PrepU

A client with quadriplegia is in spinal shock. What finding should the nurse expect? Absence of reflexes along with flaccid extremities Positive Babinski's reflex along with spastic extremities Hyperreflexia along with spastic extremities Spasticity of all four extremities

Absence of reflexes along with flaccid extremities During the period immediately following a spinal cord injury, spinal shock occurs. In spinal shock, all reflexes are absent and the extremities are flaccid. When spinal shock subsides, the client will demonstrate positive Babinski's reflex, hyperreflexia, and spasticity of all four extremities.

Which are characteristics of autonomic dysreflexia? severe hypertension, slow heart rate, pounding headache, sweating severe hypotension, tachycardia, nausea, flushed skin severe hypertension, tachycardia, blurred vision, dry skin severe hypotension, slow heart rate, anxiety, dry skin

severe hypertension, slow heart rate, pounding headache, sweating Autonomic dysreflexia is an exaggerated sympathetic nervous system response. Hypertension, tachycardia, bradycardia, and flushed skin would occur.

When the nurse observes that the patient has extension and external rotation of the arms and wrists, and extension, plantar flexion, and internal rotation of the feet, she records the patient's posturing as which of the following? Decerebrate Normal Flaccid Decorticate

Decerebrate Decerebrate posturing is the result of lesions at the midbrain and is more ominous than decorticate posturing. The described posturing results from cerebral trauma and is not normal. The patient has no motor function, is limp, and lacks motor tone with flaccid posturing. In decorticate posturing, the patient has flexion and internal rotation of the arms and wrists and extension, internal rotation, and plantar flexion of the feet.

A client with a spinal cord injury is to receive Lovenox (enoxaparin) 50 mg subcutaneously twice a day. The medication is supplied in vials containing 80 mg per 0.8 mL. How many mL will constitute the correct dose? Enter the correct number ONLY.

0.5 (50 mg/80 mg) X 0.8 mL = 0.5 mL.

The earliest sign of serious impairment of brain circulation related to increased ICP is: A bounding pulse. Bradycardia. Hypertension. A change in consciousness.

A change in consciousness. The earliest sign of increasing ICP is a change in the LOC. Any changes in LOC should be reported immediately.

The nurse reviews the physician's emergency department progress notes for the client who sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed the Battle sign. The nurse knows that the physician observed which clinical manifestation? A bloodstain surrounded by a yellowish stain on the head dressing An area of bruising over the mastoid bone Escape of cerebrospinal fluid from the client's ear Escape of cerebrospinal fluid from the client's nose

An area of bruising over the mastoid bone Battle sign may indicate a skull fracture. A bloodstain surrounded by a yellowish stain on the head dressing is referred to as a halo sign and is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. Escape of CSF from the client's ear is termed otorrhea. Escape of CSF from the client's nose is termed rhinorrhea.

A patient sustained a head trauma in a diving accident and has a cerebral hemorrhage located within the brain. What type of hematoma is this classified as? An epidural hematoma An extradural hematoma An intracerebral hematoma A subdural hematoma

An intracerebral hematoma Intracerebral hemorrhage (hematoma) is bleeding within the brain, into the parenchyma of the brain. It is commonly seen in head injuries when force is exerted to the head over a small area (e.g., missile injuries, bullet wounds, stab injuries). A subdural hematoma (SDH) is a collection of blood between the dura and the brain, a space normally occupied by a thin cushion of cerebrospinal fluid. After a head injury, blood may collect in the epidural (extradural) space between the skull and the dura.

The nurse is caring for a client who has sustained a spinal cord injury (SCI) at C5 and has developed a paralytic ileus. The nurse will prepare the client for which of the following procedures? Insertion of a nasogastric tube A large volume enema Digital stimulation Bowel surgery

Insertion of a nasogastric tube Immediately after a SCI, a paralytic ileus usually develops. A nasogastric tube is often required to relieve distention and to prevent vomiting and aspiration. An enema and digital stimulation will not relieve a paralytic ileus. Bowel surgery is not necessary.

A patient comes to the emergency department with a large scalp laceration after being struck in the head with a glass bottle. After assessment of the patient, what does the nurse do before the physician sutures the wound? Irrigates the wound to remove debris Administers an oral analgesic for pain Administers acetaminophen (Tylenol) for headache Shaves the hair around the wound

Irrigates the wound to remove debris Scalp wounds are potential portals of entry for organisms that cause intracranial infections. Therefore, the area is irrigated before the laceration is sutured to remove foreign material and to reduce the risk for infection.

A client presents to the emergency department stating numbness and tingling occurring down the left leg into the left foot. When documenting the experience, which medical terminology would the nurse be most correct to report? Sciatic nerve pain Herniation Paresthesia Paralysis

Paresthesia When a client reports numbness and tingling in an area, he is reporting a paresthesia. The nurse would document the experience as such or place the client's words in parentheses. The nurse would not make a medical diagnosis of sciatic nerve pain or herniation. The symptoms are not consistent with paralysis.

Which of the following are the immediate complications of spinal cord injury? Respiratory arrest Tetraplegia Spinal shock Paraplegia Autonomic dysreflexia

Respiratory arrest Spinal shock Respiratory arrest and spinal shock are the immediate complications of spinal cord injury. Tetraplegia is paralysis of all extremities when there is a high cervical spine injury. Paraplegia occurs with injuries at the thoracic level. Autonomic dysreflexia is a long-term complication of spinal cord injury.

Which term refers to muscular hypertonicity in a weak muscle, with increased resistance to stretch? Akathisia Spasticity Ataxia Myoclonus

Spasticity Spasticity is often associated with weakness, increased deep tendon reflexes, and diminished superficial reflexes. Akathisia refers to restlessness, an urgent need to move around, and agitation. Ataxia refers to impaired ability to coordinate movement. Myoclonus refers to spasm of a single muscle or group of muscles.

When caring for a client who is post-intracranial surgery what is the most important parameter to monitor? Extreme thirst Intake and output Nutritional status Body temperature

body temperature It is important to monitor the client's body temperature closely because hyperthermia increases brain metabolism, increasing the potential for brain damage. Therefore, elevated temperature must be relieved with an antipyretic and other measures. Options A, B, and C are not the most important parameters to monitor.

A patient was admitted to a rehabilitation unit for treatment of a spinal cord injury. The admitting diagnosis is central cord syndrome. During an admissions physical, the nurse expects to find: loss of the sensation of pain and temperature on the side opposite the injury. loss of motor power and sensation in the upper extremities. preservation of a sense of touch below the level of the lesion. loss of motor power, pain, and temperature sensation below the level of the lesion.

loss of motor power and sensation in the upper extremities. Characteristics of a central cord injury include motor deficits (in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities; sensory loss varies but is more pronounced in the upper extremities); bowel/bladder dysfunction is variable, or function may be completely preserved.

A client with a T4 level spinal cord injury (SCI) is complaining of a severe headache. The nurse notes profuse diaphoresis of the client's forehead and scalp. Which of the following does the nurse suspect? Autonomic dysreflexia Thrombophlebitis Orthostatic hypotension Spinal shock

Autonomic dysreflexia Autonomic dysreflexia occurs only after spinal shock has resolved. It is characterized by a severe, pounding headache, marked hypertension, diaphoresis, nausea, nasal congestion, and bradycardia. It occurs only with SCIs above T6 and is a hypertensive emergency. It is not related to thrombophlebitis.

After a motor vehicle crash, a client is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with a cervical collar in place. The cervical spinal X-rays haven't been read, so the nurse doesn't know whether the client has a cervical spinal injury. Until such an injury is ruled out, the nurse should restrict this client to which position? Flat Supine, with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees Flat, except for logrolling as needed A head elevation of 90 degrees to prevent cerebral swelling

Flat, except for logrolling as needed When caring for the client with a possible cervical spinal injury who's wearing a cervical collar, the nurse must keep the client flat to decrease mobilization and prevent further injury to the spinal column. The client can be logrolled, if necessary, with the cervical collar on.

Which term refers to the shifting of brain tissue from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure? Herniation Autoregulation Cushing's response Monro-Kellie hypothesis

Herniation Herniation refers to the shifting of brain tissue from an area of high pressure to an area of lower pressure. Autoregulation is an ability of cerebral blood vessels to dilate or constrict to maintain stable cerebral blood flow despite changes in systemic arterial blood pressure. Cushing's response is the brain's attempt to restore blood flow by increasing arterial pressure to overcome the increased ICP. The Monro-Kellie hypothesis is a theory that states that, due to limited space for expansion within the skull, an increase in any one of the cranial contents causes a change in the volume of the others.

The nurse is caring for a client with a head injury. The client is experiencing CSF rhinorrhea. Which order should the nurse question? Insertion of a nasogastric (NG) tube Urine testing for acetone Serum sodium concentration testing Out of bed to the chair three times a day

Insertion of a nasogastric (NG) tube Clients with brain injury are assumed to be catabolic, and nutritional support consultation should be considered as soon as the client is admitted. Parenteral nutrition via a central line or enteral feedings administered via an NG or nasojejunal feeding tube should be considered. If cerebrospinal fluid rhinorrhea occurs, an oral feeding tube should be inserted instead of a nasal tube. Serial studies of blood and urine electrolytes and osmolality are done because head injuries may be accompanied by disorders of sodium regulation. Urine is tested regularly for acetone. An intervention to maintain skin integrity is getting the client out of bed to a chair three times daily.

Which is the most common cause of spinal cord injury (SCI)? Falls Sports-related injuries Motor vehicle crashes Acts of violence

Motor vehicle crashes The most common cause of SCI is motor vehicles crashes, which account for 35% of the injuries. Falls, sports-related injuries, and acts of violence are also potential causes of SCI, but are not most common.

A client admitted with a cerebral contusion is confused, disoriented, and restless. Which nursing diagnosis takes the highest priority? Disturbed sensory perception (visual) related to neurologic trauma Feeding self-care deficit related to neurologic trauma Impaired verbal communication related to confusion Risk for injury related to neurologic deficit

Risk for injury related to neurologic deficit Because a cerebral contusion causes altered cognition, the nurse should identify Risk for injury related to neurologic deficit as the primary nursing diagnosis and focus on interventions that promote client safety and prevent further injury. Disturbed sensory perception (visual) related to neurologic trauma, Feeding self-care deficit related to neurologic trauma, and Impaired verbal communication related to confusion are pertinent but don't take precedence over client safety.

The nurse is admitting a client from the emergency department with a reported spinal cord injury. What device would the nurse expect to be used to provide correct vertebral alignment and to increase the space between the vertebrae in a client with spinal cord injury? Cervical collar Cast Traction with weights and pulleys Turning frame

Traction with weights and pulleys Traction with weights and pulleys is applied to provide correct vertebral alignment and to increase the space between the vertebrae. A cast and a cervical collar are used to immobilize the injured portion of the spine. A turning frame is used to change the client's position without altering the alignment of the spine.

Which are risk factors for spinal cord injury (SCI)? Select all that apply. Young age Female gender Alcohol use Drug abuse European American ethnicity

Young age Alcohol use Drug abuse The predominant risk factors for SCI include young age, male gender, and alcohol and drug use. The frequency with which these risk factors are associated with SCI emphasizes the importance of primary prevention.

The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with an acute subdural hematoma following a craniotomy. The nurse is preparing to administer an IV dose of dexamethasone (Decadron). The medication is available in a 20-mL IV bag and ordered to be infused over 15 minutes. At what rate (mL/hr) will the nurse set the infusion pump?

80 20/15 × 60 = 80 mL/hr

Pressure ulcers may begin within hours of an acute spinal cord injury (SCI) and may cause delay of rehabilitation, adding to the cost of hospitalization. The most effective approach is prevention. Which of the following nursing interventions will most protect the client against pressure ulcers? Continuous use of an indwelling catheter Meticulous cleanliness Avoidance of all lotions and lubricants Allowing the client to choose the position of comfort

Meticulous cleanliness Meticulous cleanliness is the best choice for preventing pressure ulcers. A continuous indwelling catheter is not conducive to preventing pressure ulcers. Pressure-sensitive areas should be kept well lubricated with lotion. The client does not know the best positioning techniques for prevention of skin breakdown. The nurse and client together should decide how to best position the body.

Which condition occurs when blood collects between the dura mater and arachnoid membrane? Intracerebral hemorrhage Epidural hematoma Extradural hematoma Subdural hematoma

Subdural hematoma A subdural hematoma is a collection of blood between the dura mater and brain, space normally occupied by a thin cushion of fluid. Intracerebral hemorrhage is bleeding in the brain or the cerebral tissue with the displacement of surrounding structures. An epidural hematoma is bleeding between the inner skull and the dura, compressing the brain underneath. An extradural hematoma is another name for an epidural hematoma.

The nurse is caring for a client with traumatic brain injury (TBI). Which clinical finding, observed during the reassessment of the client, causes the nurse the most concern? Temperature increase from 98.0°F to 99.6°F Urinary output increase from 40 to 55 mL/hr Heart rate decrease from 100 to 90 bpm Pulse oximetry decrease from 99% to 97% room air

Temperature increase from 98.0°F to 99.6°F Fever in the client with a TBI can be the result of damage to the hypothalamus, cerebral irritation from hemorrhage, or infection. The nurse monitors the client's temperature every 2 to 4 hours. If the temperature increases, efforts are made to identify the cause and to control it using acetaminophen and cooling blankets to maintain normothermia. The other clinical findings are within normal limits.

A client was hit in the head with a ball and knocked unconscious. Upon arrival at the emergency department and subsequent diagnostic tests, it was determined that the client suffered a subdural hematoma. The client is becoming increasingly symptomatic. How would the nurse expect this subdural hematoma to be classified? acute chronic subacute intracerebral

acute Subdural hematomas are classified as acute, subacute, and chronic according to the rate of neurologic changes. Symptoms progressively worsen in a client with an acute subdural hematoma within the first 24 hours of the head injury.

A client who has been severely beaten is admitted to the emergency department. The nurse suspects a basilar skull fracture after assessing: raccoon's eyes and Battle sign. nuchal rigidity and Kernig's sign. motor loss in the legs that exceeds that in the arms. pupillary changes.

raccoon's eyes and Battle sign. A basilar skull fracture commonly causes only periorbital ecchymosis (raccoon's eyes) and postmastoid ecchymosis (Battle sign); however, it sometimes also causes otorrhea, rhinorrhea, and loss of cranial nerve I (olfactory nerve) function. Nuchal rigidity and Kernig's sign are associated with meningitis. Motor loss in the legs that exceeds that in the arms suggests central cord syndrome. Pupillary changes are common in skull fractures with associated meningeal artery bleeding and uncal herniation.

Which of the following types of skull fractures may be evident by Battle's sign? Basilar Simple Comminuted Depressed

Basilar A clinical manifestation of a basilar skull fracture is the Battle's sign (an area of ecchymosis may be seen over the mastoid). A simple (linear) fracture is a break in continuity of the bone. A comminuted skull fracture refers to a splintered fracture line. When bone fragments are embedded into the brain tissue, the fracture is depressed.

A patient was body surfing in the ocean and sustained a cervical spinal cord fracture. A halo traction device was applied. How does the patient benefit from the application of the halo device? It is the only device that can be applied for stabilization of a spinal fracture. It allows for stabilization of the cervical spine along with early ambulation. It is less bulky and traumatizing for the patient to use. The patient can remove it as needed.

It allows for stabilization of the cervical spine along with early ambulation. Halo devices provide immobilization of the cervical spine while allowing early ambulation.

Which of the following is not a manifestation of Cushing's triad (Cushing reflex)? Tachycardia Widening pulse pressure Hypertension Irregular respiration

Tachycardia Cushing's triad, or Cushing reflex, is a nervous system response to increased intracranial pressure. The client has a slower heart rate (bradycardia), higher systolic blood pressure (hypertension) with lower diastolic pressure (widening pulse pressure), and irregular respiration. More rapid heart rate (tachycardia) is not a component of the triad.

A client with tetraplegia has a spinal cord injury (SCI) at C4. He experiences severe orthostatic hypotension with any elevation of his head. Which of the following interventions will the nurse employ to reduce the hypotension? Apply anti-embolic stockings prior to elevation of the head. Avoid binders around the abdominal area. Practice with the client raising the head in one smooth, quick motion. Avoid vasopressor medication for 2 hours prior to the client sitting up.

Apply anti-embolic stockings prior to elevation of the head. Anti-embolic stockings will improve venous return from the legs. An abdominal binder will also encourage venous return. The nurse should allow time for a slow progression from laying to sitting. Vasopressor drugs may be used to treat the profound vasodilation.

Damage to the brain from traumatic injury can be divided into primary and secondary injuries. Which of the following arecauses of secondary brain injury? Select all that apply. Cerebral edema Ischemia Infection Seizures Hyperthermia

Cerebral edema Ischemia Infection Seizures Hyperthermia Secondary injury evolves over the ensuing hours and days after the initial injury and can be due to cerebral edema, ischemia, seizures, infection, hyperthermia, hypovolemia, and hypoxia.

The nurse in the emergency department is caring for a patient brought in by the rescue squad after falling from a second-story window. The nurse assesses ecchymosis over the mastoid and clear fluid from the ears. What type of skull fracture is this indicative of? Temporal skull fracture Frontal skull fracture Occipital skull fracture Basilar skull fracture

Basilar skull fracture A fracture of the base of the skull is referred to as a basilar skull fracture. Fractures of the base of the skull tend to traverse the paranasal sinus of the frontal bone or the middle ear located in the temporal bone. Therefore, they frequently produce hemorrhage from the nose, pharynx, or ears, and blood may appear under the conjunctiva. An area of ecchymosis (bruising) may be seen over the mastoid (Battle's sign). Basilar skull fractures are suspected when CSF escapes from the ears (CSF otorrhea) and the nose (CSF rhinorrhea).

For a patient with an SCI, why is it beneficial to administer oxygen to maintain a high partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2)? So that the patient will not have a respiratory arrest Because hypoxemia can create or worsen a neurologic deficit of the spinal cord To increase cerebral perfusion pressure To prevent secondary brain injury

Because hypoxemia can create or worsen a neurologic deficit of the spinal cord Oxygen is administered to maintain a high partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) because hypoxemia can create or worsen a neurologic deficit of the spinal cord.

A client with a spinal cord injury says he has difficulty recognizing the symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI). Which symptom is an early sign of UTI in a client with a spinal cord injury? Lower back pain Burning sensation on urination Frequency of urination Fever and change in urine clarity

Fever and change in urine clarity Fever and change in urine clarity as early signs of UTI in a client with a spinal cord injury. Lower back pain is a late sign. A client with a spinal cord injury may not experience a burning sensation or urinary frequency.

A nurse completes the Glasgow Coma Scale on a patient with traumatic brain injury (TBI). Her assessment results in a score of 6, which is interpreted as: Mild TBI. Moderate TBI. Severe TBI. Brain death.

Severe TBI. A score of 13 to 15 is classified as mild TBI, 9 to 12 is moderate TBI, and 3 to 8 is severe TBI. A score of 3 indicates severe impairment of neurologic function, deep coma, brain death, or pharmacologic inhibition of the neurologic response; a score of 8 or less typically indicates an unconscious patient; a score of 15 indicates a fully alert and oriented patient.

Which of the following methods may be used by the nurse to maintain the peripheral circulation in a patient with increased intracerebral pressure (ICP)? Apply elastic stockings to lower extremities. Take care not to jar the bed or cause unnecessary activity. Assist the patient with frequent ambulation. Elevate patient's head or follow the physician's directive for body position.

Apply elastic stockings to lower extremities. To maintain the peripheral circulation in a patient with increased ICP, the nurse must apply elastic stockings to lower extremities. Elastic stockings support the valves of veins in the lower extremities to prevent venous stasis, and relieving pressure promotes the circulation of oxygenated blood through the capillary to peripheral cells and tissues and facilitates venous blood return. The patient's bed should not be jarred or shaken because unexpected physical movement tends to aggravate the pain and does not help in maintaining the peripheral circulation. On the other hand, head elevation helps venous blood and cerebrospinal fluid drain from cerebral areas.

The client has been brought to the emergency department by their caregiver. The caregiver says that she found the client diaphoretic, nauseated, flushed and complaining of a pounding headache when she came on shift. What are these symptoms indicative of? Concussion Autonomic dysreflexia Spinal shock Contusion

Autonomic dysreflexia Characteristics of this acute emergency are as follows: Severe hypertension; Slow heart rate; Pounding headache; Nausea; Blurred vision; Flushed skin; Sweating; Goosebumps (erection of pilomotor muscles in the skin); Nasal stuffiness; and Anxiety. The symptoms in the scenario are not symptoms or concussion, spinal shock, or contusion.

The nurse is providing information about spinal cord injury (SCI) prevention to a community group of young adults. The nurse mentions that all of the following are predominant risk factors for SCI except? Being an athlete Male gender Young age Alcohol/drug use

Being an athlete The predominant risk factors for SCI include young age (most between 16 and 30 years old), gender (80% of those living with SCI are male), and alcohol/drug use.

A client in the intensive care unit (ICU) has a traumatic brain injury. The nurse must implement interventions to help control intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following are appropriate interventions to help control ICP? Keep the client's neck in a neutral position (no flexing). Avoid sedation. Cluster all procedures together. Keep the head of the client's bed flat.

Keep the client's neck in a neutral position (no flexing). To assist in controlling ICP in clients with severe brain injury, the following are recommended: elevate the head of the bed as prescribed (gravity helps drain fluid), maintain head/neck in neutral alignment (no twisting or flexing), give sedation as ordered to prevent agitation, and avoid noxious stimuli (scatter procedures so that client does not become overtired).

A client has been diagnosed with a concussion and is to be released from the emergency department. The nurse teaches the family or friends who will be caring for the client to contact the physician or return to the ED if the client reports a headache. reports generalized weakness. sleeps for short periods of time. vomits.

vomits Vomiting is a sign of increasing intracranial pressure and should be reported immediately. In general, the finding of headache in a client with a concussion is an expected abnormal observation. However, a severe headache, weakness of one side of the body, and difficulty in waking the client should be reported or treated immediately.

A nurse is reviewing a CT scan of the brain, which states that the client has arterial bleeding with blood accumulation above the dura. Which of the following facts of the disease progression is essential to guide the nursing management of client care? Symptoms will evolve over a period of 1 week. Monitoring is needed as rapid neurologic deterioration may occur. The crash cart with defibrillator is kept nearby. Bleeding continues into the intracerebral area.

Monitoring is needed as rapid neurologic deterioration may occur. The nurse identifies that the CT scan suggests an epidural hematoma. A key component in planning care is the understanding that rapid neurologic deterioration occurs. Symptoms evolve quickly. A crash cart may be kept nearby, but this is not the key information. An intracerebral hematoma is bleeding within the brain, which is a different area of bleeding.

The nurse received the report from a previous shift. One of her clients was reported to have a history of basilar skull fracture with otorrhea. What assessment finding does the nurse anticipate? The client has cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) leaking from the ear. The client has ecchymosis in the periorbital region. The client has an elevated temperature. The client has serous drainage from the nose.

The client has cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) leaking from the ear. Otorrhea means leakage of CSF from the ear. The client with a basilar skull fracture can create a pathway from the brain to the middle ear due to a tear in the dura. As a result, the client can have cerebral spinal fluid leak from the ear. The nurse may assess clear fluid in the ear canal. Ecchymosis and periorbital edema can be present as a manifestation of bruising from the head injury. An elevated temperature may occur from the head injury and is monitored closely. The client may have serous drainage from the nose especially immediately following the injury.

The nurse is caring for a client following a spinal cord injury who has a halo device in place. The client is preparing for discharge. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further instruction? "I'll check under the liner for blisters and redness." "I will change the vest liner periodically." "I can apply powder under the liner to help with sweating." "If a pin becomes detached, I'll notify the surgeon."

"I can apply powder under the liner to help with sweating." Powder is not used inside the vest because it may contribute to the development of pressure ulcers. The areas around the four pin sites of a halo device are cleaned daily and observed for redness, drainage, and pain. The pins are observed for loosening, which may contribute to infection. If one of the pins becomes detached, the head is stabilized in a neutral position by one person while another notifies the neurosurgeon. The skin under the halo vest is inspected for excessive perspiration, redness, and skin blistering, especially on the bony prominences. The vest is opened at the sides to allow the torso to be washed. The liner of the vest should not become wet because dampness can cause skin excoriation. The liner should be changed periodically to promote hygiene and good skin care.

Which finding indicates increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) in the client who has sustained a head injury? Increased pulse Increased respirations Widened pulse pressure Decreased body temperature

Widened pulse pressure Signs of increasing ICP include slowing of the heart rate (bradycardia), increasing systolic blood pressure, and widening pulse pressure (Cushing reflex). As brain compression increases, respirations decrease or become erratic, blood pressure may decrease, and the pulse slows further. This is an ominous development, as is a rapid fluctuation of vital signs. Temperature is maintained at less than 38°C (100.4°F). Tachycardia and arterial hypotension may indicate that bleeding is occurring elsewhere in the body.

A client with weakness and tingling in both legs is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with a tentative diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome. On admission, which assessment is most important for this client? Lung auscultation and measurement of vital capacity and tidal volume Evaluation for signs and symptoms of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) Evaluation of pain and discomfort Evaluation of nutritional status and metabolic state

Lung auscultation and measurement of vital capacity and tidal volume In Guillain-Barré syndrome, polyneuritis commonly causes weakness and paralysis, which may ascend to the trunk and involve the respiratory muscles. Lung auscultation and measurement of vital capacity, tidal volume, and negative inspiratory force are crucial in detecting and preventing respiratory failure — the most serious complication of polyneuritis. A peripheral nerve disorder, polyneuritis doesn't cause increased ICP. Although the nurse must evaluate the client for pain and discomfort and must assess the nutritional status and metabolic state, these aren't priorities.

A client is admitted to the hospital after sustaining a closed head injury in a skiing accident. The physician ordered neurologic assessments to be performed every 2 hours. The client's neurologic assessments have been unchanged since admission, and the client is complaining of a headache. Which intervention by the nurse is best? Administer codeine 30 mg by mouth as ordered and continue neurologic assessments as ordered. Assess the client's neurologic status for subtle changes, administer acetaminophen, and then reassess the client in 30 minutes. Reassure the client that a headache is expected and will go away without treatment. Notify the physician; a headache is an early sign of worsening neurologic status.

Assess the client's neurologic status for subtle changes, administer acetaminophen, and then reassess the client in 30 minutes. Headache is common after a head injury. Therefore, the nurse should administer acetaminophen to try to manage the client's pain without causing sedation. The nurse should then reassess the client in 30 minutes to note the effectiveness of the pain medication. Administering codeine, an opioid, could cause sedation that may mask changes in the client's neurologic status. Although a headache is expected, the client should receive treatment to alleviate pain. The nurse should notify the physician if the client's neurologic status changes or if treatment doesn't relieve the headache.

Which type of brain injury is characterized by a loss of consciousness associated with stupor and confusion? Concussion Contusion Diffuse axonal injury Intracranial hemorrhage

Contusion Other characteristics can include tissue alteration and neurologic deficit without hematoma formation, alteration in consciousness without localizing signs, and hemorrhage into the tissue that varies in size and is surrounded by edema. The effects of injury (hemorrhage and edema) peak after about 18 to 36 hours. A concussion is a temporary loss of neurologic function with no apparent structural damage. A diffuse axonal injury involves widespread damage to the axons in the cerebral hemispheres, corpus callosum, and brainstem. An intracranial hemorrhage is a collection of blood that develops within the cranial vault.

A clinical manifestation of a basilar skull fracture is the Battle's sign (an area of ecchymosis may be seen over the mastoid). A simple (linear) fracture is a break in continuity of the bone. A comminuted skull fracture refers to a splintered fracture line. When bone fragments are embedded into the brain tissue, the fracture is depressed.

Bradycardia Hypertension Bradypnea The bradycardia, hypertension, and bradypnea associated with this deterioration are known as Cushing's triad, a grave sign. At this point, herniation of the brainstem and occlusion of the cerebral blood flow occur if therapeutic intervention is not initiated immediately.

The nurse working on the neurological unit is caring for a client with a basilar skull fracture. During the assessment, the nurse expects to observe Battle's sign, which is a sign of basilar skull fracture. Which of the following correctly describes Battle's sign? Ecchymosis over the mastoid Bruising under the eyes Drainage of cerebrospinal fluid from the nose Drainage of cerebrospinal fluid from the ears

Ecchymosis over the mastoid With fractures of the base of the skull, an area of ecchymosis (bruising) may be seen over the mastoid and is called Battle's sign. Basilar skull fractures are suspected when cerebrospinal fluid escapes from the ears or the nose.

Autonomic dysreflexia can occur with spinal cord injuries above which of the following levels? T6 S2 L4 T10

T6 Any patient with a lesion above T6 segment is informed that autonomic dysreflexia can occur and that it may occur even years after the initial injury.

The most important nursing priority of treatment for a patient with an altered LOC is to: Stabilize the blood pressure and heart rate to ensure adequate perfusion of the brain. Prevent dehydration and renal failure by inserting an IV line for fluids and medications. Maintain a clear airway to ensure adequate ventilation. Position the patient to prevent injury and ensure dignity.

Maintain a clear airway to ensure adequate ventilation. The first priority of treatment for the patient with altered LOC is to obtain and maintain a patent airway. The patient may be orally or nasally intubated (unless basilar skull fracture or facial trauma is suspected), or a tracheostomy may be performed. Until the ability of the patient to breathe on his or her own is determined, a mechanical ventilator is used to maintain adequate oxygenation and ventilation.

Which of the following is the earliest and most significant sign of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)? Change in level of consciousness (LOC) Seizures Restlessness Pupil changes

Change in level of consciousness (LOC) The earliest sign of increasing ICP is a change in LOC. Any changes in LOC should be reported immediately. Seizures, restlessness, and pupil changes may occur, but these are not the earliest signs.

The nurse is caring for a male client who has emerged from a coma following a head injury. The client is agitated. Which intervention will the nurse implement to prevent injury to the client? Administer opioids to the client Apply an external urinary sheath catheter Provide a dimly lit room Turn and reposition the client every 2 hours

Apply an external urinary sheath catheter A strategy the nurse can implement to prevent client injury is to use an external sheath catheter for a male client if incontinence occurs. Because prolonged use of an indwelling catheter inevitably produces infection, the client may be placed on an intermittent catheterization schedule. Opioids are contraindicated because they depress respirations, constrict the pupils, and alter responsiveness. Providing adequate lighting to prevent visual hallucinations is recommended. Repositioning the client every 2 hours maintains skin integrity.

The nurse is caring for a patient in the emergency department with a diagnosed epidural hematoma. What procedure will the nurse prepare the patient for? Hypophysectomy Application of Halo traction Burr holes Insertion of Crutchfield tongs

Burr holes An epidural hematoma is considered an extreme emergency; marked neurologic deficit or even respiratory arrest can occur within minutes. Treatment consists of making openings through the skull (burr holes) to decrease intracranial pressure emergently, remove the clot, and control the bleeding.

At which of the following spinal cord injury levels does the patient have full head and neck control? C5 C4 C3 C2

C5 At the level of C5, the patient should have full head and neck control, shoulder strength, and elbow flexion. At C4 injury, the patient will have good head and neck sensation and motor control, some shoulder elevation, and diaphragm movement. At C2 to C3, the patient will have head and neck sensation, some neck control, and can be independent of mechanical ventilation for short periods of time.

A nurse is assisting with the clinical examination for determination of brain death for a client, related to potential organ donation. All 50 states in the United States recognize uniform criteria for brain death. The nurse is aware that the three cardinal signs of brain death on clinical examination are all of the following except: Coma Absence of brain stem reflexes Apnea Glasgow Coma Scale of 6

Glasgow Coma Scale of 6 The three cardinal signs of brain death on clinical examination are coma, absence of brain stem reflexes, and apnea. The Glasgow Coma Scale is a tool for determining the client's level of consciousness. A score of 3 indicates a deep coma, and a score of 15 is normal.

A client who is disoriented and restless after sustaining a concussion during a car accident is admitted to the hospital. Which nursing diagnosis takes the highest priority in this client's care plan? Disturbed sensory perception (visual) Dressing or grooming self-care deficit Impaired verbal communication Risk for injury

Risk for injury Because the client is disoriented and restless, the most important nursing diagnosis is Risk for injury. Although Disturbed sensory perception (visual), Dressing or grooming self-care deficit, and Impaired verbal communication may all be appropriate, they're secondary because they don't immediately affect the client's health or safety.

A nurse is caring for a 16-year-old adolescent with a head injury resulting from a fight after a high school football game. A physician has intubated the client and written orders to wean him from sedation therapy. A nurse needs further assessment data to determine whether: she'll have to apply restraints to prevent the client from dislodging the endotracheal (ET) tube. nutritional protocol will be effective after the client sedation therapy is tapered. to continue IV administration of other scheduled medications. payment status will change if the client isn't sedated.

she'll have to apply restraints to prevent the client from dislodging the endotracheal (ET) tube. When the client isn't sedated, he may make attempts to remove the ET tube without realizing what he's doing. The nurse needs to obtain information to determine whether it's necessary to request an order for restraints. The nurse doesn't need to obtain additional data to determine if the nutritional protocol will continue to reflect the client's needs because this aspect of care won't change. The client doesn't require additional assessments to continue I.V. administration of medications. I.V. medication clearly needs to continue because the client is intubated. The staff nurse doesn't need to monitor payment status because client sedation shouldn't affect payment status.