PrepU Domain One
A female client is 52 years old and has high-density lipoprotein of 70 mg · dL−1. Based on this profile, how many total risk factors does she have?
0 (This client's age is not considered a positive risk factor. However, her HDL-C is considered a negative risk factor, so the sum total equals zero risk factors.)
What is the waist-to-hip ratio threshold at which a female client's health is considered at risk?
0.88 (Health risk with respect to waist-to-hip ratio is considered high when more than 0.86.)
A weight loss of what percent is associated with a reduction in health risks? a) 10% b) 20% c) 15% d) 5%
10% (Traditional behavioral weight loss programs that encourage reduced calorie intake and increased caloric expenditure typically resulted in a loss of 10% of initial body weight, an amount associated with a reduction of related health risks. )
A male client is 45 years old and has high-density lipoprotein of 35 mg · dL−1. He spends 30 minutes a day walking to and from work. Based on this profile, how many total risk factors does he have? a) 2 b) −1 c) 0 d) 1
2
A sedentary lifestyle is defined as NOT participating in at least:
30 minutes of moderate-intensity activity, at least 3 days per week, for at least 3 months. (Participating in at least 30 minutes of moderate-intensity activity, for at least 3 days per week, for at least 3 months is considered the threshold for an active lifestyle.)
Given the following complete health and medical history, which client has one risk factor? a) A physically active 55-year-old female b) A 32-year-old male with family history of heart disease and prediabetes c) A 46-year-old male with cholesterol of 208 mg · dL−1 who desires to begin training for his first marathon d) A 21-year-old female who has slight scoliosis with tightness on left hip abductors
A physically active 55-year-old female (The age threshold for females is 55 years of age or older.)
In general, a contraindication is BEST defined as:
A reason or rationale NOT to perform exercise or testing.
Which joint movement occurs in the frontal plane? a) Adduction b) Circumduction c) Flexion d) Extension
Adduction
An exercise test is recommended prior to exercise training but a physician is not available to supervise the test. Who among the following would also supervise an exercise test? a) An occupational therapist b) A Certified Exercise Physiologist c) An allied health care professional certified in ACLS d) A licensed physical therapist
An allied health care professional certified in ACLS (When an exercise test is recommended prior to exercise training, a competent nonphysician health care professional may also supervise the exercise test. A competent nonphysician health care professional is one who has advanced training in clinical exercise testing and credentials such as the AHA Advanced Cardiac Life Support certification. )
Anatomical position of the human body is when the body is in which of the following positions? a) Body is erect, feet shoulder width apart, upper limbs positioned at the side of the body, palms of the hands facing the body, thumbs facing away from the body, fingers extended b) Body is erect, feet shoulder width apart, upper limbs positioned at the side of the body, palms of the hands facing backwards, thumbs facing the body, fingers extended c) Body is erect, feet together, upper limbs positioned at the side of the body, palms of the hands facing the body, thumbs facing forward of the body, fingers extended d) Body is erect, feet together, upper limbs positioned at the side of the body, palms of the hands facing forward, thumbs facing away from the body, fingers extended
Body is erect, feet together, upper limbs positioned at the side of the body, palms of the hands facing forward, thumbs facing away from the body, fingers extended
What is/are a resilient, semirigid form of connective tissue that reduces the friction and absorbs some of the shock in synovial joints?
Cartilage (Cartilage is an essential connective tissue that is typically found in a synovial joint.)
A joint is the most stable when it is in which position? a) Open pack b) Closed pack c) Flexed d) Extended
Closed pack
Upon reviewing a client's health history questionnaire, you notice that it has not been filled out completely. She states that she cannot remember but will look up the information at home and get back to you asap. You should:
Consider any missing information as relating to a risk factor as positive. (In general, when information regarding a specific risk factor is not available, the EP-C is encouraged to consider the missing risk factor as positive.)
Lordosis is defined as:
Convexity of the spinal curve that is anterior.
For high school and college athletes, preparticipation screening primarily functions to:
Detect potential cardiac issues. (High school and college athletes are typically required to have a preparticipation screening, which is one means of detecting potential cardiac issues and thus preventing sudden cardiac death.)
Before you design an abdominal exercise program for a client you should FIRST:
Determine and establish neutral pelvic position. (Proper posture and alignment must be promoted from the very beginning in activities of daily living as well as exercise.)
Which of the following commonly refers to the physiologic state where exercise has stopped but VO2 levels remain elevated? a) Excess postexericse oxygen consumption b) Cool-down c) Ventilatory elevation d) Postexericse debt
Excess postexericse oxygen consumption (After cessation of exercise, VO2 remains elevated because of the increased work associated with the resynthesis of ATP and CP within muscle cells, lactate removal, and elevated body temperature, hormones, heart rate (HR), and respiratory rate. It is commonly referred to as excess postexercise oxygen consumption.)
A lateral lunge is performed in which plane of movement?
Frontal
What document acknowledges an "assumption of risk" with regard to participation in physical activity?
Informed consent (An assumption of risk, also known as an informed consent, is a document that explains the risks of participation in physical activity and indicates that the participant acknowledges the inherent risks involved.)
What evaluation form does a client sign to acknowledge that she has been educated about and understands the risks associated with being active?
Informed consent (An assumption of risk, also known as informed consent, is a document that explains the risks of participation in physical activity and indicates that the participant acknowledges the inherent risks involved)
Before fitness testing and training, initial client assessment should include health issues, exercise history, and:
Intended time frame for achieving desired goals. (Certified Exercise Physiologists should carefully evaluate prior resistance exercise experience and discuss training goals and intended time frame for completion.)
The study of the mechanics of human movement is called:
Kinesiology
The _________ is responsible for collecting blood from the lungs and pumping it to the body.
Left atrium and left ventricle
Which of the following muscles is superior to the latissimus dorsi? a) External oblique b) Lower trapezius c) Levator scapulae d) Erector spinae
Levator scapulae ("Superior" is a basic descriptive term used to describe the position of a body part that is above another body part or refers to an upper surface of an organ or structure. In this instance, the levator scapulae is located above the latissimus dorsi. )
If a client must see a physician prior to starting a moderate-intensity exercise program, what should be completed by both the client and physician?
Medical clearance form (This form will provide guidelines and restrictions that should be taken into account during exercise testing and design.)
The upper respiratory tract consists of ________. a) Nasal cavity, nose, and pharynx b) Trachea, larynx, and lungs c) Pharynx, larynx, and nasal cavity d) Pharynx, larynx, and lungs
Nasal cavity, nose, and pharynx
During pregnancy, resistance and flexibility exercises in the supine position should be avoided to prevent which of the following? a) Diaphoresis b) Ankle edema c) Exercise-induced hypertension d) Orthostatic hypotension
Orthostatic hypotension (The supine position may obstruct venous blood flow return to the heart and may result in orthostatic hypotension, which may lead to lightheadedness and fainting)
Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cardiovascular disease? a) Diaphoresis due to lifting objects overhead b) Pain or discomfort in the neck, jaw, or arms while standing c) Increased respiratory rate when climbing the stairs d) Tachycardia response to walking across the room
Pain or discomfort in the neck, jaw, or arms while standing (Pain or discomfort in the chest, neck, jaw, arms, or other areas are symptoms suggestive of cardiovascular disease. These may be due to ischemia or lack of oxygenated blood flow)
The gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantaris are located in what lower leg area?
Posterior tibial compartment (These muscles that are responsible for ankle joint plantarflexion are located in the posterior tibial area.)
Impaired glucose tolerance is consistent with which of the following? a) Prediabetes b) Dyslipidemia c) Type 1 diabetes d) Type 2 diabetes
Prediabetes (Impaired glucose tolerance is a condition of prediabetes where blood glucose is elevated between 100 and 125 mg · dL−1 following an oral glucose tolerance test on two separate occasions.)
When oxygen is not available in the mitochondria of the cell, _______ is converted to __________.
Pyruvate, lactic acid (In the absence of adequate oxygen supply, pyruvate is converted to lactic acid, which gradually builds up in muscle cells and the blood.)
If difficulties are encountered in calculating a percentage VO2max for prescribing exercise intensity in cases of cardiac disease, the EP-C should instead consider:
Rating of perceived exertion. (Typically, exercise intensity is measured as a percentage of VO2 max, VO2reserve, or heart rate reserve (HRR); however, this may be difficult to calculate in many cases of cardiac disease. In these cases, rating of perceived exertion (RPE) as an alternative measurement of exercise intensity may be useful.)
Your client forgets to bring the service introduction packet but is dressed appropriately for exercise. You should:
Reschedule the appointment, and underscore the importance of having all forms completed and signed. (To protect you and the client, have up-to-date information on the client's health and medical history, a signed medical clearance form from his physician, and a signed informed consent BEFORE training commences.)
Where does blood flow immediately after passing through the tricuspid valve?
Right ventricle
Which of the following is NOT considered a true joint? a) Scapulothoracic b) Sternoclavicular c) Acromioclavicular d) Glenohumeral
Scapulothoracic (he scapulothoracic joint is not a true joint, but a physiological (functional) joint.)
In a sit-to-stand movement, where is the center of gravity? a) Over the second sacrum b) Posterior to the axis of the knee joint c) Slightly anterior to the axis of the hip joint d) Shifted over the base of support
Shifted over the base of support
When looking at postural alignment from a lateral view, the vertical plumb line should be: ________.
Slightly anterior to the lateral malleolus.
The clavicle is _________ to the pelvis.
Superior ("Superior" is a basic descriptive term used to describe the position of a body part that is above another body part or refers to an upper surface of an organ or structure.)
Which of the following utilizes a DIAGONAL fold when assessing body composition via skinfold calipers? a) Supraliac b) Midaxillary c) Medial calf d) Biceps
Supraliac (The skinfold site at the suprailiac utilizes a diagonal fold in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest taken in the anterior axillary line immediately superior to the iliac crest)
In the _____ circulation, the arteries and arterioles carry ______ blood.
Systemic, oxygenated (In the systemic circulation, the arteries and arterioles carry oxygenated blood, whereas in the pulmonary circulation, the arteries and arterioles carry deoxygenated blood.)
Pronation of the radioulnar joint occurs in:
The transverse plane.
Which of the following changes takes place in arteriosvenous oxygen difference in response to exercise? a) There in a decrease in a-VO2 difference with increasing exercise intensity. b) Oxygen in venous blood increases by 5 ml · dL−1. c) Oxygen in arterial blood increases by 5 ml · dL−1. d) There is an increase in a-VO2 difference with increasing exercise intensity.
There is an increase in a-VO2 difference with increasing exercise intensity. (During exercise, venous oxygen content decreases as a result of the increased consumption of oxygen by the working muscles, thus resulting in an increase in a-VO2 difference with increasing exercise intensity.)
To build a successful client relationship, you should:
Use a client-centered approach (The client-centered approach puts the client's needs and goals first and increases the likelihood of affecting behavior change.)
Which of the following profiles is considered a risk factor with respect to obesity? a) Body fat percent of 25% for males b) Body fat percent of 25% for females c) Waist of 38 inches for males d) Waist of 36 inches for females
Waist of 36 inches for females (The defining criteria for obesity risk is waist girth of 35 inches or greater for females.)
Which of the following is a positive risk factor? a) Fasting plasma glucose 80 mg · dL−1 b) Walking to and from work 3 days a week, for 20 minutes, for the past 2 months c) Low-density lipoprotein 120 mg · dL−1 d) Sudden death of mother at 70 years of age
Walking to and from work 3 days a week, for 20 minutes, for the past 2 months (A risk factor for a sedentary lifestyle is defined as not participating in at least 30 minutes of moderate-intensity activity, for a least 3 days a week, for at least 3 months)
Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding risk classification? a) "Recommended" reflects the notion that a medical examination, exercise test, and physician supervision is recommended in the preparticipation health screening process. b) "Moderate-intensity" exercise refers to an intensity of 40% to < 74% VO2reserve, 3 to < 7 METs, or an intensity that causes noticeable increases in HR and breathing. c) "Vigorous-intensity" exercise refers to an intensity of ≥ 75% VO2reserve, ≥ 8 METs, or an intensity that causes substantial increases in HR and breathing. d) "Not recommended" reflects the notion that a medical examination, exercise test, and physician supervision is strictly prohibited.
a) "Recommended" reflects the notion that a medical examination, exercise test, and physician supervision is recommended in the preparticipation health screening process. (When a medical exam, exercise test, or physician supervised exercise test is "recommended," it suggests completion as part of the preparticipation health screening process.)
To prevent weight gain following weight loss, the recommended amount of moderate to vigorous physical activity for better weight maintenance is: a) 250 minutes per week. b) 100 minutes per week. c) 200 minutes per week. d) 150 minutes per week.
a) 250 minutes per week.
How many ATP molecules are produced when glycogen is broken down into pyruvate? a) 3 b) 1 c) 4 d) 2
a) 3
How many risk factors are present for this 54-year-old female? Family history: Mother had myocardial infarction at the age of 60. Nonsmoker Blood pressure: 134/85 mm Hg Total cholesterol: 230 mg · dL−1 HDL-C: 46 mg · dL−1 Fasting blood glucose: 82 mg · dL−1 BMI: 27.3 Sedentary lifestyle. a) 3 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4
a) 3
Which of the following is utilized to obtain critical client information? a) Client intake form b) PAR-Q+ c) Medical clearance form d) Certified Exercise Physiologist-Client Agreement
a) Client intake form
A 53-year-old female has family history of a heart attack (father at age 72). If she wishes to participate in moderate-intensity exercise, you should: a) Design an exercise program that progresses gradually in intensity and duration. b) Have her undergo fitness testing under medical supervision. c) Refer her to her primary care health provider. d) Perform a submaximal fitness testing to determine her functional capacity.
a) Design an exercise program that progresses gradually in intensity and duration.
Medications that affect heart rate and/or blood pressure response during exercise include: a) Diuretics. b) NSAIDs. c) Antidepressants. d) Sleeping pills.
a) Diuretics.
Which of the following is TRUE of training and its effect on heart rate? a) Exercise training has little impact on maximal heart rate. b) Exercise training decreases heart rate at maximal workload. c) Exercise training increases maximal heart rate until age 20. d) Exercise training increases exercise heart rate at a given submaximal workload.
a) Exercise training has little impact on maximal heart rate. (In general, exercise training itself has little impact on maximal heart rate. Note that maximal heart rate begins to decline at age 20.)
Which of the following movements occur in the transverse plane of motion? a) Glenohumeral rotation b) Cervical flexion c) Ankle joint plantarflexion d) Wrist joint radial deviation
a) Glenohumeral rotation
Which of the following are known as "good cholesterol" and carry lipids away from storage and to the liver for excretion? a) High-density lipoproteins b) Triglycerides c) Unsaturated fatty acids d) Low-density lipoproteins
a) High-density lipoproteins
A medical exam AND a physician-supervised exercise test should be recommended before training a: a) High-risk client wanting to perform moderate exercise. b) Moderate-risk client wanting to perform moderate exercise. c) Low-risk client wanting to perform vigorous exercise. d) Low-risk client wanting to perform moderate exercise.
a) High-risk client wanting to perform moderate exercise.
In order to improve overall health, the National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute recommends which of the following as a weight loss goal? a) Reduce weight by at least 5% b) Lower BMI to less than 30 c) Lose up to no more 5 lbs the first week d) Decrease body fat in women to 33% and men 25%
a) Reduce weight by at least 5%
At submaximal workloads, which training effects from regular exercise are typically seen in systolic blood pressure, diastolic blood pressure, and mean arterial pressure? a) SBP, DBP, and MAP are decreased slightly. b) SBP and MAP are slightly decreased, DBP is slightly increased. c) SBP, DBP, and MAP are increased slightly. d) MAP is slightly increased, SBP and DBP are slightly decreased.
a) SBP, DBP, and MAP are decreased slightly.
The facet joints of the lumbar spine are oriented in the __________ which primarily allows ____________ motions. a) Sagittal plane; flexion/extension b) Frontal plane; flexion/extension c) Sagittal plane; rotation d) Transverse plane; side bending
a) Sagittal plane; flexion/extension (The lumbar zygapophysial joints (facet joints) are angled to allow flexion and extension, and restrict axial rotation.)
Which of the following activities requires the CP system to be utilized? a) The long jump b) 400 meter sprint c) 10 repetitions maximum bench press d) 800 meter sprint
a) The long jump (The CP system can provide ATP to fuel work only during short, intense bouts of exercise, owing to the limited storage capacity of CP within each cell.)
During graded exercise, which of the following occurs due to large muscle vasodilation? a) Total peripheral resistance may drop slightly. b) Systolic blood pressure will decrease. c) Total peripheral resistance may increase exponentially to compensate. d) Diastolic blood pressure will increase.
a) Total peripheral resistance may drop slightly.
A female client is 52 years old and has high-density lipoprotein of 70 mg · dL−1. Based on this profile, how many total risk factors does she have? a) −1 b) 0 c) 2 d) 1
b) 0
Which of the following best describes the scapular or scaption plane? a) 30° lateral to the sagittal plane b) 30° anterior to the frontal plane c) In line with the sagittal plane d) In line with the frontal plane
b) 30° anterior to the frontal plane
Which of the following would be considered a positive risk factor for prediabetes? a) Family history of neuropathy b) Oral glucose tolerance test of 150 mg · dL−1 c) Fasting blood glucose of 120 mg · dL−1 d) Family history of diabetes
b) Oral glucose tolerance test of 150 mg · dL−1
Which of the following hemodynamic variables have an inverse relationship and are heavily influenced by one another during exercise? a) Systolic blood pressure and total peripheral resistance b) Diastolic blood pressure and total peripheral resistance c) Diastolic blood pressure and mean arterial pressure d) Systolic blood pressure and heart rate
b) Diastolic blood pressure and total peripheral resistance
Which movement occurs in the frontal plane? a) Flexion at the elbow b) Elevation of the scapula c) Supination at the wrist d) Extension at the hip
b) Elevation of the scapula
Before any health and fitness assessment is administered, the MOST important first course of action is to: a) Ensure that the client is properly hydrated. b) Explain and demonstrate each assessment before the client is tested. c) Obtain baseline heart rate and respiration. d) Have the client read about the assessment and understand the testing norms.
b) Explain and demonstrate each assessment before the client is tested.
Which of the following would be considered a positive risk factor for dyslipidemia? a) Total cholesterol 180 mg · dL−1 b) HDL 35 mg · dL−1 c) Triglycerides 200 mg · dL−1 d) LDL 125 mg · dL−1
b) HDL 35 mg · dL−1
Your new client is ready to start training next week. You provide her with a service introduction packet which must include, at a minimum, which of the following forms? a) Health/medical history evaluation, liability waiver, and training log b) Health/medical history evaluation, medical clearance form, and informed consent c) Medical clearance form, Certified Exercise Physiologist-Client Agreement, and liability waiver d) PAR-Q+, Certified Exercise Physiologist-Client Agreement, and training log
b) Health/medical history evaluation, medical clearance form, and informed consent
The _________ is responsible for collecting blood from the lungs and pumping it to the body. a) Left atrium and right ventricle b) Left atrium and left ventricle c) Right atrium and right ventricle d) Right atrium and left ventricle
b) Left atrium and left ventricle
If a client must see a physician prior to starting a moderate-intensity exercise program, which of the following should be completed by both the client and physician? a) Medical history evaluation b) Medical clearance form c) PAR-Q+ d) Health history evaluation
b) Medical clearance form
During the preparticipation screening, your client is determined to have four risk factors. This is considered to be: a) High risk. b) Moderate risk. c) Low risk. d) A disease state.
b) Moderate risk.
Which of the following muscles inserts on the humerus? a) Rhomboid major b) Pectoralis major c) Pectoralis minor d) Biceps brachii
b) Pectoralis major
What type of blood pressure response to acute exercise is seen in children that is different when compared with adults? a) SBP increases and DBP decreases. b) SBP decreases and DBP decreases. c) SBP increases and DBP increases. d) SBP decreases and DBP increases.
b) SBP decreases and DBP decreases.
In a sit-to-stand movement, where is the center of gravity? a) Posterior to the axis of the knee joint b) Shifted over the base of support c) Over the second sacrum d) Slightly anterior to the axis of the hip joint
b) Shifted over the base of support
Which of the following activities requires anaerobic glycolysis as an energy source? a) One repetition maximum squat b) The discus throw c) 200 meter sprint d) 100 meter hurdles
c) 200 meter sprint (Anaerobic glycolysis is the primary source of ATP during medium-duration, intense exercise, such as 200 meter and 400 meter sprint events or any exercise of an intensity that cannot be continued for more than approximately 90 seconds. )
Which of the following is considered a normal hemodynamic response to exercise? a) Systolic blood pressure will increase exponentially with workload. b) Diastolic blood pressure will increase slightly. c) Diastolic blood pressure will remain the same or slightly decrease. d) Total peripheral resistance will increase slightly.
c) Diastolic blood pressure will remain the same or slightly decrease. (During graded exercise, total peripheral resistance may drop slightly because of the large muscle vasodilation. As a result of this and the contrasting increase in cardiac output, DBP remains relatively stable. SBP, however, will increase linearly with exercise intensity)
Self-administered questionnaires are less useful for the EP-C because: a) These forms promote underestimation of risk factors. b) Clients are more likely to be dishonest on a self-guided form. c) EP-Cs typically desire a more extensive health profile for their clients. d) Necessity for physician clearance is not evident from self-guided forms.
c) EP-Cs typically desire a more extensive health profile for their clients.
Which of the following is an example of an enarthrodial joint? a) Acromioclavicular b) Carpal-metacarpal c) Glenohumeral d) Radiounlar
c) Glenohumeral
Which of the following movements occur in the sagittal plane of motion? a) Lumbar lateral flexion b) Ankle joint eversion c) Glenohumeral flexion d) Hip joint abduction
c) Glenohumeral flexion
Scoliosis is defined as: a) A combination of kyphosis and lordosis. b) Medial deviation of the spine. c) Lateral deviation of the spine. d) Posterior deviation of the spine.
c) Lateral deviation of the spine.
To reduce body weight, which of the following is the MOST important determinant? a) Energy expenditure b) Caloric restriction c) Negative energy balance d) Positive energy balance
c) Negative energy balance
What is produced when carbohydrates are broken down during anaerobic glycolysis? a) Ketones b) Acetyl CoA c) Pyruvate d) Lactate
c) Pyruvate
Your client forgets to bring the service introduction packet but is dressed appropriately for exercise. You should: a) Have the client sign an informed consent so that you can still begin training. b) At a minimum, have the client sign the informed consent and fill out his health/medical history evaluation. c) Reschedule the appointment, and underscore the importance of having all forms completed and signed. d) Give the client another packet to complete, and obtain medical clearance by the next session.
c) Reschedule the appointment, and underscore the importance of having all forms completed and signed.
Deviations in which plane are referred to as "hyperlordosis"? a) Horizontal b) Transverse c) Sagittal d) Frontal
c) Sagittal
The elbow can perform movements in which plane? a) Frontal b) Transitional c) Sagittal d) Horizontal
c) Sagittal
Which of the following hemodynamic variables have a linear relationship and are heavily influenced by one another during exercise? a) Mean arterial pressure and peak VO2 b) Mean arterial pressure and cardiac output c) Systolic blood pressure and cardiac output d) Systolic blood pressure and peak VO2
c) Systolic blood pressure and cardiac output
While supine, your client performs range of motion on the shoulder joint. She displays tightness in the infraspinatus and teres major. You were led to this conclusion because the client was: a) Able to reach overhead to the contralateral shoulder. b) Unable to abduct the arm to shoulder level. c) Unable to externally rotate the shoulder joint past 60°. d) Able to internally rotate the shoulder joint to about 60°.
c) Unable to externally rotate the shoulder joint past 60°.
Which of the following is the correct transition of blood flow throughout the vasculature? a) Arteries, arterioles, capillaries, veins, and venules b) Arteries, capillaries, arterioles, venules, and veins c) Arterioles, arteries, capillaries, venules, and veins d) Arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins
d) Arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins
The volume of blood pumped by the heart in liters per minute is defined as__________. a) Systolic blood pressure b) Stroke volume c) Diastolic blood pressure d) Cardiac output
d) Cardiac output
Which of the following BEST describes shoulder impingement? a) Increased shoulder pain when moving into shoulder horizontal abduction b) Compression of the tendons in the subacromial space with shoulder joint motion c) Increased shoulder pressure on the superior aspect of the acromion process d) Crushing of only the supraspinatus tendon and bursa in the suprahumeral space
d) Compression of the tendons in the subacromial space with shoulder joint motion
Which of the following is a recommended procedure for administering a 1-RM strength test? a) Gradually progress from warm-up to 1-RM within seven sets. b) Select an initial weight of approximately 80%-90% of the client's capacity. c) Do six to eight practice sessions for each exercise. d) Conduct a familiarization period of no less than two weeks.
d) Conduct a familiarization period of no less than two weeks.
Tom is a 65-year-old normal healthy male who has exercised consistently for the last 5 years. While having him perform a set of abdominal crunches (a new exercise for him), he reports a gradual onset of a "dull ache" and "slight burn" in his neck toward the end of the set. Upon set completion, these feelings subside. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? a) Instruct him to utilize a reverse crunch to minimize earlier symptoms. b) Stop the exercise, and move to another that offers cervical spine support. c) Stop the exercise, and recommend a physician consultation. d) Continue the exercise as part of his regimen, and provide education.
d) Continue the exercise as part of his regimen, and provide education.
Your potential 37-year-old client is on medication to control her hypertension and wishes to start a moderate-intensity exercise program. She has no other risk factors. You should: a) Ensure that her primary health care provider signs the informed consent form. b) Require that she obtain medical clearance prior to exercise. c) Take baseline blood pressure readings. d) Design an exercise program that starts at a lower intensity.
d) Design an exercise program that starts at a lower intensity.
The ankle's most stable position is in __________ due to the overall shape of the __________. a) Plantarflexion; talus b) Plantarflexion; calcaneus c) Dorsiflexion; distal fibula d) Dorsiflexion; talus
d) Dorsiflexion; talus
Concentric contraction of the triceps brachii muscle causes ____________ in the _____________plane. a) Extension; frontal b) Flexion; sagittal c) Flexion; frontal d) Extension; sagittal
d) Extension; sagittal
Which of the following movements occur in the frontal plane of motion? a) Elbow joint extension b) Glenohumeral extension c) Radioulnar supination d) Hip joint abduction
d) Hip joint abduction
What joint action of the shoulder is performed during a reverse cable fly or a reverse dumbbell fly? a) Protraction b) Horizontal adduction c) Retraction d) Horizontal abduction
d) Horizontal abduction
Per the latest ACSM position stand, the MINIMUM threshold of frequency for aerobic exercise is: a) Vigorous-intensity aerobic exercise, 5 days per week. b) Combination of moderate- and vigorous-intensity aerobic exercise, 5 days per week. c) Moderate-intensity aerobic exercise, 3 days per week. d) Moderate-intensity aerobic exercise, 5 days per week.
d) Moderate-intensity aerobic exercise, 5 days per week.
Which of the following is the gold standard for assessing cardiorespiratory fitness? a) 1.5 mile walk/run test b) Astrand-Rhyming Cycle Ergometer Test c) Cooper 12-Minute Walk/Run Test d) Open circuit spirometry during graded exercise to fatigue
d) Open circuit spirometry during graded exercise to fatigue (The gold standard used to measure cardiorespiratory fitness is the assessment of VO2max via open circuit spirometry during maximal-intensity, aerobic exercise. However it requires expensive equipment, technical expertise, and maximal-intensity exercise performance by the client.)
The frequency of breathing by the volume of air moved per breath per minute is known as: a) Tidal volume. b) Respiratory rate. c) Ventilatory threshold. d) Pulmonary ventilation.
d) Pulmonary ventilation.
Joints between bones, along with bones and ligaments, collectively make up what system? a) The skeletal system b) The synovial system c) The amphiarthrodial system d) The articular system
d) The articular system
Which of the following is a standardized skinfold site? a) Abdominal b) Chest c) Triceps d) Thigh
d) Thigh
The most common dietary fats are: a) Polyunsaturated fats b) Solid at room temperature c) Short-chain fatty acids d) Triglycerides
d) Triglycerides
ACSM recommends a diagnostic exercise test for clients with: a) Age older than 35 years. b) Blood pressure of 140/92 mm Hg. c) Type 1 diabetes for at least 5 years. d) Type 2 diabetes for at least 10 years.
d) Type 2 diabetes for at least 10 years.
Which of the following is a positive risk factor? a) Low-density lipoprotein 120 mg · dL−1 b) Fasting plasma glucose 80 mg · dL−1 c) Sudden death of mother at 70 years of age d) Walking to and from work 3 days a week, for 20 minutes, for the past 2 months
d) Walking to and from work 3 days a week, for 20 minutes, for the past 2 months
Which of the following conditions may exempt an individual from a medical release and physician supervised exercise testing prior to training? a) Resting blood pressure of 135/85 mm Hg b) Asymptomatic heart murmurs c) Diabetes with well-regulated glucose levels d) Well-controlled exercise-induced asthma
d) Well-controlled exercise-induced asthma
What is an appropriate food source for vitamin K?
Green leafy vegetables (Green leafy vegetables, as well as intestinal bacterial synthesis, are sources for vitamin K.)
Individuals who are short in stature may not be good candidates for What type of testing?
Step tests (A shorter individual with a shorter leg length will have a more difficult time performing a step test when compared to a taller individual with longer leg length.)
Which of the following joints favors mobility over stability? a) Ankle b) Glenohumeral c) Knee d) Thoracic spine
Glenohumeral (The shoulder has a high degree of mobility; as a result, the shoulder region is very unstable.)
What make up cardiac output?
Stroke volume and heart rate (Cardiac output is the product of SV and HR, and is also a measure of blood pumped per minute.)
Which of the following refers to oxygen consumption in relative terms? a) 5.3 L · min b) 5.3 METs c) 53 ml · kg · min d) 53 ml · min
53 ml · kg · min (Oxygen consumption refers to the rate at which oxygen is consumed by the body. It can be expressed in absolute (L · min) or relative (mL ·/ kg · min) terms.)
Which of the following is the MOST powerful method of marketing to potential clients? a) Word of mouth b) Complimentary consultations c) Website d) Direct mailers
Word of mouth (The most cost-effective method of marketing continues to be word of mouth.)
Which of the following includes characteristics of central obesity? a) Male waist-hip ratio of 0.91 b) Female waist-hip ratio of 0.83 c) Male waist circumference of 100 cm d) Female waist circumference of 85 cm
a) Male waist-hip ratio of 0.91
What common characteristics are reported by those experiencing symptoms consistent with coronary artery disease?
"Heaviness" ("Heaviness" is a common symptom that is reported and is consistent with an ischemic response to exercise or exertion.)
A 30-year-old potential client states she just had a physical and was informed by her physician that her total cholesterol and blood pressure looked great. You review her medical history and note she is taking vitamins and antihypertensive medication. Based on this profile, she would be considered as having how many risk factors?
1 (This individual is considered as having one risk factor because she is on hypertensive medication)
Which of the following BEST assesses lower-body muscular strength? a) Bodyweight squat b) 1-RM squat c) Standing long jump d) 10-RM leg press
1-RM squat (Muscular strength is one-time maximal force that may be assessed in the lower extremity via the 1-RM squat.)
How many ATP molecules are produced when glycogen is broken down into pyruvate? a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 3
3
Please refer to client profile below: 45-year-old male Mother has hypertension Father had coronary bypass surgery at age 59 Quit smoking 20 years ago Walks dog 1 to 2 times per day, for 10 minutes per walk BMI: 29 kg/m2 Blood Pressure: 132/86 mm Hg TTotal serum cholesterol: 216 mg · dL−1 LDL cholesterol: 138 mg · dL−1 HDL cholesterol: 48 mg · dL−1 Fasting plasma glucose: 94 mg · dL−1 Goals: Lose 20 lb; increase muscle strength and cardiorespiratory fitness What is this client's "total score" for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease using the ACSM risk factor thresholds? a) 2 b) 4 c) 1 d) 3
3
You discover the following information about Rosalyn, your new 54-year-old female client: BMI = 24.3 (68 inches, 160 lbs) Total cholesterol: 190 mg · dL−1 HDL cholesterol: 62 mg · dL−1 Blood pressure: 128/84 mm Hg with antihypertensive medication Former smoker: quit 2 months ago Family history: Father diagnosed with coronary heart disease at age 54 Walks to work 8 minutes each way
3 positive and 1 negative risk factors. (Positive risk factors include hypertension, smoking, and family history. The only negative risk factor is HDL-C levels.)
To obtain the health benefits of aerobic exercise, individuals should accumulate at LEAST:
75 minutes per week of vigorous-intensity exercise. (For substantial health benefits, individuals should accrue at least 150 minutes per week of moderate-intensity exercise or 75 minutes per week of vigorous-intensity exercise or an equivalent combination of moderate and vigorous aerobic exercise. )
Ischemia is caused by:
A lack of oxygen. (Ischemia occurs because oxygen supply cannot meet the oxygen demand for rest or activity. This is usually caused by atherosclerosis, and pain is a commonly reported symptom)
What organizations publish formal screening guidelines for those who plan to participate in physical activity?
ACSM and American Heart Association (The two most widely recognized sets of formal screening guidelines for apparently healthy individuals are published by the ACSM and the American Heart Association.)
To increase accuracy of submaximal graded exercise testing, the EP-C should:
Achieve a steady state heart rate within 3-4 minutes at each workload. (Precise assessment of HR is a critical factor in determining VO2max. To minimize the error of prediction, a steady state HR should must be achieved within 3-4 minutes at each workload)
Which of the following has the greatest effect on the reduction of blood pressure? a) Interval training b) Aerobic exercise training c) Strength training d) Circuit training
Aerobic exercise training (Studies have shown that aerobic training results in the most favorable blood pressure response.)
Which of the following is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease? a) An individual whose high-density lipoprotein cholesterol is 40 mg · dL−1 b) An individual whose blood glucose is 125 mg · dL−1 following an oral glucose tolerance test c) An individual who smokes cigars twice a year on special occasions d) An individual who quit smoking 4 months ago
An individual who quit smoking 4 months ago (The risk of cigarette smoking is removed once the individual has quit smoking for 6 months or more.)
Which of the following is associated with a higher risk of cardiometabolic disease? a) Overweight b) Android obesity c) Gynoid obesity d) BMI of 25-29
Android obesity (Central obesity (also referred to as abdominal or android obesity) is associated with a higher risk of cardiometabolic diseases.)
Prior to the first training session scheduled next week, you should provide specific session instructions on:
Appropriate exercise attire. (Not all clients will be familiar with what is involved in an exercise session. Provide specific instructions with respect to attire, nutrition and hydration preparation, avoiding exertion, and what can be expected.)
What is MOST accurate regarding VO2max?
As workload gradually increases, there is a linear increase in VO2max. (Steady state VO2 continues to increase linearly as workload increases until VO2max is reached.)
When comparing strength between two individuals, you should:
Assess strength by comparing relative strength. (Although two individuals may have the same absolute strength on the chest press exercise, the lighter client has a higher measure of relative upper body strength, and this is an important consideration when comparing individual strength performance between clients.)
What is MOST important before the EP-C conducts submaximal graded exercise testing?
Awareness of normal and abnormal responses to exercise (Submaximal graded exercise testing functions to determine baseline fitness. The EP-C must be aware of the normal and abnormal hemodynamic response to incremental exercise)
To assess a normal and appropriate cardiovascular response to graded exercise, the EP-C should monitor:
BP and HR before, during, and after exercise. (To determine whether clients have an appropriate cardiovascular response to graded exercise, the EP-C should assess BP and HR before, during, and after exercise.)
So that clients do not call at the last minute to let you know they will not be able to make a session, the Certified Exercise Physiologist-Client Agreement must include clear language with respect to the:
Cancellation policy. (The cancellation policy makes clear to the client the financial ramifications of not making arrangements to reschedule an appointment per the agreement.)
Exchange of blood gases and other nutrients within various tissues occurs in the ____________.
Capillaries (All exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries at the microscopic level)
What blood vessel is the location of gas and nutrient exchange?
Capillary (The capillary is the smallest and most numerous of the blood vessels and is the location of gas and nutrient exchange.)
The AHA/ACSM Health/Fitness Facility Preparticipation Screening Questionnaire assesses health status by evaluating:
Cardiovascular risk factors. (The AHA/ACSM Health/Fitness Facility Preparticipation Screening Questionnaire assesses health status by reviewing self-reported history, symptoms, health issues, and cardiovascular risk factors)
To minimize any emergent event during exercise testing or training, the EP-C must:
Conduct appropriate screening on each client as a first step (To reduce the likelihood of any adverse or unwanted events during a fitness assessment or PA program, it is prudent to conduct some form of screening on each client as a first step.)
Ankle edema may be indicative of what?
Congestive heart failure (Chronic venous insufficiency occurs when the veins of the lower leg cannot pump enough blood back to the heart.)
The benefits of physical activity would outweigh the risk for which of the following? a) Unstable angina b) Hypokalemia c) Controlled Type 1 diabetes d) Acute systemic infection
Controlled Type 1 diabetes (An absolute contraindication refers to those criteria that are "nonnegotiable" and individuals with those biomarkers should not be allowed to participate in any form of PA program and/or assessment. Persons with relative contraindications, however, may be accepted or allowed into a fitness assessment and/or PA program if it is deemed that the individual benefits outweigh the potential risks)
Kyphosis is defined as:
Convexity of the spinal curve that is posterior.
Which of the following strategies will BEST help generate clients? a) Developing a professional network of allied health professionals b) Email marketing c) Passing out business cards to potential clients d) Hosting an open house event
Developing a professional network of allied health professionals (Certified Exercise Physiologists should become part of a network of mutually referring allied health professionals. This often fosters a win-win situation with respect to referrals.)
Which of the following is a sign or symptom suggestive of cardiovascular disease? a) Dizziness after quickly moving from a lying to standing position b) Shortness of breath after climbing several flights of stairs c) Dull pain in the low back while touching the toes d) Discomfort in the neck and jaw after carrying a heavy suitcase for a several minutes
Discomfort in the neck and jaw after carrying a heavy suitcase for a several minutes (Carrying heavy loads such as suitcases may provoke ischemia and result in discomfort in various areas of the upper extremities.)
Which of the following actions takes place in the sagittal plane? a) Pronation of the forearm b) Dorsiflexion of the ankle c) Depression of the scapulae d) Opposition of the thumb
Dorsiflexion of the ankle
Which of the following increases functional capacity and may relieve symptoms of coronary artery disease? a) Circuit training b) Resistance training c) Interval training d) Endurance exercise training
Endurance exercise training (Endurance exercise training typically increases myocardial oxygen supply, lowers the demand for oxygen, or both.)
Which of the following guidelines are indicated for pregnant women who have been medically cleared for exercise? a) Walk daily using a rate of perceived exertion of "fairly light." b) Exercise at moderate intensity for at least 150 minutes weekly. c) Exercise most days of the week at an intensity of 75% of maximal heart rate. d) Exercise most days of the week at an intensity of 75% of VO2max.
Exercise at moderate intensity for at least 150 minutes weekly. (If exercise is not contraindicated, pregnant women can follow the ACSM and Surgeon General's recommendations to accumulate a minimum of 150 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise weekly.)
What is the primary disadvantage for assessing VO2max?
Expensive equipment and technical expertise is required. (To maximize accuracy, it requires expensive equipment, technical expertise, and maximal-intensity exercise performance by the client. These requirements limit testing to primarily clinical laboratory and research settings.)
Which of the following acronyms provides a framework for exercise prescription in healthy individuals?
FITT (The acronym FITT (F=frequency, I=intensity, T=time or duration, and T=type or mode) provides the framework to establish an exercise prescription in healthy individuals.)
During the concentric phase of a hamstring curl, the hamstrings are __________. a) Adducted b) Abducted c) Flexed d) Extended
Flexed
A posterior pelvic tilt produces lumbar ________ and an anterior pelvic tilt produces lumbar ________.
Flexion; extension (A posterior pelvic tilt results in lumbar flexion, in which the pubic symphysis moves superiorly, the lumbar spine flexes, and the hips extend, resulting in a decreased lumbosacral angle. With anterior pelvic tilt, the pubic symphysis moves inferiorly, the lumbar spine extends, and the hips flex, resulting in an increased lumbosacral angle)
Which of the following would be considered a negative risk factor for ACSM risk classification? a) Brisk walking for 20 minutes, 3 times per week b) VLDL of 65 mg · dL−1 c) HDL-C of 60 mg · dL−1 d) Walking to and from work for 30 minutes
HDL-C of 60 mg · dL−1 (HDL-C (≥ 60 mg · dL−1) is one negative risk factor used in the ACSM Risk Classification. If the client meets this one criterion, then subtract one from the total sum of the positive risk factors. HDL-C participates in reverse cholesterol transport and may thus lower the risk of CVD.)
Which of the following is WITHIN the scope of practice for Certified Exercise Physiologists? a) Educating clients about resting metabolic rate (RMR) and providing an RMR-specific meal plan to lose weight b) Conducting 24-hour dietary recalls to help clients learn where they have micronutrient deficiencies c) Helping clients gain a better understanding of portion sizes and healthful foods so they can make better choices d) Providing recipes and shopping lists to help clients establish a 1200-calorie diet plan
Helping clients gain a better understanding of portion sizes and healthful foods so they can make better choices (Certified Exercise Physiologists do not develop or provide meal and diet plans for clients as this falls within the scope of practice for registered dietitians. However, providing basic nutritional education is appropriate.)
Movement toward the midline in the transverse plane describes what term?
Horizontal adduction (Movement toward the midline of the body in the transverse plane is usually used to describe horizontal humerus movement when the shoulder is flexed at 90°)
Movement toward the midline in the transverse plane describes which term?
Horizontal adduction (Movement toward the midline of the body in the transverse plane is usually used to describe horizontal humerus movement when the shoulder is flexed at 90°.)
Which of the following forms discusses the risks and benefits of performing assessments and exercise? a) Informed consent b) Client intake form c) Certified Exercise Physiologist-Client Agreement d) Medical clearance form
Informed consent (The client must read, acknowledge, and have an opportunity to ask questions regarding potential risks and benefits of assessments and exercise participation.)
Which of the following is a common risk factor that is associated with exercise? a) Injuries at the knee or foot b) Sprain of the shoulder joint c) Strain of the rotator cuff d) Injuries at the lumbar spine
Injuries at the knee or foot (There is also an increased risk of musculoskeletal injury associated with exercise. The most common musculoskeletal injuries, regardless of gender, occur in the lower body, particularly at the knee or foot.)
A client with a history of heart disease is experiencing symptoms of severe calf pain which occurs consistently around 10 minutes into walking. This condition MOST likely is:
Intermittent claudication. (Intermittent claudication or severe calf pain when walking is a sign or symptom of cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic (CPM) disease. This pain is reproducible with increasing exercise intensity and indicates a lack of oxygenated blood flow to the working muscles, similar in origin to angina pain.)
Which joint movement occurs in the transverse plane? a) Adduction b) Internal rotation c) Flexion d) Abduction
Internal rotation (The transverse plane divides the body from the top and bottom. Any movement that is parallel to this plane, such as a rotation, occurs in this plane.)
What should be avoided in hypertensive clients?
Isometric muscle contractions (Clients with hypertension should primarily engage in aerobic endurance activities. They should avoid activities that emphasize isometric muscle actions as these may result in hypertensive responses)
The primary advantage in conducting a step test to assess cardiorespiratory fitness is that:
It allows for assessment of a large group (Step tests are a widely utilized form of CRF assessment because of the practicality of this technique. They are short in duration, require little equipment that is easily portable, and allow for assessment of large groups)
You observe an exaggerated outward curve of the thoracic spine. This postural deviation is known as:
Kyphosis (The thoracic spine has a natural kyphotic curve. A postural deviation here is technically known as "hyperkyphosis.")
A muscle that produces a low force and has a high contractile rate is classified as a __________ muscle. a) Unipennate b) Bipennate c) Longitudinal d) Multipennate
Longitudinal
Syncope is defined as:
Loss of consciousness. (Syncope is commonly caused by a reduced perfusion of blood flow to the brain.)
What is a potential outcome of maintaining a professional presence and disposition when training clients?
Maintaining a professional presence may also help generate clients, as this is also a form of advertising (Being approachable by clients and other staff may lead to more interest as it relates to training inquiries.)
Where is the majority of ATP generated in the cell?
Mitochondria (Mitochondria are known as the "powerhouse of the cell," as that is where the majority of ATP is generated.)
Understanding nonverbal cues is important in establishing a successful client relationship because:
More information is communicated in this manner. (Body language and other nonverbal cues are believed to be more reliable than spoken words.)
A low to high diagonal chop using a medicine ball takes place in:
Multiple planes. (A low to high diagonal chop takes place in all three planes.)
One of the key health concerns of having a high stress level, which exercise can positively impact, is:
Negative blood lipid levels. (High stress is associated with numerous health risks, including adverse shifts in blood lipid levels. Exercise and physical activity have potentially positive effects on stress, including reduction of depression, hostility, and overall stress level.)
Cells must continuously create ATP at a rate equal to ATP use during submaximal exercise through what metabolic system?
Oxidative (Cells must continuously create ATP at a rate equal to ATP use through a combination of three primary metabolic systems: creatine phosphate (CP), anaerobic glycolysis, and the oxidative system.)
VO2 is lower than required to create adequate energy during exercise via the oxidative energy systems. This is known as:
Oxygen deficit. (Prior to steady state, VO2 is lower than required to create adequate energy for the given task via the oxidative energy systems. This period of inadequate oxygen consumption has been termed the oxygen deficit.)
What form may be used if a health/medical history evaluation form is not readily available?
PAR-Q+ (The PAR-Q+ assesses risk as it relates to heart disease and musculoskeletal symptoms.)
Your client is a 30-year-old male who has not been active in the last few months. He has completed all the forms, and you observe that he does not have any risk factors. He reports that he experienced some shortness of breath while playing a pickup basketball game this weekend, something he hasn't done in a year. You should:
Perform the appropriate assessments and plan on an exercise program that gradually increases in intensity. (The individual has no risk factors and most likely experienced shortness of breath from not playing basketball in a while. Thus, a moderate-intensity exercise program is appropriate.)
What is a self-guided screening questionnaire that focuses on symptoms of heart disease and possible musculoskeletal problems needing evaluation before beginning an exercise program?
Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+) (The PAR-Q+ is a less extensive self-guided questionnaire than the AHA/ACSM Health/Fitness Facility Preparticipation Screening Questionnaire.)
Which of the following BEST describes the mechanism for the cause of sudden cardiac death? a) Plaque buildup that dislodges from an artery and causes a blood clot b) An erratic atrial rhythm during diastole c) Hypertensive response at rest or during exercise d) A drop in blood pressure below 90/60 mm Hg
Plaque buildup that dislodges from an artery and causes a blood clot (Although the exact mechanism of sudden cardiac death or MI remains elusive, there appears to be an acute arterial insult that dislodges already present plaque, resulting in platelet aggregation or thrombosis)
What assessments are MOST important to complete before beginning resistance training?
Posture, functional movement, muscular strength, and endurance (Many people have muscular imbalances of the body, which may create postural alignment issues and injury. Thus, posture, functional movement, muscular strength, and endurance are critical assessments to identify indications for strengthening, stretching, and proper movement.)
Impaired glucose tolerance is consistent with What?
Prediabetes (Impaired glucose tolerance is a condition of prediabetes where blood glucose is elevated between 100 and 125 mg · dL−1 following an oral glucose tolerance test on two separate occasions)
For an individual to induce adaptation and obtain further benefits of exercise, What principle must be incorporated?
Progressive overload (To improve CRF, an individual must exercise at a level greater than accustomed to induce adaptation. The EP-C can implement the overload principle by manipulating the frequency, intensity, or time of the exercise prescription.)
The frequency of breathing by the volume of air moved per breath per minute is known as:
Pulmonary ventilation. (Pulmonary ventilation is the volume of air inhaled and exhaled per minute. It is calculated by multiplying the frequency of breathing by the volume of air moved per breath (tidal volume).)
The function of the right ventricle is to:
Pump deoxygenated blood to the lungs for oxygen loading and carbon dioxide unloading. (The right ventricle is responsible for pumping deoxygenated blood to the lungs for oxygen loading and carbon dioxide unloading.)
During the concentric phase of extension at the knee joint, the ________ work as an agonist and the ________ work as the antagonist.
Quadriceps, hamstrings (The quadriceps function as an agonist to extend the knee joint, and the hamstrings function as an antagonist since it functions to flex the knee joint.)
When performing pulse palpation during and after exercise, the BEST location to utilize is the:
Radial pulse. (If the pulse palpation technique is to be used during and after exercise to assess HR, palpation of the radial artery may be a superior choice to the carotid artery because of the possibility of activating the carotid baroreceptors and inducing a reduction in HR, SV, TPR, and MAP.)
During the initial client-contact process, you find that your potential client would rather work with a trainer of another gender. You should:
Refer the client to another Certified Exercise Physiologist who would be more compatible. (Trainers must assess compatibility with potential clients, and the client's preferences should be taken into account. This assessment also helps with developing rapport and exercise adherence.)
Which of the following is a positive risk factor? a) Women ≥50 years b) High-density lipoprotein 55 mg · dL−1 c) Men ≥40 years d) Regular exposure to tobacco smoke
Regular exposure to tobacco smoke (Even though the client may not be a cigarette smoker, regular exposure to tobacco smoke is considered a positive risk factor.)
Which of the following is MOST accurate as it relates to total energy expenditure? a) Physical activity consists of approximately half of total energy expenditure. b) Resting energy expenditure makes up the majority of calories expended regardless of activity levels. c) The thermic effect of food consists of approximately half of total energy expenditure. d) Fat mass has a positive influence on resting energy expenditure.
Resting energy expenditure makes up the majority of calories expended regardless of activity levels. (Resting energy expenditure (sometimes referred to as BEE or basal energy expenditure) is the amount of calories a person uses if he was to do no activity throughout the day. )
Following the initial client contact, what are the next steps after the client has completed and returned all forms to you?
Review paperwork and clarify goals. (A detailed health and fitness history is necessary for screening, appropriate follow-up if needed, and validation of preferences and goals.)
The thumb is classified as a ________ joint.
Saddle (The thumb is classified as a saddle or sellar joint.)
Running is done predominately in what plane of movement?
Sagittal (Any movement that is parallel to the sagittal plane, such as running (flexion/extension of the hip and knee, and plantarflexion/dorsiflexion of the ankle joint) occurs in the sagittal plane.)
Which of the following are the products that make up the Fick equation? a) Heart rate and systolic blood pressure b) End diastolic volume, ejection fraction, and heart rate c) Stroke volume, heart rate, and a-VO2 difference d) Heart rate and stroke volume
Stroke volume, heart rate, and a-VO2 difference (The Fick equation demonstrates that VO2max is dictated by maximal cardiac output (SVmax × HRmax) and maximal arteriovenous oxygen difference)
Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding exercise testing and pregnant women? a) Cycle ergometer tests should be avoided as they may negatively affect venous return. b) Maximal exercise testing should only take place during the first trimester. c) Submaximal exercise testing is more appropriate, however rarely indicated. d) Exercise testing requires supervision by a physician.
Submaximal exercise testing is more appropriate, however rarely indicated. (Although submaximal exercise testing is more appropriate for this population, there is usually little need to conduct fitness assessments in pregnant women.)
During the contraction phase of a bicep curl, the palms are ___________.
Supinated (Supination refers to position of the radiounlar joint where the wrist joint is rotated so that the thumb is positioned on the lateral side of the arm.)
The functions of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems are to: a) Break down fuel and generate ATP production. b) Maintain thermogenesis and core temperature. c) Maintain body metabolism at rest and during various workloads. d) Supply oxygen and remove waste products from the body.
Supply oxygen and remove waste products from the body.
Which of the following groups of muscles describes the rotator cuff? a) Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, latissimus dorsi, and teres minor b) Teres major, joint capsule, proximal portion of biceps tendon, and acromion c) Teres minor, teres major, rhomboid minor, and rhomboid major d) Supraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis, and infraspinatus
Supraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis, and infraspinatus (The muscles that make up the rotator cuff include the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis.)
____________ is the pressure exerted on the arterial wall during the ventricular contraction phase.
Systolic blood pressure (Systole is the force that is produced by the left ventricle as it pumps oxygenated blood to the rest of the body.)
The most immediate source of ATP is:
The creatine phosphate system. (The most immediate source of ATP is the CP system which provides ATP to fuel work only during short, intense bouts of exercise, owing to the limited storage capacity of CP within each cell.)
Which of the following is the MOST accurate definition of glycogen? a) The storage form of glucose b) Composed of insoluble fiber c) A nutrient needed for weight maintenance d) A simple carbohydrate
The storage form of glucose (The basic form of carbohydrate energy for human nutrition is the simple sugar glucose, and our bodies make a complex carbohydrate called glycogen, which is the storage form of glucose)
Obesity is defined as: a) BMI of 25. b) BMI of 29. c) Waist circumference of 34 inches in women. d) Waist circumference of 40 inches in men.
Waist circumference of 40 inches in men. (Obesity is defined by body mass index ≥ 30 kg · m2, or waist circumference ≥ 102 cm or 40 inches in men and ≥ 88 cm or 35 inches in women. If available, body fat percentage values could also be used with appropriate judgment)
Which of the following profiles is considered a risk factor with respect to obesity? a) BMI >25 for males b) Waist of 32 inches for females c) Waist of 40 inches for males d) BMI of 28 for females
Waist of 40 inches for males (The defining criteria for obesity risk is waist girth of 40 inches or greater for males.)
Blood pressure is usually taken at which location of the body? a) Apical pulse b) Brachial pulse c) Radial pulse d) Femoral pulse
b) Brachial pulse
The ulna bone is ________ to the humerus bone. a) Anterior b) Distal c) Posterior d) Proximal
b) Distal
The purpose of our cells breaking down food that we consume is to: a) Maintain blood glucose levels. b) Produce ATP. c) Restore creatine phosphate stores. d) Maintain muscle glycogen levels.
b) Produce ATP.
Which of the following is considered a gliding joint? a) Atlanto-axial b) Sacroiliac c) Scapulothoracic d) Ankle
b) Sacroiliac (The sacroiliac joint connects the sacrum to the ilium on each side and is sometimes described as a gliding joint. It is capable of relatively little movement.)
Which of the following is TRUE for a client who wishes to participate in moderate physical activity? a) A physician should supervise the exercise test. b) A diagnostic exercise test is required. c) A medical exam is not necessary to get started. d) A medical exam is recommended.
c) A medical exam is not necessary to get started. (For an individual who plans on participating in a moderate-intensity exercise program, neither a medical exam nor diagnostic exercise test is required.)
Which of the following is considered a hinge joint? a) Hip b) Humeroulnar c) Elbow d) Humeroradial
c) Elbow
Which of the following indicates that a client-centered approach is being used? a) The client is speaking at a normal pace. b) The Certified Exercise Physiologist is helping the client make connections between risk factors and health. c) The client is talking more than the Certified Exercise Physiologist. d) The Certified Exercise Physiologist is asking closed-end questions.
c) The client is talking more than the Certified Exercise Physiologist.
Which of the following activities has the lowest musculoskeletal risk of injury? a) Cycling b) Weightlifting c) Walking d) Jogging
c) Walking (Walking for exercise, which is performed by approximately 30% of adults, is the most popular exercise in the United States. The musculoskeletal risk associated with walking is considerably lower than that with jogging, with about 1.5% of people reporting an injury in the previous month.)
For individuals younger than 30 years of age, the most common cause/s of sudden cardiac death is/are:
congenital and hereditary abnormalities (For young individuals (younger than 30 years), the most common causes of sudden cardiac death are congenital and hereditary abnormalities.)
A Certified Exercise Physiologist may begin immediately training which of the following clients? a) A 45-year-old male client who has asthma b) A 49-year-old male client who has an abdominal hernia c) A 56-year-old female client who takes a calcium channel blocker d) A 42-year-old female client who has lumbar lordosis
d) A 42-year-old female client who has lumbar lordosis
Which of the following cholesterol levels requires referral to a physician for further evaluation? a) Total = 205 mg · dL−1, TC/HDL = 3 b) Total = 167 mg · dL−1, TC/HDL = 4 c) Total = 190 mg · dL−1, TC/HDL = 4 d) Total = 200 mg · dL−1, TC/HDL = 6
d) Total = 200 mg · dL−1, TC/HDL = 6