Pharmacology ATI Final

A nurse is caring for a client who is refusing to take their scheduled morning furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

"By not taking your furosemide, you might retain fluid and develop swelling." The nurse should respect the client's right to refuse the medication and inform the client of the risks of not taking the medication, notify the provider, and document the refusal. Furosemide is a loop diuretic given to reduce edema.

A nurse at an urgent care clinic is collecting a history from a female client who has a urinary tract infection. The nurse anticipates a prescription for ciprofloxacin. The nurse should identify that which of the following client statements indicates a contraindication for administering this medication? "I have tendonitis, so I haven't been able to exercise." "I take a stool softener for chronic constipation." "I take medicine for my thyroid." "I am allergic to sulfa."

"I have tendonitis, so I haven't been able to exercise." The nurse should identify tendonitis as a contraindication for taking ciprofloxacin due to the risk of tendon rupture.

A nurse is teaching about self-administration of transdermal medication with a male client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin. The nurse should identify that which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

"I will remove the patch after 14 hours." The client should remove the patch after 12 to 14 hr to prevent tolerance of the medication.

A nurse is instructing a client on the application of nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? "I should apply a patch every 5 minutes if I develop chest pain." "I will take the patch off right after my evening meal." "I will leave the patch off at least 1 day each week." "I should discard the used patch by flushing it down the toilet."

"I will take the patch off right after my evening meal." Clients should remove the patch each evening for a medication free time of 12 to 14 hr before applying a new patch to avoid developing a tolerance to the medication's effects.

A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has multiple sclerosis and a new prescription for methylprednisone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? (select all)

1) blood glucose levels will need to be monitored during therapy The nurse should instruct the client that their blood glucose levels will be monitored during therapy because corticosteroids, such as methylprednisolone, can raise blood glucose levels. 2) avoid contact with persons who have known infections The nurse should instruct the client to avoid contact with persons who have known infections because corticosteroids, such as methylprednisolone, suppress the immune response and mask manifestations of infection. 3) grapefruit juice can increase the blood levels of the medication The nurse should instruct the client that grapefruit juice increases the absorption of the medication, which can lead to toxicity and adrenal suppression.

A nurse is preparing to administer dextrose 5% in water (D5W) 400 mL IV to infuse over 1 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 15 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

100 gtt/min

A nurse is preparing to administer 0.9 % sodium chloride (NaCl) 1,500 mL to infuse over 8 hr to a client who is postoperative. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?

188 mL/hr

A nurse is preparing to administer ciprofloxacin 15 mg/kg PO every 12 hr to a child who weighs 44 lb. How many mg should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

300 mg

A nurse is teaching a group of unit nurses about medication reconciliation. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? The client's provider is required to complete medication reconciliation. Medication reconciliation at discharge is limited to the medication ordered at the time of discharge. A transition in care requires the nurse to conduct medication reconciliation. Medical reconciliation is limited to the name of the medications that the client is currently taking.

A transition in care requires the nurse to conduct medication reconciliation The nurse should conduct medication reconciliation anytime the client is undergoing a change in care such as admission, transfer from one unit to another, or discharge. A complete listing of all prescribed and over-the-counter medications should be reviewed.

A nurse is caring for a client who has acute acetaminophen toxicity. The nurse should anticipate administering which of the following medications? Vitamin K Acetylcysteine Benztropine Physostigmine

Acetylcysteine Acetylcysteine is a specific antidote for acetaminophen toxicity. It can prevent severe injury when given orally or by IV infusion within 8 to 10 hr.

A nurse is preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take? Administer the medication outside the 5-cm (2-in) radius of the umbilicus. Aspirate for blood return before injecting. Rub vigorously after the injection to promote absorption. Place a pressure dressing on the injection site to prevent bleeding.

Administer the medication outside the 5-cm (2-in) radius of the umbilicus. The nurse should administer the heparin by subcutaneous injection to the abdomen in an area that is above the iliac crest and at least 5 cm (2 in) away from the umbilicus.

A nurse is completing an incident report for a medication error. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the report?

Administered propranolol 80 mg PO at 1800 to the client who did not have a prescription for the medication. The incident report should clearly and thoroughly report the facts of the error.

A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin. The client asks if they can take aspirin while taking the warfarin. Which of the following responses should the nurse make? "It is safe to take an enteric-coated aspirin." "Aspirin will increase the risk of bleeding." "Acetaminophen may be substituted for aspirin." "The INR lab work must be monitored more frequently if aspirin is taken."

Aspirin will increase the chances of bleeding Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation and can potentiate the action of the anticoagulant warfarin. Therefore, the client should avoid taking aspirin because it increases the risk for bleeding.

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has hypertension. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a contraindication for receiving propranolol?

Asthma Asthma is a contraindication for receiving propranolol. Propranolol is an adrenergic antagonist which blocks the beta2 receptors in the lungs, causing bronchoconstriction and leading to serious airway resistance and possibly respiratory arrest.

A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving mannitol via continuous IV infusion. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects? Weight loss Increased intraocular pressure Auditory hallucinations Bibasilar crackles

Bibasilar crackles Mannitol, an osmotic diuretic, can precipitate heart failure and pulmonary edema. Therefore, the nurse should recognize lung crackles as an indicator of a potential complication and stop the infusion.

A nurse is caring for a client who is recovering from deep-vein thrombosis and is to start taking warfarin. For which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of warfarin?

Bleeding gums The nurse should monitor the client for bleeding gums, which is an adverse effect of warfarin, an anticoagulant.

A nurse is assessing a client who has received atropine eye drops during an eye examination. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect as an adverse effect of the medication?

Blurred vision Blurred vision is an expected finding following the administration of atropine eye drops. This is due to the cycloplegic effects of the medication, which cause distant objects to appear blurry to the client.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a magnesium level of 3.1 mEq/L. The nurse should expect to administer which of the following medications?

Calcium gluconate The nurse should expect to administer IV calcium gluconate to the client and prepare to provide ventilatory support. This client is at risk for respiratory depression and cardiac dysrhythmias because a magnesium level of 3.1 mEq/L is above the expected reference range of 1.3 to 2.1 mEq/L.

A nurse is reviewing the medication list of a client who wants to begin taking oral contraceptives. The nurse should identify that which of the following client medications will interfere with the effectiveness of oral contraceptives? Carbamazepine Sumatriptan Atenolol Glipizide

Carbamazepine Carbamazepine causes an accelerated inactivation of oral contraceptives because of its action on hepatic medication-metabolizing enzymes.

A nurse is preparing to teach a client who is to start a new prescription for extended release verapamil. Which of the following instruction should the nurse plan to include?

Change positions slowly. The nurse should instruct the client to change positions gradually to prevent orthostatic hypotension and syncope.

A nurse is planning to teach about inhalant medications to a client who has a new diagnosis of exercise-induced asthma. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to instruct the client to use prior to physical activity?

Cromolyn Cromolyn sodium stabilizes mast cells, which inhibit the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators. The client should use cromolyn 10 to 15 min before planning to exercise to prevent bronchospasms.

A nurse is administering baclofen for a client who has a spinal cord injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse document as a therapeutic outcome?

Decrease in flexor and extensor spasticity A client who has a spinal cord injury and takes baclofen can experience a decrease in the frequency and severity of muscle spasms and in flexor and extensor spasticity.

A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record of a client who has hypocalcemia and a new prescription for IV calcium gluconate. The nurse should identify that which of the following medications can interact with calcium gluconate? Felodipine Guaifenesin Digoxin Regular insulin

Digoxin The nurse should identify that calcium gluconate can cause hypercalcemia, which increases the risk of digoxin toxicity.

A nurse is administering cefotetan via intermittent IV bolus to a client who suddenly develops dyspnea and widespread hives. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Discontinue the medication IV infusion. The greatest risk to the client is respiratory arrest from anaphylaxis. Therefore, the first action the nurse should take is to discontinue the medication IV infusion to prevent the client from receiving more medication. However, the nurse should not remove the IV catheter. Instead, the nurse should change the tubing and administer 0.9% sodium chloride by continuous IV infusion.

A nurse is caring for a client who has developed hypomagnesemia due to long-term therapy with lansoprazole. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations?

Disorientation The nurse should monitor the client for disorientation and confusion as manifestations of hypomagnesemia. The nurse should also assess the client for a positive Chvostek's and Trousseau's signs.

A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client who tells the nurse, "I don't want to take my fluid pill until I get home today." Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Document the refusal and inform the client's provider. File an incident report with the risk manager. Contact the pharmacist to pick up the medication. Give the client the medication to take at home and document that it was administered.

Document refusal and notify the provider The nurse has the responsibility to verify that the client understands the risks of refusing the medication so that an informed decision can be made. The nurse should then document the refusal in the client's medical record and notify the health care provider.

A nurse is teaching a client who is taking allopurinol for the treatment of gout. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Drink 2L of water daily. The nurse should instruct the client to drink at least 2 L of water each day to prevent renal stone formation and kidney injury, because allopurinol is eliminated through the kidneys.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a prescription for trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Drink 8 to 10 glasses of water daily. The nurse should instruct the client to increase water intake to 1,920 to 2,400 mL (65 to 81 oz) a day to decrease the chance of kidney damage from crystallization.

A nurse is administering diazepam to a client who is having a colonoscopy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Ensure flumazenil is available to administer for toxicity management. The nurse should monitor the client for manifestations of diazepam toxicity, such as respiratory depression and hypotension. The nurse should be prepared to administer flumazenil to reverse the effects of diazepam.

A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who has been taking aspirin daily for the past year. For which of the following findings should the nurse notify the provider immediately?

Hyperventilation When using the urgent vs. nonurgent approach to client care, the nurse should determine that the priority finding is hyperventilation. This finding indicates the client might have acute salicylate poisoning, which causes respiratory alkalosis in the early stages.

A nurse is teaching a client about the use of risedronate for the treatment of osteoporosis. The nurse should identify which of the following statements as an indication that the client understands the teaching? "I will drink a glass of milk when I take the risedronate." "I will take the risedronate 15 minutes after my evening meal." "I should take an antacid with the risedronate to avoid nausea." "I should sit up for 30 minutes after taking the risedronate."

I should sit up for 30 min after taking risedronate Sitting upright for at least 30 min after taking risedronate will reduce the adverse gastrointestinal effects of esophagitis and dyspepsia. Risedronate is contraindicated for a client who cannot sit or stand upright for this length of time.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the use of ethinyl estradiol/norelgestromin. The nurse should identify that which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

I will fold the sticky side of the old patch together before disposing. The client should fold the sticky sides of the old patch together and then place it in a childproof container to ensure safe disposal of the patch.

A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who is to self-administer insulin at home. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the teaching is effective?

I will store my unopened bottles of insulin in the refrigerator. The client should store unopened vials of insulin in the refrigerator to maintain medication viability. Once opened, the insulin can remain at room temperature for up to 1 month.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for furosemide twice daily. The nurse should include which of the following instructions in the teaching?

Inc intake of potassium rich food Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, act at the loop of Henle by blocking the resorption of sodium, water, and potassium. An adverse effect of the medication is the development of electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypochloremia, and hypokalemia. To prevent hypokalemia, the client should increase intake of potassium-rich foods, such as potatoes, spinach, dried fruit, and nuts. Monitor for muscle weakness Furosemide, a loop diuretic, causes a loss of potassium, which can result in manifestations of hypokalemia such as difficulty concentrating, shallow respirations, hyporeflexia, and muscle weakness. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for these manifestations and report them to the provider. Dangle your legs from the side of the bed before standing Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, reduce vascular tone and increase fluid excretion. These effects decrease blood return to the heart and can manifest as dizziness and lightheadedness when going from a lying to a standing position. The client should change positions slowly to minimize orthostatic hypotension.

A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving an IV infusion of dopamine. Which of the following findings indicated that the medication is effective?

Increased cardiac output. Dopamine is an adrenergic that causes a receptor specificity effect, which increases cardiac output and improves perfusion.

A nurse is assessing a client who is taking tamoxifen to treat breast cancer. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse report to the provider?

Leg tenderness The greatest risk to this client is the development of a thromboembolism, which is an adverse effect of tamoxifen. The nurse should also monitor the client for other manifestations of a thromboembolism, including leg tenderness, redness, swelling, and shortness of breath.

A nurse is assessing a client who has myasthenia gravis and is taking neostigmine. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect? Tachycardia Oliguria Xerostomia Miosis

Miosis Miosis, which is pupillary constriction, is a common adverse effect of neostigmine due to the excessive muscarinic stimulation that causes difficulty with visual accommodation.

A nurse is preparing to administer PO sodium polystyrene sulfonate to a client who has hyperkalemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take? Hold the client's other oral medications for 8 hr post administration. Inform the client that this medication can turn stool a light tan color. Keep the client's solution in the refrigerator for up to 72 hr. Monitor the client for constipation.

Monitor for constipation The nurse should monitor the client for the adverse effect of constipation and report it to the provider because this can lead to fecal impaction.

A nurse is preparing to administer medication to a client who has gout. The nurse discovers that an error was made during the previous shift and the client received atenolol instead of allopurinol. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? Obtain the client's blood pressure. Contact the client's provider. Inform the charge nurse. Complete an incident report.

Obtain the clients BP When using the nursing process, the first action the nurse should take to prevent injury to the client is to assess the client for adverse effects of atenolol, such as hypotension.

A nurse is planning to teach about the use of a spacer to a child who has a new prescription for a fluticasone inhaler to treat chronic asthma. The nurse should include that the spacer decreases the risk for which of the following adverse effects of the medication? Oral candidiasis Headache Joint pain Adrenal suppression

Oral candidiasis Dysphonia and oral candidiasis are adverse effects of inhaled corticosteroids. Using a spacer and rinsing the mouth after inhalation will minimize the amount of medication remaining in the oropharynx, preventing the development of these adverse effects.

A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and is taking glyburide. The client reports feeling confused and anxious. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Perform a capillary blood glucose test. The greatest risk to this client is injury from hypoglycemia. Therefore, the nurse should perform a capillary blood glucose test to determine the client's blood glucose status. Manifestations of hypoglycemia include weakness, anxiety, confusion, sweating, and seizures.

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider? Calcium level 9.2 mg/dL Magnesium level 1.6 mEq/L Digoxin level 1.1 ng/mL Potassium level 2.8 mEq/L

Potassium 2.8 A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is below the expected reference range of 3.5 to 5 mEq/L. The nurse should notify the provider if a client has hypokalemia prior to administration of digoxin due to the increased risk of developing digoxin toxicity and cardiac dysrhythmias.

A nurse is caring for a 20 year old female client who has a prescription for isotretinoin for severe nodulocystic acne vulgaris. Before the client can obtain a refill, the nurse should advise the client that which of the following tests is required? Serum calcium Pregnancy test 24-hr urine collection for protein Aspartate aminotransferase level

Pregnancy Test

A nurse at a clinic is providing follow up care to a client who is taking fluoxetine for depression. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication? Tingling toes Sexual dysfunction Absence of dreams Pica

Sexual Dysfunction Sexual dysfunction, including a decreased libido, impotence, and delayed orgasm, or anorgasmia, is a common adverse effect of fluoxetine and occurs in about 70% of clients who take this SSRI antidepressant.

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving end-of-life care and has a prescription for fentanyl patches. Which of the following information regarding the adverse effects of fentanyl should the nurse plan to give to the client and family?

Take a stool softener on a daily basis. Constipation is an adverse effect of opioid use. Stool softeners can decrease the severity of this adverse effect.

A nurse administers ceftazidime to a client who has a severe penicillin allergy. The nurse should identify which of the following client findings as an indication that she should complete an incident report?

The client reports shortness of breath A severe penicillin allergy is a contraindication for taking ceftazidime, a cephalosporin antibiotic, due to the potential for cross-sensitivity. Shortness of breath can indicate the client is developing anaphylaxis.

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking acetazolamide for chronic open angle glaucoma. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor and report Tingling of fingers Constipation Weight gain Oliguria

Tingling of fingers The nurse should instruct the client to report the adverse effect of paresthesia, a tingling sensation in the extremities, when taking acetazolamide.

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and prescription for clozapine. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse review before administering the medication?

Total cholesterol The nurse should review the client's total cholesterol before administering clozapine, because this medication can cause hyperlipidemia.

A nurse is reviewing the ECG of a client who is receiving IV furosemide for heart failure. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as an indication of hypokalemia? Tall, tented T-waves Presence of U-waves Widened QRS complex ST elevation

U waves The nurse should identify the presence of U-waves as a manifestation of hypokalemia, an adverse effect of furosemide.

A nurse is teaching a client who is starting to take amitriptyline. Which of the following findings should the nurse include in the teaching as an adverse effect of the medication?

Urinary retention The nurse should instruct the client that amitriptyline causes the anticholinergic effect of urinary retention.

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking carbamazepine for a seizure disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

WBC 3,500/mm3 A WBC count of 3,500/mm3 is below the expected reference range of 5,000 to 10,000/mm3. Leukopenia is an adverse effect of carbamazepine. The nurse should report this finding to the provider and monitor the client for manifestations of infection.

A nurse is preparing to administer a new prescription of amoxicillin/clavulanic to a client. The client tells the nurse that they are allergic to penicillin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Withhold the medication. When using the urgent vs nonurgent approach to client care, the nurse should determine that the priority action is to withhold the medication to prevent injury to the client.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is to start therapy with digoxin. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor and report to the provider?

Yellow - tinged vision The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for and report yellow-tinged vision, which is a sign of digoxin toxicity. Other manifestations of digoxin toxicity include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, and fatigue. As the digoxin levels increase, the client can experience cardiac dysrhythmias.

A nurse administers a dose of metformin to a client instead of the prescribed dose of metoclopramide. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? Report the incident to the charge nurse. Notify the provider. Check the client's blood glucose. Fill out an incident report.

check blood sugar The first action the nurse should take using the nursing process is to assess the client. The client is at risk for hypoglycemia. The nurse should monitor the client's blood glucose and provide the client with a snack to reduce the risk for hypoglycemia.

A nurse is caring for a client who has hypocalcemia and is receiving calcium citrate. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings indicates a therapeutic response to the medication?

client report of decreased paresthesia. Paresthesia is a manifestation of hypocalcemia. A client report of a decrease in paresthesia is an indication of a therapeutic response to calcium citrate. The nurse should also monitor for a decrease in other manifestations of hypocalcemia, including muscle twitching and cardiac dysrhythmias.

A nurse is caring for a client who has sickle cell anemia and is taking hydroxyurea. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

hemoglobin 7.0 g/dL A hemoglobin level of 7.0 g/dL indicates hydroxyurea toxicity. This hemoglobin level is below the expected reference range of 14 to 19 g/dL for a male client and 12 to 16 g/dL for a female client. Therefore, the nurse should report this finding to the provider. platelets 75,000/mm3 A platelet level of 75,000/mm3 indicates hydroxyurea toxicity. This platelet level is below the expected reference range of 150,00 to 400,000/mm3. Therefore, the nurse should report this finding to the provider. potassium 5.2 mEq/L A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates tumor lysis syndrome. This potassium level is above the expected reference range of 3.5 to 5 mEq/L. Therefore, the nurse should report this finding to the provider.

A nurse is assessing a client who is taking propylthiouracil for the treatment of Graves' disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication has been effective? Hot flashes Urinary retention Constipation Bradycardia

hot flashes The estrogen receptor blocking action of tamoxifen commonly results in the adverse effect of hot flashes.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. The nurse should instruct the client to take the medication with which of the following to promote absorption?

orange juice The absorption of ferrous sulfate is enhanced by a vitamin C source, such as orange juice.

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. For which of the following client outcomes should the nurse administer chlordiazepoxide? Minimize diaphoresis Maintain abstinence Lessen craving Prevent delirium tremens

prevent delirium tremens The client should take chlordiazepoxide to prevent delirium tremens during acute alcohol withdrawal.

A nurse is collecting a medication history from a client who has a new prescription for lithium. The nurse should identify that the client should discontinue which of the following over the-counter medications? Aspirin Ibuprofen Ranitidine Bisacodyl

-Ibuprofen Most NSAIDs can significantly increase lithium levels. Therefore, the client should not take ibuprofen and lithium concurrently.

A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is to receive a dose of ceftazidime via intermittent IV bolus. Which of the following laboratory findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider before administering the medication?

Creatinine 2.6 mg/dL Ceftazidime is excreted primarily by the renal system. A serum creatinine level above 1.3 mg/dL can indicate a kidney disorder requiring a reduction in the dose administered. The nurse should notify the provider, who is likely to prescribe a lowered dose of medication.

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for docusate sodium about the medication's mechanism of action. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Docusate sodium reduces the surface tension of the stools to change their consistency. Docusate sodium is a surfactant that softens stool by reducing surface tension, allowing water to penetrate more easily into the stool.

A nurse contacts a client's provider on the telephone to obtain a prescription for pain medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Have the provider spell out the unfamiliar medication names. The nurse should ask the provider to spell out the name of the medication if the stated name is one the nurse is not familiar with.

A nurse is assessing a client who has schizophrenia and is taking haloperidol. The nurse should report which of the following findings to the provider as a manifestation of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)? Temperature of 39.7° C (103.5° F) Urinary retention Heart rate 56/min Muscle flaccidity

Temp 103.5 The nurse should report fever to the provider as an indication of NMS, an acute life-threatening emergency. Other manifestations can include respiratory distress, diaphoresis, and either hyper- or hypotension.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is to start treatment for asthma with beclomethasone and albuterol inhalers. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? "Take beclomethasone to avoid an acute attack." "Use beclomethasone 5 minutes before using albuterol." "Limit your calcium and vitamin D intake when taking beclomethasone." "Rinse your mouth after inhaling the beclomethasone."

rinse mouth after The client should rinse their mouth after using beclomethasone, a glucocorticoid inhaler, to prevent oropharyngeal candidiasis and hoarseness. *The client should use the bronchodilator, albuterol, prior to taking beclomethasone, a glucocorticoid inhaler, to enhance its absorption.

A nurse is caring for the parent of a newborn. The parent asks the nurse when their newborn should receive the first diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis vaccine (DTaP). The nurse should instruct the parent that their newborn should receive the immunization at which of the following ages? At birth 2 months 6 months 15 months

2 months The CDC recommends that newborns receive the first dose of the five-dose series of the DTaP immunization at 2 months of age.

A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. The client tells the nurse she is pregnant and that she has not told her provider yet. The nurse should identify that pregnancy is a contraindication for receiving which of the following medications?

Doxycycline Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic. The nurse should identify that doxycycline can cause teratogenic effects such as staining of the infant's teeth when exposed to this medication. Therefore, this medication is contraindicated for the client.

A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client whose family reports the client has taken large amounts of diazepam. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering? Ondansetron Magnesium sulfate Flumazenil Protamine sulfate

Flumazenil The nurse should anticipate administering flumazenil, an antidote used to reverse benzodiazepines such as diazepam.

A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving epoetin alfa to treat anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Increased blood pressure. The therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa is an increase in hematocrit levels, which can result in an increase in a client's blood pressure. If the client's hematocrit level rises too rapidly, hypertension and seizures can result. The nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure and ensure hypertension is controlled prior to administering the medication.

A nurse receives a verbal order from the provider to administer morphine five milligrams every 4 hours subcutaneously for severe pain as needed. The nurse should identify which of the following entries as the correct format for the medication administration record (MAR)? MSO4 5 mg subcut every 4 hr PRN severe pain Morphine 5 mg subcut every 4 hr PRN severe pain MSO4 5 mg SQ every 4 hr PRN severe pain Morphine 5.0 mg subcutaneously every 4 hr PRN severe pain

Morphine 5 mg subcut every 4 hr PRN severe pain The nurse should identify this entry as the correct format for the MAR. The medication name is spelled out and there are not any abbreviations from The Joint Commission's "Do Not Use" list included in the transcription.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching about handling medication to a client who is to continue taking oral transmucosal fentanyl raspberry flavored lozenges on a stick. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? Chew on the medication stick to release the medication. Leave the medication stick in one location of the mouth until melted. Allow the medication 1 hr for analgesia effects to begin. Store unused medication sticks in a storage container.

Store unused medication sticks in storage The nurse should instruct the client to store unused, used, or partially used medication sticks in the safe storage container that comes in the kit when the medication is initially prescribed.

A nurse is assessing a client 1 hr after administering morphine for pain. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as the best indication that the morphine has been effective? The client's vital signs are within normal limits. The client has not requested additional medication. The client is resting comfortably with eyes closed. The client rates pain as 3 on a scale from 0 to 10.

The client rates pain of 3 on scale 1 to 10 The client's description of the pain is the most accurate assessment of pain.

A nurse is caring for a client who has cancer and is taking oral morphine and docusate sodium. The nurse should instruct the client that taking the docusate sodium daily can minimize which of the following adverse effects of morphine? Constipation Drowsiness Facial flushing Itching

constipation Constipation is a common adverse effect of morphine that can be minimized by taking docusate sodium, a stool softener that promotes easier evacuation of stool by increasing water and fat in the intestine.

A nurse is teaching a client who is to start taking hydrocodone with acetaminophen tablets for pain. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? The medication should be taken 1 hr prior to eating. It takes 48 hr for therapeutic effects to occur. Tablets should not be crushed or chewed. Decreased respirations might occur.

decreased respirations may occur The nurse should instruct the client that hydrocodone with acetaminophen might cause respiratory depression, which is an adverse effect of the medication. The client should avoid taking over-the-counter medications or newly prescribed medications without consulting their provider to avoid increased respiratory depression.

A nurse is administering donepezil to a client who has Alzheimer's disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately? Dyspepsia Diarrhea Dizziness Dyspnea

dyspnea

A nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client who has a prescription for furosemide. The nurse should plan to include which of the following statements in the teaching?

"Drink a glass of milk with each dose of medication." The client should take furosemide with food or milk to reduce gastric irritation.

A nurse is preparing to administer 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 mL IV over 8 hr to a client. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 15 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min?

31 gtt/min Step 1: What is the unit of measurement the nurse should calculate? gtt/min Step 2: What is the volume the nurse should infuse? 1 L= 1,000 mL Step 3: What is the total infusion time? 8 hr Step 4: Should the nurse convert the units of measurement? Yes (min does not equal hr) 1 hr8 hr = 60 minX min X min = 480 min Step 5: Set up an equation and solve for X. 1,000 mL15 gttX gtt/min = × 480 min1 mL X gtt/min = 31.25 gtt/min Step 6: Round if necessary. 31.25 = 31 Step 7: Determine whether the amount to administer makes sense. If the prescription reads 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 mL IV to infuse over 8 hr with a drop factor of 15 gtt/min, it makes sense to administer 31 gtt/min. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 0.9% sodium chloride IV at 31 gtt/min.

A nurse is precepting a newly licensed nurse who is caring for four clients. The nurse should complete an incident report for which of the following actions by the newly licensed nurse?

Administers isosorbide mononitrate to a client who has BP 82/60 mm Hg Isosorbide mononitrate is a nitrate used for clients with angina. Taking isosorbide mononitrate leads to vasodilation, which can result in hypotension. The nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider if the client's systolic blood pressure is below the expected reference range of 120/80.

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving haloperidol. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?

Akathisia An adverse effect associated with haloperidol is the development of extrapyramidal manifestations such as dystonia, pseudoparkinsonism, and akathisia.

A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has myasthenia gravis and is in a cholinergic crisis. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer? Potassium iodide Glucagon Atropine Protamine

Atropine A cholinergic crisis is caused by an excess amount of cholinesterase inhibitor, such as neostigmine. The nurse should plan to administer atropine, an anticholinergic agent, to reverse cholinergic toxicity.

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy via continuous IV infusion to treat a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication and report to the provider? Vomiting Blood in the urine Positive Chvostek's sign Ringing in the ears

Blood in the urine The nurse should report blood in the urine to the provider because this can be a manifestation of heparin toxicity. Other manifestations can include bruising, hematomas, hypotension, and tachycardia.

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking atorvastatin for hyperlipidemia. Which of the following client laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Creatinine kinase MY ANSWER The client who is taking atorvastatin can develop an adverse effect called rhabdomyolysis, which causes muscle weakness or pain and can progress to myositis. Creatinine kinase levels rise in response to enzymes released with muscle injury.

A nurse is assessing a client who is taking propylthiouracil for the treatment of Graves' disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication has been effective? Decrease in WBC count Decrease in amount of time sleeping Increase in appetite Increase in ability to focus

increase in ability to focus A client who has Graves' disease can experience psychological manifestations such as difficulty focusing, restlessness, and manic-type behaviors. Propylthiouracil is a thyroid hormone antagonist that decreases the circulating T4 hormone, reducing the manifestations of hyperthyroidism. An increased ability to focus indicates that the medication has been effective.

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving filgrastim. Which of the following findings should the nurse document to indicate the effectiveness of the therapy? Increased neutrophil count Increased RBC count Decreased prothrombin time Decreased triglycerides

increase neutrophil count Filgrastim stimulates the bone marrow to produce neutrophils. For clients receiving chemotherapy, the risk of infection is minimized.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has depression and a new prescription for fluoxetine. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

"I should take acetaminophen instead of ibuprofen for my headaches while taking this medication" Fluoxetine suppresses platelet aggregation, which increases the risk of bleeding when used concurrently with NSAIDs and anticoagulants. Therefore, clients who are taking fluoxetine should take acetaminophen for headaches or pain, since acetaminophen does not suppress platelet aggregation.

A nurse is teaching a client who is starting to take diltiazem. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the teaching?

"I will check my HR before I take the medication" Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, has cardio-suppressant effects at the SA and AV nodes, which can lead to bradycardia. The client should check their heart rate before taking the medication and notify the provider if it falls below the expected reference range.

A nurse is teaching about a new prescription for ciprofloxacin to a client who has a urinary tract infection. The nurse should identify which of the following statements as an indication that the client understands the teaching?

"I will report any signs of tendon pain or swelling" Ciprofloxacin, a fluoroquinolone, is associated with a risk of tendon rupture. This risk is increased in older adult clients, so the client should notify the provider at the onset of tendon pain or swelling.

A nurse is teaching a client about cyclobenzaprine. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the teaching is effective? "I will have increased saliva production." "I will continue taking the medication until the rash disappears." "I will taper off the medication before discontinuing it." "I will report any urinary incontinence."

"I will taper off medication before discontinuing" The client should taper off cyclobenzaprine before discontinuing it to prevent abstinence syndrome or rebound insomnia.

A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled antibiotic at 0800 to a client and discovers the antibiotic is not present in the client's medication drawer. The nurse should identify that administration of the medication can occur at which of the following time periods without requiring an incident report? 1000 0900 0830 1200

0830 The nurse should identify that an antibiotic can be administered 30 min before or after the scheduled time to maintain therapeutic blood levels without requiring an incident report.

A nurse is assessing a client who is taking amitriptyline for depression. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

Dry mouth The nurse should expect the client to have a dry mouth due to the blocking of acetylcholine receptors that cause anticholinergic responses.

A nurse is teaching about zolpidem to a client who has insomnia. The nurse should identify that which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

I will use this medication for a short period of time Zolpidem is used for short-term treatment of insomnia. Therefore, the provider should reassess the client before refilling the prescription.

A nurse is assessing a client after administering a second dose of cefazolin IV. The nurse notes the client has anxiety, hypotension, and dyspnea. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer first? Diphenhydramine Albuterol inhaler Epinephrine Prednisone

Epinephrine According to evidence-based practice, the nurse should administer epinephrine first to induce vasoconstriction and bronchodilation during anaphylaxis.

A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has heart failure and a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching? "I should take the medication with food." "I should take naproxen if I develop joint pain." "I should tell my provider if I develop a sore throat." "I should expect the medication to cause my urine to look orange."

I should tell my provider if I develop a sore throat The client should report a sore throat to the provider because this can indicate neutropenia, a serious adverse effect of captopril. Neutropenia can be reversed if it is identified early and the medication is promptly discontinued.

A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a prescription for enalapril. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?

Hyperkalemia Enalapril improves cardiac functioning in clients who have heart failure and can cause hyperkalemia due to potassium retention by the kidneys.

A nurse is teaching a client who is to start taking ranitidine for peptic ulcer disease. Which of the following client statements should the nurse identify as understand of the teaching?

I know smoking makes ranitidine less effective. The nurse should instruct the client that smoking decreases the effectiveness of ranitidine by exacerbating the ulcer manifestations.

A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has heroin toxicity. The client is unresponsive with pinpoint pupils and a respiratory rate of 6/min. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer? Methadone Naloxone Diazepam Bupropion

Naloxone The nurse should administer naloxone, an opioid antagonist, to a client who has heroin toxicity to reverse the respiratory depressive effects of the heroin. However, the nurse should not administer naloxone too quickly because naloxone can cause hypertension, tachycardia, nausea, vomiting, and might cause the client to enter a state of opioid withdrawal.

A nurse administered digoxin immune Fab to a client who received the incorrect dose of digoxin over a period of 3 days. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings indicates the antidote was effective?

Normal sinus rhythm Dysrhythmias are a life-threatening adverse effect of digoxin toxicity. The return of the heart to normal sinus rhythm indicates a therapeutic response to the antidote. Digoxin immune Fab is administered to a client who is experiencing severe digoxin toxicity. It binds with digoxin and works to reduce the client's blood digoxin level.

A nurse is caring for a client who reports lethargy and myalgia after taking clozapine for 6 months. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Obtain WBC with absolute neutrophil count. The client who takes clozapine can develop lethargy and myalgia caused by the adverse effect of agranulocytosis. Therefore, monitoring the WBC with absolute neutrophil count weekly for the first 6 months of treatment is recommended. After 6 months, monitoring can occur every 2 weeks up to 1 year.

A nurse is preparing to administer hydrocholorothiazide (HCTZ) to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take prior to administer the medication?

Obtain the client's blood pressure HCTZ is a thiazide diuretic administered to promote urine output and reduce blood pressure and edema. The nurse should obtain the client's blood pressure prior to administration of the medication.

A nurse is monitoring for adverse effects of hydrochlorothiazide after administering the medication to an older adult client who has heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

Orthostatic hypotension The nurse should identify that hydrochlorothiazide is an antihypertensive thiazide diuretic medication, which can cause orthostatic hypotension and light headedness. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to rise slowly when moving from a recumbent to a standing position.

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion for deep vein thrombosis. The nurse should discontinue the medication infusion for which of the following client findings? Potassium 5.0 mEq/ L aPTT 2 times the control Hemoglobin 15 g/dL Platelets 96,000/mm3

PLT 96,000 A platelet count of 96,000/mm3 is below the expected range of 150,000 to 400,000/mm3. A platelet count less than 100,000/mm3 while receiving heparin can indicate heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, a potentially fatal condition that requires stopping the infusion.

A circulating nurse is planning care for a client who is scheduled for surgery and has a latex allergy. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Place monitoring cords and tubes in a stockinet. The nurse should place monitoring devices in a stockinet to prevent direct contact with the client's skin.

A nurse is preparing to mix and administer dantrolene via IV bolus to a client who has developed malignant hyperthermia during surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Reconstitute the initial dose with 60mL of sterile water w/o a bacteriostatic agent. The nurse should dilute the medication with 60 mL of sterile water without a bacteriostatic agent and inject rapidly.

A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who is taking aspirin for the treatment of arthritis. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as an indication that the client is beginning to exhibit salicylism?

Tinnitus Tinnitus is a manifestation of aspirin toxicity, also called salicylism. Other manifestations include sweating, headache, and dizziness.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is taking bupropion as an aid to quit smoking. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication? Cough Joint pain Alopecia Insomnia

insomnia Bupropion, an atypical antidepressant, has stimulant properties, which can result in agitation, tremors, mania, and insomnia.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a prescription for ergotamine sublingual to treat migraine headaches. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the instructions? "Take one tablet three times a day before meals." "Take one tablet at onset of migraine." "Take up to eight tablets as needed within a 24-hour period." "Take one tablet every 15 minutes until migraine subsides."

take one tablet on onset of migraine The client should take one tablet immediately after the onset of aura or headache.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is start taking sumatriptan. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for and report to the provider?

Chest pressure Sumatriptan is an antimigraine agent which can cause coronary vasospasms, resulting in angina. The client should report chest pressure or heavy arms to the provider.

A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor. The client is receiving oxytocin by continuous IV infusion with a maintenance IV solution. The external FHR monitor indicates late decelerations. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? Turn the client to a side-lying position. Disconnect the client's oxytocin from the maintenance IV. Apply oxygen to the client by face mask. Increase the client's maintenance IV infusion rate.

turn to a side lying position The greatest risk to the fetus experiencing late decelerations is injury from uteroplacental insufficiency. Therefore, the priority action the nurse should take is to place the client in a lateral position.

A nurse is caring for a client who received 0.9% sodium chloride 1 L over 4 hr instead of over 8 hr as prescribed. Which of the following information should the nurse enter as a complete documentation of the incident? IV fluid infused over 4 hr instead of the prescribed 8 hr. Client tolerated fluids well, provider notified. 0.9% sodium chloride 1 L IV infused over 4 hr. Vital signs stable, provider notified. 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride completed at 0900. Client denies shortness of breath. IV fluid initiated at 0500. Lungs clear to auscultation.

0.9% sodium chloride 1 L IV infused over 4 hr. Vital signs stable, provider notified The nurse should document the type and amount of fluid, how long it took to infuse, provider notification, and the client's physical status.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a gastric ulcer and a new prescription for ranitidine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? "Take the medication on an empty stomach for full effectiveness." "You may discontinue this medication when stomach discomfort subsides." "Report yellowing of the skin." "Store the medication in the refrigerator."

report yellowing of the skin Ranitidine can be hepatotoxic and cause jaundice. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for and report yellowing of the skin or eyes to the provider.

A nurse is planning care for a client who is prescribed metoclopramide following bowel surgery. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor? Muscle weakness Sedation Tinnitus Peripheral edema

sedation Metoclopramide has multiple CNS adverse effects, including dizziness, fatigue, and sedation.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has multiple sclerosis and a new prescription for methylprednisolone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) Blood glucose levels will be monitored during therapy. Avoid contact with people who have known infections. Take the medication 1 hr before breakfast. Decrease dietary intake of foods containing potassium. Grapefruit juice can increase the effects of the medication.

Blood glucose levels will be monitored during therapy. Avoid contact with people who have known infections Grapefruit juice can increase the effects of the medication. Blood glucose levels will be monitored during therapy is correct. The nurse should monitor the client for hyperglycemia while providing methylprednisolone to the client. Glucocorticoids, such as methylprednisolone, increase serum glucose levels and can require management with insulin or antihyperglycemics. Avoid contact with people who have known infections is correct. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid exposure to infectious agents, such as contact with those who have active infections or illnesses. Glucocorticoids, such as methylprednisolone, depress the immune system, placing the client at an increased risk for developing an infection. Take the medication 1 hr before breakfast is incorrect. The nurse should instruct the client to take the medication with food or milk to decrease gastrointestinal upset. Decrease dietary intake of foods containing potassium is incorrect. The nurse should instruct the client to increase dietary intake of potassium-rich foods while taking this medication. Glucocorticoids, such as methylprednisolone, deplete potassium in the body, which manifests as hypokalemia. Grapefruit juice can increase the effects of the medication is correct. The nurse should instruct the client that grapefruit and grapefruit juice can increase the level of methylprednisolone in the body.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is to begin taking oxybutynin for urinary incontinence. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.) Dry mouth Tinnitus Blurred vision Bradycardia Dry eyes

Blurred vision, Dry eyes, Dry Mouth Dry mouth is correct. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic agent that can cause dry mouth. Tinnitus is incorrect. Oxybutynin can cause several sensory adverse effects including increased intraocular pressure. The nurse should instruct the client to report eye pain, seeing colored halos around lights, and a decreased ability to perceive light changes. However, tinnitus is not an adverse effect associated with oxybutynin administration. Blurred vision is correct. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic agent that can cause blurred vision due to an increase in intraocular pressure. Bradycardia is incorrect. Oxybutynin can cause several cardiovascular adverse effects such as a prolongation of the QT interval, palpitations, hypertension, and tachycardia. Dry eyes is correct. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic agent that can cause dry eyes and mydriasis, or pupil dilation.

A nurse is caring for a client who is to receive treatment for opioid use disorder. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

Methadone The nurse should expect to administer methadone for treatment of opioid use disorder. Methadone can be administered for withdrawal and to assist with maintenance and suppressive therapy.

A nurse is planning care for a client who has hypertension and is to start taking metoprolol. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? Weigh the client weekly. Determine apical pulse prior to administering. Administer the medication 30 min prior to breakfast. Monitor the client for jaundice.

Determine apical pulse before admin Life-threatening bradycardia is an adverse effect that might affect this client. Therefore, the nurse should assess the client's apical pulse prior to administering the medication. If the client's pulse rate is less than 60/min, the nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has peptic ulcer disease and is to start a new prescription for sucralfate. Which of the following actions of sucralfate should the nurse include in the teaching? Decreases stomach acid secretion Neutralizes acids in the stomach Forms a protective barrier over ulcers Treats ulcers by eradicating H. pylori

Forms a protective barrier over ulcers Secretions by the parietal and chief cells, hydrochloric acid and pepsin, can further irritate the ulcerated areas. Sucralfate, a mucosal protectant, forms a gel-like substance that coats the ulcer, creating a barrier to hydrochloric acid and pepsin.

A nurse is assessing a client's vital signs prior to the administration of PO digoxin. The client's BP is 144/86 mm Hg, heart rate is 55/min, and respiratory rate is 20/min. The nurse should withhold the medication and contact the provider for which of the following findings? Diastolic BP Systolic BP Heart rate Respiratory rate

HR Digoxin slows the conduction rate through the SA and AV nodes, thereby decreasing the heart rate. The nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider for a heart rate of 55/min because this is an early indication of digoxin toxicity.

A nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client who has a new prescription for simvastatin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.) Report muscle pain to the provider. Avoid taking the medication with grapefruit juice. Take the medication in the early morning. Expect a flushing of the skin as a reaction to the medication. Expect therapy with this medication to be lifelong.

Report muscle pain to the provider Avoid grapefruit juice expect therapy to be lifelong Report muscle pain to the provider is correct. Myopathy is an adverse effect of simvastatin that can lead to rhabdomyolysis. The nurse should instruct the client to report this to the provider. Avoid taking the medication with grapefruit juice is correct. When taken with grapefruit juice, simvastatin increases the risk of muscle injury from elevations in creatine kinase. Take the medication in the early morning is incorrect. This medication is most effective when taken in the evening because cholesterol production generally increases overnight. Expect a flushing of the skin as a reaction to the medication is incorrect. The nurse should identify flushing of the skin as an adverse effect of the medication niacin, which can be used to decrease the client's triglyceride levels. Expect therapy with this medication to be lifelong is correct. If medication therapy is discontinued, cholesterol levels will return to their pretreatment range within several weeks to months.

A nurse on the acute care unit is caring for a client who is receiving gentamicin IV. The nurse should report which of the following findings to the provider as an adverse effect of the medication? Constipation Tinnitus Hypoglycemia Joint pain

Tinnitus Aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin, are ototoxic, which can manifest as tinnitus and deafness. The nurse should monitor the client for high-pitched ringing in the ears and headaches and should notify the provider if these occur.

A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following an outpatient endoscopy procedure using midazolam. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings as an indication that the client is ready for discharge? The client's capnography has returned to baseline. The client can respond to their name when called. The client is passing flatus. The client is requesting oral intake.

The client's capnography has returned to baseline. The nurse should identify that the client is ready for discharge when the capnography level indicates that gas exchange is adequate.