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PMP _ Practice Questions

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25. Clifford is managing a 12-month information technology infrastructure project with a project budget of $816,000. If the project is in the 9th month, what would the Planned Value (PV) be?

$612,000

12. A software development team has been used to developing detailed budgets, which has often resulted in cost overruns due to the customer asking for numerous changes as the project progresses. This time, they are asked to simply provide a Beta distribution estimate for their work. What is the correct formula?

(O+4M+P)/6

43. In controlling project costs, what is Cost Variance (CV), if the Earned Value (EV) is $160,000 and the Actual Cost (AC) is $225,000?

-$65,000

"Emotional intelligence" has growing importance as part of assembling and managing project resources. What is the best description of emotional intelligence? a. The ability to express your emotions and fluidly handle interpersonal relationships b. The ability to prioritize emotions in an analytic or quantitative way c. The ability to gauge if people like your management style d. The ability to manage without emotional outbursts

A major input to the Plan Cost Management process is the project charter. Why is the project charter an input? a. It contains the high-level budget used to project costs. b. It contains the low-level budget used to confirm costs. c. It contains the compilation of stakeholder requests. d. It contains the low-level budget used to aggregate exact costs.

A resource management plan generally includes the identification of resources, their roles and responsibilities, and _____. a. how to acquire the resources b. how much the resources will cost c. the dependencies between the resources d. the demographics of the resources

All of the following are activities performed in the Control Procurements process, except _____. a. updating contracts b. claims administration c. archiving procurement records d. informing the buyer about the completion of the contract

All of the following are tools and techniques of the Conduct Procurement process, except _____. a. procurement performance reviews b. data analysis c. bidder conferences d. negotiations

An issue log, a risk report, and a quality report are _____ to the Manage Communications process. a. inputs b. outputs c. tools d. techniques

By definition, projects are _____. a. unique and haven't been done before b. challenging and large c. complex and guarantee business growth d. made up of several services

During the Control Costs process, what does the project management information system keep track of? a. Earned value calculations b. Actual costs c. Planned value d. All of these answers

During the Identify Risks process, a SWOT analysis can be very useful. The S stands for Strengths. What does the T stand for? a. Threats b. Touchstones c. Teams d. Tangents

During the Plan Risk Management process, the project manager is primarily responsible for being _____ about managing risks. a. proactive b. accountable c. analytic d. Reactive

How are project management processes typically laid out? a. Sequentially with overlap b. Sequentially and discrete from one another c. Simultaneously d. All of these answers

If team members don't know the duration estimate for a particular activity, it's best to include that activity in the _____. a. risk reserves b. outputs c. contingency plans d. nice to haves

In _____ life cycles, time and cost can be modified during later phases. During _____ life cycles, the detailed scope is defined and approved before the start of an iteration. a. iterative; adaptive b. adaptive; generic c. predictive; adaptive d. generic; predictive

In the Plan Resource Management process, what is the scope baseline? a. A list of the activities that need resources, and how many b. A list of the minimum number of people needed for the project c. A summary of the minimum requirements expected by the stakeholders d. A summary of the people resources, from highest to lowest paid

In the _____ Process Group(s), you might have the templates needed to start creating the project documents and maybe a preapproved supplier list. a. Controlling b. Executing c. Initiating and Planning d. Monitoring

In your sphere of influence, you are centrally located with the most influence on yourself. Who is in the next sphere? a. The project team b. Sponsors c. Stakeholders d. Suppliers

Inputs are the parts of a project that must be acted on to produce an output. Which is not an example of an input? a. Personnel changes b. Project management plan c. Enterprise environmental factors d. Approved change requests

Laissez-faire, servant leader, and transactional are all examples of _____. a. leadership styles b. leadership qualities c. spheres of influence d. personality traits

Manage Quality (aka quality assurance) is about ensuring that _____ are followed as documented, while Control Quality is about ensuring that _____ meet quality specifications. a. processes; products b. products; employee performance c. bug reports; processes d. products; processes

On your current construction project, the project manager is working with seven other stakeholders. Two new stakeholders join the project. How many new channels have been added? a. 17 b. 8 c. 28 d. 45

One type of stakeholder mapping is a _____. It includes four quadrants and lets the project manager know who needs to be monitored, kept satisfied, kept informed, or managed closely. a. power and interest grid b. stakeholder cube c. salience model d. prioritization model

Phil is trying to resolve a dispute between two divisions of the software development teams. This is a part of which process? a. Manage Team b. Develop Team c. Acquire Resources d. Manage Stakeholder Engagement

Project stakeholders are _____. a. people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by a decision, activity, or outcome of the project b. the project sponsor(s), team members, and end users c. all defined by the SIPOC process d. classified into three major stakeholder groups: suppliers (vendors), facilitators (team members), and customers (end users)

Projects managers need knowledge from a variety of sources, including the PMBOK Guide. How many Knowledge Areas are listed in the PMBOK Guide? a. 10 b. 2 c. 5 d. 41

Syndy Scott, Portfolio manager of Tivia Software Inc, was entrusted to manage three projects to generate revenue for her portfolio. The project manager for one of the projects who reported to Syndy provided a report which illustrated the team's highly effective performance. While providing this report, the project manager discussed his intention to reward his team for its most recent project milestone completion. Which theory of motivation is he most likely referencing? A. Expectancy theory B. Maslow's hierarchy of needs C. Achievement theory D. Hygiene theory

The Plan _____ Management process helps determine whether products, services, or results should be purchased outside your organization. a. Procurement b. Risk c. Resource d. Communications

The _____ is an input that contains information on each of the identified project risks, threats, and opportunities that could affect quality. a. risk register b. scope statement c. stakeholder register d. all of these answers

The _____ is responsible for managing a business unit. a. functional manager b. project manager c. operations manager d. All of these answers

The _____ is the main input of the Plan Communications Management process. a. stakeholder register b. organizational process asset list c. project document updates d. control scope

The high-level boundaries of a project are defined in the _____. a. project charter b. project management plan c. requirements management plan d. project scope

The level of control in a Directive PMO is _____. a. high b. moderate c. low d. variable

The most critical aspect of Monitoring and Controlling is that you are able to _____. a. make changes as you go b. anticipate and prevent changes c. create documentation about project initiation d. wrap up projects efficiently

The outputs of the Close Project or Phase process include which of the following? a. Final product, service, or result transition b. Project plan updates c. Procurement documents d. Validated deliverables

The process of developing appropriate management strategies to effectively engage stakeholders throughout the project life cycle, based on the analysis of their needs, interests, and potential impact on project success, is known as _____. a. Plan Stakeholder Management process b. Identify Stakeholder process c. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process d. Manage Stakeholder Engagement process

The project charter is an important input to Identify Stakeholders, Develop Project Management Plan, Plan Scope Management, Collect Requirements, Define Scope, Plan Schedule Management, and Plan Cost Management. There is another process that uses the Project Charter as an input that was not listed here and it is the _____ process. a. Plan Risk Management b. Manage Stakeholder Engagement c. Close Procurements d. Conduct Procurements

The project information management system is used as a tool in which of the following processes? a. Implement Risk Responses b. Plan Procurement Management c. Perform Integrated Communications d. Control Quality

The project management plan includes information on management, execution, monitoring, and _____. a. control b. expiration c. stakeholders d. value

The project manager is ensuring that the various stakeholders understand the project goals, objectives, and risks. He is currently engaged in which process? a. Manage Stakeholder Engagement b. Control Stakeholders c. Manage Communications d. Control Communications

The project you are managing is scheduled to take 30 days. The project charter is to address the design of a replacement part to correct a recall. It has been given a budget of $75,000. You are at the halfway point and it is now one day behind schedule. The project has an earned value of $35,000. However, the cost variance is now -$2,500. The sponsors are providing three equal installments over the project period of $25,000. They are concerned about the delay and they want to know what the actual cost of the project is so far. The project spends its funding at the same daily value. Which option is the accurate value? a. $37,500 b. $35,000 c. $50,000 d. $32,500

The reports that your team has been providing use different formats and different styles and have become confusing, as the teams have not been using the standard reports. What process will you be using to verify which reports follow the company standard? a. Manage Quality b. Control Communications c. Plan Communications Management d. Manage Communications

The scope management plan, the project charter, and requirements documentation are all _____ to the Define Scope process. a. inputs b. outputs c. tools d. techniques

The team has performed multiple iterations of work on a difficult part. The head of quality has now stated that the specifications for the piece may be too difficult to meet. The project manager has now called all of the stakeholders in this part of the project for a meeting. Which process is the team working in? a. Control Quality b. Plan Quality Management c. Project Control d. Validate Scope

True or False: Work performance data is always converted to work performance information as an output.

Under which Process Group would you find work performance information? a. Monitoring and Controlling b. Executing c. Closing d. Planning

Under which phase of the project life cycle would you find the initiation of the project charter? a. Starting the project b. Organizing and preparing c. Completing the project d. Pre-project work

What is a TCPI? a. To-complete performance index b. Total cost price indicator c. Transmission control protocol internet d. Transferred cost projected input

What is a key benefit of project management? a. All of these answers b. Meeting business objectives and goals c. Addressing stakeholder needs d. Resolving issues sooner

What is not an input to Direct and Manage Project Work? a. Work performance data b. Approved changes c. Change log d. Project management plan

What is one major outcome of the Perform Integrated Change Control process? a. Approved change requests b. Agreement on changes c. Review of changes d. Complete change of the project

What is the difference between programs and portfolios? a. A program is a group of related projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits that would not be available from managing them separately. Portfolios are projects, programs, and operations managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives. b. Programs are projects that are established by the PMO office, while portfolios are established by the C-suite officers in coordination with the company's board of directors. c. A portfolio is a group of related projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits that would not be available from managing them separately. Programs are projects, programs, and operations managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives. d. Programs are unrelated projects managed together to obtain strategic value. Portfolios are related programs managed to obtain benefits that would benefit from being managed as a group.

What is the first step in Communications Management? a. Develop a strategy to ensure communication is effective for stakeholders. b. Use plan-do-check-act and Six Sigma to improve processes. c. Ensure a project has met quality objectives. d. Send an email—any email.

What is the primary information conveyed by a time-phased budget? a. When the installments of money are needed b. How many installments of money will be needed in total c. How much money will be spent in total d. How much difference there will be between projected and actual costs

What is the primary output of the Project Cost Management Knowledge Area? a. Cost baseline b. Cost summation c. Budget initiation d. Cost of goods

What's the central goal of the Executing Process Group? a. Completing the activities identified in the project management plan b. Updating the planning documents c. Aligning stakeholder expectations with project goals d. Clarifying and resolving problems

When defining schedule activities, how do you know when the activities have been decomposed enough? a. When you can estimate the time and cost for the activity and assign it to someone b. When the activity is no more than 4 hours of work c. When you can estimate the difficulty of the activity d. When your schedule planner reaches a maximum saturation of activity inputs

When developing a schedule, what action is taken during the scheduling method step? a. You decide how you'll manage the project, for example, adaptive or predictive. b. You decide what scheduling tool to use, like Microsoft Project or SharePoint. c. You enter your scheduling information into a particular scheduling tool. d. You input your management preferences into the schedule dependencies

When developing a team, what should you probably NOT do? a. Use lower performers as case studies of weak approaches. b. Help the team build trust and agreement. c. Guide the team in building collaboration. d. Empower the team to make decisions and find solutions

When it comes to projects with higher risk or constantly changing requirements, _____ is a great method because it doesn't focus on defining scope up front. It refines it along the way. a. agile b. business analysis c. waterfall d. RUP

When you're estimating activity resources, what kinds of resources are involved? a. People, equipment, and materials b. People only c. Equipment and supplies only d. Facilities and people

Which item is NOT a goal for the Closing Process Group? a. Completing the milestones of the project b. Getting stakeholder approval to close the project c. Receiving organization agrees to manage future changes d. Recording impacts of the project on processes

Which of the following is NOT an input in to the Control Scope process? a. verified deliverables b. requirements documentation c. project management plan d. work performance data

Which of the following is used as a tool or technique in the Develop Project Charter process? a. Expert judgment b. Agreements c. Project selection methods d. Project management information system

Which of the following is used as an important tool and technique while developing a project charter? a. Facilitation b. Change control tools c. Analytical techniques d. Project management information systems

Which of these tools is the best to use as part of a quantitative risk analysis to identify the potential impact of risks on accomplishing the project objectives? a. Monte Carlo analysis b. Risk data quality assessment c. Probability and impact analysis d. Brainstorming

While acquiring resources, what is the purpose of a procurement management plan? a. Describes how external resources will be acquired b. Describes how internal resources will be acquired c. Describes how internal and external resources will be acquired d. Describes the funding sources for the project

While developing the work breakdown structure for your project, you need to identify detailed assumptions and constraints that were worked on earlier in the planning and initiation process. There are a number of sources that contain information pertaining to these, but which will be the best source for the WBS? a. Project scope statement b. Scope management plan c. Project charter d. Project statement of work

While managing a team, what is the purpose of a team charter? a. Describes how the team will make decisions, handle meetings, and deal with conflict b. Describes how the team will handle meetings, allocate rewards, and manage schedules c. Describes how the team will deal with conflict and what tasks each member is responsible for d. Describes the offsite events the team will use to build collaboration

Who is in charge of managing project scope? a. The project manager b. The business analyst c. The primary stakeholder d. All of these answers

You are a project manager for a growing software firm. Currently, they are acquiring a new company. The various subproject managers and team members are reporting they are getting work done but they have run into some significant problems. It has not affected the time, budget, or scope, and they are asking for your guidance. Your main focus appears to be coordinating some resources to solve these issues. Which of the following statements is true? a. You are in the Direct and Manage Project Work process. b. You need to let the project sponsor know about the problems. c. Your team is in the forming stage. d. You need to replace team members with more skilled people.

You are the project manager for an IT company and your team is comprised of 2 designers, 6, developers, and 4 testers. How many channels of communication can be established? A. 78 B. 66 C. 77 D. 88

You can ensure quality is built into a product or service through all of the following ways, except _____. a. creating a forecast of costs b. test or evaluation instruments, like putting fixtures on an assembly line to test the product c. visual inspection d. quality reports

You have reached the point in your project where you are updating the historical information and lessons learned information. Which of the following best describes where you are most likely at, in relation to the project life cycle? a. You are closing the project or phase. b. You are doing a change request. c. You are directing project work. d. You are controlling scope.

You should label the initial box in a network diagram as _____. a. start b. A c. right arrow d. duration

Your 12-month project has a total cost of $200K. After three months you've spent $70K. The project was slated to be 25% done but is only 20% done. What's the earned value (EV) of the project? a. $40K b. $50K c. $10K d. $17.5K

_____ are the rules or policies that any manager in a company puts into action. a. Management elements b. Organizational systems c. Organizational knowledge bases d. Process Groups

_____ is the centralized management of one or more portfolios to achieve strategic objectives and it focuses on doing the right programs and projects. a. Portfolio management b. Operations management c. Program management d. Project management

_____ is the process of gathering information at conferences, online reviews, and other sources to identify market capabilities. a. Market research b. Source selection analysis c. Expert judgment d. Procurement strategy

_____ looks at uncertainty in a planned event, like there being more errors than expected or production is below target. a. Variability risk b. Ambiguity risk c. Project resilience d. Integrated risk management

_____ looks at why stakeholder engagement isn't working. a. Root cause analysis b. Stakeholder analysis c. Decision-making d. Alternatives analysis

_____ takes into account the relationships between many facets, including strategy, portfolio, programs and projects, and operations. a. Organizational project management (OPM) b. Operational project management (OPM) c. Oppositional project management (OPM) d. Operational program management (OPM)

On your current construction project the project manager is working with 7 other stakeholders --two new stakeholders join the project. How many new channels have been added? a. 17 channels b. 24 channels c. 28 channels d. 45 channels

A The number of communication channels = n(n-1)/2, where n = number of stakeholders. For this question, the project manager is working with 7 other stakeholders. You add the PM to the team and that equates to 8 stakeholders. The number of communication channels = 8(7)/2 = 56/2 = 28 channels. Two new stakeholders join. Now there are 10 stakeholders. The number of communication channels = 10(9)/2= 90/2= 45 channels. We started with 28 channels with 8 people and now have 45 channels for 10 people. Subtract 28 from 45 and you get 17. That means 17 new channels were added.

61. Ralph, the project manager, has just received information regarding a particular risk. This risk has occurred and upon reviewing the communications management plan, a special communication needs to be produced for the executive managers, including the chief executive officer. This communication would most likely be in which format?

A formal report, following the details listed in the Project Management Plan

105. What is a Change Control Board (CCB)?

A formally-chartered group who has the responsibility of approving, rejecting, or deferring changes to the project

21. What is the key outcome of the Plan Risk Responses process? a. A procurement statement of work b. A plan for how to handle each risk c. A stakeholder engagement plan d. All of these answers

A risk management plan, stakeholder engagement plan, and requirements management plans are all _____ of Plan Quality Management. a. tools b. inputs c. techniques d. outputs

A(n) _____ describes the acceptance criteria for each deliverable. a. project charter b. scope statement c. engagement plan d. quality standard

A(n) _____ takes the project scope and decomposes it down into progressively smaller pieces called work packages. a. control schedule b. WBS c. HR management plan d. project charter

Add this New question Outputs of the Close Project or Phase Process include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Organizational process asset updates B. Change requests C. Final product, service, or result transition D. Final report

Agreements are one of the inputs of the Control Resources process. What term is synonymous with agreements? a. Decisions b. Contracts c. Collaborations d. Affirmations

All of the following are examples of data analysis used in projects, except _____. a. alternatives analysis b. statistical sampling c. trend analysis d. variance analysis

All of the following are outputs of the Acquire Resources process, except _____. a. Physical resource assignments b. Project team performance assessments c. Project management plan updates d. Resource calendars

Creating a network diagram is typically a part of the _____ process. a. Define Activities b. Sequence Activities c. Estimate Activity Durations d. Develop Schedule

During the Control Schedule process, what is one of the most common outputs? a. Vacation request b. Change request c. Team meeting d. Stakeholder meeting

For the project, the earned value (EV) is $350, the actual cost (AC) is $280, and the planned value (PV) is $500. The total project budget is $1,000. Assume the original estimate was flawed. Your development team has given you a new estimate for the remaining work of $1,200. What is the project estimate to complete (ETC)? a. $800 b. $1,200 c. $930 d. $1,480

In order to properly resource a project you need to have the right resources and _____. a. you need to know if they are internal or external b. you need them at the right times c. you need them to get along d. you need them to be under budget

Integration management includes which of the following? a. Collecting and analyzing data b. Decisions about project changes c. Provides a project management plan d. All of these answers

Keeping all the stakeholders engaged does which of the following for a project? a. Motivates the project sponsor to help keep the stakeholders in line once the project management plan is developed b. Manages the stakeholder expectations so the project's objectives are achieved c. Turns negative stakeholders into positive stakeholders d. Keeps the project staff motivated and aware of what the stakeholders need

Managing risks, interdependencies, constraints, and issues that may arise from a large undertaking is called _____. a. product management b. program management c. portfolio management d. project management

Plan schedule management involves four inputs: the project management plan, the project charter, organizational process assets, and _____. a. Meetings b. enterprise environmental factors c. change requests d. expert judgement and decisions

Procurements are also known as _____. a. budgets b. agreements c. inputs d. costs

Project Quality Management is one of the _____ PMI Knowledge Areas. a. 46 b. 10 c. 6 d. 22

Project success is dependent on _____. a. cheap costs b. how well the requirements are identified early on c. user stories and EEFs d. all of these answers

Stephen is reviewing the lessons learned for a small project. The lessons learned are which of the following? a. An output of the Define Scope process b. An output of the Close Project or Phase process c. A tool for the Close Project or Phase process d. Not necessary on small projects

Suppose a project manager is reviewing the project management plan, the work performance data, and the project schedule. She is getting ready to do next? a. Create the WBS. b. Start Control Schedule. c. Plan the project schedule. d. Work the project plan.

The Conduct Procurements process occurs _____ contracts are awarded to a seller. a. after b. before c. during d. at the same time

The Manage Communications process falls under the _____ Process group. a. Initiating b. Executing c. Closing d. Monitoring and Controlling

The _____ describes how individual requirements meet the business need. a. requirements traceability matrix b. requirements documentation c. risk register d. all of these answers

The _____ includes the project delivery method, type of agreement, and procurement phases. a. procurement statement of work b. procurement strategy c. procurement management plan d. source selection criteria

The _____ is a process for planning, building, testing, and deploying a product, service, or result. a. project life cycle b. development life cycle c. product life cycle d. portfolio life cycle

The _____ is responsible for developing and maintaining the business case. a. project manager b. sponsor c. key stakeholder d. CEO

The _____ is used to define a new project or new phase of an existing project. You must get appropriate authorization to begin. a. Planning Process Group b. Initiating Process Group c. Beginning Process Group d. Starting Process Group

The _____ provides a high-level description of the project and may also include acceptance criteria, which needs to be included in the scope. a. scope management plan b. project charter c. requirements documentation d. all of these answers

The average project manager spends 90% of their time _____. a. documenting b. communicating c. planning d. hiring

The chief medical officer is asking for a risk report on a new ICU system. He needs a report on the identified risks and prioritization from the probability and impact assessment. Which risk analysis technique needs to be performed to provide him with the appropriate information? a. Quantitative risk analysis b. Qualitative risk analysis c. Expert judgment d. SWOT analysis

The key benefit of the Plan _____ Management process is that it describes how the project team will identify, evaluate, rank, and manage each risk. a. Communications b. Risk c. Resource d. Quality

The main output to Plan Communications Management is the _____. This describes how the Manage and Monitor Communications processes will be handled. a. approved project charter b. Communications Management Plan c. list of stakeholders d. All of these answers

The most important action to take during the closing process of a project is which of the following? a. Work with the customer on the acceptance criteria for the project. b. Confirm that all the processes from other groups have been completed. c. Review all management plans to confirm that they were met. d. Review all the financial statements to make sure that the needed profit margin was met.

The new project team is confused about the difference between the project charter and the project management plan. Which of the following is not true about the project charter? a. A project charter is authorized by executive management or the sponsor. b. A project charter comes before the business case. c. A project charter defines the purpose of the project. d. A project charter identifies and authorizes the project manager to run the project.

The outputs of the Initiating Process Group include an approved project charter and a list of _____. a. project managers b. stakeholders c. milestones d. project documents

The project manager is closing out a major purchase during the control procurements process and has the procurement documentation. What else does the project manager need to close out this purchase? a. Project deliverables b. Work performance data c. The records management system d. He needs to wait until the rest of the procurements are ready to close out.

The technique of dividing project scope and deliverables into well-defined, executable activities is called _____. a. integration b. decomposition c. wave rolling d. focus planningB

The three outputs of Estimate Costs are cost estimates, project document updates, and basis of estimates. What is the basis of estimates? a. The average of the costs from the previous project b. The documentation supporting the choices made for activity costs c. The actual costs of the activities upon project completion d. The difference between the projected and actual cost for each activity

Tim and the federal representative who represents the sponsor are reviewing the initial list of stakeholders. They are cross-checking them with the project charter, the various enterprise environmental factors, and the organizational process assets. Which of the following also needs to be checked? a. Congressional officials b. Agreements c. Lessons learned from previous projects d. State agencies

True or False: Organizational knowledge bases can be updated during the project to include project documents, like the budget and project performance

Verified deliverables are an output of what Process Group? a. Quality Assurance b. Control Quality c. Human Resource Management d. Validate Scope

What best characterizes your influence over your project team? a. You don't have much influence over them. b. You're in constant communication with them, making sure each is kept up to date on project deliverables and providing the vision for project success. c. You ensure they fund your project and keep it funded through closure. d. You generally employ other project managers to interact with your project team.

What best describes "gold plating"? a. Ensuring a project remains in scope b. Adding extra functionality to the product c. Validating deliverables d. The decision to add high-value functionality to a project, regardless of original scope

What does PMI define project management as? a. Industry-specific skills, tools, and techniques to manage an industry project b. The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements c. A lightweight process framework that embraces iterative and incremental practices to complete a project d. Initiation, planning, execution, execution, control, and closeout of a project

What does the PMBOK Guide help to define? a. Professional conduct guidelines b. All of these answers c. Ethical guidelines d. Common vocabulary

What includes the reasons for project initiation, objectives, and a decision on the project? a. Benefits management plan b. Business case c. Project charter d. Cost analysis

What is a central output of the Control Costs process? a. Scope creep b. Cost forecasts c. Planning documents d. Work performance data

What is not a key function of the Initiating Process Group? a. Offer stakeholders visibility into scope and objectives b. Define operational outcomes c. Align stakeholder expectations with the project's purpose d. Show how participation ensures that expectations can be met

What is rolling wave planning all about? a. All activities are planned in detail, but additional levels of detail are added as you progress through the schedule. b. Near-term activities are planned in detail, while future work is planned more broadly or as a placeholder. c. All activities are planned in high-level, broad detail and then more details are added to later stages over time. d. All activities are "surfed" to their maximum inflection point, then paddled back out.

What is the main purpose of projects? a. To increase funding sources b. To drive change in an organization c. To increase efficiency d. To spark creativity

What is the management principle underlying a self-organizing team? a. You plan the work and the team reports progress on the plan. b. You trust the team to plan the work and work the plan. c. The team plans the work and you verify the work. d. Team members allocate their own salaries and do their own performance reviews.

What is the output of the Plan Cost Management process? a. Cost estimate b. Cost management plan c. Budget initiation d. Reserve analysis

What is the recommended method for efficiently and visually laying out your sequence of project activities? a. Create an inversion flowchart. b. Create a project network diagram. c. Assemble a start-to-finish matrix. d. Assemble an origami waterfall chart.

What is true of a project manager in a project-oriented organizational structure type? a. The project manager has little control over resources. b. The project manager is in charge of the budget. c. Project managers do not have support or staff members to help manage the project. d. Team members work on the project part time.

What item is not performed during the Closing Process Group? a. A final performance report is created. b. The customer accepts interim deliverables. c. A lessons learned document is created. d. The customer accepts the product.

What's the main goal of the Manage Communications process? a. Monitor communications once they're set up. b. Keep stakeholders well informed. c. Plan the types of communication to be used by team members. d. Resolve team conflicts.

When estimating activity durations, you should use which source of information first? a. PMBOK Annex A1 b. Those doing the work c. The project network diagram d. Equivalent estimates from prior projects

When performing qualitative risk analysis, the two factors you need to evaluate are probability and _____. a. frequency b. impact c. cost d. likelihood

When you send an IFB procurement document to a seller, what are you sending them? a. Invoiced formal budget b. Invitation for bid c. Information flow bid d. Initial formulized budget

Which of the following is NOT one of the processes of the Project Resource Management Knowledge Area? a. Acquire Resources b. Reward Project Team c. Develop Team d. Manage Team

Which of the following is the process for tracking stakeholder engagement? a. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement b. Manage Stakeholder Engagement c. Track Stakeholder Engagement d. Plan Stakeholder Engagement

Which two subplans of the project management plan are required to manage stakeholder engagement? a. The stakeholder engagement plan and the scope management plan b. The stakeholder engagement plan and the communications management plan c. The communications management plan and the procurement management plan d. The stakeholder engagement plan and the procurement management plan

While managing a team, if the team is already performing well, what can the manager still provide? a. Intervention and support b. Rewards and recognition c. Mentoring and rewards d. Critical and constructive feedback

With regard to Communications Management, what are annual reports and reports to regulators examples of? a. Unofficial communication b. Official communication c. Oral communication d. Nonverbal communication

You are a project manager working for a pharmaceutical firm and the project you have undertaken is very critical for the client's business. Your development team is diligent and performs the tasks with a high degree of quality. You generate periodic performance reports and share them with upper management and they are happy with the progress of the project. Due to a business constraint, the client calls you in and explains that the project needs to go 'Live' a full two months earlier than it was originally scheduled in order to help them remain competitive in the market. As a project manager, which of the following is the BEST thing to do to complete the project according to the new schedule? A. Report the conversation you had with the client to your supervisor B. Meet with the development team and explore options of schedule compression on the critical path C. Inform upper management that the activities of the project are on critical path and the project cannot be finished earlier D. Inform the client that the initial agreed date of project delivery cannot be changed

You are currently engaged in Stakeholder Analysis as you try to understand all of the individuals that could be affected by the outcome of your project. The Knowledge Area and Process group that you are working within at this time are: A. Stakeholder Management and Identify Stakeholders B. Stakeholder Management and Initiating C. Initiating and Manage Stakeholders D. Stakeholder Management and Monitor and Controlling

You are leading a quality audit of an internal project. You are reviewing the Manage Quality portion of the plan to start the audit. You believe that the author of this portion of the documentation made an error and mixed some of the tools and techniques from Control Quality with Manage Quality. Which of the following is not a tool and technique of Manage Quality? a. Design for X b. Statistical sampling c. Audits d. Affinity diagrams

You're monitoring process performance and notice a variance. What should you do next to control the scope? a. Apply a change immediately. b. Submit a change request through the Perform Integrated Change Control process. c. Complete your requirements traceability matrix. d. Nothing. The process will naturally sort itself out.

Your 12-month project has a total cost of $200K. After three months you've spent $70K. The project was slated to be 25% done but is only 20% done. What's the project's estimate at completion (EAC)? a. $225K b. $350K c. -$50K d. $180K

Your company is in the running to be awarded a multi-million dollar project. The bid your company has submitted is very competitive. You get a phone call from the buyer's procurement department and the person responsible for making the decision on which company wins the project tells you that one other company has a lower bid than your company. However, she states that if you pay her a cash 'expediting' fee she will ignore the other bid and provide your company the contract win. As a Project Manager you should: A. Pay the fee but inform your management B. Do not pay the fee C. Tell her you will pay the fee if she puts it in writing first D. Contact her manager to verify if this is a legitimate offer

_____ is having the skills, behaviors, and knowledge in one or more of the project management domains, such as project, program, and portfolio management. a. Strategic and business management b. Technical project management c. Leadership d. Project management

_____ is the benefit derived from projects for a business venture. a. Business improvement b. Business value c. Business benefit d. Process change

_____ is used to track items that have been identified for the project, including problems or challenges with stakeholders and how they were resolved. a. Work performance data b. An issue log c. A lessons learned register d. The stakeholder engagement assessment matrix

You are managing an engineering project and 10 senior engineers are reporting to you. Your sponsor has asked you to add a team member. You hired 2 more senior engineers. How many communication channels will be added by this hiring? a. 21 b. 23 c. 55 d. 78

B The number of communication channels = n(n-1)/2, where n = number of stakeholders. For this question, the project manager is working with 10 engineers. You add the PM to the team and that equates to 11. The total project team size is now 11. The number of communication channels = 11(10)/2 = 110/2 = 55 channels. Two new senior engineers were added. Now there are 13 team members. The number of communication channels = 13(12)/2 = 156/2 = 78 channels. We started with 55 channels with 11 people and now have 78 channels for 13 people. Subtract 55 from 78 and you get 23. That means 23 new channels were added.

There are 23 stakeholders. What is the number of total potential communication channels in this project? a. 231 b. 253 c. 276 d. 506

B The number of communication channels = n(n-1)/2, where n = number of stakeholders. This question is straightforward. You know you have 23 stakeholders so just plug that number into the equation. The number of communication channels = 23(22)/2 = 506/2 = 253 channels

A _____ is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result. a. Goal b. Deadline c. Project d. Standard

A _____ is when you manage a group of projects or subprograms together to reap some benefit that you wouldn't ordinarily get by managing them individually. a. portfolio b. project c. program d. all of these answers

A project team has nine members. How many communication channels are there? a. 72 b. 45 c. 36 d. 28

A(n) _____ shows how probable a risk is to happen, and what the impact to the project would be if it does. a. project charter b. EEF c. probability and impact matrix d. risk breakdown structure (RBS)

All of the following are examples of tools and techniques for Collect Requirements except _____. a. mind mapping b. multi-criteria decision analysis c. Delphi technique d. affinity diagram

As part of the tools and techniques of Plan Quality Management, _____ takes the gathered data and analyzes it using cost-benefit analysis. a. cost of quality b. data representation c. data analysis d. test and inspection planning

Benefits of developing your team include enhanced skill sets, more motivated employees, and _____. a. increased return on investment b. decreased resource costs c. reduced staff turnover d. faster project analysis

Brand recognition, reputation, goodwill, and trademarks are examples of _____. a. things that don't impact business success b. tangible elements c. intangible elements d. ways to improve revenue

Carl is notified by the project sponsor that the company reevaluated the return on investment for the project. Unfortunately, due to market conditions, the company has determined that the project is no longer viable. Carl is to start the process for this early termination. Which process covers this? a. Close procurements b. Project charter c. Close project or phase d. Project management plan 23. You have reached the point in your

Data analysis during the Control Resources process can include _____ analysis, cost-benefit analysis, performance reviews, and _____ analysis. a. trend; allocation b. decisions; contingencies c. alternatives; trend d. funnel; alternatives

During the Determine Budget process, individual activity costs are aggregated to _____, which are further aggregated to determine the total project cost. a. unit expenses b. zone costs c. work packages d. forecast groups

Forms of training for your team can include online training, _____, classroom training, and on-the-job training. a. competitive immersion b. virtual training c. mentoring d. graduate school training

How does "dependency determination and integration" manifest in a project network diagram? a. As the relative size of each box b. As the coloring for different groups of boxes c. As the arrows that connect the boxes d. As the alphanumeric labeling for each box

If you visualized projects, programs, and portfolios as a vertical hierarchy, which would be at the top, encompassing the others? a. Projects b. Programs c. Portfolios d. None of these answers

Imagine a project where the two activities are painting some rooms and laying down carpet in those rooms. Manager A wants all 10 rooms painted before carpet is laid down in the rooms. Manager B is OK if each room is painted individually and then carpeted. What kind of dependency is Manager B using? a. Individual dependency b. Temporary dependency c. Discretionary dependency d. Mandatory dependency

In _____, a project manager knows what the corporate goals and objectives are so they can see if the project supports strategic alignment. a. technical program management b. leadership c. strategic and business management d. None of these answers

In the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process, the _____ provides information on risk categories and stakeholders' tolerance for risk. a. lessons learned register b. change management plan c. risk management plan d. change and issue log

In the _____ type of PMO, the project manager mainly functions as a consultant to projects, and they have little control. a. controlling b. directive c. supportive d. All of these answers

Monte Carlo analysis is a tool and technique of _____. a. qualitative risk analysis b. point of total assumption c. quantitative risk analysis d. earned monetary value analysis

Most modern project schedules are _____. a. Adaptive b. Circular c. Predictive d. Insular

Portfolio management is the _____ management of one or more portfolios to achieve strategic objectives. a. collated b. diversified c. centralized d. decentralized

Risk categories can be illustrated through a _____. a. stakeholder register b. risk management plan c. risk breakdown structure (RBS) d. all of these answers

Steven Yoon was engaged in selecting his resources for the quality team he will lead in on a major project the following calendar year. During the selection process one of the resources asked a quick question attempting to clarify understanding related to prevention versus inspection as it relates to the context of Total Quality Management (TQM). What is the difference between the terms that is correct? A. Prevention is reactive and comes after the fact, while inspection an upfront activity B. Prevention is done only after customer identifies the errors, while inspection is identified by the internal team C. Prevention is about keeping errors out of the process and inspection is about keeping errors out of the hands of the customer D. Inspection is associated with reviews during quality audits and Prevention is one of the 7 basic quality tools

Suppose you need to estimate costs for a project that will use resources outside the company. Which technique should you use? a. Third-party API b. Reserve analysis c. Vendor bid analysis d. Analogous estimating

Sylvia is working on identifying risks. Her team has some experience in the field they are working on. However, she is concerned about the team missing risks that someone with more experience would be familiar with. She would like to get reviews from unbiased experts that are otherwise anonymous to the team in order to keep the team focused on the risk management plan. What would be the best method for this situation? a. Reading white papers by experts b. Decision tree analysis c. Delphi method d. Brainstorming

The Control Costs process is fundamentally about tracking how much money is spent during the project and _____. a. making sure that all budgeted money is spent b. making sure that all stakeholders in the project come away satisfied c. making sure you're getting the expected value from the work performed d. making sure that all workers in the project come away satisfied

The Monitor and Control Process Group is akin to _____. a. assembling the ingredients for a cake recipe b. mixing the ingredients of a cake c. checking on a cake in the oven d. eating the last piece of cake

The PMBOK Guide lists five Process Groups: Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring/Controlling, and Closing. Which group occurs in tandem with all the other groups? a. Executing b. Planning c. Monitoring and Controlling d. Initiating

The _____ ensures day-to-day activities are running efficiently. a. functional manager b. project manager c. operations manager d. All of these answers

The _____ is an output of Plan Procurement Management, and details how to manage the rest of the procurement processes. a. procurement statement of work b. procurement strategy c. procurement management plan d. source selection criteria

The cost baseline for a project is the _____, without management reserves. a. budget for the first major milestone b. minimum expected budget c. approved time-phased budget d. actual amount spent on the project

The funding used to execute the project is the _____. a. cost baseline b. cost analysis c. project budget d. budget forwarding pass

The major difference between Manage Quality and Control Quality is that _____. a. Manage Quality uses inspection and Control Quality uses audits b. Manage Quality uses the seven basic quality tools while Control Quality does not c. Manage Quality is process-focused and Control Quality is product-focused d. There is no significant difference between the two.

The processes within the Planning Process Group _____. a. must be organized alphabetically b. must be ordered based on collective agreement c. must be done in a specific order d. can be completed in any order

The project charter, stakeholder register, and stakeholder engagement plan are all _____ of the Plan Communications Management process. a. tools b. techniques c. inputs d. outputs

The project management intern is working on the following steps, entering approved change requests into the PMIS and preparing the work performance data to be reviewed by the change control board. Which process is she working in? a. Monitor and Control Project Work process b. Perform Integrated Change Control process c. Direct and Manage Project Work process d. Develop Project Management Plan process

The project team is reviewing the stakeholder management plan and they ask the project manager how often they should review it. What should she tell them? a. Once a week b. They will decide the frequency as a group, but once it is determined, it will stay the same. c. The stakeholder management plan should be reviewed on a regular basis, but as the project progresses, this schedule may change. Cert Prep: Project Management Professional (PMP)® (2018) with Sandra Mitchell 72 of 80 d. Once a month

Tim has been requested by the project sponsor to gather information on the individuals and groups that would be affected by a new bridge project that will be funded by the federal government. There was a lot of controversy the last time a similar bridge was considered. What activities is Tim going to be engaged in? a. Planning stakeholder engagement b. Protecting the project from groups hostile to the project c. Identifying stakeholders d. Due diligence

Tracking the number of defects found at the end of an assembly line is an example of _____. a. risk identification b. qualitative risk analysis c. technical performance analysis d. quantitative risk analysis

Two of the motivational theories you should be aware of for the PMP® exam are Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs and _____. a. Herzberg's Uncertainty Theory b. McGregor's Theory of Force c. Fiedler's Contingency Theory d. Kramer's Double-Dip Theory

What do you call the amount of time an activity can be delayed without affecting the critical path? a. Slush b. Slide c. Float d. Allowance

What has the target dates sellers need to meet? a. A procurement plan b. A scope management plan c. A milestone list d. A business case

What is NOT one of the outputs of Estimate Activity Resources? a. Basis of estimates b. Resource breakdown structure (RBS) c. Work breakdown structure (WBS) d. Resource requirements

What is a key input for the Plan Quality Management process? a. Expert judgment b. A quality management plan c. A project charter that provides details on product characteristics, requirements, and objectives that might influence quality management d. Project management updates, including a lessons learned register

What is a key output of Manage Project Knowledge that captures issues, challenges, risks, and other needs? a. Organizational process assets update b. Project management plan update c. Lessons learned register d. None of these answers

What is not a meaningful financial measure of success? a. ROI b. Net Present Value c. Inflation d. Benefit-Cost Value

What is not an example of a Knowledge Area? a. Project Scope Management b. Project Risk Management c. Project Activities Management d. Project Cost Management

What is the critical path in a network diagram? a. The path with the largest number of activities b. The path with the riskiest activities c. The path with the greatest time duration d. The path with the greatest total budget

What is the only Process Group that does NOT involve tasks related to project stakeholder management? a. Monitoring and Controlling b. Executing c. Closing d. Initiating

What is the scope management plan a part of? a. Organizational process assets b. Project charter c. Project management plan d. Enterprise environmental factors

What is the ultimate goal for any project manager? a. Work performance data b. Managing the project c. Stakeholder satisfaction d. Improving communication skills

What's the difference between the project charter and the project scope statement? a. The scope statement is more high level and the charter is more specific. b. They are the same thing. c. The charter is more high level and the scope statement is more specific. d. None of these answers

When analyzing the outputs of the Control Costs process, what are the two types of cost forecasts? a. Estimate to completion; estimate after completion b. Actual at completion; actual to completion c. Estimate at completion; estimate to completion d. Actual at initiation; estimate by completion

When creating a network diagram, why is it important to center the duration value above each box? a. Because centering the values makes the diagram more visually cohesive and attractive. b. Duration values should actually go below the box, leaving space for other numbers. c. Because you're going to add other numbers to the left and right later on. d. Because a centered value is a more stable value

When you are in a Monitoring and Controlling process, _____ is always an input. a. work performance report b. work performance information c. work performance data d. work performance mediation

Which leadership style refers to allowing the team to set their own goals and make their own decisions? a. Servant leader b. Transactional c. Laissez-faire d. Management by exception

You are a managing a landscaping project for a town. The town wants to decorate the town park with the official flower. However, due to a heat wave, there is a shortage of these flowers and the price is higher than what was initially projected. The initial risk register did list a potential shortage as a risk; the reason was not due to a heat wave. You are reassessing the project risks and need to know what the original risk tolerances were when the project was first planned last year. Which of the following would be the best source for this information? a. Charter b. Risk audits c. Risk management plan d. Risk register

You are developing the project charter with your newly assembled project team. The team is referring to several documents as inputs to this process such as the business case and some legal agreements. Which of the following is also something that would be of value to creating the project charter? a. Stakeholder register b. Work breakdown structure c. Project statement of work d. Project management plan

You are the project manager at a local hospital and currently overseeing the installation of new computers. A primary responsibility is dealing with the change request process. During which process does the project manager prevent scope creep? a. Validate Scope b. Define Scope c. Control Scope d. Perform Integrated Change Control

You are the project manager of a project to install organic grass and sod at an outdoor stadium. The stadium is located in a geographically dry desert region that receives very little annual rainfall and you are concerned about the ability of the grass to be able to grow with such little irrigation. All of the following are strategies that you might consider for dealing with this negative risk EXCEPT: A. Mitigate B. Accept C. Exploit D. Transfer

Your 12-month project has a total cost of $200K. After three months you've spent $70K. The project was slated to be 25% done but is only 20% done. What's the cost variance (CV) of the project? a. $10K b. -$10K c. -$30K d. $30K

Your company is hosting a bid conference with seven vendors. This is an example of which of the following? a. Tool or technique for closing procurements b. Tool or technique for planning procurement management c. Tool or technique for conducting procurements d. Tool or technique for controlling procurements

_____ Procurements ensures everything you agree to in the contract is actually happening, like performance, changes, fostering good working relationships, and closing contracts. a. Conduct b. Plan c. Control d. Implement

_____ includes comparing stakeholder information with other projects or organizations. a. Data representation b. Data analysis c. Benchmarking d. All of these answers

_____ involves the rules, policies, procedures, and processes to follow, and the norms, relationships, and systems of each company. a. A work breakdown structure b. A management element c. Governance d. All of these answers

_____ is an output to the Plan Scope Management process. a. The work breakdown structure b. The schedule management plan c. The scope management plan d. All of these answers

A project team has 9 members. How many communication channels are there? a. 10 b. 28 c. 36 d. 45

C The number of communication channels = n(n-1)/2, where n = number of stakeholders. This question is also fairly straightforward. Since it's stating the "project team" has 9 members, the project manager is included in the total number of team members. So, you just plug in the number into the equation. The number of communication channels = 9(8)/2 = 72/2 = 36 channel

A project team has 9 members. How many communication channels are there? a. 10 b. 28 c. 36 d. 45

In the acronym PMBOK, what does BOK stand for? a. Bored of Knowing b. Beginning of Knowledge c. Body of Knowledge d. Beginner on Knowing

C. body of knowledge

62. Risk audits are used to do what?

Consider the effectiveness of the risk management process

21. Bill, a long-term operations manager, has been put in charge of a new project. He is beginning to identify key stakeholders and the plan to keep them engaged. He asks Andrea, from the PMO, what the key is to effective stakeholder management. The best response is which?

Continuous communication with all stakeholders

A procurement statement of work is provided to a _____ who is _____ the company. a. seller; inside b. buyer; inside c. buyer; outside d. seller; outside

All of the following are TRUE for a Time and Materials contract EXCEPT: A. It is very flexible to handle changing project demands B. It is very easy and quick to set up C. The total project cost is based on the amount of time, resources utilized, and the actual development effort D. The requirements are clear and explicitly documented up front so buyer and seller know exactly what to expect

All of the following are inputs to the Identify Stakeholders process except _____. a. business case b. agreements c. project charter d. stakeholder register

All of the following are tools and techniques of the Plan Communications Management process except _____. a. communication technology b. communication models c. meetings d. communication skills

An output of Plan Quality Management, _____, is a description of a project or product attribute and how to measure it. a. test and inspection planning b. the quality management plan c. the project management plan d. quality metrics

An output of the Define Activities process is the activity list. What is true about the activity list? a. The activities should be ordered based on cost factor. b. The activities should be ordered based on assignment. c. The activities should be ordered based on scope. d. The activities don't need to be in any particular order.

Andrea is nearing the end of her project. There are still some final deliverables to complete and she is reviewing the resource management plan. She reviews the completed appraisals for each member of the project team. She prepares the awards and performance bonuses for the team leaders. What process is she working in? a. Acquire Resources b. Manage Team c. Close Project or Phase d. Develop Team

During the Control Scope process, analysis of the scope performance resulted in a change request to the scope baseline. This change request will be evaluated and reviewed during which process? a. Validate Scope b. Define Scope c. Control Scope d. Perform Integrated Change Control

During the Sequence Activities process, what is a lag? a. When there is a planned work stoppage between a predecessor and successor b. When an activity takes significantly longer to complete than anticipated c. When an activity is moved to start before its predecessor d. The amount of time a successor activity must wait until its predecessor is done

Each PM process consists of an input, output, and _____. a. stakeholder list b. operation guide c. phase management guide d. tools and techniques

Each process in Project Cost Management must be completed in the specified order. Why is this? a. The ordering of processes in each process group is optimized for ease of use. b. Your documentation needs to align with that of all other PMI product managers. c. The information you gather is time-specific so should be completed chronologically. d. The information you gather will be used in the processes that follow.

For the project the earned value (EV) = $350. The actual cost (AC) =$280. The planned value (PV)=$500. The total project budget is $1,000. Assume the original estimate was flawed. Your developer team has given you a new estimate for the remaining work of $1,200. What is the project's estimate to complete (ETC)? A. $800 B. $930 C. $1,480 D. $1,200

How many processes fall under Monitoring and Controlling? a. 10 b. 9 c. 40 d. 12

In PMP nomenclature, what does ITTO stand for? a. Inputs, testing, tiers, and organization b. Information, tools, technicalities, and outputs c. Inner tier, technology, and outputs d. Inputs, tools and techniques, and outputs

In a Directive PMO type, how can PMOs support project managers? a. Provide shared resources across all projects managed by the PMO. b. Identify and develop a project management methodology. c. Coaching, mentoring, and training d. All of these answers

In a network diagram, the forward pass is _____ the critical path. a. always less than b. one day more than c. one day less than d. the same duration as

In a network diagram, what does the number centered above each box signify? a. Priority of the activity b. Cost of the activity c. Dependency level of the activity d. Duration of the activity

In agile, the team identifies requirements and documents them through _____. a. requirements elimination b. work backlogs c. work queues d. user stories

In integration management, what are some ways project managers can collect information from other knowledge areas? a. War rooms b. Automated tools c. Visual management tools d. All of these answers

Inspection is a technique used in the Validate Scope process. The main purpose of using this technique in this process is to deal with _____. a. quality of the deliverables b. testing of the deliverables c. correctness of the deliverables d. acceptance of the deliverables

Interpersonal skills are an essential part of the Develop Project Team process. All of the following are examples of interpersonal skills except _____. a. team building b. Influence c. conflict resolution d. performance review

Most projects will have a number of stakeholders who are engaged in which way? a. Unaware b. Resistant c. Diverse d. Supportive

Phil is getting prepared to run the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process to notify the stakeholders of the progress. He has the stakeholder management plan, the most recent change log, and the needed organizational process assets. What else does he require? a. Project charter b. Work performance data c. Schedule management plan Cert Prep: Project Management Professional (PMP)® (2018) with Sandra Mitchell 74 of 80 d. Communications management plan

Plan Cost Management is the process of defining how the project costs will be _____, budgeted, managed, monitored, and controlled. a. Negotiated b. collated c. averaged d. Estimated

Project risks are identified during which process? a. Monitor Risks b. Identify Risks c. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis and Identify Risks d. Identify Risks and Monitor Risks

Risks are regarded as _____ in a project. a. inevitabilities b. contingency methods c. action items d. uncertainties

Sam is a project manager for a reputed software development firm and he is working with the senior architects and designers of the project in listing the WBS code for work packages. They identified the toplevel code as 1.0. What WBS code could they chose for a work package at the fifth level in WBS? a. 1.1.1.1 b. 1 c. 1.0.1 d. 1.2.3.4.5.

The Control Resources process falls under which process group? a. Acquire and Develop b. Plan and Communicate c. Schedule and Budget d. Monitoring and Controlling

The benefits management plan shows what the benefits of the project are and _____. a. who will take responsibility b. how often they come to bear c. what they will cost d. how to measure them

The change board has just provided you with a corrective action to fix a misaligned sensor used in the product. You instruct a team member to immediately begin work on the correction. He is learning about project management and asks what process this work is in. You tell him that you are in which of the following processes? a. Quality Control process b. Quality Assurance process c. Validate Scope process d. Direct and Manage Project Work process

The distribution of information to the stakeholders at the level of detail required is handled in which process? a. Control Stakeholder Engagement b. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement c. Monitor Communications d. Manage Communications

The key function of work performance reports is to _____. a. raise issues b. ask questions c. provide an overall awareness d. All of these answers

The multi-year project you have been managing has been going well and is under budget and only slightly behind schedule. Your sponsor approaches you and tells you that market conditions have changed and the company has decided that the project will be terminated. What should your next step be? a. Complete what work you can. b. Contact the client to find out if they will continue funding the project. c. Tell your sponsor you are confident that since your project is doing well that it can still succeed. d. Begin the close project or phase process

The process of developing your schedule starts with an analysis of activity sequences, durations, _____, and _____. a. communications; quality control b. schedule baseline; schedule constraints c. quality control; resource requirements d. resource requirements; schedule constraints

The project manager _____. a. is ultimately responsible for the outcome of the project b. must have a clear message about the vision and mission of a project c. provides support and coordination along the way d. All of these answers

The source selection criteria is used to evaluate the seller proposals. What is an example of source selection criteria? a. The cost of the bid b. If the seller is technically sound c. Delivery dates d. All of these answers

To prepare for the PMP exam, which sections of the PMBOK Guide should you review? a. All sections except Glossary b. Knowledge Areas plus Appendices c. Project Management Processes and Glossary d. All of these answers

True or False: Organizational knowledge bases can be updated during the project to include project documents, like the budget and project performance

Two important goals of the Plan Resource Management process is to identify the resources needed for the project and to _____. a. identify the most efficient way to acquire resources b. validate the past performance of these human resources c. establish that the human resources have salaries that fit within budget d. ensure that the resources are available for the project when needed

Under which process would you find work performance data? a. Maintaining b. Adjusting c. Controlling d. Executing

Verification of all the approved changes is done in which process? a. Validate Scope b. Control Scope c. Direct and Manage Project Work d. Control Quality

What are two examples of adaptive scheduling? a. Sprints and marathons b. Agile and Myers-Briggs c. Ken-Ken and waterfall d. Kanban and agile

What can quality management entail? a. Making sure processes are in place to explain how to build or create a product or service b. Creating standard operating procedures or work instructions c. Ensuring quality is built into the product or service d. All of these answers

What do servant leaders do? a. Focus on goals, feedback, and accomplishments to determine rewards. b. Allow the team to set their own goals and make their own decisions. c. Remain as hands-off as possible. d. Demonstrate a commitment to serve and put others first.

What does the scope management plan include? a. Validating deliverables b. Controlling scope c. Defining requirements d. All of these answers

What is a legitimate sign of project completion? a. Objectives being met b. Termination for legal reasons c. The early ending of a project d. All of these answers

What is a meaningful metric for success? Cert Prep: Project Management Professional (PMP)® (2018) with Sandra Mitchell 13 of 80 a. Completing the benefits measurement plan b. Meeting governance criteria c. Achieving stakeholder satisfaction d. All of these answers

What is a project manager's key goal during the Control Procurements process? a. Compare sellers before awarding contracts b. Stop contract payments c. Award contracts d. Manage ongoing contracts 20. The project manager is closing out a

What is a skill that you would normally expect from a project manager? a. Managing the triple constraints of cost, scope, and schedule b. Understanding the proper planning and prioritization of work c. Knowing which project management method best suits the team and the work being executed d. All of these answers

What is an example of a management element? a. Deciding how work gets divided up by the specialized skills in your workforce b. Enforcing disciplinary actions for breaking rules c. Ensuring fair treatment in the workplace with equal pay for work performed d. All of these answers

What is an example of an enterprise environmental factor? a. Where a company is located b. Whether or not you have virtual teams c. Infrastructure (for example, existing facilities and equipment) d. All of these answers

What is an input to the Monitor Communications process and provides information about the stakeholders and the strategies to engage them? a. Resource management plan b. Communications management plan c. Stakeholder engagement plans d. All of these answers

What is an input to the control scope process? a. project management plan b. requirements documentation c. work performance data d. All of these answers

What is characteristic of a project? a. It is unique (it's never been done before). b. It's temporary and has a start and end date. c. It delivers a product, service, or result. d. All of these answers

What is involved in the Monitor Risk process? a. You're checking to see if what you planned to do is what actually happened. b. The team is watching closely to see if there are any risk triggers. c. The team identifies new risks so they can be analyzed and added to the list d. All of these answers

What is the chief objective of portfolio management? a. To guide organizations in making sound investment decisions b. To ensure programs and projects align with business objectives, c. To ensure proper allocation of resources to achieve the desired return on the investment d. All of these answers

What is the first input in the Estimate Costs process? a. Reserve analysis b. Budget initiation c. Cost estimate d. Cost management plan

What is the formula to calculate earned value? a. (Planned % Complete) ÷ (Actual % Complete) b. (Actual Cost to Date) × (BAC) c. (Planned % Complete) × (BAC) d. (Actual % Complete) × (BAC)

What is the key benefit of performing Manage Quality? a. Facilitating the improvement of quality standards b. Building confidence that work in progress is completed in a timely manner c. Preventing defects through the planning process d. Ensuring appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used

What is the one main output to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process? a. The stakeholder register b. The risk management plan c. Communication skills d. Change requests

What is true of Plan Quality Management? a. It falls under the Planning Process Group. b. It identifies what the quality standards and requirements are for the project. c. It includes how a project will comply with quality standards. d. All of these answers

What is true of the Controlling type of the Project Management Office (PMO) organizational structure type? a. It requires compliance. b. It is supportive, and its level of control is moderate. c. It can involve mandatory use of templates, forms, or tools and conforming to governance frameworks. d. All of these answers

What iterative process increases the level of detail in a project management plan as more information and more accurate estimates become available? a. Progressive modification b. Iterative design c. Iterative elaboration d. Progressive elaboration

What key question must project managers and stakeholders be in agreement on, regarding project success? a. What does success look like for this project? b. How will we measure success? c. What factors might impact our success? d. All of these answers

What should work performance data include? a. Start and end dates b. Costs c. Percentages complete d. All of these answers

What type of document can you analyze to help identify requirements? a. Agreements b. Business plans c. Marketing literature d. All of these answers

Which of the following is NOT an activity performed in the Close Project process? a. Formal ending of project work b. Updating the lessons learned knowledge base c. Release of resources to pursue new endeavors d. Validate changes

Which of the following is a component of the PMI Talent Triangle? a. Technical project management b. Strategic and business management c. Leadership d. All of these answers

Which of the following is a true statement about the project charter? a. Project charter establishes and implements approved changes to meet project objectives. b. Project charter is a central document that defines how to execute the project. c. Project charter tracks and reviews the progress of the project. d. Project charter establishes a partnership between performing and requesting organizations.

Which of the following is a type of agreement? a. Contract b. Purchase order c. Memorandum of agreement d. All of these answers

While estimating the activity resource needs on a national park project, you realize that a major blizzard may necessitate hiring search and rescue intervention teams. Where should you keep track of this type of resource need? a. Scope baseline b. Activity list c. Resource calendar d. Risk register

Who can be part of your sphere of influence? a. Friends and peers b. Coworkers c. Management d. All of these answers

Why might a project be initiated? a. To satisfy stakeholder needs b. To implement a technological strategy c. To create, improve, or fix a product d. All of these answers

Why might a project meet all of its objectives and success factors but still be unsuccessful? a. This is not possible. b. You failed to document your processes. c. Stakeholders are simply too grumpy. d. Business or market needs may have changed before the project's completion

With regards to process inputs, what are OPAs? a. Ordinal planning assessments b. Original plan attachments c. Organized prioritized activities d. Organizational process assets

You and the project sponsor are finalizing the stakeholder requirements for an internal project. The charter will include all of the following, except _____. a. high-level risks b. project requirements c. project milestones d. a comprehensive budget

You are overseeing a new software project. You completed a demo of the product in front of some investors and the product testers. They have made a list of changes that they realize will need to be made to meet their needs. You agree that these changes can be made, but you want to see what these change requests will do to the cost and the schedule. Which process includes your work? a. Control scope b. Validate scope c. Perform integrated change control d. Monitor and control project work

You are the project manager for a technology company that is in the process of converting paperbased medical records to electronic files and you recently met with the customer to inspect all of the deliverables to make sure that they matched up against what was written in the requirements documentation. The customer and you both agree that some of the deliverables did not match the requirements and that a change request is in order. You go through the Integrated change control process and the change control board approves the change request. Your next course of action should be to _____. a. perform integrated change control b. control scope c. identify risks d. direct and manage project work

You are the project manager of a software development project and you are reporting the performance of the project to upper management. You have the following data: earned value (EV) = $2000 and actual cost (AC) = $1000. What is the value of schedule performance index (SPI)? a. 1000 b. 0.5 c. 2 d. Cannot be determined

You own your own company and need to decide on an appropriate organizational structure. What is a consideration for this process? a. Physical location b. Does the business have specialization capabilities? c. Identifying who will be accountable and responsible for actions or activities that need to be done d. All of these answers

____ is a product, service, or result that provides value to the sponsoring organization and its beneficiaries. a. Project value b. Value proposition c. Project inclusion d. Project benefit

_____ are managed in a coordinated manner to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually. a. Projects b. Portfolios c. Program groups d. Programs

_____ deals with how well a project can bounce back from unknown risks. a. Integrated risk management b. Ambiguity risk c. Variability risk d. Project resilience

_____ ensures that the business case, benefits management plan, charter, and plan align with one another. a. plan manager b. benefits manager c. sponsor d. project manager

_____ is/are a set of methods used to transfer information among project stakeholders (for example, meetings, social media, written documents, and websites). a. Communication models b. Communication methods c. The resource management plan d. Communication technology

27. Daniel is facing a deadline on his project. His task will not be complete before the deadline, but his work is not on the critical path and there is some float available. His manager asks if he will be done by the deadline. What should he tell the manager?

Explain that his work may be delayed and ask if he can submit a change log to get an extension.

1. A project manager is working on a project in a different country. The CEO of the client offers him a gift worth several thousand dollars for completing the project ahead of schedule. However, the project manager's company only permits personal gifts of less than fifty dollars. What is the best course of action for the project manager?

Explain to the CEO that you are not permitted to accept this gift by your company.

True or False: A team performance assessment is designed to help each individual member of the team.

FALSE

True or False: Each process can belong to multiple Process Groups and Knowledge Areas.

FALSE

True or False: Enterprise environmental factors, or EEFs, are forces that impact the project that you have complete control over.

FALSE

True or False: Every project should incorporate all 10 of the Knowledge Areas described in the PMBOK Guide.

FALSE

True or False: Generally, risk and stakeholder involvement are lowest at the beginning of a project

FALSE

True or False: In a project-oriented organizational structure type, project managers are minimally involved.

FALSE

True or False: Manage Quality and Control Quality are most often performed sequentially.

FALSE

True or False: Management Elements are assigned to entry-level individuals in your organization

FALSE

True or False: Operations and project management never intersect during the product life cycle.

FALSE

True or False: Project management processes occur independently

FALSE

True or False: Project managers aren't expected to be leaders when they don't have much power or authority.

FALSE

True or False: Project managers don't need to be too concerned about quality. If you manage a project correctly, the quality will just be there

FALSE

True or False: Project managers don't need to provide direction or worry about motivating and inspiring key players.

FALSE

True or False: Project managers should focus on checking off boxes, rather than leadership

FALSE

True or False: Quantitative risk analysis should always be carried out before qualitative risk analysis.

FALSE

True or False: Risks can only affect a project negatively.

FALSE

True or False: Stakeholders should only refer to a subset of people in an organization

FALSE

True or False: The PMBOK defines a project manager as a functional manager or operations manager

FALSE

True or False: The PMI does not recommend abbreviating the material in the PMBOK Guide; all processes and methodologies are required for any given project.

FALSE

True or False: The Scope Management process includes adding to the project scope frequently in order to add extra functionality

FALSE

True or False: The best way to update stakeholders in a project is once a month via a dashboard

FALSE

True or False: The order of processes for the Project Stakeholder Management Knowledge Area is 1) Identify Stakeholders, 2) Plan Stakeholder Management, 3) Control Stakeholder Engagement, and 4) Manage Stakeholder Engagement

FALSE

True or False: The project management plan is the same thing as the project schedule.

FALSE

True or False: When it comes to projects, the business analyst plays a minor role.

FALSE

True or False: Whenever you see a question and it starts, "You have a team of seven..." then the project manager is included in this total number.

FALSE

True or False: Work performance data has been aggregated and analyzed for your stakeholders

FALSE

130. Your project team consists mainly of younger programmers. You need to add another member. You have been interviewing a number of people and the most qualified is a retired programmer who is looking for some part-time work. You are concerned that your existing team might not welcome this senior. There are some other candidates, but you are concerned that they might leave for better work during the project. What should you do?

Hire the experienced programmer as the most qualified person for the job

125. You are the project manager and are in the process of procuring a couple of contractors. You get a bonus for being under budget. One of the bids is on budget and has very highly-qualified contractors. The other is below budget but you are doubtful the contractors can do the work and you will need to find someone to fix any mistakes. What should you do?

Hire the more-qualified contractors as the project will be successful

119. While writing the Project Charter, the preliminary project team begins listing out detailed technical specifications for the Charter. What is the next best action to take?

Inform the team that the project does not have a Charter yet. Therefore, detailed specifications would be developed after the Collect Requirements process.

106. What is the difference between leadership and management?

Management is effectively negotiating and implementing decisions to bring the project to a successful completion. Leadership involves the ability to guide, motivate and direct a team.

9. A project manager is working on a project when she discovers that a close family member has been brought on by the client and is a critical stakeholder. She is concerned that there might be a conflict of interest. What should she do?

Notify the project management team of the situation and let them decide if there is a conflict of interest.

94. The team is meeting with the procurement office to discuss conducting the procurements of specialized machinery for the project. Some of the members are confused as to what they should focus on during this process. What are the three main steps in conducting procurements?

Obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding the contract

19. As part of a new museum, the publicity team is creating a website and a place for the project staff to solicit information and reviews from the local community. They will also be posting updates on the new construction and advertising construction tours. These are all part of what part of the communication process?

PMIS

4. A focus for the project manager is project integration. What is the key responsibility for a project manager regarding project integration?

Project managers work with the project sponsor to ensure that the project is aligned with the higher level objectives of the business, program or portfolio. The project manager is also responsible to guide the team to focus on the essentials of the project

40. If during cost control and performing reserve analysis, it is determined that a contingency reserve related to an identified risk will not occur, what should the project manager do with that unused contingency reserve?

Remove the unused contingency reserve from the project budget

35. Gary is managing a high-performance team. During a retrospective, Charles and Gail begin blaming each other for a failed test of the software. Gary needs to help them resolve the conflict as the test will be performed again during the next iteration. What would be the best course of action?

Review the lessons learned and help the team work on preparing for the next test.

117. While planning resource management, the project team has found some trial software to use. They like the software and want to get the full version. However, their planning budget is not large enough to purchase the full version. What is their next best course of action?

Speak to senior management to see if the company can split the cost of the software across several project budgets.

True or False: A needs assessment may be done before a business case is developed

TRUE

True or False: A portfolio includes projects, programs, subportfolios, and operations that are managed to achieve strategic objectives.

TRUE

True or False: A work breakdown structure (WBS) is a graphical, hierarchical chart that takes the project scope and decomposes it into progressively smaller pieces called work packages.

TRUE

True or False: According to the PMBOK, the project manager is assigned by the organization to lead the project team responsible for achieving the objectives

TRUE

True or False: Always document your key success metrics.

TRUE

True or False: An example of an interactive method is when stakeholders instant message each other

TRUE

True or False: As a project manager, it is important to know which type of organization you are working for, since it will determine the level of authority you have over your project and resources.

TRUE

True or False: As you move away from the center of your sphere of influence, you gradually lose power.

TRUE

True or False: Communications management includes the processes needed to make sure information on a project is effectively conveyed to stakeholders.

TRUE

True or False: Decisions need to be made almost immediately, so having stakeholders in project reviews and meetings is necessary

TRUE

True or False: During project execution, changes may be made via change requests.

TRUE

True or False: EEFs and OPAs are inputs to the Plan Communications Management process

TRUE

True or False: Each project team has members responsible for their subject matter expertise, and each person has a different skillset or may fulfill one or more roles.

TRUE

True or False: Governance is used to set the goals or objectives of the organization and to track whether they've been met

TRUE

True or False: In a Supportive type of PMO, a project manager's main focus is to provide templates, recommended best practices, training, and a document repository for lessons learned and other project documents.

TRUE

True or False: It's critical to gather stakeholder needs and expectations and then convert them into requirements.

TRUE

True or False: It's good practice to have all your team members involved in stakeholder engagement

TRUE

True or False: Keeping stakeholders engaged and informed is key to project success

TRUE

True or False: Manage Quality is all about making sure the processes are all followed and Control Quality makes sure the product meets quality specifications.

TRUE

True or False: Organizational knowledge bases can be updated during the project to include project documents, like the budget and project performance

TRUE

True or False: Organizing and preparing is the second phase in the project life cycle.

TRUE

True or False: Perform Integrated Change Control feeds into Project Quality Management because change requests can be a result of quality processes.

TRUE

True or False: Phase gates allow for review at the end of a phase to decide if the project can move forward, if it needs modifications, or if it should end.

TRUE

True or False: Plan Stakeholder Engagement involves developing a plan to engage and interact with Cert Prep: Project Management Professional (PMP)® (2018) with Sandra Mitchell 73 of 80 stakeholders based on their needs, interest, expectations, and potential impact on project success.

TRUE

True or False: Processes and products can almost always be improved

TRUE

True or False: Procurement management includes the processes that'll help you get the products or services you need from outside the project, like human resources or equipment.

TRUE

True or False: Procurements are legal, binding documents

TRUE

True or False: Project managers need to be more of a leader when they don't have much power or authority, because they can't make the team do anything.

TRUE

True or False: Project managers need to convince the team of the project vision and then motivate them to move in that direction

TRUE

True or False: Project managers should stay current on industry trends.

TRUE

True or False: Project success factors must be identified early in the project

TRUE

True or False: Quality management is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager

TRUE

True or False: Quality management needs to be built into the project processes and deliverables at every step.

TRUE

True or False: Talking to stakeholders helps provide a risk threshold for the project so you know who is risk averse or who is willing to take risks.

TRUE

True or False: The Close Project or Phase process is centered on making sure the project objectives and scope have been met, and officially closing the project or phase.

TRUE

True or False: The Conduct Procurements process explains how to obtain seller responses, select a seller, and award contracts.

TRUE

True or False: The Directive PMO type is when the PMO takes control over the management of projects, and project managers report directly to the PMO.

TRUE

True or False: The Manage Communications process ensures that information about the project is collected, then created, distributed, stored, managed, and monitored, and is then able to be retrieved

TRUE

True or False: The Monitor Communications process falls under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group and ensures the communication needs of the project and stakeholders are met.

TRUE

True or False: The Plan Risk Responses process is for developing options and actions to reduce or enhance the project's risks.

TRUE

True or False: The high-level portfolio is comprised of all the projects, programs, sub-portfolios, and operations that are below it.

TRUE

True or False: The intent of risk management is to increase the chance of positive risks and reduce the impact of negative risks.

TRUE

True or False: The issue log is an input to the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process because the project manager provides an update on the identified concerns and records new ones

TRUE

True or False: The main output of the Identify Stakeholders process is the stakeholder register

TRUE

True or False: The project charter provides formal authorization of a project and use of resources. It is full of high-level information rather than details.

TRUE

True or False: The types of communication you use should be tailored to the needs of the project

TRUE

True or False: There are six processes in the Scope Management Knowledge Area and each one in the planning process needs to be done in order

TRUE

True or False: There is generally a need for project managers to interact with other project managers in the program, because each project can have an impact on others.

TRUE

True or False: When project teams spend a lot of time developing a plan, but then they don't execute it, this adds more risk to the project

TRUE

True or False: Whenever you see a question that says, "There is a team of seven...", then this automatically has the project manager included in it.

TRUE

True or False: Work performance data is always converted to work performance information as an output.

TRUE

True or False: Work performance information is raw data that has been collected and analyzed for reporting.

TRUE

True or False: Your sphere of influence are the people in your network with whom your opinion holds some weight.

TRUE

True or False:Enterprise environmental factors (EEFs) can come from inside or outside a company

TRUE

48. James is controlling the project schedule and must perform major revisions to the project schedule network diagram. James must add leads and lags to the project schedule network diagram. What is a lead?

The amount of time a successor activity can be advanced in relation to its predecessor activity.

100. Valerie, the project manager for the new construction project, is reviewing a list of key stakeholders who will be attending a series of meetings to perform risk management planning. She has included some representatives of the client. What is the best reason to do so?

The client may identify risks that they may know of and will feel a sense of ownership of the project.

42. In controlling costs, Actual Cost is what?

The money spent during a given period of time related to the project.

84. The project team is using an agile methodology for the first time with the new project. What is a key difference in how the project scope will be managed by adopting agile methods?

The new project will now use backlogs rather than a baseline to reflect current needs

45. In controlling costs, what does the To-Complete-Performance-Index (TCPI) measure?

The performance that the project will need to achieve in order for the project to end on target.

20. Bill is controlling costs for a major project he is managing and has calculated that the project has a CPI of 1.30. How should Bill report this CPI of 1.30 to senior management in the project status report?

The project is getting $1.30 worth of performance for every $1.00 expended

74. The PMO is reviewing a Business Case for a construction project. They had an issue with a project manager not being prepared to run the project because she had been brought in too late. When should the PMO assign a project manager to this new project?

The project manager should be brought in as early as possible during the development of the Project Charter process

85. The project team, who is being managed by Ryan, is working hard to meet a deadline to baseline the Project Management Plan in 2 weeks. One stakeholder asks if she should submit a formal change request and go through the integrated change control process as some cost estimates have changed? How should Ryan respond?

There is no need to submit a formal change request until the Project Management Plan is baselined

37. If a seller of a contract is being late with many deliverables, what should the project manager recommend?

Visit the seller to try to understand why these deliverables are late.

127. Your company is bidding on a large project that it is depending on financially. Your manager tells you to offer your services at a low price, knowing that they can make a profit by charging extra for change requests. What is your best course of action?

Work with your manager to review your company's bid to see if there are legitimate ways to lower the cost.

128. Your manager has assigned you to work on an internal project. He is concerned that the project will not receive sufficient funding because of lessons learned. He tells you to write your internal proposal with a much larger cost so that he can negotiate with senior management and get the right amount of funding. You should do what?

Write up a proper proposal and detail the issues if the project is underfunded and fails

_____ compare how the seller is doing with costs, schedule, quality, and resources based on the agreement. a. Performance reviews b. Approved change requests c. Earned value analysis d. All of these answers

83. The project team is reviewing a tally of items to develop the Project Management Plan that are developed from their industry's advisory body. This is assisting them in making sure they have not missed any regulations. What is this known as?

a checklist

24. Changes to the cost baseline requires what?

a formally-approved change request

Project management standards in the PMBOK Guide come from _____. a. ANSI b. OSHA c. OSHA d. NIST

a. ANSI

69. The focus group team is working with twenty panelists. The team listens to each of the panelists and then rephrases the person's key points to ensure that they understood the response. This is an example of what?

active listening

49. Kelly and her team are in the direct and manage project work process on producing the deliverables for the project. An important component of the output of this process is change control so that the team and other stakeholders know what occurs as the process repeats. When should change control be applied?

after the first deliverable

17. Andrea and Colin are working on updating a project document with the results of the Estimate Activity Resources. The information contains information regarding the types and quantities of resources required. They have made some estimates on equipment, hours of operation and various restrictions. What document are they updating?

assumption log

2. A certain amount of equipment and resources were thought to be accurate during the planning for a major global project. Now with controlling resources, these thoughts have changed. Which document should be updated?

assumption log

76. The project manager and executive team are writing the Project Charter. They are wondering how to keep track of the various suppositions, constraints and restrictions so that the project team will have access to them and be able to update these. What document will contain this information?

assumption log

_____ show whether the seller's processes are out of compliance. a. Risk registers b. Quality reports c. Procurement documentation d. Work performance data

23. Carl has been tasked with researching completed projects that were done by another division of the company. These project are similar in scope to the newest project. He is to provide a list of best practices, ideas and methods to compare the newest project with the completed projects. This is known as what?

benchmarking

52. Mary, John, Andrea and Ralph are working on the Conduct Procurements process. They are hosting a final meeting with the selected vendor to sign the contract. Brent, a senior manager from the finance department and Morgan, the company attorney, are joining them for this final meeting. What would be the most-likely reason why Brent and Morgan would need to be at this meeting?

brent and morgan have the authority to sign the contract

110. Which process will archive the project information and ensure that the planned project work is completed?

close project or phase

126. Which process will audit the project's success or failure?

close project or phase

129. Which process will confirm the formal acceptance of the seller's contract work?

close project or phase

13. A summary of project risks or issues encountered on a project and how these risks and issues were addressed are performed in which process?

close project or phase

26. Agreements are an input to which process?

close project or phase

80. Which process has an input of Accepted deliverables?

close project or phase

97. Which process is included in the Closing Process Group?

close project or phase

50. Kelly is placed in charge of reviewing the RFQs from six vendors on a construction project. She notices that in one sub-section of the procurement statement of work statement that all six vendors have responded differently. She brings this to the attention of the project manager, Jill. Jill reviews this with her and believes that there is some confusion with the procurement statement of work. What is the best course of action for them to take?

conduct a bidder conference

55. One of the bidding vendors is concerned about tracking numerous changes during the life of an agile project. They are relatively new to agile projects and want a document on how these changes will be handled. Which plan would provide the information that the vendor is requesting?

configuration management plan

47. Joe is a member of PMI and has been asked to review several candidates for a project manager position. The PMP certification is a requirement for the position. He reviews several candidates. He believes that Ken is the best candidate and Ken has other PMI credentials. Ken, however, has been approved to take the PMP exam but has not earned the certification. What should Joe do?

continue looking for a PMP certified PM

108. When designing the cost management plan, it is expected that each WBS component is assigned a unique code or account number for easy classification. This number is known as what?

control account

32. Edwin, an experienced project manager, but new to the We-Do-Projects-Right company, was just informed that the Configure Computer Servers contract has delivered all configured servers and all the work is completed. Which process should Edwin be in to close a contract?

control procurements

22. Billy is a new project manager and he needs to determine if a deliverable meets the established quality standards. In which process is Billy involved with?

control quality

41. If the project team meets to review a deliverable to determine whether it complies with quality and requirements, which process would they be in?

control quality

51. Lucy, the project manager, just found out that the SPI is 0.45 and needs to take immediate action in order to submit a change request. Which process is the project manager in?

control schedule

113. Which process would identify if the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) must be changed?

control scope

120. Which process would the project manager use to determine if changes to the approved scope statement are required?

control scope

95. The team member who is responsible for tracking time and labor costs is new to working with managing quality as a cost. He sees that there is a budget for various reserves. Which category should this team member be using for quality management?

cost of quality

67. The contractor is concerned about a contract that her company is bidding on. Their company would be reimbursed for the costs of the work but the primary profit would be based on some subjective performance criteria defined by the buyer's demands. What kind of contract type is this?

cost plus award fee

15. A large project team consists of twenty people from five different organizations all located in one city. Each organization has a different corporate structure and some individuals are experienced in projects with a formal framework, while one company is used to using agile methodologies. What interpersonal skill would be most useful with these differing organizations?

cultural awareness

6. A new project manager recently attended a meeting about agile project methodology. He informs his project team that starting immediately, they will begin using these new agile methods. The team refuses to do work on an agile schedule as they are not experienced with agile methodology. What team skill has the project manager forgotten to use?

cultural awareness

All of the following are activities performed in the Control Procurements process except _____. a. Performance reviews b. Audits c. Change requests d. Work performance reports

How many times can the Close Project or Phase process be performed?

depends on the project

30. During a discussion on quality, the team receives information from the customer that the primary focus needs to be on making the product easy to assemble by untrained people. The team reviews the current product and realizes that by making parts a certain way, the product cannot be put together incorrectly. This focus on assembly is known as what?

design for X

104. Larry is reviewing his project team and sees that there would be some opportunities for his team to cross-train and mentor the junior members. What process is he working in?

develop team

31. Early on in the project, there is a change to the Business Case. The project sponsor has realized that the market has increased due to a competitor failing to produce enough product. As a result, the sponsor wants to change the scope to change the project to double the number of deliverables produced. This risk response strategy is best described as what?

enhance

116. While in the middle of the project, the team is notified that a positive event is very possible. They review the risk management plan and find the appropriate event. They implement the appropriate response. This will permit them to skip one of the tests that was required if the event did not occur. This response strategy is best described as what?

exploit

59. Phillip, who is managing a critical project, has been informed that due to marketplace opportunities, senior management wants this project completed 2 months ahead of schedule and no additional funding will be authorized. Phillip must use the existing resources. Phillip is in Control Schedule. With the funding and resources constraints given to Phillip, which technique should he use to achieve the objective to deliver the project 2 months ahead of schedule?

fast track the schedule

58. Paul and his team are in the third week of a six-week project. They decide that they want to get a better understanding of how the other stakeholders are responding to the project. They send out an email with ten questions as a survey. What type of information are they looking for?

feedback

34. Frank is reviewing the latest change requests. He sees that one minor request is from the project HR administrator. He is unsure why this individual would be requesting changes. What should Frank do in this instance?

forward request ot change control board

88. The quality management plan requires several inputs regarding stakeholders such as the stakeholder register. What is the best reason why the stakeholders would be involved?

identifies stakeholders who have an impact on quality

5. A key stakeholder has requested that an approved change request be postponed. The request is for a safety problem. The stakeholder states that the change will affect his company's schedule on another project. What is the best course of action?

implement the change

53. Now that a risk has occurred, what should the project team do first?

implement the response

73. The parks and recreation committee wants to use social media to keep the public informed about a new park they are building. They want to have a comments section where they can get feedback and respond to those comments. What kind of communication method is this?

interactive

10. A project team and their manager are documenting the latest lessons learned as part of the manage project knowledge process. They have the subject matter expert on this iteration of the project, as well as project information management system and a list of the key challenges that they faced. What other tool or technique would be most useful for them to use?

interpersonal and team skills

99. Tom and the team are conducting their weekly retrospective. They are discussing the various challenges, problems and successes that they have had this week. The team wants to write these down and include information as to who brought them up, who is working on them, when the problem is resolved and document the solution for lessons learned. What document should they be working on?

issue log

107. When controlling the project schedule, which data analysis technique would show the actual remaining work, ideal remaining work and forecasted remaining work?

iteration burndown chart

103. Walter and software team are planning the project schedule. The project is not well defined which will require them to be open to changes to the development life cycle. They are going to be using a timeboxed period of work and at the end of each box, they will deliver a functioning portion of the software for the customer to review. This is known as what?

iterative scheduling with a backlog

82. The project team is holding a meeting to review the latest iteration of the software package. Several of the end users are upset that their ideas are not in the version they have been testing. The Scrum Master informs them that their requests are in the backlog. What is the process the team is in?

manage stakeholder engagement

118. While planning the prototypes testing schedule, the team is obligated to perform a series of highperformance tests. Until these tests are performed, they are unable to continue to the next step of building a full-scale model. Due to legal requirements, a government approved organization must do the testing. This is known as what kind of dependency?

mandatory external

28. Derrick, the project manager, and his project team are monitoring and controlling project work and are in the process to complete a project status report. Which process are they in?

monintor and control project work

114. Which process would Nancy, the project manager, be in to ensure the information needs of Dan, a divisional CIO, are being met?

monitor communications

8. A number of key project stakeholders have complained to Debbie, the project manager, that their major reports are not being delivere

monitor communications

112. Which process will maintain or increase both efficiency and effectiveness for stakeholder activities during the life of the project?

monitor stakeholder engagement

122. William James, a project manager, is coaching Sally, a new project manager, who will visit the customer to perform an inspection of certain deliverables. Which process group are they in?

monitoring and controlling

57. Paul and a group of engineers are reviewing the risk register. They see that there are a set of risks that, on their own, do not impact the project in a significant way. However, if they all occur, the impact would be high. As a result, they decide to run all the risks through a computerized model that simulates the combined effects as to determine the potential impacts. This is known as what?

monte carlo simulation

3. A company has just expanded into two new regions. Each of these regions has its own PMO without a centralized PMO. What is the most-likely organizational structure that the company is using?

multi-divisional

65. The Closing Process Group has how many process?

one

72. The owner of a company is managing the budget of an internal project. What is the most-likely organizational structure of the organization?

organic or simple

109. Where can David, a new project manager, find procedures for approving and authorizing changes?

organization process assets

18. Approved change requests are created only once as an output from which process?

perform integrated change control

121. William is facing a lot of resistance from one particular group of stakeholders. One of his team members mentions that this group of stakeholders was difficult in a previous project and that the project manager, Janice, needed to get senior management involved. William calls Janice who explains that the stakeholders are a part of a company that was just bought out. What team or interpersonal skill is William using when he calls Janice?

political awareness

33. Eric, the project manager is new to the organization and has been assigned to manage a very important strategic project. Since Eric is monitoring stakeholder engagement, which interpersonal and team skills to best suit him with this important strategic project?

political awareness

71. The human resource office is reviewing the Project Charter and the needed resources. She sees that several senior developers have been named in the Charter. She puts those names on the top of the lists for needed resources. This tool is known as what?

pre-assignment

60. Project Alpha is a large long-term project that will involve a large number of stakeholders that will change throughout the project. What will be the most useful tool for identifying stakeholders for this project?

prioritization

96. The variance on a critical path will have a direct and negative impact on what?

project end date

16. After the project charter is approved, a kick-off meeting is held. Six months into a project, the project team welcomes in new members and sets up a kick-off meeting. Three months later, a third kick-off meeting is held. One of the new team members asks why they are having a kick-off meeting after the project has been underway. What is the most-likely reason for a third kick-off meeting?

project is now entering a new phase

87. The quality assurance team is asking for updates on the quality checklists. The project team reviews the checklists and prepares the email according to the Communications Management Plan. They also need to send a more-extensive, customized presentation to a key stakeholder who needs quality information. These are all a part of what?

project reporting

102. Victor is reviewing his resource needs. He realizes that he will need to be careful about the project schedule as some equipment he needs is also needed by two other projects. All 3 projects reside within a matrix environment. One of the projects has already begun while the other two have just started. Along with the project resource calendars, what other documents would be useful to assist him in planning his projects resources?

project schedules for all three projects

56. One of the company's organizational process assets is a predetermined set of categories of risks for a given type of project. This aids a project team to generate ideas to identify risks. This is known as what?

prompt list

89. The quality management team has provided a list of organizational process assets that relate to quality. This includes bugs per line of code, quality improvements per release, and number of faults per number of tests. These are all example of what?

quality metrics

93. The team is completing the scope management plan. Which other plan will be developed along with this in the plan scope management process?

requirements management plan

44. In controlling resources, if a number of resources were recently replaced, which input document would the project manager best refer to, in order to identify these replaced resources?

resource breakdown structure

90. The resource management team is estimating the activity resources needed for the first iteration of agile project XYZ. They have the backlog, scope baseline and some other project documents. They are concerned about the amount of work that some key developers can do as those developers are also working on another project, called NMO. Where would be the best place to look when those developers are not dedicated to the other project?

resource calendar for NMO

98. There is a large, complex procurement being bid on by multiple sellers. There is a large technical portion of the project that needs to be reviewed in detail, in addition to a complex financial arrangement due to the contract lasting ten years. What would be the best approach on how to review the bids?

review technical section and then review the financial section

91. The risk management team is holding a meeting to prioritize the risks identified in the risk register. One risk would have a lot of impact on the project. However, when they research the risk, they discover that it is based on outdated information. As a result, they lower the probability of the risk to a lower category. What technique is the team using?

risk data quality assessment

77. The project manager and sponsor are discussing some key stakeholders' opposition to one aspect of the project. They do not understand why these stakeholders are very opposed to this one aspect when they are so supportive of the project as a whole. What tool would help them with this analysis?

root-cause analysis

63. Susan and her project team are working in the develop schedule process. They are reviewing the critical path, the availability of resources, and are looking at an activity that has a high risk for impacting the schedule. They are using what technique to develop the project schedule model?

schedule network analysis

115. While implementing a response to a risk, the project team is updating the risk register. They update the changes that have occurred and removed several items from the risk register that no longer apply due to the changes. They also need to consider new risks that may occur due to the implementation. What are these known as?

secondary risks

46. In planning resources, agile methods have given rise to a new type of team which does not have a centralized point of control. These are best known as what?

self-organizing teams

78. The project manager realizes his team has not worked together before. Since the planning process is being worked on by a different group, he focuses his attention on growing his team's skills, learning and development so that when they begin executing the project, they are well-prepared to do so. This type of leadership is known as what?

servant leadership

81. The project team is classifying various stakeholders according to their directions of influence. One of the stakeholders is a project manager working on a similar project. Both projects need to utilize a team of engineers and need to coordinate their activities. This other project manager would be classified in which way?

sideward

75. The procurement team is reviewing the procurement documentation. They have the bid documents but are not sure what other document would be most useful on evaluating the bids. Which document should be provided?

source selection criteria

14. After meeting with the people who will be using the project's deliverables, the project manager has updated the change requests. As a result, the end users also need to be updated when their requests are approved and implemented. Which document should be updated to reflect this new information?

stakeholder engagement plan

66. The Communications Management Plan has information on how communications are to be handled. However, in order to identify who needs a special risk report, the team should look at which document?

stakeholder register

70. The hospital is installing a new records system. The project manager has planned that the staff will start the new system on Friday to test it. Once the testing is complete, the old system will be turned off on Monday. This dependency is known as what?

start to finish

29. Due to conflicts on the team, the project manager has come to realize that team performance and morale is low. He will need to replace three members of his team. What is the next action he should take?

submit a change request

39. If a configuration diagram must be changed, what should be done?

submit a formal change request

7. A new software package is being developed. There are three teams involved: one to develop the user interface, one to develop the database and finally testing team. After an initial meeting of the team leaders, the individual teams write a list of values, communication guidelines, meeting rules and other guidelines for their own team. These are known as what?

team charters

92. The team has completed a couple of iterations on an agile project. They have been training and working on mentoring junior members. What tool would indicate an improvement of the team's cooperation and competencies?

team performance assessment

86. The project's critical path is a tool used in creating or controlling (revising) the project schedule. The critical path is determined by identifying the longest path through the network diagram. When a project is fast tracked the critical path could be impacted. How many critical paths can exist on a project?

there is no set number

54. On a large project, your team has been delayed by another activity. As a result, you have determined that you will need to bring in outside contractors to handle low priority work to free up critical time for your internal team. You have your selection criteria for what you need. What is the best contract type in this instance?

time and materials

True or False: Closed procurements is the first key output of the Control Procurements process.

true

124. You are contacted by a company which is looking for a PMP to lead a construction project. This is a requirement for them to take on the job. As a PMP, you are interested in the job, however, your background is in another field. What is your best course of action?

turn down the position

64. The change control board (CCB) just notified the project manager of a number of approved change requests and there were also a number of rejected change requests. What should the project manager do next?

update change log

79. The project manager, Joyce, of We-Do-Projects-Right, had a very intense discussion with Gary, a major stakeholder, who has high power and high interest on the project. Gary stated a number of concerns to Joyce that should be addressed and clearly Gary's attitude has changed, which is not good for the project. What should Joyce do first?

update the issue log

101. Verified deliverables are used an input in only one process. What is that process?

validate scope

111. Which process will formalize the acceptance of project deliverables?

validate scope

36. Harry and the quality assurance team are analyzing the root cause of a major problem. They want to use a tool to help them with this. What is the best tool to assist them in this work?

why-why diagram

11. A risk that had not been foreseen in planning risk management has happened. The team meets and decides that this is minor setback. They review the plan and find a risk that is similar and implement the response. This is best described as what?

work around

68. The Control Schedule process has four inputs: 1) Project Management Plan, 2) Project documents, 3) Organizational process assets. Which input would make the 4th input?

work performance data

123. Within the Monitoring and Controlling process group, an input item that will represent the status of deliverables and the implementation status of change requests is known as what?

work performance information

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Chapter 3: Environmental Toxicology

Chapter 50. Nursing Care of Patients With Peripheral Nervous System Disorders

Female Athlete Triad

Chapter 47: Nursing Care of the Child With an Alteration in Immunity/Immunologic Disorder

Psychology Exam IV Study Guide Ch. 12

Chapter 18

stress management chapters 18, 19, & 21

Fin 310 Part 2

CHAPTER 12 TEST

Principles of Marketing Quiz 2

Microsoft Access NEWEST 1

¿Qué actividades haces/te gusta hacer en la ciudad?

Air Pollution Quiz Questions

Chapter 1-5

Final 2

Life Insurance Policies - Quiz Questions & Answers

APUSH 13

Chapter 2: Health Education and Health Promotion - ML5 ~ NURSING 1

Lippincott: COPD, Asthma, Emphysema, RSV, Aspiration Pneumonia, TEF

Quiz 10