patho final
Griseofulvin
fungal nail, tinea infection, and ringworm
List the chain of infection
infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, host
A mother asks the neonatal nurse why her infant must be monitored so closely for hypoglycemia when her type 1 diabetes was in excellent control during the entire pregnancy . How would the nurse best respond ? " A healthy newborn's glucose level drops after birth , so we're being especially cautious with your baby because of your diabetes . " " A newborn's pancreas produces an increased amount of insulin during the first day of birth , so we're checking to see whether hypoglycemia has occurred . " " Babies of mothers with diabetes do not have large stores of glucose at birth , so it's difficult for them to maintain the blood glucose level within an acceptable range . " Babies of mothers with diabetes have a higher - than - average insulin level because of the excess glucose received from the mother during pregnancy , so the glucose level may drop . "
" Babies of mothers with diabetes have a higher - than - average insulin level because of the excess glucose received from the mother during pregnancy , so the glucose level may drop . " The infant of a diabetic mother ( IDM ) produces a higher level of insulin in response to the increased maternal glucose level ; after birth it takes several hours for the newborn to adjust to the loss of the maternal glucose
Cell mediated
- targets are attack directly by immune cells (cytolytic t-cells and macrophages
Which client receiving antibiotic therapy would the nurse identity as being at risk for Achilles tendon rupture ? Gentamicin Ciprofloxacin Cefazolin Tobramycin
Ciprofloxacin
reduce CVD. Stop reabsorption of glucose/ increase glucose excretion in urine. May cause UTI and yeast infection
Empagliflozin
No food and No sun, treat UTI'S, deep tendon rupture ( lev.) , oral birth control ineffective, gonorrhea ( cipro)
Fluoroquin. (Ciproflaxin and levofloxacin)
The nurse is caring for a surgical client who develops a wound infection during hospitalization . Which classification would this infection belong to ? Primary Secondary Superinfection Nosocomial
Nosocomial A nosocomial infection is acquired in a health care setting . This is also referred to as a hospital - acquired infection .
decrease hepatic liver glucose production ( glucose in stored), decrease intestinal absorption of glucose, ed: renal function test. AE: lactic acidosis and upset GGI
Metformin
Treat C-diff, BV, and Trich, and STI'S. Avoid alcohol
Metronidazole
determine the nature and intensity of the response drugs on the body.
Pharmacodynamic
Redman Syndrome treats MRSA, Monitor peaks and trough levels, check IV sites, last line agent, infuses slowly
Vancomycin
Pharmacokinetic
determine how much of an administer dose gets to the site of action
Promote endogenous insulin secretion. Sub Q only. 60 min before eating, never after a meal
exenatide
CVD, PVD ( MI and Stroke), artieoslosis ( plaque build up in the vessel), hypertension
macrovascular
retinopathy, nephropathy, neuropathy
microvascular
Humoral versus cell mediated immunity
targeted attack by the immune cell is cell mediated. immune response by the antibodies is humoral immunity
Define and describe carbapenems
treat lower URI, last line agent
Which client would the nurse suspect as having a type IV hypersensitive reaction when providing care for four clients with hypersensitivity reactions ? A lyr Wheal and flare B IgM None C Erythema and edema after four hours D None Erythema and edema after 24 hours
Client D Type IV or delayed hypersensitive reactions are cell - mediated immune responses that involve T lymphocytes , not antibodies . These cause erythema and edema in client D within 24 to 48 hours after a skin test . Type I hypersensitivity reaction is known as an anaphylactic reaction mediated by IgE antibodies ; it shows as a wheal and flare around the site of injection in client A. Type II hypersensitivity reactions are known as cytotoxic reactions that involve IgM and IgG antibodies and show no response to the skin test in client B. Type III hypersensitivity reactions are known as immune - complex reactions that involve IgG and IgM antibodies . These show erythema and edema after 3 to 8 hours of a skin test in client C.
Between which weeks of gestation would a client with type 1 diabetes expect to increase her insulin dosage ? 10th and 12th weeks of gestation 18th and 22nd weeks of gestation 24th and 28th weeks of gestation 36th and 40th weeks of gestation
O24th and 28th weeks of gestation At the end of the second trimester and the beginning of the third trimester , insulin needs increase because of an increase in maternal resistance to insulin . During the earlier part of pregnancy , fetal demands for maternal glucose may cause a tendency toward hypoglycemia . During the last weeks of pregnancy , maternal resistance to insulin decreases , and insulin needs decrease accordingly .
Identify the clinical manifestation associated with the release of histamine during a type I rapid hypersensitivity reaction . Select all that apply . One , some , or all responses may be correct . Pruritus Erythema Fibrotic changes Nasal mucus secretion Conjunctival mucus secretion Hematuria
Pruritus Erythema Nasal mucus secretion Conjunctival mucus secretion Histamine causes itching or pruritus , erythema , and nasal and conjunctival mucus secretion . Fibrotic changes occur with type III immune complex reactions . Hematuria is a complication from a type III hypersensitivity reaction such as systemic lupus erythematosus .
Which rationale explains why intravenous ( IV ) potassium is prescribed in addition to regular insulin for clients in diabetic ketosis ? Potassium loss occurs rapidly from diaphoresis present during coma . Potassium is carried with glucose to the kidneys to be excreted in the urine in increased amounts Potassium is quickly used up during the rapid series of catabolic reactions stimulated by insulin and glucose . Serum potassium levels will decrease as potassium ions shift from the extracellular fluid to the intracellular fluid compartment .
Serum potassium levels will decrease as potassium ions shift from the extracellular fluid to the intracellular fluid compartment . Insulin stimulates cellular uptake of glucose and stimulates the sodium / potassium pump , leading to the influx of potassium into cells . The resulting hypokalemia is offset by parenteral administration of potassium . Potassium is not lost from the body by profuse diaphoresis . Potassium moves from the extracellular to the intracellular compartment rather than being excreted in the urine . Anabolic reactions are stimulated by insulin and glucose administration ; potassium is drawn into the intracellular compartment , necessitating a replenishment of extracellular potassium .
Which action will the nurse take when a client appears flushed and complains of palpitations ten minutes after the start of intravenous ( IV ) vancomycin scheduled to infuse over 30 minutes ? Stop the infusion Continue the infusion but monitor the client .Contact the primary health care provider to obtain a prescription to decrease the infusion rate . Contact the primary health care provider to obtain a prescription for an antianxiety medication .
Contact the primary health care provider to obtain a prescription to decrease the infusion rate . The rate of the infusion should be decreased . Administering vancomycin too rapidly can produce " red man syndrome , " characterized by flushing , an increased heart rate , and a decrease in blood pressure . These clinical findings can usually be alleviated by slowing the rate of infusion of the dose to at least 1 hour per dose . It is not necessary to stop the infusion because slowing its rate will alleviate the problem . Red man syndrome is expected only if the IV flow rate is too rapid ; the rate must be decreased
A student with type 1 diabetes asks the nurse which primary hormone causes the blood glucose level to rise . Which hormone would the nurse report ? Insulin Glucagon Epinephrine Adrenocorticotropic hormone ( ACTH )
Glucagon Glucagon promotes liver glycogenolysis , resulting in the release of glucose into the blood . Insulin production is not directly related to glycogenolysis ; it will decrease blood glucose levels . In healthy individuals the level of insulin will increase as the glucose level increases .
The nurse is caring for a client with hypoglycemia . The nurse anticipates a prescription for which medications ? Select all that apply . One , some , or all responses may be correct . Insulin Glucagon Intravenous ( IV ) glucose Oral hydrocortisone Somatostatin
Glucagon Intravenous ( IV ) glucose Oral hydrocortisone
Hypersensitivity have ? Type I Type 11 Type III Type IV
The client is having contact dermatitis of the skin to rubber boots . This image presents a clinical example of a delayed hypersensitivity reaction , a type IV reaction . This reaction is also known as a cell - mediated immune response
Which laboratory test would the nurse expect to be prescribed that will reveal the effectiveness of a diabetic regimen for a child with type 1 diabetes ? Serum glucose Glucose tolerance Fasting blood sugar Glycosylated hemoglobini
The glycosylated hemoglobin test provides an accurate long - term index of the average blood glucose level for the 100 to 120 days before the test ; the test is not affected by short - term variations . A result of less than 8 % for this child indicates that the diabetic regimen is effective
Which instruction would the nurse include when providing medication teaching to a client prescribed trimethoprim - sulfamethoxazole for cystitis ? " Drink eight to ten glasses of water daily . " " Take this medication with orange juice . " " Take the medication with meals . " " Take the medication until symptoms subside . "
" Drink eight to ten glasses of water daily . " A urinary output of at least 1500 mL daily should be maintained to prevent crystalluria ( crystals in the urine ) .
After a limb amputation, a client experince discomfort in the area it use to be. Which goal would the nurse plan to focus interventions? 1. identifying actions to decrease pain in the lost limb 2. reversing feeling of hopelessness about the future 3. promoting mobility in the residual limb 4. facilitating the grieving process for the lost limb
1 phantom limb sensation is real. The pain must be acknowledged and interventions to relieve the discomfort explored
Match the terms: A) Pharmocology, B) Pharmcokinetics, C) Pharmocotheraputic, D) Pharmocodynamic 1)The study of drugs 2)response drugs have on the body 3)how much of the dose get to the site of action 4)use of drug to diagnose, prevent, and treat disease
1) A 2)D 3)B 4)C
Match the acute pain: A)visceral, B)somatic, C)referred 1)localized, sharp pain ( cramping and gnawing), well defined 2)poorly localized, dull pain ( gnawing, throbbing) 3)shares ascending neurons, pain in another location
1) B 2)A 3)C
Match the terms: 1) glycogen, 2) glucagon, 3) glycogenesis, 4) gluconeogenesis, 5) cortisol, 6) glycogenolysis 1)stored glucose 2)storage of extra glucose 3)new generation of glucose 4)the breakdown of glycogen into glucose 5)hormone to help regulate BS 6)stress hormone, release and increase sugar, enhance brain use of glucose
1)1 2)3 3)4 4)6 5)2 6)5
A client is recognizing signs of hypoglycemic reaction. Which symptom identified indicate teaching was effective? 1. Fatigue 2. Nausea 3. Weakness 4. Nervousness 5. Increased thirst 6. Increased perspiration
1,3,4,6
For which involuntary physiologic response would the nurse monitor development in a client experiencing pain? 1. crying 2. splinting 3. perspiring 4. grimacing
3 Perspiration is an involuntary physiologic response. Grimacing is a result of facial muscle contraction and may or may not be a response to pain
A client have been recieving oxycodone for moderate pain associated with multiple injuries sustained in a vehicle collision. Which assessment finding in addition to their slurred speech lead the nurse to suspecting opioid intoxication? 1. mood lability 2. hypervigilance 3. constricted pupils 4. increased respirations
3 pupil constriction is a sign of opioid intoxication or overdose.
Which assessment finding of a client with chronic pain who has been prescribed opioid treatment indicates the need for a priority nursing intervention? SATA 1. Pruritus 2. Constipation 3. Level 3 sedation 4. Nausea and vomiting 5. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute
3, 5 The client with level 3 sedation and 8 breaths per minute need immediate intervention due to respiratory distress. The others are due to chronic use of opioids but not use of immediate intervention.
delay absorption of carbs in intestine
Acarbose
The nurse applies a cold pack to relieve musculoskeletal pain. Which explains the analgesic properties of cold therapy? 1. promote pain relief and circulation 2. numb the nerves and dilates the blood vessels 3. promotes circulation and reduce muscle spams 4. cause local vasoconstriction preventing edema and muscle spams
4 cold cause the blood vessels to constrict which reduce fluid leakage into tissue and prevent swelling and muscle spasm
Which assessment would the nurse complete to promote safety before administering pain medication to an older adult? 1. BP 2.Clients pain level rating 3. bowel sound and function 4. other prescribed medication
4. older adults frequently are prescribed multiple medications that can have side effected when combined.
Describe the steps of the acute inflammatory
: tissue injury and the release of activated endothelial cells, then vasodilation and increase blood flow, next swelling, and retraction of activated endothelial cells, then increased vascular permeability and leakage of small plasma proteins. Walling off, then movement of immune response cells to the site of injury, next exudate formation, then movement of glucose and oxygen to the site needing repair, finally release of chemical repair factor from activated endothelial cells
Which medication would the nurse expect to be prescribed to a pregnant adolescent reporting painful vesicles in the labia minora who is diagnosed with a herpes simplex virus infection Acyclovir Penciclovir Famciclovir Valacyclovir
Acyclovir Of the medications used to treat herpes simplex virus , acyclovir is the medication of choice . Penciclovir is used for herpes labialis . Famciclovir and valacyclovir are not prescribed for pregnant adolescents because of their potentially teratogenic effects .
Which cause of tremors , pallor , and diaphoresis would be suspected in a client with type 1 diabetes ? Overeating Viral infection Aerobic exercise Missed insulin dose
Aerobic exercise These responses are indicative of hypoglycemia , which can be caused by increased activity in clients who take insulin .
The nurse is caring for the newborn of a mother with diabetes . For which signs of hypoglycemia would the nurse assess the newborn ? Select all that apply . One , some , or all responses may be correct . Some correct answers were not selected . Pallor Irritability Hypotonia Ineffective suckling Excessive birth weight
An inadequate amount of cerebral glucose causes irritability and restlessness . Hypoglycemia affects the central and peripheral nervous systems , resulting in hypotonia . Feeding difficulties such as ineffective suckling can result from hypoglycemic effects on the fetal central nervous system . Hypoglycemia also causes cyanosis or pallor in the newborn . Excessive birth weight is common among neonates whose mothers have diabetes , but this does not indicate hypoglycemia .
Which condition triggers humoral immunity ? Select all that apply . One , some , or all responses may be correct . Tuberculosis Atopic diseases Bacterial infection Anaphylactic shock Contact dermatitis
Atopic diseases , bacterial infections , and anaphylactic shock are disease conditions that trigger humoral immunity . Tuberculosis and contact dermatitis result in cell - mediated immunity
Gentamicin
B.U.N and Creatine labs, for extensive burns, super toxic to kidney and ears. An aminoglyside
When will the nurse monitor for a potential hypoglycemic reaction after administering daily regular insulin to a client with type 1 diabetes at 8 AM ? At breakfast Before lunch Before dinner In the early afternoon
Before lunch Regular insulin is short acting and peaks in 2 to 4 hours , which in this case will be at or before lunch : Breakfast is too soon ; regular insulin peaks in 2 to 4 hours . Before dinner is too late ; regular insulin peaks in 2 to 4 hours . The early afternoon is too late ; regular insulin peaks in 2 to 4 hours .
30 min prior to med and remain upright 30 min. Take in the AM, no crushing, 1st therapy for osteoporosis
Bisphos.
treats hypocalcemia, take with full glass of water, AE: Tingling, renal calculi, cardiac arrest
Calcium salt
What are the steps of influencing infection by a pathogen
Carries intelligence invaded Micheal parents toxicity vicinity (communicability, immunogility, infection, mechanism of action, portal of entry, toxic, virulence
Which information will the nurse consider when planning care for a client with human immunodeficiency virus ( HIV ) who has been diagnosed with class 3 tuberculosis ? Select all that apply . One , some , or all responses may be correct . Class 3 tuberculosis is a clinically active disease , which is contagious . Tuberculosis is the leading cause of mortality in clients infected with HIV . HIV - positive clients are more likely to have multidrug resistant tuberculosis . Individuals with HIV usually have high fevers with active tuberculosis infection . Persons with active tuberculosis are usually treated on an outpatient basis .
Class 3 tuberculosis is a clinically active disease , which is contagious . Tuberculosis is the leading cause of mortality in clients infected with HIV . Persons with active tuberculosis are usually treated on an outpatient basis
Which effects of exercise would the nurse share with a client with diabetes who asks how exercise will affect insulin and dietary needs ? Increases the amount of insulin needed and increases the need for carbohydrates Increases the amount of insulin needed and decreases the need for carbohydrates Decreases the amount of insulin needed and increases the need for carbohydrates Decreases the amount of insulin needed and decreases the need for carbohydrates
Decreases the amount of insulin needed and increases the need for carbohydrates Exercise increases the uptake of glucose by active muscle cells ; carbohydrates are needed to supply energy for the increased metabolic rate associated with exercise . The need for insulin is decreased .
Which treatment strategy would benefit a client diagnosed with chlamydia ? Select all that apply . One , some , or all responses may be correct . Doxycycline Azithromycin
Doxycycline Azithromycin Doxycycline and azithromycin are used to treat chlamydia . Penicillin G is used to treat syphilis . Ceftriaxone is used to treat gonorrhea . Clotrimazole is used to treat candidiasis .
Which leukocyte releases vasoactive amines during a client's allergic reaction ? Neutrophil Monocyte Eosinophil Macrophage
Eosinophil Eosinophils release vasoactive amines during allergic reactions to limit the extent of an allergic reaction . Neutrophils are phagocytes , and numbers increase in inflammation and infection . Monocytes are involved in the destruction of bacteria and cellular debris . Macrophages are involved in nonspecific recognition of foreign protein and microorganisms .
suppress reabsorb. in postmenopausal, minimize DVT, with or without food
Estrogen
Describe how hyperglycemia contributes to the major micro- and macrovascular diabetic complications
Hyperglycemia microvascular changes included retinopathy (blindness), nephropathy (renal disease), and peripheral neuropathy ( burning/ loss of sensation). Macrovascular changes included cardiovascular, hypertension, and peripheral vascular diseases
polyuria, polydipsia (thirst), dehydration, fatigue, fruity odor breath, Kussmaul breathing, weight loss, extreme hunger, poor wound healing
Hyperglycemia-
Which condition is likely being experienced by a client receiving NPH insulin every morning who reports feeling nervous at 4:30 PM and has skin that is moist and cool ? hyperglycemic nonketotic state Ketoacidosis Glycogenesis Hypoglycemia
Hypoglycemia The time of the client's response corresponds to the expected peak action ( 4-12 hours after administration ) of the intermediate - acting insulin that was administered in the morning , which can result in hypoglycemia . Hypoglycemia triggers the sympathetic nervous system epinephrine causes diaphoresis and nervousness
Which laboratory value supports the presence of diabetic ketoacidosis in a client with type 1 diabetes ? Decreased serum glucose levels Decreased serum calcium levels Increased blood urea nitrogen levels Increased serum bicarbonate levels
Increased blood urea nitrogen levels With diabetic ketoacidosis , blood urea nitrogen level generally is increased because of dehydration . With diabetic ketoacidosis , the serum glucose levels are generally greater than 300 mg / dL ( 16.7 mmol / L ) .
Which size would the nurse expect a newborn to be of a client who had inadequately controlled type 1 diabetes during pregnancy ? Average for gestational age , term Small for gestational age , preterm Large for gestational age , postterm Large for gestational age , near term
Large for gestational age , near term Newborns of diabetic birth clients may be large for gestational age because hyperglycemia in the mother precipitates hyperinsulinism in the fetus , resulting in excess deposits of fetal fat . Diabetic clients with advanced vascular and renal disease may give birth to infants who are small for gestational age
Which role would norepinephrine's mechanism of action perform in managing anaphylaxis ? Norepinephrine blocks the effects of histamine . Norepinephrine inhibits the degranulation of mast cells . Norepinephrine functions as a peripheral vasoconstrictor . Norepinephrine rapidly stimulates alpha- and beta - adrenergic receptors .
Norepinephrine functions as a peripheral vasoconstrictor Norepinephrine is a vasopressor that elevates the blood pressure and cardiac output in clients suffering from anaphylactic reactions
A client's fasting plasma glucose levels are being evaluated . The nurse identifies that the client is considered to be diabetic if the results are within which range ? O40 to 60 mg / dL ( 2.2-3.3 mmol / L ) O80 to 99 mg / dL ( 4.5-5.5 mmol / L ) O100 to 125 mg / dL ( 5.6-6.9 mmol / L ) O126 to 140 mg / dL ( 7.0-7.8 mmol / L )
O126 to 140 mg / dL ( 7.0-7.8 mmol / L ) Results in the range 126 to 140 mg / dL ( 7.0-7.8 mmol / L ) indicate diabetes Results in the range 80 to 99 mg / dL ( 4.5-5.5 mmol / L ) are considered expected ( normal ) .
Which leukocyte is responsible for the allergic response ? Basophils Monocytes Eosinophils Macrophages
OBasophils Basophils stimulate the inflammation of allergy and hypersensitivity reactions
Which manifestation would the nurse expect to find when assessing a client with hypoglycemia ? Select all that apply . One , some , or all responses may be correct . Thirst Palpitations Diaphoresis Slurred speech Hyperventilation
Palpitations Diaphoresis Slurred speech
Which responses would the nurse expect a client experiencing hypoglycemia to exhibit ? Select all that apply . One , some , or all responses may be correct . Nausea Palpitations Tachycardia Nervousness Warm , dry skin Increased respirations
Palpitations Tachycardia Nervousness
natural and narrow. Can cause pregnancy, Gram positive, with food and shake well. Syphillis, gonorrhea, rheumatic fever. Do not take with Ceph., bactericidal
Pen. G &V
The nurse identifies which antimicrobial medications as safe during breast - feeding ? Select all that apply . One , some , or all responses may be correct . Penicillins Macrolides Tetracycline Cephalosporins Chloramphenicol
Penicillins Macrolides Cephalosporins Penicillins , macrolides , and cephalosporins are considered safe medications during breast - feeding as they are least likely to affect the infant . Tetracycline and chloramphenicol should be avoided during breast - feeding
- the study of drugs and their interaction with the living system
Pharmacology
the use of drugs to diagnose, prevent, or treat disease
Pharmacotherapeutic
The nurse plans to teach a school - aged child with type 1 diabetes who is receiving both intermediate - acting insulin and regular insulin daily how to self - administer the insulin before discharge . Which procedure would the nurse teach the child ? Practice using the nonmedicated insulin pen first . Alternate sites until the best one to use is found . Draw up the Novolin N first and then draw up the regular insulin . Self inject the insulin immediately after being taught the technique .
Practice using the nonmedicated insulin pen first . The child's confidence , readiness , and skill for giving self - injections are essential in the long - term management of diabetes , and the child should be taught to practice using the nonmedicated insulimpen
A child is receiving 45 units of intermediate - acting insulin at 7:00 AM and 7:00 PM . Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate when discussing bedtime , snacks with the parent ? Offer a snack at bedtime if there are signs of hyperglycemia . " Provide a bedtime snack to prevent hypoglycemia during the night . " Withhold the snack after dinner to prevent hyperglycemia during sleep . " Leave a snack at the bedside in case the child becomes hungry during the night . "
Provide a bedtime snack to prevent hypoglycemia during the night . " Intermediate - acting insulin peaks in 4 to 12 hours ; a bedtime snack will prevent hypoglycemia during the night . Offering a snack at bedtime if there are signs of hyperglycemia is unsafe because it will intensify the hyperglycemia ; if hyperglycemia is present , the child needs insulin . Bedtime snacks are recommended for people taking intermediate - acting insulin . When hypoglycemia develops , the child will be asleep ; the snack should be eaten before bed .
Which type of diet would the nurse expect the primary health care provider to prescribe for a client diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis ? Salt - free , low - fiber diet . High - calorie , low - cholesterol diet High - protein diet with minimal calcium Regular diet with vitamins and minerals
Regular diet with vitamins and minerals There are no dietary restrictions for clients with rheumatoid arthritis , but iron and vitamins should be encouraged to treat any underlying nutritional deficiencies . A salt - free , low - fiber diet is not indicated . A high calorie diet will increase the client's weight ; this is contraindicated because it will increase the strain on weight - bearing joints . A balanced diet should fulfill nutritional needs ; there is no need to increase protein or restrict calcium .
stimulate insulin to release by closing K+ channels and opening calcium channels
Rep
Which medication used to treat syphilis is contraindicated in pregnancy ? Amoxicillin Clotrimazole Tetracycline Metronidazole
Tetracycline Tetracycline can be administered to clients with syphilis who are allergic to penicillin G. This medication is contraindicated in pregnant women , because it can cause birth defects or staining / discoloration to the fetus ' developing teeth if given during the second trimester . Amoxicillin is an antibiotic that can treat syphilis and is safe in pregnancy . Clotrimazole is used to treat candidiasis . Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial vaginosis .
long acting, MTF and No Sun, teeth discoloration, avoid the sun, not for pregnant women, no dairy , Ae: esophagitis, treat: acne, chylamdia, and pneumonia
Tetracyclines
A new mother asks the nurse administering erythromycin ophthalmic ointment to her newborn why her baby must be subjected to this procedure . Which is the best response by the nurse ? " It will keep your baby from going blind . " This ointment will protect your baby from bright lights . " There is a law that newborns must be given this medicine . " This antibiotic helps keep babies from contracting eye infections . "
This antibiotic helps keep babies from contracting eye infections Erythromycin ophthalmic ointment is used to treat infections cause by Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia species , which may be transmitted during birth . It is administered prophylactically
what are the step to this: I'm Very Smart, Very Wise, ME MR
Tissue injury, vasodilation, swelling, vascular permability, walling off, migration and margination, exudate, movement of water and glucose, release
use with caution with digoxin, dsyrhthmia, noct/poluria , neuro symptoms
Vitamin D
nasal inhaler, for menopausal women, encouraging vitimin C & D intake
calcitonin salmon
lesions of the brain and spinal cord. Acute but often chronic
central pain
Describe the "chain of infection"
infectious agent (bacteria , virus) to reservoir( place where the microorganism survive, multiply, and wait for transfer to the host, to portal of exit ( blood, GI, GU, an exit site to enter another host and cause disease), to mode of transmission ( droplet, contact, etc.), to portal of entry ( enter the same way they exit), to susceptible host
Differentiate innate versus adaptive immunity.
innate is natural immunity ( killer T cells, earwax, Macrophages) Adaptive is acquired immunity ( T Cells, Memory B cells)
Burning, spontaneous, sensation caused by lesions in the nervous system
neuropathic pain
Nystatin
only for yeast candasis of skin, mouth, esophagus, and vagina (oral or tropical)
lesions of peripheral nerves
peripheral neuro pain
Compare the difference between medication errors and adverse drug events
· Adverse Event- unintended harm to the patient by act of commission or omission · Medication Error- error along the pathway of prescribing medications
Discuss the four pharmacokinetic processes related to drug therapy
· Four pharmacokinetic process- drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion · Absorption- drug from the site of administration into the blood · Disturb.- drug movement from blood to tissues and cells · Meta.- mediated alteration of drug structures Excretion.- movement of drugs and metabolites out of the body
Differentiate between neuropathic pain, peripheral pain, and central pain and
● Neuropathic pain- chronic pain initiated by lesion or dysfunction in the nervous system. can be spontaneous and burning. ● Peripheral pain - caused by peripheral nerve lesion Central pain- caused by lesion or dysfunction in the brain or spinal cord
Humoral
● immune response that are mediated by antibodies.
Hypoglycemia symptoms-
● reduced cognition, tremors, regular hunger, diaphoresis (sweating), irritability, weakness, seizure
Terror on the body, AE: Renal injury and oliguria, for systemic infection. Fluconazole (UTI, liver toxic, yeast)
Amp. B
Which second - line medication would the nurse prepare to give after administering epinephrine to a client experiencing an anaphylactic reaction ? Select all that apply . One , some , or all responses may be correct . Dopamine Norepinephrine Dexamethasone Diphenhydramine hydrochloride Hydrocortisone sodium succinate
Dexamethasone Diphenhydramine hydrochloride Hydrocortisone sodium succinate Dexamethasone is a corticosteroid that is a second - line medication used in the treatment of anaphylaxis . Diphenhydramine hydrochloride is an antihistamine that is a second - line medication used in the treatment of anaphylaxis . Hydrocortisone sodium succinate is a corticosteroid that is a second - line medication used in the treatment of anaphylaxis
Which response would be given by the nurse of an adolescent who has just been found to have type 1 diabetes and asks about exercise ? Exercise should be restricted . " Exercise will increase blood glucose Extra snacks are needed before exercise Extra insulin is required during exercise
Extra snacks are needed before exercise . Exercise lowers the blood glucose level ; an extra snack can prevent hypoglycemia
The nurse is preparing to insert an intravenous ( IV ) catheter in a thin , emaciated client who is scheduled to begin intravenous fluid therapy . Which interventions would the nurse follow to provide high - quality care ? Select all that apply . One , some , or all responses may be correct . Insert an 18 - gauge IV catheter Change the IV line every 7 days . Flush the IV line with normal saline Insert the IV catheter in the client's femur Stop the insertion procedure when there is a break in technique
Flush the IV line with normal saline Stop the insertion procedure when there is a break in technique nurse would change the IV line every 72 to 96 hours to prevent the risk of infection .
Which anti - infective agent may lead to blindness if not used correctly by the client in prescribed amounts ? Bromfenac Natamycin Trifluridine Gentamicin
Gentamicin Gentamicin is an anti - infective agent that can lead to blindness if not used in prescribed amounts
Which instruction about medications would the nurse include when teaching a client with type 1 diabetes who tells the nurse , " I take guaifenesin cough syrup when I have a cold . " ? Substitute an elixir for the cough syrup . " Increase fluid intake and use a humidifier to control the cough . " The small amounts of sugar in medications are not a concern with diabetes . " Include the glucose in the cough syrup when calculating daily carbohydrate allowance . "
Include the glucose in the cough syrup when calculating daily carbohydrate allowance . " Cough syrup contains a glucose base ; the client should use a glucose - free product or account for the glucose Elixirs contain natural sweeteners . Although increasing fluid intake and using a room humidifier will also loosen secretions , this does not include important information about the medication . Additional sweeteners , even the amounts in medications , may increase serum glucose levels beyond the desired range ; once control is achieved , it is unwise to alter dietary intake or medications without supervision .
An adolescent with a history of type 1 diabetes is admitted in ketoacidosis . Which cause would the nurse suspect as precipitating this episode of ketoacidosis ? Infection Increased exercise . Recent weight loss Overdose of insulin
Infection The stress of an infection increases the body's metabolism ; the presence of glucocorticoids results in hyperglycemia . Exercise causes a decrease in insulin needs that results in hypoglycemia , not hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis . Rapid weight loss causes a decrease in insulin needs that results in hypoglycemia , not hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis . Excessive insulin results in hypoglycemia , not hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis
Which fluid shift will the nurse take into consideration when assessing a client with type 1 diabetes who is experiencing a fluid imbalance ? Intravascular to interstitial as a result of glycosuria Extracellular to interstitial as a result of hypoproteinemia Intracellular to intravascular as a result of hyperosmolarity Intercellular to intravascular as a result of increased hydrostatic pressure
Intracellular to intravascular as a result of hyperosmolarity The osmotic effect of hyperglycemia pulls fluid from the cells , resulting in cellular dehydration . Hyperglycemia pulls fluid from the interstitial compartment to the intravascular compartment . Interstitial fluid is part of the extracellular compartment ; the osmotic pull of glucose exceeds that of other osmótic forces . An increase in hydrostatic pressure results in an intravascular - to - interstitial shift .
Which adverse effect would the nurse monitor for in an infant receiving a sulfonamide ? Kernicterus Gray syndrome Growth suppression Discoloration of the teeth
Kernicterus Kernicterus is a potential adverse effect of sulfonamides in infants . Gray syndrome is associated with chloramphenicol . Growth suppression can result from the use of glucocorticoids . Discoloration of the teeth is an adverse effect of tetracycline .
QT prolonged intervals, no food, full glass of water , hepatoxic, clay colored stool and yellow sclera
Macrolides (erythromycin)
Which leukocyte would the nurse include when teaching about antibody - mediated immunity ? Select all that apply . One , some , or all responses may be correct . Monocyte Memory cell Helper T cell B - lymphocyte Cytotoxic T cell
Memory cell B - lymphocyte Memory cells and B - lymphocytes are involved in antibody - mediated immunity . Monocytes are involved in inflammation . Helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells are involved in cell - mediated immunity .
Which type of immunity would a 4 - year - old child develop during the course of an infection with varicella ? Active natural immunity Active artificial immunity Passive natural immunity Passive artificial immunity
OActive natural immunity In active natural immunity , the infected child's antigen . Active artificial immunity is acquired by the injection of immune system responds to the invading organism ( varicella ) by producing antibodies specific to the mother . Passive artificial immunity is acquired through the injection of antibodies . antigens ; after this , the child develops antibodies . Passive natural immunity is acquired by the fetus from the
Which physiological changes would the nurse expect to find in a client with a 20 - year history of type 2 diabetes ? Blurry , spotty , or hazy vision Arthritic changes in the hands Hyperactive knee and ankle jerk reflexes Dependent pallor of the feet and lower legs
OBlurry , spotty , or hazy vision Blurry , spotty , or hazy vision ; floaters or cobwebs in the visual field ; and cataracts or complete blindness can occur as a result of diabetes . Diabetic retinopathy is characterized by abnormal growth of new blood vessels in the retina ( neovascularization ) . More than 60 % of clients with type 2 diabetes have some degree of retinopathy after 20 years
Anti-infective ( treat UTI'S), No Sun, S.U.L.F.A ( No sun, urine crystal, love water, folic acid daily, assess allergen ). Sulfisoxazole- ulcer colitis
Sulfronamides
decrease insulin resistance without hypoglycemia. Improve insulin sensitivity by being an agonist at the receptor site. AE: HF, LF, Rhabomylysis
pioglitazones
define Osteporous versus osteoarthritis
porous- skeletal disease ( low bone density and deterioration of bone tissue) Arthritis- cartilage breakdown, swollen, painful, hard to move
Which statement by a client prescribed ampicillin 250 mg by mouth every 6 hours indicates to the nurse that teaching has been effective ? " I should drink a glass of milk with each pill . " " I should drink at least six glasses of water every day . " " The medicine should be taken with meals and at bedtime . " " The medicine should be taken 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals . "
" The medicine should be taken 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals . " Ampicillin is a form of penicillin that should be given on an empty stomach ; food delays absorption . The response
The nurse is providing instructions about foot care for a client with diabetes mellitus . Which would the nurse include in the instructions ? Select all that apply . One , some , or all responses may be correct . Wear shoes when out of bed . Soak the feet in warm water daily . Dry between the toes after bathing . Remove corns as soon as they appear . Use a heating pad when the feet feel cold .
Wear shoes when out of bed Dry between the toes after bathing .
Match the following: 1) Prednisolone, 2)Betamethasone, 3)Dexamethasone, 4) cortisone, 5) hydrocortisone , 6)methalysone 1) babies and long acting 2) peds and intermediate' 3) long acting, eyes, spine, and brain 4) short acting, topical 5) IV 6) IV and Intermediate, needles
1)2 2)1 3)3 4)4 5)5 6)6
Match the following: 1) Osteltamivir, 2)Acyclovir, 3)Ribavirin, 4) Ganciclovir 1)herpes (localized zoster), chicken pox 2)flu 3)CMV 4)RSV and Hcv (hep C) ( react within the first 24, does not destroy but slow develop
1)2nas 2)1 3)4 4)3
Which action would the nurse take when administering tetracycline ? Administer the medication with meals or a snack . Provide orange or other citrus fruit juice with the medication . Administer the medication at least an hour before ingestion of milk products . Offer antacids 30 minutes after administration if gastrointestinal side effects occur .
Administer the medication at least an hour before ingestion of milk products Any product containing aluminum , magnesium , or calcium ions should not be taken in the hour before or after an oral dose of tetracyclines ( with the exception of doxycycline ) because it decreases absorption by as much as 25 % to 50 % . Food interferes with absorption ; it should be given 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals
Which assessment finding would the nurse identify as significant in an infant of a diabetic birth parent who is large for gestational age ( LGA ) ? Temperature less than 98 ° F ( 36.6 ° C ) Heart rate of 110 beats / min Blood glucose level less than 40 mg / dL ( 2.2 mmol / L ) Increasing bilirubin during the first 24 hours
Blood glucose level less than 40 mg / dL ( 2.2 mmol / L ) At birth , circulating maternal glucose is removed ; however , the neonate still has a high level of insulin , and rebound hypoglycemia may develop
For which clinical manifestation would the nurse focus when assessing clients taking tobramycin ? Select all that apply . One , some , or all responses may be correct . Throat sores Blurred vision Watery diarrhea Hearing impairment Decreased sense of smell
Blurred vision Hearing impairment Decreased sense of smell The client may suffer blurred vision , hearing impairment , or decreased sense of smell as side effects . associated with tobramycin . The nurse would assess for these clinical manifestations and implement measures to reverse the toxicity to prevent permanent damage . Excessive use of tobramycin is associated with these side effects include nephrotoxicity , neurotoxicity and hearing deficit . Neurotoxicity results in damage to the nerves affecting the function of sensory organs ( e.g. , eyes , ears , nose , skin such as cefazolin
Describe the function(s) of the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) with medication safety
Brand names have to be approved by the FDA and they regulate both formulary and nonformulary drugs
Arrange the pathophysiological events of acne in the correct sequence .
Excessive sebum production occurs with the maturation of adrenocortical glands . This action is followed by alterations in follicular growth and differentiation . Propionibacterium acnes proliferate and increase in number . This proliferation leads to an accumulation of neutrophils , which causes the formation of papules , pustules , nodules , and cysts and subsequent inflammation .
Which intervention would the nurse implement to relieve the symptoms associated with a hypoglycemic reaction ? Give 4 oz ( 120 mL ) of fruit juice . Administer 5 % dextrose solution intravenously ( IV ) . Withhold a subsequent dose of insulin . Provide a snack of cheese and dry crackers .
Give 4 oz ( 120 mL ) of fruit juice . Liquids containing simple carbohydrates are most readily absorbed and thus increase the blood glucose level quickly . Although a solution of 50 % dextrose may be given if the client is comatose , 5 % dextrose does not supply sufficient carbohydrates . Withholding a subsequent dose of insulin will not alter the current situation . Complex carbohydrates and protein take longer to increase the blood glucose level , so they should be administered after a simple carbohydrate .
Which hormones are involved in building and maintaining healthy bone tissue ? Select all that apply . One , some , or all responses may be correct . Insulin Thyroxine Glucocorticoids Growth hormone Parathyroid hormone
Insulin Glucocorticoids Growth hormone Insulin works together with growth hormone to increase bone length , which helps build and maintain healthy bone tissue . Glucocorticoids regulate protein metabolism to reduce or intensify the organic matrix of bone . Thyroxine increases the rate of protein synthesis in all types of tissues . Parathyroid hormone secretion stimulates bones to promote osteoclastic activity and release calcium into the blood when serum calcium levels are lowered .
The laboratory findings of an obese hypertensive adolescent reveal hyperinsulinemia and dyslipidemia . Which condition would the nurse anticipate incorporating into the plan of care ? Pulmonary disease Musculoskeletal disease Insulin resistance syndrome . Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease
Insulin resistance syndrome Insulin resistance syndrome , also known as metabolic syndrome or syndrome X , is a condition seen mostly in obese clients that manifests as hyperinsulinemia and dyslipidemia
Which side effect would the nurse assess for in a child receiving prednisone Alopecia Anorexia Weight loss Mood changes
Mood changes Mood swings may result from steroid therapy . Alopecia does not result from steroid therapy . An increased appetite , not anorexia , results from steroid therapy . Weight gain , not weight loss , results from steroid therapy .
Which hormone would the nurse identify as inhibiting insulin and glucagon secretion ? Amylin Somatostatin Triiodothyronine ( T3 ) Pancreatic polypeptide
Somatostatin Somatostatin is a hormone that inhibits insulin and glucagon secretion , as well as growth hormone , thyroid stimulating hormone , and decreases gastric motility and endogenous cholecystokinin . Amylin decreases glucagon secretion , but not insulin ; it also glucose release from the liver . Triiodothyronine ( T3 ) regulates the metabolic rate of all cells and processes of cell growth and tissue differentiation ; it does not influence insulin and glucagon secretion . Pancreatic polypeptide metabolism of absorbed nutrients affects the regulation of pancreatic exocrine function and
A 5 - year - old child is given fluoroquinolones . Which potential adverse effect unique to pediatric clients would the nurse anticipate ? Tendon rupture Cartilage erosion Staining of developing teeth Central nervous system toxicity
Tendon rupture Fluoroquinolones may cause tendon rupture in children . Nalidixic acid can cause cartilage erosion , and tetracycline can cause staining of developing teeth . Hexachlorophene may cause central nervous system toxicity in infants .
Which medication would be prescribed when a client reports vaginal itching and the primary health care provider confirms that the client has candidiasis ? Select all that apply . One , some , or all responses may be correct . Tinidazole Miconazole Fluconazole Clotrimazole Metronidazole
Miconazole Fluconazole Clotrimazole Miconazole , fluconazole , and clotrimazole are used to treat candidiasis . Tinidazole is used to treat trichomoniasis . Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial vaginosis .
An obese client with type 2 diabetes asks about the intake of alcohol or special " dietetic " food in the diet . Which instruction would be included in the teaching plan ? Alcohol can be consumed , with its calories counted in the diet . Unlimited amounts of sugar substitutes can be used as desired . Alcohol should not be used in cooking because it adds too many calories . Special " dietetic " foods are needed because many regular foods cannot be used .
Alcohol can be consumed , with its calories counted in the diet . In the overweight individual with type 2 diabetes , occasional alcohol can be ingested with caloric substitution for equivalent fat exchanges in the diet because it is metabolized like fat . Moderation is vital ; sugar substitutes may not be used in unlimited quantities , and they must be accounted for in the dietary calculations . Alcohol can be used as long as it is accounted for in the diet . The statement that special " dietetic " foods are needed because many regular foods cannot be used is untrue ; regular foods can be used in the diet of individuals with diabetes .
The nurse is caring for an alert client with diabetes whose blood glucose level is 30 mg / dL ( 3 mmol / L ) . Which would the nurse give to the client if the protocol calls for treatment of hypoglycemia with 15 g of a simple carbohydrate ? Provide 12 ounces ( 360 mL ) of nondiet soda . Give 25 mL dextrose 50 % by slow intravenous ( IV ) push . Have the client drink 8 ounces ( 240 mL ) of fruit juice . Ask the client to ingest 1 tube of glucose gel .
Ask the client to ingest 1 tube of glucose gel . One tube of glucose gel contains 15 g of carbohydrate and is the most appropriate intervention in this situation .
Which medication increases the risk for upper gastrointestinal ( Gl ) bleeding ? Select all that apply . One , some , or all responses may be correct . Aspirin Ibuprofen Methylprednisolone
Aspirin Ibuprofen Methylprednisolone Nonsteroidal anti - inflammatory drugs ( NSAIDs ) , including acetylsalicylic acid and ibuprofen , and corticosteroids such as methylprednisolone are known causes of medication induced gastrointestinal ( GI ) bleeding by causing irritation and erosion of the gastric mucosal barrier
control Bs in type 2 when diet therapy is not working, decrease BS by stimulating insulin pancreas secretion, AE: erythrema multiforme, weight gain, photosensitivity. ED: Follow diet plan, wear sunscreen, avoid aspirin, monitor weight
Glyburide
List the actions in the order the nurse will perform them when mixing a short - acting and an intermediate - acting insulin in the same syringe .
Air should be injected into the air space of the intermediate - acting insulin vial before short - acting insulin is drawn into the syringe ; the needle should not touch the insulin . The nurse should inject the amount of air into the short - acting insulin vial equivalent to the volume to be withdrawn to prevent negative pressure that can make withdrawal difficult . The short - acting insulin should be withdrawn first to prevent possible contamination of the vial with the intermediate - acting insulin , which would cause a delay in the onset time of the short - acting insulin . The intermediate - acting insulin should be drawn up after the short - acting insulin to prevent contamination of the short - acting insulin .
Which adverse effect of metformin will a nurse teach a client with type 2 diabetes to monitor for when used as monotherapy ? Weight gain Constipation Lactic acidosis Hypoglycemia
Lactic acidosis Metformin carries a black box warning regarding the possibility of lactic acidosis : clients must know how to monitor for this condition . An advantage of metformin over some other antidiabetic medications is that it does not cause weight gain and may actually result in weight loss for some clients
An adolescent with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the intensive care unit in ketoacidosis with a blood glucose level of 170 mg / dL ( 9.4 mmol / L ) . A continuous insulin infusion is started . Which adverse reaction to the infusion is most important for the nurse to monitor ? Hypokalemia Hypovolemia Hypernatremia Hypercalcemia
Hypokalemia Insulin moves potassium into the cells along with glucose , thus lowering the serum potassium level . Insulin does not lead to a reduced blood volume . Insulin does not directly alter the sodium levels . Insulin does not affect the calcium levels .
Which insulin will the nurse prepare for the emergency treatment of ketoacidosis ? Glargine NPH insulin Insulin aspart Insulin detemir
Insulin aspart Insulin aspart is a rapid - acting insulin ( within 10-20 minutes ) and is used to meet a client's immediate insulin needs . Glargine is a long - acting insulin , which has an onset of 1.5 hours ; for diabetic ketoacidosis , the individual needs rapid - acting insulin . NPH insulin is an intermediate - acting insulin , which has an onset of 1 to 2 hours ; for diabetic ketoacidosis , the individual needs rapid - acting insulin . Insulin detemir is a long - acting insulin ; for diabetic ketoacidosis , the individual needs rapid - acting insulin .
Which type of insulin would the nurse recognize as compatible with IV solutions when caring for a client with diabetes mellitus who is scheduled to receive an intravenous ( IV ) administration of 25 units of insulin in 250 mL normal saline ? NPH insulin Insulin lispro Insulin detemir Insulin glargine
Insulin lispro Insulin lispro is compatible with IV solutions ; it is a rapid - acting insulin . NPH insulin is not compatible with IV solutions ; it is an intermediate - acting insulin . Insulin detemir is not compatible with IV solutions ; it is a long - acting insulin.Insulin glargine is not compatible with IV solutions ; it is a long - acting insulin .
Which substance history of a severe allergic reaction results in avoidance of the cephalosporins such as cefazolin , cefditoren , cefotetan , and ceftriaxone ? Select all that apply . One , some , or all responses may be correct . Milk Aspirin Calcium Penicillin Strawberries
Milk Aspirin Calcium Penicillin Use of cephalosporins like cefazolin should be avoided in the client with a history of severe allergic reaction to penicillin because of the potential of cross - sensitivity The cephalosporin cefditoren should not be . administered to the client with a milk allergy because it contains the milk protein caseinate . Bleeding can be magnified with the use of aspirin and the use of the cephalosporins cefotetan or ceftriaxone . The cephalosporin ceftriaxone and calcium should not be administered together because they cause the formation of precipitates
Which clinical manifestation may indicate a client has systemic lupus erythematosus ( SLE ) ? Select all that apply . One , some , or all responses may be correct . Pericarditis Esophagitis Fibrotic skin Discoid lesions Pleural effusions
Pericarditis Discoid lesions Pleural effusions
Match the term: A) Absorption, B) Distribution, C)Metabolism, D) Excretion 1)from the blood into tissue 2)drugs into the blood 3) drugs and metabolites out of the body 4) altered drug structure
1)B 2)A 3)C 4)D
Which leukocyte value determines the adequacy of a client's response to inflammation ? Select all that apply . One , some , or all responses may be correct . Monocytes Neutrophils Plasma cells T - helper cells Macrophages
Monocytes Neutrophils Macrophages In response to inflammation , monocytes destroy bacteria and cellular debris , neutrophils ingest and phagocytize microorganisms and foreign protein , and macrophages destroy bacteria and cellular debris .. Plasma cells are a part of antibody - mediated immunity and secrete immunoglobulins in response to the presence of a specific antigen . T - helper cells are a part of cell - mediated immunity and enhance immune activity through the secretion of various factors , cytokines , and lymphokines .
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus SLE Type I Type II Type III Type IV
OType III SLE is an example of an immune complex - mediated , or type III , hypersensitive reaction . Anaphylaxis is an example of a type 1 , or immediate hypersensitive reaction . Cytotoxic , or type II , hypersensitive reactions can result in conditions such as myasthenia gravis and Goodpasture syndrome . Graft rejection and sarcoidosis are conditions caused by delayed , or type IV , hypersensitivity reactions .
Which prescribed medication will the nurse probably prepare educational materials for when caring for a pregnant woman with a body temperature of 103 ° F ( 39.4 ° C ) and clinical manifestations of coccidioidomycosis ? Doxycycline Ciprofloxacin Pyrazinamide Amphotericin B
Amphotericin B An elevated body temperature of 103 ° F ( 39.4 ° C ) , cough , headache , muscle aches , chest pain , severe joint pain , and night sweats are symptoms of coccidioidomycosis , a fungal infection . Pregnant women can safely take amphotericin B because the medication will not affect the fetus . Doxycycline is a tetracycline that may lead to discoloration of the teeth in the newborn . Ciprofloxacin is a broad - spectrum antibiotic used to treat various bacterial infections and is ineffective with a fungal infection . Pyrazinamide is one of the first - line treatments for tuberculosis .
Which assessment would the nurse perform before administering a dose of vancomycin to a client ? Select all that apply.One , some , or all responses may be correct . Creatinine Trough level Hearing ability Intravenous site Blood urea nitrogen
Creatinine Trough level Hearing ability Intravenous site Blood urea nitrogen Two major adverse effects of vancomycin are nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity . The nurse would assess the client's creatinine and blood urea nitrogen levels to determine renal function . The nurse would also assess the vancomycin trough levels to determine if the client's kidneys are clearing the medication . The nurse would assess for changes in hearing as a result of ototoxicity . Vancomycin can cause phlebitis , so the nurse would assess the intravenous site before initiating the infusion .
Which option is an example of actively acquired specific immunity ? Select all that apply . One , some , or all responses may be correct . Recovery from measles Recovery from chickenpox Maternal immunoglobulin in the neonate Immunization with live or killed vaccines Injection of human gamma immunoglobulin
Recovery from measles Recovery from chickenpox Immunization with live or killed vaccines Clients who recovered from measles or chickenpox or those immunized with a live- or killed - virus vaccine have naturally acquired active - type immunity . Maternal immunoglobulin in a neonate and an injection of human gamma immunoglobulin into a client are examples of passively acquired specific immunity .
Which instruction would the nurse provide a client prescribed oral extended - release ciprofloxacin therapy for a urinary tract infection ? Chew the medication along with food . Take a walk in morning sunlight . Stop the drug after symptoms subside . Refrain from taking the tablet immediately after an antacid .
Refrain from taking the tablet immediately after an antacid . Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic used in treating urinary tract infections . The nurse would instruct the client to refrain from consuming ciprofloxacin within 2 hours of taking an antacid . Most antacids contain aluminum or magnesium , which interfere with the absorption of ciprofloxacin
Arrange the steps required to stimulate antibody - mediated immunity in the sequence they occur .
Antibody - mediated immunity reaction is stimulated when a new antigen invades the body . The antigen is recognized in the body by the interaction of macrophage and helper T cells . Then sensitization of B lymphocytes to the new antigen occurs . Antibodies against the antigens are produced by B lymphocytes . These antibodies bind to the antigen , and the immune complex is formed , which causes cellular events that result in neutralization or elimination of the antigen .
Which action would the nurse implement when a client develops an anaphylactic reaction ? Select all that apply . One , some , or all responses may be correct . Initially , apply oxygen at 90 % to 100 % per nasal cannula . Call the Rapid Response Team and have the crash cart retrieved . Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees . Assign unlicensed assistive personnel ( UAP ) to stay with the client . Ensure emergency airway equipment is at the bedside . Intubate the client with a size 7 endotracheal tube and initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation ( CPR ) .
Initially , apply oxygen at 90 % to 100 % per nasal cannula . Call the Rapid Response Team and have the crash cart retrieved . Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees . Ensure emergency airway equipment is at the bedside .
Which time range would a nurse teach as the highest risk for hypoglycemia to a client with type 1 diabetes who self - administers neutral protamine Hagedorn ( NPH ) insulin every morning at 8:00 AM ? 9 : 00 AM to 10:00 AM 10:00 AM to 11:00 AM Noon to 8:00 PM 8:00 PM to midnight
Noon to 8:00 PM The time of greatest risk for hypoglycemia occurs when the insulin is at its peak . The action of intermediate acting insulin peaks in 4 to 12 hours . Nine to 10:00 AM and 10:00 AM to 11:00 AM are too soon for NPH to produce a hypoglycemic response . A hypoglycemic response that occurs 45 to 60 minutes after administration is associated with rapid - acting insulins.NPH insulin will have produced a hypoglycemic response before 8:00 PM and after noon .
