Paramedic Comprehensive Review

Your patient is a 48-year-old female who is alert and oriented after a possible seizure. Her friends state they witnessed her slump to the floor and "shake" for about 15 seconds. She awoke in less than 1 minute and was "a bit groggy" for a few minutes. She does not believe she had a seizure, but thinks she may have fainted. Which of the following questions is LEAST important when differentiating seizure and syncope? A. "Did you injure yourself during the event?" B. "What happened just before the event?" C. "What kind of medications do you take?" D. "Do you have a history of seizures?"

"Did you injure yourself during the event?"

The normal QRS complex has a duration of.

0.06 to 0.12 seconds.

The PR interval is normally ____ to ____ seconds in duration.

0.12, 0.20

What is the pediatric dose for nebulized albuterol?

0.15 mcg/kg

Adult first dose of Diltiazem

0.25 mg/kg IV bolus over 2 minutes

What is the correct dose for amyl nitrite?

0.3 mL ampule inhaled every minute

Adult dose of Epinephrine in major allergic reactions

0.3 mg 1:10,000 IV/IO push repeat every 5 minutes as needed

Adult dose of Epinephrine in moderate allergic reaction/ refractory wheezing

0.3 mg IM/SC of 1:1000

For a severe allergic reaction, you should give your adult patient

0.3 mg epinephrine 1:10,000 IV/IO

For a moderate allergic reaction, you should give your adult patient

0.3 mg epinephrine 1:1000 IM/SC

Adult second dose of Dilitiazem

0.35 mg/kg; 15 min after first dose followed by infusion

Adult dose of NTG

0.4 mg SL, may repeat twice every 5 minutes until relief of chest pain

You are dispatched to a dialysis clinic to treat a patient complaining of difficulty breathing. Upon arrival, you find a 71 year old male with bilateral wheezing. A brief history reveals that the patient has a history of asthma and has just completed 15 minutes of his dialysis treatment. The most appropriate IV therapy for this patient would be:

0.45 percent saline with a micro drip set

NTG: Dosage

0.4mg SL, repeat every 3-5 min for 15 min

Atrovent: Dose

0.5 mg nebulized w/ 2.5 mL saline (3mL total)

Adult Dose of atropine for bradycardia

0.5mg IV/IO/IM, may repeat in 5 minutes to MAX of 3mg / 1.0mg ET.

Adult second dose of Lidocaine

0.75 mg/kg IV/IO every 3-5 min as needed to a maximum dose 3 mg/kg

Lymph vessels pass through at least how many lymph nodes before entering the bloodstream?

1

Type _ diabetes usually develops in childhood, and requires at least daily doses of supplemental insulin.

1

Activated Charcoal: Dosage

1 g/kg of body weight, adults usually 25-50g, children 12.5-25g

Adult dose of Calcium Chloride

1 gram (10 cc of 10% solution) slow IV push

Dose for Activated Charcoal

1 gram/kg PO

Adult dose of Sodium Bicarbonate

1 mEq/kg IV/IO

Adult dose of Epinephrine in cardiac arrest

1 mg IV/IO of 1:10,000 every 3-5 minutes or 2-2.5 mg 1:10,000 ET every 3-5 minutes

Adolescent RR

12 - 16

Adult RR

12 - 20

Flow rates for NRB

12-15 L/min

Normal breathing rate for adults

12-20

Your patient is a 67 year old male who complains of upper abdomninal pain, nausea, and weakness. In addition to oxygen and IV access, what is MOST important in the pre-hospital setting for this patient?

12-Lead EKG

Your patient is a 67 year old male who complains of upper abdomninal pain, nausea, and weakness. In addition to oxygen and IV access, which of the following is MOST important in the pre-hospital setting for this patient? A. ausculation of bowel sounds B. 12-Lead EKG C. physical exam of the abdomen D. administration of nitrous oxide

12-Lead EKG

Ventilation rate for adults

12/min

2nd adult dose of Adenosine

12mg rapid IVP, may repeat x 1

Medical control orders an infusion of D5W at 90mL/hr for your 110lbs patient. If you use a 10gtt/mL set, what is the appropriate drip rate?

15 gtt/min

Medical control orders dopamine at 5mcg/kg/min for your 176lbs patient. You add 400mg of dopamine to 250mL of NS. If you use a microdrip set, what is the drip rate?

15 gtt/min

Normal breathing rate for children

15-30

While working on a critcal care transport unit, you recieve a medical order to administer nitroprusside to your 220 lbs patient at 5 mcg/kg/min over a ten minute period to your patient in hypertensive crisis. Your partner has mixed 50mg of nitroprusside in 250 mL of D5W. Using a microdrip set, what is the appropriate drip rate?

150 gtt/min

Adult second dose of Amiodarone

150mg slow IV/IO push

What is the normal percentage of expired oxygen?

16%

School age RR

18 - 30

The first federal law regulating labeling foods and drugs containing certain drugs including cocaine and heroin and also recognized the U.S. Pharmacopeia and the National Formulary as standards authorities for drugs

1906 Pure Food and Drug Act

This year marked the birth of the 'breath of life'

1956

The year that the white paper was published, and the Highway safety act was put in place.

1966

The year 911 was designated as the national emergency telephone number

1968

The year that the NREMT was founded

1970

Your patient is in cardiac arrest and you are unable to establish IV access. However, an ET has successfully been placed. So, you could give your patient:

2.5 mg epinephrine ET diluted in 8-10 mL NS

Albuterol: Dose

2.5 mg nebulized with 2.5 mL saline (for a total of 3mL)

The inherent rate of the ventricle is ________ beats per minute.

20-40

Ventilation rate for children

20/min

Ventilation rate for infants

20/min

What is the percentage of inspired oxygen?

21%

preschooler RR

22 - 34

Toddler RR

24 - 60

What is the adult dose for D50?

25 g

Normal breathing rate for infants

25-50

What is the dose for magnesium sulfate to treat Torsades de Pointes in an adult?

2g in 250mL IV/IO infusion

Adult dose of atropine for organophosphate poisoning

2mg IV/IM/IO every 5 min, titrate to effect

The PR intervals get progressively longer in

2nd-degree AV heart block, Type I.

The adult dose for diazepam to stop seizures is:

5-10mg slow IV/IO

Adult infusion dose of Diltiazem

5-10mg/hr. MAX dose 15mg/hr for 24 hours

Adult dose of dopamine.

5-20 mcg/kg/min IV/IO infusion with a 1600 mcg/mL solution. Start infusion at 2-5 mcg/kg/min and increase gradually by 5 mcg/kg/min until desired effect is achieved. Do not exceed 20 mcg/kg/min

Medical control orders an infusion of amiodarone at 1mg/ min. If you mix 150mg in a 500cc bag of NS and use a 15gtt/mL set, what is the appropriate drip rate for your 220lbs patient?

50 gtt/min

You are ordered to administer 50mcg/kg/hr of glucagon to your beta-blocker overdose patient that weighs 88 lbs. If you mix 4mg of glucagon in 100mL and use a microdrip set, what is the proper drip rate?

50 gtts/min

Medical control orders an Isuprel drip at 0.1mcg/kg/min for 75lbs patient. You mix 1mg Isuprel in 250mL of D5W. If you use a microdrip set, what is the appropriate drip rate?

51 gtt/min

Plasma accounts for approximately what percentage of total blood volume?

54

The first adult dose of adenosine is:

6 mg

sa node rate =

60 - 100

Normal diastolic BP in adults

60 to 90

The inherent rate of the SA node is ________ beats per minute.

60-100

Normal pulse rate for an adult

60-100 bpm

1st Adult dose for Adenosine

6mg rapid IVP

A patient who opens his eyes to pain, has no verbal response, and withdraws from pain would have a GCS of:

7

If the patient is not defibrillated within _______ minutes of a cardiac arrest, there is almost no chance for survival.

8

What is age limit for a cuffed ET-Tube?

8 years old

Normal systolic BP in adults

90 to 150

In an adult, a systolic BP of __ or less is hypotensive

90mmHg

An infant or child patient who exhibits wheezing, increased breathing effort on exhalation, or rapid breathing without stridor probably has:

A lower-airway disease

When provided with a pain stimulus, your patient flexes and/or retracts the stimulated area to avoid or escape thestimulus. This response characterizes:

A withdrawal response to pain

The movement of a substance accross the cell membrane against a concentration gradient is called:

Active transport

___ ___ is usually caused by viruses or bacteria and may last several days or weeks.

Acute bronchitis

Albuterol: Indications

Acute bronchospasm due to asthma or COPD

Moving towards midline

Adduction

Adenosine is also called

Adenocard

If the patient is hemodynamically unstable, administration of this drug should not delay appropriate cardioversion

Adenosine

Which drug should be used to convert PSVT associated with Wolfe-Parkinson- White Syndrome that is refractory to vagal manuevers?

Adenosine

Which of the following drugs is indicated for tachycardia that is narrow complexed and regular?

Adenosine

Do not use this drug for any hr <100, any 2nd or 3rd degree AV block.

Adenosine contraindications

This drug is indicated for PSVT refractory to vagal manuevers

Adenosine indications

This drug slows conduction time through the AV node, can intereupt the reentry pathways through the AV and SA nodes, and can restore NSR in patients with PSVT, including PSVT from WPW

Adenosine mechanism of action

Which of the following statements about influenza is true? A. Adults become contagious the day before symptoms occur and remain contagious for a week B. Each year the CDC creates a vaccine for one strain of influenza A and one strain of influenza B C. Once a person has been infected with influenza, he/she develops life- long immunity to all strains of influenza D. Rimantadine shortens the duration of both Influenza A and Influenza B

Adults become contagious the day before symptoms occur and remain contagious for a week

What layer of the of the gastrointestinal (GI) system is made up of smooth muscle that contracts progressively from the esophagus to the colon?

Adventitia

What is another name for sensory neurons? And what is their purpose?

Afferent neurons. Carry impulses from receptors to the CNS

The process by which the temporary bond between the organophosphate and acetylcholinestrarase undergoes hydrolysis, resulting in a permanent covalent bond.

Aging

Fixed-wing aircraft and helicopters that have been modified for medical care; used to evacuate and transport patients with life threatening injuries to treatment facilities

Air ambulance

Tuberculosis (TB) is an infectious disease that is spread through what kind of transmission?

Airborne

An effective method of treating most asthma attacks in children is

Albuterol Inhalant

The term for normal unequal pupils in a small % of people

Anisocoria

In what order do the heart chambers contract when the heart beats?

Atria then ventricles

Where is blood pressure highest in the systemic circuit?

Aorta

Which cause of chest pain is most likely to present with a severe ripping pain?

Aortic dissection

Where do the left and right coronary arteries originate?

Aortic sinuses

Tip of a structure

Apex

Another name(s) for Diltiazem

Apo-Diltiaz, Cardizem, Dilacor, Tiazac

APGAR stands for?

Appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respiratory effort

Your patient is a 19-year-old male complaining of a 2-day history of abdominal pain described as diffuse and colicky, located around his umbilical area. He also states a loss of appetite and a low- grade fever over the same period. Palpation of his abdomen reveals tenderness and guarding to the periumbilical area. Of the following, which is the most likely cause of his clinical condition? A. Cholecystitis B. Bowel obstruction C. Peptic ulcer disease D. Appendicitis

Appendicitis

Amiodarone is also called...

Aratac, Cordarone, Cordarone X, Pacerone.

At what systolic BP do the kidneys start to fail?

Around <60 or lower

What part of the large intestine extends upward from the cecum?

Ascending colon

Common diseases from rhonchi

Aspiration Pneumonia Emphysema Chronic bronchitis

Placing a patient in a position where he fears for his safety or perceives you mean to cause him harm

Assault

Common diseases from wheezing

Asthma Emphysema Chronic bronchitis

Parasympatholytic. That blocks cholinergic /muscarinic receptor sites causing: increased heart rate, increased conduction through the AV node, reduced motility and GI tone, reduced action and tone of urinary bladder, dilates pupils, suppresses sweating, suppresses lacrimation, suppresses salivation, suppresses secretions in the upper airways, and can result in bronchodilation.

Atropine

This drug is indicated for symptomatic bradycardia, and as an antidote for organophosphate poisoning.

Atropine indications

A drug for which animal studies have not demonstrated a risk to the fetus, but there are no adequate studies in pregnant women would be which pegnancy category?

B

The touching of or contact with another person without that persons consent

Battery

JVD, distant heart tones, Hypotesion

Becks Triad

Which of the following is a demyelination disorder of CN VII?

Bell's palsey

What is the contraction phase of the cardiac cycle called?

Systole

The designated area in a hazardous materials incident where all patients and rescuers must be decontaminated before going to another area

Decontamination area

You respond to a report of a 14-year-old female patient who is reported having difficulty breathing. Upon arrival you find that she is having difficulty breathing, and her mother tells you that the girl has asthma. You consider which events occur with an asthma attack in order to develop a plan of treatment. Which would you NOT expect with an asthma attack?

Decreased secretion of mucous

saying or publicizing something untrue about a person that tends to injure that persons character.

Defamation

the process of direction responders to return to their facilities when work at a disaster or Mass-casulity incident has finished, at least for those particular responders

Demobilization

Which of the following is a common acronymn used to assess vomit?

TACO

A hostage, robbery or other situation in which armed conflict is threatened or shots have been fired and the threat of violence remains

Tactical Situation

Ankle bone means

Talus

A team of individuals from one or more departments in a region who are trained and on call for certain types of technical rescue

Technical rescue group

A rescue that requires special technical skills and equipment in one of many specialized rescue areas, such as technical rope rescue, cave rescue and dive rescue.

Technical rescue situation

Which lobe plays an important role in hearing and memory and is separated from the rest of the cerebrum by a lateral fissure?

Temporal

Severe(RED)- Severe Risk, High(ORANGE)- High Risk, Elevated(Yellow)- Significant Risk, Guarded(BLUE)-General Risk, Low(GREEN)- Low Risk

Terrorist threat levels

Injuries due to being throw and then landing on the ground similar to being ejected out of a car

Tertiary phase injuries

In the United States, the development of the ambulance and the first ambulance system occurred during which war

The Civil War

The legislation in the United States that classifies drugs into five different schedules is known as:

The Controlled Substance Act of 1970

where the primary bronchus, pulmonary artery and veins enter the lung

The Hilus

This is where the renal artery enters, and the renal vein and ureter emerge

The Hilus of the kidney

Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blocker which inhibits calcium ion from entering the "slow channels" or select voltage-sensitive areas of vascular smooth muscle and myocardium during depolarization, producing a relaxation of coronary vascular smooth muscle and coronary vasodilation; increases myocardial oxygen delivery in patients with vasospastic angina.

Dilitiazem

Which of the following drugs is indicated for tachycardia that is narrow complexed and irregular? A. Amiodorone B. Atropine C. Adenosine D. Diltiazem

Diltiazem

Which of the following occurs during depolarization of a cardiac cell? A. Potassium moves into the cell. B. The cell becomes negatively charged. C. Sodium moves out of the cell. D. The cell becomes relatively more positively charged.

The cell becomes relatively more positively charged.

Which of the following is a disease that affects the dopamine-producing basal ganglia and is characterized by tremors, muscle rigidity, and bradydinesia?

Parkinson's Disease

a burn in which the first layer of skin (epidermis) is burned through and the dermis (second layer) is damaged. Burns of this type cause reddening, blistering, and a mottled appearence.

Partial thickness burn - 2nd degree

The lymphatic system is what type of circulatory system?

Passive

The placental barrier is an example of:

Physiological barrier

back of the body

Posterior

The back board is gripped by inserting each hand inder the handle with the palm facing up and the thumb extended, fully supporting the underside of the handle on the curved palm with the fingers and thumb

Power Grip

A lifting technique in which the EMT's back is held upright, with legs bent, and the patient is lifted whtn the EMT straightens the legs to raise the upper body and arms

Power lift

Which of the following statements about rubella and the rubella virus is FALSE? A. Mothers infected with rubella during the first trimesters are at risk for abnormal fetal development. B. The virus is spread via contact with infected blood and body fluids. C. Immunization via the MMR vaccination is 98-99 percent effective. D. EMS providers should receive an MMR vaccination.

The virus is spread via contact with infected blood and body fluids.

Which of the following statements about herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2) is FALSE? A. In addition to painful lesions to the infected area, fever and enlarged lymph nodes can be present during the initial presentation of the infection. B. Treatment with Acyclovir can eradicate the virus. C. There is a low risk of disease transmission via casual contact. D. HSV-2 is responsible for 70-90 percent of all genital herpes cases.

Treatment with Acyclovir can eradicate the virus.

A man is lying on his back with his legs elevated approximately 12 inches and his head down. What is this position called?

Trendelenburg's

The individual in charge of the incident commandtriage sector who directs the sorting of patients into triage categories in a MCI

Triage supervisor

Which valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle?

Tricuspid

T/F: A patient with a depressed immune system can be severely affected by exposure to a minimal infectious disease

True

A system that uses multiple repeaters (five or more) so that the computer can search for an open channel to transmit by.

Trunking system

_______ is a pancreatic enzyme that digest proteins.

Trypsin

a lifting technique used for the patients who are found lying supine on the ground with no suspected spinal injury

Direct ground lift

rA widespread event that disrupts community resources and functions, in turn threatening public safety, citizens' lives and property

Disaster

Structures further from the trunk

Distal

Catecholamine/Sympathomimetic. This drug is a naturally occurring neurotransmitter and immediate precursor of norepinephrine. It has effect on alpha, beta, and dopaminergic receptors of the sympathetic ANS. It's actions differ depending on dosage given

Dopamine

Contraindications of this drug include Hypovolemic shock. Adrenal gland tumor. Tachydysrhythmias. Caution should be used in pregnancy (Cat C), in nursing women, and in children.

Dopamine contraindications

This drug is indicated for: Refractory shock, particularly cardiogenic, distributive, or obstructive

Dopamine indications

This increases in adults with breathing difficulty.

Pulse rate

________ is a drop in systolic blood pressure of more than 10 mmHg with inspiration.

Pulsus paradoxus

What is the thick ring of smooth muscle between the stomach and the small intestine called?

Pyloric sphincter

While examining a patient who is complaining of abdominal pain, the:

Quadrant with pain should be palpated last

A positive impulse immediately following the R wave is called

R prime.

_____ is the accumulation of fluid in the interstitial spaces.

Edema

Which propert of cardiac cells is best described as the ability to respond to an electrical stimulus?

Excitability

When a P' wave follows the QRS complex the PR interval is referred to as the

RP' interval

a lifting technique for patients who are supine or in a sitting position with no suspected extremity or spinal injuries

Extremity lift

Removal of a patient from entrapment or a dangerous situation or position, such as removal wrecked vehicle, industrial accident, or building collapse.

Extrication

In incident command, the person appointed to determine the type of equipment and resources needed for a situation involving extrication or special rescue; also called rescue officer

Extrication supervisor

The confinement of a person against his or her will or without the persons consent

False Imprisonment

A technique to move a patient from a sitting position inside a vehicle to supine on a backboard in less than one minute whrn conditions do not allow for standard immobilization

Rapid Extracation technique

Primum non nocere

First do no harm

A stretcher that is a rigid carrying device when secured around a patient but can be folded or rolled when not in use.

Flexible stretcher

bending of a joint

Flexion

The antagonist for a benzodiazepine medication overdose is called

Flumazenil

Your ambulance is dispatched to a 6-month-old patient who is reported to have been sick for two days with diarrhea and vomiting. After performing the assessment you suspect dehydration. One of the signs you should check is the head, where you would expect to find what landmark sunken?

Fontanelle

The opening in the interatrial septum in a fetal heart.

Foramen Ovale

The colon consists of how many portions?

Four

Cardiac ventricular distention just prior to contraction is directly correlated to stroke volume. This principle is called the:

Frank-Starling principle

The general rule of "more in equals more out," or the greater the amount of blood entering the ventricle, the greater the contraction, is referred to as the:

Frank-Starling principle.

When individual units or different organizations make independent and often inefficient decisions about the next appropriate action

Freelancing

a burn in which all the layers of the skin are damaged. There are usually areas that are charred black or areas that are dry and white

Full thickness burn - 3rd degree

Epinephrine: Contraindications

Glaucoma, shock other than anaphylactic, diabetes, cardiac problems, hypertension, pregnancy, meds include a beta blocker or MAOI

The name for the discoloration around flank indicationg abdominal hemorrhage

Grey turners sign

Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome is an immune deficiency disorder precipitated by

HIV

Which of the following is NOT a typical complication of thoracic aortic aneurysm? A. HTN B. MI C. Hypovolemic shock D. CHF

HTN

Your patient is a 22-year-old female in mild distress who is complaining of left lower quadrant abdominal pain and nausea. Which of the following questions would be LEAST helpful when determining the etiology of her abdominal pain? A. "Have you ever had a sexually transmitted disease?" B. "When did your last menstrual period start?" C. "Are you having any vomiting or diarrhea?" D. "When did the pain start?"

Have you ever had a sexually transmitted disease?

Any substances that re toxic, poisonous, radioactive, flammable, or explosive and cause injury or death with exposure

Hazardous materials

An incident in which a hazardous material is no longer properly contained and isolated

Hazardous materials (HazMat) Incident

Epinephrine: Side Effects

Headache, palpitations, hypertension, tachycardia

Albuterol: Side effects

Headache, tachycardia, hypertension

You respond to a call for a 3-year-old in the care of a babysitter, who reports that the child fell from the top of a sliding board. Upon arrival you find the child lying on the ground in a supine position and not moving. You immediately start to hold in-line stabilization and check the ABCs. As you position your hands, you notice the child's head is tucked forward with the chin touching the chest. Which term best describes this position?

Hyperflexion

Which of the following is NOT a likely immediate cause of acute myocardial infarction?

Hyperlipidemia

You contact medical control and receive an order for 0.45% sodium chloride in water (1/2 NS). Knowing that 0.9% sodium chloride is isotonic to whole blood, what type of solution is 1/2 NS?

Hypotonic

Your patient is a 45-year-old type I diabetic complaining of a 5-day history of abdominal pain, nausea/vomiting, and increased urination and thirst. His skin and mucus membranes are warm and dry. HR =112 bpm and regular, BP = 94/60, RR = 12 and regular. Your treatment for this patient would most likely include:

IV of NS 1-2 L

Your patient is a 45-year-old type I diabetic complaining of a 5-day history of abdominal pain, nausea/vomiting, and increased urination and thirst. His skin and mucus membranes are warm and dry. HR =112 bpm and regular, BP = 94/60, RR = 12 and regular. Your treatment for this patient would most likely include:

IV of NS 1-2 L.

Which of the dysrhythmias arise from the ventricles?

Idioventricular, V-fib, V-tach,

What does Angiotensin do?

It "squeezes" the tank to increase pressure, keeps the fluids in the body

Purpose of ADH?

It allows the distal convoluted tubules and collecting tubules to reabsorb more water from the filtrate. Helps maintain body volume and BP

What does the heart do during hypovolemic shock?

It increases cardiac output by increasing strength and rate of contractions caused by the release of epi

What does Renin do in the renal system?

It initiates the renin-angiotensin to raise the blood pressure, the end product being angotensin II

Which of the following statements about N. meningitidis is TRUE?

It is the bacteria that most often causes serous cases of meningitis.

The point at which the QRS complex meets the ST segment is called the

J point.

An area designated by the IC, or a designee, in which public information officers from multiple agencies disseminate information about the incident

Joint information center

A sorting system for pediatric patients younger than 8 years or weighing less than 100 lb. There is a minor adaptation for infants since then cannot walk on their own.

JumpSTART triage

Which organ occupies the retroperitoneal space?

Kidney

Rapid acting potent sulfonamide loop diuretic that inhibits the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the Loop of Henle. This drug also causes rapid venous dilation.

Lasix

Towards the outside

Lateral

the bone that forms the outer ankle

Lateral malleolus

The circumflex coronary artery is a branch of which coronary artery?

Left coronary artery

What is a very late sign of an ectopic pregnancy?

Low BP

A knife or other impailed object in the body exerts damage to the immediate area of impact and it's underlying structures. The length of the object used is important

Low velocity injuries

What does the lower respiratory tract consist of?

Lower trachea and the lungs, which include the bronchial tubes and alveoli

Your patient has a painful erythema migrans on his leg. He tells you that his symptoms started about three weeks after returning home from a backpacking trip in Montana. He is complaining of joint pain and Bell's palsey. You suspect:

Lyme Disease

What is the inflammation of lymph nodes that is caused by infection called?

Lymphadenitis

This electrolyte acts a physiologic calcium channel blocker and blocks neuromuscular transmission by reducing Ach release at the neuromuscular junction.

Magnesium Sulfate

Calcium chloride or calcium gluconate should be available as an antidote to this drug due to toxicity

Magnesium special considerations

A tear of the esophagus from violent vomiting is known as:

Mallory-Weiss syndrome

An emergency situation involving three or more patients or that can place great demand on the equipment or personnel of the EMS system or has the potential to produce multiple casualties.

Mass-casualty Incident (MCI)

A form, provided by manufacturers and compounders of chemicals containing information about chemical composition, physical and chemical properties, health and safety hazards, emergency response, and waste disposal of a specific material

Material safety data sheet (MSDS)

Towards middle

Medial

The thymus is a triangular gland located where?

Mediastinum

Which connective tissue divides the thoracic cavity into two pleural cavities and encloses the heart?

Mediastinum

A branch of operations in a unified command system, whose three designated sector positions are triage, treatment, and transport

Medical incident command

Med/High velocity projectiles are from pellets or bullets. The damage caused, depends on the Trajectory and the dissipation of energy. Dissipation of energy is affected by Drag,Profile,Cavitation, & Fragmentation.

Medium and high velocity injuries

Medical evacuation of a patient by helicopter

Medivac

Located between the spinal cord and the pons. Control of vital signs and reflex center is located here as well. Coughing, sneezing, vomit, swallowing

Medulla

The respiratory centers are located in?

Medulla and pons

Which portion of the brain has the cardiac and vasomotor centers?

Medulla oblongata

Increased H+ ions, need to exhale more CO2 to decrease and raise pH to normal

Metabolic acidosis

H+ decreased, decrease in respiration to retain CO2

Metabolic alkalosis

Bones in the hand leading to the phalanges

Metacarpals

What term that is used to describe the spread of cancer to lymph nodes?

Metastasis

the bones that lead to the toes. Also called phalanges

Metatarsals

Occurs when a newborn is startled by a noise or sudden movement, the infant reacts by flinging the arms and legs outward and extending the head.

Moro reflex

Narcotic analgesic and opiate agonist that causes analgesia and sedation. This drug increases venous capacitance, decreases venous blood return (reduces preload), and reduces systemic vascular resistance at the arteriolar level (reduces afterload) which may lead to decreases in myocardial oxygen demand.

Morphine

Peak effect of action in this drug, when given IV, is 10 minutes with a duration of 3-5 hours.

Morphine

Which of the following diseases involves inflammation followed by demyelination of the brain and spinal cord nerve fibers?

Multiple sclerosis

A system that allows the crew to transmit voice and data at the same time, enabling the crew to call in a patient report while transmitting an ECG strip to the hospital.

Multiplex

Which of the following statements about mumps is TRUE? A. Mumps are not highly communicable. B. Mumps are of no concern to the adult patient. C. There is no vaccine for the mumps virus. D. Mumps are characterized by enlargement of the salivary glands.

Mumps are characterized by enlargement of the salivary glands.

A complex that comes early in the rhythm that appears to be initiated from outside of the SA node:

Must be caused by ectopy

An agreement between neighboring EMS systems to respond to MCIs or disasters in each other's region when local resources are insufficient to handle the response

Mutual aid response

A deficiency of blood supply to the heart to meet myocardial oxygen needs results in a condition called:

Myocardial ischemia

The muscular wall of the heart is called the what?

Myocardium

A department of Homeland Security system designed to enable federal, state, and local governments and private sector and nongovernmental organizations to effectively and efficiently prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents, regardless of cause, size or complexity, including acts of catastrophic terrorism

National Incident Management System (NIMS)

The failure to act as a reasonably prudent and careful person would under similar circumstances

Negligence

The functional unit of the kidney is_______?

Nephron, each kidney has about 1 million of these

What does the upper respiratory tract consist of?

Nose, nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, and upper trachea

Umbilical cord around the neck; assess by as soon s the head is out of the vagina, run index finger around the neck; if unable to stretch over the babies head, clamp cord 2" apart and cut, then deliver as normal.

Nuchal cord

Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of mitosis? Metaphase, Nucleophase, Anaphase, Telophase

Nucleophase

Low voltage or abnormally small complexes are seen in

Obese patients

The PR interval is the distance from the beginning of the __ to the beginning of the__.

P wave, Q wave

Your 59 year old male patient is complaining of right leg pain and weakness. He tells you that his right thigh aches often while he is resting and always when he tries to walk. His sympotms started about 12 hours prior to your arrival. You note pallor of his right leg compared to his left. He has a history of smoking, hypertension, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia. You suspect:

PAD

Your unit is called to assist the police with a 29 year old male patient. The patient is restrained by officers before your arrival. Apparently, the patient was found naked, running down the center of a busy city street shouting that aliens were chasing him. His vital signs are BP 188/72, P 132, R 28 with dilated pupils. Which drug do you think the patient has taken?

PCP

The main concern for a patient with a DVT is the likely development of which life-threatening complication?

PE

Which chambers of the heart supply with the pulmonary circuit?

Right atrium, right ventricle

Which of the following ECG findings may occur with unstable angina? A. ST segment depression B. Q wave formation C. T wave elevation D. U wave

ST segment depression

patient sorting process limited to assessing the patients ability to walk, respitory status, hemodynamic status, and neurologic status --Simple Triage And Rapid Treatment

START triage

An area of protection providing safety from the danger (hot) zone

Safe zone

In IC, the person who gives the "go ahead" to a plan or who may stop an operation when rescuer safety is an issie.

Safety officer

What classification would a drug be that has a high potential for abuse, and has no currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States.

Schedule I

What classification would a drug be that have a currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States, or currently accepted medical use with severe restrictions, and abuse of the drug or other substances may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence.

Schedule II

This classification of substances are those that have a currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States, and abuse of the drug or other substance may lead to moderate or low physical dependence or high psychological dependence. ie. anabolic steroids, vicodin, or tylenol 3

Schedule III

Benzodiazepines fall into what classification (schedule)

Schedule IV

Small amounts of opiates, such as opium, dihydrocodeine, and diphenoxyate, when used as antitussives or antidiarrheals in combination products are usually classified as:

Schedule V

a stretcher that is designed to be split into two or four sections that can be fitted around a patient who is lying on the ground; also called a split stretcher

Scoop Stretcher

An engineered method to control spilled or released product if the main containment vessel fails.

Secondary containment

Injuries due to flying debris propelled by the blast They are usually lacerations fracture burns

Secondary phase injuires

A type of patient sorting used in the treatment sector that involves retriage of patients.

Secondary triage

A system that allows only one at a time communication. The transmission cannot be interrupted; both operators use the same frequency.

Simplex

Somatic motor is linked to...

Skeletal muscle

Where are somatic sensory neurons found?

Skin, skeletal muscles, and joints

LUQ contains

Stomach, spleen, pancreas, colon

Which of the following is NOT a type of muscle? A. Stratified B. Skeletal C. Cardiac D. Smooth

Stratified

This is the amount of blood ejected by a ventricle during a single beat.

Stroke volume

Which of the following is not one of the three pillars of cardiac function as described in our text?

Stroke volume

Which drug would NOT terminate status epilepticus in any setting?

Succinylcholine

a burn that involves only the epidermis, the outer layer of the skin. It is characterized by reddening of the skin and perhaps some swelling

Superficial burn - 1st degree

Towards the head of the body

Superior

The right atrium receives blood from the head and neck via which vessel?

Superior vena cava

Angina is due to the imbalance in:

Supply and demand for oxygenated blood

The dispatcher informs you that you have call for respiratory distress. While responding, you receive a radio report from a first responder on the scene giving you patient information. The report includes that the patient is a smoker with a history of COPD. Based on the pathophysiology of this disease, which other piece of information is MOST likely to be included in the first responder's radio report?

Symptoms increased gradually over days

Which of the following does NOT help continuously wash away foreign matter? Tears Saliva Synovial fluid Urine

Synovial fluid

While treating a patient for a suspected MI, You have already put the patient on O2, started an IV, Given Nitro, and morphine. You look at the cardiac monitor and notice Ventricular tachycardia. What should your next action be?

Check a pulse

Contraindications of this drug include Sick sinus syndrome, 2nd or 3rd degree heart block, hypotension, wide-complex tachycardia, Wolfe-Parkinson-White syndrome. Use caution in pregnant patients (Cat C), nursing mothers, children, CHF, conduction abnormalities, renal or hepatic impairment, and the elderly.

Contraindications of Diltiazem

In Septic shock, what is released in response to the infection?

Cytokines, which cause damage to the walls of the blood vessels, vasodilation, and leakage of fluid from capillaries

in 1865 this became the first ambulance service in america

Cincinnati General Hospital

The ability of cardiac cells to transmit electrical impulses from cell to cell is referred to as the property of:

conductivity.

The pathophisiology in which the pressure inside of the capillaries at the alveoli-capillary membrane forces fluid into the alveoli causing respiratory distress is known as:

congestive heart failure (CHF)

Bone is an example of which type of tissue?

connective

With 2nd-degree AV heart block, Type II, the PR intervals associated with the P waves which are followed by a QRS complex will be

constant.

which movements of skeletal muscles near a vein compress it, helping push blood toward the heart.

contraction

This drug is a polypeptide hormone extracted from animal posterior pituitaries. It possesses pressor and antidiuretic properties. In high doses acts as a non-adrenergic vasoconstrictor that acts by direct stimulation of smooth muscle receptors.

Vasopressin

Which of the following are the two most important prehospital considerations for reducing secondary brain injury?

Ventilation and maintaining adequate blood pressure

Belly side of the body

Ventral

Cerebral spinal fluid is manufactured in what part of the brain?

Ventricles

Chaotic electrical activity originating from many sites in the heart is called:

Ventricular fibrillation

The primary electrical disturbance that results in cardiac arrest is...

Ventricular fibrillation

What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death?

Ventricular fibrillation

These are possible infectious agents?

Viruses, Bacteria, Fungi

Which part of the pericardium covers the heart and is also known as the epicardium?

Visceral pericardium

This covers the lungs

Visceral pleura

Sum of tidal volume, inspiratory reserve, and expiratory reserve

Vital capacity

Polyethylene glycol is an example of a(n):

WBI

As a paramedic, if you are given a verbal medical order for drug administration by a medical control physician which you believe will harm your patient, you should:

Withhold the drug, inform the medical control physician the reason for withholding the drug, and document the controversy.

The treatment of the CVA/TIA victim includes airway management, oxygen administration, ventilatory assistance, and -

a bolus of NS if the patient is hypotensive since dehydration can sometimes mimick the signs and symptoms of CVA

When the P waves seem to "march through" the QRS complexes it indicates

a complete blockage of the AV node

A PR interval of greater than 0.20 seconds indicates

a delay in conduction of the impulse between the SA node and the ventricles.

A PR interval of less than 0.12 seconds indicates

a pacemaker site which is either in or close to the AV junction.

ion with a negative charge

anion

drug that binds to a receptor but does not cause it to initiate the expected response

antagonist

The frontal plane divides the body into the ________ and ________ portions.

anterior, posterior

A drug used to kill a bacteria's growth or to decrease it is called:

antibiotic

a marker on the surface of a cell that identifies it as "self" or "non-self" and that is capable, under appropriate conditions, of inducing a specific immune response

antigen

Transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) are defined as episodes of cerebral dysfunction with signs and symptoms similar to that of CVAs, lasting -

anywhere from 2 to 3 minutes to several hours, but always less than 24 hours

The semilunar valves separate the heart from the:

aorta and pulmonary artery.

Which of the following conditions creates a "false lumen" within the walls of the aorta?

aortic dissection

Your 74 year old patient has called you for back pain. He states that he has a tearing sensation in his back which started several hours ago. He has a history of hypertension, previous CVA, bundle branch block, hyperlipidemia, and CHF. His vital signs are: BP- 178/92; P- 68; RR-28 with an SpO2 of 96% on room air. He has not sustained any traumatic injuries. You note a pulse deficit on his left side and he displays no new neurological deficits. His 12-lead EKG shows a right BBB with no ectopi. What is MOST likely for this patient's present condition?

aortic dissection

The blood is ejected from the left ventricle into the aorta through what valve?

aortic valve

breathing characterized by a prolonged inspiration unrelieved by expiration attempts, seen in patients with damage to the upper part of the pons

apneustic respiration

response in which an injured cell releases enzymes that engulf and destroy itself; one way the body rids itself of damaged and dead cells

apoptosis

Impulses that arise from the ventricles produce QRS complexes that

appear wide and bizarre-looking.

clear fluid filling the anterior chamber of the eye

aqueous humor

Which of the following is the middle layer of the meninges?

arachnoid mater

Normal P waves are those that

are rounded and upright

Normal QRS complexes are those that

are upright and narrow.

When gases enter the bloodstream as the result of a damaged lung, it is called a(n)

arterial gas embolism

The accumulation of serous fluid (edema) in the peritoneal cavity is called -

ascites

"ASA" is the accepted abbreviation for:

asprin

A test that determines the amount and purity of a given chemical in a preparation in the laboratory is called a(n):

assay

Rhonchi may accompany

asthma and chronic bronchitis

In the condition called ____, there is not electrical stimulus to cause the heart muscle to contract.

asystole

alveolar (lung) collapse

atelectasis

Abnormal, slow writhing movements are known as

athetosis

Abnormal, slow writhing movements are known as:

athetosis

Which of the following is NOT a major risk factor for DVT's?

atrial fibrillation

The PR intervals are not measurable in

atrial flutter.

The atrium opens into the ventricle through the:

atrioventricular valve.

sa node stimulates

atrium and av node

The antidotes for organophosphate poisoning are

atropine and pralidoxamine.

You would expect a patient taking an ACI to exhibit decreased effects of

atropine.

forceful tearing away or separation of body tissue; an avulsion may be partial or complete

avulsion

application of the forces of trauma along the axis of the spine; this often results in compression fractures of the spine

axial loading

The hypothalamus regulates

body temperature, water and electrolyte balance, hunger and body weight

ligaments connect what?

bone to bone

Your 44 year old patient has intentionally overdosed on labetalol. Which of the following drugs would you expect to give this patient? A. glucagon B. calcium gluconate C. both A and B D. neither A nor B

both A and B

Mesenteric ischemia refers to a compromise in the vascular supply to which of the following organs?

bowel

3 effects of intracranial pressure on vital signs

bradycardia, irregular breathing, hypertension

an inflammation of the bronchi (medium-size airways) in the lungs

bronchitis

The sound made by blood turblance in a partially occluded artery is called a(n):

bruits

av node leads to the?

bundle of His

Small round purplish spots, called petechiae, are caused by:

capillary bleeding

Your patient is a 54 year old female that has just been removed from a house fire where she was entrapped for approximately 15 minutes. She has no visible trauma or burns. She is alert, but not oriented. Her vital signs are BP 132/78, P 128, R 32 with bilateral crackles and an SpO2 of 98% on room air. As you finish your assessment, she becomes unresponsive and begins to actively seize. You suspect

carbon monoxide poisoning.

Amino acids are formed by joining an "R" group to a central carbon atom already bonded to a H, an amino group, and a(n):

carboxyllic acid group

Beck's triad is the three classic, clinical manifestations of :

cardiac tamponade

Interference with the pump action of the heart

cardiogenic shock

The regulation of the heart's rate of contraction is called:

chronotropic state.

The end stage of liver disease marked by the permanent destruction of hepatocytes is called:

cirrhosis

Dextran is an example of a(n):

colloid IV fluid

Usually only _______ patients can develop hemorrhagic shock due to a closed head injury.

infant

The appearance of a pathological Q wave on an ECG indicates the presence of ________ tissu

infarcted

Term used to refer to death of tissue

infarction

the strength of contraction in the heart

inotrophy

beta cells produce

insulin

The two circular sphincters of the anal canal are the:

internal and external.

Visceral sensory neurons are found?

internal organs

Related to abnormality in vascular tone arising from several different scenarios

distributive shock (vasogenic)

When the sacs or pouches protruding out from the bowel become inflamed, the condition is known as:

diverticulitis

Your 22 year old patient is complaining of left lower quadrant pain, fever, nausea, and hematochezia. Of the following, you would suspect:

diverticulosis

The salivary glands include all EXCEPT the _______ gland. A. parotid B. dorsal C. sublingual D. submandibular

dorsal

A double negative impulse immediately following the S wave is called

double S prime.

The medical order generally does not contain:

drug manufacturer

barrel-like containers used to store a wide variety of substances, including food-grade materials, corrosives, flammable liquids, and grease

drums

The most common cause of death resulting from myocardial infarction is:

dysrhythmia.

sustained muscle contractions cause twisting and repetitive movements or abnormal postures

dystonia

Your 23 year old female patient is complaining of intense abdominal pain. Her vital signs are: BP-72/P; HR-122; RR-28 with a room air SpO2 of 95%. There is no recent history of trauma. She has a medical history of tubal ligation surgery and asthma. Of the following, which do you suspect?

ectopic pregnancy

Inverted P' waves occur when the

electrical impulse originates in or near the AV junction and travels upward into the atria causing retrograde depolarization.

Which of the following in NOT indicated for a patient that is suspected of having an acute arterial occlusion of the left leg? A. administration of morphine B. elevate the left leg above the level of the heart C. rapid transport D. removal of compression hose on the left leg

elevate the left leg above the level of the heart

occurs when an object migrates from one part of the body and causes a blockage of a blood vessel in another part of the body

embolism

A barrel chest, pink skin coloring, and recent weight loss is characteristic of a patient suffering from -

emphysema

Pursed-lip breathing is indicative of __ and serves to assist expiration.

emphysema

caused by loss of elasticity of the lung tissue, from destruction of structures supporting the alveoli, and destruction of capillaries feeding the alveoli.

emphysema

layers of skin, outside to inside

epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous

While gathering a SAMPLE history on your chest pain patient, you note that he is taking beta blockers Suddenly, your patient collapses in cardiac arrest. How would you expect this patient to respond to epinephrine as compared to other patients?

epinephrine will not be as effective

Vestibular folds are also called:

false vocal cords.

Strands that are responsible for making the clot stronger.

fibrin

Full dilation of the cervix occurs in the _______ stage of labor.

first

A patient's ECG shows a rate of 64, regular RR intervals, a PR interval of 0.24 seconds, and a QRS of 0.12 seconds. This best fits the criteria for:

first-degree AV block

A patient's ECG shows a rhythm at a rate of 64, regular RR intervals, a PR interval of 0.24 seconds, and a QRS of 0.12 seconds. This best fits the criteria for:

first-degree AV block.

After the FDA approves a drug for one indication, a physician legally may prescribe it, a pharmacist may dispense it, and a nurse or paramedic may administer it for:

for any labeled or unlabeled indications

The reservoir for bile, a digestive enzyme, is the:

gallbladder.

The lay term for a lymph node is:

gland.

alpha cells produce

glucagon

Generalized, full-body tonic-clonic activity, occasionally resulting in tongue biting, is indicative of

grand mal seizures

An acute marked elevation in blood pressure WITHOUT end-organ damage is best described as

hypertensive urgency

Your patient has intentionally overdosed on trazodone. You would expect:

hyperthermia

Maintenance of a relatively stable internal physiologic environment in which the cells live is called:

homeostasis

The body's tendency to maintain all of its physiological activities in proper balance is called:

homeostasis

What should never be given to infants because of the risk of botulism?

honey

The medical abbreviation "hs" stands for:

hora somni (at bedtime)

The Brain Trauma Foundation has established three criteria for traumatic brain injury patients before:

hyperventilation is appropriate

Glucagon: Side Effects

hypotension, nausea, vomiting, respiratory distress

Related to loss of circulating blood volume; the most common type of shock

hypovolemic shock

After defibrillating your patient in VF, you should:

immediately resume CPR

P' waves that continuously change in appearance indicate that the

impulses are arising from different locations in the atria.

Tall and symmetrically peaked P waves may be seen with

impulses that originate outside the SA node.

You have successfully resuscitated your patient from cardiac arrest of cardiac etiology. He is intubated and you are ventillating him with a BVM and supplemental oxygen at a rate of 1 breath every 6 seconds. You note that his ETCO2 has risen to 47 torr while keeping a normal pattern. Which of the following is the most appropriate action? A. extubate immediately and resume ventillations with the BVM only B. hyperventillate at 1 breath per second C. increase ventillations to 1 every 4-5 seconds D. decrease ventillations to 1 every 7 seconds

increase ventillations to 1 every 4-5 seconds

You should use D50 with caution in patients who have

increased intracranial pressure.

Glucagon: Action

increases blood glucose by stimulating liver to release stored glycogen

When pressure increases, flow:

increases.

What is a contraindication of Adenocard?

third degree AV heart block

The right lung consists of

three lobes of lung tissue: the upper, middle and lower lobes

A protein responsible for activating the formation of a clot.

thrombin

the formation of a clot or thrombus inside a blood vessel, obstructing the flow of blood through the circulatory system

thrombosis

CVA's that occur as a result of long-term arteriosclerosis and progressive narrowing of the cerebral arteries where a blood clot develops within a cerebral artery or one of the smaller branches are classified as:

thrombotic strokes

A fibrinous clot formed in a blood vessel or in a chamber of the heart.

thrombus

The plasma level of a drug at which severe adverse reactions are expected or likely is called:

toxic level

The area in an MCI where ambulances and crew are organized to transport patients from the treatment area to receiving hospitals

transportation area

The process of sorting patients based on the severity of injury and medical need to establish treatment and transportation priorities

triage

The name of the valve between the right atrium and the right ventricle.

tricuspid valve

The V cranial nerve supplies sensation to the scalp, forehead, face, and lower jaw via three branches and provides motor innervation to the muscles of the throat and inner ear; this nerve ear is also called the _______ nerve.

trigeminal

The smooth muscle layer of the aorta is known as the:

tunica media

Status epilepticus is defined as

two or more seizures without an intervening period of consciousness

In leads I, II, aVF, and V2 through V6, the deflection of the P wave is characteristically

upright.

In the patient assessment acronym, AEIOU-TIPS, what does the "U" stand for?

uremia

Your patient is a 21-year-old male who is alert and oriented, complaining of a rash that started about 36 hours ago, first appearing on his trunk. The rash has now spread to his face and extremities. You notice multiple small, fluid-filled vesicles on the patient's body. The patient is concerned that he will miss work as a second grade student teacher. He has no medical history, including no childhood diseases. The patient is most likely suffering from:

varicella.

Epinephrine: Action

vasoconstriction, bronchodilation

NTG: Action

vasodilator, decreases blood return to heart

The process of moving air in and out of lungs is called:

ventilation.

r on t phenomenon

ventricular depolarization falling somewhere within a T wave. Can result in v-tach or v-fib.

What is CN-VIII called

vestibulocochlear

Pneumonia is a respiratory disease caused by a -

virus, fungus or a bacterial infection

Organisms that invade and live inside the cells that they effect are:

viruses

The three types of abdominal pain are:

visceral, somatic, and referred

the area locates betwwn the hot zone and the cold zone at a HazMat incident. The decontamination corridor is located in the warm zone.

warm zone

What are the skin signs in association to neurogenic shock?

warm, dry, and pink

A person lying face down is in the ________ position.

prone

Peptidases break down:

protein.

Pepsin, which is an enzyme found in the stomach, is important in the initial breakdown of:

proteins.

Complications of myocardial infarction include all of the following EXCEPT: A. pulmonary embolus. B. heart failure. C. hypotension. D. dysrhythmia.

pulmonary embolus.

The blood from the right ventricle travels through what valve before going into the pulmonary artery?

pulmonary valve

After the blood is oxygenated in the alveoli of the lungs, it returns to the left atrium via the...

pulmonary vein

Freshly oxygenated blood is returned to the heart through the:

pulmonary veins.

A sign of breathing difficulty in children is a decrease in ___ ___.

pulse rate

In patients > 1 y/o, the 1st pulse you check

radial

Pertinant characteristics of breathing

rate, rhythm, quality, depth

After giving your anaphylactic patient a subcutaneous injection of 1:1000 epinephrine, you notice a small bubble of fluid under the skin at the injection site. You should:

realize that this is normal for a SC injection, document the time and dose, and observe your patient for effects

During transport of your intubated patient, you note a sudden decrease in the patient's capnography reading from 38 to 16 mmHg. You should:

reassess the ABC's

The spleen consists of two types of lymph tissue. The venous drainage of the spleen is what type of pulp?

red

Which of the following is generally NOT associated with hypertensive emergencies? A. damage to occular function B. malignant nephrosclerosis C. reduced proteninuria D. damage to kidney function

reduced proteninuria

Your 67 year old patient is experiencing slurred speech and notable left side weakness. Her vital signs are: BP-226/112; P-64; RR-16 with a room air SpO2 of 95%. Of the following, which is NOT a goal of the management of this patient? A. maintain oxygenation B. early notification and transport to a facility capable of managing stroke patients C. correct any hypoglycemia D. reduction of blood pressure

reduction of blood pressure

A patient with black lung disease and asbestosis may demonstrate a significant decrease in vital capacity, indicating:

restrictive lung disease.

Lung sounds that resemble low-pitched snoring or rattling are called

rhonchi

Organelles that contain RNA and protein and that interact with RNA from other parts of the cells to join amino acids together to form proteins are called:

ribosomes

The right coronary artery supplies the:

right atrium and both ventricles.

The gallbladder is located in the _______ quadrant.

right upper

The liver is located in the _______ quadrant.

right upper

The function a protein in the human body is fundamentally determined by the protein's:

shape

single command system A command system in which one person is in charge, generally used with small incidents that involve only one responding agency or one jurisdiction.

single command system

Bronchial constriction is most associated with:

wheezing on expiration

ECG tells you nothing about...

whether the heart is pumping properly.

Bundles of myelinated nerves are referred to as:

white matter.

The greatest danger in the administration of Narcan to an addict who has overdosed on heroin is

withdrawal.

Visceral motor is linked to.

smooth muscle, cardiac muscles, and glands

In a cardiac cell the electrical charges are provided primarily by which two electrolytes

sodium and potassium

Your patient has inadvertantly overdosed on his Nortriptyline. You should expect to recieve orders that include:

sodium bicarbonate

Which of the following interventions would be MOST appropriate for a patient that has overdosed on haloperidol and is experiencing dystonic reactions? A. sodium bicarbonate 1-1.5mEq/kg B. 5mg diazepam IM C. Calcium gluconate 2g slow IVP D. diphenhydramine 50mg IV

sodium bicarbonate 1-1.5mEq/kg

A response to a given substance that is faster and stronger after subsequent exposures is called a _______ response.

specific

Which of the following is caused by incomplete development of the brain, spinal cord, or meninges Which of the following is caused by incompete development of the brain, spinal cord, or neninges

spina bifida

Your patient was the restrained driver in a high energy MVC where another vehicle struck his vehicle at the driver's door. He is showing signs of hypovolemic shock. However, there is no obvious evidence of trauma other than a faint large bruise over his LUQ. Which of the following internal organs would you suspect to be injured? spleen, right kidney, liver, esophagus

spleen

a policy or protocol issued by a medical director that authorizes EMTs to perform particular skills in certain situations

standing orders

The pyloric sphincter is located between the:

stomach and the duodenum.

The thoracic duct empties into the:

superior vena cava.

Prior to delivery, if the mother is in the supine position, she may develop dizziness and a drop in blood pressure. This is called:

supine hypotensive syndrome

Your patient shows you an unfilled prescription which states, "ASA 81mg po qd a.c.". This means:

take 81 milligrams of aspirin by mouth every day before meals

Bones are connected to the muscles by?

tendons

The end of the incident command structure when an incident draws to a close

termination of command

A popular device for determining pediatric drug dosages is:

the Broselow tape

The space between the P wave and the QRS is referred to as what?

the PR interval

When there are more P waves than QRS complexes it indicates that

the atria are firing so fast that not all the impulses can pass through the AV node and some are blocked.

When pressure increases inside the skull because of swelling of brain tissue, blood flow is decreased. This results in...

the brain being starved for oxygen and carbon dioxide increasing, causing more swelling.

The "Lub-dub" sound we hear from the heart is caused by what?

the closing of the heart valves

LLQ contains:

intestines

If the surrounding fluid is hypotonic to the cell, then fluid shifts:

into the cell

The S wave in the QRS complex is

the negative deflection that follows the R wave and extends below the baseline.

Your 3 year old patient has ingested several of his mother's daily vitamins. Which of the following vitamin components is your greatest concern? A. thiamine B. iron C. calcium D. B12

iron

A solution that has equal osmotic pressure to cells and body fluid, such as normal saline, is said to be:

isotonic.

The second portion of the small intestine after it leaves the stomach is the:

jejunum.

Shorter than normal PR intervals may be seen in

junctional escape rhythm.

Which of the following beta-blockers acts very rapidly and is, therefore, MOST appropriate in the treatment of hypertensive emergencies?

labetalol

Your patient has been exposed to capsaicin. Which of the following would you expect?

lacrimation

Eventually, the lymphatic vessels empty into the:

left and right subclavian veins.

The mitral valve is also known as the ________ valve.

left atrioventricular

The mitral valve is also known as:

left atrioventricular valve

Your patient has a penetrating injury 2" superior and 4" laterally to the left of his umbilicus. The associated exit wound is in the sacral midsagittal region. Which of the following MUST be perforated? A. pleura B. left kidney C. peritoneum D. descending abdominal aorta

left kidney

The spleen is located in the _______ quadrant.

left upper

The stomach is located in the:

left upper quadrant.

The left coronary artery supplies the:

left ventricle, left atrium, and septum

If the ectopic impulse arises from the middle of the right atrium the P' wave is

less positive than one that originates from the upper-right atrium.

The term caudad means:

lower, toward the feet.

The pleural cavity surrounds what organ?

lung

When too much water enters a cell and the cell swells and bursts, this process is called:

lysis.

You are treating a 24 year old male who has fallen from a height of 20 feet onto concrete. The patient is unresponsive with an intact gag reflex. The only sign of trauma is a depression in the occipital region. His vital signs are: BP 190/92, P 62, R 12 with an SpO2 of 97% on room air. You note that his pupils are 5mm and sluggish. You should

maintain the patient's blood pressure.

Premature beats that arise from the atria or internodal pathways produce P' waves that

may be obscured or buried in the T wave of the preceding beat.

The pericardium lies within the:

mediastinum.

The inferior portion of the midbrain coordinates heart rate, blood vessel diameter, swallowing, vomiting, and coughing and is called the:

medulla.

Black, tarry stools are referred to as:

melena

The midbrain is also known as the:

mesencephalon

The parts of the peritoneum that hold the abdominal organs in place are called the:

mesenteries.

Your patient is cyanotic and complaining of shortness of breath. He has just returned from the dentist where he was administered benzocaine. He is also complaining of headache and dizziness. His vital signs are: BP-128/82; P-122; RR-28 with an SpO2 of 91%. His breath sounds are clear bilaterally and he has no significant medical history. Which of the following medications would you expect to help this patient the most? A. atropine B. hydroxocaobalamin C. sodium bicarbonate D. methylene blue

methylene blue

This part of the brain is responsible for visual/auditory reflexes (hearing a bee) and equilibrium/balance (keeping upright)

midbrain

Electrolytes are most commonly measured in:

milliequivalents

the amount of air breathed in during each respiration multiplied by breaths/minute

minute volume

Small, rod-like organelles that function as the metabolic center of the cell are called

mitochondria

The division of one cell into two genetically identical and equal daughter cells is called

mitosis.

The blood in the left atrium is ejected through this valve into the left ventricle.

mitral valve

What are neurons that carry impulses from the CNS to the body?

motor / efferent

The innermost portion of the gastrointestinal (GI) system is the:

mucosa.

Which of the following is a demyelinating disease? A. spina bifida B. Parkinson's Disease C. Bell's palsy D. multiple sclerosis

multiple sclerosis

Which of the following is an example of a cholinergic receptor site?

muscarinic

An elevation of the ST segment is associated with:

myocardial injury

The thick middle tissue layer of the heart is the:

myocardium

"Sleep starts" is called:

myoclonus

Involuntary muscle twitching is called:

myoclonus

What sign might be displayed by a syncopal patient, which bystanders can mistake for seizure activity.

myoclonus

Release of acetylcholine at the neuroeffector junction of the autonomic nervous system results in a(n):

negative chronotropic effect.

Epinephrine and Norepinephrine exist in the human body as:

neurotransmitters and hormones

Electrical impulses travel down the nerve and trigger the release of chemicals known as:

neurotransmitters.

Which of the following medications is MOST effective in treating hypertensive emergencies by dilating both arterioles and veins? A. nifedipine B. propanolol C. nitroprusside D. nitroglycerine

nitroprusside

Which of the following medications used to treat hypertension can cause cyanide toxicity?

nitroprusside

What is the principle neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system at the post-ganglionic synapses?

norepinephrine

Which types of neuroglia forms myelin?

oligodendrocyte

Splinting a closed, angulated fracture in the position in which it was found may cause a(n) _______ during transport.

open fracture

Your comatose patient's pupils are 2 mm wide, equal, round, and are reactive to light. This suggests

opiate overdose

A drug which never reaches market because it's not profitable to the manufacturer, is sometimes called a(an):

orphan drug

In 1983, Congress passed a law which offers substantial tax credits to companies that develop:

orphan drugs

What part of the body can be used to estimate 1% surface area

palm

You are dispatched to a local home improvement wharehouse on "general illness". You arrive on the scene to find a 22 year old male responsive to voice, who has been vomiting. You note evidence of incontinance and diaphoresis. He was unloading a cargo truck of garden supplies at symptom onset. His initial vital signs are: BP-88/P; P-62; RR-28. You suspect:

parasympathetic stimulation

Atropine is best classified as a(n):

parasympatholytic

Ipratropium is best classified as a(n):

parasympatholytic

The layer of the pericardium covering the heart is the ________ pericardium.

parietal

Any substance (protein, bacteria, virus, etc.) that is capable of causing a disease

pathogen

The cause of acute abdominal pain is most accurately assessed in the pre-hospital setting by..

patient history

After delivering your first shock with an AED, the patient is still pulseless, you should next

perform two minutes or 5 cycles of CPR

The esophagus is ______ to the trachea.

posterior

The enhancement of one drug's effects by another is called:

potentiation

The enhancement of the effect of barbiturates by alcohol is an example of:

potentiation

A nonspecific response is an immune response that is _______ each time the body is exposed to a particular challenge.

predictable

The pressure in the left ventricle at the end of diastole is called:

preload.

If you were to instruct your patient to bear down as if having a bowel movement, you would expect for them to respond by stimulation of:

the parasympathetic system

In which leads will the QRS complex have a higher amplitude?

the precordial leads

What does the PRI represent?

the time it takes the heart's electrical impulse to travel from the atria to the ventricles

If a patient is eight months pregnant, how much blood can she potentially lose before exhibiting signs of shock?

30-35%

infant RR

30-60

Adult first dose of Amiodarone

300mg slow IV/IO push

ASA: Dosage

324mg (81mg x 4)

The spinal column is made up of _______ separate irregularly shaped bones called vertebrae

33

The trachea is approximately how many inches long in most adults?

4

The sinoatrial (SA) node is located where in the heart?

High in the right atrium

Amount of air that remains in the lungs after the most forceful exhalation; exchange of gases is a continuous process

Residual air

Excess CO2, results in formation of more H+ ions, which decreases pH

Respiratory acidosis

Decrease CO2, results in less H+ ions, which increases pH

Respiratory alkalosis

av node rate =

40 - 60

Adult dose of vasopressin

40 Units IV/IO one dose only

A specialized vehicle for treating and transporting sick and injured patients

Ambulance

Class 3 antiarrythmic agent which inhibits adrenergic stimulation (alpha- and beta- blocking), affects Na+, K+, and Ca+ channels, prolongs the action potential and vascular smooth muscle, decreases peripheral vascular resistance, increases coronary blood flow, and blocks effects of sympathetic stimulation.

Amiodarone

This drug is indicated for V-fib, and V-tach

Amiodarone

For consent to be valid it must be

Informed

Acute inflammation of the gallbladder is called:

cholecystitis

The action of atropine can best be described as:

cholinergic antagonist

An abnormal movement characterized by irregular, unpredictable, involuntary muscle jerks that impair voluntary activity is called:

chorea

An increased number of mucous-secreting cells in the respiratory epithelium, producing large amounts of sputum, is characteristic of -

chronic bronchitis

___ ___ is part of a syndrome called chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

chronic bronchitis

Vomiting blood

hematomesis

Adulst dose of magnesium in cardiac arrest with Torsades de Pointes:

2 grams in 250 mL IV/IO

What is the correct adult dose for atropine to treat organophosphate poisoning?

2 mg IV/IO/IM q 5 min prn

What hormone is directly responsible for increasing Blood Pressure due to the increase absorption of water in the kidneys?

ADH

In incident command, The position that helps procure and stockpile equipment and supplies during an incident

Logistics

scraping or abrading away of the superficial layers of the skin; an open soft-tissue injury

abrasion

condition in which the placenta separates from the uterine wall

abruptio placentae

type of generalized seizure with sudden onset, characterized by a brief loss of awareness and rapid recovery

absence seizure

Which of the following types of seizures is characterized by a loss of interaction, staring off into space, and returning to normal with no memory of the event?

absence seizures

With 3rd-degree AV heart block the PR intervals are

absent

With atrial fibrillation the PR intervals are

absent.

period of the cardiac cycle when stimulation will not produce any depolarization whatsoever

absolute refractory period

Normally, hepatic failure will increase a drug's _________________because the drug's ____________ rate is diminished.

accumulation, metabolism

Acetylcholine is normally rapidly destroyed by an enzyme called:

acetylcholinesterase.

What is antedotal for acetaminophen toxicity?

acetylcysteine

a substance that liberates hydrogen ions (H+) when in solution

acid

high concentration of hydrogen ions; a pH below 7.35

acidosis

cyanosis of the extremities

acrocyanosis

acquired immunity that occurs following exposure to an antigen and results in the production of antibodies specific to the antigen

active immunity

Acute pulmonary edema can be caused by

acute CHF, MI, cardiogenic shock

Which of the following in NOT a life-threatening GI condition associated with hemorrhage? A. ruptured ectopic pregnancy B. ruptured spleen C. GI bleed D. acute pancreatitis

acute pancreatitis

enzyme that stops the action of acetylcholine

acytilcholinesterase

movement of a body part toward the midline

adduction

The major source of energy for all chemical reactions of the body is/are:

adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

Your patient is a 28 year old male who is complaining of chest pain and anxiety. He admits to "smoking crack". Which of the following interventions should you anticipate?

administration of diazepam

sympathomimetic

adrenergic

force of attraction between a drug and a receptor

affinity

The amount of resistance that must be overcome by the left ventricle during systole is called:

afterload

the resistance against which the the heart must pump

afterload

drug that binds to a receptor and causes it to initiate the expected response

agonist

What hormone is indirectly responsible for increasing Blood Pressure due to the absorbing of sodium?

aldosterone

a substance that liberates hydroxyl ions (OH-) when in solution; a strong base

alkali

low concentration of hydrogen ions; a pH above 7.45

alkalosis

an exaggerated response by the immune system of a foreign substance

allergic reaction

ASA: Contraindications

allergy, bleeding disorder, already taken 324mg

Glucagon: Contraindications

allergy, hx of pheochromocytoma (tumor which secretes epinephrine)

Which receptors of the sympathetic nervous cause vasoconstriction when stimulated?

alpha

A Dopamine dose of 20-40 mcg/kg/min has what effects

alpha effects reverse dilation of renal and mesenteric vessels

A Dopamine dose of 10-20 mcg/kg/min has what effects

alpha peripheral effects

Each respiratory bronchiole divides to form:

alveolar ducts.

Which drug should be given very slowly when giving an IV bolus to a patient NOT in cardiac arrest?

amiodarone

The common bile duct and the hepatic duct drain into the opening of the duodenum at the:

ampulla of Vater.

A thrombus which has broken loose, moving with blood flow, is called

an embolism

Arterial segments that are permantly dilated 1.5 times the diameter of the adjacent artery are called:

aneurysms

Intermittent claudication in the quadriceps from PAD is MOST similar in pathophisiology to:

angina from exertion

Another name for the mitral valve

bicuspid

The valve between the left atrium and left ventricle is the:

bicuspid or mitral valve

Charcoal is effective in treating specific overdoses because it....

binds with the drug and stops its absorption

amount of a drug that is still active after it reaches its target tissue

bioavailability

relative therapeutic effectiveness of chemically equivalent drugs

bioequivalence

What term is used to refer to the process of electrical discharge and the flow of electrical activity

depolarization

In the treatment of acute pulmonary edema or acute MI the best dosage and frequency of Morphine Sulfate is:

2 to 4mg every 5 minutes PRN

Which of the following is an indication of rising ICP? A. Cushing's Triad B. Beck's Triad C. Saulk's Triad D. Kussmaul's Triad

Cushing's Triad

Increased BP, erratic respiration, bradycardia

Cushings Triad

The body's response due to cerebral ischemia increase in systemic BP, which maintains cerebral perfusion during IICP

Cushings reflex

The flaps of the right atrioventricular, or tricuspid, valve are called what?

Cusps

Medical control orders an IV lidocaine bolus to control the PVC's. What is the dose?

1.0-1.5 mg/kg first dose, and 0.5-0.75 mg/kg second dose

Flow rates for nasal cannula

1-6 L/min

A regional posion control center can be reached anywhere in the U.S. by dialing:

1-800-222-1222

Glucagon: Dosage

1.0 mg for >44lbs, 0.5 mg for <44lbs, repeat in 20 min if no response

An ECG tracing that is regular with an R to R interval of 15mm would have what rate?

100

A sudden loss of _______ of blood is considered serious in an average adult.

1000cc

The most common cause of longer than normal PR intervals i

1st-degree AV heart block

Type _ diabetes usually develops in adults and often is controlled by diet and oral medication.

2

Maintenance infusion dose of lidocaine

2-4 mg/min

What is the adult nebulizied dose of Ventolin?

2.5 mg

How many lobes of lungs are there?

3 right, 2 left

The doctor orders a starting dose of 2mcg/min of epinephrine. Your assistant has mixed 1 mg of epinephrine into a 250mL bag of NS. What is the drip rate with a microdrip set?

30 gtt/min

The required amount of suctioning that a suction unit must provide.

30 L/min, 300 mmHg

What term is used to describe the condition in which blood accumulates in the pleural space

A hemothorax occurs when blood accumulates in the pleural space

Which of the following patients do you think would be the best candidate for administration of IV sodium bicarbonate? A. A hyperventillating 17 year old with ETCO2 of 17 torr B. A full arrest patient with a pH of 7.47 C. A hypoventillating CHF patient with ETCO2 of 49 mmHg D. A trauma arrest patient with a pH of 7.10

A trauma arrest patient with a pH of 7.10

Decorticate or decerebrate posturing indicates the presence of:

A significant brain injury that is life-threatening

An individual who carries the A and B antigen on the red blood cells is which blood type?

AB

When provided with a pain stimulus, your patient extends and abducts both arms. This response characterizes:

Decerebrate posturing

An example of a drug that acts by chemically combining with other substances would be:

Activated charcoal

What is a highly specific protein produced by the body in response to foreign substances?

ANTIBODY

Your patient has profound pulmonary edema, but has a normal blood pressure. No periphereal edema is noted. The patient is afebrile. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

ARDS

The acronymn, "AAA", in the context of emergency medicine refers to:

Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm

moving away from midline

Abduction

One advantage of giving a drug through a parenteral route is:

Absorbed dosage and action are more predictable than enteral routes

Albuterol: Contraindications

Allergy

Atrovent: Contraindications

Allergy to drug, soybeans, peanuts, glaucoma

A type of energy that is emitted from a strong radiologic source; it is the least harmful penetration type of radiation cannot travel fast or through most objects.

Alpha

Which adrenergic receptor effects occur in the peripheral blood vessels, causing vasoconstrictions?

Alpha-1

Which adrenergic receptor effects occur in the peripheral blood vessels, causing vasoconstrictions?

Alpha-1

in what type of situation is it important to determine if the patient is both legally, and mentally competent.

Any refusal situation

The opposition between Romazicon and Valium is an example of:

Antagonism

Front side of body

Anterioir

A disease caused by deadly bacteria that lay dormant in a spore. The germ is released from the spore when explodes to the optimal temperature and moisture.

Anthrax

The ability of the cells within the cardiac conduction system to generate a cardiac impulse on their own

Automaticity

Which nervous system adjusts cardiac output and peripheral resistance?

Autonomic

Lymphatic vessels carry fluid in what direction in relation to tissue?

Away

Lymphatic capillaries are present in which of the tissues?

Axilla

Which projection from the neuron conducts electrical impulses away from the cell body?

Axon

Your patient is a 9-month-old infant in respiratory distress with grunting respirations of 50 per minute, nasal flaring, and intercostal retractions. He is pale, and you note scattered bilateral wheezing on auscultation of the lungs. The mother states that the child is healthy and up to date on all his immunizations. Which of the following conditions is most likely, based on this information?

Bacterial tracheitis

A range of radio frequencies.

Band

Which reflex responds to changes in blood pressure

Baroreceptor

When the sole of the infant's foot is stroked on the outside from the heel to the toe, the infant's toes fan out an curl and the foot twists inward.

Babinski reflex

A type of energy that is emitted from a strong radiologic source; is slightly more penetrating that alpha and requires a layer of clothing to stop it.

Beta

Albuterol is a:

Beta 2 selective agonist

Which adrenergic receptor is responsible primarily affects the lungs, causing bronchodilation?

Beta-2

You respond to a patient in a nursing home, and while getting a SAMPLE history you are told about a subarachnoid hemorrhage that occurred a few years before. Where did that hemorrhage occur?

Between the arachnoid and pia mater

Most carbon dioxide is carried in the form of what?

Bicarbonate ions

Both sides

Bilateral

These are factors which affect drug absorption

Bioavailability, Drug pH, and Concentration of the drug

S.V. x H.R. x P.V.R = ?

Blood Pressure

Hypoglycemia

Blood sugar less than 60

Ingestion of methanol can result in _____________. A. blindness B. dysphagia C. low serum pH D. Both A and C

Both A and C

Which of the following is an inflammatory bowel disease? A. ulcerative colitis B. Addison's disease C. Crohn's disease D. Both A and C

Both A and C

Which of the following statements is true regarding gonorrhea? A. Gonorrhea may lead to PID. B. Gonorrhea can not be treated with antibiotics C. Women infected with gonorrhea are typically asymptomatic. D. Both A and C

Both A and C

Your patient has overdosed on diltiazem. You might expect orders to administer: A. calcium gluconate B. sodium nitrite C. atropine D. Both A and C

Both A and C

The expanded end of a renal tubule is called?

Bowman's capsule

Which of the following is a common sign of organophosphate poisioning?

Bradycardia

The butt or feet of a baby presents first

Breech presentation

Albuterol: Action

Bronchodilator

Atrovent: Action

Bronchodilator

Signs of internal bleeding include:

Bruising, swelling, and pain over vital organs; painful, swollen, or deformed extremities

What is another name for the conductive pathway between the AV node and the bundle branches?

Bundle of His

The nephrons are located where in the tissue of the kidneys?

The outer tissue (renal cortex)

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) adversely affects a protein on T helper cells called the:

CD4 antigen.

The condition of excessive fluid buildup in the lungs because of the inadequate pumping of the heart is called

CHF

A disease of which nerve causes severe recurrent pain in the face and forehead?

CN-V

Emphysema, chronic bronchitis, and many undetermined respiratory illnesses are classified as

COPD

a group of diseases characterized by the pathological limitation of airflow in the airway that is not fully reversible.

COPD

The cerebral perfusion pressure is represented by which of the following equations?

CPP = MAP - ICP

Which of the following expressions regarding cerebral perfusion pressure is most accurate?

CPP = MAP-ICP

This drug is essential for the functional integrity of nervous, muscular, and skeletal systems and cell membrane and capillary permeability. It is also an important activator in many enzymatic reactions and is essential to a number of physiological processes including transmission of nerve impulses, contraction of cardiac, smooth, and skeletal muscles

Calcium Chloride

Dialysis patients in cardiac arrest should be considered to be hyperkalemic and receive

Calcium chloride.

These structures form branching networks and are barely the diameter of a single red blood cell.

Capillaries

Carbon dioxide and water mix to form what?

Carbonic acid (CO2 + H2O = H2CO3)

H.R x S.V. = ?

Cardiac Output

Bones in the wrist

Carpals

An area set up by physicians, nurses, and other hospital staff near a major disaster scene where patients can receive further triage and medical care.

Casualty collection area

A drug for which adequate and well-controlled human studies have failed to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in the first trimester of pregnancy (and there is no evidence of risk in later trimesters).

Category A

A drug for which animal reproduction studies have shown an adverse effect on the fetus and there are no adequate and well-controlled studies in humans, but potential benefits may warrant use of the drug in pregnant women despite potential risks.

Category C

A drug for which there is positive evidence of human fetal risk based on adverse reaction data from investigational or marketing experience or studies in humans, but potential benefits may warrant use of the drug in pregnant women despite potential risks.

Category D

FDA has not classified drugs in this category for use in pregnant patients

Category N

A drug for which studies in animals or humans have demonstrated fetal abnormalities and/or there is positive evidence of human fetal risk based on adverse reaction data from investigational or marketing experience, and the risks involved in use of the drug in pregnant women clearly outweigh potential benefits.

Category X

RLQ contains:

Cecum, small intestines, appendix

Which type of specific immunity is achieved by actions of T lymphocytes (T cells)?

Cell-mediated immunity

The nervous system is divided into a number of systems. Name them.

Central (Autonomic (sympathetic, parasympathetic) and peripheral

Lymphatic capillaries are present in all tissues EXCEPT which system?

Central nervous system

The normal headfirst delivery of a baby is called a:

Cephalic presentation

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be associated with an acute myocardial infarction?

Chest pain with inspiration

A 52-year-old female is in moderate distress, complaining of nausea and vomiting. She describes a 3-day history of upper right quadrant abdominal pain. You note that the patient's skin feels warm. She is also positive for Murphy's sign. She called EMS today when she developed nausea and vomiting. She denies any change of bowel habits and states she has a history of alcoholism. Of the following, which is the most likely cause of her clinical condition?

Cholecystitis

These are the connective tissue fibers that brace the flaps of the tricuspid valve

Chordae tendineae

a safe area at a hazardous materials incident for the agencies involved in the operations. The incident commander, command post, EMS providers, and other support functions necessary to control the incident should be located in the cold zone, also referred to as the clean zone or the support zone.

Cold Zone

During the digestion process, where in the digestive tract is water absorbed?

Colon

Command In incident command, the position that oversees the incident, establishes the objectives and priorities, and from there develops a response plan.

Command

The designated field command center where the incident commander and support personnel are located

Command Post

Complicated entry that requires special tools and training and includes breaking windows or using other force.

Complex access

Rales, or crackles, may be auscultated in patients with which of the following conditions?

Congestive heart failure

Activated Charcoal: Side Effects

Constipation, nausea, vomiting, bowel obstruction

During inhalation, the diaphragm does what?

Contract, which takes energy

A motor vehicle accident has resulted in a patient with a traumatic closed head injury. Upon arrival at the hospital you are informed that the patient has an internal hemorrhage. The bleeding is most likely in which cavity?

Cranial

Name for the discoloration around the umbilical area That indicates an intra abdominal bleed

Cullens Sign

If a patient has a CT scan that shows a dense, white area, then you would suspect that the patient has suffered:

an intraparenchymal hemorrhage

An area where individuals can be exposed to electrical hazards such as sharp metal edges, broken glass, toxic substances, lethal rays, or ignition or explosion of hazardous materials. OR The area immediately surrounding a HazMat site that is directly dangerous to life and health

Danger (hot) Zone

A patient with an acutely red, swollen, and painful lower limb that is not associated with any trauma is indicative of:

DVT

An example of an IV fluid which is hypotonic would be:

D5W

A carrying technique in which one emt is located at the head end, one at the foot end, and one at each side of the patient; all face forward as they walk

Diamond Carry

'C3-C5 keeps the ______ alive?"

Diaphragm

What is the movement of solutes from an area of higher concentration to one of lower concentration called?

Diffusion

Lymph nodules are NOT found in the loose connective tissues of which system?

Digestive

first stage of labor; the uterine muscle contracts strongly to expel the fetus; the fetus presses on the cervix and causes it to dilate or expand

Dilation stage

Spinal side of the body

Dorsal

When placing a patient on a long board for spinal immobilization, what body surface of the patient is in contact with the board?

Dorsal

This man, Napoleons chief surgeon, wrote the earliest recorded specifications for ambulances

Dr. Dominique-Jean Larrey

The father of resuscitation

Dr. Peter Safar

A hypertensive patient is given two different drugs to control his blood pressure at different times to determine which drug is best suited for the patient. If drug A consistently lowers the patient's blood pressure more effectively than drug B, then:

Drug A has higher efficacy than drug B

The process of movement of a drug from the site of application into the body and into the extracellular fluid compartment is known as:

Drug absorption

Atrovent: Side Effects

Dry mouth, headache, gastrointestinal distress

Blood vessel that connects the pulmonary trunk to the aorta in the fetus.

Ductus Arteriosus

Fetal blood vessel that connects the umbilical vein and the inferior vena cava.

Ductus Venosus

A radio system that allows transmitting and receiving at the same time through two different frequencies.

Duplex

What are the 4 elements of Negligence

Duty to act Breach of Duty Actual Damage Proximate cause

Death secondary to myocardial infarction is MOST COMMONLY due to:

Dysrhythmias

Your 22 year old patient is complaining of abdominal cramping, fever, nausea, and hematochezia. Of the following, you would suspect:

E. coli infection

What is another name for motor neurons? And what is their purpose?

Efferent neurons. Carry impulses from CNS to effectors

Which of the following does not significantly contribute to the mass of an atom?

Electron

These drugs are preparations that contain the drug in an alcohol solvent.

Elixirs

A preliminary action guide for first responders operating at a hazardous materials incident in coordination with the US Dept. of Transportation's labels and placards marking system

Emergency Response Guidebook

a move in which the patient is dragged or pulled from a dangerous scene before initial assesment and care are provided.

Emergency move

This organelle within the cell transports material through the cytoplasm

Endoplasmic Reticulum

Epinephrine: Dosage for allergic reactions.

Epi-Pen = 0.3mg, Epi-Pen Jr = 0.15mg (for <60 lbs)

This drug is a catecholamine/ sympathomimetic, and is an agonist to alpha and beta adrenergic receptors causing increased chronotrophy, ionotrophy, dromotrophy, bronchodilation, and peripheral vasoconstriction.

Epinephrine

Which of the following drugs is used in treating Asystole? A. Atropine B. Epinephrine C. Calcium Chloride D. Lidocaine

Epinephrine

Indications for this drug include cardiac arrest. Moderate and severe allergic reactions. Severe refractory wheezing. Pediatric bradycardia with cardiopulmonary compromise.

Epinephrine indications

Which organism causes mononucleosis?

Epstein-Barr virus

Which of the following is NOT a type of leukocyte that may play a role following infection of various areas in the body?

Erythrocyte

Amount of air that can be expelled with the most forceful exhalation

Expiratory reserve

When the baby is expelled from its mother's body

Expulsion stage

Straightning of a joint

Extension

You are assigned to a paramedic unit and receive a call to an elderly housing unit for the report of a 76-year-old man who fell. You find the man on the floor of his room, in pain, and you immediately notice that his right foot and knee are pointing outward. You do an assessment and obtain vital signs before calling medical control for an order to give pain medication. Which of the following terms should you use when describing the position of the leg to medical control?

Externally rotated

Neuroglia cells have a number of basic functions, except...

Facilitate electrical impulses through neurons

a set of laws passed by Congress giving authority to the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) to oversee the safety of food, drugs, and cosmetics.

Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act 1938

The law that originally required a label on drugs that accurately described the package's contents is called:

Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938

What is the movement of water out of plasma across the capillary membrane into interstitial space due to hydrostatic pressure called?

Filtration

In incident command, the position in an incident responsible for accounting all expenditures

Finance

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea may indicate which disease process:

Heart failure, Respiratory infection, COPD

muscle pain or spasm due largely to the loss of salt from the body from sweating, or inadequate intake of salt

Heat cramp

Occurs when the body's cooling mechanism have been expended Skin is normal to cool in temp Pale or Grey in color And sweaty

Heat exhaustion

Which of the following is an example of a demyelination disorder? A. Cerebal palsey B. Encephalitis C. Heavy metal poisoning D. Down Syndrome

Heavy metal poisoning

Blood in Urine

Hematuria

________ bind(s) and transport(s) carbon dioxide and oxygen.

Hemoglobin

Of the five classes of antibodies, which makes up 80% to 85% of the total serum antibody?

IgG

Which of the following statements about measles and the measles virus is FALSE? A. Measles is transmitted by inhalation of infected droplets. B. Signs of measles infection include high fever and a maculopapular rash. C. Measles is highly communicable. D. Immunization is ineffective until age 15.

Immunization is ineffective until age 15.

ASA: Action

Impedes blood clotting

Which of the following can be determined by lead II cardiac monitoring?

Impulse conduction time

Dopamine is administered:

In an IV drip titrated to patient's BP

An oral or written plan stating general objectives reflectin the overall strategy for managing an incident

Incident Action Plan

Incident Commander (IC) The individual who has overall command of the incident in the field

Incident Commander (IC)

A system implemented to manage disasters and Mass casualty incidents in which section chiefs, including finance, logistics, operations, and planning, report to the incident commander

Incident command system (ICS)

To control atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, and PSVT refractory to adenosine

Indications for Diltiazem

In IC, the person who works with area medical examiners, coroners, and law enforcement agencies to coordinate the disposition of dead victims

Morgue supervisor

Hormones produced by the endocrine cells of the stomach and intestine have significant effects on the motility of substances. Gastrin has what effect on stomach secretions and emptying?

Increases

A symptomatic infection caused by the Epstein-Barr Virus.

Infectious Mononucleosis

Towards the feet

Inferior

You have treated a motorcyclist for a right tibia/fibula fracture. The deformity is below the knee. When making the radio report to the hospital, which of the following terms most correctly describes the location of the injury? A. Proximal to the knee B. Inferior to the knee C. Distal to the knee D. Superior to the knee

Inferior to the knee

The renal vein returns blood to where?

Inferior vena cava

Adult initial dose of Lidocaine

Initial dose of 1.5 mg/kg IV/IO

Amount of air, beyond tidal volume, that can be taken in with the deepest possible inhalation

Inspiratory reserve

What is made by the pancreas?

Insulin, Glucagon, Digestive enzymes

Do not use this drug because of increased risk of CHF, bradycardia, and asystole.

Interactions of Diltiazem

These are specialized sites that allow cardiac muscle cells to rapidly transmit electrical impulses

Intercalated discs

Shipping and storage vessels that can be either pressurized or not pressurized

Intermodal tanks

Which term describes the turning of an extremity toward the midline?

Internal rotation

Describes a radio system that can use the components of several different systems; it can use specialized equipment to connect several different radio systems and components together and have them communicate with each other.

Interoperability

Lymph is a thin plasma-like fluid formed, in part, from which of the following fluids?

Interstitial fluid

Refers to the same side of the body

Ipsilateral

absence of the sensation of pain

analgesia

In Incident command, the person who relays information, concerns, and requests among the responding agencies

Liaison officer

This drug is contraindicated in patients with bradycardia

Lidoaine contraindications

This drug is and antidysrhythmic/ anesthetic that suppresses automaticity in the His-Purkinje system and elevates electrical stimulation threshold of the ventricles during diastole. In increased serum concentrations, this drug also has anticonvulsant, sedative, and analgesic effects.

Lidocaine

Decrease maintenance dose of this drug by 50% if patient is in CHF, is > 70 years old, is in shock, or has liver disease

Lidocaine Special Considerations

This drug's use is indicated to convert ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia. To control malignant PVC's.

Lidocaine indications

How is cardiac output of the heart expressed?

Liters per minute

The RUQ contains:

Liver, gallbladder, bile duct, colon, pancreas

Referring to middle of armpit parallel to the midline

Midaxillary

You arrive on the scene of a stabbing. A 23-year-old man has a knife wound approximately 10 cm inferior to armpit. Which of the following anatomical terms best describes the location of the wound?

Midaxillary

Referring to the middle of the clavicle parallel to the midline

Midclavicular

Imaginary line drawn vertically from middle of the forehead through the umbilicus floor

Midline

Amount of air inhaled and exhaled in 1 minute. (TV)(RR)

Minute respiratory volume

This organelle within the cell converts energy and nutrients to ATP

Mitochondria

communication between two or more vessels

anastomosis

What other types of shock are included into Distributive?

Neurogenic, psychogenic, septic, and anaphylactic

This type of cell protects cell membranes of neurons, regulate composition of interstitial fluid, and defend neural tissue from pathogens.

Neuroglia cells

A 74 year old female is complaining of shortness of breath. Her skin is normal temperature and moisture, and she denies any pain or nausea. Her lung sounds are clear bilaterally. Should you give this patient Albuterol?

No

What kind of boundary does diffuse lymphatic tissue share with surrounding tissues?

No clear boundary

Typical findings within the first 24 hours of acetaminophen overdose include:

No symptoms

In IC, the position that carries out the orders of the commander to help resolve the incident

Operations

What is the diffusion of water called

Osmosis

What is LEAST likely to be associated with the pain of acute myocardial infarction?

Pain reproducible with palpation

When the infants palm is touched and whe an object is placed across the palm. the infants hands grip tightly.

Palmar Reflex

A 52-year-old male is in moderate distress, complaining of nausea and vomiting. He describes a 3-day history of upper left quadrant abdominal pain described as sharp and radiating to his back. You note a slightly distended abdomen. He called EMS today when he developed nausea and vomiting. He denies any change of bowel habits and states he has a history of alcoholism. Of the following, which is the most likely cause of his clinical condition?

Pancreatitis

Paramedics are at an elementary school where a child has sustained minor injuries, and the school nurse insists on sending the child to the emergency department. What type of consent is this?

Parens Patriae

describes the introduction of nutrition, a medication, or other substance into the body via a route other than the mouth, especially via infusion, injection or implantation

Parenteral

This lines the chest wall

Parietal pleura

absence of all sensations

anesthesia

The high resistance of the arterial system is called what?

Peripheral resistance

Measures of the amount and type of protective equipment than an individual needs to avoid injury during contact with a hazardous material

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) levels

During the examination of an 18-year-old female patient complaining of abdominal pain, the patient denies nausea, vomiting or diarrhea. She also denies the possibility of pregnancy. These denials are known as:

Pertinent negatives

Acute infectious disease characterized by a cough that has a "whoop" sound.

Pertussis

Which of the following is NOT a common pediatric viral disease? A. Mumps B. Measles C. RSV D. Pertussis

Pertussis

What is the uptake of solid particles through the cell membrane called?

Phagocytosis

How drug interacts with body to cause its effects

Pharmacodynamics

How a drug is transported into, inside, and out of the body absorbed, distributed metabolized (biotransformed and excreted

Pharmacokinetics

lidocaine would be classified as

anesthetic

Signage required to be placed on all four sides of highway transport vehicles. The sign identifies the hazardous contents of the vehicle

Placards

placenta is expelled-afterbirth

Placenta stage

In IC, the position that ultimately produces a plan to resolve any incident

Planning

The soles of the feet

Plantar

Digoxin is an example of a drug that is derived from:

Plants

Common diseases from crackles

Pneumonia Pulmonary edema

The resting cell normally has a net negative charge with respect to the outside of the cell. What is this state called?

Polarized state

Activated Charcoal: Contraindications

Poor LOC, vomiting

a stretcher with a strong rectangular tubular metal frame and rigid fabric stretched across it

Portable stretcher

Age-related hearing loss.

Presbycusis

What does serous fluid do?

Prevents friction and keeps the two membranes together during breathing

Injuries due to the pressure wave of the blast. Injuries primarly effect the gas-containing organs, such as the lungs, stomach, intestines, inner ears and sinuses. Death may occur from this stage w/o any sign of external injury

Primary phase injuries

A type of patient sorting used to rapidly categoryize patients; the focus is on speed in locating all patients and dertermining an initial priority as their conditions warrant.

Primary triage

medication that induced a loss of sensation to touch or pain

anesthetic

In dealing with an epileptic patient, which emergency procedure should be initiated first?

Protect the patient from injuries

A fracture to the humerus is best described as having what anatomical location in relationship to the elbow?

Proximal

Structures closer to the trunk

Proximal

________ is an anatomical term meaning "toward an attached base."

Proximal

Which of the following types of epithelium consists of single layer of cells of varying heights?

Pseudostratified

In IC, ther person who keeps the public informed and relates any information to the press.

Public information officer (PIO)

The name of the only artery in the body that carries deoxygenated blood.

Pulmonary artery

In an elderly, bed-ridden patient with a broken hip, sudden chest pain and dyspnea should suggest:

Pulmonary emboli

The blockage of a pulmonary artery that stops blood flow to a group of alveoli is called what?

Pulmonary embolism

Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of the liver? A. Removal of red blood cells B. Storage of glucose C. Protein synthesis D. Filtering body wastes from blood

Removal of red blood cells

What is the name for the inner tissue layer of the kidneys?

Renal Medulla

A system that receives transmissions from a low-wattage radio and rebroadcasts the signal at a higher wattage to the dispatch center.

Repeater

While doing a physical assessment you have rebound tenderness in the quadrant where the gall bladder is located. Which of the following best describes that anatomical location of the abdomen?

Right upper quadrant (RUQ)

Causes infant to turn the head toward anything that brushes the face.

Rooting reflex

The heart sound produced by closure of the AV valve is:

S1

What are the three positively charged ions responsible for initiating and conducting electrical signals in the heart.

Sodium (Na+), Calcium (Ca2+), Potassium (K+)

To treat metabolic acidosis in aspirin overdose, tricyclic antidepressant overdose, cocaine overdose and prolonged cardiac arrest resuscitation.

Sodium Bicarbonate

Tetanus may be a complication of any open soft-tissue injury and is caused by a:

Soil bacterium

In IC, the subordinate positions under the commander's direction to which the workload is distributed; supervisor/worker ratio

Span of control

Which of the following is NOT a type of tissue? Nerve, Squamous, Connective, Epithelial.

Squamous

In IC, the person who locates an area to stage equpiment and personnel and tracks unit arrivial and deployment from the staging area

Staging supervisor

a lightweight folding device that is used to safely move patients up or down stairs.

Stair chair

Defined legally as the behaviors expected of similarly trained, competent individuals within a profession

Standard of Care

________ is a severe, prolonged asthma attack that cannot be broken by repeated doses of bronchodilators.

Status asthmaticus

When the infant is held so that the feet are flat on a surface, the infant will lift one foot after another in a stepping motion.

Stepping reflex

As a response to the disaster at Bull Run, this type of ambulance was designed.

The Rucker ambulance

The official drug standard for the United States is:

The United States Pharmacopeia

The base of each lung rests on what?

The diaphragm

Palmar

The palms

The right atrium receives blood from these two vessels

The superior and the inferior venae cavae

Amount of air involved in one normal inhalation and exhalation

Tidal Volume

The individual usually a physician, who is in charge of and directs EMS personnel at the treatment area in a MCI

Treatment supervisor

Measures the risk that a hazardous material poses to the health of an individual who comes into contact with it

Toxicity levels

The individual in charge of the transportation sector in a MCI who assigns patients from the treatment area to awaiting ambulances in the trasnport area.

Transportation supervisor

Which letter in the memory aid "AEIOUTIPS" is associated with a patient unconscious from kidney failure?

U

A command system used in larger incidents in which there is a multiagency responce or multiple juridictions are involved

Unified command system

One side

Unilatral

Characteristics of normal P waves include

Upright round and one P wave preceding each QRS complex.

A weakened section of an arterial wall that begins to dilate is known as a(n)

aneurysm

a specially designed stretcher that can be rolled along the ground. A collapsible under carriage allows it to be loaded into the ambulance. also called and ambulance cot.

Wheeled Ambulance stretcher

During the examination of an 18-year-old female patient complaining of abdominal pain, the patient denies nausea, vomiting or diarrhea. She reports a constant, intense pain in her lower abdomen which started two hours ago. Which of the following is the MOST helpful to ask this patient?

When was your last menstral cycle?

A PASG is contraindicated if the patient presents with cardiogenic shock or _______.

abnormal lung sounds

This is the first time trauma was officially recognized and classified as a disease process.

White Paper - 1966

Your 67 year old male patient is complaining of abdominal pain and weakness. His vital signs are: BP-72/P; HR-134; RR-28 with a SpO2 of 93% on room air. His 12 lead EKG reveals sinus tachycardia with no indication of acute MI. His skin is pale and diaphoretic. He has a history of hypertension, COPD, and lung cancer. Which of the following should an early consideration for this patient?

abdominal aortic aneurysm

Tuberculosis is an infectious respiratory disease that is causes by

bacteria

Meningitis is an infectious nervous system disease that is caused by

bacteria, fungi or a virus

Disease may be caused by which of the following:

bacteria, fungus or viruses

Special receptors that sense changes of pressure within the vasculature are called:

baroreceptors

A blockage of which cerebral arteries would be the most catastrophic?

basilar

a rigid stretcher commonly used in technical and water rescues that surrounds and supports the patient yet allows water to drain through holes in the bottom. Also called a stokes litter

basket stretcher

You place your CHF patient with severe pulmonary edema on CPAP en route to the hospital. Upon arrival, the hospital staff abruptly removes the CPAP to obtain a "room air" saturation. You would expect the patient to:

become acutely worse

A Dopamine dose of 2-10 mcg/kg/min has what effects

beta effects on heart

Which of the following is NOT an identified risk factor for AAA? A. hypertension B. tobacco use C. caffiene intake D. family history

caffiene intake

"Horses tail", group of nerves that hang below the cord

cauda equina

What effect does chronic hypertension have on the lumen of the vasculature?

causes chronic hypertrophy of vascular endothelium narrowing the lumen

Chronic venous insufficiency often causes tissue inflammation which is called:

cellulitis

responsible for muscle tone, voluntary movement, stopping movements, and equilibrium

cerebellum

NTG: Indications

chest pain of cardiac origin, angina, acute CHF

A patient exhibiting involuntary flexion is positive for:

decorticate posturing

A decrease in preload results in a(n):

decrease in cardiac output

A late sign of shock is:

decreased blood pressure

When resistance increases, flow:

decreases.

Chest compressions on your pulseless patient should not be interrupted for a few seconds and only during:

defibrillation

The first step of analyzing an ECG rhythm is to

determine the heart rate.

You arrive at the scene of a bar fight. Your patient has a penetrating stab wound on his left anterior chest about 2 inches above the nipple line. Which of the following conditions is your greatest concern?

developing tension pneumothorax

Your patient is a 12-year-old male who is conscious and alert, complaining of diffuse abdominal pain. He states that the pain began about 3 hours after eating supper. He has had severe diarrhea and some vomiting. You might elect to administer any of the following EXCEPT: A. diazepam. B. Compazine. C. promethazine. D. IV of NS.

diazepam.

Dyspnea

difficult or labored respiration

A Dopamine dose of 1-5 mcg/kg/min has what effects

dilates renal and mesenteric blood vessels

Boerhaave's syndrome refers to:

esophageal rupture

Alcohol abuse often causes elevated venous pressure from a back-up of blood from the liver called portal hypertension. What potential cause of upper GI bleeding is caused by portal hypertension?

esophageal varices

rules & standards of members of a particular group or profession

ethics

Proteins secreted by bacteria during its growth are called:

exotoxins

The motion associated with the return of a body part to the anatomic position is called

extension.

What is the name of the process in which "helper proteins" on the surface of the cell are required to move substances across the cell membrane?

facilitated diffusion

Numerous folds greatly increase the surface area of the cortex. These folds are called:

gyri.

Which body parts are considered to be 9% of total body surface area

head, chest, abdomen, both arms, each leg

NTG: Side Effects

headache, hypotension, tachycardia

The R wave

is the first positive deflection in the QRS complex.

Your six year old patient has mistaken anti-freeze for Kool Aide. She has ingested over two cups of the toxin. What physiological changes would you expect?

low serum pH levels

A classic sign of bacterial infection is an increase in the number of:

leukocytes.

written defamation

libel

The vocal cords are formed by two pairs of:

ligaments.

around the bone

periosteum

Which of the following occurs MOST commonly in diabetics? A. muscular dystrophy B. spina bifida C. periperal neuropathy D. poliomyelitis

periperal neuropathy

A 55-year-old man has signs and symptoms consistent with an infection after a colonectomy to treat his colon cancer. Which of the following is the most likely?

peritonitus

The localized reaction to the thrombosis of a superficial vein characterized by warmth, tenderness and occasionally induration is called:

phlebitis

Disc-shaped elements that are fragments of cells from the bone marrow.

platelets

Excessive urination

polyuria

This part of the brain is responsible for respiratory control of rhythms and patterns, it tries to compensate for medulla

pons

the area that provides protection and treatment to fire fighters and other personnnel working an emergency. Here, workers are medically monitored and receive any needed care as they enter and leave the scene.

rehabilitation area

in IC, the person who establishes an area that provides protection for responders from the elements and the situation.

rehabilitation supervisor

Which of the following classes of compounds would you expect to be formed by ionic bonding?

salts

Atropine should not be given to treat:

second degree Type II block

A patient is having trouble breathing and showing signs of a heart attack. The patient is placed on a stretcher, seated, with the back of the stretcher about halfway up. This position is called _______ position.

semi-Fowler's

What are neurons that carry impulses from the PNS to the CNS?

sensory / afferent

A bacterial infection of the bloodstream is called

sepsis

A patient's ECG shows a a rate of 42, regular RR intervals, a PR interval of 0.16 seconds, and a QRS of 0.12 seconds. This best fits the criteria for:

sinus bradycardia.

Verbal defamation

slander

NTG: Contraindications

systolic pressure <100mm/Hg, use of ED med within last 24 hrs, head injury

Vagal manuevers can be useful in treating patients experiencing

tachycardias originating in the atrias

One of the defining signs of malignant hypertension is papilledema. What does papilledema mean?

swelling of the optic disk

The ______________ branch of the autonomic nervous system innervates all three pacemaker sites and the working cells of the heart.

sympathetic

When stimulated, this branch of the nervous system will increase heart rate, AV conduction, and irritability.

sympathetic

Which classifications of drugs would result in increased chronotrophy?

sympathomimetic

which best describes dopamine?

sympathomimetic

What type of drugs would result in increased ionotrophy?

sympathomimetics, and MAOI's

Your eleven year old patient has overdosed on his grandfather's Prazosin. Prazosin is a selective Alpha 1 antagonist. Which of the following signs might you expect?

syncope

This is the network of blood vessels that carries blood to and from the rest of the body.

systemic circuit

The period during the normal beating of the heart in which the chambers of the heart, especially the ventricles, contract to force blood into the aorta and pulmonary artery.

systole