PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 3 QUESTIONS
What is the normal INR without Warfarin?
1
What is the test dose that should be before infusion of amphotericin B?
1 mg of slow IV
What is the range of Heparin in injectable form ?
10-40,000 units/mL
How long does it take for pt coughing to reduce ?
2 weeks
How many time per day is prophylaxis Heparin given?
2-3 times per day
What is the therapeutic INR with Warfarin?
2-3.5
A patient with a viral infection is to receive ganciclovir (Cytovene) 5 mg/kg/day IVPB every morning. The patient weighs 110 pounds. Identify how many milligrams will this patient receive for this dose. _______
250 mg
What is the Heparin dose commonly used for DVT prophylaxis?
5000 units
The successful treatment of TB is ?
6 -12 mths
What is the duration of antitubular treatment ?
6-12mths
What is the dosage for clopidogrel ?
75 mg once per day
In which condition you cannot administer Pyrazinamide also called PZA ?
Acute gout
if a patient have Thromboembolic donot administer ?
Alteplase
Which is a medication that is used to treat high systemic fungal infection ?
Amphotericin B
The nurse will assess the patient for which potential contraindication to antitubercular therapy?
Anemia Hepatic impairment Heart failure Glaucoma Ans. B. Hepatic impairment Results of liver function studies (e.g., bilirubin level, liver enzyme levels) need to be assessed because isoniazid and rifampin may cause hepatic impairment; severe liver dysfunction is a contraindication to these drugs. In addition, the patient's history of alcohol use needs to be assessed
Which category is used to treat HIV ?
Antiretroviral drugs
Which category is used to treat common viral infections?
Antiviral drugs
What is the best time to administer Atorvastin (Lovastatin)
Bedtime - dose provide peak levels in a time frame that correlates better
What is an example of antiplatelets drugs?
Clopidogrel
If a patient is using a hormonal contraceptive as various antibiotics can decrease their effectiveness what should the pt do ?
Consider using a second form of birth control (such as condom)
If clot goes to a vein in the leg ? what will it cause ?
Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)
The patient should be pretreated with which two medication?
Diphenhydramine Acetaminophen
If patient is having elective surgery and taking clopidogrel . What should you educated the patient?
Discontinue 5-7 days before surgery will increase bleeding
Which are the herbal products that Warfarin can interact & increase bleeding?
Dong quai, Garlic and ginkgo
What is the advantage of Enoxaparin over Heparin ?
Donot require any laboratory monitoring and can be given at home
Give an example of low molecular Heparin that is Pregnancy safe?
Enoxaparin
What is the difference between Ezetimibe and Statin?
Ezetimibe inhibits cholesterol absorption in the bile Ezetimibe lowers low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL) whereas statins inhibit cholesterol production primarily in the liver
What are Primary drugs ?
First-line drugs
lovastatin should be taken with ?
Food
What is the black box warning for patients taking Clopidogrel ?
Genetic abnormalities
Which fruit will cause drug to food interaction given with Statin?
Grapefruit
if patient is administered regional anesthesia and lumbar puncture
Heparin
Which two anticoagulants medication if combine will give a deadly medication error ?
Heparin and Enoxaparin
What is the black box warning for Isoniazid (INH) ?
Hepatitis
Which is the good cholesterol?
High-density lipoprotein (HDL)
What is the route prophylaxis heparin is given?
IV & Subq in the abdominal
What is the therapeutic route for Heparin treatment?
IV fusion
What is the measure to prevent Nephrotoxicity?
Infuse 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride saline IV on the day of amphotericin B infusion.
What are the measures taken to infuse reaction with amphotericin B?
Infuse slowly IV, can assess client reaction
Which is the common route of administration for ribavirin ?
Inhalation
A patient is receiving thrombolytic therapy, and the nurse monitors the patient for adverse effects. What is the most common undesirable effect of thrombolytic therapy?
Internal and superficial bleeding
Which is the most widely used primary antitubercular drug.?
Isoniazid
Vitamin K can decrease the effectiveness of Warfarin . When give patient education which common group of food are rich in vitamin K?
Kale, Spinach, Collard green
Which drug is used to treat systemic and superficial mycoses?
Ketoconazole
What is a Fungi infection called ?
Mycosis
If emboli travels to the heart ? what will it cause ?
Myocardial Infarction
if you given prophylaxis do you have to monitor for treatment ?
No
A patient receiving warfarin is the range 3 normal ?
Normal 2-3
When a patient is Isoniazid (INH) are the adverse effects of Isoniazid (INH) ?
Numbness and tingling in the extremities
Which medication is used to treat oral candidiasis ?
Nystatin
What is the monitoring test will you do when administering statin?
Obtain baseline cholesterol HDL LDL Triglyceride Level Liver and Kidney function tests
What is the adverse effect of ethambutol ?
Optic neuritis
Which antiviral drug used has a prophylaxis and treatment to influenza infection ?
Oseltamiv also called tamiflu
What is the purpose of anticoagulation drugs?
Prevent clot from forming
When you are given Coumadin oral form what lab value should be monitor ?
Prothrombin time / International Normalized Ration (PT/INR)
If emboli travels to the lungs ? what will it cause ?
Pulmonary Embolism (PE)
After the initial antitubular treatment how will you assess the effectiveness of drug therapy ?
Reduction in cough
Administration of a statin with grapefruit juice can lead to the development of ?
Rhabdomyolysis
Which is the drug of choice for respiratory syncytial virus infection ?
Ribavirin
What are the 5 drugs that come under antitubercular drugs ?
Rifampicin - Bactericidal Isoniazid (INH) - Start with this medication. Pyrazinamide (PZA) Ethambutol - Bacteriostatic Streptomycin - Intramuscularly
What is the antitubular drug effective against Leprosy ?
Rifampin
What are Secondary drugs ?
Second-line drugs
What is the benefit of alteplase over teneplase ?
Shorter half life of 5 mins It can be readministered immediately in the event of reinfarction
What is the black box warning for Enoxaparin?
Spinal Hematamas especially in patient having epidural catheter
What decrease the effectiveness of warfarin?
St John's Wort
What antitubular drug is used to treat TB can be a parental IM route ?
Streptomycin
What are the most effective drugs against Ototoxicity - earing loss ?
Streptomycin
If emboli travels to the brain? what will it cause ?
Stroke
Give an example of Thrombolytic drugs used in the treatment of acute Myocardial infraction ?
T-pas Alteplase
What is the black box warning for ribavirin ?
Tetogenagenic and embryocidal effect
A patient has been taking antitubercular therapy for 3 months.The nurse will assess for what findings that indicate a therapeutic response to the drug therapy?
There are two consecutive negative purified protein derivative (PPD) results over 2 months. There is increased tolerance to the medication therapy, and there are fewer reports of adverse effects. There is a decrease in symptoms of tuberculosis along with improved chest x-rays and sputum cultures. The chronic cough is gone. Ans. C A therapeutic response to antitubercular therapy is manifested by a decrease in the symptoms of tuberculosis, such as cough and fever, and by weight gain. The results of laboratory studies (culture and sensitivity tests) and the chest radiographic findings will be used to confirm the clinical findings of resolution of the infection.
What is contraindicated n clients who have low platelet count ?
Thrombocytopenia
What is anticoagulation collective complications called?
Thromboembolic events
When a patient is Isoniazid (INH) can it cause Vitamin deficiency ?
Vitamin B6 can also be called as Pyridoxine
What is the antidote for Warfarin toxicity?
Vitamin K
What is the antidote for warfarin toxicity ?
Vitamin K & FFP if bleeding or INR is High (or Factor VIIa)
What is the antidote for warfarin toxicity ? Vitamin k
Vitamin k
When you give a health education to a patient taking Rifampin what will be the priority advice ?
Watch for discoloration of red-orange Urine, saliva, tears and sweat
A patient newly diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) has been taking antitubercular drugs for 1 week calls the clinic and is very upset. He says, "My urine is dark orange! What's wrong with me? Which response by the nurse is correct?
You will need to stop the medication, and it will go away. This is not what we usually see with these drugs. Please come in to the clinic to be checked. This is an expected side effect of the medicine. Let's review what to expect. It's possible that the TB is worse. Please come in to the clinic to be checked. Ans. D Rifampin, one of the first-line drugs for TB, causes a red-orange-brown discoloration of urine, tears, sweat, and sputum. Patients need to be warned about this side effect. The other options are incorrect.
Which antiviral drug is currently indicated only for treatment for influenza infection ?
Zanamivir
Which is the NRTI treatment for PATIENTS WITH AIDS?
Zidovudine -ZVD treat HIV
A patient who is diagnosed with genital herpes is taking topical acyclovir. The nurse will provide which teaching for this patient? (Select all that apply.)
a. "Be sure to wash your hands thoroughly before and after applying this medicine." b. "Apply this ointment until the lesion stops hurting." c. "Use a clean glove when applying this ointment." d. "If your partner develops these lesions, then he can also use the medication." e. "You will need to avoid touching the area around your eyes." f. "You will have to practice abstinence when these lesions are active." ANS: A, C, E, F This medication needs to be applied as long as prescribed, and the medication needs to be applied with clean gloves. Prescriptions should not be shared; if the partner develops these lesions, the partner will have to be evaluated before medication is prescribed, if needed. Eye contact should be avoided. The presence of active genital herpes lesions requires sexual abstinence.
A young adult calls the clinic to ask for a prescription for "that new flu drug." He says he has had the flu for almost 4 days and just heard about a drug that can reduce the symptoms. What is the nurse's best response to his request?
a. "Now that you've had the flu, you will need a booster vaccination, not the antiviral drug." b. "We will need to do a blood test to verify that you actually have the flu." c. "Drug therapy should be started within 2 days of symptom onset, not 4 days." d. "We'll get you a prescription. As long as you start treatment within the next 24 hours, the drug should be effective." ANS: C These drugs need to be started within 2 days of influenza symptom onset; they can be used for prophylaxis and treatment of influenza.
A patient has received a prescription for a 2-week course of antifungal suppositories for a vaginal yeast infection. She asks the nurse if there is an alternative to this medication, saying, I don't want to do this for 2 weeks! Which is a possibility in this situation?
a. A single dose of a vaginal antifungal cream. b. There is no better alternative to the suppositories. c. A one-time infusion of amphotericin B d. A single dose of a fluconazole (Diflucan) oral tablet Ans d. A single oral dose of fluconazole may be used to treat vaginal candidiasis. The other options are incorrect.
The nurse is providing counseling to a woman who is HIV positive and has just discovered that she is pregnant. Which anti-HIV drug is given to HIV-infected pregnant women to prevent transmission of the virus to the infant?
a. Acyclovir (Zovirax) b. Zidovudine (Retrovir) c. Ribavirin (Virazole) d. Foscarnet (Foscavir) ANS: B Zidovudine, along with various other antiretroviral drugs, is given to HIV-infected pregnant women and even to newborn babies to prevent maternal transmission of the virus to the infant. The other drugs are non-HIV antiviral drugs.
The nurse will assess the patient for which potential contraindication to antitubercular therapy?
a. Anemia b. Hepatic impairment c. Heart failure d. Glaucoma Ans. B. Hepatic impairment Results of liver function studies (e.g., bilirubin level, liver enzyme levels) need to be assessed because isoniazid and rifampin may cause hepatic impairment; severe liver dysfunction is a contraindication to these drugs. In addition, the patient's history of alcohol use needs to be assessed
A patient has been instructed to take one enteric-coated low-dose aspirin a day as part of therapy to prevent strokes. The nurse will provide which instruction when providing patient teaching about this medication?
a. Aspirin needs to be taken on an empty stomach to ensure maximal absorption. b. Coated tablets may be crushed if necessary for easier swallowing c. Low-dose aspirin therapy rarely causes problems with bleeding d. Take the medication with 6 to 8 ounces of water and with food. Ans. d Enteric-coated aspirin is best taken with 6 to 8 ounces of water and with food to help decrease gastrointestinal upset. Enteric-coated tablets should not be crushed. Risk for bleeding increases with aspirin therapy, even at low doses.
A patient is receiving warfarin as part of anticoagulant therapy. The nurse monitors the results of which laboratory test to check the drug's effectiveness?
a. Bleeding times b. Vitamin K levels c. Prothrombin time/international normalized ratio (PT/INR) d. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) ans. C
The nurse is preparing an infusion of amphotericin B for a patient who has a severe fungal infection. Which intervention is appropriate regarding the potential adverse effects of amphotericin B?
a. Discontinuing the infusion immediately if fever, chills, or nausea occur b. Gradually increasing the infusion rate until the expected adverse effects occur c. Before beginning the infusion, administering an antipyretic and an antiemetic drug d. If fever, chills, or nausea occur during the infusion, administering medications to treat the symptoms C. Almost all patients given the drug intravenously experience fever, chills, hypotension, tachycardia, malaise, muscle and joint pain, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, and headache. For this reason, pretreatment with an antipyretic (acetaminophen), antihistamines, and antiemetics may be conducted to decrease the severity of the infusion-related reaction. The other options are incorrect.
What are the manifestations of infuse reactions ?
a. Fever b. Chills c. Rigors and headache 1-3 hr after initiation
The nurse is discussing adverse effects of antitubercular drugs with a patient who has active tuberculosis. Which potential adverse effect of antitubercular drug therapy should the patient report to the prescriber?
a. Gastrointestinal upset b. Headache and nervousness c. Reddish-orange urine and stool d. Numbness and tingling of extremities Ans. d Numbness and tingling of extremities
A patient is being discharged on anticoagulant therapy. The nurse will include in the patient education conversation that it is important to avoid herbal products that contain which substance?
a. Ginkgo b. Saw palmetto c. Valerian d. Soy ans. a Capsicum pepper, feverfew, garlic, ginger, ginkgo, St. John's wort, and ginseng are some herbals that have potential interactions with anticoagulants, especially with warfarin.
The nurse is reviewing new medication orders for a patient who has an epidural catheter for pain relief. One of the orders is for enoxaparin (Lovenox), a low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH). What is the nurse's priority action?
a. Give the LMWH as ordered. b. Contact the prescriber because the LMWH cannot be given if the patient has an epidural catheter. c. Double-check the LMWH order with another nurse, and then administer as ordered d. Stop the epidural pain medication, and then administer the LMWH Ans. b LMWHs are contraindicated in patients with an indwelling epidural catheter; they can be given 2 hours after the epidural is removed. This is very important to remember, because giving an LMWH with an epidural has been associated with epidural hematoma.
Three examples of anticoagulation medications ?
a. Heparin - Injection Form b. Enoxaparin - LMW Heparin C. Warfin (coumadin) - oral
If a patient is taking fluconazole (Diflucan) with an oral anticoagulant, the nurse will monitor for which possible interaction?
a. Increased effects of oral anticoagulants b. Hypokalemia c. Reduced action of oral anticoagulants d. Decreased effectiveness of the antifungal drug ans. a Azole antifungal drugs increase the effects of oral anticoagulants. As a result, increased bleeding may occur.
The nurse is administering intravenous acyclovir (Zovirax) to a patient with a viral infection. Which administration technique is correct?
a. Infuse intravenous acyclovir slowly, over at least 1 hour. b. Infuse intravenous acyclovir by rapid bolus. c. Refrigerate intravenous acyclovir. d. Restrict oral fluids during intravenous acyclovir therapy. ANS: A Intravenous acyclovir is stable for 12 hours at room temperature and often precipitates when refrigerated. Intravenous infusions must be diluted as recommended (e.g., with 5% dextrose in water or normal saline) and infused with caution. Infusion over longer than 1 hour is suggested to avoid the renal tubular damage seen with more rapid infusions. Adequate hydration should be encouraged (unless contraindicated) during the infusion and for several hours afterward to prevent drug-related crystalluria.
What are four ways viruses will enter a respiratory tract?
a. Inhalation through the respiratory tract. b. Ingestion via the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. c. Transplacentally via mother to fetus. E.g Child born to HIV positive mother d. Inoculation via skin or mucous membranes.
What is the mechanism of action / expected pharmacological action for antitubercular drug ?
a. Inhibiting protein synthesis, b. Inhibiting cell wall synthesis c. Replication of RNA and DNA
A patient is in the HIV clinic for a follow-up appointment. He has been on antiretroviral therapy for HIV for more than 3 years. The nurse will assess for which potential adverse effects of long-term antiretroviral therapy? (Select all that apply.)
a. Lipodystrophy b. Liver damage c. Kaposi's sarcoma d. Osteoporosis e. Type 2 diabetes ANS: A, B, D, E Anti-HIV drugs produce strain on the liver and may result in liver disease. A major adverse effect of protease inhibitors is lipid abnormalities, including lipodystrophy, or redistribution of fat stores under the skin. In addition, dyslipidemias such as hypertriglyceridemia can occur, and insulin resistance and type 2 diabetes symptoms can result. The increase in long-term antiretroviral drug therapy due to prolonged disease survival has led to the emergence of another long-term adverse effect associated with these medications—bone demineralization and possible osteoporosis. Kaposi's sarcoma is an opportunistic disease associated with HIV, not a result of long-term drug therapy.
What drug is administered for rigors ?
a. Meperidine b. Dantrolene c. hydrocortisone
During an intravenous (IV) infusion of amphotericin B, a patient develops tingling and numbness in his toes and fingers. What will the nurse do first?
a. Nothing; these are expected side effects of this medication. b. Administer the medication by rapid IV infusion to reduce these effects c. Discontinue the infusion immediately. d. Reduce the infusion rate gradually until the adverse effects subside Ans C. Once the intravenous infusion of amphotericin B has begun, vital signs must be monitored frequently to assess for adverse reactions such as cardiac dysrhythmias, visual disturbances, paresthesias (numbness or tingling of the hands or feet), respiratory difficulty, pain, fever, chills, and nausea. If these adverse effects or a severe reaction occur, the infusion must be discontinued (while the patient is closely monitored) and the prescriber contacted
What should a nurse do to avoid the adverse effect of Thrombophlebitis?
a. Observe infusion sites for erythema, swelling, and pain. b. Rotate injection sites. c. Administer in a large vein
A patient has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) in addition to a heparin infusion. The patient asks the nurse why he has to be on two medications. The nurse's response is based on which rationale?
a. Oral anticoagulants are used to reach an adequate level of anticoagulation when heparin alone is unable to do so b. The oral and injection forms work synergistically c. Heparin is used to start anticoagulation so as to allow time for the blood levels of warfarin to reach adequate levels. d. The combination of heparin and an oral anticoagulant results in fewer adverse effects than heparin used alone. Ans. C This overlapping is done purposefully to allow time for the blood levels of warfarin to rise, so that when the heparin is eventually discontinued, therapeutic anticoagulation levels of warfarin will have been achieved. The full therapeutic effect of warfarin does not occur until 4 to 5 days after the first dose. This overlap of activity is required in patients who have been receiving heparin for anticoagulation and are to be switched to warfarin so that prevention of clotting is continuous.
The nurse is reviewing the medication administration record of a patient who is taking isoniazid (INH). Which drug or drug class has a significant drug interaction with isoniazid?
a. Penicillins b. Phenytoin (Dilantin) c. Benzodiazepines d. Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) Ans B. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
A patient who has been taking isoniazid (INH) has a new prescription for pyridoxine. She is wondering why she needs this medication. The nurse explains that pyridoxine is often given concurrently with the isoniazid to prevent
a. Peripheral neuropathy b. Heart failure c. Renal Failure d. Hair Loss Ans a. Peripheral neuropathy
A patient who has been anticoagulated with warfarin (Coumadin) has been admitted for gastrointestinal bleeding. The history and physical examination indicates that the patient may have taken too much warfarin. The nurse anticipates that the patient will receive which antidote?
a. Potassium Chloride b. Vitamin E c. Protamine Sulfate d. Vitamin K ans. D
A patient has received an overdose of intravenous heparin, and is showing signs of excessive bleeding. Which substance is the antidote for heparin overdose.
a. Potassium chloride b. Protamine sulfate c. Vitamin K d. Vitamin E ans b
A patient is receiving cidofovir (Vistide) as part of treatment for a viral infection, and the nurse is preparing to administer probenecid, which is also ordered. Which is the rationale for administering probenecid along with the cidofovir treatment?
a. Probenecid has a synergistic effect when given with cidofovir, thus making the antiviral medication more effective. b. The probenecid also prevents replication of the virus. c. Concurrent drug therapy with probenecid reduces the nephrotoxicity of the cidofovir. d. The probenecid reduces the adverse gastrointestinal effects of the cidofovir. ANS: C Probenecid is recommended as concurrent drug therapy with cidofovir to help alleviate the nephrotoxic effects of probenecid. The other options are incorrect.
A patient is receiving heparin therapy as part of the treatment for a pulmonary embolism. The nurse monitors the results of which laboratory test to check the drug's effectiveness
a. Prothrombin time/international normalized ratio (PT/INR) b. Bleeding times c. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) d. Vitamin K levels ans C. Ongoing aPTT values are used to monitor heparin therapy. PT/INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy. The other two options are not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.
A patient who is HIV- positive has been receiving medication therapy that includes zidovudine (Retrovir). However, the prescriber has decided to stop the zidovudine because of its dose-limiting adverse effect. Which of these conditions is the dose-limiting adverse effect of zidovudine therapy?
a. Retinitis b. Renal toxicity c. Hepatotoxicity d. Bone marrow suppression ANS: D Bone marrow suppression is often the reason that a patient with HIV infection has to be switched to another anti-HIV drug such as didanosine. The two drugs can be taken together, cutting back on the dosages of both and thus decreasing the likelihood of toxicity. The other options are incorrect.
When monitoring patients on antitubercular drug therapy, the nurse knows that which drug may cause a decrease in visual acuity?
a. Rifampin (Rifadin) b. Streptomycin c. Isoniazid (INH) d. Ethambutol Ans. d Ethambutol
During therapy with amphotericin B, the nurse will monitor the patient for known adverse effects that would be reflected by which laboratory result?
a. Serum potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L b. White blood cell count of 7000 cells/mm c. Platelet count of 300,000/ microliter d. Serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L Ans d. The nurse needs to monitor for hypokalemia, a possible adverse effect of amphotericin B. The other options are incorrect.
The nurse notes in the patient's medication order that the patient will be starting anticoagulant therapy. What is the primary goal of anticoagulant therapy?
a. Stabilizing an existing thrombus b. Dissolving an existing thrombus c. Dilating the vessel around a clot d. Preventing thrombus formation Ans D. Anticoagulants prevent thrombus formation but do not dissolve or stabilize an existing thrombus, nor do they dilate vessels around a clot.
A patient is taking a combination of antiviral drugs as treatment for early stages of a viral infection. While discussing the drug therapy, the patient asks the nurse if the drugs will kill the virus. When answering, the nurse keeps in mind which fact about antiviral drugs?
a. They are given for palliative reasons only. b. They will be effective as long as the patient is not exposed to the virus again. c. They can be given in large enough doses to eradicate the virus without harming the body's healthy cells. d. They may also kill healthy cells while killing viruses. ANS: D Because viruses reproduce in human cells, selective killing is difficult; consequently, many healthy human cells, in addition to virally infected cells, may be killed in the process, and this results in the serious toxicities that are involved with these drugs. The other options are incorrect.
A patient will be receiving a thrombolytic drug as part of the treatment for acute myocardial infarction. The nurse explains to the patient that this drug is used for which purpose?
a. To prevent further clot formation b. To relieve chest pain c. To control bleeding in the coronary vessels d. To dissolve the clot in the coronary artery ans. d Thrombolytic drugs lyse, or dissolve, thrombi. They are not used to prevent further clot formation or to control bleeding. As a result of dissolving of the thrombi, chest pain may be relieved, but that is not the primary purpose of thrombolytic therapy.
The nurse is counseling a woman who will be starting rifampin (Rifadin) as part of antitubercular therapy. The patient is currently taking oral contraceptives. Which statement is true regarding rifampin therapy for this patient?
a. Women have a high risk for thrombophlebitis while on this drug. b. Oral contraceptives are less effective while the patient is taking rifampin. c. The incidence of adverse effects is greater if the two drugs are taken together. d. A higher dose of rifampin will be necessary because of the contraceptive. Ans b Oral contraceptives are less effective while the patient is taking rifampin.
Which are three modifiers of anticoagulation?
a. anticoagulation b. Antiplatelet drugs c. Thrombolytic drugs
A patient has had recent mechanical heart valve surgery and is receiving anticoagulant therapy. While monitoring the patient's laboratory work, the nurse interprets that the patient's international normalized ratio (INR) level of 3 indicates that:
a. the patient's intravenous heparin dose is dangerously high. b. the patient's intravenous heparin dose is at therapeutic levels c. the patient's warfarin dose is at therapeutic levels. d. the patient is not receiving enough warfarin to have a therapeutic effect ans c
When Heparin is given what lab value should be monitor ?
aPTT - Every 6 hrs
What is myopathy?
disease of muscle tissue muscle pain