Pharmacology Exam 2 Practice Questions

Which of the following is an indication that the nurse should notify the provider? "I take my albuterol once or twice daily." "I use my albuterol once in a while - perhaps once a week." "I really have not used my albuterol at all this month." "I gave my inhaler to my brother yesterday."

"I take my albuterol once or twice daily."

30) A patient is receiving a continuous heparin infusion for venous thromboembolism treatment. Which laboratory results should the nurse monitor for therapeutic effects and/or adverse effects? (Select all that apply.) a. Platelets b. Vitamin K level c. Prothrombin time (PT) d. International normalized ratio (INR) e. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

A and E

23) The healthcare provider prescribes lovastatin for a patient discharged from the hospital post-myocardial infarction. Which instructions are most appropriate for the nurse to include in the patient's teaching plan? (Select all that apply.) a. "Do not start any new medications without first talking to your healthcare provider." b. "Before starting this medication a blood test will be done to check your total cholesterol level and to measure liver enzymes." c. "Take your medication in the morning, with a full glass of water for best results." d. "Take one 325-mg aspirin 30 minutes before your dose to lessen the problem of flushing and itching that can occur with this drug." e. "Lower the total fat and saturated fat in your diet by increasing your intake of fresh fruits and vegetables and whole grains."

A, B, E

25) The nurse understands patients receiving nitroglycerin are at risk for which adverse effects? (Select all that apply.) a. Headache b. Wheezing c. Dizziness d. Tachycardia e. Bradycardia

A, C, D

The 4 types of inhalation dosage forms are.... A. MDI, respimats, dry powder inhalers, nebulizers B. sniff, MDI, powder, spacer C. propellant, puff, spacer, MDI D. none of the above

A. MDI, respimats, dry powder inhalers, nebulizers

The anticoagulant effects of warfarin typically occur within: 30 minutes 6 hours 24 hours 3 to 4 days

3 to 4 days

"As an astute nurse, you know that in patients receiving long-term steroids (> 10 days), you must taper the dose to prevent" adrenal crisis fungal infections serotonin syndrome extrapyramidal symptoms

ADRENAL CRISIS

Aminocaproic acid (Amicar) can be used for severe, life-threatening bleeding caused by which drug? Heparin Argatroban Alteplase (Activase) Rivaroxaban (Dabigatran)

Alteplase (Activase)

26) Which are the main types of drugs used to prevent or relieve anginal pain? (Select all that apply.) a. Platelet inhibitors b. Beta blockers c. Nitrates d. Calcium channel blockers e. Statins

B, C, D

34) A patient with low platelet count is receiving oprelvekin. Which adverse effects are most likely associated with this drug? Select all that apply a. Hypotension b. Fluid retention c. Accelerated tumor progression d. Atrial fibrillation e. Anaphylactic reactions

B, D, E

16) What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching for a patient prescribed amiodarone? (Select all that apply.) a. "Take amiodarone with grapefruit juice." b. "Take the medication on an empty stomach." c. "Wear sunblock and protective clothing when you are outdoors." d. "Check your pulse daily and report excessive slowing to your healthcare provider immediately." e. "Immediately notify your healthcare provider of shortness of breath, cough, or chest pain."

C, D, E

5) The nurse is teaching a patient prescribed captopril for the treatment of hypertension. Which instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. You can stop the medication once your blood pressure is normal b. Expect a sore throat and fever c. Avoid potassium salt substitutes d. A persistent dry cough may occur e. Report difficulty in breathing immediately

C, D, E

What is a COMMON AE of diphenhydramine? CNS - excitation peripheral tingling CNS - sedation none of the above

CNS- sedation

8) A patient with angina pectoris has been prescribed nifedipine. Which possible adverse effects should the nurse expect with this medication? (Select all that apply.) a. Sedation b. Constipation c. Nausea and vomiting d. Edema of ankles and feet e. Overgrowth of gum tissue

D and E

Antidote for digoxin toxicity is.... Digibind potassium vitamin K acetylcysteine

Digibind

A patient is prescribed rivaroxaban (Xarelto) and the nurse is providing patient education. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? Drug interactions are not a concern with this medication I should watch closely for discolored urine or stool, bruises persistent headache or faintness. I should inform all health care professionals I am taking this medication I should not double my dose when I forget to take it the day before

Drug interactions are not a concern with this medication

Digoxin improves survival and quality of life. True False

FALSE

Filgrastim (Neupogen) is given orally only. True False

FALSE

It is safe to take Pepto Bismol (bismuth subsalicylate) if you are allergic to aspirin TRUE or FALSE

FALSE

IV heparin is always used for DVT prophylaxis. True False

False

It is safe to drink alcohol when on metronidazole (Flagyl) True False

False

What is a contraindication for phenylephrine? hypotension hypothyroidism HTN dysphagia

HTN

Beclomethasone (QVAR) is an inhaled steroid. What is an indication that the patient understands appropriate or therapeutic use? I take my beclomethasone daily. I took my beclomethasone yesterday because I was short of breath Beclomethasone dose can be doubled if I feel bad. None of the above

I take my Beclomethasone daily

Epoetin alpha (Epogen) is given: po SL IV all of the above

IV

Phenylephrine: what is TRUE about this drug? It is a beta 1 blocker It is an alpha 1 agonist It is an alpha 1 blocker It is a beta 1 stmulant (agonist)

It is an alpha 1 agonist

Which of the following anti-hypertensives are contraindicated in the 2nd and 3rd trimester of pregnancy? verapamil / Calan® HCTZ/Microzide® Aspart Losartan/Cozaar®

Losartan/Cozaar

Which of the following tests is used to monitor the effects of warfarin? aPTT anti-Xa levels PT/INR CBC

PT/INR

What are important safety items to address with cough and colds? Read the labels OTC drugs are always safe combination products are always best it is always safe to give OTC drugs to children

Read the labels

Beta Blockers can cause the following AEs: bradycardia, heart bock, hypotension, fatigue, and fluid retension /worsening of HF. True False

TRUE

Both dextromethorphan and guaifenesin can cause dizziness and drowsiness. TRUE or FAlSE

TRUE

Dextromethorphan is the most effective OTC non-opioid cough suppressant. True False

TRUE

TRUE or FALSE: Dry powder inhaler requires the patient being able to breathe the powder in deeply.

TRUE

Tetracycline cannot be given to those under the age of eight. TRUE or FALSE

TRUE

What is true about mometasone (intranasal glucocorticoid)? This should be taken daily It can be taken PRN It can be taken for a severe attack none of the above

This should be taken daily

ACE inhibitors should be used in all patients that are Stage B (or higher) heart failure. True False

True

Filgrastim (Neupogen) is given to promote neutrophil recovery in cancer patients. True False

True

Oprelvekin (interleukin II)to minimize thrombocytopenia. - the nurse must monitor carefully for fluid retention. TRUE or FALSE

True

Oprelvekin (interleukin II)to minimize thrombocytopenia. It is given 4-6 hours after chemotherapy The patient must continue therapy for 21 days or until platelet count exceeds 50.000/mm (whichever comes first) True False

True

Therapy for H. Pylori could affect the INR for a patient taking warfarin (Coumadin). True False

True

What medication can be used to reverse the effects of warfarin? Vitamin K Protamine sulfate Acetylcysteine Idarucizumab

Vitamin K

Nitroglycerin is used to treat: acute angina prevent chronic recurrent angina hypotension a and b

a and b (acute angina and prevent chronic recurrent angina)

1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about antidysrhythmic medications. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. " Antidysrhythmic drugs can cause new dysrhythmias or worsen existing ones." b. "Adverse effects of these drugs, which are mainly noncardiac in nature, are rarely serious." c. "For most antidysrhythmic drugs, there is evidence of reduced mortality." d. "Correcting underlying electrolyte abnormalities will not impact treatment."

a. " Antidysrhythmic drugs can cause new dysrhythmias or worsen existing ones."

4) The nurse is evaluating the teaching done with a patient who has a new prescription for captopril. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I can take this medicine with breakfast each morning." b. "I will call if I notice a rash or wheals on my skin." c. "I will use a salt substitute to lower my sodium intake." d. "I will call if I develop a bothersome cough."

a. "I can take this medicine with breakfast each morning."

24) A patient with angina is being discharged with a prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which instruction should the nurse include? a. "Store the tablets in the original container and tightly close it after use." b. "The tablets are only good for 1 month after the container is opened." c. "Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets are also effective when swallowed whole." d. "Effects of sublingual nitroglycerin begin in 5 to 10 minutes."

a. "Store the tablets in the original container and tightly close it after use."

33) The nurse is administering epoetin alfa to a patient receiving chemotherapy. Which adverse effect is a potential risk with this drug? a. Accelerated tumor progression b. Hypotension c. Easy Bruising d. Bone pain

a. Accelerated tumor progression

18) Which drug is the most effective (and most commonly prescribed for lowering LDL cholesterol? a. Atorvastatin b. Cholestyramine c. Gemfibrozil d. Ezetimibe

a. Atorvastatin

12) The nurse is preparing to administer an oral dose of digoxin. The apical pulse rate is 64. What nursing action is most appropriate? a. Give the medication b. Obtain a serum digoxin level c. Notify the healthcare provider d. Assess for signs of digoxin toxicity

a. Give the medication

3) The nurse has just administered the initial dose of captopril to a newly admitted patient with hypertension. What is the priority nursing intervention over the next several hours? a. Monitor blood pressure. b. Check the heart rate. c. Auscultate lung sounds. d. Draw a potassium level

a. Monitor blood pressure.

14) The nurse is administering intravenous lidocaine to a patient with a ventricular dysrhythmia. What is the priority nursing intervention to prevent a potential complication with this drug? a. Monitor the electrocardiogram (ECG) b. Obtain a complete blood count c. Instruct to report any chest pain d. Keep naloxone [Narcan] at the bedside

a. Monitor the electrocardiogram (ECG)

36) A patient who has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is taking aluminum hydroxide. How does this drug achieve the desired therapeutic effect? a. Neutralized gastric acid b. Reduced stomach acid c. Increased barrier to pepsin d. Reduced duodenal pH

a. Neutralized gastric acid

39) A patient is prescribed long-term oral prednisone for treatment of chronic asthma. The nurse should instruct the patient on which of the following adverse effects associated with long-term steroid use? a. Hyperglycemia b. Nervousness c. Tachycardia d. Dry mouth

a. hyperglycemia

Whenever possible, in treating dysrhythmias, the goal is to:" treat the lack of impulses traveling through the heart repair the musculature of the heart address the underlying cause of the dysrhythmia (e.g., hypomagnesemia) none of the above

address the underlying cause of the dysrhythmia (e.g., hypomagnesemia)

Which of the following drugs are considered a "rescue drug? albuterol (beta 2 agonist) beclomethasone (QVAR) Theophylline (Theo-24, a methylxanthine) Ipratropium (Atrovent)

albuterol (beta 2 agonist)

A sign and symptom of digoxin toxicity is: visual changes (yellow halos) bradycardia (below 60 bpm) GI disturbance all of the above

all of the above

Amiodarone (Cordarone) has many side effects. In monitoring for adverse effects, the nurse must vigilantly watch for: QT interval, pulmonary toxicities (new onset cough), blue tinged skin liver function values electrolyte disturbances all of the above

all of the above

Dextromethorphan can cause: euphoria (high doses) mild inebriation state of mind body dissociation all of the above

all of the above

Eplerenone (Inspra) has been linked to: reduce HF symptoms decrease HF hospitalizations decrease sudden cardiac death all of the above

all of the above

Oprelvekin (interleukin II). In monitoring this drug, the nurse MUST monitor: platelet count hematocrit fluid and electrolyte status all of the above

all of the above

Patient education for the patient with Peptic Ulcer Disease should include: monitoring for the signs of GI bleeding elimination of ETOH Avoid smoking and NSAIDs all of the above

all of the above

Problems that exist with untreated HTN include: myocardial sclerosing dementia brain damage all of the above

all of the above

The signs and symptoms of hypokalemia include which of the following: muscle weakness feeling of "irregular heart beat" muscle cramps all of the above

all of the above

Theophylline (Theo-24) is a methylxanthine. What is an early s/s of toxicity? headache dizziness n/v all of the above

all of the above

What is TRUE about over the counter cough/cold medicines? the can contain acetaminophen (which has a max dose/day) It can contain nasal decongestant It can contain caffeine all of the above

all of the above

What is the mechanism of action of nitroglycerin (a nitrate)? it relaxes the smooth muscle dilates the veins and the arterioles decreases preload all of the above

all of the above

Why deliver drugs to the site of action? onset of action - quick systemic effects are minimized delivered right to the site of needed action all of the above

all of the above

Heparin enhances the anticoagulant activity of what naturally occurring substance? antithrombin thrombin factor X vitamin k

antithrombin

How is it be possible to have a patient on a beta blocker when the patient has HF? it slow down the heart rate at low doses, beta blockers protect the heart from sympathetic stimulation beta blockers cause SEVERE hypotension patients with HF should not be on beta blockers

at low doses, beta blockers protect the heart from sympathetic stimulation

How is it possible to have a patient on a beta blocker when the patient has HF? it slow down the heart rate at low doses, beta blockers protect the heart from sympathetic stimulation beta blockers cause SEVERE hypotension patients with HF should not be on beta blockers

at low doses, beta blockers protect the heart from sympathetic stimulation

42) A patient asks a nurse, "Why should I switch to fexofenadine for my allergies when I've taken diphenhydramine for so long?" Which response should the nurse make? a. "You'll have much less risk of cardiac problems." b. "There is not nearly as much drowsiness and sedation." c. "The biggest benefit is that the cost is so much lower." d. "The dosing is more convenient, because you take it once a week."

b. "There is not nearly as much drowsiness and sedation."

43) Which statement by a patient indicates understanding of a nurse's teaching about mometasone nasal spray? a. "I'll gradually stop taking this so I don't have any problems with withdrawal." b. "This drug will help prevent the inflammation and irritation from my allergies." c. "I'll have to be more careful about not falling, because my bones may break more easily." d. "I realize that I only need to take this when my symptoms are really bad."

b. "This drug will help prevent the inflammation and irritation from my allergies."

28) The nurse is caring for a patient who takes warfarin for prevention of deep vein thrombosis. The patient has an international normalized ratio (INR) of 2.7. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Administer intravenous (IV) push protamine sulfate b. Administer the dose c. Prepare to administer vitamin K d. Call the healthcare provider to increase the dose

b. Administer the dose

37) The nurse is reviewing the prescriber's orders and notes that omeprazole has been ordered for a patient admitted with acute coronary syndrome (ACS). The nurse should be concerned if this medication is combined with which medication noted on the patient's record? a. Aspirin b. Clopidogrel c. Heparin d. Metoprolol

b. Clopidogrel

21) The nurse is caring for a patient prescribed a cholesterol-lowering drug. Which drug is least likely to cause systemic side effects? a. Atorvastatin b. Colesevelam c. Niacin d. Gemfibrozil

b. Colesevelam

15) The nurse is caring for a patient receiving amiodarone. Which body system should the nurse assess for serious adverse effects of this medication? a. Musculoskeletal b. Respiratory c. Gastrointestinal d. Renal

b. Respiratory

32) The nurse is caring for a patient undergoing cancer chemotherapy who presents with rash, bone pain, hypertension, and pedal edema. Which symptom could be related to the filgrastim the patient is receiving? a. Rash b. Bone pain c. Headache d. Swelling of the feet

b. bone pain

"In patient teaching, the nurse must stress that storage of nitroglycerin must:" be kept in a new sterile container be kept in its original container be kept in a aqueous environment none of the above

be kept in its original container

The diuretics work by causing: blockage of NA and water reabsorption improved reabsorption of Na and H2O better excretion of uric acid euvolemia

blockage of NA and water reabsorption

The diuretics work by causing: blockage of NA and water reabsorption improved reabsorption of Na and H2O better excretion of uric acid euvolemia

blockage of NA and water reabsorption

How does diphenhydramine work? blocks action of histamine at the H1 receptors increases uptake of histamine (H1) at receptors blocks action of histamine at the H2 receptors increases uptake of histamine (H2) at receptors

blocks action of histamine at the H1 receptors

Patients on long-term therapy for GERD who are being treated with omeprazole (Prilosec), must be monitored for: constipation malnutrition bone fractures hypermagnesemia

bone fractures

What should as astute nurse teach when his or her patient first starts verapamil (Non-dihydropyridine)? bowel regimen have patient lie down before administering IV dose wear TEDS stockings to give 3 pills (5 min apart) before calling 911

bowel regimen

45) A nurse is teaching a patient who is to start taking an expectorant. The nurse provides the patient with which of these instructions? a. "Restrict cold fluids to promote reduced mucus production." b. "Take the medication once a day only, usually at bedtime." c. "Increase your fluid intake to reduce the viscosity of secretions." d. "Increase your fiber and fluid intake to prevent constipation."

c. "Increase your fluid intake to reduce the viscosity of secretions."

10) An adult male patient is taking medication for blood pressure management. The patient states to the nurse, "I'm not going to take these drugs anymore, because they are interfering with my sex life." What is the most appropriate response by the nurse? a. "It is unfortunate these drugs can cause erectile dysfunction but managing your blood pressure is more important than your sexual performance." b. "I understand how discouraging it must be to live with this adverse effect, but you could have a stroke if you do not take your blood pressure medications." c. "Let's discuss this effect with your prescriber. There are other drugs available to manage your blood pressure that may not have the same adverse effect." d. "I am glad you told me about your experience with this common side effect. Sexual performance can be a difficult subject to discuss."

c. "Let's discuss this effect with your prescriber. There are other drugs available to manage your blood pressure that may not have the same adverse effect."

17) The nurse is teaching a group of patients about dietary approaches to reduce cholesterol levels. Which statement is most important to include in the teaching? a. "Lower your cholesterol to 300 mg/day." b. "Eliminate red meat and pork from your diet." c. "Read food labels and reduce your intake of saturated fats." d. "Reduce salt consumption to keep your sodium intake to 2400 mg/day."

c. "Read food labels and reduce your intake of saturated fats."

38) Which instruction should the nurse give a patient who is to take bismuth subsalicylate for eradication of H. pylori? a. "Nausea and diarrhea are common side effects." b. "Do not drink alcohol while taking this medication." c. "The drug can cause your bowel movements to be black." d. "Take the medication through a straw to prevent staining of your teeth."

c. "The drug can cause your bowel movements to be black."

2) The healthcare provider orders furosemide 20 mg IV twice daily. The medication available is furosemide 10 mg/mL. How many mL will the nurse administer with each dose? a. 0.5 mL b. 1 mL c. 2 mL d. 4 mL

c. 2 mL

20) A patient with an elevated triglyceride level is prescribed a sustained-release form of nicotinic acid. Which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor for in this patient? a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) b. Complete blood count (CBC) c. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) d. Creatine kinase (CK)

c. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

44) Which finding in a patient taking phenylephrine nasal spray every 2 hours would indicate that the patient has developed an adverse effect? a. Dry mouth and constipation b. Drowsiness and sedation c. Congestion and stuffiness d. Itching and skin rash

c. Congestion and stuffiness

13) The nurse is caring for a patient prescribed quinidine for a supraventricular dysrhythmia. What is a common adverse effect of this drug? a. Constipation b. Urinary retention c. Diarrhea d. Blurred vision

c. Diarrhea

27) The nurse is monitoring a patient receiving a heparin infusion for the treatment of pulmonary embolism. Which assessment finding most likely relates to an adverse effect of heparin? a. Visual disturbances b. Elevated blood pressure c. Discolored urine d. Inspiratory wheezing

c. Discolored urine

11) The nurse is caring for a patient who takes spironolactone and quinapril for treatment of heart failure. What finding indicates a potential interaction between these two drugs? a. Elevated serum quinapril level b. Bradycardia c. Hyperkalemia d. Hypoglycemia

c. Hyperkalemia

29) The nurse knows that which statement is accurate for enoxaparin? a. It equally reduces the activity of thrombin and factor Xa b. It has selective inhibition of factor Xa and no effect on thrombin c. It reduces the activity of factor Xa more than the activity of thrombin d. It has a lower bioavailability and shorter half-life than unfractionated heparin

c. It reduces the activity of factor Xa more than the activity of thrombin

35) An 80-year-old patient with a history of renal insufficiency recently was started on ranitidine. Which assessment finding indicates that the patient may be experiencing an adverse effect of the medication? a. 3+ pitting edema b. Pain with urination c. New onset of disorientation to time and place d. Heart rate changes from baseline of 70 - 80 bpm to 110 - 120 bpm

c. New onset of disorientation to time and place

Blood pressure is the culmination of: cardiac output and peripheral resistance cardiac outflow and peripheral release cardiac outflow and peripheral resistance cardiac output and peripheral restriction

cardiac output and peripheral resistance

Which of the following drugs has no specific reversal agent available? heparin warfarin (Coumadin) clopidogrel (Plavix) enoxaparin (Lovenox)

clopidogrel (Plavix)

Which of the following drugs is an antiplatelet agent? unfractionated heparin warfarin (Coumadin) clopidogrel (Plavix) Alteplase (CathFlo)

clopidogrel (Plavix)

Warfarin works by which of the following mechanisms: competitively blocks vitamin k at its sites of action lysing plasmin inhibiting platelet synthesis preventing conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

competitively blocks vitamin k at its sites of action

Lidocaine toxicity is dose related and an EARLY symptoms is: hypotension respiratory depression heart block confusion

confusion

Common adverse effect of verapamil (Calan) is: nausea constipation vomiting diarrhea

constipation

7) The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient prescribed verapamil SR 120 mg PO daily for hypertension. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the medication? a. "I will take the medication with grapefruit juice each morning." b. "I should expect occasional loose stools from this medication." c. "I'll need to reduce the amount of fiber in my diet." d. "I must make sure I swallow the pill whole."

d. "I must make sure I swallow the pill whole."

22) The nurse is caring for a patient prescribed gemfibrozil. For which patient should the nurse question the use of this drug? a. A patient with cardiovascular disease and elevated triglycerides b. A patient with elevated very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) levels c. A patient with elevated triglycerides who has not responded to dietary changes d. A patient with history of gallstones and elevated triglycerides

d. A patient with history of gallstones and elevated triglycerides

31) The healthcare provider prescribes epoetin alfa for a patient. The nurse should contact the healthcare provider to question the prescription for which of the following patients? a. A patient with chronic renal failure (CRF) b. A patient taking zidovudine for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) c. A patient with nonmyeloid malignancy chemotherapy-induced anemia d. A patient with uncontrolled hypertension

d. A patient with uncontrolled hypertension

40) A patient is taking oral theophylline for maintenance therapy of stable asthma. A nurse instructs the patient to avoid using which of the following to prevent an adverse effect? a. Garlic b. Ranitidine c. Sunscreen products d. Caffeine

d. Caffeine

19) A patient with cardiovascular disease is taking rosuvastatin. The nurse is monitoring for potential adverse effects. Which finding indicates a potential adverse effect of this drug? a. High blood pressure b. Wheezing and shortness of breath c. Low platelet count d. Muscle pain and tenderness

d. Muscle pain and tenderness

9) The nurse is caring for a patient receiving hydralazine. The healthcare provider prescribes propranolol. The nurse knows that a drug such as propranolol often is combined with hydralazine for what purpose? a. To reduce the risk of headache b. To improve hypotensive effects c. To prevent heart failure d. To protect against reflex tachycardia

d. To protect against reflex tachycardia

6) Which medication is most likely to cause the side effect of constipation? a. Nifedipine b. Amlodipine c. Isradipine d. Verapamil

d. Verapamil

41) A patient is taking a first-generation H1 blocker for the treatment of allergic rhinitis. It is most important for the nurse to assess for which adverse effect? a. Skin flushing b. Wheezing c. Insomnia d. Dry mouth

d. dry mouth

Ranitidine (Zantac) is prescribed to: eliminate diarrhea increase gastric acid secretion eliminate constipation decrease gastric acid secretion

decrease gastric acid secretion

With amoxicillin, a big concern is: drug allergy = or allergy to PCN green teeth gum disease tendon rupture

drug allergy = or allergy to PCN

Patients may experience 'first dose hypotension" with captopril (Capoten), so the strategy is to ... give at night give it fast with a full glass of water crush the pill give with a sedative

give at night

Thiazide diuretics (HCTZ/Microzide) should be used with caution in patients with which conditions? history of gout hypertension allergy to pennicillin none of the above

history of gout

ACEIs and eplerenone (Inspra) could be given together in HF. Which AE is a priority monitor for when these drugs are combined? hyperkalemia hypokalemia HCT Uric acid level

hyperkalemia

Aliskiren (Tekturna) can cause: hyperkalemia hyponatremia hypokalemia euvolemia

hyperkalemia

Eplerenone (Inspra, aldosterone antagonist) cause what electrolyte disturbance? HGB hypokalemia HCT hyperkalemia

hyperkalemia

What electrolyte disturbance can happen with captopril (Capoten)? hypokalemia euvolemia hyperkalemia hypernatremia

hyperkalemia

What might be a serious adverse effect of nitrates? hypertension hypotension increased peripheral resistance increased preload

hypotension

What is a positive ADVERSE Effect of thiazide diuretic therapy? it increases edema it promotes diuresis it slows the progression of diabetes electrolyte imbalance

it promotes diuresis

A unique pharmacokinetic property of amiodarone (Cordarone) is its: method of metabolism LONG half life inability to bind to protein excretion

long half life

"Nitroglycerin has a unique quality in that when exposed to light, it :" loses potency evaporates increases potency disintegrates

loses potency

An 89-year old patient is status post a prosthetic mitral valve replacement. He is on warfarin (Coumadin) daily and his most recent INR is 4.5. The nurse has notified the provider of the lab results. Which of the following is the best nursing intervention for patient at this point? Monitor I&O Monitor for bleeding Monitor for dysrhythmias Monitor for DVT

monitor for bleeding

Why use the spacer with MDI? it is easy to use more drug gets to the site of action more is deposited in the mouth and throat - where it is absorbed none of the above

more drug gets to the site of action

"In giving SL nitroglycerin, the proper procedure is to:" "one tablet every 6 minutes, with a maximum of 3 tablets" "one tablet every 3 minutes, with a maximum of 3" one tablet every 5 minutes with a maximum of 3 one tablet every 2 minutes with a maximum of 3

one tablet every 5 minutes with a maximum of 3

What is a contraindication for ipratropium (Atrovent - short acting anticholinergic)? soy allergy peanut allergy being geriatric history of peptic ulcer disease

peanut allergy

Many antidysrhythmic drugs affect the action potential by: lowering the resting potential extending depolarization preventing re-polarization prolonging the effective refractory period

prolonging the effective refractory period

A patient who takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation undergoes hip replacement surgery. On the second postoperative day, the nurse assesses the patient and notes an oxygen saturation of 83%, pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath, and hemoptysis. The nurse will contact the provider to report possible ____ and request an order for ____. congestive heart failure; aspirin hemorrhage; vitamin K myocardial infarction; alteplase (Activase) pulmonary embolism; heparin

pulmonary embolism; heparin

A life threatening adverse effect of amiodarone (Cordarone) is: GI symptoms rash peripheral neuropathies pulmonary toxicity

pulmonary toxicity

Which of the following is true concerning the methyxanthines (theophylline- Theo-24)? smoking is an inducer of the metabolism of theophylline caffeine decreases theophylline's effectiveness fluoroquinolones (Cipro) decrease the levels of theophylline Rifampin can increase theophylline levels

smoking is an inducer of the metabolism of theophylline

Omeprazole (Prilosec) has the following mechanism of action: stimulates gastric acid secretion inhibits the histamine 2 receptor suppresses gastric acid production eliminates peristalsis

suppresses gastric acid production

Quinidine comes in different salt forms. Why does this matter? the dosing is different for different formulations it doesnt quinidine is unstable with many preparations it only comes in an oral form

the dosing is different for different formulations

Ace Inhibitors cause a dry hacking cough. True False

true

Epoetin alfa (Epogen) is a growth factor used to help raise the hemoglobin. The hemoglobin level should not exceed 11gm/dl when on this drug to prevent serious adverse effects. TRUE or FALSE

true

Patients on Amiodarone (Cordarone) should use sunscreen. True or False

true