Oxygenation, F&E, and STD's
treatment for syphilis
1 injection in <1 yr 3 injections if infected >1 year
Syphilis Primary stage
2-3 weeks after exposure A painless sore/lesion at the site of the infection called a CHANCRE these lesions usually resolve spontaneously without treatment
How long does treat last for active disease?
6-12 months
RIPE RIE RIp
6-9 months 2 months 7 months
How long is treatment of TB if exposed
9-12 months
The Causative agent of Tuberculosis is said to be: A Mycobacterium Tuberculosis B Hansen's Bacilli C Bacillus Anthracis D Group A Beta Hemolytic Streptococcus
A
The public health nurse is providing follow-up care to a client with TB who does not regularly take his medication. Which nursing action would be most appropriate for this client? A Ask the client's spouse to supervise the daily administration of the medications. B Visit the clinic weekly to ask him whether he is taking his medications regularly. C Notify the physician of the client's non-compliance and request a different prescription. D Remind the client that TB can be fatal if not taken properly.
A) Question 59 Explanation: Directly observed therapy (DOT) can be implemented with clients who are not compliant with drug therapy. In DOT, a responsible person, who may be a family member or a health care provider, observes the client taking the medication. Visiting the client, changing the prescription, or threatening the client will not ensure compliance if the client will not or cannot follow the prescribed treatment.
A client with a productive cough, chills, and night sweats is suspected of having active TB. The physician should take which of the following actions? A Admit him to the hospital in respiratory isolation B Prescribe isoniazid and tell him to go home and rest C Give a tuberculin test and tell him to come back in 48 hours and have it read D Give a prescription for isoniazid, 300 mg daily for 2 weeks, and send him home
A) The client is showing s/s of active TB and, because of the productive cough, is highly contagious. He should be admitted to the hospital, placed in respiratory isolation, and three sputum cultures should be obtained to confirm the diagnosis. He would most likely be given isoniazid and two or three other antitubercular antibiotics until the diagnosis is confirmed, then isolation and treatment would continue if the cultures were positive for TB. After 7 to 10 days, three more consecutive sputum cultures will be obtained. If they're negative, he would be considered non-contagious and may be sent home, although he'll continue to take the antitubercular drugs for 9 to 12 months.
The nurse obtains a sputum specimen from a client with suspected TB for laboratory study. Which of the following laboratory techniques is most commonly used to identify tubercle bacilli in sputum? A Acid-fast staining B Sensitivity testing C Agglutination testing D Dark-field illumination
A) The most commonly used technique to identify tubercle bacilli is acid-fast staining. The bacilli have a waxy surface, which makes them difficult to stain in the lab. However, once they are stained, the stain is resistant to removal, even with acids. Therefore, tubercle bacilli are often called acid-fast bacilli.
A client who is HIV+ has had a PPD skin test. The nurse notes a 7-mm area of induration at the site of the skin test. The nurse interprets the results as: A Positive B Negative C Inconclusive D The need for repeat testing
A) The client with HIV+ status is considered to have positive results on PPD skin test with an area greater than 5-mm of induration. The client with HIV is immunosuppressed, making a smaller area of induration positive for this type of client.
Cor Pulmonale
An alteration in both structure and function of the right ventricle of the heart caused by a primary disorder of the respiratory system Pulmonary hypertension Pulmonary embolism Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease Sleep apnea Cystic Fibrosis Other damage to lung tissues
You are caring for a patient admitted with a diagnosis of acute kidney injury. When you review your patient's most recent laboratory reports, you note that the patient's magnesium levels are high. You should prioritize assessment for which of the following health problems? A) Diminished deep tendon reflexes B) Tachycardia C) Cool, clammy skin D) Acute flank pain
Ans: A Feedback: To gauge a patient's magnesium status, the nurse should check deep tendon reflexes. If the reflex is absent, this may indicate high serum magnesium. Tachycardia, flank pain, and cool, clammy skin are not typically associated with hypermagnesemia.
A nurse is caring for a patient who has been admitted with an exacerbation of chronic bronchiectasis. The nurse should expect to assess the patient for which of the following clinical manifestations? A) Copious sputum production B) Pain on inspiration C) Pigeon chest D) Dry cough
Ans: A Feedback: Clinical manifestations of bronchiectasis include hemoptysis, chronic cough, copious purulent sputum, and clubbing of the fingers. Because of the copious production of sputum, the cough is rarely dry. A pigeon chest is not associated with the disease and patients do not normally experience pain on inspiration.
The nurse is providing care for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. When describing the process of respiration the nurse explains how oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged between the pulmonary capillaries and the alveoli. The nurse is describing what process? A) Diffusion B) Osmosis C) Active transport D) Filtration
Ans: A Feedback: Diffusion is the natural tendency of a substance to move from an area of higher concentration to one of lower concentration. It occurs through the random movement of ions and molecules. Examples of diffusion are the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the pulmonary capillaries and alveoli and the tendency of sodium to move from the ECF compartment, where the sodium concentration is high, to the ICF, where its concentration is low. Osmosis occurs when two different solutions are separated by a membrane that is impermeable to the dissolved substances; fluid shifts through the membrane from the region of low solute concentration to the region of high solute concentration until the solutions are of equal concentration. Active transport implies that energy must be expended for the movement to occur against a concentration gradient. Movement of water and solutes occurring from an area of high hydrostatic pressure to an area of low hydrostatic pressure is filtration.
The nurse is assessing an adult patient following a motor vehicle accident. The nurse observes that the patient has an increased use of accessory muscles and is complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. The nurse should recognize the possibility of what condition? A) Pneumothorax B) Anxiety C) Acute bronchitis D) Aspiration
Ans: A Feedback: If the pneumothorax is large and the lung collapses totally, acute respiratory distress occurs. The patient is anxious, has dyspnea and air hunger, has increased use of the accessory muscles, and may develop central cyanosis from severe hypoxemia. These symptoms are not definitive of pneumothorax, but because of the patient's recent trauma they are inconsistent with anxiety, bronchitis, or aspiration.
You are the nurse evaluating a newly admitted patient's laboratory results, which include several values that are outside of reference ranges. Which of the following would cause the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)? A) Increased serum sodium B) Decreased serum potassium C) Decreased hemoglobin D) Increased platelets
Ans: A Feedback: Increased serum sodium causes increased thirst and the release of ADH by the posterior pituitary gland. When serum osmolality decreases and thirst and ADH secretions are suppressed, the kidney excretes more water to restore normal osmolality. Levels of potassium, hemoglobin, and platelets do not directly affect ADH release.
A nurse is planning the care of a client with bronchiectasis. What goal of care should the nurse prioritize? A) The patient will successfully mobilize pulmonary secretions. B) The patient will maintain an oxygen saturation level of ³98%. C) The patient's pulmonary blood pressure will decrease to within reference ranges. D) The patient will resume prediagnosis level of function within 72 hours.
Ans: A Feedback: Nursing management focuses on alleviating symptoms and helping patients clear pulmonary secretions. Pulmonary pressures are not a central focus in the care of the patient with bronchiectasis. Rapid resumption of prediagnosis function and oxygen saturation above 98% are unrealistic goals.
The school nurse is presenting a class on smoking cessation at the local high school. A participant in the class asks the nurse about the risk of lung cancer in those who smoke. What response related to risk for lung cancer in smokers is most accurate? A) "The younger you are when you start smoking, the higher your risk of lung cancer." B) "The risk for lung cancer never decreases once you have smoked, which is why smokers need annual chest x-rays." C) "The risk for lung cancer is determined mostly by what type of cigarettes you smoke." D) "The risk for lung cancer depends primarily on the other risk factors for cancer that you have."
Ans: A Feedback: Risk is determined by the pack-year history (number of packs of cigarettes used each day, multiplied by the number of years smoked), the age of initiation of smoking, the depth of inhalation, and the tar and nicotine levels in the cigarettes smoked. The younger a person is when he or she starts smoking, the greater the risk of developing lung cancer. Risk declines after smoking cessation. The type of cigarettes is a significant variable, but this is not the most important factor.
A nurse has been asked to give a workshop on COPD for a local community group. The nurse emphasizes the importance of smoking cessation because smoking has what pathophysiologic effect? A) Increases the amount of mucus production B) Destabilizes hemoglobin C) Shrinks the alveoli in the lungs D) Collapses the alveoli in the lungs
Ans: A Feedback: Smoking irritates the goblet cells and mucous glands, causing an increased accumulation of mucus, which, in turn, produces more irritation, infection, and damage to the lung.
The nurse is caring for a patient at risk for atelectasis. The nurse implements a first-line measure to prevent atelectasis development in the patient. What is an example of a first-line measure to minimize atelectasis? A) Incentive spirometry B) Intermittent positive-pressure breathing (IPPB) C) Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) D) Bronchoscopy
Ans: A Feedback: Strategies to prevent atelectasis, which include frequent turning, early ambulation, lung-volume expansion maneuvers (deep breathing exercises, incentive spirometry), and coughing, serve as the first-line measures to minimize or treat atelectasis by improving ventilation. In patients who do not respond to first-line measures or who cannot perform deep-breathing exercises, other treatments such as positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP), continuous or intermittent positive-pressure breathing (IPPB), or bronchoscopy may be used.
An adult patient has tested positive for tuberculosis (TB). While providing patient teaching, what information should the nurse prioritize? A) The importance of adhering closely to the prescribed medication regimen B) The fact that the disease is a lifelong, chronic condition that will affect ADLs C) The fact that TB is self-limiting, but can take up to 2 years to resolve D) The need to work closely with the occupational and physical therapists
Ans: A Feedback: Successful treatment of TB is highly dependent on careful adherence to the medication regimen. The disease is not self-limiting; occupational and physical therapy are not necessarily indicated. TB is curable.
A nurse is admitting a new patient who has been admitted with a diagnosis of COPD exacerbation. How can the nurse best help the patient achieve the goal of maintaining effective oxygenation? A) Teach the patient strategies for promoting diaphragmatic breathing. B) Administer supplementary oxygen by simple face mask. C) Teach the patient to perform airway suctioning. D) Assist the patient in developing an appropriate exercise program.
Ans: A Feedback: The breathing pattern of most people with COPD is shallow, rapid, and inefficient; the more severe the disease, the more inefficient the breathing pattern. With practice, this type of upper chest breathing can be changed to diaphragmatic breathing, which reduces the respiratory rate, increases alveolar ventilation, and sometimes helps expel as much air as possible during expiration. Suctioning is not normally necessary in patients with COPD. Supplementary oxygen is not normally delivered by simple face mask and exercise may or may not be appropriate.
The nurse is assessing a patient who has a 35 pack-year history of cigarette smoking. In light of this known risk factor for lung cancer, what statement should prompt the nurse to refer the patient for further assessment? A) "Lately, I have this cough that just never seems to go away." B) "I find that I don't have nearly the stamina that I used to." C) "I seem to get nearly every cold and flu that goes around my workplace." D) "I never used to have any allergies, but now I think I'm developing allergies to dust and pet hair."
Ans: A Feedback: The most frequent symptom of lung cancer is cough or change in a chronic cough. People frequently ignore this symptom and attribute it to smoking or a respiratory infection. A new onset of allergies, frequent respiratory infections and fatigue are not characteristic early signs of lung cancer.
A patient who is being treated for pneumonia starts complaining of sudden shortness of breath. An arterial blood gas (ABG) is drawn. The ABG has the following values: pH 7.21, PaCO2 64 mm Hg, HCO3 = 24 mm Hg. What does the ABG reflect? A) Respiratory acidosis B) Metabolic alkalosis C) Respiratory alkalosis D) Metabolic acidosis
Ans: A Feedback: The pH is below 7.40, PaCO2 is greater than 40, and the HCO3 is normal; therefore, it is a respiratory acidosis, and compensation by the kidneys has not begun, which indicates this was probably an acute event. The HCO3 of 24 is within the normal range so it is not metabolic alkalosis. The pH of 7.21 indicates an acidosis, not alkalosis. The pH of 7.21 indicates it is an acidosis but the HCO3 of 24 is within the normal range, ruling out metabolic acidosis.
A patient with emphysema is experiencing shortness of breath. To relieve this patient's symptoms, the nurse should assist her into what position? A) Sitting upright, leaning forward slightly B) Low Fowler's, with the neck slightly hyperextended C) Prone D) Trendelenburg
Ans: A Feedback: The typical posture of a person with COPD is to lean forward and use the accessory muscles of respiration to breathe. Low Fowler's positioning would be less likely to aid oxygenation. Prone or Trendelenburg positioning would exacerbate shortness of breath.
A critical-care nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with pneumonia as a surgical complication. The nurse's assessment reveals that the patient has an increased work of breathing due to copious tracheobronchial secretions. What should the nurse encourage the patient to do? A) Increase oral fluids unless contraindicated. B) Call the nurse for oral suctioning, as needed. C) Lie in a low Fowler's or supine position. D) Increase activity.
Ans: A Feedback: The nurse should encourage hydration because adequate hydration thins and loosens pulmonary secretions. Oral suctioning is not sufficiently deep to remove tracheobronchial secretions. The patient should have the head of the bed raised, and rest should be promoted to avoid exacerbation of symptoms.
The occupational health nurse is assessing new employees at a company. What would be important to assess in employees with a potential occupational respiratory exposure to a toxin? Select all that apply. A) Time frame of exposure B) Type of respiratory protection used C) Immunization status D) Breath sounds E) Intensity of exposure
Ans: A, B, D, E Feedback: Key aspects of any assessment of patients with a potential occupational respiratory history include job and job activities, exposure levels, general hygiene, time frame of exposure, effectiveness of respiratory protection used, and direct versus indirect exposures. The patient's current respiratory status would also be a priority. Occupational lung hazards are not normally influenced by immunizations.
You are doing discharge teaching with a patient who has hypophosphatemia during his time in hospital. The patient has a diet ordered that is high in phosphate. What foods would you teach this patient to include in his diet? Select all that apply. A) Milk B) Beef C) Poultry D) Green vegetables E) Liver
Ans: A, C, E Feedback: If the patient experiences mild hypophosphatemia, foods such as milk and milk products, organ meats, nuts, fish, poultry, and whole grains should be encouraged.
A gerontologic nurse is teaching students about the high incidence and prevalence of dehydration in older adults. What factors contribute to this phenomenon? Select all that apply. A) Decreased kidney mass B) Increased conservation of sodium C) Increased total body water D) Decreased renal blood flow E) Decreased excretion of potassium
Ans: A, D, E Feedback: Dehydration in the elderly is common as a result of decreased kidney mass, decreased glomerular filtration rate, decreased renal blood flow, decreased ability to concentrate urine, inability to conserve sodium, decreased excretion of potassium, and a decrease of total body water.
A nurse is caring for a young adult patient whose medical history includes an alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency. This deficiency predisposes the patient to what health problem? A) Pulmonary edema B) Lobular emphysema C) Cystic fibrosis (CF) D) Empyema
Ans: B Feedback: A host risk factor for COPD is a deficiency of alpha1-antitrypsin, an enzyme inhibitor that protects the lung parenchyma from injury. This deficiency predisposes young patients to rapid development of lobular emphysema even in the absence of smoking. This deficiency does not influence the patient's risk of pulmonary edema, CF, or empyema.
A nurse is developing a teaching plan for a patient with COPD. What should the nurse include as the most important area of teaching? A) Avoiding extremes of heat and cold B) Setting and accepting realistic short- and long-range goals C) Adopting a lifestyle of moderate activity D) Avoiding emotional disturbances and stressful situations
Ans: B Feedback: A major area of teaching involves setting and accepting realistic short-term and long-range goals. The other options should also be included in the teaching plan, but they are not areas that are as high a priority as setting and accepting realistic goals.
What nursing management should be provided for the patient postoperatively A) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) B) Atelectasis C) Aspiration D) Pulmonary embolism
Ans: B Feedback: A shallow, monotonous respiratory pattern coupled with immobility places the patient at an increased risk of developing atelectasis. These specific factors are less likely to result in pulmonary embolism or aspiration. ARDS involves an exaggerated inflammatory response and does not normally result from factors such as immobility and shallow breathing.
A nurse is developing the teaching portion of a care plan for a patient with COPD. What would be the most important component for the nurse to emphasize? A) Smoking up to one-half of a pack of cigarettes weekly is allowable. B) Chronic inhalation of indoor toxins can cause lung damage. C) Minor respiratory infections are considered to be self-limited and are not treated. D) Activities of daily living (ADLs) should be clustered in the early morning hours.
Ans: B Feedback: Environmental risk factors for COPD include prolonged and intense exposure to occupational dusts and chemicals, indoor air pollution, and outdoor air pollution. Smoking cessation should be taught to all patients who are currently smoking. Minor respiratory infections that are of no consequence to the person with normal lungs can produce fatal disturbances in the lungs of the person with emphysema. ADLs should be paced throughout the day to permit patients to perform these without excessive distress.
A nurse in the neurologic ICU has orders to infuse a hypertonic solution into a patient with increased intracranial pressure. This solution will increase the number of dissolved particles in the patient's blood, creating pressure for fluids in the tissues to shift into the capillaries and increase the blood volume. This process is best described as which of the following? A) Hydrostatic pressure B) Osmosis and osmolality C) Diffusion D) Active transpor
Ans: B Feedback: Osmosis is the movement of fluid from a region of low solute concentration to a region of high solute concentration across a semipermeable membrane. Hydrostatic pressure refers to changes in water or volume related to water pressure. Diffusion is the movement of solutes from an area of greater concentration to lesser concentration; the solutes in an intact vascular system are unable to move so diffusion normally should not be taking place. Active transport is the movement of molecules against the concentration gradient and requires adenosine triphosphate (ATP) as an energy source; this process typically takes place at the cellular level and is not involved in vascular volume changes.
A hospital has been the site of an increased incidence of hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP). What is an important measure for the prevention of HAP? A) Administration of prophylactic antibiotics B) Administration of pneumococcal vaccine to vulnerable individuals C) Obtaining culture and sensitivity swabs from all newly admitted patients D) Administration of antiretroviral medications to patients over age 65
Ans: B Feedback: Pneumococcal vaccination reduces the incidence of pneumonia, hospitalizations for cardiac conditions, and deaths in the general older adult population. A onetime vaccination of pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV) is recommended for all patients 65 years of age or older and those with chronic diseases. Antibiotics are not given on a preventative basis and antiretroviral medications do not affect the most common causative microorganisms. Culture and sensitivity testing by swabbing is not performed for pneumonia since the microorganisms are found in sputum.
An older adult patient has been diagnosed with COPD. What characteristic of the patient's current health status would preclude the safe and effective use of a metered-dose inhaler (MDI)? A) The patient has not yet quit smoking. B) The patient has severe arthritis in her hands. C) The patient requires both corticosteroids and beta2-agonists. D) The patient has cataracts.
Ans: B Feedback: Safe and effective MDI use requires the patient to be able to manipulate the device independently, which may be difficult if the patient has arthritis. Smoking does not preclude MDI use. A modest loss of vision does not preclude the use of an MDI and a patient can safely use more than one MDI.
You are the surgical nurse caring for a 65-year-old female patient who is postoperative day 1 following a thyroidectomy. During your shift assessment, the patient complains of tingling in her lips and fingers. She tells you that she has an intermittent spasm in her wrist and hand and she exhibits increased muscle tone. What electrolyte imbalance should you first suspect? A) Hypophosphatemia B) Hypocalcemia C) Hypermagnesemia D) Hyperkalemia
Ans: B Feedback: Tetany is the most characteristic manifestation of hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia. Sensations of tingling may occur in the tips of the fingers, around the mouth, and, less commonly, in the feet. Hypophosphatemia creates central nervous dysfunction, resulting in seizures and coma. Hypermagnesemia creates hypoactive reflexes and somnolence. Signs of hyperkalemia include paresthesias and anxiety.
A medical nurse educator is reviewing a patient's recent episode of metabolic acidosis with members of the nursing staff. What should the educator describe about the role of the kidneys in metabolic acidosis? A) The kidneys retain hydrogen ions and excrete bicarbonate ions to help restore balance. B) The kidneys excrete hydrogen ions and conserve bicarbonate ions to help restore balance. C) The kidneys react rapidly to compensate for imbalances in the body. D) The kidneys regulate the bicarbonate level in the intracellular fluid.
Ans: B Feedback: The kidneys regulate the bicarbonate level in the ECF; they can regenerate bicarbonate ions as well as reabsorb them from the renal tubular cells. In respiratory acidosis and most cases of metabolic acidosis, the kidneys excrete hydrogen ions and conserve bicarbonate ions to help restore balance. In respiratory and metabolic alkalosis, the kidneys retain hydrogen ions and excrete bicarbonate ions to help restore balance. The kidneys obviously cannot compensate for the metabolic acidosis created by renal failure. Renal compensation for imbalances is relatively slow (a matter of hours or days).
A patient with a longstanding diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder presents to the emergency room. The triage nurse notes upon assessment that the patient is hyperventilating. The triage nurse is aware that hyperventilation is the most common cause of which acidbase imbalance? A) Respiratory acidosis B) Respiratory alkalosis C) Increased PaCO2 D) CNS disturbances
Ans: B Feedback: The most common cause of acute respiratory alkalosis is hyperventilation. Extreme anxiety can lead to hyperventilation. Acute respiratory acidosis occurs in emergency situations, such as pulmonary edema, and is exhibited by hypoventilation and decreased PaCO2. CNS disturbances are found in extreme hyponatremia and fluid overload.
You are caring for a patient with a diagnosis of pancreatitis. The patient was admitted from a homeless shelter and is a vague historian. The patient appears malnourished and on day 3 of the patient's admission total parenteral nutrition (TPN) has been started. Why would you know to start the infusion of TPN slowly? A) Patients receiving TPN are at risk for hypercalcemia if calories are started too rapidly. B) Malnourished patients receiving parenteral nutrition are at risk for hypophosphatemia if calories are started too aggressively. C) Malnourished patients who receive fluids too rapidly are at risk for hypernatremia. D) Patients receiving TPN need a slow initiation of treatment in order to allow digestive enzymes to accumulat
Ans: B Feedback: The nurse identifies patients who are at risk for hypophosphatemia and monitors them. Because malnourished patients receiving parenteral nutrition are at risk when calories are introduced too aggressively, preventive measures involve gradually introducing the solution to avoid rapid shifts of phosphorus into the cells. Patients receiving TPN are not at risk for hypercalcemia or hypernatremia if calories or fluids are started to rapidly. Digestive enzymes are not a relevant consideration.
A patient who involved in a workplace accident suffered a penetrating wound of the chest that led to acute respiratory failure. What goal of treatment should the care team prioritize when planning this patient's care? A) Facilitation of long-term intubation B) Restoration of adequate gas exchange C) Attainment of effective coping D) Self-management of oxygen therapy
Ans: B Feedback: The objectives of treatment are to correct the underlying cause of respiratory failure and to restore adequate gas exchange in the lung. This is priority over coping and self-care. Long-term ventilation may or may not be indicated.
An admitting nurse is assessing a patient with COPD. The nurse auscultates diminished breath sounds, which signify changes in the airway. These changes indicate to the nurse to monitor the patient for what? A) Kyphosis and clubbing of the fingers B) Dyspnea and hypoxemia C) Sepsis and pneumothorax D) Bradypnea and pursed lip breathing
Ans: B Feedback: These changes in the airway require that the nurse monitor the patient for dyspnea and hypoxemia. Kyphosis is a musculoskeletal problem. Sepsis and pneumothorax are atypical complications. Tachypnea is much more likely than bradypnea. Pursed lip breathing can relieve dyspnea.
A nurse's assessment reveals that a client with COPD may be experiencing bronchospasm. What assessment finding would suggest that the patient is experiencing bronchospasm? A) Fine or coarse crackles on auscultation B) Wheezes or diminished breath sounds on auscultation C) Reduced respiratory rate or lethargy D) Slow, deliberate respirations
Ans: B Feedback: Wheezing and diminished breath sounds are consistent with bronchospasm. Crackles are usually attributable to other respiratory or cardiac pathologies. Bronchospasm usually results in rapid, inefficient breathing and agitation.
A nurse is assessing a patient who is suspected of having bronchiectasis. The nurse should consider which of the following potential causes? Select all that apply. A) Pulmonary hypertension B) Airway obstruction C) Pulmonary infections D) Genetic disorders E) Atelectasis
Ans: B, C, D Feedback: Bronchiectasis is a chronic, irreversible dilation of the bronchi and bronchioles. Under the new definition of COPD, it is considered a disease process separate from COPD. Bronchiectasis may be caused by a variety of conditions, including airway obstruction, diffuse airway injury, pulmonary infections and obstruction of the bronchus or complications of long-term pulmonary infections, or genetic disorders such as cystic fibrosis. Bronchiectasis is not caused by pulmonary hypertension or atelectasis.
An interdisciplinary team is planning the care of a patient with bronchiectasis. What aspects of care should the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply. A) Occupational therapy B) Antimicrobial therapy C) Positive pressure isolation D) Chest physiotherapy E) Smoking cessation
Ans: B, D, E Feedback: Chest physiotherapy, antibiotics, and smoking cessation are cornerstones of the care of patients with bronchiectasis. Occupational therapy and isolation are not normally indicated.
A patient is brought to the ED by ambulance after a motor vehicle accident in which the patient received blunt trauma to the chest. The patient is in acute respiratory failure, is intubated, and is transferred to the ICU. What parameters of care should the nurse monitor most closely? Select all that apply. A) Coping B) Level of consciousness C) Oral intake D) Arterial blood gases E) Vital signs
Ans: B, D, E Feedback: Patients are usually treated in the ICU. The nurse assesses the patient's respiratory status by monitoring the level of responsiveness, ABGs, pulse oximetry, and vital signs. Oral intake and coping are not immediate priorities during the acute stage of treatment, but would become more important later during recovery.
The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a patient who developed a pulmonary embolism after total knee surgery. The patient has been converted from heparin to sodium warfarin (Coumadin) anticoagulant therapy. What should the nurse teach the client? A) Coumadin will continue to break up the clot over a period of weeks B) Coumadin must be taken concurrent with ASA to achieve anticoagulation. C) Anticoagulant therapy usually lasts between 3 and 6 months. D) He should take a vitamin supplement containing vitamin K
Ans: C Feedback: Anticoagulant therapy prevents further clot formation, but cannot be used to dissolve a clot. The therapy continues for approximately 3 to 6 months and is not combined with ASA. Vitamin K reverses the effect of anticoagulant therapy and normally should not be taken.
When assessing for substances that are known to harm workers' lungs, the occupational health nurse should assess their potential exposure to which of the following? A) Organic acids B) Propane C) Asbestos D) Gypsum
Ans: C Feedback: Asbestos is among the more common causes of pneumoconiosis. Organic acids, propane, and gypsum do not have this effect.
A student nurse is preparing to care for a patient with bronchiectasis. The student nurse should recognize that this patient is likely to experience respiratory difficulties related to what pathophysiologic process? A) Intermittent episodes of acute bronchospasm B) Alveolar distention and impaired diffusion C) Dilation of bronchi and bronchioles D) Excessive gas exchange in the bronchioles
Ans: C Feedback: Bronchiectasis is a chronic, irreversible dilation of the bronchi and bronchioles that results from destruction of muscles and elastic connective tissue. It is not characterized by acute bronchospasm, alveolar distention, or excessive gas exchange.
A patient presents to the ED stating she was in a boating accident about 3 hours ago. Now the patient has complaints of headache, fatigue, and the feeling that he "just can't breathe enough." The nurse notes that the patient is restless and tachycardic with an elevated blood pressure. This patient may be in the early stages of what respiratory problem? A) Pneumoconiosis B) Pleural effusion C) Acute respiratory failure D) Pneumonia
Ans: C Feedback: Early signs of acute respiratory failure are those associated with impaired oxygenation and may include restlessness, fatigue, headache, dyspnea, air hunger, tachycardia, and increased blood pressure. As the hypoxemia progresses, more obvious signs may be present, including confusion, lethargy, tachycardia, tachypnea, central cyanosis, diaphoresis, and, finally, respiratory arrest. Pneumonia is infectious and would not result from trauma. Pneumoconiosis results from exposure to occupational toxins. A pleural effusion does not cause this constellation of symptoms.
One day after a patient is admitted to the medical unit, you note that the patient is oliguric. You notify the acute-care nurse practitioner who orders a fluid challenge of 200 mL of normal saline solution over 15 minutes. This intervention will achieve which of the following? A) Help distinguish hyponatremia from hypernatremia B) Help evaluate pituitary gland function C) Help distinguish reduced renal blood flow from decreased renal function D) Help provide an effective treatment for hypertension-induced oliguria
Ans: C Feedback: If a patient is not excreting enough urine, the health care provider needs to determine whether the depressed renal function is the result of reduced renal blood flow, which is a fluid volume deficit (FVD or prerenal azotemia), or acute tubular necrosis that results in necrosis or cellular death from prolonged FVD. A typical example of a fluid challenge involves administering 100 to 200 mL of normal saline solution over 15 minutes. The response by a patient with FVD but with normal renal function is increased urine output and an increase in blood pressure. Laboratory examinations are needed to distinguish hyponatremia from hypernatremia. A fluid challenge is not used to evaluate pituitary gland function. A fluid challenge may provide information regarding hypertension-induced oliguria, but it is not an effective treatment.
The nurse is assessing a patient whose respiratory disease in characterized by chronic hyperinflation of the lungs. What would the nurse most likely assess in this patient? A) Signs of oxygen toxicity B) Chronic chest pain C) A barrel chest D) Long, thin fingers
Ans: C Feedback: In COPD patients with a primary emphysematous component, chronic hyperinflation leads to the barrel chest thorax configuration. The nurse most likely would not assess chest pain or long, thin fingers; these are not characteristic of emphysema. The patient would not show signs of oxygen toxicity unless he or she received excess supplementary oxygen.
ou are making initial shift assessments on your patients. While assessing one patient's peripheral IV site, you note edema around the insertion site. How should you document this complication related to IV therapy? A) Air emboli B) Phlebitis C) Infiltration D) Fluid overload
Ans: C Feedback: Infiltration is the administration of nonvesicant solution or medication into the surrounding tissue. This can occur when the IV cannula dislodges or perforates the wall of the vein. Infiltration is characterized by edema around the insertion site, leakage of IV fluid from the insertion site, discomfort and coolness in the area of infiltration, and a significant decrease in the flow rate. Air emboli, phlebitis, and fluid overload are not indications of infiltration.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client with COPD. When teaching the client about breathing exercises, what should the nurse include in the teaching? A) Lie supine to facilitate air entry B) Avoid pursed lip breathing C) Use diaphragmatic breathing D) Use chest breathing
Ans: C Feedback: Inspiratory muscle training and breathing retraining may help improve breathing patterns in patients with COPD. Training in diaphragmatic breathing reduces the respiratory rate, increases alveolar ventilation, and, sometimes, helps expel as much air as possible during expiration. Pursed-lip breathing helps slow expiration, prevents collapse of small airways, and controls the rate and depth of respiration. Diaphragmatic breathing, not chest breathing, increases lung expansion. Supine positioning does not aid breathing.
The nurse is reviewing the electronic health record of a patient with an empyema. What health problem in the patient's history is most likely to have caused the empyema? A) Smoking B) Asbestosis C) Pneumonia D) Lung cancer
Ans: C Feedback: Most empyemas occur as complications of bacterial pneumonia or lung abscess. Cancer, smoking, and asbestosis are not noted to be common causes.
A patient arrives in the emergency department with an attack of acute bronchiectasis. Chest auscultation reveals the presence of copious secretions. What intervention should the nurse prioritize in this patient's care? A) Oral administration of diuretics B) Intravenous fluids to reduce the viscosity of secretions C) Postural chest drainage D) Pulmonary function testing
Ans: C Feedback: Postural drainage is part of all treatment plans for bronchiectasis, because draining of the bronchiectatic areas by gravity reduces the amount of secretions and the degree of infection. Diuretics and IV fluids will not aid in the mobilization of secretions. Lung function testing may be indicated, but this assessment will not relieve the patient's symptoms.
You are caring for a 65-year-old male patient admitted to your medical unit 72 hours ago with pyloric stenosis. A nasogastric tube placed upon admission has been on low intermittent suction ever since. Upon review of the morning's blood work, you notice that the patient's potassium is below reference range. You should recognize that the patient may be at risk for what imbalance? A) Hypercalcemia B) Metabolic acidosis C) Metabolic alkalosis D) Respiratory acidosi
Ans: C Feedback: Probably the most common cause of metabolic alkalosis is vomiting or gastric suction with loss of hydrogen and chloride ions. The disorder also occurs in pyloric stenosis in which only gastric fluid is lost. Vomiting, gastric suction, and pyloric stenosis all remove potassium and can cause hypokalemia. This patient would not be at risk for hypercalcemia; hyperparathyroidism and cancer account for almost all cases of hypercalcemia. The nasogastric tube is removing stomach acid and will likely raise pH. Respiratory acidosis is unlikely since no change was reported in the patient's respiratory status.
The nurse in the medical ICU is caring for a patient who is in respiratory acidosis due to inadequate ventilation. What diagnosis could the patient have that could cause inadequate ventilation? A) Endocarditis B) Multiple myeloma C) Guillain-Barré syndrome D) Overdose of amphetamines
Ans: C Feedback: Respiratory acidosis is always due to inadequate excretion of CO2 with inadequate ventilation, resulting in elevated plasma CO2 concentrations and, consequently, increased levels of carbonic acid. Acute respiratory acidosis occurs in emergency situations, such as acute pulmonary edema, aspiration of a foreign object, atelectasis, pneumothorax, overdose of sedatives, sleep apnea, administration of oxygen to a patient with chronic hypercapnia (excessive CO2 in the blood), severe pneumonia, and acute respiratory distress syndrome. Respiratory acidosis can also occur in diseases that impair respiratory muscles, such as muscular dystrophy, myasthenia gravis, and Guillain-Barré syndrome. The other listed diagnoses are not associated with respiratory acidosis.
A gerontologic nurse is teaching a group of medical nurses about the high incidence and mortality of pneumonia in older adults. What is a contributing factor to this that the nurse should describe? A) Older adults have less compliant lung tissue than younger adults. B) Older adults are not normally candidates for pneumococcal vaccination. C) Older adults often lack the classic signs and symptoms of pneumonia. D) Older adults often cannot tolerate the most common antibiotics used to treat pneumonia.
Ans: C Feedback: The diagnosis of pneumonia may be missed because the classic symptoms of cough, chest pain, sputum production, and fever may be absent or masked in older adult patients. Mortality from pneumonia in the elderly is not a result of limited antibiotic options or lower lung compliance. The pneumococcal vaccine is appropriate for older adults.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving oxygen therapy for pneumonia. How should the nurse best assess whether the patient is hypoxemic? A) Assess the patient's level of consciousness (LOC). B) Assess the patient's extremities for signs of cyanosis. C) Assess the patient's oxygen saturation level. D) Review the patient's hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red blood cell levels.
Ans: C Feedback: The effectiveness of the patient's oxygen therapy is assessed by the ABG analysis or pulse oximetry. ABG results may not be readily available. Presence or absence of cyanosis is not an accurate indicator of oxygen effectiveness. The patient's LOC may be affected by hypoxia, but not every change in LOC is related to oxygenation. Hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red blood cell levels do not directly reflect current oxygenation status.
A nurse is planning care for a nephrology patient with a new nursing graduate. The nurse states, A patient in renal failure partially loses the ability to regulate changes in pH. What is the cause of this partial inability? A) The kidneys regulate and reabsorb carbonic acid to change and maintain pH. B) The kidneys buffer acids through electrolyte changes. C) The kidneys regenerate and reabsorb bicarbonate to maintain a stable pH. D) The kidneys combine carbonic acid and bicarbonate to maintain a stable pH
Ans: C Feedback: The kidneys regulate the bicarbonate level in the ECF; they can regenerate bicarbonate ions as well as reabsorb them from the renal tubular cells. In respiratory acidosis and most cases of metabolic acidosis, the kidneys excrete hydrogen ions and conserve bicarbonate ions to help restore balance. The lungs regulate and reabsorb carbonic acid to change and maintain pH. The kidneys do not buffer acids through electrolyte changes; buffering occurs in reaction to changes in pH. Carbonic acid works as the chemical medium to exchange O2 and CO2 in the lungs to maintain a stable pH whereas the kidneys use bicarbonate as the chemical medium to maintain a stable pH by moving and eliminating H+.
You are called to your patient's room by a family member who voices concern about the patient's status. On assessment, you find the patient tachypnic, lethargic, weak, and exhibiting a diminished cognitive ability. You also find 3+ pitting edema. What electrolyte imbalance is the most plausible cause of this patient's signs and symptoms? A) Hypocalcemia B) Hyponatremia C) Hyperchloremia D) Hypophosphatemia
Ans: C Feedback: The signs and symptoms of hyperchloremia are the same as those of metabolic acidosis: hypervolemia and hypernatremia. Tachypnea; weakness; lethargy; deep, rapid respirations; diminished cognitive ability; and hypertension occur. If untreated, hyperchloremia can lead to a decrease in cardiac output, dysrhythmias, and coma. A high chloride level is accompanied by a high sodium level and fluid retention. With hypocalcemia, you would expect tetany. There would not be edema with hyponatremia. Signs or symptoms of hypophosphatemia are mainly neurologic.
The nurse is assessing the patient for the presence of a Chvostek's sign. What electrolyte imbalance would a positive Chvostek's sign indicate? A) Hypermagnesemia B) Hyponatremia C) Hypocalcemia D) Hyperkalemia
Ans: C Feedback: You can induce Chvostek's sign by tapping the patient's facial nerve adjacent to the ear. A brief contraction of the upper lip, nose, or side of the face indicates Chvostek's sign. Both hypomagnesemia and hypocalcemia may be tested using the Chvostek's sign.
A nurse is creating a health promotion intervention focused on chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). What should the nurse identify as a complication of COPD? A) Lung cancer B) Cystic fibrosis C) Respiratory failure D) Hemothorax
Ans: C Feedback: Complications of COPD include respiratory failure, pneumothorax, atelectasis, pneumonia, and pulmonary hypertension (corpulmonale). Lung cancer, cystic fibrosis, and hemothorax are not common complications.
You are caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Your patient's plan of care includes assessment of specific gravity every 4 hours. The results of this test will allow the nurse to assess what aspect of the patient's health? A) Nutritional status B) Potassium balance C) Calcium balance D) Fluid volume status
Ans: D Feedback: A specific gravity will detect if the patient has a fluid volume deficit or fluid volume excess. Nutrition, potassium, and calcium levels are not directly indicated.
A clinic nurse is caring for a patient who has just been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The patient asks the nurse what he could have done to minimize the risk of contracting this disease. What would be the nurse's best answer? A) The most important risk factor for COPD is exposure to occupational toxins. B) The most important risk factor for COPD is inadequate exercise. C) The most important risk factor for COPD is exposure to dust and pollen. D) The most important risk factor for COPD is cigarette smoking.
Ans: D Feedback: The most important risk factor for COPD is cigarette smoking. Lack of exercise and exposure to dust and pollen are not risk factors for COPD. Occupational risks are significant but are far exceeded by smoking.
You are an emergency-room nurse caring for a trauma patient. Your patient has the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.26, PaCO2 28, HCO3 11 mEq/L. How would you interpret these results? A) Respiratory acidosis with no compensation B) Metabolic alkalosis with a compensatory alkalosis C) Metabolic acidosis with no compensation D) Metabolic acidosis with a compensatory respiratory alkalosis
Ans: D Feedback: A low pH indicates acidosis (normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45). The PaCO3 is also low, which causes alkalosis. The bicarbonate is low, which causes acidosis. The pH bicarbonate more closely corresponds with a decrease in pH, making the metabolic component the primary problem.
A nursing is planning the care of a patient with emphysema who will soon be discharged. What teaching should the nurse prioritize in the plan of care? A) Taking prophylactic antibiotics as ordered B) Adhering to the treatment regimen in order to cure the disease C) Avoiding airplanes, buses, and other crowded public places D) Setting realistic short-term and long-range goals
Ans: D Feedback: A major area of teaching involves setting and accepting realistic short-term and long-range goals. Emphysema is not considered curable and antibiotics are not used on a preventative basis. The patient does not normally need to avoid public places.
A nurse is documenting the results of assessment of a patient with bronchiectasis. What would the nurse most likely include in documentation? A) Sudden onset of pleuritic chest pain B) Wheezes on auscultation C) Increased anterior-posterior (A-P) diameter D) Clubbing of the fingers
Ans: D Feedback: Characteristic symptoms of bronchiectasis include chronic cough and production of purulent sputum in copious amounts. Clubbing of the fingers also is common because of respiratory insufficiency. Sudden pleuritic chest pain is a common manifestation of a pulmonary embolism. Wheezes on auscultation are common in patients with asthma. An increased A-P diameter is noted in patients with COPD.
You are caring for a patient with a secondary diagnosis of hypermagnesemia. What assessment finding would be most consistent with this diagnosis? A) Hypertension B) Kussmaul respirations C) Increased DTRs D) Shallow respirations
Ans: D Feedback: If hypermagnesemia is suspected, the nurse monitors the vital signs, noting hypotension and shallow respirations. The nurse also observes for decreased DTRs and changes in the level of consciousness. Kussmaul breathing is a deep and labored breathing pattern associated with severe metabolic acidosis, particularly diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), but also renal failure. This type of patient is associated with decreased DTRs, not increased DTRs.
The nurse caring for a patient recently diagnosed with lung disease encourages the patient not to smoke. What is the primary rationale behind this nursing action? A) Smoking decreases the amount of mucus production. B) Smoke particles compete for binding sites on hemoglobin. C) Smoking causes atrophy of the alveoli. D) Smoking damages the ciliary cleansing mechanism.
Ans: D Feedback: In addition to irritating the mucous cells of the bronchi and inhibiting the function of alveolar macrophage (scavenger) cells, smoking damages the ciliary cleansing mechanism of the respiratory tract. Smoking also increases the amount of mucus production and distends the alveoli in the lungs. It reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of hemoglobin, but not by directly competing for binding sites.
A nurse is preparing to perform an admission assessment on a patient with COPD. It is most important for the nurse to review which of the following? A) Social work assessment B) Insurance coverage C) Chloride levels D) Available diagnostic tests
Ans: D Feedback: In addition to the patient's history, the nurse reviews the results of available diagnostic tests. Social work assessment is not a priority for the majority of patients. Chloride levels are relevant to CF, not COPD. Insurance coverage is not normally the domain of the nurse.
The ICU nurse is caring for a patient who experienced trauma in a workplace accident. The patient is complaining of having trouble breathing with abdominal pain. An ABG reveals the following results: pH 7.28, PaCO2 50 mm Hg, HCO3- 23 mEq/L. The nurse should recognize the likelihood of what acidbase disorder? A) Respiratory acidosis B) Metabolic alkalosis C) Respiratory alkalosis D) Mixed acidbase disorder
Ans: D Feedback: Patients can simultaneously experience two or more independent acidbase disorders. A normal pH in the presence of changes in the PaCO2 and plasma HCO3 concentration immediately suggests a mixed disorder, making the other options incorrect.
A patient is having pulmonary-function studies performed. The patient performs a spirometry test, revealing an FEV1/FVC ratio of 60%. How should the nurse interpret this assessment finding? A) Strong exercise tolerance B) Exhalation volume is normal C) Respiratory infection D) Obstructive lung disease
Ans: D Feedback: Spirometry is used to evaluate airflow obstruction, which is determined by the ratio of forced expiration volume in 1 second to forced vital capacity. Obstructive lung disease is apparent when an FEV1/FVC ratio is less than 70%.
An 87-year-old patient has been hospitalized with pneumonia. Which nursing action would be a priority in this patient's plan of care? A) Nasogastric intubation B) Administration of probiotic supplements C) Bedrest D) Cautious hydration
Ans: D Feedback: Supportive treatment of pneumonia in the elderly includes hydration (with caution and with frequent assessment because of the risk of fluid overload in the elderly); supplemental oxygen therapy; and assistance with deep breathing, coughing, frequent position changes, and early ambulation. Mobility is not normally discouraged and an NG tube is not necessary in most cases. Probiotics may or may not be prescribed for the patient.
You are caring for a patient who is being treated on the oncology unit with a diagnosis of lung cancer with bone metastases. During your assessment, you note the patient complains of a new onset of weakness with abdominal pain. Further assessment suggests that the patient likely has a fluid volume deficit. You should recognize that this patient may be experiencing what electrolyte imbalance? A) Hypernatremia B) Hypomagnesemia C) Hypophosphatemia D) Hypercalcemia
Ans: D Feedback: The most common causes of hypercalcemia are malignancies and hyperparathyroidism. Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and constipation are common symptoms of hypercalcemia. Dehydration occurs with nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and calcium reabsorption at the proximal renal tubule. Abdominal and bone pain may also be present. Primary manifestations of hypernatremia are neurologic and would not include abdominal pain and dehydration. Tetany is the most characteristic manifestation of hypomagnesemia, and this scenario does not mention tetany. The patient's presentation is inconsistent with hypophosphatemia.
You are working on a burns unit and one of your acutely ill patients is exhibiting signs and symptoms of third spacing. Based on this change in status, you should expect the patient to exhibit signs and symptoms of what imbalance? A) Metabolic alkalosis B) Hypermagnesemia C) Hypercalcemia D) Hypovolemia
Ans: D Feedback: Third-spacing fluid shift, which occurs when fluid moves out of the intravascular space but not into the intracellular space, can cause hypovolemia. Increased calcium and magnesium levels are not indicators of third-spacing fluid shift. Burns typically cause acidosis, not alkalosis.
The case manager for a group of patients with COPD is providing health education. What is most important for the nurse to assess when providing instructions on self-management to these patients? A) Knowledge of alternative treatment modalities B) Family awareness of functional ability and activities of daily living (ADLs) C) Knowledge of the pathophysiology of the disease process D) Knowledge about self-care and their therapeutic regimen
Ans: D Feedback: When providing instructions about self-management, it is important for the nurse to assess the knowledge of patients and family members about self-care and the therapeutic regimen. This supersedes knowledge of alternative treatments or the pathophysiology of the disease, neither of which is absolutely necessary for patients to know. The patient's own knowledge is more important than that of the family.
A nurse is caring for a patient with COPD. The patient's medication regimen has been recently changed and the nurse is assessing for therapeutic effect of a new bronchodilator. What assessment parameters suggest a consequent improvement in respiratory status? Select all that apply. A) Negative sputum culture B) Increased viscosity of lung secretions C) Increased respiratory rate D) Increased expiratory flow rate E) Relief of dyspnea
Ans: D, E Feedback: The relief of bronchospasm is confirmed by measuring improvement in expiratory flow rates and volumes (the force of expiration, how long it takes to exhale, and the amount of air exhaled) as well as by assessing the dyspnea and making sure that it has lessened. Increased respiratory rate and viscosity of secretions would suggest a worsening of the patient's respiratory status. Bronchodilators would not have a direct result on the patient's infectious process.
The public health nurse is administering Mantoux tests to children who are being registered for kindergarten in the community. How should the nurse administer this test? A) Administer intradermal injections into the children's inner forearms. B) Administer intramuscular injections into each child's vastus lateralis. C) Administer a subcutaneous injection into each child's umbilical area. D) Administer a subcutaneous injection at a 45-degree angle into each child's deltoid.
Ans: A Feedback: The purified protein derivative (PPD) is always injected into the intradermal layer of the inner aspect of the forearm. The subcutaneous and intramuscular routes are not utilized.
A client has a positive reaction to the PPD test. The nurse correctly interprets this reaction to mean that the client has: A Active TB B Had contact with Mycobacterium tuberculosis C Developed a resistance to tubercle bacilli D Developed passive immunity to TB
B) A positive PPD test indicates that the client has been exposed to tubercle bacilli. Exposure does not necessarily mean that active disease exists.
INH treatment is associated with the development of peripheral neuropathies. Which of the following interventions would the nurse teach the client to help prevent this complication? A Adhere to a low cholesterol diet B Supplement the diet with pyridoxine (vitamin B6) C Get extra rest D Avoid excessive sun exposure
B) INH competes with the available vitamin B6 in the body and leaves the client at risk for development of neuropathies related to vitamin deficiency. Supplemental vitamin B6 is routinely prescribed.
A community health nurse is conducting an educational session with community members regarding TB. The nurse tells the group that one of the first symptoms associated with TB is: A A bloody, productive cough B A cough with the expectoration of mucoid sputum C Chest pain D Dyspnea
B) One of the first pulmonary symptoms includes a slight cough with the expectoration of mucoid sputum.
A client has active TB. Which of the following symptoms will he exhibit? A) Chest and lower back pain B) Chills, fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis C) Fever of more than 104*F and nausea D) Headache and photophobia
B) Typical signs and symptoms are chills, fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis. Chest pain may be present from coughing, but isn't usual. Clients with TB typically have low-grade fevers, not higher than 102*F. Nausea, headache, and photophobia aren't usual TB symptoms.
The nurse is teaching a client who has been diagnosed with TB how to avoid spreading the disease to family members. Which statement(s) by the client indicate(s) that he has understood the nurses instructions? Select all that apply. A "I will need to dispose of my old clothing when I return home." B "I should always cover my mouth and nose when sneezing." C "It is important that I isolate myself from family when possible." D "I should use paper tissues to cough in and dispose of them properly." E "I can use regular plate and utensils whenever I eat."
B, D, and E
Air Trapping
Because air is trapped in the lungs, the lungs become hyper inflated. This leads to poor oxygen exchange as well as structural changes in the chest leading to the classic "barrel chest".
A client with a positive Mantoux test result will be sent for a chest x-ray. For which of the following reasons is this done? A To confirm the diagnosis B To determine if a repeat skin test is needed C To determine the extent of the lesions D To determine if this is a primary or secondary infection
C) If the lesions are large enough, the chest x-ray will show their presence in the lungs. Sputum culture confirms the diagnosis. There can be false-positive and false-negative skin test results. A chest x-ray can't determine if this is a primary or secondary infection.
A client diagnosed with active TB would be hospitalized primarily for which of the following reasons? A To evaluate his condition B To determine his compliance C To prevent spread of the disease D To determine the need for antibiotic therapy
C) The client with active TB is highly contagious until three consecutive sputum cultures are negative, so he's put in respiratory isolation in the hospital.
Which of the following diagnostic tests is definitive for TB? A Chest x-ray B Mantoux test C Sputum culture D Tuberculin test
C) The sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the only method of confirming the diagnosis. Lesions in the lung may not be big enough to be seen on x-ray. Skin tests may be falsely positive or falsely negative.
Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) have been prescribed for a client with TB. A nurse reviews the medical record of the client. Which of the following, if noted in the client's history, would require physician notification? A Heart disease B Allergy to penicillin C Hepatitis B D Rheumatic fever
C) Isoniazid and rafampin are contraindicated in clients with acute liver disease or a history of hepatic injury.
COPD Patho
Chronic Bronchitis and Emphysema
Complications of COPD
Cor Pulmonale Secondary Polycythemia Vera
A chest x-ray should a client's lungs to be clear. His Mantoux test is positive, with a 10mm if induration. His previous test was negative. These test results are possible because: A He had TB in the past and no longer has it. B He was successfully treated for TB, but skin tests always stay positive C He's a "seroconverter", meaning the TB has gotten to his bloodstream D He's a "tuberculin converter," which means he has been infected with TB since his last skin test
D
A client is diagnosed with active TB and started on triple antibiotic therapy. What signs and symptoms would the client show if therapy is inadequate? A Decreased shortness of breath B Improved chest x-ray C Nonproductive cough D Positive acid-fast bacilli in a sputum sample after 2 months of treatment
D) Continuing to have acid-fast bacilli in the sputum after 2 months indicated continued infection.
The nurse should include which of the following instructions when developing a teaching plan for clients receiving INH and rifampin for treatment for TB? A Take the medication with antacids B Double the dosage if a drug dose is forgotten C Increase intake of dairy products D Limit alcohol intake
D) INH and rifampin are hepatotoxic drugs. Clients should be warned to limit intake of alcohol during drug therapy. Both drugs should be taken on an empty stomach. If antacids are needed for GI distress, they should be taken 1 hour before or 2 hours after these drugs are administered. Clients should not double the dosage of these drugs because of their potential toxicity. Clients taking INH should avoid foods that are rich in tyramine, such as cheese and dairy products, or they may develop hypertension.
A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with TB. Which assessment, if made by the nurse, would not be consistent with the usual clinical presentation of TB and may indicate the development of a concurrent problem? A Nonproductive or productive cough B Anorexia and weight loss C Chills and night sweats D High-grade fever
D) The client with TB usually experiences cough (non-productive or productive), fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, dyspnea, hemoptysis, chest discomfort or pain, chills and sweats (which may occur at night), and a low-grade fever.
A client with a positive skin test for TB isn't showing signs of active disease. To help prevent the development of active TB, the client should be treated with isoniazid, 300 mg daily, for how long? A 10 to 14 days B 2 to 4 weeks C 3 to 6 months D 9 to 12 months
D) Because of the increased incidence of resistant strains of TB, the disease must be treated for up to 24 months in some cases, but treatment typically lasts for 9-12 months. Isoniazid is the most common medication used for the treatment of TB, but other antibiotics are added to the regimen to obtain the best results.
Which of the following family members exposed to TB would be at highest risk for contracting the disease? A 45-year-old mother B 17-year-old daughter C 8-year-old son D 76-year-old grandmother
D) Elderly persons are believed to be at higher risk for contracting TB because of decreased immunocompetence. Other high-risk populations in the US include the urban poor, AIDS, and minority groups.
What does the INH drug do for TB
It is the only drug that is a prevent the development of TB after exposure. It is a liver toxic drug ( liver panel need to be checked when taking this medication) AST, ALT, causes peripheral neuropathy damage to nerves give Niacin Vit b6 to prevent peripheral neruopathy
What is tenancy
It the concentration of the blood 0.9 %
what other places besides the lung can TB be found
Lymph nodes pleura brain kidneys joints bones
COPD Nutrition
More than 30 percent of people with severe COPD are too short of breath to eat. Weight loss and cachexia can develop. Interventions to aid in nutrition include Eat small, frequent meals with nutrient-dense foods Eat meals that require little preparation Eat foods that do not require a lot of chewing; avoid use of straws Rest before meals Take a daily multivitamin Nutritional supplements
Diffusion
Movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
Characteristics of Chronic Bronchitis (cont.)
Often dramatic cyanosis Hypercapnia and hypoxemia may be present Frequent cor pulmonale Secondary polycythemia vera Numerous life threatening episodes due to acute exacerbations
what medications are used to treat TB
Rifampin Isoniazid Pyrazinamide Ethambutal
Polycythemia Vera
Secondary Polycythemia results from either ventilation or perfusion problems which actually cause reduced oxygenation (hypoxia) or a perceived hypoxia R/T decreased renal perfusion Diagnostic Tests: Elevated RBCs, WBC, PLTs, Elevated Hgb and Hct (>60%)
Secondary Polycythemia Vera
Secondary polycythemia vera often develops directly as a result of COPD. Because COPD causes decreased oxygenation, the kidney attempts to increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.
Characteristics of Chronic Bronchitis
Smoking history Age of onset 30 - 40 years Barrel chest may be present Shortness of breath predominant early symptom Rhonchi often present Sputum frequent early manifestation
Characteristics of Pulmonary Emphysema
Smoking history Age of onset: 40 - 50 years Often dramatic barrel chest Weight loss Decreased breath sounds Normal blood gases until late in disease process Cor pulmonale only in advanced cases Slowly debilitating disease
Osmosis
The movement of water
Which statements reflects the nursing management of the client with West Nile virus infection? The incubation period for the virus is 3 to 4 days. Clients with West Nile virus present with gastrointestinal symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. There is no treatment for West Nile virus infection. Transmission of West Nile virus occurs from human to human.
There is not treatment for west Nile virus
What components of the blood do meds attach to albumin
To absorb and distribute medication you need to have normal levels albumin Liver makes protein which turns to albumin When a person does not have enough albumin in thier body you will have increased blood fluid in the abdomen What you need to know is that it's a protein made of liver that holds water in the vascular space
Polycythemia Vera - Treatment
Treat underlying causes if possible Reduce RBC mass - therapeutic phlebotomy (500 ml) which may be done as often as twice weekly to keep Hct < 60% Chemotherapy to destroy some of the RBC mass Hydration therapy to prevent thrombus formation Limit dietary Iron to decrease RBC production
A client was infected with TB 10 years ago but never developed the disease. He's now being treated for cancer. The client begins to develop signs of TB. This is known as which of the following types of infection? a) active infection b) primary infection c) super infection d) tertiary infection
a) Some people carry dormant TB infections that may develop into active disease. In addition, primary sites of infection containing TB bacilli may remain inactive for years and then activate when the client's resistance is lowered, as when a client is being treated for cancer. There's no such thing as tertiary infection, and superinfection doesn't apply in this case.
What is Emphysema
alveoli are destroyed and other become enlarged and flabby. impaired gas exchange increase amount of air is trapped in the lungs The Hyper flated lung flattens the diaphragm all these conditions increase the work of breathing in late stage low O2 levels die to a hard time getting O2 from the diseased lung to the bloodstream
A client with primary TB infection can expect to develop which of the following conditions? a) Active TB within 2 weeks b) Active TB within 1 month c) A fever that requires hospitalization d) A positive skin test
d) A primary TB infection occurs when the bacillus has successfully invaded the entire body after entering through the lungs. At this point, the bacilli are walled off and skin tests read positive. However, all but infants and immunosuppressed people will remain asymptomatic. The general population has a 10% risk of developing active TB over their lifetime, in many cases because of a break in the body's immune defenses. The active stage shows the classic symptoms of TB: fever, hemoptysis, and night sweats.
What are the three main symptoms of COPD
dyspnea cough sputum
syphilis tertiary stage
final stages normally no S/S it is slow progressiv stage infecting other organs in the body
Pryazinamide side effects
increase uric acid, joint aches GOUT
syphilis secondary stage
occurs 1-6 months involves the truck and exterminates including the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
STD in SC
ranked 5th in the country highest among 15-24 yrs old
Rifampin side effects
turns body secretions orange can damaged contact lens by staining east bruising and bleeding check liver function Hepatitis = adverse reaction drug interactions: birth control pills, implants, methadone treatment sensitivity to sun= sun burn
Ethamutal side effects
visual changes= eye damage this drug is only taken for 2 months only then changed to Pryrazamide
The right forearm of a client who had a purified protein derivative (PPD) test for tuberculosis is reddened and raised about 3mm where the test was given. This PPD would be read as having which of the following results? A) Indeterminate B) Needs to be redone C) Negative D) Positive
•C This test would be classed as negative. A 5 mm raised area would be a positive result if a client was HIV+ or had recent close contact with someone diagnosed with TB. Indeterminate isn't a term used to describe results of a PPD test. If the PPD is reddened and raised 10mm or more, it's considered positive according to the CDC.
Best ways to determine a patients fluid status
● Hematocrit ( states the fluid status of your patient) ● Specific gravity 1.005-1.030 ● Blood pressure ( fluid affects b/p)