PBL Fall 19 Exam 1
C
"Strawberry tongue" is a red surface seen after an initial yellowish-white coating on the tongue is seen, and is an oral manifestation of which of the following caused by s. pyogenes? (A) acute rheumatic fever (B) pharyngitis (C) scarlet fever (D) erysipelas (E) streptococcal toxic shock syndrome
D
16-year old Eugene Bonner comes to your office complaining he "felt like crap." He presents with a sore throat, fever, headache and pain with swallowing. He has only tried Tylenol for his fever. Which of the following is correct about Streptococcus Pyogenes? (A) It is considered a Group B streptococci (B) It is characterized by alpha-hemolysis (C) It is a gram-negative, facultatively anaerobic bacteria (D) It is responsible for strep throat and scarlet fever (E) All the above are true
A
A patient presents to your clinic and seems to be in some kind of respiratory distress. Here are the following ABG results: Which of the following is the primary problem along with/without compensation: (A) Respiratory Acidosis with Metabolic compensation (B) Respiratory Alkalosis with Metabolic compensation (C) Respiratory Acidosis with no compensation (D) Normal
D
A patient who was given penicillin had an adverse reaction to the antibiotic. Although the reaction was due to the actions of mast cells, the response occurred because mast cells have IgE receptors in their cell membranes. Which of the following cells produced the IgE decorating the plasma cell's surface? (A) T memory cells (B) B memory cells (C) T helper cells (D) Plasma cells (E) T cytotoxic cells
A (gram(+) cocci)
All of the following are true of streptococcus EXCEPT (A) gram(-) cocci (B) facultative anaerobes (C) catalase-negative (D) ferment carbohydrates to produce lactic acid (E) classified into groups based on surface carbohydrates
E (hyaluronic acid)
All of the following statements about the M-protein of Group A Streptococci are correct EXCEPT: (A) The amino terminal portion (distal portion) is variable, accounting for over 80 distinct serotypes. (B) M proteins allow streptococci to resist phagocytosis. (C) Antibodies to M protein confer type-specific immunity. (D) M protein is the major virulence factor of Group A streptococci. (E) M protein is the major constituent of the capsule of Group A streptococci.
E
All of the following statements concerning the Frank-Starling mechanism are true EXCEPT: (A) It states that the volume of blood ejected by the ventricle depends on the volume present in the ventricle at the end of diastole (B) It ensures that in the steady state, cardiac output equals venous return (C) When the relationship is plotted it can be affected by changes in contractility, such as those caused by positive inotropic agents (ex: digoxin) (D) In heart failure, the cardiovascular system compensates using the mechanism by dilating the heart in response to increased end diastolic filling, causing stretching of cardiac myofibers that then contract more forcibly, increasing cardiac output (E) All of the above are true
E (endogenous)
All of the following statements regarding exogenous infections are true, EXCEPT? (A) An exogenous infection is caused by a pathogen that is not normally in the body (B) Microbes can enter host via inhalation of aerosolized bacteria, ingestion of contaminated/ill-prepared foods, sexual activity, or direct contact of a wound with the bacteria. (C) Patients with open incisions, indwelling devices, and compromised immune systems are especially at risk for exogenous infections (D) Examples of exogenous infections include Salmonella and Cholera (E) An exogenous infection might happen if a barrier between sterile and non-sterile tissues is broken, such as with a bowel perforation
B
An erythematous appearance of the pharynx together with exudate points to _________ caused by s. pyogenes (A) acute rheumatic fever (B) pharyngitis (C) scarlet fever (D) erysipelas (E) streptococcal toxic shock syndrome
E
Dana Albright is an 18-year-old female complaining of fever, "feeling tired all the time", and blurred vision. She has a history of Scarlatina as a child and has recently gotten a tongue piercing as well as had her wisdom teeth extracted. After running several tests and obtaining a culture, you diagnose her with SBE. Which of the following is true of subacute infective endocarditis in this patient? (A) Because the patient had pericoronitis, you can conclude that her wisdom teeth extraction was the source of the strep viridans that lead to her SBE (B) Because of the inflammation seen on her tongue, you can conclude that her tongue piercing was the source of the strep viridans that lead to her SBE (C) The presence of Janeway lesions on the patient are pathognomonic for SBE and no follow up cultures are needed to make a diagnosis (D) She will now have to receive antibiotic prophylaxis before all dental procedures, including if she goes to the orthodontist to have her retainer adjusted (E) Antibiotic prophylaxis when indicated should be administered in a single dose 30 - 60 minutes before the dental procedure
low; low high; low
In anemia of chronic disease, TIBC is (high or low) and serum iron is (high or low) In iron deficiency anemia, TIBC is (high or low) and serum iron is (high or low)
D
LDH is indicative of heart, skeletal muscle, and the brain. A high LDH is a sign of tissue damage. (A) Both true (B) Both false (C) 1st true, 2nd false (D) 1st false, 2nd true
C
Maxillary & mandibular teeth (except mandibular incisors) drain into: (A) facial nodes (B) occipital nodes (C) submandibular nodes (D) jugulodigastric nodes (E) submental nodes
D (jugulodigastric --> deep cervical nodes)
Posterior (pharyngeal) 1/3 of the tongue drains into: (A) facial nodes (B) occipital nodes (C) submandibular nodes (D) jugulodigastric nodes (E) submental nodes
B
Rheumatoid nodules are small lumps formed only in the lungs of patients with rheumatoid arthritis. These lung nodules are usually asymptomatic but can rupture and cause a collapsed lung. (A) First statement is true. Second statement is false (B) First statement is false, Second statement is true (C) Both statements are true (D) Both statements are false
pneumonia, meningitis
S. pneumonia that infects the lower lobes of the lungs will lead to ________ and S. pneumonia that spreads into the CNS will cause _______
C
Severe congestive heart failure is seen with an ejection fraction of: (A) 55% (B) 60% (C) 20% (D) 40%
-positive -negative -lactic acid
Streptococcus are: -gram- (positive/negative) cocci -facultative anaerobes -catalase- (positive/negative) -ferment carbohydrates to produce ________ ________
false (non-STEMI caused by partial blockage of coronary blood flow)
T/F Acute MI always shows ST elevation.
true (Normally anaerobic bacteria are found in GI tract. Because Mr. Tangier aspirated his vomit, anaerobic bacteria were also present in his lung)
T/F Timothy Tangier, A 60 yo man goes to the free clinic complaining that he "has a fever", his "voice has dropped an octave", and he has been coughing. Both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria were found in his solitary lung abscess.
B
Testing for levels of ________ produced by the left ventricle, aids in determining the extent of ventricular damage & prognosis of heart failure (A) ANP (B) BNP (C) Troponin (D) CK-MB (E) LDH
D (C substance)
The Lancefield groupings are based on the antigenic characteristics of a cell wall carbohydrate called the A substance. The main pathogenic groups for humans are A, B, C, D, & G. (A) Both true (B) Both false (C) 1st true, 2nd false (D) 1st false, 2nd true
C
The anterior oral 2/3 of the tongue (except the tip) drains into: (A) facial nodes (B) occipital nodes (C) submandibular nodes (D) jugulodigastric nodes (E) submental nodes
D
The palatine tonsils drain into: (A) facial nodes (B) occipital nodes (C) submandibular nodes (D) jugulodigastric nodes (E) submental nodes
E
The tip of the tongue, mandibular incisor teeth, & the center part of the lower lip drain into: (A) facial nodes (B) occipital nodes (C) submandibular nodes (D) jugulodigastric nodes (E) submental nodes
C
The upper & lower lip (except the center part) drain into: (A) facial nodes (B) occipital nodes (C) submandibular nodes (D) jugulodigastric nodes (E) submental nodes
B
Timothy Tangier had an arterial blood gas test done. The results showed an increase in pH, decrease in pCO2, with pO2, HCO3, and O2 saturation within normal limits. What is the conclusion from this test? (A) Mr. Tangier has bradycardia due to his medication regime resulting in metabolic acidosis. (B) Mr. Tangier is showing signs for respiratory alkalosis (C) Mr. Tangier is showing signs for respiratory acidosis (D) Mr. Tangier has Tachycardia and is trying to compensate resulting in respiratory acidosis
D
Timothy Tangier was prescribed Cilastatin & Imipenem. Which of the following is true regarding these medications? (A) It is an aminoglycoside antibiotic (B) It is known to cause decreased serum AST & ALT (C) Imipenem prevents renal metabolism of cilastatin by competitive inhibition of dehydropeptidase along the brush border of the renal tubules (D) There are no significant adverse effects reported on dental treatment
A, D
What are the differences between pulmonary edema and pleural effusion? (select all that apply) (A) Pulmonary edema can be caused by pulmonary venous congestion (B) Kerley B lines are present in both pulmonary edema & pleural effusion (C) Both conditions are fluid accumulation within the lungs (D) On chest X-ray, pleural effusion is observed as fluid built up at the bottom of the lungs
E
What are the most common laboratory findings when diagnosing Rheumatoid Arthritis? (A) An increase in erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (B) The presence of C-reactive protein (CRP) (C) A positive RF test (Rheumatoid factor) (D) A positive autoantibodies to cyclic citrullinated proteins (CCPs) (E) All of the above are common lab findings for RA
E
What are the timings for the cardiac enzymes in MI diagnosis? A. CK-MB starts to rise about 4 hours after MI B. Troponin T peaks 10-24 hours after MI C. Troponin I rises 4-6 hours after MI and returns to normal after 4 days D. A and C only E. All are correct
B
What does a pt perscribed methotrexate need to be supplemented with? Why? (A) Vitamin B, because methotrexate destroys cells metabolizing vitamin B (B) Folate , because methotrexate inhibits production of folate (C) Vitamin D, because methotreexate destroys fatty substances carrying vitamin D (D) Vitamin R, because methoxerate reduces pt's ability to focus
B
What is Osgood-Schattler disease? (A) Inflammation of a bony outgrowth on the fibula (B) Inflammation of a bony outgrowth on the tibia (C) Joint disorder in which cracks form in cartilage and underlying bone (D) Inflammation of bone at the bottom of the patella (E) Inflammation of the infrapatellar fat pad
A
What is osgood schlatter disease? (A) A traction apophysitis (inflammation of a bony outgrowth) of the ANTERIOR aspect of the TIBIAL tubercle (B) A traction apophysitis (inflammation of a bony outgrowth) of the POSTERIOR aspect of the TIBIAL tubercle (C) A traction apophysitis (inflammation of a bony outgrowth) of the ANTERIOR aspect of the FIBULAR tubercle (D) A traction apophysitis (inflammation of a bony outgrowth) of the POSTERIOR aspect of the FIBULAR tubercle
E
What is the O antigen of Enterobacteriaceae? (A) Cell surface polysaccharide (B) A channel controlling substance taken into the organism (C) A flagellar protein (D) A peptidoglycan matrix important for cellular rigidity (E) Cell wall lipopolysaccharide
E
What is true about iron supplementation? (A) Always prescribed together with vitamin D for better absorption. (B) It is prescribed to patients with iron deficiency (C) May cause constipation, stomach ache, nausea and vomiting as side effects (D) May be prescribed together with vitamin C for better absorption. (E) B,C, and D
A
What organs are located in the right upper quadrant? (A) Liver and gallbladder (B) Liver and pancreas (C) Gallbladder and stomach (D) Gallbladder and pancreas (E) Descending colon and spleen
E
When treating a patient with heart failure a dentist should consider which of the following? (A) Sitting the patient in a supine position so he does not get tachycardia. (B) Using anesthetics with epinephrine and epinephrine retractor cords to make sure he or she does not bleed. (C) Pay attention to the drugs that the patient is taking and take into consideration possible interactions and side effects(bleeding and xerostomia) (D) Check and monitor vital signs during treatment and make sure to reduce anxiety as much as possible. (E) C and D
C (ST elevation not depression)
When using an ECG to detect an MI, a physician should specifically look for abnormal Q waves and ST depression for correct pathological diagnosis (A) Both true (B) Both false (C) First true second false (D) First false second true
A
Which 2 virulence factors of S. pyogenes inhibit phagocytosis? (A) M protein & hyaluronic acid (B) M protein & F protein (C) M protein & pyrogenic exotoxins (D) Hyaluronic acid & F protein (E) Hyaluronic acid & pyogenic exotoxins
C
Which antiarrhythmic drug class and drug example are matched correctly? (A) Class 1- fast sodium channel blocker; ex propranolol (B) Class 2- beta-blocker; ex lidocaine (C) Class 3- potassium channel blockers; ex: amiodarone (D) Class 4- calcium channel blockers; ex: adenosine (E) Class 5- variable mechanism; ex:verapamil
C
Which bacteria is associated with the following virulence factors and is found in the genitourinary & GI tracts? -hemolysins -capsule -C5a peptidase -hyaluronidase -IgA-binding proteins -adhesins (A) strep pyogenes (B) strep pneumoniae (C) strep agalactiae (D) viridans streptococci
A (but not specific)
Which cardiac enzyme is released first after a MI? (A) Myoglobin (B) Troponin (C) CK-MB (D) CK (E) LDH
C
Which drug does NOT cause gingival hyperplasia? (A) Nifedipine (B) Cyclosporine (C) Acyclovir (D) Phenytoin
D
Which function is carried out by all lymphoid tissues and organs? (A) Filtration of lymph (B) Filtration of blood (C) Extramedullary hemopoiesis (D) Production of lymphocytes (E) Destruction of old erythrocytes
B (transudative is caused by HF)
Which is FALSE about exudative effusion (A) High protein content (B) Most commonly caused by heart failure (C) Increased permeability of small vessels (D) Cloudy (E) Caused by blocked blood vessels or lymph vessels, inflammation, infection, lung injury and tumors
C
Which is not indicative of Mononucleosis? (A) Presence of atypical lymphocytes in peripheral blood (B) A positive heterophil reaction (C) Positive rapid strep test (D) A rising titer of antibodies specific for EBV antigens
D
Which of the following antibiotics can safely be given to a patient who presents with profound fatigue, painful & erythematous pharyngitis, and splenomegaly? (A) Amoxicillin (B) Ampicillin (C) Any extended spectrum aminopenicillin (D) Azithromycin (E) Any of the above since the infection described is caused by s. Pyogenes
A
Which of the following antibiotics is the least effective against S. viridans? (A) Ampicillin (B) Penicillin (C) Erythromycin (D) Vancomycin
A, C
Which of the following are caused by group A streptococci (s. pyogenes)? (select all that apply) (A) strep throat (B) pneumonia (C) scarlet fever (D) neonatal diseases (E) syphillis
C
Which of the following blood tests is indicative of heart failure? (A) AST (B) ESR (C) BNP (D) TSH
A
Which of the following cell types is thought to function in suppressing the immune response? (A) Inducible T reg cells (B) B cells (C) T memory cells (D) TH cells (E) Mast cells
C
Which of the following correctly matches the antiarrhythmic drug with its possible adverse effect(s)? (A) Quinidine - bradycardia & possible organ toxicity (B) Lidocaine - syncope, hypotension, nausea & vomiting, & thrombocytopenia (C) Mexiletine - tremor, dizziness, diplopia, nausea & vomiting, & dry mouth (D) Amiodarone - hypotension & seizure (E) All of the above
B
Which of the following drugs does NOT bind to the tumor necrosis factor sequestering its activity? (A) Etanercept (B) Methotrexate (C) Infliximab (D) A and C (E) All of the above bind to TNF
B
Which of the following extracellular enzymes produced by Group A streptococci is called "spreading factor," an enzyme important in skin and soft tissue infection? (A) Streptokinase (B) Hyaluronidase (C) M Protein (D) None of the above
B
Which of the following is 1st detectable 2 to 4 hours after onset of acute MI, peaks at 10 to 24 hours, & persists for 5 to 14 days? (A) Myoglobin (B) Troponin (C) CK-MB (D) CK (E) LDH
C
Which of the following is 1st detectable 3 to 4 hours after onset of acute MI, peaks at 12 to 24 hours, & persists for 2 to 4 days? (A) Myoglobin (B) Troponin (C) CK-MB (D) CK (E) LDH
C
Which of the following is NOT a complication of an oral piercing? (A) Postoperative hematoma (B) Nerve damage (C) Decreased salivary flow (D) Infective endocarditis (E) Ludwig angina
C
Which of the following is NOT true of TIBC? (A) It's an indirect measurement of transferrin (B) It's a measurement of all proteins available for binding mobile iron (C) Transferrin is a positive acute-phase reactant protein (D) TIBC is more a reflection of liver function (transferrin is produced by the liver) and nutrition than of iron metabolism (E) TIBC is high in iron deficiency anemia because there's not enough iron in blood to bind the available iron carrier proteins
B
Which of the following is a sign of digoxin toxicity? (A) Dry mouth (B) Hypersalivation (C) Angioedema of the lip, face, or tongue (D) Lymphadenopathy (E) A & C
B, C, E, F, G, H
Which of the following is considered a suppurative disease (pus-forming) caused by group A strep (s. pyogenes)? (select all that apply) (A) Acute rheumatic fever (B) Pharyngitis (C) Scarlet fever (D) Acute glomerulonephritis (E) Erysipelas (F) Pyoderma/Impetigo (G) Invasive fasciitis (H) Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome
A (residential - endogenous)
Which of the following is considered an endogenous infection ? (A) Residential bacterium E. coli of the GI tract enters the urinary tract. (B) A pathogen entering a patient's body from his/her environment. (C) Microbes that are non-commensal enter a host. (D) Can enter a secondary host through an intermediate host such as insects and parasites. (E) Salmonella poisoning caused by ingestion of unsanitary conditions during food preparation.
D
Which of the following is not a main complication associated with S. pyogenes? (A) Scarlet fever (B) Pharyngititis (C) Pneumonia (D) Glomerulonephritis
B
Which of the following is not a side effect of spironolactone? (A) Hyperkalemia (B) Hypokalemia (C) Dehydration (D) Lethargy
C
Which of the following is not true regarding antibodies? (A) IgG is the most common type of antibody found in blood circulation. (B) Immunoglobulin A (IgA), as the major class of antibody present in the mucosal secretions of most mammals. (C) Antibodies are produced by T-cells of the immune system. (D) Immunoglobulin M (IgM) is found mainly in the blood and lymph fluid and is the first antibody to be made by the body to fight a new infection. (E) In B cells, the function of IgD is to signal the B cells to be activated. (F) IgE is produced in response to allergies
B (erythromycin if allergic)
Which of the following is the first line of treatment usually for an infection caused by strep pyogenes (strep throat, scarlet fever, etc.)? (A) erythromycin (B) penicillin (C) ciprofloxacin (D) clindamycin
E
Which of the following is true of Rheumatoid Arthritis? (A) It is caused by degeneration of articular cartilage that leads to structural and functional failure of synovial joints (B) Morning stiffness typically lasts less than 30 minutes and resolves with activity (C) It typically affects large joints first, such as the knees and hips (D) Symptoms are typically localized (E) It is typically symmetrical, affecting joints bilaterally
D
Which of the following is/are considered important criteria when diagnosing Infectious Mononucleosis ? (A) Clinical presentation compatible with infectious mononucleosis: fever, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly (B) Hematologic presentation compatible with that of infectious mononucleosis (lymphocytosis) : Atypical lymphocytes in significant numbers (C) Positive serologic test for infectious mononucleosis: Monospot test. (D) All of the above (E) None of the above
B
Which of the following is/are false about atherosclerosis? (A) Refers to the buildup of fats, cholesterol and other substances in and on your artery walls (plaque) (B) It is not a common cause of heart attacks and strokes. (C) It is usually caused by high levels of LDL and triglycerides in blood. (D) It usually cause blockage and may lead to ischemia, angina and myocardial infarction. (E) It is treated with anticholesterol and antiplatelets drugs.
B
Which of the following statements concerning the thymus is true? (A) Lymphoid nodules form much of the thymic cortex. (B) Epithelial reticular cells form Hassall corpuscles. (C) T cells migrate into the medulla, where they become immunologically competent. (D) Most T cells that enter the thymus are killed in the medulla. (E) Macrophages are essential components of the blood-thymus barrier.
A (group A)
Which of the following statements about Group B streptococci (Streptococcus agalactiae) is not correct? (A) They are important causes of toxic strep syndrome (B) They are frequent colonizers of the female genital tract. (C) Screening for this pathogen during pregnancy has reduced the incidence of neonatal sepsis (D) These organisms are b-hemolytic (E) They are important causes of urinary tract infections and bacteremia in elderly and diabetic adults
E
Which of the following statements about effusion is true? (A) Exudative effusion has low protein and low specific gravity (B) Transudative effusion has high protein (C) Exudative effusion is produced as a result of osmotic or hydrostatic imbalance across vessels with normal vascular permeability (D) Presence of transudative effusion implies that there is an increase in the permeability of small blood vessels, typically during an inflammatory reaction (E) Transudative effusion is most commonly caused by heart failure
D
Which of the following statements concerning Hassan corpuscles is true? (A) They are located in the thymic cortex of young individuals. (B) They are located in the thymic cortex of old individuals. (C) They are derived from mesoderm. (D) They are located in the thymic medulla. (E) They are derived from T memory cells.
C
Which of the following statements concerning T helper cells is true? (A) They possess membrane-bound antibodies. (B) They can recognize and interact with antigens in the blood. (C) They produce numerous cytokines. (D) They function only in cell-mediated immunity. (E) Their activation depends on interferon-γ
C
Which of the following statements concerning cytotoxic T cells is true? (A) They assist macrophages in killing microorganisms. (B) They possess antibodies on their surfaces. (C) They possess CD8 surface markers. (D) They possess CD28 surface markers. (E) They secrete interferon-y.
C
Which of the following statements concerning interferon-γ is true? (A) It is produced by T memory cells. (B) It is produced by T reg cells. (C) It activates macrophages. (D) It inhibits macrophages. (E) It induces viral proliferation.
E (C & D)
Which of the following streptococci cause α-hemolysis when grown on blood agar plates (greenish color)? (A) strep pyogenes (group A) (B) strep agalactiae (group B) (C) strep pneumoniae (D) viridans streptococci (E) More than one of the above
E (A & B)
Which of the following streptococci cause β-hemolysis when grown on sheep blood agar plates (yellow ring around the colony, indicative of the release of hemoglobin from erythrocytes)? (A) strep pyogenes (group A) (B) strep agalactiae (group B) (C) strep pneumoniae (D) viridans streptococci (E) More than one of the above
D
Which one is NOT true about/found in aspiration pneumonia? (A) Cavitary lesion in the chest x-ray (B) Bacteroides, Prevotella, Fusobacterium, Peptostreptococcus in the culture Streptococcus pneumoniae, Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa in the culture (C) It's necrotizing (D) Results in a positive TB test (E) It Can cause death
C (non-selective)
Which statement is false regarding Carvedilol? (A) It's a β-adrenergic blocker (B) It has α blocking activity (C) It's a selective β-adrenoreceptor (D) It's used in the treatment of CHF
D
Which type of cardiac arrhythmia is the most sustained arrhythmia? Usually associated with age and hypertension. It is categorized by rapid, disorganized and ineffective atrial contractions. a. atrial bradycardia b. atrial tachycardia c. heart block d. atrial fibrillation e. atrial flutter
A
Which viridans group can cause bacteremia and endocarditis? (A) salivarius group (B) mitis group (C) anginosus group (D) mutans group
D
Which viridans group initiates dental caries & can cause bacteremia? (A) salivarius group (B) mitis group (C) anginosus group (D) mutans group
C
Which viridans group is associated with head and neck, brain, lung, and abdominal infections as well as abscess formation, and have β-hemolytic activity? (A) salivarius group (B) mitis group (C) anginosus group (D) mutans group
B
Which viridans group is associated with subacute endocarditis, pneumonia, and meningitis? (A) salivarius group (B) mitis group (C) anginosus group (D) mutans group
D
Which virulence factor of S. pneumonia is described below? activates alternative pathway → strong inflammatory response (A) adhesin proteins (B) IgA protease (C) Phosphocholine (D) techoic acid & peptidoglycan (E) pneumolysin (F) capsule
C
Which virulence factor of S. pneumonia is described below? binding to platelet activating factor receptors, leukocytes, & platelets → cell entry → facilitates spreading into blood & CNS (A) adhesin proteins (B) IgA protease (C) Phosphocholine (D) techoic acid & peptidoglycan (E) pneumolysin (F) capsule
A
Which virulence factor of S. pneumonia is described below? binds epithelial cells of oropharynx (A) adhesin proteins (B) IgA protease (C) Phosphocholine (D) techoic acid & peptidoglycan (E) pneumolysin (F) bacterial phosphocholine (G) capsule
E
Which virulence factor of S. pneumonia is described below? classical complement pathway → proinflammatory cytokines → leukocyte migration, tissue destruction, & fever (A) adhesin proteins (B) IgA protease (C) Phosphocholine (D) techoic acid & peptidoglycan (E) pneumolysin (F) capsule
B
Which virulence factor of S. pneumonia is described below? interferes with entrapment in mucin normally mediated by IgA (A) adhesin proteins (B) IgA protease (C) Phosphocholine (D) techoic acid & peptidoglycan (E) pneumolysin (F) bacterial phosphocholine (G) capsule
C
Which virulence factor of S. pneumonia is described below? part of teichoic acids - needed by bacterial autolysin to hydrolyze cell wall during cell division (A) adhesin proteins (B) IgA protease (C) Phosphocholine (D) techoic acid & peptidoglycan (E) pneumolysin (F) capsule
F
Which virulence factor of S. pneumonia is described below? prevents phagocytosis and destruction (A) adhesin proteins (B) IgA protease (C) Phosphocholine (D) techoic acid & peptidoglycan (E) pneumolysin (F) capsule
C
Which virulence factor of S. pyogenes is described below? binds Fc portion of IgG & IgM → prevent recognition of antibody-bound bacteria by Fc receptors on phagocytes (A) F protein (B) pyrogenic exotoxins (C) M-like proteins (D) Hyaluronidase (E) streptolysin S (F) streptolysin O (G) streptokinase (H) DNase
A
Which virulence factor of S. pyogenes is described below? binds fibronectin → binds cell surface integrin → mediates bacterial attachment to epithelial cells of the pharynx & the skin (A) F protein (B) pyrogenic exotoxins (C) M-like proteins (D) Hyaluronidase (E) streptolysin S (F) streptolysin O (G) streptokinase (H) DNase
G
Which virulence factor of S. pyogenes is described below? catalyzes conversion of plasminogen → plasmin which degrades fibrin in blood clots → disintegration of clots (A) F protein (B) pyrogenic exotoxins (C) M-like proteins (D) Hyaluronidase (E) streptolysin S (F) streptolysin O (G) streptokinase (H) DNase
H
Which virulence factor of S. pyogenes is described below? degrades DNA in pus → reduces viscosity → facilitates spread of microorganism (A) F protein (B) pyrogenic exotoxins (C) M-like proteins (D) Hyaluronidase (E) streptolysin S (F) streptolysin O (G) streptokinase (H) DNase
D
Which virulence factor of S. pyogenes is described below? degrades hyaluronic acid (part of host CT) aka spreading factor (A) F protein (B) pyrogenic exotoxins (C) M-like proteins (D) Hyaluronidase (E) streptolysin S (F) streptolysin O (G) streptokinase (H) DNase
F
Which virulence factor of S. pyogenes is described below? immunogenic hemolysin that autolysis leukocytes (A) F protein (B) pyrogenic exotoxins (C) M-like proteins (D) Hyaluronidase (E) streptolysin S (F) streptolysin O (G) streptokinase (H) DNase
B
Which virulence factor of S. pyogenes is described below? induce fever, act as superantigens, & produce red rash seen in scarlet fever (A) F protein (B) pyrogenic exotoxins (C) M-like proteins (D) Hyaluronidase (E) streptolysin S (F) streptolysin O (G) streptokinase (H) DNase
E
Which virulence factor of S. pyogenes is described below? non-immunogenic, cell-bound hemolysin that lyses RBCs, leukocytes, & platelets & facilitates autolysis of phagocytes (A) F protein (B) pyrogenic exotoxins (C) M-like proteins (D) Hyaluronidase (E) streptolysin S (F) streptolysin O (G) streptokinase (H) DNase