondary collapse

D

Which of the following structures is contained within the mediastinum? Select one: A. Larynx B. Bronchioles C. Lungs D. Esophagus

D

Which of the following types of questions allow for the most detailed response? A. Multiple questions asked at once B. Closed-ended questions C. Yes or no questions D. Open-ended questions

D

Which of the following would MOST likely provide clues regarding the source of a patient's allergic reaction? Select one: A. The patient's general physical appearance B. The patient's family history C. The time of year in which the exposure occurred D. The environment in which the patient is found

D

Which of the following would cause an increase in the amount of exhaled carbon dioxide? Select one: A. Excessive ventilation B. Cardiopulmonary arrest C. Anaerobic metabolism D. Increased cardiac output

D

Which organ lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant of the abdomen? A. Liver B. Cecum C. Stomach D. Spleen

D

While caring for a patient, the EMT states to her partner, "Why even splint the patient's leg if they're only going to remove it in the ED?" This statement indicates that: Select one: A. the EMT does not trust the hospital staff. B. the patient's leg does not require splinting. C. the EMT is being realistic in her thinking. D. the EMT's focus is not on the common goal.

D

While staged at the scene of a structure fire, the EMT should: A. locate the safety officer B. assess firefighters for signs of fatigue C. stay with the incident commander D. remain with the ambulance

D

While the ages can vary, women typically experience menstruation from approximately _____ to _____ years of age. A. 10, 70 B. 20, 60 C. 10, 40 D. 11, 50

D

While triaging patients at the scene of a building collapse, you encounter a young child who is conscious, alert, and breathing; has bilateral radial pulses; and has a severely angulated leg, which is not bleeding. According to the JumpSTART triage system, you should: A. quickly bind his legs together to stabilize the fracture, and continue triaging B. apply high-flow oxygen, obtain baseline vital signs, and continue triaging C. evacuate him to a designated area and assign him a minimal (green) category D. assign him a delayed (yellow) category and continue triaging the other patients

D

Why do middle adults commonly experience financial concerns? A. the majority of middle adults still have small children who live at home w/ them B. most people in the middle adult age group have chronic illnesses and cannot work C. they are typically receiving social security and must budget w/ a fixed income D. they are preparing for retirement but must still manage everyday financial demands

D

Why might EMTs encounter a larger proportion of violent patients than the population at large? Select one: A. It is a common misperception; EMTs do NOT encounter a larger proportion of violent patients than the population at large. B. EMTs respond with law enforcement. C. EMTs have to restrain patients. D. EMTs respond to patients who, by definition, are having an emergency.

D

Without adequate oxygen, the body's cells: Select one: A. cease metabolism altogether, resulting in carbon dioxide accumulation in the blood. B. begin to metabolize fat, resulting in the production and accumulation of ketoacids. C. rely solely on glucose, which is completely converted into adenosine triphosphate. D. incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood.

D

Without practice, your CPR skills will __________. Select one: A. become part of your muscle memory B. improve over time C. come back automatically when needed D. deteriorate over time

D

Your documentation on a sexual assault victim should __________ A. be subjective and summarize the crime B. describe the status of the suspect(s) C. include your opinion of the nature of the incident D. be objective and factual

D

You and your partner are preparing to apply a traction splint to a patient's deformed thigh. As you apply manual traction, the patient resists your efforts and states that the pain is getting worse. You should: A. assess distal pulses and continue pulling traction B. flex the knee and place a pillow under the thigh C. gently massage the thigh muscles to relax them D. stop and splint the leg in the deformed position

D

You and your partner enter the residence of an elderly couple, both of whom are found unconscious in their bed. There is no evidence of trauma. As you begin your assessment, you and your partner notice the smell of natural gas in the residence. Which of the following should be your MOST appropriate action? Select one: A. Quickly exit the residence and request the fire department to move the patients. B. Request another ambulance to assist with lifting and moving the patients. C. Perform a rapid assessment and then move the patients from their residence. D. Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag.

D

You and your partner respond to a park where several people were reportedly struck by lightning. When you arrive, you find three patients. The first patient is lying supine on the ground; he is unresponsive and appears confused, and is holding his arm against his chest. The third patient is sitting on the ground holding the sides of his head. After calling for backup, you should: A. recondite that the patients who are conscious are at high risk for developing cardiac arrest and quickly assess them for potentially life-threatening injuries B. immediately begin CPR on the unresponsive patient, but cease resuscitation efforts if there is no response after 5 min of treatment C. focus your initial treatment efforts on the patient who are conscious b/c the unresponsive patient is likely in irreversible cardiac arrest D. assess the unresponsive patient's pulse, begin CPR starting w/ chest compressions if he is pulseless, and attach the AED ASAP

D

You are approaching an overturned tanker truck to assess the driver, who appears to be unresponsive. As you get closer to the vehicle, you note the smell of noxious fumes and find that you are in the midst of a vapor cloud. What should you do? A. cover your face w/ your shirt and quickly extricate the injured driver B. remain where you are and perform a visual assessment of the patient C. realize that you are in the danger zone and prevent others from entering D. exit the area immediately and gather info for the HazMat team

D

You are assessing a man w/ suspected hypothermia. The patient is conscious and alert, and is actively shivering. His respiratory rate is increased, but his breathing is unlabored, and pulse ox is 72%. The pulse ox reading is MOST likely: A. accurate b/c he has signs of respiratory failure B. accurate b/c shivering affects hemoglobin binding C. a direct reflection of his increased respiratory rate D. secondary to decreased perfusion in the extremities

D

You are assisting an asthma patient with his prescribed metered-dose inhaler. After the patient takes a deep breath and depresses the inhaler, you should: Select one: A. immediately reapply the oxygen mask and reassess his condition. B. advise him to exhale forcefully to ensure medication absorption. C. allow him to breathe room air and assess his oxygen saturation. D. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can.

D

You are attending to a 23 y/o female patient who is 16 weeks pregnant w/ her second child. The patient has apparently fallen and sustained an injury to her upper right arm. When you ask about the incident history, the patient is reluctant to explain what happened and becomes very quiet. Based on this info, you should: A. contact police and remain at the scene until they arrive and escort you to the hospital B. immediately remove the patient from the environment and transport C. ask more detailed questions and press the issue until you have a more detailed understanding of the incident D. continue your care in a private area, document any details regarding the scene and the incident, and reassure her as you provide care

D

You are attending to a 26-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant with her first child. Your patient has been having lower abdominal pains and cramping for the past two hours. In placing your patient on the stretcher and preparing for transport, you should place her: A. in a position of comfort. B. in the Fowler position. C. supine with her legs elevated. D. on her left side.

D

You are attending to a 3-year-old male patient who is presenting with severe shortness of breath. His parents report that he has had a cough and cold with a low grade fever for the past two days. They became worried today, as his level of distress has increased dramatically. On assessment, the patient is sitting upright and making high-pitched noises with each breath. Based on this information, the patient is most likely suffering from: Select one: A. inflammation of the bronchioles. B. inflammation of the lower respiratory tract and bronchospasm. C. bacterial infection of the epiglottis. D. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract.

D

Your paramedic partner administers atropine to a 49 y/o male w/ bradycardia. Which of the following side effects would you expect the patient to experience? A. pupillary constriction B. excessive lacrimation C. a fall in bp D. dry mucous membranes

D

You are attending to a 46-year-old male patient complaining of chest pain. Shortly after you begin to render care, an ALS unit arrives and the transfer of care is made. The decision is made to start an intravenous line and administer medication. You should: Select one: A. acknowledge that it is no longer your patient and stand back, allowing the ALS provider to work. B. move out of the ALS provider's way and clear the scene. C. ensure that enough assessments have been done to justify the decision. D. clear space and, if necessary, explain the procedure to the patient.

D

You are attending to a 54-year-old female patient in a homeless shelter. The patient tells you that she had the flu a couple of weeks ago, and she has not gotten over it. She has been tired and keeps waking up at night, sweating. She has been coughing up green sputum occasionally and has been experiencing episodes of chest pain that get worse when she breathes. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from: Select one: A. pneumonia. B. influenza Type A. C. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). D. tuberculosis.

D

You are attending to a patient who was experiencing abdominal pain at a local shopping mall. The patient sitting on a bench and appears in moderate distress. You are met by a first responder at the scene who wishes to provide you with a patient care report. Your best course of action is to: Select one: A. move the responder out of the way and begin patient care. B. ask the responder to wait and take their report after you have completed a primary survey. C. listen to the report while you perform a primary survey and render care to the patient. D. listen to the responder while your partner performs a primary survey.

D

You are called to attend to an elderly patient with an extensive medical history who is now in cardiac arrest. The patient's family tells you that the patient has a DNR order. There is no paperwork available but the patient does have a MedicAlert bracelet indicating Do Not Resuscitate. You should: A. initiate resuscitation in the absence of paperwork. B. transport with minimal care. C. confirm the patient's identity and honor the DNR order. D. confirm the patient identity and then confirm the DNR by calling the MedicAlert Foundation number on the bracelet.

D

You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month old infant w/ respiratory distress. While you prepare to take care of this child, you must remember that: A. assisted ventilations in infants often need to be forceful to inflate their lungs B. an infant's head should be placed in a flexed position to prevent obstruction C. the infant's proportionately small tongue often causes an airway obstruction D. small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times

D

You are dispatched to a convenience store for a patient who passed out. Upon arriving at the scene, you find two off-duty EMTs performing CPR on the patient, a 58-year-old male. Your initial action should be to: Select one: A. have the EMTs stop CPR and assess for a pulse. B. quickly attach the AED and push the analyze button. C. request a paramedic unit and quickly attach the AED. D. feel for a pulse while compressions are ongoing.

D

You are dispatched to a local elementary school for an injured child. As you approach the child, you note that he is lying at the base of the monkey bars. He is unresponsive and there are no signs of breathing. You should: A. begin immediate rescue breathing B. perform a head tilt chin lift maneuver C. open his airway and look in his mouth D. stabilize his head and check for a pulse

D

You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who fainted. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious and alert, and states that she is fine. Her husband tells you that she fainted after receiving news that her sister was killed in a car crash. You offer oxygen to the patient, but she refuses to accept it. At this point, your primary concern should be to: Select one: A. provide emotional support regarding her sister. B. advise her that she needs to go to the hospital. C. obtain baseline vital signs and a medical history. D. determine if she was injured when she fainted.

D

You are dispatched to a residence for a 56-year-old male with an altered mental status. Upon arrival at the scene, the patient's wife tells you that he complained of chest pain the day before, but would not allow her to call EMS. The patient is semiconscious; has rapid, shallow respirations; and has a thready pulse. You should: Select one: A. apply a nonrebreathing mask. B. obtain baseline vital signs. C. attach the AED immediately. D. begin ventilatory assistance.

D

You are dispatched to the residence of an Asian family for a child with a high fever. When you assess the child, you note that he has numerous red marks on his back. The child's parents explain that these marks represent coining—a traditional Asian healing practice in which hot coins are rubbed on the back. You should: A. advise the emergency department physician that you feel as though the child was intentionally abused by his parents. B. advise the child's parents that this is a harmful practice and is considered a form of child abuse in the United States. C. acknowledge and respect this practice as a cultural belief, but advise the child's parents that it has no healing power. D. document this finding on your patient care report and advise the emergency department staff of what the child's parents told you.

D

You are organizing a group of EMTs to provide triage in a mass-casualty exercise. In order for the group to be successful, it is essential that: Select one: A. individuals understand that this is a one-time exercise and that things will change in the field. B. individual goals are accomplished. C. individuals understand that their roles will all be accomplished the same way. D. individuals have an understanding of how the group will accomplish its goals.

D

You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a major motor vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should: Select one: A. arrange for an ALS rendezvous. B. take his vital signs in 15 minutes. C. repeat your secondary assessment. D. reassess his condition in 5 minutes.

D

You are transporting a 42 y/o male who experienced blunt abdominal trauma. He is receiving oxygen at 12 L/min via NRB mask and full spinal precautions have been applied. During your reassessment, you note his LOC has decreased and his respirations have become shallow. You should: A. reassess his vital signs and then notify the receiving hospital of the change in his clinical status B. suction his oropharynx to ensure it is clear of secretions and then increase the oxygen flow rate to 15 L/min C. perform a comprehensive secondary assessment to determine why his clinical status has changed. D. insert an airway adjunct if he will tolerate it and begin assisting his ventilations w/ a BVM

D

You are transporting a 54-year-old male in respiratory arrest. An EMR is driving the ambulance as you and your partner are caring for the patient. Which of the following is the MOST logical way of notifying the hospital? A. Request that a police officer respond to the hospital to apprise the staff of your arrival. B. Call the receiving hospital with your cell phone while providing patient care. C. Wait until you arrive at the hospital and then quickly apprise the staff of the situation. D. Have the driver contact dispatch and relay the patient information to the hospital.

D

You are treating a 40-year-old male with a documented blood sugar reading of 480 mg/dL. The patient is semiconscious and breathing shallowly, and is receiving assisted ventilation from your partner. You should recognize that definitive treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. oxygen. B. glucagon. C. dextrose. D. insulin.

D

You are treating a 45-year-old woman who was stung by a hornet and has a rash. She tells you that she is allergic to hornets and has her own epinephrine auto-injector. She also tells you that she takes medication for hypertension. Her breath sounds do not reveal any wheezing, her breathing is unlabored, and her blood pressure is 154/94 mm Hg. What should you do if you are not able to make contact with medical control? Select one: A. Give her half the dose of her epinephrine in case her allergic reaction is delayed. B. Begin immediate transport and request an intercept with a paramedic ambulance. C. Administer her epinephrine, reassess her condition, and transport her promptly. D. Begin transport to the hospital and closely monitor her condition while en route.

D

You are ventilating a patient with a stoma; however, air is escaping from the mouth and nose. To prevent this, you should: Select one: A. ventilate with less pressure. B. thoroughly suction the stoma. C. thrust the jaw forward. D. seal the mouth and nose.

D

You arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The patient, a 50 y/o female, was removed from her vehicle prior to your arrival. Bystanders who removed her state that she was not wearing a seatbelt. The patient is unresponsive, tachycardic, and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals bilateral clear and equal breath sounds, a midline trachea, and collapsed jugular veins. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient has experienced a: A. massive hemothorax B. tension pneumothorax C. pericardial tamponade D. laceration of the aorta

D

You could be sued for ___________ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation. A. negligence B. assault C. libel D. slander

D

You have applied a dressing and roller-gauze bandage to a laceration on the arm of a young female. During transport, she begins to complain of numbness and tingling in her hand. You should: A. remove the bandage and dressing and apply another one B. remove the gauze bandage and replace it with an elastic one C. carefully manipulate her arm until the symptoms subside D. assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed

D

You should suspect a kidney injury anytime the patient presents with _______ A. dyspnea B. abdominal distention C. nausea D. hematoma in the flank region

D

Your patient complains of chronic "burning" stomach pain that improves after eating. You should suspect: Select one: A. aortic aneurysm. B. pneumonia. C. kidney stones. D. peptic ulcer disease.

D

Your patient has a decreased cardiac output and poor myocardial contractility. This will likely lead to ___________. Select one: A. neurogenic shock B. hypovolemic shock C. septic shock D. cardiogenic shock

D

Your priority in caring for a patient w/ a surface contact poisoning is to: A. move the patient to a safe area B. decontaminate the patient's skin C. obtain and maintain a patent airway D. avoid contaminating yourself

D

Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser: A. stares at certain parts of another person's anatomy. B. touches another person without his or her consent. C. makes rude remarks about a person's body parts. D. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else.

D.

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you note two small cars collided head-on; the occupants are still in their vehicles. The fire dept is in the process of stabilizing the vehicles and law enforcement personnel are directing traffic. After parking the ambulance at a safe distance, you and your partner should: A. assist w/ vehicle stabilization B. quickly begin the triage process C. report to the incident commander D. put on high-visibility safety vests

D.

Which of the following interventions is used by all levels of EMS providers? A. automatic transport ventilators B. needle decompression C. multilumen airways D. AED

D.