Ovine & Caprine Medicine

Which of the following statements is not true? A. Joint ill occurs primarily in kids. B. "Spider lamb syndrome" is contracted by consumption of infective oocytes in cat feces. C. Vibriosis is the number one cause of abortion in sheep in North America. D. Scrapie is another name for transmissible spongiform encephalopathy.

"Spider lamb syndrome" is contracted by consumption of infective oocytes in cat feces.

What is the average gestation period for sheep?

148 days

At what age do female goats reach puberty?

3 months

What is the approximate normal gestation period for a goat?

5 months

The normal pulse rate in sheep and goats is

70-90 bpm

In goats, night blindness, poor appetite, weight loss, unthrifty appearance with a poor hair coat, and a thick nasal discharge have resulted from a lack of vitamin

A

To minimize the likelihood of development of urolithiasis in goats, it is most important to

Feed no grain

Which of the following nerve blocks is used for dehorning small ruminants? A. Auriculopalpebral block B. Epidural C. Bier block D. Cornual block

Corneal block

Johne's disease (mycobacterium avium) can cause muscle wasting in all ruminants. Small ruminants differ from cattle in that:

In small ruminants, diarrhea is rare whereas in cattle it is common.

Which of the following is not a possible cause of pneumonia in small ruminants? A. Parainfluenza B. Moraxella bovis C. E. Coli D. Pasteurella multocida

Moraxella Bovis

Too much grain in a diet may predispose sheep and goats to any of the following except A. Grain overload B. Obesity C. Rumen alkalosis D. Urinary calculi

Rumen alkalosis

The all-white breed of goat is the

Saanen

Which of the following breeds of goats is all white or cream color and is known for its milk-producing ability? A. Angora B. Spanish C. Boer D. Saanen

Saanen

Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Rumping is acceptable restraint for a sheep B. Sheep have no upper incisors C. Sheep are browsers D. Not all sheep have wool

Sheep are browsers

Which of the following diseases of sheep is not zoonotic? A. Johne's B. Toxoplasmosis C. Rabies D. Chlamydia Infection

Johne's

Entropion is the most common ocular disease of:

Neonatal lambs

Which of the following vaccines is routinely recommended in both sheep and goats? A. Brucella B. Rabies C. Leptospirosis D. Tetani

Tetani

Treatment of choice for infectious conjunctivitis is:

Tetracycline

Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Goats should have 1-3 rumen contractions per minute. B. The scientific name for goats is Capra hircus. C. Tail docking in goats is a common practice. D. Goats have an estrous cycle of approximately 21 days.

Tail docking is goats is a common practice

Great care must be taken when dehorning a goat with a hot electric dehorner because.

The heat may damage their brains.

Which of the following statements about artificial insemination in sheep and goats is not true? A. The further that semen is deposited into the reproductive tract, the higher the conception rate. B. Transcervical insemination in the ewe is the easiest route. C. Semen may be deposited in the vagina, cervix, or uterus. D. Insemination is most commonly performed 52 hours after estrus detection.

Transcervical insemination in the ewe is the easiest route.

With regard to drugs used for pain management in animals undergoing surgery, the meat withdrawal time for ____________ is 7 days.

ketoprofen

Goats are most at risk for developing the metabolic condition termed ketosis during

late gestation

Most scent glands in male goats can be destroyed at the time of

dehorning

Frequently, the most challenging aspect of housing goats is

fencing

Psoroptes spp. is a

mite

The most common place for a urinary stone to lodge in a goat is the

urethral process

The dental formula for sheep and goats is

2(I0/3 C0/1 PM3/3 M3/3)

A 21 lb 3-month-old Pygmy buck kid has diarrhea and is 5% dehydrated. What is his fluid deficit in L?

0.48 L

At what approximate age is a kid disbudded?

1 week

The normal temperature range in sheep and goats is

101° F to 104° F

A struggling sheep rapidly becomes hyperthermic in hot weather, because its normal body temperature is

103° F (39.4° C)

In preparation for standing surgery on lambs and kids that have begun consuming solid feedstuffs, food is withheld for __________ and water is withheld for _______ prior to surgery.

2 to 4 hours, 0 hours

Which of the following statements about Haemonchus contortus infestation is true? A. It causes muscle lesions. B. The Famacha card used in identifying infected animals evaluates the color of the oral mucous membranes. C. 20% of the flock harbors 80% of the worms D. It affects only goats.

20% of the flock harbors 80% of the worms

If the California Mastitis Test is run on a milk sample from a dairy goat and yields a score of 1 ("suspicious"), this indicates _________ somatic cells per milliliter.

240,000 to 1,440,000

How many stomach chambers do sheep have?

4

A 200 lb 5-year-old Dorset ewe has been prescribed fenbendazole (100mg/ml) at 5 mg/kg PO. How many ml does she need?

4.5 mL

What is the maximum volume that can be administered subcutaneously in adult sheep and goats?

50 mL

Brucella infections cause:

Abortion

All of the following statements about chlamydophilosis are true except A. It is also known as "enzoonotic abortion in ewes" B. It is the number one cause of abortion in goats C. After aborting, the bacteria are eliminated from the dam's uterus within 3 months D. Abortion occurs in the first 2 to 3 weeks of gestation

Abortion occurs in the first 2 to 3 weeks of gestation.

Which of the following statements about general anesthesia in sheep and goats is not true? A. An endotracheal tube with an internal diameter of 3 to 5 mm is the appropriate size for adult small ruminants. B. The heart rate for sheep and goats under general anesthesia should be between 80 to 150 bpm. C. Oxygen is administered for 1 to 2 minutes before the anesthetic gas is introduced. D. In animals weighing less than 150 lb, face mask induction is possible.

An endotracheal tube with an internal diameter of 3 to 5 mm is the appropriate size for adult small ruminants.

Which of the following statements about infertility and the intersex condition encountered in many European breeds of goats is true? A. Animals that are heterozygous for the polled gene have normal fertility. B. Animals with the hh genotype are polled. C. Males that are homozygous for the polled gene are intersex. D. Females that are homozygous for the polled gene are intersex but fertile.

Animals that are heterozygous for the polled gene have normal fertility.

Scent glands in the male goat are located

Around the horn base

Where is the preferred site for administration of a subcutaneous injection in a small ruminant?

Axillary area

All of the following statements about the use of local anesthetics in sheep and goats are true except A. The L block is the most common form of local anesthesia used in sheep and goats. B. The dose of local anesthetic used for a caudal epidural should not exceed 0.5 mL to 1 mL of 2% solution per 50 kg body weight. C. Lidocaine should not be used in concentrations greater than 2%. D. Because sheep and goats have a dual nerve supply to each horn, a cornual nerve block is administered at two sites per horn.

Because sheep and goats have a dual nerve supply to each horn, a cornual nerve block is administered at two sites per horn.

Infestation with the parasite Fasciola hepatica predisposes flocks to which of the following diseases? A. Black disease B. Foot rot C. Food and mouth disease D. Malignant edema

Black disease

Which of the following diseases is transmitted by gnats? A. Leptospirosis B. Vibriosis C. Bluetongue D. Caprine arthritis-encephalitis

Bluetongue

Which of the following diseases is reportable and zoonotic? A. Listeriosis B. Scrapie C. Big head D. Brucellosis

Brucellosis

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis is the infectious agent for which condition? A. Pregnancy toxemia B. Orf C. Overeating disease D. Caseous lymphadenitis

Caseous lymphadenitis

Which of the following statements is not true? A. In the United States, dairy goats cannot be registered if they have horns. B. Improperly performed tail docking in sheep can lead to rectal prolapse. C. Meningitis is a possible consequence of dehorning goats with heat cautery. D. Castration of a goat will reduce "buck odor" and eliminate the self-urination behavior.

Castration of a goat will reduce "buck odor" and eliminate the self-urination behavior.

Which of the following statements regarding a sick neonatal lamb or kid is not true? A. Depression is among the most common clinical signs of illness in the neonate. B. Clinical signs of hypothermia begin at a rectal temperature less than 100° F. C. Hypoglycemia is a common cause of weakness in the neonate. D. Starvation is among the primary causes of neonatal death.

Clinical signs of hypothermia begin at a rectal temperature less than 100° F.

Which of the following diseases is best characterized by diarrhea, incoordination, excitement, circling, head pressing, convulsions, and sudden death? A. Toxoplasmosis B. Chlamydophilosis C. Clostridium Perfringens Infection Type D D. Leptospirosis

Clostridium Perfringens Infection Type D

Which of the following diseases usually is seen in feedlot lambs consuming high-concentrate diets? A. Toxoplasmosis B. Chlamydophilosis C. Leptospirosis D. Clostridium Perfringens Infection Type D

Clostridium Perfringens Infection Type D

Which of the following can result in sudden death in a previously healthy kid or lamb? A. Clostridium perfringens B. Cryptosporidium parvum C. Rotavirus D. E. coli

Clostridium perfringens

Core vaccination in sheep and goats protects against

Clostridium perfringens and Clostridium tetani

Diarrhea in sheep and goats is caused by single-celled parasites called

Coccidia

Which of the following statements regarding adequacy of passive transfer of antibodies is not true? A. When bottle feeding is necessary, lambs can be given goat colostrum. B. Commercial colostrum substitutes are high in immunoglobulins. C. Lambs and kids should consume 10% to 15% of their body weight in colostrum in the first 24 hours postpartum. D. When bottle feeding is necessary, lambs can be given cow colostrum.

Commercial colostrum substitutes are high in immunoglobulins.

Which of the following does not require treatment and will generally resolve on its own? A. Ringworm B. Contagious ecthyma C. Lice D. Coccidia

Contagious ecthyma

Which of the following is of zoonotic concern? A. Malignant edema B. Caseous lymphadenitis C. Flystrike D. Contagious ecthyma

Contagious ecthyma

A pregnant sheep has what kind of placentation?

Cotyledonary

Q fever in sheep is caused by

Coxiella burnetii

Tail docking is performed in sheep to:

Decrease risk of fly strike

All of the following statements about parturition is sheep and goats are false except A. Successful breech births are not possible B. Dystocia is common in sheep but uncommon is goats. C. In the ewe, treatment for a retained placenta should begin 6 hours postpartum. D. Stage 1 lasts 1 to 4 hours in goats, but can last up to 12 hours in sheep.

Dystocia is common in sheep but uncommon is goats.

Consumption of unaccustomed quantities of grain, or of lush pasture when first turned out in the spring, by goats or sheep can lead to incomplete digestion, overgrowth of clostridia in the small intestine, and production of epsilon toxin. This syndrome is called

Enterotoxemia

Mastitis is most likely to effect:

Ewes and does

Which of these is a zoonotic disease of sheep? A. ORF B. Yellow fever C. Psittacosis D. Shigellosis

ORF

FAMACHA scoring is useful for determining if small ruminants need treatment for ___________ infection which can cause serious __________________.

Haemonchus contortus; anemia

Which of the following statements about parturition in sheep and goats is true? A. Ewes typically hide their offspring after they are born. B. Does often are housed in "jugs" when clinical signs of impending parturition are seen. C. Crutching is the shearing of wool from around the eyes of sheep when parturition is impending. D. In goats, twins and triplets are more common than singleton births.

In goats, twins and triplets are more common than singleton births.

Which of the following statements about caseous lymphadenitis is true? A. Diagnosis is by abdominocentesis B. It is caused by a rhabdovirus C. It causes abscesses D. Clinical signs include diarrhea

It causes abscesses

The breed of goat with almost no external ears is the

LaMancha

Which of the following breeds of goats is a dairy breed whose distinguishing characteristic is very small ears? A. Cashmere B. Pygmy C. Nubian D. La Mancha

LaMancha

Ivermectin is the treatment of choice for which of the following? A. Contagious ecthyma B. Lice C. Ringworm D. Entropion

Lice

Urea toxicity in small ruminants typically occurs within 1 hour after ingestion. What is not a sign of urea toxicity?

Low packed cell volume (PCV)

Which of the following statements about urine collection is not true? A. Male goats tend to urinate less frequently during breeding season. B. Goats often urinate upon standing after spending time in recumbency. C. Placing a goat in a new stall or pen can encourage urination. D. Female sheep can be stimulated to urinate by holding their nostrils and mouth shut.

Male goats tend to urinate less frequently during breeding season.

Urolithiasis is a condition most often seen in

Male sheep and goats

The breed of goat with long, wide, pendulous ears and a Roman nose is the

Nubian

A wether with a urethral obstruction would likely need what life-saving procedure?

Perineal urethrostomy

Which of the following breeds of sheep is a fine wool breed? A. Rambouillet B. Lincoln C. Dorset D. Hampshire

Rambouillet

Which of the following breeds of sheep is a medium wool breed known for its ability to produce large litters? A. Romanov B. Romney C. Merino D. Suffolk

Romanov

Where in the sheep does microbial fermentation of roughage occur?

Rumen

Which of the following is a reportable disease? A. Barber pole worm B. Contagious ecthyma C. Scrapie D. Tetanus

Scrapie

Small ruminants display what type of estrous cycle?

Seasonally polyestrous

What breed of sheep is used predominantly for meat?

Suffolk

Which of the following statements about brucellosis in sheep is not true? A. The disease is controlled by herd slaughter. B. The disease is prevalent in the eastern portions of North America. C. If an infected ewe aborts, she will be free of the disease within a few months. D. The major clinical sign seen in the herd is epididymitis in rams.

The disease is prevalent in the eastern portions of North America.

Which of the following statements about venous blood sampling is true? A. The cephalic vein of the hindlimb can be used in both sheep and goats. B. In sheep, the femoral vein can be accessed in the "set-up" rump position C. The femoral vein of the forelimb can be used only in sheep. D. The jugular vein is used most often in sheep and goats.

The jugular vein is used most often in sheep and goats.

Which of the following statements about intramuscular injection sites is true? A. The gluteal region in sheep and goats is well muscled and often used for IM injection. B. The lateral cervical muscles are not used for IM injection in show goats. C. When using the gluteal muscles for IM injection, a needle at least 2 inches long must be used. D. The longissimus muscle is the most common site for IM injection in sheep and goats.

The lateral cervical muscles are not used for IM injection in show goats.

All of the following statements about castration in sheep and goats are true except A. Adult animals undergoing castration are sedated B. The risk of tetanus following castration with an emasculatome is greater than with an elastrator. C. Routine castration of sheep and goats usually takes place in the first week postpartum.

The risk of tetanus following castration with an emasculatome is greater than with an elastrator.

Which of the following statements about contagious ecthyma is not true? A. It is zoonotic B. It also is known as "orf" and "sore mouth" C. The vaccine consists of a modified live virus D. Clinical signs include anorexia, dehydration, and malnutrition

The vaccine consists of a modified live virus.

Polioencephalomalcia is caused by a deficiency in:

Thiamine

Pregnancy toxemia generally presents during which stage of gestation?

Third trimester

For which of the following diseases in sheep and goats is a vaccine not available? A. Botulism B. Toxoplasmosis C. Leptospirosis D. Chlamydophilosis

Toxoplasmosis

Lack of what nutrients can cause retarded growth and rickets in goat kids?

Vitamin C and calcium

Lack of what vitamin in goats can cause nutritional muscular dystrophy (white muscle disease)?

Vitamin E

Selenium deficiencies may cause which of the following? A. Arthritis encephalitis B. Septic arthritis C. White muscle disease D. Rickets

White muscle disease

During the first few weeks of life, either tail docking or castration in sheep can be performed by

applying a tight elastic band around the tail or to the scrotum

Sheep and goats can be rapidly screened for anemia by checking the

conjunctiva

Small ruminants should be vaccinated for enterotoxemia

every 6 months

Serum blood chemistry levels for creatinine will ________ with kidney disease, and serum creatine kinase levels will _________ with muscle damage.

increase; increase

Linognathus pedalis is a

louse