Peds ch26 TestBank
ANS: D, E, F Children with mild persistent asthma have signs or symptoms more than two times per week and nighttime signs or symptoms three or four times per month. Children with moderate persistent asthma have some limitations with normal activity and need to use a short-acting b-agonist for sign or symptom control daily. Children with severe persistent asthma have frequent nighttime signs or symptoms and have a PEF of less than 60%.
1. The nurse is preparing a staff education program about pediatric asthma. What concepts should the nurse include when discussing the asthma severity classification system? (Select all that apply.) a. Children with mild persistent asthma have nighttime signs or symptoms less than two times a month. b. Children with moderate persistent asthma use a short-acting -agonist more than two times per week. c. Children with severe persistent asthma have a peak expiratory flow (PEF) of 60% to 80% of predicted value. d. Children with mild persistent asthma have signs or symptoms more than two times per week. e. Children with moderate persistent asthma have some limitations with normal activity. f. Children with severe persistent asthma have frequent nighttime signs or symptoms.
ANS: A Continuous swallowing, especially while sleeping, is an early sign of bleeding. The child swallows the blood that is trickling from the operative site. Gargling is discouraged because it could irritate the operative site. Ice compresses are recommended to reduce inflammation. The child should be positioned on the side or abdomen to facilitate drainage of secretions.
1. When caring for a child after a tonsillectomy, what intervention should the nurse do? a. Watch for continuous swallowing. b. Encourage gargling to reduce discomfort. c. Apply warm compresses to the throat. d. Position the child on the back for sleeping.
ANS: D Short-acting 2-agonists are the first treatment in an acute asthma exacerbation. Ephedrine and aminophylline are not helpful in acute asthma exacerbations. Theophylline is unnecessary for treating asthma exacerbations.
10. What drug is usually given first in the emergency treatment of an acute, severe asthma episode in a young child? a. Ephedrine b. Theophylline c. Aminophylline d. Short-acting 2-agonists
ANS: A A sweat test result of greater than 60 mEq/L is diagnostic of CF, a high level of fecal fat is a gastrointestinal manifestation of CF, and a chest radiograph showing patchy atelectasis and obstructive emphysema indicates CF. Bronchoscopy, duodenal fluid analysis, stool tests for trypsin, and intestinal biopsy are not helpful in diagnosing CF. Gastric contents normally contain hydrochloride; it is not diagnostic.
11. What tests aid in the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis (CF)? a. Sweat test, stool for fat, chest radiography b. Sweat test, bronchoscopy, duodenal fluid analysis c. Sweat test, stool for trypsin, biopsy of intestinal mucosa d. Stool for fat, gastric contents for hydrochloride, radiography
ANS: B Bronchodilators should be given before CPT to open bronchi and make expectoration easier. These medications are not helpful when used after CPT. Oxygen is administered only in acute episodes, with caution, because of chronic carbon dioxide retention.
12. A child with cystic fibrosis (CF) receives aerosolized bronchodilator medication. When should this medication be administered? a. After chest physiotherapy (CPT) b. Before chest physiotherapy (CPT) c. After receiving 100% oxygen d. Before receiving 100% oxygen
ANS: C, D, E Clinical manifestations of pulmonary edema include diaphoresis, pink frothy sputum, and respiratory crackles. Fever or bradycardia is not manifestations of pulmonary edema.
9. The nurse is preparing to admit a 7-year-old child with pulmonary edema. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Fever b. Bradycardia c. Diaphoresis d. Pink frothy sputum e. Respiratory crackles
ANS: A Nebulized epinephrine (racemic epinephrine) is now used in children with LTB that is not alleviated with cool mist. The beta-adrenergic effects cause mucosal vasoconstriction and subsequent decreased subglottic edema. The use of corticosteroids is beneficial because the anti-inflammatory effects decrease subglottic edema. Nebulizer treatments are not effective even though oxygen may be required. Antibiotics are not used because it is a viral infection. Chest physiotherapy would not be instituted.
13. A child is admitted with acute laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB). The child will most likely be treated with which? a. Racemic epinephrine and corticosteroids b. Nebulizer treatments and oxygen c. Antibiotics and albuterol d. Chest physiotherapy and humidity
ANS: B The American Academy of Pediatrics practice parameter (2006) recommends the use of supplemental oxygen if the infant fails to maintain a consistent oxygen saturation of at least 90%. The health care provider should be notified of the saturation reading of 88%. Withholding the feedings or placing the infant in an infant seat would not increase the saturation reading. The infant should be kept in the hood, but because the saturation reading is 88%, the health care provider should be notified to obtain orders to increase the oxygen concentration.
14. The nurse is caring for a 1-month-old infant with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) who is receiving 23% oxygen via a plastic hood. The child's SaO2 saturation is 88%, respiratory rate is 45 breaths/min, and pulse is 140 beats/min. Based on these assessments, what action should the nurse take? a. Withhold feedings. b. Notify the health care provider. c. Put the infant in an infant seat. d. Keep the infant in the plastic hood.
ANS: A Fluids by mouth may be contraindicated because of tachypnea, weakness, and fatigue. Therefore, IV fluids are preferred until the acute stage of bronchiolitis has passed. Infants with bronchiolitis may have paroxysmal coughing, but fluids by mouth would not be contraindicated. Irritability or fever would not be reasons for fluids by mouth to be contraindicated.
15. A 3-month-old infant is admitted to the pediatric unit for treatment of bronchiolitis. The infant's vital signs are T, 101.6° F; P, 106 beats/min apical; and R, 70 breaths/min. The infant is irritable and fussy and coughs frequently. IV fluids are given via a peripheral venipuncture. Fluids by mouth were initially contraindicated for what reason? a. Tachypnea b. Paroxysmal cough c. Irritability d. Fever
ANS: D The child in status asthmaticus should be placed on continuous cardiorespiratory (including blood pressure) and pulse oximetry monitoring. A systemic corticosteroid (oral, IV, or IM) may also be given to decrease the effects of inflammation. Inhaled aerosolized short-acting b2-agonists are recommended for all patients. Therefore, Solumedrol per IV, continuous pulse oximetry, and albuterol nebulizer treatments are the expected prescribed treatments. Oral medications would not be used during the acute stage of status asthmaticus. Vital signs once a shift and spot pulse oximetry checks would not be often enough.
16. A 6-year-old child is in the hospital for status asthmaticus. Nursing care during this acute period includes which prescribed interventions? a. Prednisolone (Pediapred) PO every day, IV fluids, cromolyn (Intal) inhaler bid b. Salmeterol (Serevent) PO bid, vital signs every 4 hr, spot check pulse oximetry c. Triamcinolone (Azmacort) inhaler bid, continuous pulse oximetry, vital signs once a shift d. Methylprednisolone (Solumedrol) IV every 12 hr, continuous pulse oximetry, albuterol nebulizer treatments every 4 hr and prn
ANS: C Children with CF require a well-balanced, high-protein, high-caloric diet, with unrestricted fat (because of the impaired intestinal absorption).
17. In providing nourishment for a child with cystic fibrosis (CF), what factors should the nurse keep in mind? a. Fats and proteins must be greatly curtailed. b. Most fruits and vegetables are not well tolerated. c. Diet should be high in calories, proteins, and unrestricted fats. d. Diet should be low fat but high in calories and proteins.
ANS: D Normally sweat chloride content is less than 40 mEq/L, with a mean of 18 mEq/L. A chloride concentration greater than 60 mEq/L is diagnostic of CF; in infants younger than 3 months, a sweat chloride concentration greater than 40 mEq/L is highly suggestive of CF.
18. A quantitative sweat chloride test has been done on an 8-month-old child. What value should be indicative of cystic fibrosis (CF)? a. Less than 18 mEq/L b. 18 to 40 mEq/L c. 40 to 60 mEq/L d. Greater than 60 mEq/L
ANS: D Play techniques that can be used for younger children to extend their expiratory time and increase expiratory pressure include blowing cotton balls or a ping-pong ball on a table, blowing a pinwheel, blowing bubbles, or preventing a tissue from falling by blowing it against the wall. Increased fluids, increased use of a Pulmicort inhaler, or suppressing a cough will not increase expiratory effectiveness
19. A preschool child has asthma, and a goal is to extend expiratory time and increase expiratory effectiveness. What action should the nurse implement to meet this goal? a. Encourage increased fluid intake. b. Recommend increased use of a budesonide (Pulmicort) inhaler. c. Administer an antitussive to suppress coughing. d. Encourage the child to blow a pinwheel every 6 hr while awake.
ANS: D Analgesic ear drops can provide topical relief for the intense pain of OM. Decongestants and antihistamines are not recommended in the treatment of OM. Aspirin is contraindicated in young children because of the association with Reye syndrome.
2. Parents bring their 15-month-old infant to the emergency department at 3:00 AM because the toddler has a temperature of 39° C (102.2° F), is crying inconsolably, and is tugging at the ears. A diagnosis of otitis media (OM) is made. In addition to antibiotic therapy, the nurse practitioner should instruct the parents to use what medication? a. Decongestants to ease stuffy nose b. Antihistamines to help the child sleep c. Aspirin for pain and fever management d. Benzocaine ear drops for topical pain relief
ANS: B, D, F Clinical manifestations of a congenital diaphragmatic hernia include a scaphoid abdomen, a mediastinal shift, and moderate to severe respiratory distress. The infant would not have a harsh, loud murmur or poor peripheral pulses. Inguinal swelling is indicative of an inguinal hernia.
2. The nurse is caring for a newborn with suspected congenital diaphragmatic hernia. What of the following findings would the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Loud, harsh murmur b. Scaphoid abdomen c. Poor peripheral pulses d. Mediastinal shift e. Inguinal swelling f. Moderate respiratory distress
ANS: C Many infants with a CDH require immediate respiratory assistance, which includes endotracheal intubation and GI decompression with a double-lumen catheter to prevent further respiratory compromise. At birth, bag and mask ventilation is contraindicated to prevent air from entering the stomach and especially the intestines, further compromising pulmonary function. Oxygen and suctioning may be used for mild respiratory distress
20. A term infant is delivered, and before delivery, the medical team was notified that a congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) was diagnosed on ultrasonography. What should be done immediately at birth if respiratory distress is noted? a. Give oxygen. b. Suction the infant. c. Intubate the infant. d. Ventilate the infant with a bag and mask.
ANS: D This child is exhibiting signs of respiratory distress and possible epiglottitis. Epiglottitis is always a medical emergency requiring antibiotics and airway support for treatment. Sitting up is the position that facilitates breathing in respiratory disease. The oral pharynx should not be visualized. If the epiglottis is inflamed, there is the potential for complete obstruction if it is irritated further. Although lung auscultation provides useful assessment information, a mist tent would not be beneficial for this child. Immediate medical evaluation and intervention are indicated.
3. A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department. She has a "froglike" croaking sound on inspiration, is agitated, and is drooling. She insists on sitting upright. The nurse should intervene in which manner? a. Make her lie down and rest quietly. b. Examine her oral pharynx and report to the physician. c. Auscultate her lungs and prepare for placement in a mist tent. d. Notify the physician immediately and be prepared to assist with intubation.
ANS: A, B, E Warm or cool mist is a common therapeutic measure for symptomatic relief of respiratory discomfort. The moisture soothes inflamed membranes and is beneficial when there is hoarseness or laryngeal involvement. A time-honored method of producing steam is the shower. Running a shower of hot water into the empty bathtub or open shower stall with the bathroom door closed produces a quick source of steam. Keeping a child in this environment for 10 to 15 minutes may help ease respiratory efforts. A small child can sit on the lap of a parent or other adult. The child should be quiet but upright, not flat. The use of steam vaporizers or boiling water in the home is often discouraged because of the hazards related to their use and limited evidence to support their efficacy.
3. What interventions can the nurse teach parents to do to ease respiratory efforts for a child with a mild respiratory tract infection? (Select all that apply.) a. Cool mist b. Warm mist c. Steam source using a kettle of boiling water d. Keep child in a flat, quiet position e. Run a shower of hot water to produce steam
ANS: A, C, E Contraindications to either tonsillectomy or adenoidectomy are (1) cleft palate because both tonsils help minimize escape of air during speech, (2) acute infections at the time of surgery because the locally inflamed tissues increase the risk of bleeding, and (3) uncontrolled systemic diseases or blood dyscrasias. Tonsillectomy or adenoidectomy is not contraindicated in sickle cell disease or seizure disorders.
4. A tonsillectomy or adenoidectomy is contraindicated in what conditions? (Select all that apply.) a. Cleft palate b. Seizure disorders c. Blood dyscrasias d. Sickle cell disease e. Acute infection at the time of surgery
ANS: C RSV is transmitted through droplets. In addition to Standard Precautions and hand washing, Contact Precautions are required. Caregivers must use gloves and gowns when entering the room. Care is taken not to touch their own eyes or mucous membranes with a contaminated gloved hand. Children are placed in a private room or in a room with other children with RSV infections. Reverse isolation focuses on keeping bacteria away from the infant. With RSV, other children need to be protected from exposure to the virus. The virus is not airborne.
4. An infant with bronchiolitis is hospitalized. The causative organism is respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). The nurse knows that a child infected with this virus requires what type of isolation? a. Reverse isolation b. Airborne isolation c. Contact Precautions d. Standard Precautions
ANS: A Antibiotics are indicated for bacterial pneumonia. Often the child has decreased pulmonary reserve, and clustering of care is essential. The child's respiratory rate and status and general disposition are monitored closely, but frequent complete physical assessments are not indicated. Antitussive agents are used sparingly. It is desirable for the child to cough up some of the secretions. Fluids are essential to kept secretions as liquefied as possible.
5. An infant has been diagnosed with staphylococcal pneumonia. Nursing care of the child with pneumonia includes which intervention? a. Administration of antibiotics b. Frequent complete assessment of the infant c. Round-the-clock administration of antitussive agents d. Strict monitoring of intake and output to avoid congestive heart failure
ANS: A, B, D The live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV) is an acceptable alternative to the IM vaccine (IIV) for ages 2 to 49 years. It is a live vaccine administered via nasal spray. Several groups are excluded from receiving it, including children with a chronic heart or lung disease (asthma or reactive airways disease), diabetes, or kidney failure; children who are immunocompromised or receiving immunosuppressants; children younger than 5 years of age with a history of recurrent wheezing; children receiving aspirin; patients who are pregnant; children who have a severe allergy to chicken eggs or who are allergic to any of the nasal spray vaccine components; or children with a history of Guillain-Barré Syndrome after a previous dose. A child with hemophilia A or gastroesophageal reflux disease would not be immunocompromised so they can receive the LAIV.
5. The clinic nurse is administering influenza vaccinations. Which children should not receive the live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV)? (Select all that apply.) a. A child with asthma b. A child with diabetes c. A child with hemophilia A d. A child with cancer receiving chemotherapy e. A child with gastroesophageal reflux disease
ANS: C The irritation of a foreign body in the nose produces local mucosal swelling with foul-smelling nasal discharge, local obstruction with sneezing, and mild discomfort. Allergies would produce clear bilateral nasal discharge. Nasal discharge is usually not associated with pharyngitis. Acute nasopharyngitis would have bilateral mucous discharge.
6. A toddler has a unilateral foul-smelling nasal discharge and frequent sneezing. The nurse should suspect what condition? a. Allergies b. Acute pharyngitis c. Foreign body in the nose d. Acute nasopharyngitis
ANS: B, C, E Clinical features of acute spasmodic laryngitis include a croupy cough, a tendency to recur, and occurring sudden, often at night. High fever is a feature of acute epiglottitis and purulent secretions are seen with acute tracheitis.
6. The nurse is preparing to admit a 3-year-old child with acute spasmodic laryngitis. What clinical features of hepatitis B should the nurse recognize? (Select all that apply.) a. High fever b. Croupy cough c. Tendency to recur d. Purulent secretions e. Occurs sudden, often at night
ANS: A, C, D, E For the child with clinically active pulmonary and extrapulmonary TB, the goal is to achieve sterilization of the tuberculous lesion. The American Academy of Pediatrics (2012) recommends a 6-month regimen consisting of INH, rifampin, ethambutol, and PZA given daily or twice weekly for the first 2 months followed by INH and rifampin given two or three times a week by DOT for the remaining 4 months (Mycobacterium tuberculosis). Cefuroxime is not part of the regimen.
7. A child is diagnosed with active pulmonary tuberculosis. What medications does the nurse anticipate to be prescribed for the first 2 months? (Select all that apply.) a. Isoniazid (INH) b. Cefuroxime (Ceftin) c. Rifampin (Rifadin) d. Pyrazinamide (PZA) e. Ethambutol (Myambutol)
ANS: B Careful monitoring of oxygenation and cardiopulmonary status is an important evaluation tool in the care of the child with ARDS. Maintenance of vascular volume and hydration is important and should be done parenterally. Seizures are not a side effect of ARDS. Adequate nutrition is necessary, but a high-protein diet is not helpful.
7. The nurse is caring for a child with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) associated with sepsis. What nursing action should be included in the care of the child? a. Force fluids. b. Monitor pulse oximetry. c. Institute seizure precautions. d. Encourage a high-protein diet.
ANS: A Peak expiratory flow rate monitoring is used to monitor the child's current pulmonary function. It can be used to manage exacerbations and for daily long-term management. The cause of asthma is known. Asthma is caused by a complex interaction among inflammatory cells, mediators, and the cells and tissues present in the airways. The triggers of asthma are determined through history taking and immunologic and other testing. The diagnosis of asthma is made through clinical manifestations, history, physical examination, and laboratory testing.
8. A child with asthma is having pulmonary function tests. What rationale explains the purpose of the peak expiratory flow rate? a. To assess severity of asthma. b. To determine cause of asthma. c. To identify "triggers" of asthma. d. To confirm diagnosis of asthma.
ANS: C, D, E A tuberculin skin test with an induration of 5 mm or larger is considered to be positive if the child is receiving immunosuppressive therapy, has an HIV infection, or is living in close contact with a known contagious case of tuberculosis. The test would be considered positive in a child who has diabetes mellitus or is younger than 4 years of age if the tuberculin skin test had an induration of 10 mm or larger.
8. The nurse is interpreting a tuberculin skin test. If the nurse finds a result of an induration 5 mm or larger, in which child should the nurse document this finding as positive? (Select all that apply.) a. A child with diabetes mellitus b. A child younger than 4 years of age c. A child receiving immunosuppressive therapy d. A child with a human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection e. A child living in close contact with a known contagious case of tuberculosis
ANS: B Children with asthma are often excluded from exercise. This practice interferes with peer interaction and physical health. Most children with asthma can participate provided their asthma is under control. Inflammation is the underlying cause of the symptoms of asthma. By decreasing inflammation and reducing the symptomatic airway narrowing, health care providers can minimize exacerbations. Pharmacologic agents are used to prevent and control asthma symptoms, reduce the frequency and severity of asthma exacerbations, and reverse airflow obstruction. It is recommended that children with asthma be evaluated every 6 months.
9. One of the goals for children with asthma is to maintain the child's normal functioning. What principle of treatment helps to accomplish this goal? a. Limit participation in sports. b. Reduce underlying inflammation. c. Minimize use of pharmacologic agents. d. Have yearly evaluations by a health care provider.
