Pop QUIZ renal and GI

1. Which disorders or conditions are potential causes of acute liver failure? (Select all that apply.) a. Ischemia b. Hepatitis A, B, C, D, E, non-A, non-B, non-C c. Acetaminophen toxicity d. Wilson disease e. Reye syndrome f. Diabetes

ANS: A, B, C, D, E Diabetes is not a primary cause of acute liver failure but is associated with pancreatitis.

A patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has been started on continuous venovenous hemodialysis (CVVHD). The nurse understands that this type of continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) is indicated for the patient who needs what type of treatment? a. Fluid removal only b. Fluid removal and moderate solute removal c. Fluid removal and maximum solute removal d. Maximum fluid and solute removal

ANS: D Continuous venovenous hemodialysis (CVVHD) is indicated for patients who require large-volume removal of fluid and solutes.

Which diuretics maybe combined to work on different parts of the nephron? a. Loop and thiazide diuretics b. Loop and osmotic diuretics c. Osmotic and carbonic anhydrase inhibitor diuretics d. Thiazide and osmotic diuretics

ANS: A A thiazide diuretic such as chlorothiazide (Diuril) or metolazone (Zaroxolyn) may be administered and followed by a loop diuretic to take advantage of the fact that these medications work on different parts of the nephron. Sometimes a thiazide diuretic is added to a loop diuretic to compensate for the development of loop diuretic resistance.

What is the dose for low-dose dopamine? a. 1 to 2 mcg/kg/min b. 1 to 2 mg/kg/min c. 2 to 3 mcg/kg/min d. 2 to 3 mg/kg/min

ANS: C Low-dose dopamine (2 to 3 mcg/kg/min), previously known as renal-dose dopamine, is frequently infused to stimulate blood flow to the kidney. Dopamine is effective in increasing urine output in the short term, but tolerance of the dopamine renal receptor to the medication is theorized to develop in the critically ill patients who are most at risk for acute kidney injury.

How would you administer sucralfate through an G tube? a. Crushed and mixed with 10 mL of water b. Dissolved in 10 mL of water to form a slurry c. Mixed in 15 mL of water to form a solution d. Administered as a whole pill with a 35-mL water flush

ANS: B Sucralfate should not be crushed but may be dissolved in 10 mL of water to form a slurry. It is also available as a suspension.

Which medication is classified as a loop diuretic? a. Acetazolamide b. Furosemide c. Mannitol d. Metolazone

ANS: B Loop diuretics include furosemide, bumetanide, and torsemide. Furosemide is the most frequently used diuretic in critical care patients. It may be administered orally, as an intravenous (IV) bolus, or as a continuous IV infusion. Diamox is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor diuretic. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic, and metolazone is a thiazide diuretic.

An older patient reports taking cimetidine for several years. The nurse knows that this medication can cause central nervous system side effects. For what side effect would the nurse monitor the patient? a. Tremors b. Dizziness c. Confusion d. Hallucinations

ANS: C Side effects of histamine antagonists include central nervous system (CNS) toxicity (confusion or delirium) and thrombocytopenia.

Laboratory results come back on a newly admitted patient: Serum blood urea nitrogen, 64 mg/dL; serum creatinine, 2.4 mg/dL; urine osmolality, 210 mOsm/kg; specific gravity, 1.002; and urine sodium, 96 mEq/L. The patient's urine output has been 120 mL since admission 2 hours ago. These values are most consistent with which diagnosis? a. Prerenal acute kidney injury b. Postrenal acute kidney injury c. Oliguric acute kidney injury d. Intrarenal acute kidney injury

ANS: D Urinary sodium less than 10 mEq/L (low) suggests a prerenal condition. Urinary sodium greater than 40 mEq/L (in the presence of an elevated serum creatinine and the absence of a high salt load) suggests intrarenal damage has occurred. The urine output does not seem to suggest oliguria. The other options do not fit the data as presented.

A patient with acute kidney injury has a potassium level of 6.9 mg/dL. The patient has had no urine output in the past 4 hours despite administration of Lasix 40 mg intravenous push. To correct the hyperkalemia the patient is given 50 mL of 50% dextrose in water and 10 U of regular insulin intravenous push. A repeat potassium level 2 hours later shows a potassium level of 4.5 mg/dL. What order would the nurse expect now? a. Sodium Kayexalate 15 g PO b. Nothing; this represents a normal potassium level c. Lasix 40 mg IVP d. 0.9% normal saline at 125 mL/h

ANS: A Acute hyperkalemia can be treated temporarily by intravenous (IV) administration of insulin and glucose. An infusion of 50 mL of 50% dextrose accompanied by 10 units of regular insulin forces potassium out of the serum and into the cells. However, the potassium was not eliminated from the body; it was simply shifted intracellularly. Soon the potassium will return to the bloodstream, and the Kayexalate will help permanently remove it from the body. Lasix is not expected to work in the presence of anuria. The patient's vital signs do not support hypovolemia. In the presence of anuria, a large fluid infusion can precipitate acute heart failure.

A patient with a history of chronic alcoholism was admitted with acute pancreatitis. What intervention would the nurse include in the patient's plan of care? a. Monitor the patient for hypovolemic shock from plasma volume depletion. b. Observe the patient for hypoglycemia and hypercalcemia. c. Initiate enteral feedings after the nasogastric tube is placed. d. Place the patient on a fluid restriction to avoid the fluid sequestration.

ANS: A Because pancreatitis is often associated with massive fluid shifts, intravenous crystalloids and colloids are administered immediately to prevent hypovolemic shock and maintain hemodynamic stability. Electrolytes are monitored closely, and abnormalities such as hypocalcemia, hypokalemia, and hypomagnesemia are corrected. If hyperglycemia develops, exogenous insulin may be required.

A patient is admitted with a gastrointestinal hemorrhage due to esophagogastric varices. The nurse knows that varices are caused by which pathophysiologic mechanism? a. Portal hypertension resulting in diversion of blood from a high-pressure area to a low-pressure area b. Superficial mucosal erosions as a result of increased stress levels c. Loss of protective mechanisms resulting in the breakdown the mucosal resistance d. Inflammation and ulceration secondary to nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug use

ANS: A Esophagogastric varices are engorged and distended blood vessels of the esophagus and proximal stomach that develop as a result of portal hypertension secondary to hepatic cirrhosis, a chronic disease of the liver that results in damage to the liver sinusoids. Without adequate sinusoid function, resistance to portal blood flow is increased, and pressures within the liver are elevated. This leads to a rise in portal venous pressure (portal hypertension), causing collateral circulation to divert portal blood from areas of high pressure within the liver to adjacent areas of low pressure outside the liver, such as into the veins of the esophagus, spleen, intestines, and stomach.

A patient who receives peritoneal dialysis is admitted after a 3-day history of flu-like symptoms. The patient reports muscle cramps and is noted to have a low blood pressure and tachycardia. The nurse suspects the patient may be experiencing what condition? a. Dehydration b. Peritonitis c. Fluid obstruction d. Hernias

ANS: A This patient has dehydration. This patient is showing signs and symptoms of muscle cramps and low blood pressure.

To remove fluid during hemodialysis, a positive hydrostatic pressure is applied to the blood and a negative hydrostatic pressure is applied to the dialysate bath. What is this process called? a. Ultrafiltration b. Hemodialysis c. Reverse osmosis d. Colloid extraction

ANS: A To remove fluid, a positive hydrostatic pressure is applied to the blood, and a negative hydrostatic pressure is applied to the dialysate bath. The two forces together, called transmembrane pressure, pull and squeeze the excess fluid from the blood. The difference between the two values (expressed in millimeters of mercury [mm Hg]) represents the transmembrane pressure and results in fluid extraction, known as ultrafiltration, from the vascular space.

A patient has been admitted with pancreatitis. Which clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to observe in support of this diagnosis? (Select all that apply.) a. Epigastric and abdominal pain b. Nausea and vomiting c. Diaphoresis d. Jaundice e. Hyperactive bowel sounds f. Fever

ANS: A, B, D, F Clinical manifestations of acute pancreatitis include pain, vomiting, nausea, fever, abdominal distention, abdominal guarding, abdominal tympany, hypoactive or absent bowel sounds, severe disease, peritoneal signs, ascites, jaundice, palpable abdominal mass, Grey-Turner sign, Cullen sign, and signs of hypovolemic shock. There may be peritonitis involved with pancreatitis and percussion will reveal a tympanic abdomen; bowel sounds will be decreased or absent.

A patient was admitted with an infection that had to be treated with an amino glycoside antibiotic. After a few days the patient developed oliguria and elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels. The patient's vital signs are stable. The nurse would anticipate the practitioner ordering which dialysis method for this patient? a. Peritoneal dialysis b. Hemodialysis c. Continuous renal replacement therapy d. Intermittent ultrafiltration

ANS: B As a treatment, hemodialysis separates and removes from the blood excess electrolytes, fluids, and toxins by means of a hemodialyzer. Hemodialysis would be the first choice for managing this patient with medication toxicity.

A patient with a history of chronic alcoholism was admitted with acute pancreatitis. The nurse is developing a patient education plan. Which topic would the nurse include in the plan? a. Diabetes management b. Alcohol cessation c. Occult blood testing d. Anticoagulation management

ANS: B As the patient moves toward discharge, teaching should focus on the interventions necessary for preventing the recurrence of the precipitating disorder. If an alcohol abuser, the patient should be encouraged to stop drinking and be referred to an alcohol cessation program.

The practitioner has ordered continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) for a patient with acute kidney injury. The patient needs both the removal of fluids and a moderate amount of solutes. Which type of CRRT would the nurse anticipate being started on this patient? a. Slow continuous ultrafiltration (SCUF) b. Continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH) c. Continuous venovenous hemodialysis (CVVHD) d. Continuous venovenous hemodiafiltration (CVVHDF)

ANS: B Continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH) is indicated when the patient's clinical condition warrants removal of significant volumes of fluid and solutes. Fluid is removed by ultrafiltration in volumes of 5 to 20 mL/min or up to 7 to 30 L/24 h. Removal of solutes such as urea, creatinine, and other small non-protein-bound toxins is accomplished by convection.

A patient was admitted with severe epigastric pain and has been diagnosed with cancer. The patient is scheduled for an esophagectomy. The patient asks about the procedure. What would be an appropriate response from the nurse? a. "This procedure is usually performed for cancer of the proximal esophagus and gastroesophageal junction." b. "This procedure is usually performed for cancer of the distal esophagus and gastroesophageal junction." c. "This procedure is usually performed for cancer of the pancreatic head." d. "The procedure is usually performed for varices of the distal esophagus and gastroesophageal junction."

ANS: B Esophagectomy is usually performed for cancer of the distal esophagus and gastroesophageal junction.

A patient with chronic kidney disease was admitted with severe electrolyte disturbances. The patient had been ill and missed several hemodialysis sessions. The patient is disoriented, dizzy, cold, clammy, and complains of severe abdominal cramping. The patient's electrocardiogram appears normal. Which electrolyte disturbance would the nurse suspect the patient may be experiencing? a. Hyponatremia b. Hypokalemia c. Hypercalcemia d. Hypochloremia

ANS: B Hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, hyponatremia, hyperphosphatemia, and acid-base imbalances occur in kidney disease. Signs of hyponatremia include disorientation, muscle twitching, nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, headaches, dizziness, cold, clammy skin, tachycardia, and seizures.

A patient is admitted with a gastrointestinal hemorrhage due to esophagogastric varices. What medication would the nurse expect the practitioner to order for this patient? a. Histamine2 (H2) antagonists b. V asopressin c. Heparin d. Antacids

ANS: B In acute variceal hemorrhage, control of bleeding can be accomplished through the use of pharmacologic agents. Intravenous vasopressin, somatostatin, and octreotide have been shown to reduce portal venous pressure and slow variceal hemorrhaging by constricting the splanchnic arteriolar bed. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Applying REF: p. 684

The nurse is caring for a patient after an esophagectomy. In the immediate postoperative period, which nursing intervention would have the highest priority? a. Preventing atelectasis b. Managing pain c. Promoting ambulation d. Preventing infection

ANS: B It is imperative to appropriately manage the patient's pain after gastrointestinal (GI) surgery. Adequate analgesia is necessary to promote the mobility of the patient and decrease pulmonary complications. Initial pain management may be accomplished by intravenous opioid (morphine, hydromorphone) administration by means of a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump or through continuous epidural infusion of an opioid and local anesthetic (bupivacaine).

A patient with acute pancreatitis is complaining of a pain in the left upper quadrant. Using a 1- to 10-point pain scale, the patient states the current level is at an 8. What intervention would the nurse include in the patient's plan of care to facilitate pain control? a. Administer analgesics only as needed. b. Administer analgesics around the clock. c. Educate the patient and family on lifestyle changes. d. Teach relaxation and distraction techniques.

ANS: B Pain management is a major priority in acute pancreatitis. Administration of around-the-clock analgesics to achieve pain relief is essential. Morphine, fentanyl, and hydromorphone are the commonly used narcotics for pain control. Relaxation techniques and the knee-chest position can also assist in pain control. However, the patient's pain needs to be addressed first.

A patient is admitted with an upper gastrointestinal bleed. Which disorder is the leading cause of upper gastrointestinal (GI) hemorrhage? a. Stress ulcers b. Peptic ulcers c. Nonspecific erosive gastritis d. Esophageal varices

ANS: B Peptic ulcer disease (gastric and duodenal ulcers), resulting from the breakdown of the gastro mucosal lining, is the leading cause of upper gastrointestinal (GI) hemorrhage, accounting for approximately 21% of cases.

A patient has developed acute kidney injury (AKI) secondary to hemorrhage shock. Which intravenous solution would the nurse expect to be ordered for this patient? a. Dextrose in water b. Normal saline c. Albumin d. Lactated Ringer solution

ANS: B Prerenal acute kidney injury (AKI) is caused by decreased perfusion and flow to the kidney. It is often associated with trauma, hemorrhage, hypotension, and major fluid losses. If contrast dye is used, aggressive fluid resuscitation with normal saline is recommended.

Which nursing intervention is a priority for a patient with gastrointestinal hemorrhage? a. Positioning the patient in a high-Fowler position b. Ensuring the patient has a patent airway c. Irrigating the nasogastric tube with iced saline d. Maintaining venous access so that fluids and blood can be administered

ANS: B Priorities in the medical management of a patient with gastrointestinal hemorrhage include airway protection, fluid resuscitation to achieve hemodynamic stability, correction of comorbid conditions (eg, coagulopathy), therapeutic procedures to control or stop bleeding, and diagnostic procedures to determine the exact cause of the bleeding.

A patient has developed acute kidney injury (AKI) secondary to cardiogenic shock. Which laboratory value would the nurse find helpful in evaluating patient's renal status? a. Serum sodium b. Serum creatinine c. Serum potassium d. Urine potassium

ANS: B Serum creatinine is the most reliable predictor of kidney function. In the acutely ill patient, small changes in the serum creatinine level and urine output may signal important declines in the glomerular filtration rate and kidney function.

What is the most common site for short-term vascular access for immediate hemodialysis? a. Subclavian artery b. Subclavian vein c. Femoral artery d. Radial vein

ANS: B Subclavian and femoral veins are catheterized when short-term access is required or when a graft or fistula vascular access is nonfunctional in a patient requiring immediate hemodialysis. Subclavian and femoral catheters are routinely inserted at the bedside. Most temporary catheters are venous lines only. Blood flows out toward the dialyzer and flows back to the patient through the same catheterized vein. A dual-lumen venous catheter is most commonly used.

A patient was admitted with acute liver failure. The patient is lethargic, confused, and has marked asterixis. The nurse suspects the patient is in what stage of hepatic encephalopathy. a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4

ANS: B The patient is in Stage 2 hepatic encephalopathy as evidenced by lethargy, moderate confusion, marked asterixis, and abnormal electroencephalography (EEG).

An alert and oriented patient presents with a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) of 4 mm Hg, blood pressure of 88/50 mm Hg, cardiac index of 1.8, and urine output of 15 mL/h. The patient's blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is 44 mg/dL and creatinine is 3.2 mg/dL. Lungs are clear to auscultation with no peripheral edema noted. Which treatment would the nurse expect the practitioner to order? a. Lasix 40 mg intravenous push b. 0.9% normal saline at 125 mL/h c. Dopamine 15 mcg/kg/min d. Transfuse 1 U of packed red blood cells

ANS: B The patient's hemodynamic parameters are most consistent with hypovolemia. The acute kidney injury would probably be prerenal from inadequate blood flow. The treatment of choice for hypovolemia is fluid resuscitation. Important criteria when calculating fluid volume replacement include baseline metabolism, environmental temperature, and humidity. The rate of replacement depends on cardiopulmonary reserve, adequacy of kidney function, urine output, fluid balance, ongoing loss, and type of fluid replaced.

What is the recommended nutritional intake of protein to control azotemia in the patient with acute kidney injury? a. 0.5 to 1.0 g/kg/day b. 1.2 to 1.5 g/kg/day c. 1.7 to 2.5 g/kg/day d. 2.5 to 3.5 g/kg/day

ANS: B The recommended energy intake is between 20 and 30 kcal/kg/day, with 1.2 to 1.5 g/kg of protein per day to control azotemia (increased blood urea nitrogen level).

A pt has been admitted with acute liver failure. Which intervention(s) would the nurse expect as a part of inter professional collaborative plan? (Select all that apply) a. Benzodiazepines for agitation b. Pulse oximetry and serial arterial blood gas measurements c. Insulin drip for hyperglycemia and hyperkalemia d. Monitoring electrolyte blood levels e. Assessing for signs of cerebral edema

ANS: B, D, E The patient may experience a variety of other complications, including cerebral edema, cardiac dysrhythmias, acute respiratory failure, sepsis, and acute kidney injury. Cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure develop as a result of breakdown of the blood-brain barrier and astrocyte swelling. Circulatory failure that mimics sepsis is common in acute liver failure and may exacerbate low cerebral perfusion pressure. Hypoxemia, acidosis, electrolyte imbalances, and cerebral edema can precipitate the development of cardiac dysrhythmias. Acute respiratory failure, progressing to acute respiratory distress syndrome, intrapulmonary shunting, ventilation-perfusion mismatch, sepsis, and aspiration may be attributed to the universal arterial hypoxemia.

An elderly patient is in a motor vehicle accident and sustains a significant internal hemorrhage. The nurse knows the patient is at risk for developing what type of acute kidney injury (AKI)? a. Intrinsic b. Postrenal c. Prerenal d. Infrarenal

ANS: C Any condition that decreases blood flow, blood pressure, or kidney perfusion before arterial blood reaches the renal artery that supplies the kidney may be anatomically described as prerenal acute kidney injury (AKI). When arterial hypoperfusion caused by low cardiac output, hemorrhage, vasodilation, thrombosis, or other cause reduces the blood flow to the kidney, glomerular filtration decreases, and consequently urine output decreases. Any condition that produces an ischemic or toxic insult directly at parenchymal nephron tissue places the patient at risk for development of intrarenal AKI. Any obstruction that hinders the flow of urine from beyond the kidney through the remainder of the urinary tract may lead to postrenal AKI.

A patient was admitted after a Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (RYGBP). A nursing student asks the nurse what type of surgery an RYGBP is. What would be an appropriate response from the nurse? a. "It is an esophagectomy performed using the transthoracic approach." b. "It is an esophagectomy performed using a transhiatal approach." c. "It is a combination of restrictive and malabsorption types of bariatric surgery." d. "It is a standard operation for pancreatic cancer."

ANS: C Bariatric procedures are divided into three broad types: (1) restrictive, (2) malabsorptive, and (3) combined restrictive and malabsorptive. The Roux-en-Y gastric bypass combines both strategies by creating a small gastric pouch and anastomosing the jejunum to the pouch. Food then bypasses the lower stomach and duodenum, resulting in decreased absorption of digestive materials. The standard operation for pancreatic cancer is a pancreaticoduodenectomy, also called the Whipple procedure.

A patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has been started on continuous venovenous hemodiafiltration (CVVHDF). The nurse understands the patient should be closely monitored for what circuit-related complications of the therapy? a. Hypervolemia, hypothermia, and hyperkalemia b. Access dislodgment, decreased outflow pressures, and bleeding c. Filter clotting, access failure, and air embolism d. Increased overflow pressure, dehydration, and calcium loss

ANS: C Circuit-related complications of continuous renal replacement therapy include air embolism, clotted hemofilter, poor ultrafiltration, blood leaks, broken filter, disconnection, access failure, and catheter dislodgment

A patient was admitted with acute pancreatitis. The nurse understands that pancreatitis occurs as a result of what pathophysiologic mechanism? a. Uncontrolled hypoglycemia caused by an increased release of insulin b. Loss of storage capacity for senescent red blood cells c. Premature activation of inactive digestive enzymes, resulting in autodigestion d. Release of glycogen into the serum, resulting in hyperglycemia

ANS: C In acute pancreatitis, the normally inactive digestive enzymes become prematurely activated within the pancreas itself, creating the central pathophysiologic mechanism of acute pancreatitis, namely autodigestion.

A patient with chronic kidney disease receives hemodialysis treatments 3 days a week. Every 2 weeks, the patient requires a transfusion of 1 or 2 U of packed red blood cells. What is the probable reason for this patient's frequent transfusion needs? a. Too much blood phlebotomized for tests b. Increased destruction of red blood cells because of the increased toxin levels c. Lack of production of erythropoietin to stimulate red blood cell formation d. Hemodilution secondary to fluid retention

ANS: C In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys do not produce sufficient amounts of erythropoietin in response to normal stimuli such as anemia or hypotension. The other choices are not reasons for frequent blood transfusions in this patient.

The nurse is caring for a patient with acute liver failure. The patient has elevated ammonia levels. Which medication would the nurse expect the practitioner to order for this patient? a. Insulin b. Vitamin K c. Lactulose d. Lorazepam

ANS: C Lactulose, a synthetic ketoanalogue of lactose split into lactic acid and acetic acid in the intestine, is given orally through a nasogastric tube or as a retention enema. The result is the creation of an acidic environment that results in ammonia being drawn out of the portal circulation. Lactulose has a laxative effect that promotes expulsion. Vitamin K is used to help control bleeding. Insulin would be given to control hyperglycemia. Use of benzodiazepines and other sedatives is discouraged in a patient with acute liver failure because pertinent neurologic changes may be masked, and hepatic encephalopathy may be exacerbated.

A patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has been started on continuous venovenous hemodialysis (CVVHD). The nurse understands the patient should be closely monitored for what patient-related complications of the therapy? a. Air embolism, access failure, and blood leaks b. Decreased inflow pressure, air bubbles, and power surge c. Infection, hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances d. Catheter dislodgement, decreased outflow pressure, and acid-base imbalances

ANS: C Patient-related complications of continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) include dehydration, hypotension, electrolyte imbalances, acid-base imbalances, blood loss, hemorrhage, hypotension, and infection.

A Salem sump nasogastric tube has two lumens. The first lumen is for suction and drainage. What is the purpose of the second lumen? a. Allows for administration of tube feeding b. Allows for testing of gastric secretions c. Prevents the tube from adhering to the gastric wall d. Prevents the tube from advancing

ANS: C The Salem sump has one lumen that is used for suction and drainage and another that allows air to enter the patient's stomach and prevents the tube from adhering to the gastric wall and damaging the mucosa.

To assess whether or not an arteriovenous fistula is functioning, what must the nurse do and why? a. Palpate the quality of the pulse distal to the site to determine whether a thrill is present; auscultate with a stethoscope to appreciate a bruit to assess the quality of the blood flow. b. Palpate the quality of the pulse proximal to the site to determine whether a thrill is present; auscultate with a stethoscope to appreciate a bruit to assess the quality of the blood flow. c. Palpate gently over the site of the fistula to determine whether a thrill is present; listen with a stethoscope over this site to appreciate a bruit to assess the quality of the blood flow. d. Palpate over the site of the fistula to determine whether a thrill is present; check whether the extremity is pink and warm.

ANS: C The nurse frequently assesses the quality of blood flow through the fistula. A patent fistula has a thrill when palpated gently with the fingers and a bruit when auscultated with a stethoscope. The extremity should be pink and warm to the touch. No blood pressure measurements, intravenous infusions, or laboratory phlebotomy is performed on the arm with the fistula.

A patient is admitted with sepsis and acute kidney injury (AKI). The patient is started on continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT). The nurse knows that fluid that is removed each hour is charted as what on the CRRT flowsheet? a. Convection b. Diffusion c. Replacement fluid d. Ultrafiltrate

ANS: D The fluid that is removed each hour is not called urine; it is known as ultrafiltrate. Typically, some of the ultrafiltrate is replaced through the continuous renal replacement therapy circuit by a sterile replacement fluid. Diffusion is the movement of solutes along a concentration gradient from a high concentration to a low concentration across a semipermeable membrane. Convection occurs when a pressure gradient is set up so that the water is pushed or pumped across the dialysis filter and carries the solutes from the bloodstream with it.

A patient is admitted with a severe head injury. The nurse knows that critically ill patients are at risk for gastrointestinal hemorrhage due to stress-related mucosal disease. The nurse would monitor the patient for which signs and symptoms? a. Metabolic acidosis and hypovolemia b. Decreasing hemoglobin and hematocrit c. Hyperkalemia and hypernatremia d. Hematemesis and melena

ANS: D The initial clinical presentation of the patient with acute gastrointestinal (GI) hemorrhage is that of a patient in hypovolemic shock; the clinical presentation depends on the amount of blood lost. Hematemesis (bright red or brown, coffee grounds emesis), hematochezia (bright red stools), and melena (black, tarry, or dark red stools) are the hallmarks of GI hemorrhage.

Blood studies for hepatic failure:

LFT (high) ALT ( high) AST Bilirubin Alkaline phosphate Albumin Glucose BUN and Creat

Meds for PUD:

Antacids, H2 receptor agonists, PPI, prostaglandin analogs (cytotec), Sucralfate

LABS for acute pancreatitis:

amalyse (high) lipase (will be high) CBC (leukocytosis) triglycerides LFTs hyperkalemia

Meds for hepatic failure:

-sedatives -H2 blockers -sucralfate -dextrose

Most common cause of Upper GI bleeding and why?

Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD) Why: H Pylori and NSAID cause them most of the time.

NURSING INTERVENTIONS for acute pancreatitis (top 4):

1. aggressive fluid resuscitation 2. support ventilation and oxygenation 3. correct electrolyte and metabolic imbalances 4. pain control

A patient has been admitted with severe abdominal pain. When examining the patient, the nurse notes hypoactive bowel sounds, abdominal guarding, distention, and a discoloration around the umbilicus. The nurse suspects the patient may have which condition? a. Peptic ulcer disease b. Esophageal varices c. Acute liver failure d. Acute pancreatitis

ANS: D The results of physical assessment of a patient with pancreatitis usually reveal hypoactive bowel sounds and abdominal tenderness, guarding, distention, and tympany. Findings that may indicate pancreatic hemorrhage include Grey Turner sign (gray-blue discoloration of the flanks) and Cullen sign (discoloration of the umbilical region); however, they are rare and usually seen several days into the illness.

A patient is admitted with the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. The nurse expects which laboratory values to be elevated? (Select all that apply.) a. Calcium b. Serum amylase c. Serum glucose d. Potassium e. White blood cells f. Serum triglycerides

ANS: B, C, E, F Calcium and potassium decrease with acute pancreatitis.

A patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has been started on continuous venovenous hemodialysis (CVVHD). The nurse knows the hemodialyzer filter used in this type of therapy is permeable to what substance? a. Electrolytes b. Red blood cells c. Protein d. Lipids

ANS: A A continuous venovenous hemodialysis filter is permeable to solutes such as urea, creatinine, uric acid, sodium, potassium, ionized calcium, and drugs not bound by proteins.

The nurse is caring for a patient after an esophagectomy. The nurse knows the patient is at risk for an anastomotic leak. Which finding would indicate this occurrence? a. Crackles in the lung bases b. Subcutaneous emphysema c. Incisional bleeding d. Absent of bowel sounds

ANS: B The clinical signs and symptoms include tachycardia, tachypnea, fever, abdominal pain, anxiety, and restlessness. In a patient who had an esophagectomy, a leak of the esophageal anastomosis may manifest as subcutaneous emphysema in the chest and neck.

The practitioner has ordered dialysis for a patient with acute heart failure who is unresponsive to diuretics. Which type of dialysis would the nurse anticipate being started on this patient? a. Intermittent ultrafiltration b. Continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH) c. Continuous venovenous hemodialysis (CVVHD) d. Continuous venovenous hemodiafiltration (CVVHDF)

ANS: A Intermittent ultrafiltration using a peripheral venous catheter is more likely to be used to remove excess volume from patients with acute decompensated heart failure when the kidneys are unresponsive to diuretics.

24. A patient is admitted with acute kidney injury (AKI). Which event from the patient's history was the most probable cause of the patient's AKI? a. Recent computed tomography of the brain with and without contrast b. Recent bout of acute heart failure after an acute myocardial infarction c. Twice-daily prescription of Lasix 40 mg by mouth d. Recent bout of benign prostatic hypertrophy and transurethral resection of the prostate

ANS: A Intravenous contrast media can be nephrotoxic, especially with the patient's preexisting cardiac disease. The other choices, although possible causes, are less likely than the intravenous contrast media.

1. A patient is admitted with respiratory failure and is being mechanically ventilated. The nurse understands there is a significant association between acute kidney injury and respiratory failure. How does mechanical ventilation alter kidney function? (Select all that apply.) a. Decreases blood flow to the kidney b. Decreases glomerular filtration rate (GFR) c. Damages the kidney tubular endothelium d. Decreases urine output e. Hinders flow of urine from the kidneys

ANS: A, B, D Mechanical ventilation can alter kidney function. Positive-pressure ventilation reduces blood flow to the kidney, lowers the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), and decreases urine output. These effects are intensified with the addition of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP).

The nursing management plan for the patient with a urinary drainage catheter would include which interventions to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)? (Select all that apply.) a. Insert urinary catheters using aseptic techniques. b. Change the urinary catheter daily. c. Review the need for the urinary catheter daily and remove promptly. d. Flush the urinary catheter q8 hours to maintain patency. e. Avoid unnecessary use of indwelling urinary catheters.

ANS: A, C, E The key components of catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI) prevention are to avoid unnecessary use of urinary catheters, insert urinary catheters using aseptic technique, adopt evidence- based standards for maintenance of urinary catheters, review the need for the urinary catheter daily, and remove the catheter promptly. PTS: OBJ: MSC: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: pp. 637-638|Box 26-3 Nursing Process Step: Intervention TOP: Renal NCLEX: Physiologic Integrity

A patient was admitted with an infection that had to be treated with gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic. After 3 days of administration, the patient developed oliguria, and an elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels. The nurse suspects the patient has developed what type of kidney injury? a. Prerenal b. Intrarenal c. Anuric d. Postrenal

ANS: B Any condition that produces an ischemic or toxic insult directly at parenchymal nephron tissue places the patient at risk for development of intrarenal. Ischemic damage may be caused by prolonged hypotension or low cardiac output. Toxic injury reaction may occur in response to substances that damage the kidney tubular endothelium, such as some antimicrobial medications and the contrast dye used in radiologic diagnostic studies.

A patient is admitted with a gastrointestinal hemorrhage due to esophagogastric varices. The patient has been started on a vasopressin drip. The nurse would monitor the patient for which side effect of the medication? a. Constipation b. Diarrhea c. Chest pain d. Bleeding

ANS: C A major side effect of the medication is systemic vasoconstriction, which can result in cardiac ischemia, chest pain, hypertension, acute heart failure, dysrhythmias, phlebitis, bowel ischemia, and cerebrovascular accident. These side effects can be offset with concurrent administration of nitroglycerin. Other complications include bradycardia and fluid retention.

A patient was admitted with liver failure and acute kidney injury (AKI). Which intravenous solution should the nurse question if it were ordered for this patient? a. D5W b. 0.9% NaCl c. Lactated Ringer solution d. 0.45% NaCl

ANS: C Lactated Ringer solution is contraindicated for patients with kidney or liver diseases or in lactic acidosis.

The nurse is caring for a patient with acute liver failure. The practitioner asks the nurse to assess the patient for asterixis. How should the nurse assess for this symptom? a. Inflate a blood pressure cuff on the patient's arm. b. Have the patient bring the knees to the chest. c. Have the patient extend the arms and dorsiflex the wrists. d. Dorsiflex the patient's foot.

ANS: C The patient should be evaluated for the presence of asterixis, or "liver flap," best described as the inability to voluntarily sustain a fixed position of the extremities. Asterixis is best recognized by downward flapping of the hands when the patient extends the arms and dorsiflexes the wrists.

4. One therapeutic measure for treating hyperkalemia is the administration of dextrose and regular insulin. Which statement regarding how this treatment works is accurate? a. Glucose and insulin force potassium out of the cells, lowering it on a cellular level. b. Glucose and insulin promote higher excretion of potassium in the urine. c. Glucose and insulin bind with potassium, lowering available amounts. d. Glucose and insulin force potassium into the cells, lowering it on a serum level.

ANS: D Acute hyperkalemia can be treated temporarily by intravenous administration of insulin and glucose. An infusion of 50 mL of 50% dextrose accompanied by 10 units of regular insulin forces potassium out of the serum and into the cells.