Pharm 3- Exam 2- Self Test

Which common adverse effects occur with neuromuscular-blocking agents? a. Fever b. Flushing c. Nausea d. Ataxia

b. Flushing

Which antilipemic agent is most potent? a. Niacin b. HMG CoA reductase inhibitor c. Bile acid-binding resin d. Fibric acid

b. HMG CoA reductase inhibitor

A teaching plan for a patient with hyperlipidemia would instruct the patient to avoid which food(s)? ( Select all that apply. ) a. Hard cheeses b. Egg whites c. Unsaturated vegetable oils d. Green vegetables e. Liver

a. Hard cheeses e. Liver

While reviewing discharge instructions with the patient regarding their Warfarin (Coumadin) prescription what will the RN discuss? A. Importance of having INR levels drawn routinely. B. Monitor for bleeding. C. Balance intake of foods high in vitamin K D. Never take a double dose. E. Talk to your doctor before taking any over-the-counter (OTC) medications.

A. Importance of having INR levels drawn routinely. B. Monitor for bleeding. C. Balance intake of foods high in vitamin K D. Never take a double dose. E. Talk to your doctor before taking any over-the-counter (OTC) medications.

Which gout agent helps reduce inflammation? A. Colchicine B. Lesinurad C. Alloupurinol D. Probenecid

A. Colchicine

Which benzodiazepine is most susceptible to promoting hangovers? A. Estazolam B.. Triazolam C. Temazepam D. Flurazepam

D. Flurazepam

Which term describes the action of echinacea? A. Antimicrobial B. Decongestant C. Bronchodilator D. Immunostimulant

D. Immunostimulant

Which herbal product has been used for the treatment of jet lag? A. St. John's wort B. Ginger C. Ginseng D. Melatonin

D. Melatonin

Which vitamin has antilipemic actions? a. C b. A c. D d. B3

d. B3

Which type of vomiting is treated with antihistamines? A. Motion sickness B. Psychogenic vomiting C. Anticipatory nausea and vomiting D. Chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV)

A. Motion sickness

The nurse recognizes that the patient has a good understanding of a major side effect of the medication, cholestyramine (Questran), when they state: A. "I will remain well hydrated to help avoid constipation" B. "I will use lotion frequently in order to reduce itching and redness of the skin" C. "I will remain well hydrated to help avoid constipation" D. "I will wear specialty insoles in order to reduce numbness and tingling of the feet"

A. "I will remain well hydrated to help avoid constipation"

Which statements from a nursing student to a patient indicate a need for further teaching about ophthalmologic drugs? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. "Instill 2 drops of bacitracin (Bacitracin ophthalmic) in your eye." B. "Pull down your lower lid and administer ciprofloxacin ointment as a thin layer." C. "Do not touch the tip of the erythromycin preparation while instilling the drops in your eye." D. "Instill azithromycin drops in your eye at least 5 minutes before or after using any other eyedrops." E. "Immediately consult your doctor if any allergic reactions occur with use of tobramycin drops."

A. "Instill 2 drops of bacitracin (Bacitracin ophthalmic) in your eye." C. "Do not touch the tip of the erythromycin preparation while instilling the drops in your eye."

An intubated patient receiving continuous feeds via G-tube has been prescribed an enteric-coated tablet. Which action would be most appropriate for the nurse to take? A. Call the prescribing provider or pharmacy to ask for a liquid form of the medication. B. Crush the tablet and put the powder in the patient's feeding container. C. Dissolve the tablet in water and administer the liquid through the G-tube with a syringe. D. Place the tablet in the patient's feeding container.

A. Call the prescribing provider or pharmacy to ask for a liquid form of the medication.

The patient is experiencing the exoerythrocytic phase of malaria, therefore the nurse expects to administer which medication? A. Primaquine B. Amphotericin B C. Chloroquine D. Primaquine

A. Primaquine

What laboratory test is the nurse referring to that needs to be checked routinely for individuals taking Warfarin (Coumadin)? A. Prothrombin Time and International Normalized Ratio (PT/INR) B. Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) C. Vitamin K level D. Platelet Count

A. Prothrombin Time and International Normalized Ratio (PT/INR)

The student nurse recognizes the importance of learning classes, mechanism of actions, symptoms and side effects of medications, in that it serves what purpose(s)? Select all that apply: A. This knowledge is required to pass NCLEX B. To better answer questions of patients and families during medication administration C. Assist in protecting your (impending) license D. To make your life miserable E. Broad understanding of a wide variety of medications will allow the new nurse to better advocate for patients when communicating with providers and other interdisciplinary professionals

A. This knowledge is required to pass NCLEX B. To better answer questions of patients and families during medication administration C. Assist in protecting your (impending) license E. Broad understanding of a wide variety of medications will allow the new nurse to better advocate for patients when communicating with providers and other interdisciplinary profession

Which phrase accurately describes zolpidem sublingual tablets? A. Used to prolong sleep duration without causing morning hangover B. Helpful for patients travelling across time zones and experiencing jet lag C. Used intravenously for conscious sedation before short diagnostic procedures D. Effective for patients who wake up in the middle of the night or early in the morning

A. Used to prolong sleep duration without causing morning hangover

Which drug has a lesser effect on sleep stage N3 and rapid eye movement (REM) sleep? Select all that apply A. Zaleplon B. Zolpidem C. Tasimelteon D. Eszopiclone E. Ramelteon

A. Zaleplon B. Zolpidem D. Eszopiclone

Which of the following are symptoms/reactions associated with chemotherapy that may negatively impact the patient? Select all that apply: A. anorexia B. nausea & vomiting C. depression D. alopecia E. mouth sores

A. anorexia B. nausea & vomiting C. depression D. alopecia E. mouth sores

A patient has a flight at 10 AM and wants to take a scopolamine patch (Transderm Scop) to prevent motion sickness. When would the nurse instruct the patient to apply the patch? A. 4 AM B. 6 AM C. 8 AM D. 10 AM

B. 6 AM

Which action by the patient who has been prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) indicates a need for correction? A. Taking the medication slowly and continuously after a loading dose B. Asking a family member for assistance in controlling the PCA device C. Inserting the needle of the PCA device into the abdomen to self-administer the medication D. Using a timer to limit the amount of medication to be self-administered per hour

B. Asking a family member for assistance in controlling the PCA device

Which food would the nurse encourage a patient who has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix) and is concerned about developing hypokalemia to eat? A. Poultry B. Bananas C. Egg yolks D. Green leafy vegetables

B. Bananas

In which general time frame does the nurse expect to administer antiemetics to a patient with chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV)? A. Concurrently with the chemotherapy B. Both before and after chemotherapy is given C. Thirty minutes before the chemotherapy is given D. Forty-eight to 72 hours after the chemotherapy is given

B. Both before and after chemotherapy is given

Which adverse effect of cannabinoids requires the healthcare provider to advise an older patient to not drive or operate heavy machinery? A. Blurred vision B. Dysphonic effects C. Enhanced sedation D. Orthostatic hypotension

B. Dysphonic effects

What drug is used as the first line therapy for gout? A. Allupurinol B. NSAIDS C. Lesinurad D. Metoprolol

B. NSAIDS

Which assessment finding would the nurse anticipate in a patient with a long history of benzodiazepine use? A. Paradoxical responses B. Rebound insomnia and hallucinations C. Blurred vision and morning hangover D. Reduced rapid eye movement (REM) sleep

B. Rebound insomnia and hallucinations

When administering ramelteon to a patient, which specific precaution would the nurse take to ensure a more rapid onset of drug action? A. Administer an antihistamine along with ramelteon. B. Refrain from administering the drug with or immediately after a meal. C. Refrain from administering zolpidem when administering rifampin. D. Administer fluvoxamine after consulting with the primary healthcare provider.

B. Refrain from administering the drug with or immediately after a meal.

Which vitamin deficiency can cause general weakness, paresthesias, and increased heart rate and size? A. Niacin B. Thiamine C. Riboflavin D. Cyanocobalamin

B. Thiamine

Which instructions from the nurse would be most appropriate for a patient who is on central parenteral nutrition (CPN)? A. "Monitor the patient for fever, chills, and general malaise." B. "Monitor the patient for hypotension, wheezing, and itching." C. "Assess the patient for signs of refeeding syndrome in the first 24 to 48 hours." D. "Observe the IV site of the patient for signs of phlebitis or a local reaction."

C. "Assess the patient for signs of refeeding syndrome in the first 24 to 48 hours."

Which drug would be most useful in a patient with gout who has an overproduction of uric acid? A. Colchicine B. Lesinurad C. Allupurinol D. Probenecid

C. Allopurinol

Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is very similar to aspirin but lacks which property of aspirin? A. Analgesic B. Antipyretic C. Anti-inflammatory D. Antinausea

C. Anti-inflammatory

Which class of ophthalmic drug may case urinary hesitancy, constipation, and blurred vision? A. Corticosteroids B. Antiviral agents C. Anticholinergics D. Antifungal agents

C. Anticholinergics

Which oil suggested by the nurse would be most beneficial for a patient with a risk of heart disease and on a diet regimen that requires oils high in omega-3 fatty acids? A. Olive B. Palm C. Canola D. Peanut

C. Canola

Which action of ginkgo biloba requires cautious use in certain patients? A. Free radical activation B. Peripheral vasoconstriction C. Decreased platelet aggregation D. Central nervous system (CNS) stimulation

C. Decreased platelet aggregation

Which ophthalmic medication does the nurse expect to administer when preparing a patient for cataract surgery? A. Timolol maleate B. Diclofenac sodium C. Flurbiprofen sodium D. Ketorolac tromethamine

C. Flurbiprofen sodium

Which drug is a dopamine antagonist? A. Aprepitant B. Meclizine C. Haloperidol D. Ondansetron

C. Haloperidol

Which medication does the nurse anticipate will be ordered by the healthcare provider to treat a patient's morphine overdose? A. Atropine B. Flumazenil (Romazicon) C. Naloxone (Narcan) D. Propranolol (Inderal)

C. Naloxone (Narcan)

For which adult patient would the nurse hold an order for an opioid agonist?A. Patient who continually reports pain although there are no physical symptoms B. Patient whose pulse rate is 75 beats per minute C. Patient whose respiratory rate is 10 breaths per minute D. Patient who is experiencing constipation from opioid use

C. Patient whose respiratory rate is 10 breaths per minute

Hypersensitivity reactions to chamomile are a risk in patients with which type of allergy? A. Grass B. Peanut C. Ragweed D. Animal dander

C. Ragweed

Which assessment finding in a patient taking a sedative for insomnia concerns the nurse? A. The patient drinks two cups of coffee with breakfast. B. The patient reports a routine time at which he goes to bed. C. The patient has a decreased ability to perform activities of daily living. D. The patient has a regular exercise plan.

C. The patient has a decreased ability to perform activities of daily living.

Which instruction would the nurse provide to a patient who is taking St. John's wort? A. Maintain a low cholesterol diet. B. Avoid foods that are high in tyramine. C. Use sunscreen when exposed to the sun. D. Take an additional dose of the herb if feeling more depressed.

C. Use sunscreen when exposed to the sun.

Which medication is a direct-acting skeletal muscle relaxants? A. Carisoprodol (Soma) B. Tizanidine (Zanaflex) C. Baclofen (Lioresal) D. Dantrolene (Dantrium)

D. Dantrolene (Dantrium)

Which medication reduces pain by blocking the action of histamine? A. Capsaicin (Capsagel) B. Naproxen (Naprosyn) C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

A neonate suffering from severe diarrhea and sepsis is given antibiotics and subsequently develops a bleeding disorder. Which deficiency would be the suspected reason for this condition? A. Niacin B. Thiamine C. Pyridoxine D. Phytonadione

D. Phytonadione

Which gout agent promotes uric acid excretion at the kidney? A. Colchicine B. Lesinurad C. Alloupurinol D. Probenecid

D. Probenecid

Allopurinol (Zyloprim) has been shown to affect which laboratory value? A. Complete Blood Count B. Tumor Necrosis Factor C. International Normalized Ratio D. Uric Acid

D. Uric Acid

The nurse is preparing discharge education for a patient who will be receiving warfarin (Coumadin) at home. Which important point(s) will the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. "Do not make any major changes to your diet without discussing it with your health care provider." b. "Keep outpatient laboratory appointments for monitoring of therapy." c. "Take the medication after meals." d. "Report signs of bleeding to your health care provider, including observing skin for bruising; petechiae; blood in emesis, urine, or stools; bleeding gums; cold, clammy skin; faintness; or altered sensorium." e. "Avoid aspirin products."

a. "Do not make any major changes to your diet without discussing it with your health care provider." b. "Keep outpatient laboratory appointments for monitoring of therapy." d. "Report signs of bleeding to your health care provider, including observing skin for bruising; petechiae; blood in emesis, urine, or stools; bleeding gums; cold, clammy skin; faintness; or altered sensorium." e. "Avoid aspirin products.

A patient taking a neuromuscular-blocking agent is assessed to have a heart rate of 120 and blood pressure of 80/50. The nurse will anticipate the physician writing an order for a. ABGs. b. blood glucose level. c. CBC. d. liver function tests

a. ABGs.

The nurse is assessing a patient who is being evaluated for hyperlipidemia. Which assessment will most increase the risk of coronary artery disease (CAD)? a. Blood pressure, 168/90 mm Hg b. Hemoglobin A1c, 6% c. Walks 3 miles briskly, usually 4 days a week d. Eats five servings of fruits and vegetables daily

a. Blood pressure, 168/90 mm Hg

The nurse is examining a patient in the emergency department whose chief complaint is a dislocated shoulder. Which assessment data are needed to evaluate the patient? (Select all that apply.) a. Details related to the mechanism of injury b. Degree of impairment c. Pain level d. Inspection of the affected part for swelling, capillary refill, bruising, redness, localized tenderness, deformities, and paresthesia e. Elevation of the affected extremity

a. Details related to the mechanism of injury b. Degree of impairment c. Pain level d. Inspection of the affected part for swelling, capillary refill, bruising, redness, localized tenderness, deformities, and paresthesia

The nurse is educating a patient about niacin prescribed to treat his hyperlipidemia. Which important teaching point(s) should be included in the educational plan? ( Select all that apply. ) a. Effectiveness of niacin in lowering total cholesterol b. Information on high cholesterol foods and food preparation using unsaturated fats c. Importance of smoking cessation and daily exercise d. Alternative funding resource information because of the high cost of niacin e. Adverse effects to report (e.g., fatigue, anorexia, nausea, malaise, jaundice, muscle aches)

a. Effectiveness of niacin in lowering total cholesterol b. Information on high cholesterol foods and food preparation using unsaturated fats e. Adverse effects to report (e.g., fatigue, anorexia, nausea, malaise, jaundice, muscle aches)

What is the reason for a paraplegic patient to receive baclofen (Lioresal)? a. It interrupts reflexes at the level of the spinal cord. b. It acts directly on the skeletal muscles to reduce spasticity. c. It interrupts transmission of impulses from motor nerves to muscles at the skeletal neuromuscular junction. d. It produces generalized mild weakness of skeletal muscles and decreases the force of reflex muscle contractions.

a. It interrupts reflexes at the level of the spinal cord.

The nurse transcribes a new order for Lovaza on a patient in a long term care facility. When providing education to the patient about this medication, the nurse will include which statement(s)? ( Select all that apply. ) a. Liver function tests should be completed before initiating therapy. b. Lovaza is available in tablet form. c. Triglyceride levels should increase with use. d. Lovaza should be used with caution if the patient has an allergy to fish. e. Lovaza does not cause myositis.

a. Liver function tests should be completed before initiating therapy. d. Lovaza should be used with caution if the patient has an allergy to fish. e. Lovaza does not cause myositis.

In the intensive care unit, the nurse is taking care of a patient who is on a ventilator and is receiving succinylcholine (Anectine). Which is a priority nursing diagnosis for this patient? a. Pain b. Disturbed body image c. Risk for injury d. Self-care deficit

a. Pain

The pharmacologic agents used to treat DVT may act in which way(s)? (Select all that apply.) a. Prevent platelet aggregation. b. Prevent the extension of existing clots. c. Inhibit steps in the fibrin clot formation cascade. d. Prolong bleeding time. e. Lower serum triglycerides.

a. Prevent platelet aggregation. b. Prevent the extension of existing clots. c. Inhibit steps in the fibrin clot formation cascade. d. Prolong bleeding time.

What is the desired effect of any antilipemic therapy? a. Reduced LDLs and total cholesterol levels b. Reduced HDLs and total cholesterol levels c. Reduced LDLs and HDLs d. Reduced HDLs and dietary cholesterol levels

a. Reduced LDLs and total cholesterol levels

When assessing a patient for signs and symptoms of early respiratory depression immediately after leaving the postoperative area, the nurse will be alert for signs of what? ( Select all that apply.) a. Restlessness b. Anxiety c. Lethargy d. Increased mental alertness e. Cyanosis

a. Restlessness b. Anxiety c. Lethargy

What will the nurse review when teaching a patient about therapy with statins? ( Select all that apply.) a. Statins are the most potent antilipemic agents available. b. Statins should be taken with food. c. Statins replace dietary therapy for the control of hyperlipidemia. d. Statins cause mild increases in HDL levels. e. Statins are administered in the morning when cholesterol production is high. f. Statins reduce inflammation, platelet aggregation, and plasma viscosity.

a. Statins are the most potent antilipemic agents available. b. Statins should be taken with food. d. Statins cause mild increases in HDL levels. f. Statins reduce inflammation, platelet aggregation, and plasma viscosity.

Anticoagulant therapy may be used for which situation(s)? (Select all that apply.) a. To prevent stroke in patients at high risk b. Following a myocardial infarction c. Following total hip or knee joint replacement surgery d. With DVT e. To prevent thrombosis in immobilized patients f. Peptic ulcer disease

a. To prevent stroke in patients at high risk b. Following a myocardial infarction c. Following total hip or knee joint replacement surgery d. With DVT e. To prevent thrombosis in immobilized patients

The nurse is preparing to administer niacin for the first time to a patient being treated for dyslipidemia. Before administering this medication, the nurse will assess: (Select all that apply.) a. blood glucose levels. b. blood pressure. c. heart rate. d. temperature. e. oxygen saturation.

a. blood glucose levels. b. blood pressure. c. heart rate.

A patient is taking a HMG CoA reductase inhibitor and reports muscle aches, soreness, and weakness. The nurse suspects these symptoms to indicate early signs of myopathy. When notifying the physician of these symptoms, the nurse will also be sure to report the results of the patient's: a. serum creatine phosphokinase levels. b. red blood cell count. c. urine culture. d. echocardiogram

a. serum creatine phosphokinase levels.

2. A patient receiving IV heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in his right calf asks why his calf remains painful, edematous, and warm to touch after 2 days of anticoagulant therapy. Which response by the nurse is most accurate? a. "It takes at least 3 days for the symptoms to resolve once the clot dissolves." b. "Heparin does not dissolve blood clots but neutralizes clotting factors, preventing extension of the clot and the possibility of it traveling elsewhere in your body." c. "I will report this to your health care provider because there may be a need to look at alternative treatments." d. "You appear anxious. The health care provider will eventually put you on ticlopidine, which allows for an earlier discharge."

b. "Heparin does not dissolve blood clots but neutralizes clotting factors, preventing extension of the clot and the possibility of it traveling elsewhere in your body."

The nurse is providing education to a patient who has recently been prescribed niacin. Which information given by the nurse is accurate? a. "Weigh yourself weekly because of the risk of fluid retention." b. "Nausea can be decreased if you take this medication with food." c. "Because your blood pressure may increase while taking this drug, have it checked monthly." d. "You should not take aspirin while on this medication."

b. "Nausea can be decreased if you take this medication with food."

Which is an accurate nursing action when administering subcutaneous enoxaparin, a lowmolecular-weight heparin product? a. Expel the air bubble from the prefilled syringe. b. Leave the needle in place for 10 seconds after injection. c. Administer the medication into the deltoid muscle. d. Massage the site after injection to increase absorption.

b. Leave the needle in place for 10 seconds after injection.

What is the rationale for administering fibrinolytic agents, such as streptokinase, within hours of the onset of myocardial infarction? a. Enhances myocardial oxygenation b. Lyses the blood clot c. Promotes platelet aggregation d. Inhibits clotting mechanisms

b. Lyses the blood clot

An employee at a factory has not been to work because of low back muscle spasms. His wife contacts the occupational health nurse to report that her spouse is on a centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant and is having problems with sleepiness. Based on the medication action, what will the nurse tell her? (Select all that apply.) a. "The health care provider should be notified because these drugs are contraindicated in the treatment of low back pain." b. "Your husband should avoid activities requiring alertness, such as driving or operating power equipment." c. "I need additional and specific information regarding the amount of your husband's sedation." d. "I will review baseline laboratory studies, discuss your husband's status with the health care provider, and call you back." e. "Sedation is an adverse effect of these medications and tends to resolve with continued therapy.

b. "Your husband should avoid activities requiring alertness, such as driving or operating power equipment." c. "I need additional and specific information regarding the amount of your husband's sedation." d. "I will review baseline laboratory studies, discuss your husband's status with the health care provider, and call you back." e. "Sedation is an adverse effect of these medications and tends to resolve with continued therapy.

Which laboratory values will the nurse review prior to beginning medication therapy for skeletal and muscle disorders? a. Sodium, magnesium, and chloride b. C-reactive protein (CRP), human leukocyte antigen (HLA), and liver function tests c. Arterial blood gases (ABGs), complete blood count (CBC), and electrolytes d. Glucose, high-density lipoproteins (HDL), and prothrombin time (PT)

b. C-reactive protein (CRP), human leukocyte antigen (HLA), and liver function tests

A patient is prescribed a bile acid resin. The nurse instructs the patient to report which adverse reaction related to vitamin K deficiency? a. Constipation b. Coffee ground emesis c. Nausea d. Changes in skin pigmentation

b. Coffee ground emesis

A patient taking antipsychotic medication for schizophrenia is admitted with a temperature of 106° F. The admitting diagnosis is neuroleptic malignant syndrome resulting from antipsychotic medication. Which drug is indicated in treatment of this condition? a. Edrophonium (Tensilon) b. Dantrolene (Dantrium) c. Baclofen (Lioresal) d. Metaxalone (Skelaxin)

b. Dantrolene (Dantrium)

The nurse is preparing medications for a patient. When is the best time for the nurse to administer lovastatin (Mevacor)? a. 2hours after breakfast b. During the patient's dinner c. 1hour before breakfast d. 30 minutes before lunch

b. During the patient's dinner

Which action will the nurse implement to decrease the risk of clot formation in an older patient on bed rest? a. Assess peripheral pulses. b. Encourage passive leg exercises. c. Limit fluid intake. d. Position pillows behind the knees.

b. Encourage passive leg exercises.

Patients with which conditions must be carefully assessed to determine whether they would tolerate treatment with a neuromuscular-blocking agent? (Select all that apply.) a. Pregnancy b. Hepatic disease c. Pulmonary disease d. Renal disease e. Neurologic disorders f. Psychiatric disorders

b. Hepatic disease c. Pulmonary disease d. Renal disease e. Neurologic disorders

The nurse has completed an admitting patient history and notes the patient's current medications to be simvastatin (Zocor) and warfarin (Coumadin). What is the result of the interaction of these drugs? a. Abdominal distention b. Increased INR c. Low serum level of simvastatin d. Hypertension

b. Increased INR

A patient who has undergone a lengthy surgical procedure under general anesthesia is unable to breathe on his own following the procedure. Which drug will the nurse expect to be administered as an antidote to the neuromuscular-blocking agent? a. Dantrolene (Dantrium) b. Neostigmine methylsulfate (Prostigmin) c. Ether d. Baclofen (Lioresal)

b. Neostigmine methylsulfate (Prostigmin)

Which symptom is indicative of bleeding in a patient taking warfarin (Coumadin)? a. Bradycardia b. Petechiae c. Increased urinary output d. Dry skin

b. Petechiae

Why are neuromuscular-blocking agents used? (Select all that apply.) a. Alleviation of pain b. Reducing the use and adverse effects of general anesthetics c. Easing endotracheal intubation and prevent laryngospasm d. Producing amnesia during painful procedures e. Decreasing muscular activity in electroshock therapy

b. Reducing the use and adverse effects of general anesthetics c. Easing endotracheal intubation and prevent laryngospasm e. Decreasing muscular activity in electroshock therapy

Which nutritional concept(s) is/are necessary to provide to patients receiving colestipol? ( Select all that apply. ) a. Take on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. b. Whole grains, raw fruits, and vegetables will minimize constipation. c. Drink eight to ten 8 ounce glasses of water daily to eliminate dehydration that results from frequent loose stools. d. Report signs of vitamin K deficiency, including bleeding gums, dark tarry stools, and coffee ground emesis. e. Supplemental fat soluble vitamins may be necessary.

b. Whole grains, raw fruits, and vegetables will minimize constipation. d. Report signs of vitamin K deficiency, including bleeding gums, dark tarry stools, and coffee ground emesis. e. Supplemental fat soluble vitamins may be necessary.

The nurse is preparing to administer dalteparin (Fragmin) to a patient in order to prevent DVT following a hip replacement. When providing this medication to the patient, the nurse will ( Select all that apply.) a. administer intramuscularly. b. inject slowly. c. remove needle immediately after injection. d. rub injection site following administration. e. alternate injection sites every 24 hours.

b. inject slowly. e. alternate injection sites every 24 hours.

The nurse receives a conscious patient from the postoperative unit after administration of a neuromuscular blocker. Once the patient's vital signs are stable, the best position for the nurse to assist the patient into is _____ position. a. Sims b. semi-Fowler's c. supine d. prone

b. semi-Fowler's

Dipyridamole (Persantine) has been used extensively in combination with warfarin to prevent the formation of thromboembolism after which type of event? a. Myocardial infarction b. Transient ischemic attack c. Cardiac valve replacement d. Heart transplant

c. Cardiac valve replacement

Why are statins, or HMG CoA reductase inhibitors, administered at bedtime? a. The stomach is empty. b. Metabolic needs of the body are decreased. c. Cholesterol production is at its peak. d. The body temperature is increased.

c. Cholesterol production is at its peak.

Which drug interaction may occur when an aminoglycoside or tetracycline is given in conjunction with neuromuscular-blocking agents? a. Deep sedation b. Decreased effectiveness of antibiotics c. Increased neuromuscular-blocking activity d. Sensitivity to antibiotics and possible allergic reaction

c. Increased neuromuscular-blocking activity

Which lipoprotein contributes to the development of atherosclerosis? a. Chylomicrons b. Very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) c. Low-density lipoprotein chylomicron (LDL C) d. High-density lipoprotein chylomicron (HDL C)

c. Low-density lipoprotein chylomicron (LDL C)

A trauma patient arrives in the emergency department via EMS. He is bleeding profusely. A medical alert bracelet indicates that he is on heparin therapy. The nurse will most likely administer which medication that counteracts the action of heparin? a. Warfarin sodium (Coumadin) b. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) c. Protamine sulfate d. Vitamin K

c. Protamine sulfate

In addition to controlling hyperlipidemia, what are bile acid-binding resins prescribed to treat? a. Constipation secondary to excess fecal bile acids b. Constipation related to pseudomembranous colitis c. Pruritus secondary to biliary stasis d. Jaundice related to cholelithiasis

c. Pruritus secondary to biliary stasis

Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain when a patient is being treated with a neuromuscular-blocking agent? a. Skin assessment for rash and urticaria b. Blood pressure assessment for orthostatic hypotension c. Respiratory assessment for patent airway d. Assessment for fluid volume overload

c. Respiratory assessment for patent airway

Which symptoms will be most important for the nurse to assess for early signs of respiratory distress in the patient who has been given a neuromuscular-blocking agent? a. Nasal flaring and retraction of intercostal muscles b. Dyspnea, increased respiratory rate, and cyanosis c. Restlessness, anxiety, and lethargy d. Pallor, stridor, and diaphoresis

c. Restlessness, anxiety, and lethargy

A patient is receiving IV heparin therapy. The aPTT is 90; the laboratory control is 30 seconds. Which nursing intervention is most accurate? a. Document in the nursing notes that these results are within therapeutic range. b. Note the RBC count and wait for the health care provider to make the next round to discuss all laboratory values. c. Stop the heparin drip. d. Assess the patient for signs and symptoms of decreased sensorium.

c. Stop the heparin drip.

Which deficiency may develop in patients taking cholestyramine? a. Potassium deficiency b. Sodium deficiency c. Vitamin K deficiency d. Hydrochloric acid deficiency

c. Vitamin K deficiency

Rivaroxaban (Xarelto) is ordered on a patient following knee replacement surgery. When providing education on this medication to the patient, the nurse conveys that treatment will continue a. only while hospitalized. b. for 35 days postsurgically. c. for 12 days postsurgically. d. as long as creatinine clearance is less than 30.

c. for 12 days postsurgically.

The nurse has provided instruction to a patient recently prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the patient indicates to the nurse the need for further teaching? a. "I will always wear a medical alert bracelet." b. "I will check with my health care provider before I take any OTC medications." c. "I will be careful when I use a knife or other sharp objects." d. "I will rinse my mouth with mouthwash instead of brushing my teeth

d. "I will rinse my mouth with mouthwash instead of brushing my teeth

The nurse is teaching a patient about statin therapy. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will take this medication at night." b. "This medication will reduce blood clot formation." c. "I will avoid drinking grapefruit juice." d. "If I get a headache, I will notify my health care provider."

d. "If I get a headache, I will notify my health care provider."

The patient's family asks why neuromuscular blocking agents are used before electroconvulsive therapy. Which explanation by the nurse is most accurate? a. "They stimulate respirations while therapy is delivered." b. "They prevent aspiration of respiratory secretions during the therapy." c. "They decrease intracranial pressure resulting from therapy." d. "They reduce the risk of injury during therapy."

d. "They reduce the risk of injury during therapy."

A patient is receiving 1400 units of heparin/hour on an IV pump. The aPTT time is 54. The laboratory control is 25. Which action by the nurse is accurate? a. Bolus the patient with an additional 5000 units of heparin. b. Stop the heparin immediately and notify the health care provider that the patient's blood level is toxic. c. Administer protamine sulfate stat. d. Continue with the prescribed rate.

d. Continue with the prescribed rate.

Which medication will be prescribed for a patient complaining of muscle spasms resulting from a back injury? a. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) b. Morphine sulfate c. Bethanechol (Urecholine) d. Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)

d. Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)

Which nursing intervention(s) would be accurate when administering heparin subcutaneously? (Select all that apply.) a. Assessment of recent aPTT levels b. Massaging the site after injection of medication c. Aspirating after needle insertion d. Documenting ecchymotic areas e. Monitoring of vital signs

d. Documenting ecchymotic areas e. Monitoring of vital signs

What is the mechanism of action of drugs used to treat thromboembolic disease? a. Dissolving clots and preventing formation of new clots b. Making platelets more flexible and preventing formation of new clots c. Causing vasodilation and increased blood flow d. Preventing platelet aggregation and inhibiting clot formation

d. Preventing platelet aggregation and inhibiting clot formation

The nurse is teaching a patient about dietary implications while on warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which salad is highest in vitamin K? a. Fruit b. Pasta c. Potato d. Spinach

d. Spinach

The nurse is caring for a 27-year-old woman on the postpartum unit one day following a C-section. To prevent clot formation, the nurse will a. position the patient with knees flexed. b. initiate use of fitted thromboembolic disease deterrent (TED) stockings. c. maintain complete bed rest. d. implement deep breathing and coughing exercises.

d. implement deep breathing and coughing exercises.