Primary Care FNP Review 1250 Terms

Electrosurgical destruction is contraindicated for which one of the following skin lesions? (check one) A. Cherry angiomata B. Pyogenic granuloma C. Basal cell carcinoma D. Melanoma E. Actinic keratosis

D. Melanoma. Contraindications to treatment with electrosurgery include the use of a pacemaker and the treatment of melanoma. All the other lesions listed can be treated with electrosurgery.

An 8-year-old white male presents with a 4-day history of erythematous cheeks, giving him a "slapped-cheek" appearance. Examination of the extremities reveals a mildly pruritic, reticulated, erythematous, maculopapular rash (see Figure 1). He is afebrile and no other constitutional symptoms are present.

...

Which one of the following historical or audiographic findings in an elderly person would indicate that hearing loss is due to something other than presbycusis? (check one) A. Conductive hearing loss B. Bilateral hearing loss C. Symmetric hearing loss D. Gradual hearing loss E. High-frequency hearing loss

A. Conductive hearing loss. Presbycusis, the hearing loss associated with aging, is gradual in onset, bilateral, symmetric, and sensorineural.

Which one of the following complications occurs most frequently after Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery for obesity? (check one) A. Early dumping syndrome B. Late dumping syndrome C. Pulmonary embolism D. Iron and vitamin B12 deficiency

D. Iron and vitamin B12 deficiency. Iron and vitamin B12 deficiencies develop in more than 30% of patients after Roux-en-Y gastric bypass. The incidence of pulmonary embolus is 1%-2%. The incidence of dumping syndrome is very low.

The most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. acute narrow-angle glaucoma B. optic neuritis C. retinal hemorrhage D. central retinal artery occlusion E. central retinal vein occlusion

D. central retinal artery occlusion. The retinal findings shown are consistent with central retinal artery occlusion. The painless, unilateral, sudden loss of vision over a period of seconds may be caused by thrombosis, embolism, or vasculitis. Acute narrow-angle glaucoma is an abrupt, painful, monocular loss of vision often associated with a red eye, which will lead to blindness if not treated. In persons with optic neuritis, funduscopy reveals a blurred disc and no cherry-red spot. Occlusion of the central retinal vein causes unilateral, painless loss of vision, but the retina will show engorged vessels and hemorrhages.

Which one of the following is the most common cause of bacterial diarrhea? (check one) A. Listeria monocytogenes B. Escherichia coli O157:H7 C. Shigella dysenteriae D. Campylobacter jejuni E. Salmonella enterica

D. Campylobacter jejuni. The treatment of acute and significant diarrhea often requires a specific diagnosis. Epidemiologic studies have shown that Campylobacter infections are the leading cause of bacterial diarrhea in the U.S.

A 65-year-old white male comes to your office with a 0.5-cm nodule that has developed on his right forearm over the past 4 weeks. The lesion is dome shaped and has a central plug. You schedule a biopsy but he does not return to your office for 1 year. At that time the lesion appears to have healed spontaneously. The most likely diagnosis is (check one) A. benign lentigo B. lentigo maligna C. basal cell carcinoma D. squamous cell carcinoma E. keratoacanthoma

E. keratoacanthoma. Keratoacanthoma grows rapidly and may heal within 6 months to a year. Squamous cell carcinoma may appear grossly and histologically similar to keratoacanthoma but does not heal spontaneously. The other lesions do not resemble keratoacanthoma.

A 90-year-old female nursing-home patient has a 1.5×2.0-cm lesion on her face (shown in Figure 8). She states that the "spot" has been present for years and that it doesn't bother her. Closer examination reveals a flat maculopapular lesion with varying colors and an irregular border.

...

Which one of the following platelet counts is the threshold for prophylactic platelet transfusion in most patients? (check one) A. 10,000/μL B. 25,000/μL C. 40,000/μL D. 50,000/μL E. 100,000/μL

A. 10,000/μL. The threshold for prophylactic platelet transfusion is 10,000/μL (SOR A). Platelet transfusion decreases the risk of spontaneous bleeding in such patients. A count below 50,000/μL is an indication for platelet transfusion in patients undergoing an invasive procedure.

Which one of the following is associated with a history of sexual abuse in females? (check one) A. Lifelong functional gastrointestinal disorders B. Lifelong headache disorders C. Obesity D. Recurrent syncope

A. Lifelong functional gastrointestinal disorders. A comprehensive, systematic literature review found an association of sexual abuse with a lifelong history of functional gastrointestinal disorders, irrespective of the age of the victim at the time of abuse. There was no statistically significant association with obesity, headache, or syncope.

A 50-year-old male comes to your office for a "doctor's excuse" for days of work he missed last week. He attended a picnic where he and other guests developed nausea and vomiting 2 hours after eating. Within 48 hours, the symptoms had resolved. The most likely etiology of the illness is which one of the following? (check one) A. Staphylococcus B. Clostridium botulinum C. Clostridium perfringens D. Clostridium difficile E. Actinomycosis

A. Staphylococcus. This is a typical presentation of staphylococcal food poisoning. The symptoms usually begin 1-6 hours after ingestion and resolve within 24-48 hours. Foodborne botulism is most commonly found in homecanned foods, and symptoms begin 18-36 hours after ingestion. Clostridium perfringens is transmitted in feces and water, and symptoms begin 6-24 hours after ingestion. Clostridium difficile is associated with antibiotic use. Actinomycosis causes local abscesses, not gastroenteritis.

You see a 9-month-old male with a 1-day history of cough and wheezing. He has previously been healthy and was born after an uncomplicated term pregnancy. He is up to date on his immunizations. On examination his temperature is 38.6°C (101.5°F) and his respiratory rate is 30/min. He has diffuse wheezing and his oxygen saturation on room air is 94%. Because it is midwinter, you obtain a swab for influenza, which is negative. A chest radiograph shows peribronchiolar edema. Appropriate management would include which one of the following? (check one) A. Supportive care only B. Inhaled corticosteroids C. Ribavirin (Rebetol) D. Palivizumab (Synagis) E. Supplemental oxygen

A. Supportive care only. This child has a respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infection. Supportive care is the mainstay of therapy. If the child can take in fluids by mouth and tolerate room air, outpatient management with close physician contact as needed is reasonable, especially in the absence of significant underlying risk factors. Routine use of corticosteroids is not recommended (SOR B). Although up to 60% of infants hospitalized for bronchiolitis receive corticosteroid therapy, studies have not provided sufficient evidence to support their use. Inhaled corticosteroids have not been shown to be beneficial, and the safety of high doses in infants is unclear. Supplemental oxygen should be administered if functional oxygen saturation (SpO2) persistently falls below 90% and can be discontinued when an adequate level returns (SOR C). Antiviral therapy for RSV bronchiolitis is controversial because of its marginal benefit, cumbersome delivery, potential risk to caregivers, and high cost (SOR B). Studies of ribavirin in patients with bronchiolitis have produced inconsistent findings. Palivizumab is a preventive measure, and is not used for treatment of the active disease. It may be considered in select infants and children with prematurity, chronic lung disease of prematurity, or congenital heart disease (SOR A). If used, it should be administered intramuscularly in five monthly doses of 15 mg/kg, usually beginning in November or December (SOR C).

Studies indicate that patients most frequently want physicians to ask about their spiritual beliefs in which one of the following situations? (check one) A. When being treated for a potentially fatal illness B. During the annual preventive visit C. During the initial office visit with the physician D. Only if specifically requested by the patient, a family member, their minister, or a chaplain E. When prayer is suggested by the patient or physician

A. When being treated for a potentially fatal illness. Patients often welcome spiritual discussion, depending on the situation. The percentage that welcome this discussion increases with the severity of illness, and is greatest among those who are very seriously ill with a potentially fatal disease. Spiritual inquiry during medical care should focus on understanding, compassion, and hope, and should be directed toward individuals who suffer from serious illness.

A 35-year-old right-handed softball player injures his left wrist when sliding into second base. When he sees you the next day his description of the injury indicates that he hyperextended his wrist while sliding, and the pain was later accompanied by swelling. Your examination is remarkable only for mild swelling and tenderness of the dorsal wrist, distal to the ulnar styloid. A radiograph of the wrist is shown in Figure 2.

...

A 7-year-old male complains of left shoulder pain after a bicycle accident. The neurovascular evaluation is normal. A radiograph is shown in Figure 4.

...

A 70-year-old white male presents with fatigue, weakness, and foot paresthesias. His hemoglobin level is 10.5 g/dL (N 12.6-17.4). His peripheral smear is shown in Figure 2.

...

A 72-year-old male with a serum creatinine level of 1.8 mg/dL (N 0.6-1.5) requires a contrast dye study. Which one of the following is most effective when given prior to the administration of contrast to reduce the risk for contrast-induced renal failure? (check one) A. N-acetylcysteine B. Mannitol C. Furosemide (Lasix) D. Methylprednisolone sodium succinate (Solu-Medrol) E. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

A. N-acetylcysteine. Current methods for reducing the risk of renal failure induced by contrast material include adequate hydration and the use of N-acetylcysteine. Neither mannitol nor furosemide has been shown to prevent contrast-induced renal failure. Corticosteroids and antihistamines are useful for the prevention of idiosyncratic reactions to contrast, but are not helpful in reducing the risk of renal failure.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 60 ======================================================= You are a member of a committee at your local hospital that has been asked to develop measures to reduce the incidence of postoperative methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infections. Which one of the following would be most effective for preventing these infections? (check one) A. Give preoperative antibiotics to all surgical patients to eradicate bacteria B. Screen all admitted patients for MRSA and use antibiotics pre- and postoperatively in positive cases C. Culture the nares of all hospital employees upon hiring and on a routine basis thereafter D. Institute an intensive program of good hand washing for all employees

D. Institute an intensive program of good hand washing for all employees. Nosocomial infections are a significant factor in morbidity and cost in the health care field. Methicillinresistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) has rapidly increased in frequency, first being found only at tertiary centers, then local hospitals, and now in the outpatient setting. In 2004, an estimated 1.5% of U.S. residents carried MRSA in the anterior nares of the nose. Of those who are found to be colonized, either at the time of hospitalization or later by a routine culture, 25% will develop a MRSA infection. However, a recent study showed that of 93 patients who became infected with the organism, 57% were not colonized at the time of infection. The study also attempted to screen all patients for MRSA on admission, but found that even though 337 previously unknown carriers were found (in addition to those already known to harbor the organism), there was not a significant decrease in the rate of MRSA infections during the study. Although MRSA infections can be serious, they comprise only 8% of nosocomial infections in the hospital, and concentrating prevention efforts only on MRSA has little effect on that 8%, and no effect on the 92% of infections caused by other organisms. Iatrogenic complications arise from trying to treat MRSA carriers, including both drug reactions and the development of other resistant organisms. Costs related to attempts at prophylaxis also go up. Culturing all hospital employees has not been proven to be of value, as employees can pick up the organism after screening, and also can spontaneously eradicate the organism without treatment. The best way to prevent complications and postoperative infections is to aggressively advocate universal and frequent hand washing and room cleaning, and use good isolation techniques and methods of preventing infection, such as strict catheter and intravenous tubing protocols.

Under current guidelines, hospice programs are most likely to serve patients dying from: (check one) A. heart failure B. COPD C. severe dementia D. multiple strokes E. cancer

E. cancer. The general requirement for enrolling an individual in hospice is that they have a terminal illness and an estimated life expectancy of 6 months or less. Given these criteria, it is not surprising that over 40% of hospice patients have a cancer diagnosis. Cancer usually has a short period of obvious decline at the end and is predictable to a degree. Diseases such as COPD, end-stage liver disease, and heart failure result in long-term disability with periodic exacerbations, any one of which could result in death, but far less predictably. Those with severe dementia or frailty often experience a dwindling course that is also difficult to predict.

Which one of the following skin infections should initially be treated with oral antifungal therapy? (check one) A. Tinea capitis B. Tinea corporis C. Tinea cruris D. Erythrasma E. Mycosis fungoides

A. Tinea capitis. Most tinea infections respond to topical therapy, but oral therapy is required for tinea capitis so that the drug will penetrate the hair shafts (SOR B). Tinea corporis may require oral therapy in severe cases, but usually responds to topical therapy (SOR A). Oral therapy has a higher likelihood of side effects. Erythrasma and mycosis fungoides are not fungal diseases.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 90 ======================================================= The most common stress fracture in children involves which one of the following bones? (check one) A. Calcaneus B. Tibia C. Fibula D. Tarsal navicular E. Metatarsal

B. Tibia. Tibial fractures are the most common lower extremity stress fractures in both children and adults, accounting for about half of all stress fractures.

A 16-year-old male is brought to your office by his mother for "stomachaches." On the review of systems he also complains of headaches, occasional bedwetting, and trouble sleeping. His examination is within normal limits. His mother says that he is often in the nurse's office at school, and doesn't seem to have any friends. When you discuss these problems with him, he admits to being teased and called names at school. Which one of the following would be most appropriate? (check one) A. Explain that he must try to conform to be more popular B. Explain that these symptoms are a stress reaction and will lessen with time C. Explore whether his school counselor has a process to address this problem D. Order a TSH level

C. Explore whether his school counselor has a process to address this problem. Childhood bullying has potentially serious implications for bullies and their targets. The target children are typically quiet and sensitive, and may be perceived to be weak and different. Children who say they are being bullied must be believed and reassured that they have done the right thing in acknowledging the problem. Parents should be advised to discuss the situation with school personnel. Bullying is extremely difficult to resolve. Confronting bullies and expecting victims to conform are not successful approaches. The presenting symptoms are not temporary, and in fact can progress to more serious problems such as suicide, substance abuse, and victim-to-bully transformation. These are not signs or symptoms of thyroid disease. The Olweus Bullying Prevention Program developed in Norway is a well documented, effective program for reducing bullying among elementary and middle-school students by altering social norms and by changing school responses to bullying incidents, including efforts to protect and support victims. Students who have been bullied regularly are more likely to carry weapons to school, be in frequent fights, and eventually be injured.

A hospitalized 55-year-old male has developed the tachyarrhythmia shown in Figure 6. He is alert and denies chest pain, although he complains of palpitations and is mildly dyspneic since the onset of this sustained dysrhythmia. His blood pressure is 116/76 mm Hg and pulse oximetry shows 93% saturation on 2L of oxygen.

...

You see a newly adopted 5-month-old for his first well child visit. The parents ask when the child can sit in a safety seat in the car facing forward. You would advise that the child should face rearward until he is at least: (check one) A. 12 months of age AND weighs 20 lb B. 15 months of age AND weighs 25 lb C. 15 months of age OR weighs 25 lb D. 18 months of age AND weighs 30 lb E. 18 months of age OR weighs 30 lb

A. 12 months of age AND weighs 20 lb. If a child faces forward in a crash, the force is distributed via the harness system across the shoulders, torso, and hips, but the head and neck have no support. Without support, the infant's head moves rapidly forward in flexion while the body stays restrained, causing potential injury to the neck, spinal cord, and brain. In a rear-facing position, the force of the crash is distributed evenly across the baby's torso, and the back of the child safety seat supports and protects the head and neck. For these reasons, the rear-facing position should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and weighs at least 20 lb (9 kg). For example, a 13-month-old child who weighs 19 lb should face rearward, and a 6-month-old child who weighs 21 lb should also face rearward.

A 19-year-old college student comes to your office with her mother. The mother reports that her daughter has frequently been observed engaging in binge eating followed by induced vomiting. She has also admitted to using laxatives to prevent weight gain. Which one of the following laboratory abnormalities is most likely to be found in this patient? (check one) A. Hypokalemia B. Hypoglycemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypercalcemia E. Hypermagnesemia

A. Hypokalemia. The patient described is likely suffering from bulimia. These patients use vomiting, laxatives, or diuretics to prevent weight gain after binge eating. This often causes a loss of potassium, leading to weakness, cardiac arrhythmias, and respiratory difficulty. The levels of other electrolytes are not as dramatically affected.

The most frequently reported symptom of vulvar cancer is which one of the following? (check one) A. Longstanding pruritus B. Bleeding C. Pain D. Discharge E. Dysuria

A. Longstanding pruritus. The most common symptom of vulvar cancer is longstanding pruritis. The other symptoms mentioned occur less frequently.

The "Get Up and Go Test" evaluates for which one of the following? (check one) A. Risk of falling B. Effects of peripheral neuropathy C. Kinetic tremor D. Neurocardiogenic syncope E. Central causes of vertigo

A. Risk of falling. The "Get Up and Go Test" is the most frequently recommended screening test for mobility. It takes less than a minute to perform and involves asking the patient to rise from a chair, walk 10 feet, turn, return to the chair, and sit down. Any unsafe or ineffective movement with this test suggests balance or gait impairment and an increased risk of falling. If the test is abnormal, referral to physical therapy for complete evaluation and assessment should be considered. Other interventions should also be considered, such as a medication review for factors related to the risk of falling.

The probability of pregnancy after unprotected intercourse is the highest at which one of the following times? (check one) A. 3 days before ovulation B. 1 day before ovulation C. The day of ovulation D. 1 day after ovulation E. 3 days after ovulation

B. 1 day before ovulation. There is a 30% probability of pregnancy resulting from unprotected intercourse 1 or 2 days before ovulation, 15% 3 days before, 12% the day of ovulation, and essentially 0% 1-2 days after ovulation. Knowing the time of ovulation therefore has implications not only for "natural" family planning, but also for decisions regarding postcoital contraception.

The most appropriate initial treatment for scabies in an 8-year-old male is: (check one) A. 0.5% malathion lotion (Ovide) B. 5% permethrin cream (Elimite) C. 5% precipitated sulfur in petroleum D. trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra) orally for 10 days

B. 5% permethrin cream (Elimite). In adults and children over 5 years of age, 5% permethrin cream is standard therapy for scabies. This agent is highly effective, minimally absorbed, and minimally toxic.

Which one of the following has been shown to decrease mortality late after a myocardial infarction? (check one) A. Nitrates B. Beta-blockers C. Digoxin D. Thiazide diuretics E. Calcium channel antagonists

B. Beta-blockers. Beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors have been found to decrease mortality late after myocardial infarction. Aspirin has been shown to decrease nonfatal myocardial infarction, nonfatal stroke, and vascular events. Nitrates, digoxin, thiazide diuretics, and calcium channel antagonists have not been found to reduce mortality after myocardial infarction.

In a patient with hyperuricemia who has experienced an attack of gout, which one of the following is LEAST likely to precipitate another gout attack? (check one) A. Red meat B. Milk C. Seafood D. Nuts E. Beans

B. Milk. Reducing consumption of red meat, seafood, and alcohol may help reduce the risk of a gout attack. Dairy products, in contrast to other foods high in protein, decrease the risk of another attack. Nuts and beans are high in purines and will worsen gout.

Pallidotomy is a surgical therapy for: (check one) A. Alzheimer's disease B. Parkinson's disease C. Huntington's chorea D. Vascular dementia E. Temporal lobe epilepsy

B. Parkinson's disease. Thalamotomy and pallidotomy, contralateral to the side of the body that is most affected, are most effective for the treatment of disabling unilateral tremor and dyskinesia from Parkinson's disease.

Which one of the following is appropriate at the routine postpartum visit? (check one) A. A CBC B. Screening for depression C. Thyroid function tests D. Glucose tolerance testing E. A urine dipstick

B. Screening for depression. Screening for postpartum depression is recommended as part of the routine postpartum visit. The use of a screening tool for depression is recommended, such as the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale. This scale has been shown to increase the identification of women at high risk for depression. A CBC or urine dipstick is recommended only for patients who have an indication for them, and should not be routinely ordered. Thyroid function tests and glucose tolerance testing are recommended for patients who are either symptomatic or at high risk for disease.

A 70-year-old white female presents with a pruritic rash on her sacrum that has occurred intermittently over the last 6 years. She reports that the area is always very tender just before the blister-like lesions erupt. She is otherwise in good health, and takes no medications. Her past medical history is unremarkable. You provide appropriate treatment for the condition. You should advise the patient to avoid which one of the following during future outbreaks? (check one) A. Excessive intake of green, leafy vegetables B. Sexual contact C. Perfumed soaps or body lotions D. Sun exposure E. Prolonged sitting

B. Sexual contact. Genital herpes is the most common sexually transmitted genital ulcer disease in the U.S. It can occur at any age, and data suggest that it may be the most common sexually transmitted disease in women over the age of 50 years. Extragenital sites are involved in one-fourth of infected women, and the sacrum and buttocks are frequent locations. Sacral nerve innervation from the vaginal area provides a pathway for the virus. Prevention of transmission depends upon cogent patient education advising abstinence from skin-to-skin contact when active lesions are present.

Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia C. Hemolytic anemia D. Acute myelogenous leukemia E. Chronic myelogenous leukemia

B. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia. The blood smear shows a hypersegmented polymorphonuclear (PMN) white blood cell, typical of vitamin B12deficiency with pernicious anemia. The anemia is of the macrocytic type (MCV >100 μ m ). There is no evidence of hemolysis or leukemia. While iron deficiency anemia can be a coexisting problem, the hypersegmented PMN is classic for vitamin B12 deficiencyIt is important to note that elderly patients with vitamin B12 deficiency may have neurologic signs and symptoms before developing hematologic abnormalities.

Which one of the following is a risk factor for intermittent claudication? (check one) A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypercalcemia C. Diabetes mellitus D. Hypogonadism E. Elevated angiotensin-converting enzyme

C. Diabetes mellitus. Diabetes mellitus and cigarette smoking are significant risk factors for intermittent claudication, as are hypertension and dyslipidemia. Hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia, and hypogonadism are not closely associated with intermittent claudication. Elevation of angiotensin-converting enzyme occurs with sarcoidosis.

Outbreaks of diarrheogenic Escherichia coli 0157:H7 have been associated with which one of the following? (check one) A. Pet turtles B. Ice cream C. Ground beef D. Canned sardines E. Home-preserved vegetables

C. Ground beef. Recent outbreaks of E. coli 0157:H7-related illnesses have been associated with contaminated ground beef bought either uncooked in supermarkets or as cooked hamburgers at fast-food restaurants.

Over the past year, a 32-year-old white female has experienced increasing hair growth on her chin and chest, acne, and irregular menstrual periods. She takes no medications. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate course of action at this point? (check one) A. Empiric treatment with metformin (Glucophage) B. CT of the adrenal glands C. Laboratory testing D. Brain MRI E. Pelvic ultrasonography

C. Laboratory testing. Testing for androgen excess is indicated in the young woman with an acute onset of hirsutism or when it is associated with menstrual irregularity, infertility, central obesity, acanthosis nigricans, or clitoromegaly. It should be kept in mind that excess hair has a male pattern in women with hirsutism, whereas hypertrichosis is characterized by excessive hair growth all over the body. Elevated early morning total testosterone is most often associated with polycystic ovary syndrome, but other causes of hyperandrogenism and other endocrinopathies should be eliminated. These studies should include pregnancy testing if the patient has amenorrhea, as well as a serum prolactin level to exclude hyperprolactinemia. DHEA-S and early morning 17-hydroxyprogesterone can detect adrenal hyperandrogenism and congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Assessment for Cushing syndrome, thyroid disease, or acromegaly is appropriate if associated signs or symptoms are present. Pelvic ultrasonography can be performed to evaluate for ovarian neoplasm or polycystic ovaries, although PCOS is a clinical diagnosis and ultrasonography has a low sensitivity.

Which one of the following should be given intravenously in the initial treatment of status epilepticus? (check one) A. Propofol (Diprivan) B. Phenobarbital C. Lorazepam (Ativan) D. Midazolam (Versed)

C. Lorazepam (Ativan). Status epilepticus refers to continuous seizures or repetitive, discrete seizures with impaired consciousness in the interictal period. It is an emergency and must be treated immediately, since cardiopulmonary dysfunction, hyperthermia, and metabolic derangement can develop, leading to irreversible neuronal damage. Lorazepam, 0.1-0.15 mg/kg intravenously, should be given as anticonvulsant therapy after cardiopulmonary resuscitation. This is followed by phenytoin, given via a dedicated peripheral intravenous line. Fosphenytoin, midazolam, or phenobarbital can be used if there is no response to lorazepam. Propofol has been used for refractory status epilepticus to induce general anesthesia when the initial drugs have failed, but reports of fatal propofol infusion syndrome have led to a decline in its use.

In evaluating an adult with anemia, which one of the following findings most reliably indicates a diagnosis of iron deficiency anemia? (check one) A. Low total iron-binding capacity B. Low serum iron C. Low serum ferritin D. Microcytosis E. Hypochromia

C. Low serum ferritin. The total iron-binding capacity is elevated, not decreased, in iron deficiency anemia. As an acute-phase reactant, serum iron may be decreased in response to inflammation even when total body stores of iron are not decreased. Microcytosis and hypochromia are both features of iron deficiency anemia occurring late in its development, but both can also be seen in the thalassemias. Serum ferritin is also an acute-phase reactant but is normal or elevated in the face of an inflammatory process. A low serum ferritin, however, is diagnostic for iron deficiency even in its early stages.

Which one of the following is the leading cause of blindness in individuals over age 65 in the U.S.? (check one) A. Open angle glaucoma B. Narrow angle glaucoma C. Macular degeneration D. Diabetic retinopathy E. Ophthalmic artery occlusion

C. Macular degeneration. Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is the leading cause of blindness in the U.S. in individuals over age 65. AMD currently affects more than 1.75 million individuals in the U.S. Due to the rapid aging of the population, this number will increase to almost 3 million by 2020.

Which one of the following describes the McRoberts maneuver for managing shoulder dystocia? (check one) A. Suprapubic pressure B. Delivery of the posterior arm C. Maximal flexion and abduction of the maternal hips D. Rolling the mother to an "all-fours" position E. Rotation of the fetal head

C. Maximal flexion and abduction of the maternal hips. When the just-delivered fetal head retracts firmly against the perineum, shoulder dystocia is apparent. This is an obstetric emergency that requires appropriate assistance and a calm but timely approach to ensure a safe delivery. While all of the maneuvers described are steps in managing shoulder dystocia, the McRoberts maneuver by itself (maximal flexion and abduction of the maternal hips) relieves the impaction of the anterior shoulder against the maternal symphysis in a large percentage of cases, especially when combined with suprapubic pressure.

A 65-year-old white female comes to your office with evidence of a fecal impaction which you successfully treat. She relates a history of chronic laxative use for most of her adult years. After proper preparation, you perform sigmoidoscopy and note that the anal and rectal mucosa contain scattered areas of bluish-black discoloration. Which one of the following is the most likely explanation for the sigmoidoscopic findings? (check one) A. Endometriosis B. Collagenous colitis C. Melanosis coli D. Metastatic malignant melanoma E. Arteriovenous malformations

C. Melanosis coli. This patient has typical findings of melanosis coli, the term used to describe black or brown discoloration of the mucosa of the colon. It results from the presence of dark pigment in large mononuclear cells or macrophages in the lamina propria of the mucosa. The coloration is usually most intense just inside the anal sphincter and is lighter higher up in the sigmoid colon. The condition is thought to result from fecal stasis and the use of anthracene cathartics such as cascara sagrada, senna, and danthron. Ectopic endometrial tissue (endometriosis) most commonly involves the serosal layer of those parts of the bowel adjacent to the uterus and fallopian tubes, particularly the rectosigmoid colon. Collagenous colitis does not cause mucosal pigmentary changes. Melanoma rarely metastasizes multicentrically to the bowel wall. Multiple arteriovenous malformations are more common in the proximal bowel, and would not appear as described.

A 23-year-old Hispanic female at 18 weeks' gestation presents with a 4-week history of a new facial rash. She has noticed worsening with sun exposure. Her past medical history and review of systems is normal. On examination, you note symmetric, hyperpigmented patches on her cheeks and upper lip. The remainder of her examination is normal. The most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. Lupus erythematosus B. Pemphigoid gestationis (herpes gestationis) C. Melasma (chloasma) D. Prurigo gestationis

C. Melasma (chloasma). Melasma or chloasma is common in pregnancy, with approximately 70% of pregnant women affected. It is an acquired hypermelanosis of the face, with symmetric distribution usually on the cheeks, nose, eyebrows, chin, and/or upper lip. The pathogenesis is not known. UV sunscreen is important, as sun exposure worsens the condition. Melasma often resolves or improves post partum. Persistent melasma can be treated with hydroquinone cream, retinoic acid, and/or chemical peels performed post partum by a dermatologist. The facial rash of lupus is usually more erythematous, and lupus is relatively rare. Pemphigoid gestationis is a rare autoimmune disease with extremely pruritic, bullous skin lesions that usually spare the face. Prurigo gestationis involves pruritic papules on the extensor surfaces and is usually associated with significant excoriation by the uncomfortable patient.

Which one of the following should be avoided when treating pain in the elderly? (check one) A. Fentanyl (Sublimaze) B. Hydrocodone C. Meperidine (Demerol) D. Morphine E. Oxycodone (OxyContin)

C. Meperidine (Demerol). According to the Beers criteria, a list of drugs that should generally be avoided in older adults, meperidine should not be used in the elderly because its metabolite can accumulate and cause seizures. The other medications are not listed in the Beers criteria and are not contraindicated in the elderly.

You diagnose Trichomonas vaginitis in a 25-year-old white female, and treat her and her partner with metronidazole (Flagyl), 2 g in a single dose. She returns 1 week later and is still symptomatic, and a saline wet prep again shows Trichomonas. Which one of the following is the most appropriate treatment at this time? (check one) A. Metronidazole gel 0.75% (MetroGel) intravaginally for 5 days B. Metronidazole, 2 g orally, plus metronidazole gel 0.75% intravaginally for 5 days C. Metronidazole, 500 mg orally twice a day for 7 days D. Clindamycin cream (Cleocin) 2% intravaginally for 7 days E. Sulfadiazine (Microsulfon), 4 g orally in a single dose, plus pyrimethamine (Daraprim), 200 mg orally in a single dose

C. Metronidazole, 500 mg orally twice a day for 7 days. The preferred treatment for Trichomonas vaginitis is metronidazole, 2 g given in a single oral dose. Certain strains of Trichomonas vaginalis, however, have diminished sensitivity to metronidazole. Patients who fail initial treatment with metronidazole should be retreated with 500 mg orally twice a day for 7 days. If treatment fails again, the patient should be treated with 2 g daily for 3-5 days. Metronidazole gel and clindamycin cream are useful for treating bacterial vaginosis, but are not effective in the treatment of Trichomonas vaginitis. Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine are used to treat toxoplasmosis.

A 30-year-old female presents with concerns about vaginal bleeding. She states that her menstrual periods have occurred at regular intervals of 28-30 days for the past 15 years, but recently bleeding has also occurred for a day or two in the middle of her cycle. This bleeding has been heavy enough to require the use of multiple pads. Which one of the following terms best describes her bleeding pattern? (check one) A. Polymenorrhea B. Mid-cycle spotting C. Metrorrhagia D. Menometrorrhagia E. Acute emergent abnormal uterine bleeding

C. Metrorrhagia. This patient has metrorrhagia, or "bleeding intermenstrual," characterized by bleeding heavy enough to require the use of multiple pads; the heavy bleeding occurs between normal menstrual bleeding. It is important to evaluate metrorrhagia because potential causes include cervical disease, problems with IUDs, endometritis, polyps, submucous myomas, endometrial hyperplasia, and cancer. Mid-cycle spotting, as the term implies, refers to light spotting and is often caused by a decline in estrogen levels. Polymenorrhea is bleeding occurring at intervals of less than 21 days. Menometrorrhagia is heavy and/or prolonged bleeding occurring at irregular, noncyclic intervals. Acute emergent abnormal uterine bleeding is characterized by significant blood loss resulting in hypovolemia.

A 14-year-old male is brought to your office by his mother to establish care. The patient has been diagnosed with asthma, but has not been on any medications for the past year. When questioned, he reports that his asthmatic symptoms occur daily and more than one night per week. On examination, he is found to have a peak expiratory flow of 75%. Based on these findings, the most accurate classification of this patient's asthma is: (check one) A. Mild intermittent B. Mild persistent C. Moderate persistent D. Severe persistent

C. Moderate persistent. The National Asthma Education and Prevention Program (NAEPP) classifies asthma into four categories. Mild intermittent asthma is characterized by daytime symptoms occurring no more than 2 days per week and nighttime symptoms no more than 2 nights per month. The peak expiratory flow (PEF) or forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) is 80% or more of predicted. Mild persistent asthma is characterized by daytime symptoms more than 2 days per week, but less than once a day, and nighttime symptoms more than 2 nights per month. PEF or FEV1 is 80% or more of predicted. Moderate persistent asthma is characterized by daytime symptoms daily and nighttime symptoms more than 1 night per week. PEF or FEV1 is 60%-80% of predicted. Severe persistent asthma is characterized by continuous daytime symptoms and frequent nighttime symptoms. PEF or FEV1 is 60% or less of predicted.

A 23-year-old female with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus presents with a 48-hour history of vague left precordial pain. Serum markers for acute cardiac injury are normal. An EKG performed in the emergency department is shown in Figure 7.

...

A 27-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a complaint of bloody diarrhea and abdominal cramping. A few days ago she ate a rare hamburger at a birthday party for her 4-year-old son. He ate hot dogs instead, and has not been ill. A stool specimen is positive for Escherichia coli O:157. Which one of the following should you do next? (check one) A. Provide levofloxacin (Levaquin) prophylaxis to her close contacts B. Monitor her liver enzymes C. Monitor her renal function D. Reassure her that her son is not at risk of illness

C. Monitor her renal function. Escherichia coli O:157 is an increasingly common cause of serious gastrointestinal illness. The usual source is undercooked beef. The child is at risk, since at least 20% of cases result from secondary spread. Transmission is frequent in children's day-care facilities and nurseries. Some cases are asymptomatic, but the great majority are symptomatic, and patients present with bloody diarrhea. Levofloxacin is not useful for prophylaxis in contacts. This patient has a 10%-15% risk of developing hemolytic uremic syndrome secondary to her E. coli O:157 infection, making close monitoring of renal function essential.

Which one of the following unimmunized patients should receive two doses of influenza vaccine? (check one) A. A 5-year-old with asthma B. A 10-year-old with cystic fibrosis C. A 15-year-old with sickle cell anemia D. A 30-year-old with HIV infection E. A 65-year-old with bullous emphysema

A. A 5-year-old with asthma. Two doses of influenza vaccine are recommended for children under the age of 9 years unless they have been vaccinated previously. Children 3-8 years of age should receive one or two 0.5-mL doses of split-virus vaccine intramuscularly.

A 17-year-old soccer player presents for a preparticipation examination. His family history is significant for the sudden death of his 12-year-old sister while playing basketball, and for his mother and maternal grandmother having recurrent syncopal episodes. His medical history and examination are completely normal. Prior to approving his participation in sports, which one of the following is recommended? (check one) A. A resting EKG B. A stress EKG C. An echocardiogram D. Pulmonary function testing E. No further evaluation

A. A resting EKG. A family history of sudden death and recurrent syncope is highly suspicious for genetic long-QT syndrome. It is best diagnosed with a resting EKG that shows a QTc >460 msec in females and >440 msec in males. This syndrome especially places young people at risk for sudden death. Management may include β-blockers, an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator, and no participation in competitive sports.

======================================================= Reproductive (Female) Board Review Questions 02 ======================================================= A 17-year-old white female presents with new-onset left-sided lower abdominal pain. Color flow Doppler ultrasonography, in addition to pelvic ultrasonography, would be most useful for evaluating: (check one) A. Adnexal torsion B. Pelvic abscess C. Pelvic inflammatory disease D. Ruptured ovarian cyst

A. Adnexal torsion. Color Doppler flow studies are useful for evaluating blood flow to the ovary in possible cases of adnexal or ovarian torsion. Adnexal torsion is a surgical emergency. Pelvic ultrasonography, preferably with a vaginal probe, can be beneficial in the workup of ruptured ovarian cyst, pelvic abscess, and pelvic inflammatory disease without abscess. The Doppler flow study is not required with these condition.

A 60-year-old male presents with an acute onset of pain and swelling in the right big toe. He can recall no mechanism of injury. He has hypertension which is well controlled with hydrochlorothiazide. On examination the area around the base of the toe is reddened, slightly warm, and very tender on palpation. Which one of the following should be AVOIDED in this patient at this time? (check one) A. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) B. Colchicine C. NSAIDs D. Prednisone E. Aspiration of the joint

A. Allopurinol (Zyloprim). This patient likely has gout. Aspiration should be attempted to get a specific diagnosis. The initial treatment for gout is NSAIDs, colchicine, or cortisone injections (SOR B). Allopurinol should be avoided until the episode of gout is controlled, because it may cause temporary worsening. In addition to medication, recommended management includes addressing risk factors such as obesity, diuretic use, high-purine diet, and alcohol intake (SOR B).

You see a patient for the first time who has AIDS and chronic hepatitis B. He is losing weight, and in spite of adequate antiretroviral therapy, is becoming weaker, to the point of being virtually bedridden. Because of ascites, low serum albumin, and elevated liver enzymes, you suspect chronic hepatitis as the cause of his decline. Which one of the following would be most likely to improve this patient's condition? (check one) A. Antiviral drugs for hepatitis B B. Appetite stimulation with topical androgens C. Appetite stimulation with dronabinol (Marinol) D. Liver transplantation E. No treatment, with palliative care being the only appropriate management

A. Antiviral drugs for hepatitis B. Effective oral antiviral drugs are now available for chronic hepatitis B (at a cost of about $20 per day) and can be added to highly active antiretrovirals. The recent trend in the treatment of newly diagnosed patients with AIDS and hepatitis B is to treat both problems initially, selecting AIDS drugs that are also active against hepatitis B. Various agents to stimulate appetite are used in declining HIV patients, but have little benefit. Liver transplantation has been done in a few cases of coinfection with hepatitis B and HIV, but the hepatitis B viremia has to be suppressed first.

Of the following antidepressants, which one is LEAST likely to cause drug interactions? (check one) A. Citalopram (Celexa) B. Fluoxetine (Prozac) C. Paroxetine (Paxil) D. Mirtazapine (Remeron)

A. Citalopram (Celexa). Like all drugs, SSRIs have significant side effects, including inhibition of the cytochrome P-450 system. However, citalopram is least likely to inhibit this system, making it a preferred SSRI for patients taking multiple medications for other illnesses.

Which one of the following is the most common secondary cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults? (check one) A. Diabetes mellitus B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Hepatitis D. NSAIDs E. Multiple myeloma

A. Diabetes mellitus. Although most cases of nephrotic syndrome are caused by primary kidney disease, the most common secondary cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults is diabetes mellitus. Other secondary causes include systemic lupus erythematosus, hepatitis B, hepatitis C, NSAIDs, amyloidosis, multiple myeloma, HIV, and preeclampsia. Primary causes include membranous nephropathy and focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, each accounting for approximately one third of cases.

A 66-year-old male has hypertension that has become difficult to manage after several years of good control on a stable medical regimen. On evaluation, his BUN level is 40 mg/dL (N 8-25) and his serum creatinine level is 2.1 mg/dL (N 0.6-1.5). Which one of the following tests would be best to evaluate this patient for renovascular hypertension? (check one) A. Duplex Doppler ultrasonography B. CT angiography C. Aortography D. Captopril (Capoten) renography

A. Duplex Doppler ultrasonography. Duplex Doppler ultrasonography is the preferred initial test for renovascular hypertension in patients with impaired renal function. Tests involving intravenous radiographic contrast material may cause deterioration in renal function. Captopril renography is not reliable in the setting of poor renal function. Magnetic resonance angiography also could be considered, but the association between the use of gadolinium contrast agents and nephrogenic systemic fibrosis in patients with renal dysfunction would be a concern.

Imiquimod (Aldara) is approved by the FDA for treatment of which one of the following conditions? (check one) A. External anogenital warts B. Plantar warts C. Flat warts D. Periungual warts E. Molluscum contagiosum

A. External anogenital warts. Since its FDA approval, imiquimod has been used off-label to treat all of the conditions listed, but is approved only for treatment of external genital and perianal warts in patients 12 years of age and over.

A 17-year-old white female has a history of anorexia nervosa, and weight loss has recently been a problem. The patient is an academically successful high-school student who lives with her parents and a younger sibling. Her BMI is 17.4 kg/m2 . Her serum electrolyte levels and an EKG are normal. Which one of the following interventions is most likely to be successful? (check one) A. Family-based treatment B. Adolescent-focused individual therapy C. Fluoxetine (Prozac) D. Phenelzine (Nardil) E. Desipramine (Norpramin)

A. Family-based treatment. Family-based treatment for the adolescent with anorexia nervosa has been found to provide superior results when compared with individual adolescent-focused therapy (SOR B). Antidepressants have not been successful. They may be indicated for coexisting conditions, but this is more common with bulimia.

A 40-year-old male with acute pancreatitis has an alanine transaminase (ALT) level that is five times normal. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Gallstone pancreatitis B. Pancreatic necrosis C. Pancreatic pseudocyst D. Hepatitis C E. Alcohol-induced pancreatitis

A. Gallstone pancreatitis. In this setting, a threefold or greater elevation of alanine transaminase has a positive predictive value of 95% for acute gallstone pancreatitis. High levels of C-reactive protein are associated with pancreatic necrosis. Hepatitis C is identified by antibody detection or polymerase chain reaction testing. Other markers are investigational.

In the U.S., the most common nutritional deficiency is: (check one) A. Iron B. Vitamin B12 C. Vitamin D D. Calories E. Protein

A. Iron. Iron deficiency is the most common known form of nutritional deficiency. Its prevalence is highest in children and in women of childbearing age (especially pregnant women).

Which one of the following is true regarding the use of a diaphragm for contraception? (check one) A. It must be refitted if the patient gains more than 15 lb B. Use of nonoxynol-9 will prevent HIV C. Diaphragms are made only of latex D. Diaphragms are recommended for women with a history of toxic shock syndrome E. The diaphragm should be removed immediately after intercourse

A. It must be refitted if the patient gains more than 15 lb. The diaphragm is an effective method of contraception if used correctly. A weight change of more than 15 lb, pregnancy, or pelvic surgery may necessitate refitting. If used with nonoxynol-9, a diaphragm may actually increase the risk of HIV transmission. Diaphragms are made of latex, but a wide seal rim model made of silicone is available for those who are latex sensitive. Diaphragm use is contraindicated in women with a history of toxic shock syndrome. The diaphragm should remain in place for 6-24 hours after intercourse.

A 28-year-old male presents with the recent onset of intermittent urethral discharge accompanied by dysuria. He is heterosexual, has no prior history of a sexually transmitted infection, and acquired a new sexual partner a month ago. He has no regional lymphadenopathy or ulcers, and gentle milking of the urethra produces no discharge. Evaluation of a first-void urine specimen, however, reveals 15 WBCs/hpf. You treat him with oral azithromycin (Zithromax), 1 g in a single dose, and ceftriaxone (Rocephin), 125 mg intramuscularly. Test results for gonorrhea, Chlamydia, syphilis, HIV, and hepatitis B are negative. He returns 2 months later because his urethral discharge has persisted. He reports no relationships with a different sexual partner, and is confident that his current partner has only had sexual contact with him. You repeat the previous tests and again treat him with oral azithromycin. According to CDC testing and treatment guidelines, which one of the following drugs should be added to his treatment regimen? (check one) A. Metronidazole (Flagyl) B. Amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) C. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) D. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra) E. Cefixime (Suprax)

A. Metronidazole (Flagyl). According to CDC guidelines, the initial workup for urethritis in men includes gonorrhea and Chlamydia testing of the penile discharge or urine, urinalysis with microscopy if no discharge is present, VDRL or RPR testing for syphilis, and HIV and hepatitis B testing. Empiric treatment for men with a purulent urethral discharge or a positive urine test (positive leukocyte esterase or ≥10 WBCs/hpf in the first-void urine sediment) includes azithromycin, 1 g orally as a single dose, OR doxycycline, 100 mg orally twice a day for 7 days, PLUS ceftriaxone, 125 mg intramuscularly, OR cefixime, 400 mg orally as a single dose. If the patient presents with the same complaint within 3 months, and does not have a new sexual partner, the tests obtained at his first visit should be repeated, and consideration should be given to obtaining cultures for Mycoplasma or Ureaplasma and Trichomonas from the urethra or urine. Treatment should include azithromycin, 500 mg orally once daily for 5 days, or doxycycline, 100 mg orally twice daily for 7 days, plus metronidazole, 2 g orally as a single dose.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 59 ======================================================= A 40-year-old male with a 20-pack-year history of smoking is concerned about lung cancer. He denies any constitutional symptoms, or breathing or weight changes. You encourage him to quit smoking and order which one of the following? (check one) A. No testing B. A chest radiograph C. Low-dose CT of the chest D. Sputum cytology

A. No testing. This patient is at risk for lung cancer, even with no symptoms. He should be encouraged to stop smoking, especially if he has concerns that may help motivate him to quit. No study has demonstrated that screening with any of the tests listed improves survival, and no major organization endorses lung cancer screening.

32-year-old white male undergoes an emergency splenectomy after a motor vehicle accident. Which one of the following should he receive after the surgery? (check one) A. Pneumococcal vaccine and meningococcal vaccine B. Pneumococcal vaccine alone C. Meningococcal vaccine alone D. No immunizations

A. Pneumococcal vaccine and meningococcal vaccine. Pneumococcal and meningococcal vaccines are currently recommended for patients with asplenia. Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccine can be considered as well. Emergency splenectomy for trauma is an indication for vaccination, even though splenic remnants may persist.

Which one of the following is a risk factor for endometrial cancer? (check one) A. Polycystic ovary syndrome B. Multiparity C. Late menarche D. Use of an IUD E. Use of oral contraceptives

A. Polycystic ovary syndrome. Patients with persistent hyperestrogenic states are at heightened risk for the development of endometrial cancer. The chronic anovulation and consequent hyperstimulation of the endometrium seen with polycystic ovary syndrome predispose women to endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma. Conversely, multiparity and late menarche are protective of the endometrium. Combination oral contraceptive use seems to decrease the risk for endometrial cancer. There is no evidence that IUD use leads to endometrial cancer, and it is thought that copper-containing IUDs may in fact provide some protection against endometrial cancer.

Which one of the following is the leading cause of death following bariatric surgery? (check one) A. Pulmonary embolism B. Adult respiratory distress syndrome C. Peritonitis secondary to an anastomotic leak D. Sepsis related to a wound infection E. Hemorrhage from an anastomotic ulcer

A. Pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary emboli, anastomotic leaks, and respiratory failure are responsible for 80% of deaths in the 30 days following bariatric surgery, with death from pulmonary embolism being the most frequent cause. Wound infections and marginal ulcers are common complications of this type of surgery.

A 33-year-old white female presents with tremor and a history of weight loss. On examination she is found to have mild, regular tachycardia and exophthalmos. Laboratory tests confirm hyperthyroidism. Which one of the following treatments has been found to potentially worsen Grave's ophthalmopathy? (check one) A. Radioactive iodine B. Propylthiouracil C. Methimazole (Tapazole) D. Thyroid hormone replacement plus propylthiouracil E. Thyroidectomy

A. Radioactive iodine. The ophthalmopathy of Grave's disease may initially flare and worsen when treated with radioactive iodine. Antithyroid drugs, including propylthiouracil, and methimazole, are not associated with this problem. The addition of thyroid hormone to these drugs at suppressive doses has not shown any clear benefit over titration of the antithyroid drug, and relapse rates are similar. Thyroid surgery in the controlled patient has not been significantly associated with this problem.

A 55-year-old overweight male presents with a complaint of pain in the left big toe. He recently started jogging 2 miles a day to try to lose weight, but has not changed his diet and says he drinks 4 cans of beer every night. The pain has developed gradually over the last 2 weeks and is worse after running. An examination shows a normal foot with tenderness and swelling of the medial plantar aspect of the left first metatarsophalangeal joint. Passive dorsiflexion of the toe causes pain in that area. Plantar flexion produces no discomfort, and no numbness can be appreciated. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Sesamoid fracture B. Gout C. Morton's neuroma D. Cellulitis

A. Sesamoid fracture. Pain involving the big toe is a common problem. The first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint has two sesamoid bones, and injuries to these bones account for 12% of big-toe injuries. Overuse, a sharp blow, and sudden dorsiflexion are the most common mechanisms of injury. Gout commonly involves the first MTP joint, but the onset is sudden, with warmth, redness, and swelling, and pain on movement of the joint is common. Morton's neuroma commonly occurs between the third and fourth toes, causes numbness involving the digital nerve in the area, and usually is caused by the nerve being pinched between metatarsal heads in the center of the foot. Cellulitis of the foot is common, and can result from inoculation through a subtle crack in the skin. However, there would be redness and swelling, and the process is usually more generalized. Sesamoiditis is often hard to differentiate from a true sesamoid fracture. Radiographs should be obtained, but at times they are nondiagnostic. Treatment, fortunately, is similar, unless the fracture is open or widely displaced. Limiting weight bearing and flexion to control discomfort is the first step. More complex treatments may be needed if the problem does not resolve in 4-6 weeks.

A 28-year-old female presents for evaluation of a persistent thin discharge, with a "fishy" odor particularly noticeable after intercourse. She has no dyspareunia or dysuria, is in a monogamous relationship, and has used oral contraceptives for many years. Physical examination reveals no vulvar, vaginal, or cervical erythema. There is a homogenous white discharge that coats the vaginal walls. The vaginal pH is 7.0 and on microscopy you note stippled epithelial cells but no hyphae or trichomonads. Which one of the following is true regarding this patient? (check one) A. The treatment of choice may interact with alcohol B. The patient's partner needs to be treated simultaneously C. The diagnosis should be confirmed with a culture D. Oral contraceptives contribute to the risk for this condition

A. The treatment of choice may interact with alcohol. The patient has the typical symptoms and signs of bacterial vaginosis. There is no need for confirmatory testing. The treatment of choice is oral metronidazole, which may cause a disulfiram-like interaction with alcohol. Treatment of the partner has not been shown to improve the outcome.

An 18-year-old white female presents with small, localized warts on the vulva and lower vaginal mucosa. She wants to avoid injections and surgical treatment if possible. Which one of the following is an acceptable topical agent for treating these vaginal lesions? (check one) A. Trichloroacetic acid B. Podofilox gel (Condylox) C. Imiquimod cream (Aldara) D. Interferon E. Podophyllin 25% solution in alcohol (Podocon-25, Podofin)

A. Trichloroacetic acid. Trichloroacetic acid is acceptable for use on vaginal mucosa. It is also acceptable for use when pregnancy is a possibility. Professional application is necessary. Podofilox and podophyllin in alcohol are not safe for use on mucosa. Imiquimod cream is also not approved for mucosal use. Interferon requires injection.

A previously healthy 82-year-old male is brought to your office by his daughter after a recent fall while getting up to go to the bathroom in the middle of the night. The patient denies any history of dizziness, chest pain, palpitations, or current injury. He has a history of bilateral dense cataracts. On examination, he is found to have an increased stance width and walks carefully and cautiously with his arms and legs abducted. A timed up-and-go test is performed, wherein the patient is asked to rise from a chair without using his arms, walk 3 meters, turn, return to his chair, and sit down. It takes the patient 25 seconds and he is noted to have an "en bloc" turn. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's gait and balance disorder? (check one) A. Visual impairment B. Cerebellar degeneration C. Frontal lobe degeneration D. Parkinson's disease E. Motor neuropathy

A. Visual impairment. Gait and balance disorders are one of the most common causes of falls in older adults. Correctly identifying gait and balance disorders helps guide management and may prevent consequences such as injury, disability, loss of independence, or decreased quality of life. The "Timed Up and Go" test is a reliable diagnostic tool for gait and balance disorders and is quick to administer. A time of <10 seconds is considered normal, a time of >14 seconds is associated with an increased risk of falls, and a time of >20 seconds usually suggests severe gait impairment. This patient has the cautious gait associated with visual impairment. It is characterized by abducted arms and legs; slow, careful, "walking on ice" movements; a wide-based stance; and "en bloc" turns. Patients with cerebellar degeneration have an ataxic gait that is wide-based and staggering. Frontal lobe degeneration is associated with gait apraxia that is described as "magnetic," with start and turn hesitation and freezing. Parkinson's disease patients have a typical gait that is short-stepped and shuffling, with hips, knees, and spine flexed, and may also exhibit festination and "en bloc" turns. Motor neuropathy causes a "steppage" gait resulting from foot drop with excessive flexion of the hips and knees when walking, short strides, a slapping quality, and frequent tripping.

In a patient with a severe anaphylactic reaction to peanuts, the most appropriate route for epinephrine is: (check one) A. intramuscular B. intravenous C. oral D. subcutaneous E. sublingual

A. intramuscular. Intramuscular epinephrine is the recommended drug for anaphylactic reactions (SOR A). Epinephrine is absorbed more rapidly intramuscularly than subcutaneously.

A male infant is delivered by cesarean section because of dystocia due to macrosomia. Apgar scores are 8 at 1 minute and 10 at 5 minutes. However, at about 1 hour of age he begins to have tachypnea without hypoxemia. A chest radiograph shows diffuse parenchymal infiltrates and fluid in the pulmonary fissures. The symptoms resolve without treatment within 24 hours. The most likely diagnosis is (check one) A. transient tachypnea of the newborn B. intracranial hemorrhage C. laryngotracheomalacia D. meconium aspiration syndrome E. hyaline membrane disease

A. transient tachypnea of the newborn. This child had transient tachypnea of the newborn, the most common cause of neonatal respiratory distress. It is a benign condition due to residual pulmonary fluid remaining in the lungs after delivery. Risk factors include cesarean delivery, macrosomia, male gender, and maternal asthma and/or diabetes mellitus. The other conditions listed cause neonatal respiratory distress, but do not resolve spontaneously. They also cause additional significant abnormal findings on physical examination and/or ancillary studies such as imaging and laboratory studies.

In assessing the nutritional status of an infant it is useful to know that birth weight is expected to be regained within: (check one) A. 5 days B. 14 days C. 21 days D. 28 days

B. 14 days. A helpful guideline for assessing normal growth in the very young infant is that birth weight should be regained within 14 days.

Which one of the following is associated with the use of epidural anesthesia during labor and delivery? (check one) A. A shorter first stage of labor B. A longer second stage of labor C. An increased rate of cesarean delivery D. An increased likelihood of postpartum urinary incontinence

B. A longer second stage of labor. Studies have shown that epidural analgesia increases the length of both the first and second stage of labor. Although there is an increase in the rate of instrument-assisted delivery and fourth degree laceration, an increase in the rate of cesarean sections has not been shown. An increase in the rate of urinary incontinence also has not been shown.

You are evaluating a 45-year-old male construction worker with regard to his skin and sun exposure history. Which one of the following lesions should be considered premalignant? (check one) A. Sebaceous hyperplasia B. Actinic keratosis C. Seborrheic keratosis D. A de Morgan spot E. A halo nevus

B. Actinic keratosis. Family physicians should advise patients of the dangers of sun exposure especially those with a fair complexion who work outdoors. Although malignant melanoma is the most serious condition of those listed, actinic keratosis may lead to squamous cell carcinoma with significant morbidity.

Which one of the following benzodiazepines has the shortest half-life? (check one) A. Flurazepam (Dalmane) B. Alprazolam (Xanax) C. Clorazepate (Tranxene) D. Diazepam (Valium) E. Clonazepam (Klonopin)

B. Alprazolam (Xanax). Alprazolam (Xanax) has a half-life of about 12 hours, versus 25 hours for clonazepam and 50 hours for flurazepam, clorazepate, and diazepam.

A 27-year-old white male has been in rehabilitation for C6 complete quadriplegia. His health had been good prior to a diving accident 2 months ago which caused his paralysis. The patient has been catheterized since admission and his recovery has been steady. His vital signs have been normal and stable. The nurse calls and tells you that for the past hour the patient has experienced sweating, rhinorrhea, and a pounding headache. His heart rate is 55/min and his blood pressure is 220/115 mm Hg. His temperature and respirations are reported as normal. There has been no vomiting and his neurologic examination is unchanged. The most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. Cluster headache B. Autonomic hyperreflexia C. Sepsis D. Intracranial hemorrhage E. Progression of the spinal cord lesion

B. Autonomic hyperreflexia. Autonomic hyperreflexia is characterized by the sudden onset of headache and hypertension in a patient with a lesion above the T6 level. There may be associated bradycardia, sweating, dilated pupils, blurred vision, nasal stuffiness, flushing, or piloerection. It usually occurs several months after the injury and has an incidence as high as 85% in quadriplegic patients. Frequently, it subsides within 3 years of injury, but it can recur at any time. Bowel and bladder distention are common causes. Hypertension is the major concern because of associated seizures and cerebral hemorrhage. Cluster headaches have a constant unilateral orbital localization. The pain is steady (non-throbbing) and lacrimation and rhinorrhea may be part of the syndrome. Sepsis is usually manifested by chills, fever, nausea, and vomiting. Common signs include tachycardia and hypotension rather than bradycardia and hypertension. Signs and symptoms of intracranial hemorrhage vary depending upon the site of the hemorrhage, but the unchanged neurologic status and the lack of a history of hypertension decrease the likelihood of this diagnosis. There are no neurologic findings or history which suggest progression of the patient's lesion at C6.

As a single measurement, which one of the following provides the most accurate estimate of gestational age by ultrasound determination during the second trimester? (check one) A. Transabdominal diameter B. Biparietal diameter C. Femur length D. Crown-rump length

B. Biparietal diameter. All of the options listed can be assessed by ultrasonography. Crown-rump length is a very accurate parameter in the first trimester, but the biparietal diameter is the most accurate parameter during the second trimester. Both have a 95% confidence level of being within 5-10 days of the actual gestational age when used at the proper time.

A 60-year-old male complains of multiple episodes of lightheadedness over the past 3 months, saying he felt as if he might "pass out" while sitting at his desk. His past medical history and a physical examination are unremarkable. An EKG shows right bundle branch block and left anterior hemiblock. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step? (check one) A. Echocardiography B. Cardiac event monitoring C. Hospital admission for pacemaker insertion D. Immediate initiation of aspirin and metoprolol (Lopressor)

B. Cardiac event monitoring. This patient's EKG demonstrates a right bundle branch block, as well as a left anterior hemiblock. This "trifascicular block" puts the patient at risk for tachyarrhythmias and bradyarrhythmias. Given the patient's complaint of near-syncope, a heart monitoring study would be most appropriate. An echocardiogram may be helpful eventually to assess cardiac function. Although the patient is at risk for heart block, immediate hospitalization is not indicated.

A 45-year-old female presents to your office because she has had a lump on her neck for the past 2 weeks. She has no recent or current respiratory symptoms, fever, weight loss, or other constitutional symptoms. She has a history of well-controlled hypertension, but is otherwise healthy. On examination you note a nontender, 2-cm, soft node in the anterior cervical chain. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. Immediate biopsy B. Treatment with antibiotics, then a biopsy if the problem does not resolve C. Monitoring clinically for 4-6 weeks, then a biopsy if the node persists or enlarges D. Serial ultrasonography to monitor for changes in the node

C. Monitoring clinically for 4-6 weeks, then a biopsy if the node persists or enlarges. There is limited evidence to guide clinicians in the management of an isolated, enlarged cervical lymph node, even though this is a common occurrence. Evaluation and management is guided by the presence or absence of inflammation, the duration and size of the node, and associated patient symptoms. In addition, the presence of risk factors for malignancy should be taken into account. Immediate biopsy is warranted if the patient does not have inflammatory symptoms and the lymph node is >3 cm, if the node is in the supraclavicular area, or if the patient has coexistent constitutional symptoms such as night sweats or weight loss. Immediate evaluation is also indicated if the patient has risk factors for malignancy. Treatment with antibiotics is warranted in patients who have inflammatory symptoms such as pain, erythema, fever, or a recent infection. In a patient with no risk factors for malignancy and no concerning symptoms, monitoring the node for 4-6 weeks is recommended. If the node continues to enlarge or persists after this time, then further evaluation is indicated. This may include a biopsy or imaging with CT or ultrasonography. The utility of serial ultrasound examinations to monitor lymph nodes has not been demonstrated.

A 62-year-old male has been taking omeprazole (Prilosec) for over a year for gastroesophageal reflux disease. He is asymptomatic and has had no problems tolerating the drug, but asks you about potential side effects, as well as the benefits of continuing therapy. It would be most accurate to tell him that omeprazole therapy is associated with which one of the following? (check one) A. A decreased rate of hip fracture B. Decreased vitamin B12 absorption C. A reduced likelihood of pneumonia D. A reduced likelihood of Clostridium difficile colitis E. An increased likelihood of iron deficiency anemia

B. Decreased vitamin B12 absorption. Although proton pump inhibitors are the most effective treatment for patients with asymptomatic gastroesophageal reflux disease, there are several potential problems with prolonged therapy. Omeprazole is associated with an increased risk of community-acquired pneumonia and Clostridium difficile colitis. Omeprazole has also been shown to acutely decrease the absorption of vitamin B 12 , and it decreases calcium absorption, leading to an increased risk of hip fracture. The risk for Clostridium difficile colitis is also increased.

Which one of the following dietary supplements has the best evidence of efficacy in the treatment of osteoarthritis of the knee? (check one) A. Methylsulfonylmethane (MSM) B. Glucosamine sulfate C. Harpagophytum procumbens (devil's claw) D. Curcuma longa (turmeric) E. Zingiber officinale (ginger)

B. Glucosamine sulfate. Glucosamine sulfate may be used to reduce symptoms and possibly slow disease progression in patients with osteoarthritis of the knee (SOR B). Methylsulfonylmethane, devil's claw, turmeric, and ginger are not recommended because of insufficient evidence of their effectiveness.

What is the most common cause of erythema multiforme, accounting for more than 50% of cases? (check one) A. Candida albicans B. Herpes simplex virus C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae D. Penicillin therapy E. Sulfonamide therapy

B. Herpes simplex virus. Erythema multiforme usually occurs in adults 20-40 years of age, although it can occur in patients of all ages. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) is the most commonly identified cause of this hypersensitivity reaction, accounting for more than 50% of cases.

Which one of the following is more likely to occur with glipizide (Glucotrol) than with metformin (Glucophage)? (check one) A. Lactic acidosis B. Hypoglycemia C. Weight loss D. Gastrointestinal distress

B. Hypoglycemia. Metformin is a biguanide used as an oral antidiabetic agent. One of its main advantages over some other oral agents is that it does not cause hypoglycemia. Lactic acidosis, while rare, can occur in patients with renal impairment. In contrast to most other agents for the control of elevated glucose, which often cause weight gain, metformin reduces insulin levels and more frequently has a weight-maintaining or even a weight loss effect. Gastrointestinal distress is a common side effect of metformin, particularly early in therapy.

Routine blood tests frequently reveal elevated calcium levels. When this elevation is associated with elevated parathyroid hormone levels, which one of the following is an indication for parathyroid surgery? (check one) A. Age >50 B. Kidney stones C. Serum calcium 0.5 mg/dL above the upper limit of normal D. Concurrent hyperthyroidism E. Increased bone density

B. Kidney stones. Indications for parathyroid surgery include kidney stones, age less than 50, a serum calcium level greater than 1 mg/dL above the upper limit of normal, and reduced bone density. Hyperthyroidism is not a factor in deciding to perform parathyroid surgery.

A 3-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his parents, who report seeing him swallow a handful of adult ibuprofen tablets 20 minutes ago. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate initial management of this patient? (check one) A. Oral ipecac B. Oral activated charcoal C. Gastric lavage D. Whole-bowel irrigation E. Close observation

B. Oral activated charcoal. A single dose of activated charcoal is the decontamination treatment of choice for most medication ingestions. It should be used within 1 hour of ingestion of a potentially toxic amount of medication (SOR C). Gastric lavage, cathartics, or whole bowel irrigation is best for ingestion of medications that are poorly absorbed by activated charcoal (iron, lithium) or medications in sustained-release or enteric-coated formulations. Ipecac has no role in home use or in the health care setting (SOR C).

A 69-year-old female sees you for an annual examination. She asks you to look at her toes, and you note a fungal infection in five toenails. She says the condition is painful and limits her ability to complete her morning walks. She asks for treatment that will allow her to resume her daily walks as soon as possible. Her only other medical problem is allergic rhinitis which is well controlled. (check one) A. Oral griseofulvin ultramicrosize (Gris-PEG) daily for 12 weeks B. Oral terbinafine (Lamisil) daily for 12 weeks C. Topical terbinafine (Lamisil AT) daily for 12 weeks D. Topical ciclopirox (Penlac Nail Lacquer) daily for 12 weeks E. Toenail removal

B. Oral terbinafine (Lamisil) daily for 12 weeks. Continuous therapy with oral terbinafine for 12 weeks has the highest cure rate and best long-term resolution rate of the therapies listed. Other agents and pulsed dosing regimens have lower cure rates. Topical creams are not appropriate for onychomycosis because the infection resides in the cell of the toenail. Antifungal nail lacquers have a lower cure rate than systemic therapy and should be used only when oral agents would not be safe. Toenail removal is reserved for patients with an isolated infected nail or in cases involving a dermatophytoma.

The scabies mite is predominantly transmitted by: (check one) A. Bedclothes B. Personal contact C. Hats D. Pets

B. Personal contact. The scabies mite is predominantly transmitted by direct personal contact. Infestation from indirect contact with clothing or bedding is believed to be infrequent. Hats are frequent transmitters of head lice, but not scabies.

Which one of the following is associated with testosterone supplementation in men with hypogonadism? (check one) A. Muscle wasting B. Polycythemia C. Oteoporosis D. An increased risk of benign prostatic hypertrophy

B. Polycythemia. Testosterone increases hematocrit and can cause polycythemia. In patients receiving testosterone supplementation, hematocrit should be monitored every 6 months for the first 18 months, then annually. Testosterone should be discontinued if there is more than a 50% rise in hematocrit. Testosterone also causes an increase in lean body mass, and may increase bone density.

Outbreaks of dermatitis and folliculitis associated with swimming pools and hot tubs are often caused by which one of the following? (check one) A. Listeria B. Pseudomonas C. Streptococcus D. Shigella E. Staphylococcus

B. Pseudomonas. Pseudomonas organisms have been associated with outbreaks of otitis externa, dermatitis, and folliculitis in persons using swimming pools and hot tubs.

You discover a 10-cm enlarging hematoma adjacent to the episiotomy site in a patient whose baby you delivered 6 hours ago. The best management at this time is: (check one) A. A perineal pad and cold compresses B. Removal of the sutures and clots, and reclosure C. Hypogastric artery ligation D. Needle aspiration of the hematoma

B. Removal of the sutures and clots, and reclosure. Enlarging postpartum hematomas adjacent to an episiotomy are best treated by removing the sutures and ligating the specific bleeding sites. A perineal pad and cold compresses are inadequate for an enlarging lesion, and hypogastric artery ligation and hysterectomy are indicated only with supravaginal hematomas.

Of the following, an 11-year-old who presents with knee pain is most likely to have: (check one) A. Gout B. Tibial apophysitis C. A popliteal cyst D. Inflammatory arthropathy E. Pes anserine bursitis

B. Tibial apophysitis. The three most common knee conditions in children and adolescents are patellar subluxation, tibial apophysitis, and patellar tendinitis. Gout, osteoarthritis, and popliteal cysts present in older adults. Inflammatory arthritis is more common in adults than in children.

A hospitalized patient is being treated with vancomycin for an infection due to methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which one of the following is most important to monitor? (check one) A. Hepatic function B. Trough serum levels C. Peak serum levels D. Audiograms

B. Trough serum levels. The best predictor of vancomycin efficacy is the trough serum concentration, which should be over 10 mg/L to prevent development of bacterial resistance. Peak serum concentration is not a predictor of efficacy or toxicity. Monitoring for ototoxicity is not currently recommended. Older vancomycin products had impurities, which apparently caused the ototoxicity seen with these early formulations of the drug.

A 5-month-old female is brought in with a 1-day history of an axillary temperature of 100.6°F and mild irritability. Findings are normal on examination except for a runny nose and a moderately distorted, immobile, red right eardrum. There is no history of recent illness or otitis in the past. The most appropriate management would be: (check one) A. azithromycin (Zithromax) for 5 days B. amoxicillin for 10 days C. amoxicillin for 5 days D. oral decongestants E. observation and a repeat examination in 2 weeks

B. amoxicillin for 10 days. The treatment for otitis media is evolving. Recommendations by the American Academy of Family Physicians and the American Academy of Pediatrics advocate a 10-day course of antibiotics for children under the age of 2 years if the diagnosis is certain. If the diagnosis is not certain and the illness is not severe, there is an option of observation with follow-up. For children over the age of 2 years, the recommendation is still to treat if the diagnosis is certain, but there is an option of observation and follow-up if the illness is not severe and follow-up can be guaranteed. Amoxicillin is the first-line therapy; the recommended dosage is 80-90 mg/kg/day in two divided doses, which increases the concentration of amoxicillin in the middle ear fluid to help with resistant Pneumococcus. Azithromycin, because of a broader spectrum and potential for causing resistance, is not considered the treatment of first choice. Treatment regimens ranging from 5 to 7 days are appropriate for selected children over the age of 5 years. Oral decongestants and antihistamines are not recommended for children with acute otitis media.

Patients with obstructive sleep apnea have an increased risk for (check one) A. chronic renal failure B. hypertension C. hypokalemia D. hypothyroidism E. sepsis

B. hypertension. Obstructive sleep apnea-hypopnea syndrome is defined as the presence of at least five obstructive events per hour with associated daytime sleepiness. It is present in 2%-4% of the population. The prevalence in men is almost three times that seen in premenopausal women and twice that of postmenopausal women. Other factors associated with an increased prevalence are obesity, older age, and systemic hypertension.

In adults, the most common cause of right heart failure is: (check one) A. myocarditis B. left heart failure C. pulmonic stenosis D. ventricular septal defect

B. left heart failure. Although myocarditis, pulmonic stenosis, and ventricular septal defects can be causes of right heart failure, left heart failure is the most common cause of right heart failure in adults.

A 73-year-old male sees you for evaluation of a tremor. Based on the history and examination, you suspect Parkinson's disease. Which one of the following would be most helpful for confirming the diagnosis? (check one) A. CT of the brain B. MRI of the brain C. A positive response to levodopa D. Confirming that the tremor occurs with movement E. Confirming that the tremor had a symmetric onset

C. A positive response to levodopa. Patients with Parkinson's disease should respond to an adequate therapeutic challenge of levodopa or a dopamine agonist. The diagnosis of idiopathic Parkinson's disease is clinical, not radiographic. Cardinal signs of Parkinson's disease include an asymmetric tremor onset and a distal resting tremor of 3-6 Hz.

Which one of the following is found most consistently in patients diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome? (check one) A. Passage of blood per rectum B. Passage of mucus per rectum C. Abdominal pain D. Constipation E. Diarrhea

C. Abdominal pain. A large review of multiple studies identified abdominal pain as the most consistent feature found in irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), and its absence makes the diagnosis less likely. Of the symptoms listed, passage of blood is least likely with IBS, and passage of mucus, constipation, and diarrhea are less consistent than abdominal pain (SOR A).

The FDA issued a boxed warning describing an increased risk of tendinopathy and tendon rupture associated with the use of which class of antibiotics? (check one) A. Macrolides B. Aminoglycosides C. Fluoroquinolones D. Tetracyclines E. Polypeptides

C. Fluoroquinolones. Fluoroquinolones are associated with an increased risk of tendinopathy and tendon rupture. About 1/6000 prescriptions will cause an Achilles tendon rupture. The risk is higher in those also taking corticosteroids or over the age of 60.

A 34-year-old white mechanic felt a slight impact on his left eye while hammering on an axle 2 days ago. He has experienced some discomfort since that time, and complains of blurring of vision. Physical examination discloses no local erythema or other evidence of injury to the eye. Fluorescein staining is negative. His visual acuity is 20/40 in the affected eye. The most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. Traumatic iritis B. Corneal abrasion C. Intraocular foreign body D. Bacterial corneal ulcer E. Retinal detachment

C. Intraocular foreign body. Complaints of discomfort in the eye with blurred vision and a history of striking steel should arouse strong suspicion of an intraocular foreign body.

A 67-year-old female is admitted to the hospital with severe community-acquired pneumonia. Her urine should be tested for which one of the following antigens? (check one) A. Chlamydia B. Mycoplasma C. Legionella D. Haemophilus influenzae E. Pseudomonas

C. Legionella. In patients with severe pneumonia, the urine should be tested for antigens to Legionella and pneumococcus. Two blood cultures should also be drawn, but these are positive in only 10%-20% of all patients with community-acquired pneumonia.

A 60-year-old type 2 diabetic requires urgent appendectomy. Which one of the following should be withheld until normal kidney function is documented at 24 and 48 hours after the surgery? (check one) A. Acarbose (Precose) B. Glimepiride (Amaryl) C. Metformin (Glucophage) D. Nateglinide (Starlix)

C. Metformin (Glucophage). Administration of general anesthesia may cause hypotension, which leads to renal hypoperfusion and peripheral tissue hypoxia, with subsequent lactate accumulation. Therefore, if administration of radiocontrast material is required or urgent surgery is needed, metformin should be withheld and hydration maintained until preserved kidney function is documented at 24 and 48 hours after the intervention.

A 47-year-old female presents with progressive difficulty hearing. She is employed as an office worker, has no significant past medical history, and takes no medications. Physical examination shows no gross abnormalities of her outer ears. The external ear canals are free of cerumen, and the tympanic membranes move well to insufflation. Weber's test and the Rinne test have results that are compatible with a conductive hearing loss. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's hearing loss? (check one) A. Noise-induced hearing loss B. Meniere's disease C. Otosclerosis D. Acoustic neuroma E. Perilymphatic fistula

C. Otosclerosis. Otosclerosis typically presents between the third and fifth decades, and is more common in women. The chief feature of otosclerosis is a progressive conductive hearing loss. Occasionally, when lesions impinge on the stapes footplate, a sensorineural loss may occur. All of the other choices are exclusively sensorineural in character. Meniere's disease also causes fluctuating hearing loss. Noise-induced hearing loss frequently and characteristically is accompanied by tinnitus. Perilymphatic fistula is associated with sudden unilateral hearing loss with tinnitus and vertigo. Acoustic neuroma is associated with tinnitus and gradual hearing impairment.

Which one of the following is consistent with spinal stenosis but not with a herniated vertebral disk? (check one) A. Numbness B. Muscle weakness C. Pain relieved by sitting D. Pain relieved by standing

C. Pain relieved by sitting. Causes of low back pain include vertebral disk herniation and spinal stenosis. Numbness and muscle weakness may be present in both. Pain from spinal stenosis is relieved by sitting and aggravated by standing, whereas the opposite is true for pain from a herniated disk.

A 25-year-old male has a dental infection associated with facial swelling and lymphadenopathy. Which one of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic? (check one) A. Cephalexin (Keflex) B. Tetracycline C. Penicillin D. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) E. Azithromycin (Zithromax)

C. Penicillin. Dental infections complicated by the development of cellulitis should be treated with oral antibiotic therapy. The antibiotic of choice is penicillin. Clindamycin should be used if a patient is allergic to penicillin.

A 30-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a sensation of a racing heart. His history is significant for known Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome (WPW). On examination he is alert and in no severe distress. His blood pressure is 130/70 mm Hg, pulse rate 220 beats/min, and oxygen saturation 96%. An EKG reveals a regular, wide-complex tachycardia with a rate of 220 beats/min. You determine that he is stable, the EKG is consistent with WPW, and pharmacologic conversion is a safe initial therapy. Which one of the following would be the treatment of choice? (check one) A. Verapamil (Calan) B. Adenosine (Adenocard) C. Procainamide D. Digoxin

C. Procainamide. Adenosine, digoxin, and calcium channel antagonists act by blocking conduction through the atrioventricular (AV) node, which may increase the ventricular rate paradoxically, initiating ventricular fibrillation. These agents should be avoided in Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Procainamide is usually the treatment of choice in these situations, although amiodarone may also be used.

Which one of the following is most likely to be of benefit in patients with essential tremor of the hand? (check one) A. Isoniazid B. Diazepam (Valium) C. Topiramate (Topamax) D. Clonidine (Catapres) E. Gabapentin (Neurontin)

C. Topiramate (Topamax). Treatments likely to be beneficial for essential tremor of the hands include propranolol and topiramate. Topiramate has been shown to improve tremor scores after 2 weeks of treatment, but is associated with appetite suppression, weight loss, and paresthesias. Medications with unknown effectiveness include benzodiazepines, -blockers other than propranolol, calcium channel blockers, clonidine, gabapentin, and isoniazid.

A 73-year-old white female with a long history of rheumatoid arthritis has a normocytic normochromic anemia. Her hemoglobin level is 9.8 g/dL (N 12.0-16.0) with decreased serum iron, decreased total iron-binding capacity, and increased serum ferritin. Which one of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient? (check one) A. Oral iron B. Intramuscular iron dextran (DexFerrum, InFeD) C. Treatment of the rheumatoid arthritis D. Transfusion E. Folic acid

C. Treatment of the rheumatoid arthritis. This patient has anemia of chronic disease secondary to her rheumatoid arthritis. This anemia is usually mild, with hemoglobin levels of 9.0-11.0 g/dL, and is usually normocytic-normochromic, although it can be microcytic. Characteristically, serum iron and total iron-binding capacity are decreased and ferritin is increased. The best treatment of this anemia is to treat the underlying systemic disease. Neither iron nor folic acid is effective. Since the anemia is usually mild, transfusion is not necessary.

An elevation of serum methylmalonic acid is both sensitive and specific for a cellular deficiency of which vitamin? (check one) A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B 6 C. Vitamin B 12 D. Vitamin D E. Folate

C. Vitamin B 12. An elevation in serum methylmalonic acid is both sensitive and specific for cellular vitamin B 12 deficiency.

You have just diagnosed mild persistent asthma in a 13-year-old African-American female. Along with patient education, your initial medical management should be: (check one) A. a short-acting inhaled β-agonist to be used only as needed B. a long-acting inhaled β-agonist daily C. a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid daily, along with a short-acting inhaled β-agonist as needed D. a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid daily, along with a long-acting inhaled β-agonist daily E. montelukast (Singulair) daily

C. a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid daily, along with a short-acting inhaled β-agonist as needed. Inhaled corticosteroids improve asthma control in adults and children more effectively than any other single long-term controller medication, and all patients should also receive a prescription for a short-acting β-agonist (SOR A).

Which one of the following causes of anemia is associated with a normal red cell distribution width? (check one) A. Vitamin B12 deficiency B. Iron deficiency C. β-Thalassemia trait D. Sideroblastic anemia E. Myelofibrosis

C. β-Thalassemia trait. Red cell distribution width (RDW) is a measure of the variability of size of the red cells. It is particularly useful in distinguishing anemic disorders, especially iron deficiency anemia (high RDW, normal to low mean corpuscular volume) and uncomplicated heterozygous thalassemia (normal RDW, low mean corpuscular volume).

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 03 ======================================================= As the medical review officer for a local business, you are required to interpret urine drug tests. Assuming the sample was properly collected and handled, which one of the following test results is consistent with the history provided and should be reported as a negative test? (check one) A. Diazepam (Valium) identified in an employee taking oxazepam prescribed by a physician B. Morphine identified in an employee undergoing a prescribed methadone pain management program C. Morphine identified in an employee taking a prescribed cough medicine containing codeine D. Tetrahydrocannabinol above the threshold value in an employee who reports secondary exposure to marijuana E. Tetrahydrocannabinol identified in an employee taking prescribed tramadol (Ultram)

C. Morphine identified in an employee taking a prescribed cough medicine containing codeine. Results of urine drug test panels obtained in the workplace are reported by a Medical Review Officer (MRO) as positive, negative, dilute, refusal to test, or test canceled; the drug/metabolite for which the test is positive or the reason for refusal (e.g., the presence of an adulterant) or cancellation is also included in the final report. The MRO interpretation is based on consideration of many factors, including the confirmed patient medical history, specimen collection process, acceptability of the specimen submitted, and qualified laboratory measurement of drugs or metabolites in excess of the accepted thresholds. These thresholds are set to preclude the possibility that secondary contact with smoke, ingestion of poppy seeds, or similar exposures will result in an undeserved positive urine drug screen report. Other findings, such as the presence of behavioral or physical evidence of unauthorized use of opiates, may also factor into the final report. When a properly collected, acceptable specimen is found to contain drugs or metabolites that would be expected based on a review of confirmed prescribed use of medications, the test is reported as negative. Morphine is a metabolite of codeine that may be found in the urine of someone taking a codeine-containing medication; morphine is not a metabolite of methadone. Oxazepam is a metabolite of diazepam but the reverse is not true. Tetrahydrocannabinol would not be found in the urine as a result of tramadol use.

A 3-year-old white female is brought to the emergency department with an acute onset of epistaxis. The child, who has a history of good health, is brought in by her recently-divorced mother, a registered nurse. The mother appears relatively unconcerned about the child's illness, but otherwise is friendly and interacts appropriately with the health care team evaluating the child. The child's vital signs are normal, but she is bleeding mildly from both nostrils and there are areas of ecchymosis. Laboratory Findings Hemoglobin 12.3 g/dL (N 11.5-15.0) Hematocrit 36% (N 32-42) WBC count 4500/mm3 (N 6000-15,000) Platelets 235,000/mm3 (N >50,000) Prothrombin time 40.0 sec (N 11.0-15.0) Partial thromboplastin time 30 sec (N 24-36) INR 3.9 sec (N 2.0-3.0) ALT (SGPT) 18 IU/L (N 7-35) AST (SGOT) 16 IU/L (N 15-60) Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL (N 0.3-1.2) You hospitalize the child for observation and further testing. Her bleeding subsides in several hours, no new skin lesions develop, and her PT/INR decreases to 32 sec/3.0, 23 sec/2.1, and 15 sec/1.4 on subsequent days. You suspect that the child's condition is due to: (check one) A. Acetaminophen overdose B. Antiphospholipid syndrome with lupus anticoagulant C. Munchausen syndrome by proxy D. Henoch-Schönlein purpura E. Traumatic injury (child abuse)

C. Munchausen syndrome by proxy. The patient exhibits signs of a moderate bleeding diathesis. Her prothrombin time (PT) elevation, without evidence of hepatocellular damage or hepatic dysfunction, is highly suspicious for warfarin ingestion. The normalization of the PT under observation in a hospital setting is consistent with this suspicion. Although accidental poisoning is a possibility, the mother's affect is highly suspicious for Munchausen syndrome by proxy. The fact that her mother is a health-care worker and develops a close and appropriate relationship with the health-care team is consistent with this diagnosis. Acetaminophen toxicity of this degree would likely produce transaminase and bilirubin elevations, as well as mental status changes. Antiphospholipid syndrome produces a hypercoagulable state. Henoch-Schonlein purpura presents with purpura, joint pain, abdominal pain, and a normal PT. Traumatic injury would not result in PT elevations.

The most effective daily doses of vitamin D and calcium for hip fracture prevention in postmenopausal women are: (check one) A. 800 IU vitamin D and 500 mg calcium B. 400 IU vitamin D and 500 mg calcium C. 400 IU vitamin D and 1000 mg calcium D. 800 IU vitamin D and 1200 mg calcium

D. 800 IU vitamin D and 1200 mg calcium. The most effective daily dose of vitamin D for hip fracture prevention in postmenopausal women is 800 IU, and the recommended daily dose of calcium is 1200 mg.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 93 ======================================================= When draining a felon, which one of the following incisions is recommended? (check one) A. A "fishmouth" bilateral incision B. A "hockey stick" J-shaped incision including the distal and lateral aspects of the digit C. A transverse volar incision D. A high lateral incision

D. A high lateral incision. When draining a felon, a volar longitudinal incision or a high lateral incision is recommended. Incisions that are not recommended are the "fish-mouth" incision, the "hockey stick" (or "J") incision, and the transverse palmar incision.

Which one of the following drug classes is preferred for treating hypertension in patients who also have diabetes mellitus? (check one) A. Centrally-acting sympatholytics B. Alpha-blocking agents C. Beta-blocking agents D. ACE inhibitors E. Calcium channel blockers

D. ACE inhibitors. ACE inhibitors have proven beneficial in patients who have either early or established diabetic renal disease. They are the preferred therapy in patients with diabetes and hypertension, according to guidelines from the American Diabetes Association, the National Kidney Foundation, the World Health Organization, and the JNC VII report.

Which one of the following serum proteins is typically DECREASED in a hospitalized patient with sepsis? (check one) A. Complement C3 B. Ferritin C. C-reactive protein (CRP) D. Albumin E. Fibrinogen

D. Albumin. The acute phase response refers to the multiple physiologic changes that occur with tissue injury. The synthesis of acute-phase proteins by hepatocytes is altered, leading to decreased serum levels of several of these proteins, including albumin and transferrin. Serum levels rise for other proteins, such as ceruloplasmin, complement proteins, haptoglobin, fibrinogen, and C-reactive protein. Serum levels of ferritin may be extremely high in certain conditions, but are also influenced by total-body iron stores.

A 24-year-old male sustains a boxer's fracture of the fifth metacarpal. A radiograph shows no rotational deformity and 25° of volar angulation. After an attempt at closed reduction the angulation remains unchanged. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this time? (check one) A. Open reduction B. Placement of a pin to prevent further displacement C. A short arm-thumb spica cast D. An ulnar gutter splint

D. An ulnar gutter splint. Up to 40° of volar angulation is acceptable for fifth metacarpal fractures. For second and third metacarpal fractures, less angulation is acceptable. Appropriate treatment is a gutter splint.

A 60-year-old male has a drug-eluting stent placed in his right coronary artery. He will require treatment to prevent stent thrombosis, and once his initial treatment period is completed he will be placed on aspirin, 75-165 mg/day indefinitely. Which one of the following is the preferred initial regimen for preventing stent thrombosis in this situation? (check one) A. Aspirin/dipyridamole (Aggrenox) for 3 months B. Aspirin, 162-325 mg/day for 3 months C. Aspirin, 162-325 mg/day, plus clopidogrel (Plavix), both for 3 months D. Aspirin, 162-325 mg/day, plus clopidogrel, both for 12 months E. Warfarin (Coumadin) for 3 months

D. Aspirin, 162-325 mg/day, plus clopidogrel, both for 12 months. In patients with a drug-eluting stent, combined therapy with clopidrogel and aspirin is recommended for 12 months because of the increased risk of late stent thrombosis. After this time, aspirin at a dosage of 75-165 mg/day is recommended. The minimum duration of combined therapy is 1 month for a bare metal stent, 3 months for a sirolimus-eluting stent, and 6 months for other drug-eluting stents.

Contraindications to use of the levonorgestrel intrauterine system (Mirena) include which one of the following? (check one) A. Nulliparity B. A previous history of deep vein thrombosis C. A previous history of endometriosis D. Current pelvic inflammatory disease E. Current breastfeeding

D. Current pelvic inflammatory disease. Contraindications to insertion of the levonorgestrel intrauterine system (LNG-IUS) include uterine anomalies, postpartum endometritis, untreated cervicitis, and current pelvic inflammatory disease. Nulliparity may increase discomfort during insertion but is not a contraindication. Levonorgestrel is a synthetic progestin and is not associated with an increased risk of deep vein thrombosis. It also is not associated with any adverse effect on quantity or quality of milk in breastfeeding women, and has no adverse effects on the infant. The LNG-IUS is not contraindicated in patients with endometriosis, and there is some evidence that it may improve symptom scores in these women.

A 58-year-old male presents with recent behavior and personality changes, and you suspect dementia. Which one of the following is most likely to present in this manner? (check one) A. Alzheimer's disease B. Vascular dementia C. Mixed Alzheimer's disease and vascular dementia D. Frontotemporal dementia E. Progressive supranuclear palsy

D. Frontotemporal dementia. Frontotemporal dementia is the second most common cause of early-onset dementia. It often presents with behavioral and personality changes. Examples include disinhibition, impairment of personal conduct, loss of emotional sensitivity, loss of insight, and executive dysfunctions. Alzheimer's disease presents with memory loss and visuospatial problems. Vascular dementia is associated with risk factors for stroke, or occurs in relation to a stroke, with a stepwise progression. Alzheimer's disease and vascular dementia can occur together, with features of both. Progressive supranuclear palsy is characterized by early falls, vertical (especially downward) gaze, axial rigidity greater than appendicular rigidity, and levodopa resistance.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 76 ======================================================= Which one of the following is the most likely cause of hearing loss in newborns? (check one) A. Intraventricular hemorrhage B. Anomalies of the external ear canal C. Congenital cholesteatoma D. Genetic disorders E. Infectious diseases

D. Genetic disorders. Genetic disorders (e.g., Waardenburg syndrome, Usher's syndrome, Alport syndrome, and Turner's syndrome) are responsible for more than 50% of hearing impairments in children. Intraventricular hemorrhage is a central cause of hearing loss, and is rare. Conductive abnormalities such as external canal anomalies and congenital cholesteatoma, and sensorineural causes other than genetic disorders (e.g., infectious diseases) are important but less frequent.

Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a marker for which one of the following? (check one) A. Renal failure B. Acute adrenal insufficiency C. Cerebrovascular accident D. Heart failure E. Ureteral obstruction

D. Heart failure. Brain-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is synthesized, stored, and released by the ventricular myocardium in response to volume expansion and pressure overload. It is a marker for heart failure. This hormone is highly accurate for identifying or excluding heart failure, as it has both high sensitivity and high specificity. BNP is particularly valuable in differentiating cardiac causes of dyspnea from pulmonary causes. In addition, the availability of a bedside assay makes BNP useful for evaluating patients in the emergency department.

Occlusion of the circumflex artery is most likely to cause EKG changes in: (check one) A. V1 and V2 B. V3 and V4 C. II, III, and AVF D. I and AVL

D. I and AVL. Circumflex occlusion causes changes in I, AVL, and possibly V5 and V6 as well. Left anterior descending coronary artery occlusion causes changes in V1 to V6. Right coronary occlusion causes changes in II, III, and AVF.

A 24-year-old female at 36 weeks' gestation plans to breastfeed her infant. She has a history of bipolar disorder, but currently is doing well without medication, and also has a history of frequent urinary tract infections. She asks you about medications that she may need to take after delivery, and how they may affect her newborn. Which one of the following would be contraindicated if she breastfeeds her infant? (check one) A. Amoxicillin B. Macrodantin (Macrobid) C. Valproic acid (Depakote) D. Lithium

D. Lithium. Of the drugs listed, the only maternal medication that affects the infant is lithium. Breastfed infants of women taking lithium can have blood lithium concentrations that are 30%-50% of therapeutic levels.

Which one of the following fluoroquinolones should NOT be used in the treatment of urinary tract infections? (check one) A. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) B. Gatifloxacin (Tequin) C. Levofloxacin (Levaquin) D. Moxifloxacin (Avelox) E. Norfloxacin (Noroxin)

D. Moxifloxacin (Avelox). When trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole is contraindicated, a 3-day course of ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, norfloxacin, lomefloxacin, or gatifloxacin is a reasonable alternative. Moxifloxacin attains inadequate urinary concentrations and should not be used in the management of urinary tract infections.

======================================================= Psychogenic Board Review Questions 01 ======================================================= Which one of the following sleep problems in children is most likely to occur during the second half of the night? (check one) A. Confusional arousals B. Sleepwalking C. Sleep terrors D. Nightmares

D. Nightmares. Nightmares occur in the second half of the night, when rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is most prominent. Parasomnias, including sleepwalking, confusional arousal, and sleep terrors, are disorders of arousal from non-REM (NREM) sleep. These are more common in children than adults because children spend more time in deep NREM sleep. Such disorders usually occur within 1-2 hours after sleep onset, and coincide with the transition from the first period of slow-wave sleep.

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommends empiric treatment of male sexual partners for which one of the following conditions? (check one) A. Vaginal candidiasis B. Vaginal warts C. Pelvic inflammatory disease D. Bacterial vaginosis

C. Pelvic inflammatory disease. The promise of a reduction in the incidence and prevalence of sexually transmitted diseases through partner notification and treatment programs remains elusive, as evidence supporting this effect is scarce and inconclusive. What is clear is that treating sexual partners does reduce reinfection of the index patient. Programs such as contact notification, counseling and scheduling of appointments for evaluation of the partner, and expedited partner therapy (EPT), in which sexual contacts of infected patients are provided antibiotics delivered by the index patient without evaluation or counseling, have demonstrated only limited effectiveness; in the case of EPT this limited benefit has been shown only with trichomoniasis. Because currently available evidence fails to demonstrate benefit from treating the male sexual contacts of women with vaginal candidiasis, vaginal warts, or bacterial vaginosis, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) states that treating the male partner is not indicated with these infections. In the case of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), evaluation and treatment of males with a history of sexual contact with the patient during the 60 days preceding the onset of symptoms is imperative because of the high risk of reinfection. Current CDC guidelines recommend empiric treatment of these male contacts with antibiotic regimens effective against both chlamydial and gonococcal infection, regardless of the presumed etiology of the PID.

Which one of the following is the most common cause of recurrent and persistent acute otitis media in children? (check one) A. Haemophilus influenzae B. Moraxella catarrhalis C. Penicillin-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa E. Staphylococcus aureus

C. Penicillin-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae. Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis are the most common bacterial isolates from the middle ear fluid of children with acute otitis media. Penicillin-resistant S. pneumoniae is the most common cause of recurrent and persistent acute otitis media.

The induction or inhibition of the cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzyme is responsible for many adverse drug reactions. Which one of the following is an inducer of the cytochrome P450 enzyme? (check one) A. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) B. Fluconazole (Diflucan) C. Phenytoin (Dilantin) D. Clarithromycin (Biaxin) E. Grapefruit juice

C. Phenytoin (Dilantin). All of the drugs listed are inhibitors of the cytochrome P450 enzyme except phenytoin, which is a potent inducer. Grapefruit juice is also a cytochrome P450 enzyme inhibitor.

A 37-year-old gravida 3 para 2 at 33 weeks' gestation reports the onset of brisk vaginal bleeding. On examination the uterus is nontender and 32 cm above the symphysis. Pelvic examination reveals the presence of a large amount of bright red vaginal blood. This presentation is most consistent with: (check one) A. Threatened abortion B. Hemorrhagic cystitis C. Placenta previa D. Chorioamnionitis E. Abruptio placentae

C. Placenta previa. The classic clinical presentation of placenta previa is painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. This diagnosis must be considered in all patients beyond 24 weeks' gestation who present with bleeding. Threatened abortion is unlikely at this stage of pregnancy and hemorrhagic cystitis is not accompanied by brisk bleeding. Abruption of the placenta is the most common cause of intrapartum fetal death but is associated not only with brisk vaginal bleeding, but also with uterine tenderness that may be marked. Clinical signs of chorioamnionitis include purulent vaginal discharge, fever, tachycardia, and uterine tenderness.

Metformin (Glucophage), which is normally used in the management of diabetes mellitus, has also been shown to have a beneficial effect in: (check one) A. Osteoporosis B. Hyperthyroidism C. Polycystic ovary syndrome D. Right ventricular hypertrophy E. Morbid truncal obesity

C. Polycystic ovary syndrome. Recent data suggest that insulin resistance and hyperinsulinemia are important in the pathogenesis of polycystic ovary syndrome (POS). Treatment with drugs that reduce insulin levels, such as metformin, has been shown to correct many of the metabolic abnormalities associated with POS. Such correction results in resumption of ovulation, decreased insulin resistance, and improved beta-cell function; it also produces improvement in cardiovascular risk factors such as dyslipidemia and impaired fibrinolysis.

A 22-year-old white female comes to your office complaining of dizziness. She was in her usual good health until about 2 weeks before this visit, when she developed a case of gastroenteritis that other members of her family have also had. Since that time she has been lightheaded when standing, feels her heart race, and gets headaches or blurred vision if she does not sit or lie down. She has not passed out but has been unable to work due to these symptoms. She is otherwise healthy and takes no regular medications. A physical examination is normal except for her heart rate, which rises from 72 beats/min when she is lying or sitting to 112 beats/min when she stands. Her blood pressure remains unchanged with changes of position. Routine laboratory tests and an EKG are normal. What is the most likely cause of this patient's condition? (check one) A. Myocarditis B. A seizure disorder C. Postural orthostatic tachycardia syndrome (POTS) D. Systemic lupus erythematosus E. Somatization disorder

C. Postural orthostatic tachycardia syndrome (POTS). Postural orthostatic tachycardia syndrome (POTS) is manifested by a rise in heart rate >30 beats/min or by a heart rate >120 beats/min within 10 minutes of being in the upright position. Symptoms usually include position-dependent headaches, abdominal pain, lightheadedness, palpitations, sweating, and nausea. Most patients will not actually pass out, but some will if they are unable to lie down quickly enough. This condition is most prevalent in white females between the ages of 15 and 50 years old. Often these patients are hardworking, athletic, and otherwise in good health. There is a high clinical correlation between POTS and chronic fatigue syndrome. Although no single etiology for POTS has been found, the condition is thought to have a genetic predisposition, is often incited after a prolonged viral illness, and has a component of deconditioning. The recommended initial management is encouraging adequate fluid and salt intake, followed by the initiation of regular aerobic exercise combined with lower-extremity strength training, and then the use of β-blockers.

======================================================= Gastrointestinal Board Review Questions 02 ======================================================= For 2 weeks, a 62-year-old male with biopsy-documented cirrhosis and ascites has had diffuse abdominal discomfort, fever, and night sweats. His current medications are furosemide (Lasix) and spironolactone (Aldactone). On examination, his temperature is 38.0° C (100.4° F), blood pressure 100/60 mm Hg, heart rate 92 beats/min and regular. The heart and lung examination is normal. The abdomen is soft with vague tenderness in all quadrants. There is no rebound or guarding. The presence of ascites is easily verified. Bowel sounds are quiet. The rectal examination is normal, and the stool is negative for occult blood. You perform diagnostic paracentesis and send a sample of fluid for analysis. Which one of the following findings would best establish the suspected diagnosis of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis? (check one) A. pH <7.2 B. Bloody appearance C. Neutrophil count >300/mL D. Positive cytology E. Total protein >1 g/dL

C. Neutrophil count >300/mL. Diagnostic paracentesis is recommended for patients with ascites of recent onset, as well as for those with chronic ascites who present with new clinical findings such as fever or abdominal pain. A neutrophil count >250/mL is diagnostic for peritonitis. Once peritonitis is diagnosed, antibiotic therapy should be started immediately without waiting for culture results. Bloody ascites with abnormal cytology may be seen with hepatoma, but is not typical of peritonitis. The ascitic fluid pH does not become abnormal until well after the neutrophil count has risen, so it is a less reliable finding for treatment purposes. A protein level >1 g/dL is actually evidence against spontaneous bacterial peritonitis.

A 42-year-old male presents with anterior neck pain. His thyroid gland is markedly tender on examination, but there is no overlying erythema. He also has a bilateral hand tremor. His erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 82 mm/hr (N 1-13) and his WBC count is 11,500/mm3 (N 4300-10,800). His free T4 is elevated, TSH is suppressed, and radioactive iodine uptake is abnormally low. Which one of the following treatment options would be most helpful at this time? (check one) A. Levothyroxine (Synthroid) and NSAIDs B. Propylthiouracil C. Prednisone D. Nafcillin E. Thyroidectomy

C. Prednisone. This patient has signs and symptoms of painful subacute thyroiditis, including a painful thyroid gland, hyperthyroidism, and an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. It is unclear whether there is a viral etiology to this self-limited disorder. Thyroid function returns to normal in most patients after several weeks, and may be followed by a temporary hypothyroid state. Treatment is symptomatic. Although NSAIDs can be helpful for mild pain, high-dose glucocorticoids provide quicker relief for the more severe symptoms. Levothyroxine is not indicated in this hyperthyroid state. Neither thyroidectomy nor antibiotics is indicated for this problem.

The most common cause of proteinuria in children is: (check one) A. Acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis B. Lupus glomerulonephritis C. Hydronephrosis D. Orthostatic proteinuria E. Reflux nephropathy

D. Orthostatic proteinuria. Orthostatic proteinuria accounts for up to 60% of all cases of asymptomatic proteinuria reported in children, with an even higher incidence in adolescents.

A 12-year-old male is brought to your office with an animal bite. After talking with the patient, you learn that he was bitten on his left hand as he attempted to pet a stray cat a little over 24 hours ago. He says that the bite was very painful, and that it bled for a few minutes. His parents cared for the bite by rinsing it and covering it with a bandage. His chart indicates that he received a tetanus shot last year. On examination, the patient is afebrile with stable vital signs. The site is warm and tender to light palpation, with surrounding erythema measuring approximately 3 cm in diameter. Which one of the following is the most likely infectious agent in this situation? (check one) A. Candida albicans B. Capnocytophaga canimorsus C. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) D. Pasteurella multocida E. Streptococcus pneumoniae

D. Pasteurella multocida. Pasteurella species are isolated from up to 50% of dog bite wounds and up to 75% of cat bite wounds, and the hand is considered a high-risk area for infection (SOR A). Although much more rare, Capnocytophaga canimorsus, a fastidious gram-negative rod, can cause bacteremia and fatal sepsis after animal bites, especially in asplenic patients or those with underlying hepatic disease. Anaerobes isolated from dog and cat bite wounds include Bacteroides, Fusobacterium, Porphyromonas, Prevotella, Propionibacterium and Peptostreptococcus. In addition to animal oral flora, human skin flora are also important pathogens, but are less commonly isolated. These can include streptococci and staphylococci, including methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Coverage for MRSA may be especially important if the patient has risk factors for colonization with community-acquired MRSA. Pets can also become colonized with MRSA and transmit it via bites and scratches. Cat bites that become infected with Pasteurella multocida can be complicated by cellulitis, which may form around the wound within 24 hours and is often accompanied by redness, tenderness, and warmth. The use of prophylactic antibiotics is associated with a statistically significant reduction in the rate of infection in hand bites (SOR A). If infection develops and is left untreated, the most common complications are tenosynovitis and abscess formation; however, local complications can include septic arthritis and osteomyelitis. Fever, regional adenopathy, and lymphangitis are also seen.

Which one of the following decreases the absorption of orally administered calcium supplements? (check one) A. Taking calcium carbonate with meals B. Taking calcium citrate with meals C. Vitamin D supplementation D. Proton pump inhibitors

D. Proton pump inhibitors. Long-term histamine H2 -blocker or proton pump inhibitor use is associated with decreased absorption of calcium carbonate. Patients taking these medications who require calcium supplementation should use calcium citrate to improve absorption. Calcium carbonate preparations should be given with a meal to improve absorption. Vitamin D is important in calcium absorption.

A 22-year-old male has acute low back pain without paresthesias or other neurologic signs. There is no lower extremity weakness. Which treatment has been shown to be of most benefit initially? (check one) A. Complete bed rest for 2 weeks B. Bed rest plus local injection of corticosteroids C. A low-back strengthening program D. Resumption of physical activity as tolerated

D. Resumption of physical activity as tolerated. For patients who have acute back pain without sciatic involvement, a return to normal activities as tolerated has been shown to be more beneficial than either bed rest or a basic exercise program. Bed rest for more than 2 or 3 days in patients with acute low back pain is ineffective and may be harmful. Patients should be instructed to remain active. Injections should be considered only if conservative therapy fails.

Which one of the following is true concerning anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tears? (check one) A. The incidence of ACL tears is higher in males than in females B. ACL tears are not associated with early-onset osteoarthritis C. The majority of ACL tears are caused by physical contact D. Strength training can prevent ACL tears

D. Strength training can prevent ACL tears. Three trials have shown that neuromuscular training with plyometrics and strengthening reduces anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tears. Females have a higher rate of ACL tears than males. Early-onset osteoarthritis occurs in the affected knee in an estimated 50% of patients with ACL tears. The ACL typically pops audibly when it is torn, usually with no physical contact.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 89 ======================================================= A 78-year-old white female presents with a 3-day history of lower thoracic back pain. She denies any antecedent fall or trauma, and first noted the pain upon arising. Her description of the pain indicates that it is severe, bilateral, and without radiation to the arms or legs. Her past medical history is positive for hypertension and controlled diabetes mellitus. Her medications include hydrochlorothiazide, enalapril (Vasotec), metformin (Glucophage), and a general multivitamin. She is a previous smoker but does not drink alcohol. She underwent menopause at age 50 and took estrogen for "a few months" for hot flashes. Physical examination reveals her to be in moderate pain with a somewhat stooped posture and mild tenderness over T12-L1. She has negative straight-leg raising and normal lower extremity sensation, strength, and reflexes. Which one of the following is true regarding this patient's likely condition? (check one) A. An MRI or nuclear medicine bone scan should be performed B. Prolonged (approximately 2 weeks) bed rest will increase the chance of complete recovery C. Investigation for an underlying malignancy is indicated D. Subcutaneous or intranasal calcitonin (Calcimar, Miacalcin) may be very helpful for pain relief

D. Subcutaneous or intranasal calcitonin (Calcimar, Miacalcin) may be very helpful for pain relief. The patient described has a classic presentation of an osteoporotic vertebral compression fracture. The diagnosis should be confirmed with a plain radiograph. Treatment is basically symptomatic, with a period of bed rest as short as possible (to avoid complications of immobility), pain medication, and bracing. Salmon calcitonin (injectable or intranasal) is often helpful in providing pain relief. Long-term management of underlying osteoporosis may help prevent future fractures.

Which one of the following is true concerning postpartum depression? (check one) A. It has no effect on cognitive development of the child B. It is directly related to the desired gender of the infant C. It is usually transient, lasting about 10 days D. Thyroid function should always be assessed in women with postpartum depression

D. Thyroid function should always be assessed in women with postpartum depression. Thyroid function must be evaluated in women with postpartum depression since both hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism are more common post partum. Postpartum depression may impair cognitive and behavioral development in the child. It is not related to the desired gender of the child, breastfeeding, or education level of the mother. It should be differentiated from the short-term "baby blues" that resolve within about 10 days. Sertraline is considered first-line treatment for postpartum depression in women who are breastfeeding.

Which one of the following has the best evidence of effectiveness for preventing fractures in postmenopausal women with osteoporosis? (check one) A. Home-hazard assessment B. Daily supplementation with vitamin D C. Treatment with calcitonin D. Treatment with alendronate (Fosamax)

D. Treatment with alendronate (Fosamax). Of the options listed, treatment with bisphosphonates to prevent osteoporotic hip and vertebral fractures is the only one supported by consistent patient-oriented, high-quality clinical evidence (SOR A). While each of the other recommendations has merit, the overall level of evidence for effectiveness is less compelling for these treatments than for treatment with bisphosphonates (SOR B).

The earliest presenting symptom in most older patients with open-angle glaucoma is: (check one) A. Unilateral eye pain B. Unilateral eye redness C. Unilateral visual loss D. Tunnel vision E. Double vision

D. Tunnel vision. About 3% of persons over age 55 have glaucoma, making it a leading cause of vision impairment. Although it is usually asymptomatic, the most common presenting symptom is tunnel vision, a gradual loss of peripheral vision.

In the United States the most common form of child abuse is (check one) A. physical abuse B. emotional abuse C. sexual abuse D. child neglect

D. child neglect. Neglect is the most common form of child abuse (60% of cases) and is the most common cause of death in abused children. It is defined by the Office on Child Abuse and Neglect as failure to provide for a childs basic physical, emotional, educational/cognitive, or medical needs.

The FDA has imposed a black box warning on all thiazolidinediones, such as pioglitazone (Actos). This warning addresses a contraindication to the prescription of these drugs in patients with: (check one) A. renal insufficiency B. dementia C. exposure to radiocontrast media D. heart failure E. respiratory failure

D. heart failure. The black box warning for thiazolidinediones specifically addresses heart failure. These agents are also contraindicated in patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus or hepatic disease, and in premenopausal anovulatory women.

A 35-year-old white gravida 2 para 1 sees you for her initial prenatal visit. Since delivering her first child 10 years ago, she has developed type 2 diabetes mellitus. She has kept her disease under excellent control by taking metformin (Glucophage). A recent hemoglobin A1c level was 6.5%. You should now treat her diabetes with: (check one) A. metformin B. acarbose (Precose) C. pioglitazone (Actos) D. human insulin

D. human insulin. The safety of most oral hypoglycemics in pregnancy has not been established with regard to their teratogenic potential. However, all oral agents cross the placenta (in contrast to insulin), leading to the potential for severe neonatal hypoglycemia. For these reasons, plus the requirement for exquisitely tight glucose control to reduce fetal macrosomia and organ dysgenesis, the American Diabetes Association advocates the use of human insulin for pregnant women. Insulin requirements generally increase throughout gestation, but the precise dosage is unimportant as long as it is sufficient to maintain glucose control.

Current thinking regarding infantile colic is that the cause is (check one) A. malabsorption B. overfeeding C. excessive air swallowing D. unknown E. parental anxiety

D. unknown. Colic is a frustrating condition for parents and doctors alike. The parents would like an explanation and relief, and physicians would like to offer these things. At this time, however, in spite of numerous studies and theories, the cause of colic remains unknown.

At a routine annual visit, a 31-year-old inner-city elementary school teacher asks you about a lesion on the nail of her ring finger, shown in Figure 8. On examination, you note that her other nails all have a slight linear depression or groove. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this problem? (check one) A. A paronychial fungal infection B. Psoriasis C. Iron deficiency D. Lead exposure E. A traumatic/metabolic event

E. A traumatic/metabolic event. Fingernails and toenails are often overlooked as clues to systemic illness. Like hair shafts, they document a history of the body during the past several months. The symmetric depression across the nail plate growing toward the distal edge of the nail shown here represents significant trauma to the body some weeks ago. These classic lines are called Beau's lines. No treatment is required. The other options listed involve the nails, but cause different and characteristic types of nail changes.

Which one of the following is most commonly implicated in interstitial nephritis? (check one) A. NSAIDs B. ACE inhibitors C. Diuretics D. Corticosteroids E. Antibiotics

E. Antibiotics. Antibiotics, especially penicillins, cephalosporins, and sulfonamides, are the most common drug-related cause of acute interstitial nephritis. Corticosteroids may be useful for treating this condition. The other drugs listed may cause renal injury, but not acute interstitial nephritis.

Which one of the following is safest for use in pregnancy (FDA category B or better)? (check one) A. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra) B. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) C. Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) D. Gentamicin

C. Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin). The FDA has established a fetal risk summary dividing drugs into categories. Category A drugs have been shown in controlled studies to pose no risk. At present there are no category A antibiotics. Most fall into categories B and C, with category B drugs thought to be relatively safe in pregnancy. When possible, a category B antibiotic should be chosen for treatment of a pregnant patient. Category C drugs have unknown fetal risk with no adequate human studies, and the possibility of risks and benefits must be considered before prescribing them for pregnant women. Category D drugs show some evidence for fetal risk; although there may be times when use of these drugs is necessary, they should not be used unless there is a very serious or life-threatening situation. Category X drugs have proven fetal risk and are contraindicated in pregnancy. Of the drugs listed, only nitrofurantoin is in category B. The others are all category C drugs. The FDA is currently in the process of revising their classification and labeling for drugs in pregnancy and lactation.

Secondary causes of osteoporosis in males include which one of the following? (check one) A. Weekly consumption of 3-6 alcoholic drinks B. Male hormone supplementation C. Vitamin D excess D. Obesity E. Corticosteroid use

E. Corticosteroid use. Corticosteroids are among the common secondary causes of osteoporosis in men. Other causes include excessive alcohol use, hypogonadism, vitamin D deficiency, and decreased body mass index.

Which one of the following is a risk factor for osteoarthritis of the hip? (check one) A. Low bone mass B. Young age C. Participation in swimming D. Hyperthyroidism E. Obesity

E. Obesity. Risk factors for osteoarthritis of the hip include obesity, high bone mass, old age, participation in weight-bearing sports, and hypothyroidism.

======================================================= Integumentary Board Review Questions 02 ======================================================= Your hospital administrator asks you to develop a community screening program for melanoma. Which one of the following is true concerning screening for this disease? (check one) A. Screening for melanoma is not indicated since the disease is rare B. Screening for melanoma is not indicated since screening takes too much time C. No definite clinical evidence has shown that screening for melanoma reduces mortality D. Because of sunbathing, female patients are the most important population to screen

C. No definite clinical evidence has shown that screening for melanoma reduces mortality. There have been no randomized, controlled trials or other definitive data to indicate that screening for melanoma reduces mortality. There are, however, factors which indicate that screening would be beneficial, including the increasing prevalence of the disease and the fact that screening is time-effective and safe. If screening is performed, populations at greatest risk should be considered. Men, especially those over age 50, have the highest incidence of melanoma.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 33 ======================================================= A 48-year-old female with type 2 diabetes has been hospitalized for 4 days with persistent fever. Her diabetes has been controlled with diet and glyburide (Micronase, DiaBeta). You saw her 2 weeks ago in the office with urinary frequency, urgency, and dysuria. At that time a urinalysis showed 25 WBCs/hpf, and a urine culture subsequently grew Escherichia coli sensitive to all antibiotics. She was placed on trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra) empirically, and this was continued after the culture results were reported. She improved over the next week, but then developed flank pain, fever to 39.5°C (103.1°F), and nausea and vomiting. She was hospitalized and intravenous cefazolin (Kefzol) and gentamicin were started while blood and urine cultures were performed. This urine culture also grew E. coli sensitive to the current antibiotics. Her temperature has continued to spike to 39.5°C since admission, without any change in her symptoms. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this time? (check one) A. Add vancomycin (Vancocin) to the regimen B. Order a radionuclide renal scan C. Order intravenous pyelography D. Order a urine culture for tuberculosis E. Order CT of the abdomen

E. Order CT of the abdomen. Perinephric abscess is an elusive diagnostic problem that is defined as a collection of pus in the tissue surrounding the kidney, generally in the space enclosed by Gerota's fascia. Mortality rates as high as 50% have been reported, usually from failure to diagnose the problem in a timely fashion. The difficulty in making the diagnosis can be attributed to the variable constellation of symptoms and the sometimes indolent course of this disease. The diagnosis should be considered when a patient has fever and persistence of flank pain. Most perinephric infections occur as an extension of an ascending urinary tract infection, commonly in association with renal calculi or urinary tract obstruction. Patients with anatomic urinary tract abnormalities or diabetes mellitus have an increased risk. Clinical features may be quite variable, and the most useful predictive factor in distinguishing uncomplicated pyelonephritis from perinephric abscess is persistence of fever for more than 4 days after initiation of antibiotic therapy. The radiologic study of choice is CT. This can detect perirenal fluid, enlargement of the psoas muscle (both are highly suggestive of the diagnosis), and perirenal gas (which is diagnostic). The sensitivity and specificity of CT is significantly greater than that of either ultrasonography or intravenous pyelography. Drainage, either percutaneously or surgically, along with appropriate antibiotic coverage reduces both morbidity and mortality from this condition.

A 67-year-old female comes to your office because she noticed flashing lights in her left eye 2 hours ago, and since then has had decreased vision in the lateral aspect of that eye. On examination she has a blind spot in the lateral visual field of her left eye. Her fundus is difficult to examine because of an early cataract. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Posterior vitreous detachment B. Vitreous hemorrhage C. Macular degeneration D. Ocular migraine E. Retinal detachment

E. Retinal detachment. In a patient complaining of flashes of light and a visual field defect, retinal detachment is the most likely diagnosis. Many cases of vitreous detachment are asymptomatic, and it does not cause sudden visual field defects in the absence of a retinal detachment. A vitreous hemorrhage would cause more blurring of vision in the entire field of vision. Ocular migraine causes binocular symptoms.

The most common cause of fainting is: (check one) A. Cardiac dysrhythmia B. Medications C. Orthostatic hypotension D. Psychiatric disorders E. Vasovagal syncope

E. Vasovagal syncope. Neurally mediated syncope (also termed neurocardiogenic or vasovagal syncope) comprises the largest group of disorders causing syncope. These disorders result from reflex-mediated changes in vascular tone or heart rate.

To be eligible for Medicare hospice benefits, a patient must: (check one) A. be enrolled in Medicare Part D B. be referred to hospice by a physician C. be debilitated and moribund D. have a malignancy E. have an estimated life expectancy of less than 6 months

E. have an estimated life expectancy of less than 6 months. To be eligible for Medicare hospice benefits, a patient must be eligible for Medicare Part A (hospital insurance). Although most hospice referrals come from physicians, nurses, and social workers, a patient's family members can also make a hospice referral. The patient must sign a statement choosing hospice, and both the patient's physician and the hospice medical director must certify that the patient has a terminal illness with an estimated life expectancy of less than 6 months. There is no requirement that the patient be debilitated or moribund.

A 42-year-old male seeks your advice regarding smoking cessation. You recommend a smoking cessation class, as well as varenicline (Chantix). You caution him that the most common side effect is: (check one) A. dermatitis B. diarrhea C. edema D. hirsutism E. nausea

E. nausea. The most common adverse event attributed to varenicline at a dosage of 1 mg twice a day is nausea, occurring in approximately 30%-50% of patients. Taking the drug with food lessens the nausea.

A 65-year-old Hispanic male with known metastatic lung cancer is hospitalized because of decreased appetite, lethargy, and confusion of 2 weeks' duration. Laboratory evaluation reveals the following: Serum calcium......................... 15.8 mg/dL (N 8.4-10.0) Serum phosphorus...................... 3.9 mg/dL (N 2.6-4.2) Serum creatinine. ...................... 1.1 mg/dL (N 0.7-1.3) Total serum protein..................... 5.0 g/dL (N 6.0-8.0) Albumin.............................. 3.1 g/dL (N 3.7-4.8) Which one of the following is the most appropriate INITIAL management? (check one) A. Calcitonin-salmon (Miacalcin) subcutaneously B. Pamidronate disodium (Aredia) by intravenous infusion C. Normal saline intravenously D. Furosemide intravenously

C. Normal saline intravenously. The initial management of hypercalcemia of malignancy includes fluid replacement with normal saline to correct the volume depletion that is invariably present and to enhance renal calcium excretion. The use of loop diuretics such as furosemide should be restricted to patients in danger of fluid overload, since these drugs can aggravate volume depletion and are not very effective alone in promoting renal calcium excretion. Although intravenous pamidronate has become the mainstay of treatment for the hypercalcemia of malignancy, it is considered only after the hypercalcemic patient has been rendered euvolemic by saline repletion. The same is true for the other calcium-lowering agents listed.

======================================================= Gastrointestinal Board Review Questions 03 ======================================================= A 32-year-old meat cutter comes to your office with persistent symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea which began about 36 hours ago on the last day of a 5-day Caribbean cruise. His wife was sick during the first 2 days of the cruise with similar symptoms. On the ship, they both ate the "usual foods" in addition to oysters. Findings on examination are negative, and a stool specimen is negative for white cells. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of his illness? (check one) A. Escherichia coli B. Rotavirus C. Norwalk virus D. Hepatitis A E. Giardia species

C. Norwalk virus. Recent reports of epidemics of gastroenteritis on cruise ships are consistent with Norwalk virus infections due to waterborne or foodborne spread. In the United States, these viruses are responsible for about 90% of all epidemics of nonbacterial gastroenteritis. The Norwalk-like viruses are common causes of waterborne epidemics of gastroenteritis, and have been shown to be responsible for outbreaks in nursing homes, on cruise ships, at summer camps, and in schools. Symptomatic treatment is usually appropriate.

A 57-year-old male executive sees you because of "shaky hands." His tremor is most noticeable when he is holding something or writing, and is more prominent in his hand than in his shoulder. He has noticed that it seems better "after a beer or two" at social gatherings. He has no other health problems. On examination you note a very definite tremor when he unbuttons his shirt. His gait is normal and there is no resting tremor. He has a previous history of intolerance to A 57-year-old male executive sees you because of "shaky hands." His tremor is most noticeable when he is holding something or writing, and is more prominent in his hand than in his shoulder. He has noticed that it seems better "after a beer or two" at social gatherings. He has no other health problems. On examination you note a very definite tremor when he unbuttons his shirt. His gait is normal and there is no resting tremor. He has a previous history of intolerance to β-blockers. Of the following, which medication would be the best choice for this patient? (check one) A. Levodopa/carbidopa (Sinemet) B. Amantadine (Symmetrel) C. Primidone (Mysoline) D. Lithium carbonate

C. Primidone (Mysoline). Parkinson's disease and essential tremor are the primary concerns in a person of this age who presents with a new tremor. A coarse, resting, pill-rolling tremor is characteristic of Parkinson's disease. Essential tremor is primarily an action tremor and is a common movement disorder, occurring in members of the same family with a high degree of frequency. Alcohol intake will temporarily cause marked reduction in the tremor. β-Adrenergic blockers have been the mainstay of treatment for these tremors, but this patient is intolerant to these drugs. Primidone has been effective in the treatment of essential tremor, and in head-to-head studies with propranolol has been shown to be superior after 1 year. Levodopa in combination with carbidopa is useful in the treatment of parkinsonian tremor but not essential tremor.

An 83-year-old female presents with pain, swelling, and erythema of her left knee. She first noticed this problem last night before going to bed. She is generally healthy and takes no medications. She has not been sexually active since being widowed 15 years ago, and she currently lives with her sister. She states that she developed pain and swelling in her left ankle 2 years ago that lasted only a couple of days and resolved spontaneously. Blood testing shows a very elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate but a normal rheumatoid factor and uric acid level. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Gonococcal arthritis B. Gout C. Pseudogout (calcium pyrophosphate disease) D. Rheumatoid arthritis E. Rupture of the anterior cruciate ligament

C. Pseudogout (calcium pyrophosphate disease). Acute monoarthritis in adults is most commonly caused by infection, trauma, or crystal deposition. Rheumatoid arthritis seldom presents as monoarthritis, and more often has a subacute course with multiple, symmetric joints involved. Although osteoporosis may result in a fracture of the knee joint without trauma at this age, there is no reason to believe that this patient has a torn anterior cruciate ligament. Gonococcal arthritis is one of the most common causes of septic arthritis, but is highly unlikely in this elderly, sexually inactive patient. Nongonococcal septic arthritis (especially due to staphylococcal and streptococcal bacteria) is still a consideration and should be ruled out by aspiration of fluid to be sent for culture. This patient's presentation is most consistent with pseudogout. Having a normal uric acid level suggests against gout, but does not rule it out. Also, gout is seven times more likely to be seen in males, whereas pseudogout is 1.5 times more frequent in females. Pseudogout most often affects the elderly, and usually affects the knee, wrist, and ankle. Gout presents most commonly in the first metatarsophalangeal joint and insteps of the feet, but also can occur in the knee, wrist, finger, and olecranon bursa. Differentiating between gout and pseudogout can be difficult and is best done by analysis of joint fluid. In patients with gout, this fluid contains highly negative birefringent, needle-shaped urate crystals, whereas in pseudogout the fluid contains rhomboid-shaped, weakly positive birefringent calcium pyrophosphate crystals.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 05 ======================================================= Which one of the following is most consistent with obsessive-compulsive disorder in adults? (check one) A. Impulses related to excessive worry about real-life problems B. A belief by the patient that obsessions are not produced by his or her own mind, but are "inserted" thoughts C. Recognition by the patient that the obsessions or compulsions are excessive or unreasonable D. Compulsions that bring relief to the patient rather than causing distress E. Full remission with treatment

C. Recognition by the patient that the obsessions or compulsions are excessive or unreasonable. The DSM-IV criteria for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) indicate that the patient at some point recognizes that the obsessions or compulsions are excessive or unreasonable. The impulses of OCD are not related to excessive worry about one's problems, and the patient recognizes that they are the product of his or her own mind. In addition, the patient experiences marked distress because of the impulses. Full remission is rare, but treatment can provide significant relief.

A 35-year-old male consults you about vague chest pain he developed while sitting at his desk earlier in the day. The pain is right-sided and was sharp for a brief time when it began, but it rapidly subsided. There was no hemoptysis and the pain does not seem pleuritic. His physical examination, EKG, and oxygen saturation are unremarkable. A chest film shows a 10% right pneumothorax. Which one of the following should you do next? (check one) A. Admit the patient to the hospital for observation B. Admit the patient to the hospital for chest tube placement C. Obtain a repeat chest radiograph in 24-48 hours D. Obtain an expiratory chest radiograph

C. Obtain a repeat chest radiograph in 24-48 hours. The majority of patients presenting with spontaneous pneumothorax are tall, thin individuals under 40 years of age. Most do not have clinically apparent lung disease, and the chest pain is sometimes minimal at the time of onset and may resolve within 24 hours even if untreated. Patients with small pneumothoraces involving <15% of the hemithorax may have a normal physical examination, although tachycardia is occasionally noted. The diagnosis is confirmed by chest radiographs. When a pneumothorax is suspected but not seen on a standard chest film, an expiratory film may be obtained to confirm the diagnosis. Studies have found that an average of 30% of patients will have a recurrence within 6 months to 2 years. An initial pneumothorax of <20% may be monitored if the patient has few symptoms. Follow-up should include a chest radiograph to assess stability at 24-48 hours. Indications for treatment include progression, delayed expansion, or the development of symptoms. The majority of patients with spontaneous pneumothoraces, and perhaps almost all of them, will have subcutaneous bullae on a CT scan.

A 70-year-old white male with hypertension has several abnormal liver function tests on routine testing. He says he does not drink alcohol, and the prescription medications he is taking are unlikely to cause hepatotoxicity. However, during more extensive history taking, he tells you that he does use some over-the-counter medications. Which one of these is most likely responsible for the abnormal laboratory findings? (check one) A. Aspirin, used occasionally for headache B. A fiber supplement taken to promote regular bowel habits C. One long-acting niacin tablet per day D. One 250-mg vitamin C tablet daily E. Chewable simethicone after meals, almost daily

C. One long-acting niacin tablet per day. Hepatotoxicity resulting from timed-release formulations of niacin has been reported in elderly individuals. Patients may be taking this supplement without their physician's knowledge, feeling it is safe because it is a vitamin. Aspirin and vitamin C can result in gastrointestinal iron loss and anemia. The other medications listed, if used in moderation, would not be expected to alter laboratory findings.

A 45-year-old male is seen in the emergency department with a 2-hour history of substernal chest pain. An EKG shows an ST-segment elevation of 0.3 mV in leads V4-V6. In addition to evaluation for reperfusion therapy, which one of the following would be appropriate? (check one) A. Enteric aspirin, 81 mg B. Intravenous metoprolol (Lopressor) C. Oral clopidogrel (Plavix) D. Warfarin (Coumadin), after blood is drawn to establish his baseline INR E. Delaying treatment pending results of two sets of cardiac enzyme measurements

C. Oral clopidogrel (Plavix). This patient has an ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). STEMI is defined as an ST-segment elevation of greater than 0.1 mV in at least two contiguous precordial or adjacent limb leads. The most important goal is to begin fibrinolysis less than 30 minutes after the first contact with the health system. The patient should be given oral clopidogrel, and should also chew 162-325 mg of aspirin. Enteric aspirin has a delayed effect. Intravenous β-blockers such as metoprolol should not be routinely given, and warfarin is not indicated. Delaying treatment until cardiac enzyme results are available in a patient with a definite myocardial infarction is not appropriate.

A 25-year-old female is in active labor at term and is dilated to 7 cm. An electronic fetal monitoring tracing is shown in Figure 5.

...

A 27-year-old female radiology technician developed an area of redness over the left interscapular region while visiting a friend in Paris last week. The rash has progressed to include the area shown in Figure 10 and the patient says it itches. She recalls feeling somewhat tired and achy once she arrived in Paris but attributed this to jet lag. She denies any other systemic symptoms. Your examination reveals no significant findings except for the rash.

...

A 68-year-old white female with a several-year history of well-controlled essential hypertension and a history of acute myocardial infarction 2 years ago is brought to the emergency department complaining of sudden, painless, complete loss of vision in her left eye that began 1 hour ago. Her vital signs are stable, and her blood pressure is 148/90 mm Hg. Her corrected visual acuity is: left—absent, with no light perception; right—20/30. The external eye examination is entirely unremarkable. A retinal examination reveals the findings shown in Figure 5.

...

An 80-year-old white male is admitted to the hospital with an acute myocardial infarction. He is given an antiarrhythmic for ventricular ectopic beats. During monitoring in the coronary care unit, he develops the rhythm shown on the EKG in Figure 3.

...

An 84-year-old male is walking across the street and has to hurry to avoid oncoming traffic. He suddenly develops extreme pain in his knee and falls to the street, and has to be carried to the sidewalk. The following day he comes to the emergency department. He is comfortable when placed in a knee immobilizer, but is very tender just above the patella. He can bend his knee, but when he tries to straighten his leg it is so weak that he cannot move it at all. Radiographs of the knee are shown in Figure 4.

...

A patient complains of throbbing bone pain in her lower back and legs. She also has felt weaker recently. Which one of the following tests would confirm a vitamin D deficiency? (check one) A. 25-hydroxyvitamin D B. 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D C. Ergocalciferol (vitamin D2 ) D. Cholecalciferol (vitamin D3 )

A. 25-hydroxyvitamin D. Serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D should be obtained in any patient with suspected vitamin D deficiency because it is the major circulating form of vitamin D (SOR A). 1,25-Dihydroxyvitamin D is the most active metabolite, but levels can be increased by secondary hyperparathyroidism. In persons with vitamin D deficiency, ergocalciferol (vitamin D ) or cholecalciferol (vitamin D ) can be used to replenish stores (SOR 2 3B).

In a patient with hypertriglyceridemia, the National Cholesterol Education Program recommends that a reasonable goal for non-HDL cholesterol is no more than (check one) A. 30 mg/dL above the LDL-cholesterol level B. 40 mg/dL above the LDL-cholesterol level C. 50 mg/dL above the LDL-cholesterol level D. 60 mg/dL above the LDL-cholesterol level E. 90 mg/dL above the LDL-cholesterol level

A. 30 mg/dL above the LDL-cholesterol level. The National Cholesterol Education Program's Adult Treatment Panel III recommends a goal non-HDLcholesterol level of no more than 30 mg/dL greater than the LDL-cholesterol level. This is based on a "normal" very low density lipoprotein cholesterol level being defined as that present when triglycerides are <150 mg/dL. This value typically is 30 mg/dL. Conversely, when triglyceride levels are >150 mg/dL, very low density lipoprotein is usually >30 mg/dL.

A 60-year-old African-American male was recently diagnosed with an abdominal aortic aneurysm. A lipid profile performed a few months ago revealed an LDL level of 125 mg/dL. You would now advise him that his goal LDL level is: (check one) A. <100 mg/dL B. <130 mg/dL C. <150 mg/dL D. <160 mg/dL

A. <100 mg/dL. Most physicians realize that the goal LDL level for patients with diabetes mellitus or coronary artery disease is <100 mg/dL. Many may not realize that this goal extends to people with CAD-equivalent diseases, including peripheral artery disease, symptomatic carotid artery disease, and abdominal aortic aneurysm.

A 72-year-old African-American male comes to your office for surgical clearance to undergo elective hemicolectomy for recurrent diverticulitis. The patient suffered an uncomplicated acute anterior-wall myocardial infarction approximately 18 months ago. A stress test was normal 2 months after he was discharged from the hospital. Currently, the patient feels well, walks while playing nine holes of golf three times per week, and is able to walk up a flight of stairs without chest pain or significant dyspnea. Findings are normal on a physical examination. Which one of the following would be most appropriate for this patient prior to surgery? (check one) A. A 12-lead resting EKG B. A graded exercise stress test C. A stress echocardiogram D. A persantine stressed nuclear tracer study (technetium or thallium) E. Coronary angiography

A. A 12-lead resting EKG. The current recommendations from the American College of Cardiology and the American Heart Association on preoperative clearance for noncardiac surgery state that preoperative intervention is rarely needed to lower surgical risk. Patients who are not currently experiencing unstable coronary syndrome, severe valvular disease, uncompensated congestive heart failure, or a significant arrhythmia are not considered at high risk, and should be evaluated for most surgery primarily on the basis of their functional status. If these patients are capable of moderate activity (greater than 4 METs) without cardiac symptoms, they can be cleared with no stress testing or coronary angiography for an elective minor or intermediate-risk operation such as the one this patient is to undergo. A resting 12-lead EKG is recommended for males over 45, females over 55, and patients with diabetes, symptoms of chest pain, or a previous history of cardiac disease.

You would recommend pneumococcal vaccine for which one of the following? (check one) A. A 20-year-old male who smokes 1 pack of cigarettes daily B. A 52-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus who received pneumococcal vaccine 6 years ago C. A 60-year-old male who is a long-term resident of a nursing home because of a previous stroke, and who received pneumococcal vaccine at age 54 D. A 62-year-old male with chronic renal failure who received pneumococcal vaccine at age 50 and age 55 E. A 71-year-old male with no medical problems who received pneumococcal vaccine at age 65

A. A 20-year-old male who smokes 1 pack of cigarettes daily. In October 2008 the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommended adding cigarette smoking to the list of high-risk conditions that are indications for the 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine. All persons between the ages of 19 and 64 who smoke should receive this vaccine. One-time revaccination after 5 years is recommended for persons with chronic renal failure, asplenia (functional or anatomic), or other immunocompromising conditions. The patient with chronic renal failure in this question has already received two immunizations. The diabetic patient and the nursing-home resident have both received one immunization and should not receive a second dose until age 65. The 71-year-old has already been immunized after age 65, and a repeat immunization is not recommended.

U.S. Department of Transportation standards for commercial drivers would disqualify which one of the following? (check one) A. A 38-year-old male type 1 diabetic, well-controlled on insulin, whose last HbA1c was 6.0% (N 3.8-6.4) B. A 50-year-old female with uncorrected 20/40 vision in both eyes C. A 57-year-old male who had an inferior myocardial infarction 3 years ago and had a recent negative treadmill test D. A 64-year-old male who fails a whispered-voice test in one ear

A. A 38-year-old male type 1 diabetic, well-controlled on insulin, whose last HbA1c was 6.0% (N 3.8-6.4). Insulin-dependent diabetes, even if well controlled, disqualifies a driver for commercial interstate driving. Vision of 20/40 is the minimum allowed under Department of Transportation regulations. Adequate hearing in one ear and well-compensated controlled heart disease are both allowed. Blood pressure of 160/90 mm Hg or less merits an unrestricted 2-year certification. Drivers with a blood pressure of 160/90-181/105 mm Hg can receive a 3-month temporary certification during which treatment for hypertension should be undertaken.

The intranasal live, attenuated influenza vaccine would be appropriate for which one of the following? (check one) A. A 5-year-old female who is otherwise healthy B. A 12-year-old male who has a history of severe persistent asthma C. A 21-year-old female who has a history of Guillain-Barré syndrome D. A 24-year-old female who is 24 weeks pregnant E. A 55-year-old healthy male who requests influenza vaccine

A. A 5-year-old female who is otherwise healthy. The live, attenuated influenza vaccine is an option for vaccinating healthy, nonpregnant individuals age 5-49 years. The vaccine is administered intranasally. It is not indicated in patients with underlying medical conditions, such as chronic pulmonary or cardiovascular disease, or in patients with a history of Guillain-Barré syndrome, pregnant patients, or children and adolescents who receive long-term aspirin or salicylate therapy. Patients with a history of hypersensitivity to eggs should not receive this vaccine.

In which one of the following patients can a diagnosis of osteoporosis be made? (check one) A. A 58-year-old female who fractured her wrist when she slipped and fell on her outstretched hand onto a carpeted floor B. A 62-year-old female who sustained a pelvic fracture in a motor vehicle accident C. A 52-year-old female with a T-score of +2.5 on bone mineral density (BMD) testing of her hip D. A 67-year-old female with a T-score of -1.7 on BMD testing of her spine E. A 72-year-old female with a T-score of -2.0 on BMD testing of her spine

A. A 58-year-old female who fractured her wrist when she slipped and fell on her outstretched hand onto a carpeted floor. Osteoporosis is defined as a fragility or low-impact fracture, or as a spine or hip bone mineral density (BMD) β2.5 standard deviations below the mean for young, healthy women. A fracture of the radius caused by a fall from a standing position would be considered a low-impact fracture. A fracture resulting from a motor vehicle accident would be considered a high-impact fracture, which is not diagnostic for 11 osteoporosis. A T-score of -2.5 or less is considered osteoporosis, a T-score between -1.0 and -2.5 is considered osteopenia, and a T-score of -1.0 or higher is considered normal.

A 3-year-old male is carried into the office by his mother. Yesterday evening he began complaining of pain around his right hip. Today he has a temperature of 37.6°C (99.7°F), cries when bearing weight on his right leg, and will not allow the leg to be moved in any direction. A radiograph of the hip is normal. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this time? (check one) A. A CBC and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate B. A serum antinuclear antibody level C. Ultrasonography of the hip D. MRI of the hip E. In-office aspiration of the hip

A. A CBC and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate. This presentation is typical of either transient synovitis or septic arthritis of the hip. Because the conditions have very different treatment regimens and outcomes, it is important to differentiate the two. It is recommended that after plain films, the first studies to be performed should be a CBC and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Studies have shown that septic arthritis should be considered highly likely in a child who has a fever over 38.7°C (101.7°F), refuses to bear weight on the leg, has a WBC count >12,000 cells/mm , and has an ESR >40 mm/hr. If several or all of these conditions exist, aspiration 3 of the hip guided by ultrasonography or fluoroscopy should be performed by an experienced practitioner. MRI may be helpful in cases that are unclear based on standard data, or if other etiologies need to be excluded.

A 36-year-old female consults you because of concerns about "fatigue." After carefully reviewing her history and performing a physical examination, which one of the following would be LEAST valuable in assessing this patient? (check one) A. A baseline serum cortisol level B. An erythrocyte sedimentation rate C. A complete metabolic panel D. A TSH level E. A pregnancy test

A. A baseline serum cortisol level. In patients with fatigue, family physicians should complete an appropriate history and physical examination. Laboratory studies should be considered, although the results affect management in only 5% of patients. A baseline cortisol level would be valuable only in patients with significant findings of Addison's disease. In addition to an erythrocyte sedimentation rate, a complete metabolic panel, and a TSH level, many physicians request a CBC and a urinalysis. A pregnancy test should be ordered for women of childbearing age. No other tests have been shown to be useful unless a specific medical condition is suspected.

A 15-year-old white male is being evaluated after a fall down one flight of stairs. He was transported by the local rescue squad with his cervical spine immobilized. He walked briefly at the scene and did not lose consciousness. His only complaint is a mild, generalized headache. One episode of vomiting occurred shortly after the accident. No weakness or numbness has been noted. Vital signs, mental status, and neurologic findings are normal. Radiologic evaluation of the cervical spine is remarkable only for an air-fluid level in the sphenoid sinus. Which one of the following abnormalities is most likely to be associated with this radiologic finding? (check one) A. A basilar skull fracture B. An orbital floor fracture C. An epidural hematoma D. A zygomatic arch fracture E. A mandible fracture

A. A basilar skull fracture. A post-traumatic air-fluid level in the sphenoid sinus is associated with basilar skull fractures. This finding is frequently noted on cervical spine films. Orbital floor fractures may be associated with double vision, fluid in the maxillary sinus, an air-fluid level in the maxillary sinus, and diplopia. Epidural hematomas are more frequently associated with skull fractures in the area of the meningeal artery. Zygomatic arch fractures are more visible on Towne's view. Characteristic swelling and lateral orbital bruising are typically present. Mandible fractures may be associated with dental misalignment or bleeding. Panoramic views are often diagnostic.

In a 34-year-old primigravida at 35 weeks' gestation, which one of the following supports a diagnosis of MILD preeclampsia rather than severe preeclampsia? (check one) A. A blood pressure of 150/100 mm Hg B. A 24-hr protein level of 6 g C. A platelet count <100,000/mm3 D. Liver enzyme elevation with epigastric tenderness E. Altered mental status

A. A blood pressure of 150/100 mm Hg. The criteria for severe preeclampsia specify a blood pressure of 160/110 mm Hg or above on two occasions, 6 hours apart. Other criteria include proteinuria above 5 g/24 hr, thrombocytopenia with a platelet count <100,000/mm3, liver enzyme abnormalities, epigastric or right upper quadrant pain, and alteration of mental status.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 48 ======================================================= A 60-year-old Chinese female asks you about being tested for osteoporosis. She is postmenopausal and has never used hormone therapy. She does not consume dairy products because she has lactose intolerance. She is on no medications, is otherwise healthy, and has no history of falls or fractures. Her mother had osteoporosis and vertebral compression fractures. Her BMI is 20 kg/m2 . Which one of the following tests would be best to determine whether this patient has osteoporosis? (check one) A. A central DXA scan of the lumbar spine and hips B. A forearm DXA scan C. Quantitative CT of the lumbar spine D. Quantitative calcaneal ultrasonography E. Measurement of biochemical markers of bone turnover in the urine

A. A central DXA scan of the lumbar spine and hips. This patient has several risk factors for osteoporosis: Asian ethnicity, low body weight, positive family history, postmenopausal status with no history of hormone replacement, and low calcium intake. The best diagnostic test for osteoporosis is a central DXA scan of the hip, femoral neck, and lumbar spine. Quantitative CT is accurate, but cost and radiation exposure are issues. Peripheral DXA and calcaneal sonography results do not correlate well with central DXA. Measurement of biochemical markers is not recommended for the diagnosis of osteoporosis.

A healthy 48-year-old bookkeeper who works in a medical office has a positive PPD on routine yearly screening. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. A chest radiograph B. A repeat PPD C. Treatment with isoniazid and one other antituberculous drug for 12 months D. Anergy testing

A. A chest radiograph. Clinical evaluation and a chest radiograph are recommended in asymptomatic patients with a positive PPD (SOR C). A two-step PPD is performed on those at high risk whose initial test is negative. Asymptomatic patients with a positive PPD and an abnormal chest film should have a sputum culture for TB, but a culture is not required if the chest film is negative. Persons with a PPD conversion should be encouraged to take INH for 9 months with proper medical supervision. Patients with a negative PPD who are still at high risk for TB, especially HIV-positive patients, could be evaluated for anergy, but it is not recommended at this time.

A 54-year-old white male presents with drooping of his right eyelid for 3 weeks. On examination, he has ptosis of the right upper lid, miosis of the right pupil, and decreased sweating on the right side of his face. Extraocular muscle movements are intact. In addition to a complete history and physical examination, which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. A chest radiograph B. MRI of the brain and orbits C. 131I thyroid scanning D. A fasting blood glucose level E. An acetylcholine receptor antibody level

A. A chest radiograph. The clinical triad of Horner's syndrome-ipsilateral ptosis, miosis, and decreased facial sweating-suggests decreased sympathetic innervation due to involvement of the stellate ganglion, a complication of Pancoast's superior sulcus tumors of the lung. Radiographs or MRI of the pulmonary apices and paracervical area is indicated. Horner's syndrome may accompany intracranial pathology, such as the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenbergs syndrome), but is associated with multiple other neurologic symptoms, so MRI of the brain is not indicated at this point. The acetylcholine receptor antibody level is a test for myasthenia gravis, which can also present with ptosis, but not with full-blown Horner's syndrome. Diabetes mellitus and thyroid disease do not commonly present with Horner's syndrome.

A 35-year-old African-American female with symptomatic uterine fibroids that are unresponsive to medical management prefers to avoid a hysterectomy. Which one of the following would be a reason for preferring myomectomy over fibroid embolization? (check one) A. A desire for future pregnancy B. Medical problems that increase general anesthesia risk C. Religious objections to blood transfusion D. The likelihood of a shorter hospital stay and recovery time E. The minimal risk of fibroid recurrence

A. A desire for future pregnancy. In the symptomatic patient with uterine fibroids unresponsive to medical therapy, myomectomy is recommended over fibroid embolization for patients who wish to become pregnant in the future. Uterine fibroid embolization requires a shorter hospitalization and less time off work. General anesthesia is not required, and a blood transfusion is unlikely to be needed. Uterine fibroids can recur or develop after either myomectomy or embolization.

Which one of the following is diagnostic for type 2 diabetes mellitus? (check one) A. A fasting plasma glucose level ≥126 mg/dL on two separate occasions B. An oral glucose tolerance test (75-g load) with a 2-hour glucose level ≥160 mg/dL C. A random blood glucose level ≥200 mg/dL on two occasions in an asymptomatic person D. A hemoglobin A 1c ≥6.0% on two separate occasions

A. A fasting plasma glucose level ≥126 mg/dL on two separate occasions. The American Diabetes Association (ADA) first published guidelines for the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus in 1997 and updated its diagnostic criteria in 2010. With the increasing incidence of obesity, it is estimated that over 5 million Americans have undiagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus. Given the long-term risks of microvascular (renal, ocular) and macrovascular (cardiac) complications, clear guidelines for screening are critical. The ADA recommends screening for all asymptomatic adults with a BMI >25.0 kg/m whohave one or more additional risk factors for diabetes mellitus, and screening for all adults with no risk factors every 3 years beginning at age 45. Current criteria for the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus include a hemoglobin A1c≥6.5%, a fasting plasma glucose level ≥126 mg/dL, a 2-hour plasma glucose leve l≥200 mg/dL, or, in a symptomatic patient, a random blood glucose level ³200 mg/dL. In the absence of unequivocal hyperglycemia, results require confirmation by repeat testing.

A 45-year-old white male presents with severe intermittent right flank pain that radiates into his right groin area. You suspect a ureteral stone. Which one of the following would most reliably confirm your suspected diagnosis? (check one) A. A helical CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis without contrast B. Intravenous pyelography C. Abdominal ultrasonography D. A KUB plain film of the abdomen E. A urinalysis

A. A helical CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis without contrast. An unenhanced helical CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is the best study for confirming the diagnosis of a urinary tract stone in a patient with acute flank pain, supplanting the former gold standard, intravenous pyelography. A CT scan may also reveal other pathology, such as appendicitis, diverticulitis, or abdominal aortic aneurysm. Although abdominal ultrasonography has a very high specificity, it is still not better than CT, and its sensitivity is much lower; thus, its use is usually confined to pregnant patients with a suspected stone. Plain abdominal radiographs may show the stone if it is radiopaque, and are useful for following patients with radiopaque stones. CT will reveal a radiopaque stone. While most patients with stones will have hematuria, its absence does not rule out a stone.

A 30-year-old female with dysfunctional uterine bleeding asks about treatment options. An examination is normal and blood testing is negative. She is unmarried and is undecided about having children. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient? (check one) A. A levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device B. Endometrial ablation C. Hysterectomy D. Oral progestin during the luteal phase

A. A levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device. Few treatments for dysfunctional uterine bleeding have been studied. NSAIDs, oral contraceptive pills, and danazol have not been shown to have sufficient evidence of effect. Progestin is effective when used on a 21-day cycle, but not if used only during the luteal phase. Hysterectomy and ablation are very effective, but both destroy fertility. In a young woman unsure about having children, the levonorgestrel releasing IUD is most effective and preserves fertility.

A 55-year-old white male comes to your office with weakness and a headache. He also describes an annoying pruritus that occurs frequently after he takes a hot shower. The physical examination is remarkable for the presence of an enlarged spleen. He has a hemoglobin level of 21 g/dL (N 12-16) and a hematocrit of 63% (N 36-48). To confirm your clinical diagnosis, you obtain additional studies. Which one of the following would be most consistent with the most likely diagnosis in this patient? (check one) A. A low serum erythropoietin level B. A low platelet count C. A low arterial oxygen concentration D. An elevated carboxyhemoglobin level

A. A low serum erythropoietin level. The patient described in this case has polycythemia vera. Pruritus after a hot shower (aquagenic pruritus) and the presence of splenomegaly helps to clinically distinguish polycythemia vera from other causes of erythrocytosis (hematocrit >55%). Specific criteria for the diagnosis of polycythemia vera include an elevated red cell mass, a normal arterial oxygen saturation (>92%), and the presence of splenomegaly. In addition, patients usually exhibit thrombocytosis (platelet count >400,000/mm3 ), leukocytosis (WBC>12,000/mm3 ), a low serum erythropoietin level, and an elevated leukocyte alkaline phosphatase score. High carboxyhemoglobin levels are associated with secondary polycythemia.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 41 ======================================================= A 62-year-old African-American female undergoes a workup for pruritus. Laboratory findings include a hematocrit of 55.0% (N 36.0-46.0) and a hemoglobin level of 18.5 g/dL (N 12.0-16.0). Which one of the following additional findings would help establish the diagnosis of polycythemia vera? (check one) A. A platelet count >400,000/mm3 B. An O2 saturation <90% C. A WBC count <4500/mm (N 4300-10,800)3 D. An elevated uric acid level

A. A platelet count >400,000/mm3. Polycythemia vera should be suspected in African-Americans or white females whose hemoglobin level is >16 g/dL or whose hematocrit is >47%. For white males, the thresholds are 18 g/dL and 52%. It should also be suspected in patients with portal vein thrombosis and splenomegaly, with or without thrombocytosis and leukocytosis. Major criteria include an increased red cell mass, a normal O2 saturation,and the presence ofsplenomegaly. Minor criteria includeelevated vitamin B 12 levels, elevated leukocyte alkaline phosphatase, a platelet count >400,000/mm3 and a WBC count >12,000/mm3 . Patients with polycythemia vera may present with gout and an elevated uric acid level, but neither is considered a criterion for the diagnosis.

At a routine visit, a 50-year-old white female with a 10-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus has a blood pressure of 145/90 mm Hg and significant microalbuminuria. Which one of the following would be an absolute contraindication to use of an ACE inhibitor in this patient? (check one) A. A previous history of angioneurotic edema B. Renal insufficiency C. Asthma D. A history of recent myocardial infarction E. A cardiac ejection fraction <25%

A. A previous history of angioneurotic edema. Angioneurotic edema can be life-threatening, and ACE inhibitors should not be given to patients with a history of this condition from any cause. Elevated creatinine levels are not an absolute contraindication to ACE inhibitor therapy. Myocardial infarction and a reduced cardiac ejection fraction are indications for ACE inhibitor therapy. ACE inhibitors do not affect asthma.

A healthy 40-year-old female presents for her annual gynecologic examination. She tells you that she also needs a tuberculin screening test for her anticipated volunteer work at the local hospital. She has had no significant illness or exposures and has been your patient for nearly 20 years. You administer a PPD test which shows 10 mm of induration on the second day. The most appropriate next step in her evaluation would be: (check one) A. A repeat PPD in 2 weeks B. A chest radiograph (two views) C. Screening liver function tests D. Isoniazid (INH) for 9 months for treatment of her latent tuberculosis infection

A. A repeat PPD in 2 weeks. In 2000, the American Thoracic Society and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) advocated a shift in focus from screening the general population to testing only patients at increased risk for developing tuberculosis. In some persons PPD reactivity wanes with time but can be recalled by a second skin test administered 1 week or more after the first (i.e., two-step testing). For persons undergoing PPD skin testing, such as health-care workers, initial two-step testing may preclude misclassification of persons with boosted reactions as PPD converters. In those at low risk, such as this patient, a tuberculin skin test is now considered positive only if induration is at least 15 mm. Thus, this hospital volunteer would pose little risk to the hospital population since her 10-mm reaction falls within the guidelines of a negative test. She does not require diagnostic evaluation at this time, and isoniazid therapy is not indicated.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 35 ======================================================= A 14-year-old female with a history of asthma is having daytime symptoms about once a week and symptoms that awaken her at night about once a month. Her asthma does not interfere with normal activity, and her FEV1 is >80% of predicted. Which one of the following is the most appropriate treatment plan for this patient? (check one) A. A short-acting inhaled β-agonist as needed B. Low-dose inhaled corticosteroids daily C. A leukotriene receptor antagonist daily D. Medium-dose inhaled corticosteroids daily E. Low-dose inhaled corticosteroids plus a long-acting inhaled β-agonist daily

A. A short-acting inhaled β-agonist as needed. Based on this patient's reported frequency of asthma symptoms, she should be classified as having intermittent asthma. The preferred first step in managing intermittent asthma is an inhaled short-acting β-agonist as needed. Daily medication is reserved for patients with persistent asthma (symptoms >2 days per week for mild, daily for moderate, and throughout the day for severe) and is initiated in a stepwise approach, starting with a daily low-dose inhaled corticosteroid or leukotriene receptor antagonist and then progressing to a medium-dose inhaled corticosteroid or low-dose inhaled corticosteroid plus a long-acting inhaled β-agonist.

Which one of the following is true concerning the use of dexamethasone to treat acute laryngotracheitis (croup)? (check one) A. A single dose is adequate for treatment B. It commonly leads to a secondary bacterial infection due to immunosuppression C. It increases the need for hospitalization D. It is indicated only for patients with severe croup

A. A single dose is adequate for treatment. Treatment with corticosteroids is now routinely recommended for acute laryngotracheitis (croup). A single dose of dexamethasone, either orally or intramuscularly, is appropriate. Prolonged courses of corticosteroids provide no additional benefit and may lead to secondary bacterial or fungal infections. Secondary infections rarely occur with single-dose treatment. Corticosteroid therapy shortens emergency department stays and decreases the need for return visits and hospitalizations. It is indicated for patients with croup of any severity.

A 62-year-old male on hemodialysis develops a pruritic rash on his arms and chest, with erythematous, thickened plaques and edema. He had brain imaging with a gadolinium-enhanced MRI for neurologic symptoms 10 days ago. Which one of the following is true regarding this problem? (check one) A. A skin biopsy is diagnostic B. The problem is limited to the skin C. Immediate treatment is critical D. The disease is more common in males E. Death from the disease is unusual

A. A skin biopsy is diagnostic. This patient has gadolinium-associated nephrogenic systemic fibrosis, which is associated with the use of gadolinium-based contrast material in patients with severe renal dysfunction, often on dialysis. Associated proinflammatory states, such as recent surgery, malignancy, and ischemia, are often present as well. This condition occurs without regard to gender, race, or age. Dermatologic manifestations are usually seen, but multiple organ systems may be involved. There is no effective treatment, and mortality is approximately 30%. A deep biopsy of the affected skin is diagnostic.

An otherwise healthy 1-year-old white male has a screening hemoglobin level of 10.5 g/dL (N 11.3-14.1), a mean corpuscular volume of 68 fL (N 71-84), and an undetectable serum lead level. What should be your next step? (check one) A. A therapeutic trial of iron for 1 month B. A serum ferritin level C. An erythrocyte protoporphyrin level D. Hemoglobin electrophoresis E. Bone marrow examination

A. A therapeutic trial of iron for 1 month. It is important to screen for anemia during late infancy. Iron deficiency is the most common cause of anemia in this age group. There is evidence that persistent iron deficiency in childhood may have a negative impact on cognitive development. A therapeutic trial of iron is the best approach to the treatment of iron deficiency in late infancy. If the anemia fails to respond, investigating other causes of anemia is indicated.

A 60-year-old male is recovering from a non-Q-wave myocardial infarction. He has a 40-pack-year smoking history, currently smokes a pack of cigarettes per day, and has a strong family history of coronary artery disease. Studies ordered by the cardiologist showed no indication for any coronary artery procedures. His BMI is 27.5 kg/m 2 and his blood pressure is 130/70 mm Hg. Laboratory tests reveal a fasting blood glucose level of 85 mg/dL, a total cholesterol level of 195 mg/dL, and an LDL-cholesterol level of 95 mg/dL. Which one of the following secondary prevention measures would be LEAST likely to improve this patient's cardiovascular outcome? (check one) A. A weight reduction diet B. A β-blocker C. A statin D. An antiplatelet agent E. Smoking cessation

A. A weight reduction diet. Although dietary management may be appropriate, a weight reduction diet is not likely to improve this patient's cardiovascular outcome. In fact, even if this person were obese, there is insufficient evidence that weight reduction would decrease his cardiovascular mortality (SOR C). There is good evidence that the other options, even β-blockers in a patient with normal blood pressure, are indicated. All of these measures have evidence to support their usefulness for secondary prevention of coronary artery disease (SOR A).

The Strength-of-Recommendation Taxonomy (SORT) is used to grade key recommendations in clinical review articles. Which one of the following grades indicates that a recommendation is based on consistent, good-quality, patient-oriented evidence? (check one) A. A B. B C. C D. X

A. A. When possible, it is important for the family physician to base clinical decisions on the best evidence. Strength-of-Recommendation Taxonomy (SORT) grades in medical literature are intended to help physicians practice evidence-based medicine. SORT grades are only A, B, and C. These should not be confused with the U.S. Food and Drug Administration labeling categories for the potential teratogenic effects of medications on a fetus: pregnancy categories A, B, C, D, and X. Strength of Recommendation (SOR) A is a recommendation that is based on consistent, good-quality, patient-oriented evidence. SOR B is a recommendation that is based on limited-quality patient-oriented evidence. SOR C is a recommendation that is based on consensus, disease-oriented evidence, usual practice, expert opinion, or case series for studies of diagnosis, treatment, prevention, or screening.

A 35-year-old white male has a blood pressure of 142/88 mm Hg, confirmed on repeat measurements. A complete metabolic panel and urinalysis reveal a serum creatinine level of 1.9 mg/dL (N 0.6-1.5) and 2+ protein in the urine. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate initial treatment? (check one) A. ACE inhibitors B. Aldosterone antagonists C. β-Blockers D. Calcium channel blockers E. Diuretics

A. ACE inhibitors. Although JNC-7 guidelines recommend a diuretic as the initial pharmacologic agent for most patients with hypertension, the presence of compelling indications may indicate the need for treatment with antihypertensive agents that demonstrate a particular benefit in primary or secondary prevention. JNC-7 guidelines recommend ACE inhibitors (ACEIs) or angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) for hypertensive patients with chronic kidney disease (SOR A). First-line therapy for proteinuric kidney disease includes an ACEI or an ARB. Because these drugs can cause elevations in creatinine and potassium, these levels should be monitored. A serum creatinine level as much as 35% above baseline is acceptable in patients taking these agents and is not a reason to withhold treatment unless hyperkalemia develops. If an ACEI or an ARB does not control the hypertension, the addition of a diuretic or a calcium channel blocker may be required. The combination of ACEIs and diuretics may be used to control hypertension in patients with diabetes mellitus, heart failure, or high coronary disease risk, as well as post myocardial infarction. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for managing hypertension in patients with diabetes or high coronary disease risk. β-Blockers are useful as part of combination therapy in patients with hypertension and heart failure, or post myocardial infarction.

In the secondary prevention of ischemic cardiac events, which one of the following is most likely to be beneficial in a 68-year-old female with known coronary artery disease and preserved left ventricular function? (check one) A. ACE inhibitors B. Hormone therapy C. Calcium channel blockers D. Vitamin E E. Oral glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor inhibitors

A. ACE inhibitors. Secondary prevention of cardiac events consists of long-term treatment to prevent recurrent cardiac morbidity and mortality in patients who have either already had an acute myocardial infarction or are at high risk because of severe coronary artery stenosis, angina, or prior coronary surgical procedures. Effective treatments include aspirin, β-blockers after myocardial infarction, ACE inhibitors in patients at high risk after myocardial infarction, angiotensin II receptor blockers in those with coronary artery disease, and amiodarone in patients who have had a myocardial infarction and have a high risk of death from cardiac arrhythmias. Oral glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor inhibitors appear to increase the risk of mortality when compared with aspirin. Calcium channel blockers, class I anti-arrhythmic agents, and sotalol all appear to increase mortality compared with placebo in patients who have had a myocardial infarction. Contrary to decades of large observational studies, multiple randomized, controlled trials show no cardiac benefit from hormone therapy in postmenopausal women.

In a child, which one of the following is most likely to improve adherence to a chronic medication regimen? (check one) A. Adding a favorite flavor to bitter liquid medications B. More frequent dosing of daily medication C. Having only one person from the health-care team discuss the medication regimen with the patient and his parents D. Advising the parents to avoid giving rewards for following the regimen E. Putting the parents in complete control of the dosing schedule

A. Adding a favorite flavor to bitter liquid medications. A number of useful strategies for promoting adherence to a chronic medical regimen can be employed in children. Adding flavors to unpleasant tasting medicines is helpful (SOR B). Chocolate flavoring is especially useful for masking the taste of bitter medications. Using medications that are given only once or twice a day is associated with compliance rates of greater than 70% (SOR B). Consistent advice given by multiple members of the health-care team reinforces the importance of following a medication regimen. Parental use of rewards for children who take their medicine properly helps improve adherence. Involving children in decisions concerning their care gives them a sense of control and improves adherence. Other strategies for improving adherence include patient handouts, keeping financial costs in mind when prescribing, advising patients to incorporate dosing into daily routines such as meals, keeping tally sheets, and using visual reminders such as notes on the refrigerator.

A 26-year-old gravida 2 para 1 at 10 weeks' gestation presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and vaginal spotting. Ultrasonography reveals an ectopic pregnancy. Her blood type is A-negative, antibody-negative. Appropriate management with regard to her Rh status includes: (check one) A. Administration of 50 µg of RHO immune globulin (RhoGAM) B. Administration of 300 µg of RhoGAM C. Administration of 50 µg of RhoGAM only if she requires laparoscopic intervention D. Administration of 300 µg of RhoGAM only if she requires laparoscopic intervention E. No RhoGAM, as it is not indicated in an Rh-negative woman with an ectopic pregnancy

A. Administration of 50 µg of RHO immune globulin (RhoGAM). Both ectopic pregnancy and spontaneous or therapeutic abortion pose a significant risk for fetomaternal hemorrhage. Thus, administration of RHO immune globulin (RhoGAM) is recommended in any Rh-negative patient who is unsensitized (D antibody screen-negative prior to administration of RhoGAM). If the estimated gestational age is 12 weeks or less, 50 mcg of RhoGAM is recommended. If the estimated gestational age is greater than 12 weeks, 300 µg of RhoGAM is recommended.

A 47-year-old male who lives at sea level attempts to climb Mt. Rainier. On the first day he ascends to 3400 m (11,000 ft). The next morning he complains of headache, nausea, dizziness, and fatigue, but as he continues the climb to the summit he becomes ataxic and confused. Which one of the following is the treatment of choice? (check one) A. Administration of oxygen and immediate descent B. Dexamethasone, 8 mg intramuscularly C. Acetazolamide (Diamox), 250 mg twice a day D. Nifedipine (Procardia), 10 mg immediately, followed by 30 mg in 12 hours E. Helicopter delivery of a portable hyperbaric chamber

A. Administration of oxygen and immediate descent. The patient described initially showed signs of acute mountain sickness. These include headache in an unacclimatized person who recently arrived at an elevation >2500 m (8200 ft), plus the presence of one or more of the following: anorexia, nausea, vomiting, insomnia, dizziness, or fatigue. The patient's condition then deteriorated to high-altitude cerebral edema, defined as the onset of ataxia and/or altered consciousness in someone with acute mountain sickness. The management of choice is a combination of descent and supplemental oxygen. Often, a descent of only 500-1000 m (1600-3300 ft) will lead to resolution of acute mountain sickness. Simulated descent with a portable hyperbaric chamber also is effective, but descent should not be delayed while awaiting helicopter delivery. If descent and/or administration of oxygen is not possible, medical therapy with dexamethasone and/or acetazolamide may reduce the severity of symptoms. Nifedipine has also been shown to be helpful in cases of high-altitude pulmonary edema where descent and/or supplemental oxygen is unavailable.

A 3-week-old infant is brought to your office with a fever. He has a rectal temperature of 38.3°C (101.0°F), but does not appear toxic. The remainder of the examination is within normal limits. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management for this patient? (check one) A. Admit to the hospital; obtain urine, blood, and CSF cultures; and start intravenous antibiotics B. Admit to the hospital and treat for herpes simplex virus infection C. Follow up in the office in 24 hours and admit to the hospital if not improved D. Order a CBC and urinalysis with urine culture, and send the patient home if the results are normal

A. Admit to the hospital; obtain urine, blood, and CSF cultures; and start intravenous antibiotics. Any child younger than 29 days old with a fever and any child who appears toxic, regardless of age, should undergo a complete sepsis workup and be admitted to the hospital for observation until culture results are known or the source of the fever is found and treated (SOR A). Observation only, with close follow-up, is recommended for nontoxic infants 3-36 months of age with a temperature <39.0°C (102.2°F) (SOR B). Children 29-90 days old who appear to be nontoxic and have negative screening laboratory studies, including a CBC and urinalysis, can be sent home with precautions and with follow-up in 24 hours (SOR B). Testing for neonatal herpes simplex virus infection should be considered in patients with risk factors, including maternal infection at the time of delivery, use of fetal scalp electrodes, vaginal delivery, cerebrospinal fluid pleocytosis, or herpetic lesions. Testing also should be considered when a child does not respond to antibiotics (SOR C).

Typically, a high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) of the cervix is treated with ablation or excision. In which one of the following can treatment be deferred? (check one) A. Adolescents B. Patients attempting to conceive C. Patients with a history of three previous normal Papanicolaou smears D. Patients with a negative DNA test for HPV E. Patients over the age of 70

A. Adolescents. Patients attempting to conceive are not candidates for conservative management of cervical dysplasia, because treatment of progressive disease during pregnancy may be harmful. When possible, the problem should be resolved before conception. Patients who have had three normal Papanicolaou (Pap) smears in succession are candidates for lengthened screening intervals according to some recommendations. However, once a problem is found, they should be managed the same as other cases. A negative test for HPV can be used to assess the risk of patients with atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASC-US) or a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL); it does not change the management of patients with a high-grade intraepithelial lesion (HSIL). HPV infection is common and transient in most young women in their first few years of sexual activity. With careful follow-up, they can be observed rather than treated for HSIL. Patients over 70 years of age no longer require screening if they have a long history of normal Pap smears, but when an abnormality is found it should be treated.

Which one of the following side effects induced by traditional neuroleptic agents responds to treatment with beta-blockers? (check one) A. Akathisia B. Rigidity C. Dystonia D. Sialorrhea E. Stooped posture

A. Akathisia. Rigidity, sialorrhea, and stooped posture are parkinsonian side effects of neuroleptic drugs. These are treated with anticholinergic drugs such as benztropine or amantadine. Dystonia, often manifested as an acute spasm of the muscles of the head and neck, also responds to anticholinergics. Akathisia (motor restlessness and an inability to sit still) can be treated with either anticholinergic drugs or beta-blockers.

A 54-year-old male comes to your office with a 2-day history of swelling, erythema, and pain in his right first metatarsophalangeal joint. This is the third time this year he has had this problem. He has treated previous episodes with over-the-counter pain medicines, ice packs, and elevation. Your evaluation suggests gout as the diagnosis. Which one of the following treatments for gout is most likely to worsen his current symptoms? (check one) A. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) B. Colchicine (Colcrys) C. Elastic compression bandages D. Indomethacin E. Prednisone

A. Allopurinol (Zyloprim). All of the treatments listed are commonly used in the management of gout with good success. Allopurinol decreases the production of uric acid and is effective in reducing the frequency of acute gouty flare-ups. However, it should not be started during an acute attack since fluctuating levels of uric acid can actually worsen inflammation and intensify the patient's pain and swelling. Colchicine inhibits white blood cells from enveloping urate crystals and is effective during acute attacks, as are NSAIDs such as indomethacin. Corticosteroids such as prednisone are also considered a first-line treatment for acute attacks. Compression as an adjunctive therapy may help control pain and swelling.

A 25-year-old female has an annular rash on the dorsal surface of both hands. The rash does not respond to initial treatment with an antifungal medication, and a biopsy reveals granuloma annulare. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate advice for this patient? (check one) A. Allow the rash to resolve without further treatment B. Cover the rash because it is contagious C. Treat the rash with systemic corticosteroids D. Treat the rash with a stronger antifungal medication

A. Allow the rash to resolve without further treatment. Granuloma annulare is a self-limited condition. It is not contagious, and therefore would not need to be covered to prevent transmission. Treatments may include injected or topical corticosteroids, but oral corticosteroids have not been specifically recommended. It may be necessary to refer the patient to a dermatologist because many of the potential treatments can have serious side effects.

An 84-year-old African-American female is brought to your office by her daughter, who is concerned that the mother has memory problems and is neglecting to pay her monthly bills. The mother also is forgetting appointments and asks the same questions repeatedly. This problem has been steadily worsening over the last 1-2 years. The patient has very little insight into her problems, scores 24 out of a possible 30 points on the Mini-Mental State Examination, and has difficulty with short-term recall and visuospatial tasks. Her physical examination and a thorough laboratory workup are normal. A CT scan of the brain reveals diffuse atrophy. Which one of the following is the most likely etiology for this patient's memory problem? (check one) A. Alzheimer's disease B. Dementia resulting from depression C. Lewy body dementia D. Multi-infarct dementia E. Normal aging

A. Alzheimer's disease. The patient shows classic symptoms of early Alzheimer's disease, with difficulties in at least two cognitive domains that are severe enough to influence daily living. Normal aging changes can decrease one's ability to retrieve information but do not influence daily living and are usually noticed more by the patient than by family members. Depression was previously thought to cause "pseudodementia" with significant regularity. However, several recent studies have shown that treating depressive symptoms does not result in significantly improved cognitive performance. It is now believed that progressive memory loss frequently results in depressive symptoms, rather than the converse. Lewy body dementia is associated with physical findings of parkinsonism and often the presence of visual hallucinations, both of which are absent in this patient. There are no signs of multiple infarcts on brain imaging, effectively ruling out this diagnosis.

Patients with symptomatic congestive heart failure associated with a reduced systolic ejection fraction or left ventricular remodeling should be initially treated with which one of the following agents? (check one) A. An ACE inhibitor B. Hydralazine (Apresoline) C. Warfarin (Coumadin) D. Amiodarone (Cordarone) E. Verapamil (Calan, Isoptin)

A. An ACE inhibitor. It has been shown that congestive heart failure (CHF) patients treated with ACE inhibitors survive longer, and all such patients should take these agents if tolerated. Warfarin and/or antiarrhythmic drugs should be given only to selected CHF patients. Verapamil may adversely affect cardiac function and should be avoided in patients with CHF. Hydralazine can be used, but because of its side effect profile would be a second-line agent.

The most appropriate initial pharmacologic treatment of panic disorder is: (check one) A. An SSRI B. A tricyclic antidepressant C. Valproic acid (Depakene) D. Lithium

A. An SSRI. An SSRI is the treatment of choice for patients who have never had pharmacotherapy for panic disorder.

A 34-year-old female with menorrhagia is found to have iron deficiency anemia. Which one of the following is true regarding the treatment of this problem with oral iron? (check one) A. An acidic environment enhances the absorption of iron from the gastrointestinal tract B. Iron is absorbed better if taken with food C. Diarrhea is a common complication D. Iron supplementation can be discontinued once the hemoglobin reaches a normal level E. Sustained-release formulations increase the total amount of iron available for absorption

A. An acidic environment enhances the absorption of iron from the gastrointestinal tract. Oral iron is absorbed better with an acidic gastric environment, which can be accomplished with the concomitant administration of vitamin C. Agents that raise gastric pH, such as antacids, proton pump inhibitors, and H2 blockers, should be avoided if possible. Oral iron absorption is improved if the iron is taken on an empty stomach, but this may not be well tolerated because gastric irritation is a frequent side effect. Constipation also is common with oral iron therapy. Iron therapy should be continued for several months after the hemoglobin reaches a normal level, in order to fully replenish iron stores. Sustained-release oral iron products provide a decreased amount of iron for absorption.

A 56-year-old white male presents with a 2-week history of intermittent pain in his left leg. The pain usually occurs while he is walking and is primarily in the calf muscle or Achilles region. Sometimes he will awaken at night with cramps in the affected leg. He has no known risk factors for atherosclerosis. Which one of the following would be the best initial test for peripheral vascular occlusive disease? (check one) A. Ankle-brachial index B. Arterial Doppler ultrasonography C. Arteriography D. Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) E. Venous ultrasonography

A. Ankle-brachial index. The ankle-brachial index (ABI) is an inexpensive, sensitive screening tool and is the most appropriate first test for peripheral vascular occlusive disease (PVOD) in this patient. The ABI is the ratio of systolic blood pressure measured in the ankle to systolic pressure using the standard brachial measurement. A ratio of 0.9-1.2 is considered normal. Severe disease is defined as a ratio <0.50. More invasive and expensive testing using Doppler ultrasonography, arteriography, or magnetic resonance angiography may be useful if the ABI suggests an abnormality. Venous ultrasonography would not detect PVOD, but it could rule out deep venous thrombosis, which is another common etiology for calf pain.

Which one of the following tests is most specific for diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis? (check one) A. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibody B. Antinuclear antibody C. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate D. Serum complement levels E. Anti-Sm antibody

A. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibody. Rheumatoid arthritis is primarily a clinical diagnosis and no single laboratory test is considered definitively diagnostic. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibody is recommended by rheumatologists to improve the specificity of testing for rheumatoid arthritis. Anti-CCP is more specific than rheumatoid factor, and may predict erosive disease more accurately. Antinuclear antibody has limited usefulness for the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Anti-Sm antibody is useful to help diagnose systemic lupus erythematosus. Nonspecific changes in complement levels are seen in many rheumatologic disorders. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is useful in monitoring disease activity and the course of rheumatoid arthritis, but is not specific.

A 48-year-old male who weighs 159 kg (351 lb) is admitted to the hospital with a left leg deepvein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism. Treatment is begun with enoxaparin (Lovenox). Which one of the following would be most appropriate for monitoring the adequacy of anticoagulation in this patient? (check one) A. Anti-factor Xa levels B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) C. Daily INRs D. Daily factor VIII levels

A. Anti-factor Xa levels. In severely obese patients (>330 lb) and those with renal failure, low molecular weight heparin therapy should be monitored with anti-factor Xa levels obtained 4 hours after injection. Most other patients do not need monitoring. The INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, and the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor therapy with unfractionated heparin. Factor VIII levels are not used to monitor anticoagulation therapy.

A 52-year-old female with a 60-pack-year history of cigarette smoking and known COPD presents with a 1-week history of increasing purulent sputum production and shortness of breath on exertion. Which one of the following is true regarding the management of this problem? (check one) A. Antibiotics should be prescribed B. Intravenous corticosteroids are superior to oral corticosteroids C. Inhaled corticosteroids should be started or the dosage increased D. Levalbuterol (Xopenex) is superior to albuterol E. Acetylcysteine should be given if the patient is hospitalized

A. Antibiotics should be prescribed. Antibiotic use in moderately or severely ill patients with a COPD exacerbation reduces the risk of treatment failure or death, and may also help patients with mild exacerbations. Brief courses of systemic corticosteroids shorten hospital stays and decrease treatment failures. Studies have not shown a difference between oral and intravenous corticosteroids. Inhaled corticosteroids are not helpful in the management of an acute exacerbation. Levalbuterol and albuterol have similar benefits and adverse effects. Acetylcysteine, a mucolytic agent, has not been shown to be helpful for routine treatment of COPD exacerbations.

A 27-year-old white male presents to the emergency department 2 hours after being bitten by a rattlesnake. He complains of weakness, abdominal cramping, left leg pain, and left leg swelling. His speech is slurred, and his breath smells of alcohol. Physical Findings Temperature 37.0° C (98.6° F) Blood pressure 100/60 mm Hg Pulse 122 beats/min Respirations 24/min Skin diaphoretic; ecchymoses on both forearms; bite puncture site just above left lateral malleolus Lungs clear to auscultation Cardiac normal heart tones, 1+ posterior tibial pulses Abdomen flat; hypoactive bowel sounds; no masses or guarding Extremities visible swelling of left leg and thigh; skin tightness of left leg Neurologic decreased sensation to light touch and sharp sensation in left foot Which one of the following therapeutic interventions is indicated? (check one) A. Antivenin administration B. Venom extractor use C. Tourniquet application at the upper thigh D. Surgical consultation for decompression fasciotomy E. Administration of platelets and fresh frozen plasma

A. Antivenin administration. This patient presents with a history of snakebite, swelling of an entire extremity, weakness, and ecchymosis. This is consistent with a grade III envenomation and merits antivenin therapy. Production of equine-derived antivenin has stopped, but may still be indicated where available. The ovine product, CroFab, is less allergenic but still scarce due to limited production. Venom extractors are thought to be useful only in the first few minutes after a bite. Two hours is too late to be of any use. Tourniquets are thought to be contraindicated when used to compress an artery. Low-pressure constriction of lymphatic and venous vessels is controversial. Fasciotomy has not proved useful. Antivenin is indicated before any consideration of compartment syndrome. Pressure measurements would be required because of the clinical similarities between envenomation injury and compartment syndrome. Coagulation factors and blood products are rapidly inactivated. They are indicated only in the presence of exsanguination.

A 75-year-old Hispanic male presents with dyspnea on exertion which has worsened over the last several months. He denies chest pain and syncope, and was fairly active until the shortness of breath slowed him down recently. You hear a grade 3/6 systolic ejection murmur at the right upper sternal border which radiates into the neck. Echocardiography reveals aortic stenosis, with a mean transvalvular gradient of 55 mm Hg and a calculated valve area of 0.6 cm2. Left ventricular function is normal. Which one of the following is appropriate management for this patient? (check one) A. Aortic valve replacement B. Aortic balloon valvotomy C. Medical management with beta-blockers and nitrates D. Watchful waiting until the gradient is severe enough for treatment E. Deferring the decision pending results of an exercise stress test

A. Aortic valve replacement. Since this patient's mean aortic-valve gradient exceeds 50 mm Hg and the aortic-valve area is not larger than 1 cm2, it is likely that his symptoms are due to aortic stenosis. As patients with symptomatic aortic stenosis have a dismal prognosis without treatment, prompt correction of his mechanical obstruction with aortic valve replacement is indicated. Medical management is not effective, and balloon valvotomy only temporarily relieves the symptoms and does not prolong survival. Patients who present with dyspnea have only a 50% chance of being alive in 2 years unless the valve is promptly replaced. Exercise testing is unwarranted and dangerous in patients with symptomatic aortic stenosis.

A 24-year-old female has a history of mood swings over the past several months, which have created marital and financial problems, in addition to jeopardizing her career as a television news reporter. You have made a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, and she has finally accepted the need for treatment. However, she insists that you choose a drug that "won't make me fat." Which one of the following would be best for addressing her concerns? (check one) A. Aripiprazole (Abilify) B. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) C. Quetiapine (Seroquel) D. Risperidone (Risperdal)

A. Aripiprazole (Abilify). All of the atypical antipsychotics are associated with some degree of weight gain. Of the choices listed, aripiprazole is associated with the least amount of weight gain, generally less than 1 kilogram. The other agents listed are likely to cause considerably more weight gain.

A 45-year-old male sees you for a routine annual visit and is found to have atrial fibrillation, with a ventricular rate of 70-75 beats/min. He is otherwise healthy, and a laboratory workup and echocardiogram are normal. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management? (check one) A. Aspirin, 325 mg daily B. Warfarin (Coumadin), with a target INR of 2.0-3.0 C. Clopidogrel (Plavix), 75 mg daily D. Amiodarone (Cordarone), 200 mg daily E. Observation only

A. Aspirin, 325 mg daily. Atrial fibrillation is the most common arrhythmia, and its prevalence increases with age. The major risk with atrial fibrillation is stroke, and a patient's risk can be determined by the CHADS 2 score. CHADS stands for Congestive heart failure, Hypertension, Age >75, Diabetes mellitus, and previous Stroke or transient ischemic attack. Each of these is worth 1 point except for stroke, which is worth 2 points. A patient with 4 or more points is at high risk, and 2-3 points indicates moderate risk. Having ≤1 point indicates low risk, and this patient has 0 points. Low-risk patients should be treated with aspirin, 81-325 mg daily (SOR B). Moderate-or high-risk patients should be treated with warfarin. Amiodarone is used for rate control, and clopidogrel is used for vascular events not related to atrial fibrillation.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 49 ======================================================= Which one of the following drugs inhibits platelet function for the life of the platelet? (check one) A. Aspirin B. Ibuprofen C. Dipyridamole (Persantine) D. Ticlopidine (Ticlid) E. Warfarin (Coumadin)

A. Aspirin. A number of drugs inhibit platelet function, but aspirin is the only effective drug that interferes with platelet aggregation for the life of the platelet. It does this by permanently acetylating the platelet enzyme cyclooxygenase, thus inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis. This phenomenon is clinically helpful when an antithrombotic effect is desired, but it may require that necessary surgical procedures be delayed. The effect of a single aspirin on bleeding times can persist for up to 5 days. Other NSAIDs (i.e., indomethacin, sulfinpyrazone) also inhibit platelet activity, but their effect on prostaglandin synthesis is reversible. The anti-platelet effect of dipyridamole is less well understood. Warfarin is a biochemical antagonist of prothrombin and vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors, and therefore has no significant effect on platelet activity.

A 55-year-old male who had a recent episode of atrial fibrillation that converted in the emergency department is asymptomatic and currently in sinus rhythm. He is in good health otherwise and has no history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus, heart failure, transient ischemic attack, or stroke. Which one of the following would be best for preventing a stroke in this patient? (check one) A. Aspirin B. Clopidogrel (Plavix), 75 mg daily C. Warfarin (Coumadin), with a goal INR of 1.5-2.5 D. Warfarin, with a goal INR of 2.0-3.0 E. Warfarin, with a goal INR of 2.5-3.5

A. Aspirin. The absolute rate of stroke depends on age and comorbid conditions. The stroke risk index CHADS , used to quantify risk of stroke for patients who have atrial fibrillation and to aid in the selection of antithrombotic therapy, is a mnemonic for individual stroke risk factors: C (congestive heart failure), H (hypertension), A (age 75), D (diabetes mellitus), and S (secondary prevention for prior ischemic stroke or transient attack—most experts include patients with a systemic embolic event). Each of these clinical parameters is assigned one point, except for secondary prevention, which is assigned 2 points. Patients are considered to be at low risk with a score of 0, at intermediate risk with a score of 1 or 2, and at high risk with a score 3. Experts typically prefer treatment with aspirin rather than warfarin when the risk 2 of stroke is low. The patient in this question has a CHADS score of 0, which is low risk. Treatment with aspirin is therefore appropriate.

A 50-year-old male presents with a 1-day history of fever and chest pain. The chest pain is worse when he is in a supine position and with deep inspiration, and improves when he leans forward. He has no shortness of breath and has never had this problem before. His vital signs are normal except for a temperature of 37.8°C (100.0°F). He has no other medical problems or allergies, and takes no medications. An EKG reveals widespread ST-segment elevation, upright T waves, and PR-segment depression. His troponin level is normal. An echocardiogram is pending. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient? (check one) A. Aspirin B. Prednisone C. Heparin D. Enoxaparin (Lovenox)

A. Aspirin. This patient demonstrates classic clinical features of acute pericarditis. Although the EKG findings appear specific for the early stages of pericarditis, myocardial infarction would also be included in the differential diagnosis. However, unlike with acute pericarditis, the EKG in myocardial infarction typically demonstrates ST elevation that is localized and convex, often has Q waves, and rarely shows PR-segment depression. A friction rub can be heard in up to 85% of patients with acute pericarditis. An echocardiogram is often performed to determine the type and amount of effusion. Conventional therapy for acute pericarditis includes NSAIDs, such as aspirin and ibuprofen. Recent studies demonstrate that adding colchicine to aspirin may be beneficial in reducing the persistence and recurrence of symptoms.

In which one of the following scenarios is a physician most likely to be protected by a Good Samaritan statute? (check one) A. Assisting flight attendants with the care of a fellow passenger who develops respiratory distress while in flight over the United States B. Attending to an unconscious player while acting as an unpaid volunteer physician at a high-school football game C. Attending to a bicyclist with heat exhaustion while volunteering at a first-aid station during a fund-raising ride D. Attending to the family member of a patient who slips and falls in the waiting room at the physician's office E. Attending to a nurse's aide who collapses while the physician is staffing the hospital emergency department

A. Assisting flight attendants with the care of a fellow passenger who develops respiratory distress while in flight over the United States. Generally, Good Samaritan laws apply to situations in which the physician does not have a preexisting duty to provide care to the patient. A physician who volunteers as a standby health care provider at an event assumes a duty to care for illness or injury in the participants. Likewise, physicians have a duty to provide emergency care to a person in need within a facility where they are working, such as a medical office or an emergency department. On an airplane, there is no preexisting duty for a physician to attend to a fellow passenger who becomes ill. In addition, a specific federal law, the Aviation Medical Assistance Act, ensures that physicians have Good Samaritan protection if they provide medical assistance while in flight over the United States.

A 72-year-old male with a history of previous inferior myocardial infarction sees you prior to surgery for symptomatic gallstones. He denies chest pain or dyspnea. His current medications include aspirin, 81 mg daily; ramipril (Altace), 10 mg daily; and pravastatin (Pravachol), 40 mg daily. He is in good health otherwise and has no other health complaints. He has been cleared for surgery by his cardiologist. Which one of the following should be considered before and after surgery, assuming no contraindications? (check one) A. Atenolol (Tenormin) B. Verapamil (Calan, Isoptin) C. Digoxin D. Transdermal nitroglycerin E. Intravenous nitroglycerin

A. Atenolol (Tenormin). A recent development in the prophylaxis of surgery-related cardiac complications is the use of beta-blockers perioperatively for patients with cardiac risk factors. In a randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial involving 200 patients who were undergoing elective noncardiac surgery that required general anesthesia, the effect of atenolol on perioperative cardiac complications was evaluated. Patients were eligible for beta-blocker therapy if they had known coronary artery disease or two or more risk factors. Atenolol was not used if the resting heart rate was <55 beats/min, systolic blood pressure was <100 mm Hg, or there was evidence of congestive heart failure, third degree heart block, or bronchospasm. A 5-mg dose of intravenous atenolol was given 30 minutes before surgery and then again immediately after surgery. Oral atenolol, 50-100 mg, was then given until hospital discharge or 7 days postoperatively. The results of the study showed that mortality from cardiac causes was 65% lower in the patients receiving atenolol. Another study showed similar perioperative benefit using the beta-blocker bisoprolol.

Which one of the following is consistent with terminology used in the 2001 Bethesda System for reporting cervical cytology? (check one) A. Atypical squamous cells—cannot exclude HSIL (ASC-H) B. Atypical squamous cells of unknown significance—favor neoplastic (ASCUS—favor neoplastic) C. Atypical squamous cells of unknown significance—favor reactive (ASCUS—favor reactive) D. Atypical glandular cells of unknown significance (AGUS)

A. Atypical squamous cells—cannot exclude HSIL (ASC-H). In the 2001 Bethesda System, atypical squamous cells of unknown significance (ASCUS) was replaced by atypical squamous cells (ASC). ASC is divided into atypical squamous cells-cannot exclude HSIL (ASC-H) and atypical squamous cells of unknown significance (ASC-US). ASCUS-favor reactive has been downgraded to negative in the 2001 system. Atypical glandular cells of unknown significance (AGUS) has been replaced by atypical glandular cells (AGC).

Which one of the following is a frequent cause of cross-reactive food-allergy symptoms in latex-allergic individuals? (check one) A. Avocadoes B. Goat's milk C. Pecans D. Pastrami E. Peppermint

A. Avocadoes. The majority of patients who are latex-allergic are believed to develop IgE antibodies that cross-react with some proteins in plant-derived foods. These food antigens do not survive the digestive process, and thus lack the capacity to sensitize after oral ingestion in the traditional food-allergy pathway. Antigenic similarity with proteins present in latex, to which an individual has already been sensitized, results in an indirect allergic response limited to the exposure that occurs prior to alteration by digestion, localized primarily in and around the oral cavity. The frequent association with certain fruits has been labeled the "latex-fruit syndrome." Although many fruits and vegetables have been implicated, fruits most commonly linked to this problem are bananas, avocadoes, and kiwi.

A health-care worker repeatedly develops a rash on her hands after using latex gloves. The rash is papular and pruritic, with vesicles. Latex allergy is confirmed by skin patch testing. Which one of the following foods is most likely to provoke an allergic response in this patient? (check one) A. Avocados B. Walnuts C. Shellfish D. Strawberries E. Wheat

A. Avocados. Latex allergy management includes preventing exposure and treating reactions. Patients with latex allergy can reduce their risk of exposure by avoiding direct contact with common latex products. Additionally, they should be aware of foods with crossreactive proteins. Foods that have the highest association with latex allergy include avocados, bananas, chestnuts, and kiwi. Walnuts, shellfish, strawberries, and wheat have low or undetermined associations.

An 8-year-old male presents with cervical lymphadenitis. He has a kitten at home and you are concerned about cat-scratch disease. Which one of the following antibiotics is most appropriate for treatment of Bartonella henselae infection? (check one) A. Azithromycin (Zithromax) B. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) C. Amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) D. Doxycycline E. Clindamycin (Cleocin)

A. Azithromycin (Zithromax). Azithromycin has been shown to reduce the duration of lymphadenopathy in cat-scratch disease (SOR B). Other antibiotics that have been used include rifampin, ciprofloxacin, trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, and gentamicin. Ceftriaxone, amoxicillin/clavulanate, doxycycline, and clindamycin are not effective in the treatment of Bartonella infection.

Which one of the following is appropriate treatment for asymptomatic chlamydial infection during the second trimester of pregnancy? (check one) A. Azithromycin (Zithromax) B. Doxycycline C. Metronidazole (Flagyl) D. Levofloxacin (Levaquin)

A. Azithromycin (Zithromax). Several clinical trials suggest that 7-day regimens of erythromycin or amoxicillin, and single-dose regimens of azithromycin, are effective for treating chlamydial infections during pregnancy. Doxycycline and levofloxacin are contraindicated during pregnancy due to potential ill effects on the fetus, and metronidazole is not effective for the treatment of chlamydial infections.

Which one of the following treatments for childhood nocturnal enuresis has both the highest cure rates and the lowest relapse rates? (check one) A. Bed-wetting alarms B. Positive reinforcement C. Responsibility training D. Desmopressin (DDAVP) E. Imipramine (Tofranil)

A. Bed-wetting alarms. Treatments available for childhood nocturnal enuresis include nonpharmacologic and pharmacologic treatments. Compared to other techniques and pharmacologic treatments, the bed-wetting alarm has a higher success rate (75%) and a lower relapse rate (41%).

Which one of the following has been shown to be most effective for smokeless tobacco cessation? (check one) A. Behavioral interventions B. Mint snuff as a smokeless tobacco substitute C. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) D. The nicotine patch E. Nicotine gum

A. Behavioral interventions. Behavioral interventions, especially those including telephone counseling and/or a dental examination, have been shown to be helpful for promoting smokeless tobacco cessation (SOR B). Studies examining mint snuff as a tobacco substitute, bupropion, and nicotine replacement in patch or gum form did not show any significant benefit.

A 56-year-old African-American male with longstanding hypertension and a 30-pack-year smoking history has a 2-day history of dyspnea on exertion. Physical examination is unremarkable except for rare crackles at the bases. Which one of the following serologic tests would be most helpful for detecting left ventricular dysfunction? (check one) A. Beta-natriuretic peptide (BNP) B. Troponin-T C. C-reactive protein (CRP) D. D dimer E. Cardiac interleukin-2

A. Beta-natriuretic peptide (BNP). Beta-natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a 32-amino acid polypeptide secreted from the cardiac ventricles in response to ventricular volume expansion and pressure overload. The major source of BNP is the cardiac ventricles, and because of its minimal presence in storage granules, its release is directly proportional to ventricular dysfunction. It is a simple and rapid test that reliably predicts the presence or absence of left ventricular dysfunction on an echocardiogram.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 29 ======================================================= A 70-year-old male presents to your office for a follow-up visit for hypertension. He was started on lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril), 20 mg daily, 1 month ago. Laboratory tests from his last visit, including a CBC and a complete metabolic panel, were normal except for a serum creatinine level of 1.5 mg/dL (N 0.6-1.5). A follow-up renal panel obtained yesterday shows a creatinine level of 3.2 mg/dL and a BUN of 34 mg/dL (N 8-25). Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's increased creatinine level? (check one) A. Bilateral renal artery stenosis B. Coarctation of the aorta C. Essential hypertension D. Hyperaldosteronism E. Pheochromocytoma

A. Bilateral renal artery stenosis. Classic clinical clues that suggest a diagnosis of renal-artery stenosis include the onset of stage 2 hypertension (blood pressure >160/100 mm Hg) after 50 years of age or in the absence of a family history of hypertension; hypertension associated with renal insufficiency, especially if renal function worsens after the administration of an agent that blocks the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system; hypertension with repeated hospital admissions for heart failure; and drug-resistant hypertension (defined as blood pressure above the goal despite treatment with three drugs of different classes at optimal doses). The other conditions mentioned do not cause a significant rise in serum creatinine after treatment with an ACE inhibitor.

A 33-year-old white female has a 12-year history of headache occurring 3-4 times per month, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. She takes over-the-counter analgesics, but relief is usually obtained only when she falls asleep. This is her first visit to you for this problem. You diagnose migraine without aura. Although the patient is willing to consider prescription drugs, she says that she would prefer "something that is natural and without side effects." Which one of the following would be the best recommendation? (check one) A. Biofeedback B. Ma huang C. Oxygen D. Epley canalith respositioning maneuver E. Phototherapy

A. Biofeedback. Of the listed options covering the realm of complementary and alternative medicine, only biofeedback has been shown to have a therapeutic effect on migraine. Specifically, the modality that seeks to control physiologic response to skin temperature and skin conductance appears to be the most successful. It is best performed in a medical office by caring, supportive staff members under physician supervision. Oxygen is used to treat cluster headaches. The Epley maneuver is used for managing benign positional vertigo, and phototherapy is useful in seasonal affective disorder. Ma huang, a Chinese herb, has ephedrine properties but is not useful in treating migraine headaches.

A 56-year-old female has been on combined continuous hormone therapy for 6 years. This is associated with a reduced risk for which one of the following? (check one) A. Bone fracture B. Myocardial infarction C. Stroke D. Breast cancer E. Venous thromboembolism

A. Bone fracture. Hormone replacement therapy that includes estrogen has been shown to decrease osteoporosis and bone fracture risk. The risk for colorectal cancer also is reduced after 5 years of estrogen use. The risk for myocardial infarction, stroke, breast cancer, and venous thromboembolism increases with long-term use.

A 26-year-old female presents with symptoms of anhedonia and anxiousness. Your evaluation leads to a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. The patient consents to medical treatment and counseling, but she is engaged to be married in 2 months and is concerned that antidepressants may lower her libido even further. Which one of the following would be best for reducing the likelihood of sexual dysfunction? (check one) A. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) B. Paroxetine (Paxil) C. Fluoxetine (Prozac) D. Sertraline (Zoloft)

A. Bupropion (Wellbutrin). Paroxetine has been found to cause higher rates of sexual dysfunction than bupropion, fluoxetine, and sertraline. Bupropion has been found to have significantly lower rates of adverse effects on sexual function than fluoxetine or sertraline.

Which one of the following antidepressants is LEAST likely to cause sexual dysfunction? (check one) A. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) B. Sertraline (Zoloft) C. Fluoxetine (Prozac) D. Imipramine (Tofranil) E. Trazodone (Desyrel)

A. Bupropion (Wellbutrin). Sexual dysfunction, including decreased libido, ejaculatory disturbance, and anorgasmia, is common with the SSRIs (e.g., sertraline and fluoxetine). Tricyclic antidepressants such as imipramine also cause sexual dysfunction. Trazodone can cause priapism. Only bupropion is relatively free of sexual side effects.

A 48-year-old white female complains of anxiety and difficulty concentrating at home and at work. She reports that the symptoms have increased over the last 2 months because of her daughter's marital difficulties. She has had similar symptoms along with intermittent depression since she was a teenager. She admits to a loss of pleasure in work and recreational activities. Which one of the following is LEAST likely to help her coexistent depressive symptoms? (check one) A. Buspirone (BuSpar) B. Nortriptyline (Aventyl) C. Escitalopram (Lexapro) D. Venlafaxine (Effexor) E. Paroxetine (Paxil)

A. Buspirone (BuSpar). Buspirone is indicated for the treatment of anxiety. Its advantages include the absence of addictive potential and sedation; like antidepressants, the onset of benefit is often delayed for several weeks. However, it is not an established antidepressant. Its use with other agents for depression has yielded questionable benefit, and used alone it is not an effective therapy for depression. The other agents listed have both antidepressant and antianxiety effects and were originally marketed for their antidepressant effect. Nortriptyline shares the risks of tricyclic agents, but historically it was one of the better tolerated tricyclics. The newer agents have serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibition (SSRI activity). They have shown benefit in the treatment of anxiety as well as depression.

A 58-year-old male presents with a several-day history of shortness of breath with exertion, along with pleuritic chest pain. His symptoms started soon after he returned from a vacation in South America. He has a history of deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) in his right leg after surgery several years ago, and also has a previous history of prostate cancer. You suspect pulmonary embolism (PE.). Which one of the following is true regarding the evaluation of this patient? (check one) A. CT angiography would reliably either confirm or rule out PE B. Compression ultrasonography of the lower extremities will reveal a DVT in the majority of patients with PE C. No further testing is needed if a ventilation-perfusion lung scan shows a low probability of PE D. No further testing is needed if a D-dimer level is normal E. An elevated D-dimer level would confirm the diagnosis of PE

A. CT angiography would reliably either confirm or rule out PE. This patient has a high clinical probability for pulmonary embolism (PE). About 40% of patients with PE will have positive findings for deep-vein thrombosis in the lower extremities on compression ultrasonography. A normal ventilation-perfusion lung scan rules out PE, but inconclusive findings are frequent and are not reassuring. A normal D-dimer level reliably rules out the diagnosis of venous thromboembolism in patients at low or moderate risk of pulmonary embolism, but the negative predictive value of this test is low for high-probability patients. A positive D-dimer test does not confirm the diagnosis; it indicates the need for further testing, and is thus not necessary for this patient. A multidetector CT angiogram or ventilation-perfusion lung scan should be the next test, as these are reliable to confirm or rule out PE.

A 56-year-old female with well-controlled diabetes mellitus and hypertension presents with an 18-hour history of progressive left lower quadrant abdominal pain, low-grade fever, and nausea. She has not been able to tolerate oral intake over the last 6 hours. An abdominal examination reveals significant tenderness in the left lower quadrant with slight guarding but no rebound tenderness. Bowel sounds are hypoactive. Rectal and pelvic examinations are unremarkable. Which one of the following is recommended as the initial diagnostic procedure in this situation? (check one) A. CT of the abdomen and pelvis B. Abdominal and pelvic ultrasonography C. A barium enema D. Colonoscopy E. Laparoscopy

A. CT of the abdomen and pelvis. Based on the history and physical examination, this patient most likely has acute diverticulitis. CT has a very high sensitivity and specificity for this diagnosis, provides information on the extent and stage of the disease, and may suggest other diagnoses. Ultrasonography may be helpful in suggesting other diagnoses, but it is not as specific or as sensitive for diverticulitis as CT. Limited-contrast studies of the distal colon and rectum may occasionally be useful in distinguishing between diverticulitis and carcinoma, but would not be the initial procedure of choice. Water-soluble contrast material is used in this situation instead of barium. Colonoscopy to detect other diseases, such as cancer or inflammatory bowel disease, is deferred until the acute process has resolved, usually for 6 weeks. The risk of perforation or exacerbation of the disease is greater if colonoscopy is performed acutely. Diagnostic laparoscopy is rarely needed in this situation. Laparoscopic or open surgery to drain an abscess or resect diseased tissue is reserved for patients who do not respond to medical therapy. Elective sigmoid resection may be considered after recovery in cases of recurrent episodes.

Which one of the following is true regarding the risk of inducing cancer with CT scanning? (check one) A. CT of the chest is associated with a greater risk than CT of the head B. The risk increases with age at the time of the scan C. Males have a greater risk of ultimately developing CT-induced lung cancer than females D. Current techniques with rapid scanners make the risk comparable to that associated with standard radiographs of the same area E. The risk in neonates is markedly reduced because of the efficiency of DNA repair processes at this age

A. CT of the chest is associated with a greater risk than CT of the head. CT of the chest or abdomen leads to significantly more radiation exposure and cancer risk than CT of the brain. Younger patients, including neonates, have a greater lifetime risk of developing cancer after radiation exposure, and CT imaging carries substantially more risk than plain radiographs of the same area. Women are at greater risk for developing lung cancer after a chest CT than men, and CT also increases their risk of developing breast cancer.

A 70-year-old white female with osteoporosis sees you for follow-up a few days after an emergency department visit for an acute T12 vertebral compression fracture. The fracture was suspected clinically and on plain films; the diagnosis was confirmed with a bone scan. The emergency department physician prescribed oxycodone (OxyContin) and NSAIDs, but the patient is still experiencing considerable discomfort. In addition to increasing the dosage of oxycodone, which one of the following interventions would you suggest now to reduce the patient's pain? (check one) A. Calcitonin (Miacalcin) B. Raloxifene (Evista) C. Alendronate (Fosamax) D. Physical therapy, including dexamethasone iontophoresis E. Vertebroplasty

A. Calcitonin (Miacalcin). Calcitonin, either intranasal or subcutaneous, provides pain relief within a few days in many patients with osteoporotic vertebral compression fractures. The remainder of the choices do not provide acute relief. Vertebroplasty/kyphoplasty procedures are generally reserved for cases in which medical management has failed.

A 72-year-old white male has new-onset hypertension with a current blood pressure of 190/110 mm Hg. Which one of the following agents can be used as part of a test for diagnosing renovascular hypertension, but would also increase the risk for azotemia if used for treatment? (check one) A. Captopril (Capoten) B. Metoprolol (Lopressor) C. Clonidine (Catapres) D. Furosemide (Lasix) E. Amlodipine (Norvasc)

A. Captopril (Capoten). ACE inhibitors can significantly worsen renal failure in patients with hypertension caused by renovascular disease. Hyperkalemia is an associated problem. Captopril renography is a useful diagnostic screening test. The other agents are useful for lowering blood pressure but may cause mild creatinine elevations. They do not, however, cause the significant elevations of creatinine seen with ACE inhibitors in cases of significant renovascular disease.

A 27-year-old white female sees you for the first time for a routine evaluation. A Papanicolaou test reveals atypical glandular cells of undetermined significance (AGUS). Of the following, which one is most commonly found in this situation? (check one) A. Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia B. Endometrial hyperplasia C. An endocervical polyp D. Endometrial cancer E. Ectopic decidua

A. Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. Clinical practice guidelines recommend that all patients with atypical glandular cells of undetermined significance (AGUS) be evaluated by colposcopy and endocervical curettage; endometrial sampling is recommended in women 35 years of age or older, and in those with AGUS favoring neoplasia or suggesting an endometrial source. Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is the most common histologic diagnosis found in patients evaluated for AGUS.

Which one of the following is the greatest risk factor for abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)? (check one) A. Cigarette smoking B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hypertension D. African-American race E. Female gender

A. Cigarette smoking. Cigarette smokers are five times more likely than nonsmokers to develop an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). The risk is associated with the number of years the patient has smoked, and declines with cessation. Diabetes mellitus is protective, decreasing the risk of AAA by half. Women tend to develop AAA in their sixties, 10 years later than men. Whites are at greater risk than African-Americans. Hypertension is less of a risk factor than cigarette smoking (SOR A).

A 63-year-old female with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department with unstable angina. Her blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg, her pulse rate is 70 beats/min, and her lungs are clear to auscultation. The patient expresses a preference for conservative (i.e., noninvasive) therapy. In addition to aspirin, which one of the following agents should be administered at this time? (check one) A. Clopidogrel (Plavix) orally B. Indomethacin (Indocin) orally C. Nifedipine (Procardia) immediate-release, orally D. Abciximab (ReoPro) intravenously E. Enalaprilat intravenously

A. Clopidogrel (Plavix) orally. An oral loading dose of clopidogrel should be administered as soon as possible in patients with unstable angina/NSTEMI who are to be treated conservatively. The standard dosage should then be prescribed, to be taken daily for at least 1 month along with aspirin (SOR B). Immediate-release calcium channel antagonists such as nifedipine are not indicated. If β-blockers are contraindicated, verapamil or diltiazem would be the preferred agents. Intravenous ACE inhibitors may induce shock and should be avoided in the first 24 hours. Abciximab is used for patients who will undergo rapid catheterization with a significant chance of acute coronary intervention. NSAIDs are contraindicated because they may weaken areas of damaged myocardium and increase the risk of rupture, and may also increase the risk of infarction or extension. They have been used in the past for treatment of associated pericarditis, which most frequently develops a few days after presentation, but are now avoided.

Which one of the following antipsychotic medications is most likely to cause agranulocytosis? (check one) A. Clozapine (Clozaril) B. Aripiprazole (Abilify) C. Risperidone (Risperdal) D. Olanzapine (Zyprexa)

A. Clozapine (Clozaril). Clozapine was the first atypical antipsychotic drug, so designated because it has antipsychotic effects without the adverse effects on movement seen with first-generation agents, in addition to having enhanced therapeutic efficacy compared with first-generation drugs. Because of these advantages, it was introduced into clinical practice in the United States despite a serious known adverse effect: an increased incidence of agranulocytosis. Although only clozapine causes agranulocytosis in a substantial proportion of patients, many second-generation drugs produce clinically significant weight gain.

Which one of the following is true regarding the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder? (check one) A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy has been shown to be at least as effective as pharmacologic therapy B. Buspirone (BuSpar) is as effective as SSRI therapy for patients with comorbid depression C. Benzodiazepines are no more effective than placebo D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta) is no more effective than placebo E. Escitalopram (Lexapro) is no more effective than placebo

A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy has been shown to be at least as effective as pharmacologic therapy. Cognitive-behavioral therapy has been shown to be at least as effective as medication for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), but with less attrition and more durable effects. Many SSRIs and SNRIs have proven effective for GAD in clinical trials, but only paroxetine, escitalopram, duloxetine, and venlafaxine are approved by the FDA for this indication. Benzodiazepines have been widely used because of their rapid onset of action and proven effectiveness in managing GAD symptoms. SSRI or SNRI therapy is more beneficial than benzodiazepine or buspirone therapy for patients with GAD and comorbid depression.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 70 ======================================================= Which one of the following is recommended for the treatment of patients with obsessive compulsive disorder? (check one) A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy B. Psychoanalytic therapy C. Family therapy D. Psychodynamic psychotherapy E. Motivational interviewing

A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy. Cognitive-behavioral therapy is the recommended treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD).Psychoanalytic therapy has not been shown to help treat OCD. Family therapy can help reduce family tensions that result from the disease. Psychodynamic psychotherapy and motivational interviewing may help patients overcome their resistance to treatment.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 58 ======================================================= A 52-year-old male requests "everything you've got" to help him stop smoking. You review common barriers to quitting and the benefits of cessation with him, and develop a plan that includes follow-up. He chooses to start varenicline (Chantix) to assist with his efforts, and asks about also using nicotine replacement. Which one of the following would be accurate advice? (check one) A. Combining these medications has not proven to be beneficial B. The addition of transdermal nicotine, but not nicotine gum, has proven benefits C. The combination is highly efficacious D. Nicotine replacement doses need to be doubled in a patient taking varenicline E. The combination of nicotine and varenicline is potentially lethal

A. Combining these medications has not proven to be beneficial. Varenicline works by binding to nicotine receptors in the brain, providing much lower stimulation than nicotine itself would. This has the effect of reducing the reinforcement and reward that smoking provides to the brain. However, this medication also blocks the benefit a patient would receive from nicotine replacement products. Studies have shown that using nicotine replacement products concurrently with varenicline leads to an increase in nausea, headaches, dizziness, and fatigue.

Cilostazol (Pletal) has been found to be a useful drug for the treatment of intermittent claudication. This drug is contraindicated in patients with: (check one) A. Congestive heart failure B. A past history of stroke C. Diabetes mellitus D. Third degree heart block E. Hyperlipidemia

A. Congestive heart failure. Cilostazol is a drug with phosphodiesterase inhibitor activity introduced for the symptomatic treatment of arterial occlusive disease and intermittent claudication. Cilostazol should be avoided in patients with congestive heart failure. There are no limitations on its use in patients with previous stroke or a history of diabetes. It has been found to have beneficial effects on HDL cholesterol levels and in the treatment of third degree heart block.

Approximately 30%-50% of infants born to Chlamydia-positive mothers will have: (check one) A. Conjunctivitis B. Dermatitis C. Jaundice D. Pneumonia E. Urogenital infection

A. Conjunctivitis. Chlamydial genital infection is reported in 5%-30% of pregnant women, with vertical transmission to >50% of their infants at birth. An infant born to a mother with active chlamydial infection has a 50%-70% risk of acquiring infection at any anatomical site. Approximately 30%-50% of infants born to Chlamydia-positive mothers will develop conjunctivitis, and at least 50% of these children will also have nasopharyngeal infection. Infants born to women with chlamydial infection may also develop associated pneumonia, but this affects only 10%-20% of this population.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 15 ======================================================= You are helping a hospice program manage the symptoms of a 77-year-old male with end-stage colon cancer. He has required increasingly higher doses of his opioid medication to control symptoms of pain and dyspnea. In this situation, it should be kept in mind that which one of the following adverse effects of opioids does NOT diminish over time? (check one) A. Constipation B. Nausea C. Mental status changes D. Pruritus E. Sedation

A. Constipation. Constipation is one adverse effect of opioid treatment that does not diminish with time. Thus, this effect should be anticipated, and recommendations for prevention and treatment of constipation should be discussed when initiating opioids. Nausea and vomiting, mental status changes, sedation, and pruritus are also common with the initiation of opioid treatment, but these symptoms usually diminish with time, and can be managed expectantly.

A 70-year-old female consults you about osteoporosis treatment. Two years ago her DEXA scan T score was -2.6, and she began taking risedronate (Actonel), 35 mg/week. Her BMI is 24 kg/m2, she takes appropriate doses of calcium and vitamin D, and she takes walks almost every day. Her current T score is -2.5, and she is concerned about the minimal change in spite of therapy. She has never had a fracture, but asks if more could be done to reduce her fracture risk. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate recommendation? (check one) A. Continue current treatment B. Stop risedronate and start alendronate (Fosamax) C. Stop risedronate and start teriparatide (Forteo) D. Add raloxifene (Evista) E. Order a bone biopsy to evaluate bone architecture

A. Continue current treatment. There is not a linear correlation between bone mineral density and fracture risk. Bone architecture may be changed by bisphosphonate therapy, which may result in a decreased fracture risk. This patient has not had a fracture and is on adequate medical therapy that should be continued.

A 45-year-old white female with elevated cholesterol and coronary artery disease comes in for a periodic fasting lipid panel and liver enzyme levels. She began statin therapy about 2 months ago and reports no problems. Laboratory testing reveals an LDL-cholesterol level of 70 mg/dL, an HDL-cholesterol level of 55 mg/dL, an alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level of 69 U/L (N 7-30), and an aspartate aminotransferase (AST) level of 60 U/L (N 9-25). Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this time? (check one) A. Continue the current therapy with routine monitoring B. Decrease the dosage of the statin and monitor liver enzymes C. Discontinue the statin and monitor liver enzymes D. Discontinue the statin and begin niacin E. Substitute another statin

A. Continue the current therapy with routine monitoring. The patient is at her LDL and HDL goals and has no complaints, so she should be continued on her current regimen with routine monitoring (SOR C). Research has proven that up to a threefold increase above the upper limit of normal in liver enzymes is acceptable for patients on statins. Too often, slight elevations in liver enzymes lead to unnecessary dosage decreases, discontinuation of statin therapy, or additional testing.

A 66-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus is seen for a follow-up visit and has a hemoglobin A1c of 6.7%. He is currently taking metformin (Glucophage), 1000 mg twice daily. He has no history of coronary artery disease or heart failure. Which one of the following would be most appropriate? (check one) A. Continuing his current regimen B. Increasing the metformin dosage C. Adding a sulfonylurea D. Adding a thiazolidinedione E. Adding daily long-acting insulin

A. Continuing his current regimen. According to the American Diabetes Association, the goal for patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus is to achieve a hemoglobin A1c of <7.0% (SOR C). This patient has achieved this goal, and there is no indication for changes in his management.

A 55-year-old obese male with hypertension and daytime somnolence is found to have severe obstructive sleep apnea, with an apnea-hypopnea index of 32 on an overnight polysomnogram. Which one of the following is considered to be first-line therapy for this patient's condition? (check one) A. Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) B. An oral dental appliance C. Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty D. Sleep positioning therapy E. Tracheostomy

A. Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP). Patients with severe sleep apnea (apnea-hypopnea index >29) and concomitant cardiovascular disease benefit the most from treatment for obstructive sleep apnea. Because it is relatively easy to implement and has proven efficacy, continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) is considered first-line therapy for severe apnea.

A 19-year-old white male with a history of fever, fatigue, weight loss, and mild diarrhea of 2 months' duration is found to have a palpable mass in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. The most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. Crohn's disease (regional enteritis) B. Ulcerative colitis C. Amebic colitis D. Diverticulitis E. Lymphoma

A. Crohn's disease (regional enteritis). When Crohn's disease affects primarily the distal small intestine (regional enteritis), a most characteristic clinical pattern emerges. A young person, usually in the second or third decade, will present with a period of episodic abdominal pain, largely postprandial and often periumbilical, occasionally with low-grade fever and mild diarrhea. Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting may also be present. Weight loss is frequent. Some patients may be aware of tenderness in the right lower quadrant and even of a palpable mass in that region.

An 87-year-old African-American female is admitted to your hospital with a hip fracture. She lives alone and has been self-sufficient. She has been able to drive, go to the grocery, and balance her own checkbook. She does well in the hospital until the second postoperative day, when she develops agitated behavior, tremor, and disorientation. She attempts to remove her Foley catheter repeatedly. She exhibits alternating periods of somnolence and agitation, and describes seeing things in the room that are not there. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Delirium B. Alzheimer's disease C. Senile dementia D. Schizophrenia E. Psychosis

A. Delirium. This individual is exhibiting symptoms of delirium. Diagnostic criteria for delirium, according to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-IV-TR), include the following: A. Disturbance of consciousness (i.e., reduced clarity of awareness about the environment) with reduced ability to focus, sustain, or shift awareness. B. A change in cognition (e.g., memory deficit, disorientation, language disturbance) or development of a perceptual disturbance that is not better accounted for by a preexisting, established, or evolving dementia. C. Development over a short period of time (usually hours to days) with a tendency to fluctuate during the course of a day. D. Evidence from the history, physical examination, or laboratory findings that indicates the disturbance is caused by direct physiologic consequences of a general medical condition. In the case described, the patient's history does not indicate preexisting problems and she had a relatively abrupt onset of disturbance of consciousness and change in cognition, related to the hospitalization for hip fracture.

A 75-year-old male is brought to your office by his wife, who states that he has had mental difficulties in recent months, such as not being able to balance their checkbook or plan for his annual visit with the accountant. He was able to capably perform these activities in the past. She also tells you that he has reported seeing animals in the room with him that he can describe vividly. He naps for 3 or more hours each day, and stares blankly for long periods of time. He seems almost normal at times, but appears very confused at other times. This confusion seems to come and go randomly. He also has been dreaming a lot, and has fallen more than once recently. His only medication is aspirin, 81 mg/day. On examination the patient walks slowly with a somewhat stooped posture and almost falls when turning around. He has only minimal facial expressiveness. No tremor is noted, and the remainder of the examination is normal. He is able to recall three words out of three, but clock drawing is abnormal. Laboratory studies are normal, and a CT of the brain shows changes of aging. What type of dementia does this patient most likely have? (check one) A. Dementia with Lewy bodies B. Dementia of Parkinson's disease C. Alzheimers disease D. Frontotemporal dementia E. Vascular dementia

A. Dementia with Lewy bodies. This patient has dementia with Lewy bodies, which is the second most common histopathologic type of dementia after Alzheimer's disease. He demonstrates typical symptoms and signs of dementia with Lewy bodies, including well-formed hallucinations, vivid dreams, fluctuating cognition, sleep disorder with periods of daytime sleeping, frequent falls, deficits in visuospatial ability (abnormal clock drawing), and REM sleep disorder (vivid dreams). In Alzheimer's disease the predominant early symptom is memory impairment, without the other symptoms found in this patient. In dementia of Parkinson's disease, extrapyramidal symptoms such as tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity precede the onset of memory impairment by more than a year. Patients with vascular dementia have risk factors and symptoms of stroke. Frontotemporal dementia presents with behavioral changes, including disinhibition, or language problems such as various types of aphasia.

The husband and daughter of a 65-year-old female report recent changes in her behavior, including decreased energy, lack of motivation, difficulty making decisions, decreased appetite, and insomnia of 4 weeks' duration. The patient is not on any new medications, and has no previous medical problems. Over the past 2 days, she has become concerned about memory loss for both recent and remote events. This patient most likely has: (check one) A. Depression B. Dementia C. A brain tumor D. Hypoglycemia E. Myocardial infarction

A. Depression. The diagnosis of depression requires the presence of at least five of the following: depressed mood, sleep disturbance, lack of interest or pleasure in activities, guilt and feelings of worthlessness, lack of energy, loss of concentration and difficulty making decisions, anorexia or weight loss, psychomotor agitation or retardation, and suicidal ideation. The symptoms must be present nearly every day during a 2-week period. Because dementia may cause similar symptoms, distinguishing between the two is important. Dementia is insidious, with a long duration of symptoms including fluctuating mood and memory impairment for recent events. Memory loss often precedes mood changes. Organic problems such as brain tumor, hypoglycemia, and myocardial infarction may cause similar symptoms, but are far less likely to be the cause.

The mother of an 8-year-old female is concerned about purple "warts" on her daughter's hands. The mother explains that the lesions started a few months ago on the right hand along the top of most of the knuckles and interphalangeal joints, and she has recently noticed them on the left hand. The child has no other complaints and the mother denies any unusual behaviors. A physical examination is unremarkable except for the slightly violaceous, flat-topped lesions the mother described. What is the most likely cause for this patient's finger lesions? (check one) A. Dermatomyositis B. Aggressive warts C. Rubbing/wringing of the hands D. Bulimia nervosa E. Child abuse

A. Dermatomyositis. One of the most characteristic findings in dermatomyositis is Gottron's papules, which are flat-topped, sometimes violaceous papules that often occur on most, if not all, of the knuckles and interphalangeal joints.

A 77-year-old white male complains of urinary incontinence of more than one year's duration. The incontinence occurs with sudden urgency. No association with coughing or positional change has been noted, and there is no history of fever or dysuria. He underwent transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) for benign prostatic hypertrophy a year ago, and he says his urinary stream has improved. A rectal examination reveals a smoothly enlarged prostate without nodularity, and normal sphincter tone. No residual urine is found with post-void catheterization. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's incontinence? (check one) A. Detrusor instability B. Urinary tract infection C. Overflow D. Fecal impaction E. Recurrent bladder outlet obstruction

A. Detrusor instability. In elderly patients, detrusor instability is the most common cause of urinary incontinence in both men and women. Incontinence may actually become worse after surgical relief of obstructive prostatic hypertrophy. Infection is unlikely as the cause of persistent incontinence in this patient in the absence of fever or symptoms of urinary tract infection. Overflow is unlikely in the absence of residual urine. Impaction is a relatively rare cause of urinary incontinence, and associated findings would be present on rectal examination. Normalization of the urinary stream and the absence of residual urine reduce the likelihood of recurrent obstruction. The prostate would be expected to remain enlarged on rectal examination after transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP).

Which one of the following has been shown to reduce the croup score in children and lead to shorter hospital stays? (check one) A. Dexamethasone (Decadron), 0.6 mg/kg in a single oral dose B. Amoxicillin, 45 mg/kg/day divided into two doses, for 10 days C. Azithromycin (Zithromax), 10 mg/kg the first day, then 5 mg/kg daily for 4 days D. Albuterol (Ventolin), 0.63 mg by aerosol every 4 hours E. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin), 50 mg/kg intramuscularly in a single dose

A. Dexamethasone (Decadron), 0.6 mg/kg in a single oral dose. Croup is a viral illness and is not treated with antibiotics. Racemic epinephrine may be used acutely, but rebound can occur. Albuterol has not been shown to be helpful. Oral or intramuscular dexamethasone, 0.6 mg/kg as a single dose, and nebulized budesonide have been shown to reduce croup scores and shorten hospital stays.

A previously healthy 20-month-old female is brought to the urgent-care clinic during the evening with a barking cough. On examination her rectal temperature is 37.9°C (100.2°F), respiratory rate 18/min, heart rate 120 beats/min, and O2 saturation 94%. She has stridor, with mild substernal retractions only when her temperature was taken. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. Dexamethasone, 0.6 mg/kg orally or intramuscularly as a single dose B. Guaifenesin/pseudoephedrine elixir orally until symptoms improve C. Azithromycin (Zithromax) orally for 5 days D. Observation in the clinic, and if there is improvement, a 5-day course of dexamethasone

A. Dexamethasone, 0.6 mg/kg orally or intramuscularly as a single dose. Croup is a syndrome most often caused by viruses, but can occasionally be of bacterial origin as in laryngotracheitis, laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB), laryngotracheobroncheopneumonia (LTBP), or laryngeal diphtheria. Mild croup is manifested by an occasional barking cough with no stridor at rest, and mild or absent intercostal retractions. Moderate croup presents with a more frequent barking cough, stridor with suprasternal and sternal retractions at rest, but no agitation. Severe croup includes more prominent inspiratory and expiratory stridor with agitation and distress. There is good evidence that corticosteroids produce significant improvement. The regimens studied most frequently have consisted of single-dose dexamethasone (0.6 mg/kg orally or intramuscularly), with some studies including up to four more doses over a 2-day period. Longer courses of corticosteroids have not proven to be more effective and may be harmful, leading to secondary infections. Racemic epinephrine by nebulization is indicated in severe croup. Antitussives and decongestants have not been studied and are not recommended. Antibiotics are indicated in LTB and LTBP, which can be diagnosed on the basis of crackles and wheezing on examination, or by an abnormal chest radiograph. Laryngotracheitis can sometimes be associated with a bacterial infection, but should be suspected only after a patient does not improve with corticosteroids and epinephrine.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 31 ======================================================= A patient who takes fluoxetine (Prozac), 40 mg twice daily, develops shivering, tremors, and diarrhea after taking an over-the-counter cough and cold medication. On examination he has dilated pupils and a heart rate of 110 beats/min. His temperature is normal. Which one of the following medications in combination with fluoxetine could contribute to this patient's symptoms? (check one) A. Dextromethorphan B. Pseudoephedrine C. Phenylephrine D. Guaifenesin E. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

A. Dextromethorphan. Dextromethorphan is commonly found in cough and cold remedies, and is associated with serotonin syndrome. SSRIs such as fluoxetine are also associated with serotonin syndrome, and there are many other medications that increase the risk for serotonin syndrome when combined with SSRIs. The other medications listed here are not associated with serotonin syndrome, however.

A 40-year-old female comes to your office for a routine examination. She has been in good health and has no complaints other than obesity. Her mother is diabetic and the patient has had a child that weighed 9 lb at birth. Her examination is negative except for her obesity. A fasting glucose level is 128 mg/dL, and when repeated 2 days later it is 135 mg/dL. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. Diagnose type 2 diabetes mellitus and begin diet and exercise therapy B. Begin an oral hypoglycemic agent C. Order a glucose tolerance test D. Tell the patient that she has impaired glucose homeostasis but is not diabetic

A. Diagnose type 2 diabetes mellitus and begin diet and exercise therapy. The criteria for diagnosing diabetes mellitus include any one of the following: symptoms of diabetes (polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss) plus a casual glucose level ≥200 mg/dL; a fasting plasma glucose level ≥126 mg/dL; or a 2-hour postprandial glucose level ≥200 mg/dL after a 75 gram glucose load. In the absence of unequivocal hyperglycemia the test must be repeated on a different day. The criteria for impaired glucose homeostasis include either a fasting glucose level of 100-125 mg/dL (impaired fasting glucose) or a 2-hour glucose level of 140-199 mg/dL on an oral glucose tolerance test. Normal values are now considered <100 mg/dL for fasting glucose and <140 mg/dL for the 2-hour glucose level on an oral glucose tolerance test.

Which one of the following historical features is most suggestive of congestive heart failure in a 6-month-old white male presenting with tachypnea? (check one) A. Diaphoresis with feeding B. Fever C. Nasal congestion D. Noisy respiration or wheezing E. Staccato cough

A. Diaphoresis with feeding. Symptoms of congestive heart failure in infants are often related to feedings. Only small feedings may be tolerated, and dyspnea may develop with feedings. Profuse perspiration with feedings, is characteristic, and related to adrenergic drive. Older children may have symptoms more similar to adults, but the infant's greatest exertion is related to feeding. Fever and nasal congestion are more suggestive of infectious problems. Noisy respiration or wheezing does not distinguish between congestive heart failure, asthma, and infectious processes. A staccato cough is more suggestive of an infectious process, including pertussis.

A 74-year-old female presents with a several-month history of gradually increasing dyspnea on exertion, swelling in her feet and lower legs, and having to sleep sitting up due to increased shortness of breath while lying flat. She has been healthy otherwise, with no known heart disease or hypertension, and she has no significant family history of heart disease. An echocardiogram shows an ejection fraction of 20% and a thin-walled, diffusely enlarged left ventricle. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Dilated cardiomyopathy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy D. Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy E. Athlete's heart

A. Dilated cardiomyopathy. This patient's symptoms and echocardiographic findings indicate a dilated cardiomyopathy. In patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy the echocardiogram shows left ventricular hypertrophy and a reduction in chamber size. In restrictive cardiomyopathy, findings include reduced ventricular volume, normal left ventricular wall thickness, and normal systolic function with impaired ventricular filling. Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy usually presents with syncope and without symptoms of heart failure, and segmental wall abnormalities would be seen on the echocardiogram. Highly trained athletes may develop echocardiographic evidence of eccentric cardiac hypertrophy, but no symptoms of heart failure would be present.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 51 ======================================================= Which one of the following is most associated with falls in older adults? (check one) A. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) B. Atorvastatin (Lipitor) C. Metformin (Glucophage) D. Memantine (Namenda) E. Theophylline (Theo-24)

A. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl). Certain classes of medications are frequently associated with falls in older adults. These classes include benzodiazepines, antidepressants, antipsychotics, antiepileptics, anticholinergics, sedative hypnotics, muscle relaxants, and cardiovascular medications. Diphenhydramine is one of the anticholinergic medications associated with falls in older adults. The other drugs listed are not in the higher-risk groups of medications.

A 5-year-old white male has an itchy lesion on his right foot. He often plays barefoot in a city park that is subject to frequent flooding. The lesion is located dorsally between the web of his right third and fourth toes, and extends toward the ankle. It measures approximately 3 cm in length, is erythematous, and has a serpiginous track. The remainder of his examination is within normal limits. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of these findings? (check one) A. Dog or cat hookworm (Ancylostoma species) B. Dog or other canid tapeworm (Echinococcus granulosus) C. Cat protozoa (Toxoplasma gondii) D. Dog or cat roundworm (Toxocara canis or T. mystax)

A. Dog or cat hookworm (Ancylostoma species). This patient has cutaneous larva migrans, a common condition caused by dog and cat hookworms. Fecal matter deposited on soil or sand may contain hookworm eggs that hatch and release larvae, which are infective if they penetrate the skin. Walking barefoot on contaminated ground can lead to infection. Echinococcosis (hydatid disease) is caused by the cestodes (tapeworms) Echinococcus granulosus and Echinococcus multilocularis, found in dogs and other canids. It infects humans who ingest eggs that are shed in the animals feces and results in slow-growing cysts in the liver or lungs, and occasionally in the brain, bones, or heart. Toxoplasmosis is caused by the protozoa Toxoplasma gondii, found in cat feces. Humans can contract it from litter boxes or feces-contaminated soil, or by consuming infected undercooked meat. It can be asymptomatic, or it may cause cervical lymphadenopathy, a mononucleosis-like illness; it can also lead to a serious congenital infection if the mother is infected during pregnancy, especially during the first trimester. Toxocariasis due to Toxocara canis and Toxocara cati causes visceral or ocular larva migrans in children who ingest soil contaminated with animal feces that contains parasite eggs, often found in areas such as playgrounds and sandboxes.

A 20-year-old female presents with a sudden onset of fever, chills, and headache of 2 days duration, and now has a pink blanching rash. The rash covers most of her body, including the palms of her hands and the soles of her feet, but not including her face. She recently returned from a camping trip, but has had no recent contact with anyone who has been ill. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient's symptoms? (check one) A. Doxycycline, 100 mg twice daily for 10 days B. Azithromycin (Zithromax), 500 mg daily for 3 days C. Cephalexin (Keflex), 500 mg twice daily for 10 days D. Penicillin VK, 500 mg twice daily for 10 days E. Reassurance

A. Doxycycline, 100 mg twice daily for 10 days. This is a classic description of rickettsial illness (in the United States this would most likely be Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever): a history of outdoor activity, the sudden onset of fever, chills, and rash on the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet. Penicillin, cephalexin, and azithromycin do not cover rickettsia. Reassurance would be inappropriate because this condition can be life threatening and should always be treated.

In a 27-year-old white female with irregular menstrual cycles and infertility, which one of the following would be more indicative of Cushing's syndrome rather than the more common polycystic ovarian syndrome? (check one) A. Easy bruising B. Acne C. Hirsutism D. Androgenic alopecia E. Acanthosis nigricans

A. Easy bruising. Easy bruising, moon facies, buffalo hump, abdominal striae, hypertension, and proximal myopathy suggest Cushing's syndrome. Because this syndrome is very rare compared to polycystic ovarian syndrome, routine screening is not indicated in women with hypoandrogenic anovulation. Acne, hirsutism, androgenic alopecia, and acanthosis nigricans are all consistent with polycystic ovarian syndrome.

In healthy adults, performance on the Folstein Mini-Mental State Examination is affected by which one of the following? (check one) A. Educational attainment B. Socioeconomic status C. Gender D. Race

A. Educational attainment. The Mini-Mental State Examination, developed by Folstein in 1975, has become a standard tool for rapid clinical assessment of cognitive impairment. The score is known to be affected by the patient's educational attainment. Given the same level of cognitive impairment, those with higher education levels score somewhat better than those with less education. Race, sex, and socioeconomic status per se do not affect patients' scores.

A 30-year-old male presents with a 3-week history of severe, burning pain in his right shoulder. He recalls no mechanism of injury. An examination reveals weakness to resistance of the biceps and triceps, and with external rotation of the shoulder. Full range of motion of the neck and shoulder does not worsen the pain. Which one of the following would be most likely to identify the cause of this patient's problem? (check one) A. Electromyography and nerve conduction studies B. MRI of the neck C. MR arthrography (MRA) of the shoulder D. CT of the brain E. Ultrasonography of the upper extremity

A. Electromyography and nerve conduction studies. This patient has brachial neuritis, which can be difficult to differentiate from cervical radiculopathy, shoulder pathology, and cerebrovascular accident. The pain preceded the weakness, no trauma was involved, and the weakness is in a nondermatomal distribution, making brachial neuritis the most likely diagnosis. Electromyography is most likely to show this lesion, but only after 3 weeks of symptoms. MRI of the neck may show abnormalities, but not the cause of the current problem. Symptoms are not consistent with shoulder pathology, deep-vein thrombosis of the upper extremity, or cerebrovascular accident.

A 60-year-old male has moderate anemia, with a suggestion of hemolysis on a peripheral blood smear. Which one of the following patterns would be consistent with the presence of hemolysis? (check one) A. Elevated LDH, decreased haptoglobin, elevated indirect bilirubin B. Elevated LDH, elevated haptoglobin, decreased indirect bilirubin C. Decreased LDH, elevated haptoglobin, elevated indirect bilirubin D. Decreased LDH, decreased haptoglobin, elevated indirect bilirubin E. Decreased LDH, decreased haptoglobin, decreased indirect bilirubin

A. Elevated LDH, decreased haptoglobin, elevated indirect bilirubin. Hemolytic anemia is established by reticulocytosis, increased unconjugated bilirubin, elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), decreased haptoglobin, and peripheral blood smear findings.

A 20-year-old single white female who is a patient of yours was raped in her apartment at 7:00 a.m. today. She is brought to your office at 9:00 a.m. for assessment and treatment. Despite having occasional intercourse with her boyfriend, she has never used any type of contraceptive. They last had intercourse approximately 1 week ago, and the boyfriend has been out of town on business since then. The patient has a history of irregular periods, and her last normal period was approximately 2 and a half weeks ago. You note live sperm on a wet mount. In addition to many other issues that must be addressed at this visit, the patient asks about emergency contraception. Which one of the following would be accurate advice to the patient regarding this topic? (check one) A. Emergency contraception does not interfere with an established, post-implantation pregnancy B. The estrogen/progestin combination regimen appears to be more effective than the levonorgestrel-only regimen C. To be most effective, each dose of the 2-dose regimen should be administered at least 72 hours apart D. Fetal malformations have been reported as a result of the unsuccessful use of the high-dose emergency contraceptive regimen

A. Emergency contraception does not interfere with an established, post-implantation pregnancy. An FDA Advisory Committee has recommended over-the-counter marketing of Plan B, an emergency contraceptive package that contains two 0.75-mg tablets of levonorgestrel to be taken 12 hours apart. Plan B is one of the two FDA-approved products for this indication. The Preven emergency contraceptive kit includes four tablets, each containing 0.25 mg of levonorgestrel and 50 Μg of ethinyl estradiol; these are taken two at a time 12 hours apart. In a randomized, controlled trial comparing the single versus combined estrogen/progestin, the single-drug regimen was shown to be more effective. Pregnancy occurred in 11 of 976 women (1.1%) given levonorgestrel alone, and in 31 of 979 (3.2%) given ethinyl estradiol plus levonorgestrel. The proportion of pregnancies prevented, compared to the expected number without treatment, was 85% with levonorgestrel and 57% with the combination. In both regimens, the interval between individual doses is 12 hours. In this case, emergency contraception may be appropriate in the face of a possible pregnancy from previous consensual intercourse. Emergency contraception has not been found to interfere with an established post-implantation pregnancy. Furthermore, no fetal malformations have been reported as a result of the unsuccessful use of high-dose oral contraceptives for emergency contraception.

A 7-year-old male presents with a fever of 38.5°C (101.3°F), a sore throat, tonsillar inflammation, and tender anterior cervical adenopathy. He does not have a cough or a runny nose. His younger sister was treated for streptococcal pharyngitis last week and his mother would like him to be treated for streptococcal infection. Which one of the following is true concerning this situation? (check one) A. Empiric antibiotic treatment for streptococcal pharyngitis is warranted. B. The chance of this patient having a positive rapid antigen detection test for Streptococcus is <50%. C. There is a generalized consensus among the various national guidelines for management of pharyngitis. D. The patient should have a tonsillectomy when he recovers from this infection. E. The family dog should be treated for streptococcal infection.

A. Empiric antibiotic treatment for streptococcal pharyngitis is warranted.. The patient has a score of 5 under the Modified Centor scoring system for management of sore throat. Patients with a score ≥4 are at highest risk (at least 50%) of having group A β-hemolytic streptococcal (GABHS) pharyngitis, and empiric treatment with antibiotics is warranted. Various national and international organizations disagree about the best way to manage pharyngitis, with no consensus as to when or how to test for GABHS and who should receive treatment. The minimal benefit seen with tonsillectomy in reducing the incidence of recurrent GABHS pharyngitis does not justify the risks or cost of surgery. Treatment of pets for the prevention of GABHS infection has proven ineffective.

A 25-year-old primigravida presents with sharp, stabbing, left-sided pelvic pain that started yesterday, 45 days after her last menstrual period. Her past history is not remarkable, and a physical examination is normal except for moderate tenderness in the left adnexa on pelvic examination. A urinalysis is normal, as is a CBC. Her beta-hCG level is 1500 mIU/mL. Assuming no adnexal mass is seen, which one of the following transvaginal pelvic ultrasonography findings would be consistent with the highest likelihood of an ectopic pregnancy? (check one) A. Empty uterus: empty endometrial cavity with or without a thickened endometrium B. Abnormal gestational sac: anechoic intrauterine fluid collection either >10 mm in mean sac diameter or with a grossly irregular border C. Nonspecific fluid: anechoic intrauterine fluid collection <10 mm in mean sac diameter without an echogenic border D. Echogenic material: echogenic material within the endometrial cavity without a defined sac, or multiple discrete anechoic collections of various sizes divided by echogenic septations

A. Empty uterus: empty endometrial cavity with or without a thickened endometrium. At this time in the patient's pregnancy, a gestational sac should be visible on ultrasonography. An empty uterus presents the highest risk (14%) for ectopic pregnancy, while nonspecific fluid and echogenic material are associated with a 5% and 4% risk, respectively. An abnormal or normal sac is associated with no risk, with the rare exception of multiple pregnancies with one being heterotopic.

A 57-year-old male with severe renal disease presents with acute coronary syndrome. Which one of the following would most likely require a significant dosage adjustment from the standard protocol? (check one) A. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) B. Metoprolol (Lopressor, Toprol) C. Carvedilol (Coreg) D. Clopidogrel (Plavix) E. Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)

A. Enoxaparin (Lovenox). Enoxaparin is eliminated mostly by the kidneys. When it is used in patients with severe renal impairment the dosage must be significantly reduced. For some indications the dose normally given every 12 hours is given only every 24 hours. Although some β-blockers require a dosage adjustment, metoprolol and carvedilol are metabolized by the liver and do not require dosage adjustment in patients with renal failure. Clopidogrel is currently recommended at the standard dosage for patients with renal failure and acute coronary syndrome. Thrombolytics like tPA are given at the standard dosage in renal failure, although hemorrhagic complications are increased.

During rounds, you notice a new rash on a full-term 2-day-old white female. It consists of 1-mm pustules surrounded by a flat area of erythema, and is located on the face, trunk, and upper arms. An examination is otherwise normal, and she does not appear ill. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Erythema toxicum neonatorum B. Transient neonatal pustular melanosis C. Acne neonatorum D. Systemic herpes simplex E. Staphylococcus aureus sepsis

A. Erythema toxicum neonatorum. This infant has the typical "flea-bitten" rash of erythema toxicum neonatorum (ETN). Transient neonatal pustular melanosis is most common in African-American newborns, and the lesions lack the surrounding erythema typical of ETN. Acne neonatorum is associated with closed comedones, mostly on the face. As the infant described is not ill, infectious etiologies are unlikely.

======================================================= Respiratory Board Review Questions 03 ======================================================= A 72-year-old male slipped on a rug in his kitchen and struck his right side against a counter. He presents several days after the fall with a complaint of ongoing pain in his flank. He has a history of chronic atrial fibrillation, which is treated with warfarin (Coumadin). His vital signs are normal. A physical examination reveals tenderness to palpation along the posterior-lateral chest wall and decreased breath sounds in the right base. Radiographs reveal two fractured ribs on the right side and a moderately large pleural effusion in the right hemithorax. Laboratory test results include a hemoglobin of 10.5 mg/dL (baseline 11.0-12.0 mg/dL) and a prothrombin time of 33.5 seconds with an INR of 3.5. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management at this time? (check one) A. Evacuation of the pleural space B. Prophylactic antibiotics C. Open fixation of the ribs with control of bleeding D. Symptomatic treatment and close follow-up E. Use of a rib binder for 2-3 weeks

A. Evacuation of the pleural space. This patient has been clinically stable despite losing what appears to be a fair amount of blood into his pleural space after fracturing two ribs, a condition referred to as hemothorax. The treatment of choice in this condition is to remove the bloody fluid and re-expand the associated lung. This therapy is felt to decrease any ongoing blood loss by having the lung pleura put a direct barrier over the site that is bleeding. It also prevents the development of empyema or fibrosis, which could occur if the blood were to remain.

A 45-year-old female with rheumatoid arthritis has a hemoglobin level of 9.5 g/dL (N 11.5-16.0). Her arthritis is well controlled with methotrexate. Further evaluation reveals the following: Hematocrit............29.0% (N 35.0-47.0) Mean corpuscular volume............78 µm3 (N 80-98) Platelets............230,000/mm3 (N 150,000-400,000) WBCs............6900/mm3 (N 4000-11,000) Differential............normal Serum iron............15 µg/dL (N 50-170) Total iron binding capacity............150 µg/dL (N 45-70) Iron saturation............10% (N 15-50) Serum ferritin............7 ng/mL (N 12-150) Reticulocyte count............8 x 109/L (N 10-100) Stool guaiac............negative x 3 Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step? (check one) A. Evaluation for a source of blood loss B. Hemoglobin electrophoresis to screen for thalassemia C. Stopping the methotrexate and beginning an alternative treatment for rheumatoid arthritis D. No further evaluation

A. Evaluation for a source of blood loss. Anemia of chronic disease is characterized by the underproduction of red cells, due to low serum iron caused by the uptake of iron by the reticuloendothelial system. Total-body iron stores are increased but the iron in storage is not available for red cell production. This anemia is normochromic and normocytic, and is associated with a reduction in iron, transferrin, and transferrin saturation. Ferritin is either normal or increased, reflecting both the increased iron within the reticuloendothelial system and increases due to immune activation (acute phase reactant). In iron deficiency anemia, total-body iron levels are low, leading to hypochromia and microcytosis, low iron levels, increased transferrin levels, and reduced ferritin levels. This patient's anemia is most likely multifactorial, with anemia of chronic disease and drug effects playing a role. However, she also has iron deficiency, and searching for a source of blood loss would be important. With thalassemia, marked microcytosis is seen, and with hemolysis, slight macrocytosis and an increased reticulocyte count would be expected.

In the development of clinical guidelines, which one of the following is rated as the strongest and highest-quality evidence? (check one) A. Evidence from randomized, placebo-controlled studies B. Evidence from nonrandomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled studies C. Evidence from nonrandomized, double-blind, crossover, placebo-washout-controlled studies D. Evidence obtained from well-designed cohort or case-control analytical studies from more than one center or research group E. Evidence based on reports of expert committees or opinions of respected authorities in the appropriate specialty area

A. Evidence from randomized, placebo-controlled studies. Randomized, controlled studies yield stronger evidence than other types of studies, especially case-control or cohort studies, because randomization provides the greatest safeguard against unanticipated study bias. Evidence obtained from randomized, controlled studies is considered level 1 (strongest) by the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force. Evidence obtained from nonrandomized, controlled studies is considered level 2a; well-designed case-control and cohort studies are considered level 2b; and reports of expert committees or respected authorities are considered level 3 (weakest).

Which one of the following reduces the incidence of atopic dermatitis in children? (check one) A. Exclusive breastfeeding until the infant is 4 months of age B. Prenatal ingestion of probiotics by the mother C. Delayed introduction of solid food until after 6 months of age D. Application of emollients E. Early exposure to dust mites

A. Exclusive breastfeeding until the infant is 4 months of age. Atopic dermatitis is a pruritic, inflammatory skin disorder affecting nearly 1 in 5 children residing in developed countries. The vast majority of those eventually afflicted experience the onset of symptoms by the age of 5 years, and more than half will present before the age of 1 year. The etiology is not fully understood, but it seems clear that environmental, immune, genetic, metabolic, infectious, and neuroendocrine factors all play a role. Environmental factors that may be involved include harsh detergents, abrasive clothing, Staphylococcus aureus skin infection, food allergens (cow's milk, eggs, peanuts, tree nuts, etc.), overheating, and psychological stress. Aeroallergens that are problematic for asthmatics, such as animal dander, dust mites, and pollen, have not been clearly linked to atopic dermatitis. Large, well-designed studies have found no evidence that delaying the introduction of solid foods until after 6 months of age reduces the likelihood of atopic dermatitis. Ingestion of probiotic agents during pregnancy has also not been shown to have any effect, and studies of probiotic use in breastfeeding mothers and their infants have yielded conflicting results. Exclusive breastfeeding for the first 4 months of life has been shown to reduce the cumulative incidence of atopic dermatitis in the first 2 years of life for infants at high risk of developing atopic disease; doing so beyond 4 months does not appear to provide additional benefit. Maternal dietary restriction during pregnancy and lactation has not been associated with significant benefit. Limited studies have demonstrated that emollients and moisturizers can reduce associated xerosis and are thought to be helpful treatments, but the data is not convincing.

Which one of the following medications should be discontinued in a patient with diabetic gastroparesis? (check one) A. Exenatide (Byetta) B. Benazepril (Lotensin) C. Metformin (Glucophage) D. Hydrochlorothiazide E. Prochlorperazine maleate

A. Exenatide (Byetta). Delayed gastric emptying may be caused or exacerbated by medications for diabetes, including amylin analogues (e.g., pramlintide) and glucagon-like peptide 1 (e.g., exenatide). Delayed gastric emptying has a direct effect on glucose metabolism, in addition to being a means of reducing the severity of postprandial hyperglycemia. In a clinical trial of exenatide, nausea occurred in 57% of patients and vomiting occurred in 19%, which led to the cessation of treatment in about one-third of patients. The other medications listed do not cause delayed gastric emptying.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 21 ======================================================= Which one of the following treatments for type 2 diabetes mellitus often produces significant weight loss? (check one) A. Exenatide (Byetta) B. Glipizide (Glucotrol) C. Pioglitazone (Actos) D. Insulin detemir (Levemir) E. Insulin lispro (Humalog)

A. Exenatide (Byetta). Of the many currently available medications to treat diabetes mellitus, only metformin and incretin mimetics such as exenatide have the additional benefit of helping the overweight or obese patient lose a significant amount of weight. Most of the other medications, including all the insulin formulations, unfortunately lead to weight gain or have no effect on weight.

A 24-year-old female presents for her annual examination. She is single and has had several male sexual partners during the past year. You include screening for chlamydial infection in your evaluation, and the test is reported as positive. She is asymptomatic. Which one of the following is true concerning this situation? (check one) A. Failure to treat this patient would place her at higher risk of later infertility B. Only sexual partners with whom she has been active during the last 2 weeks need to be treated C. She should avoid sexual intercourse for 1 month after treatment D. Use of barrier methods of contraception increases her risk for repeat infection

A. Failure to treat this patient would place her at higher risk of later infertility. It is recommended that sexually active women under the age of 25 years be screened routinely for Chlamydia trachomatis. Treatment of asymptomatic infections in women reduces their risk of developing pelvic inflammatory disease, tubal infertility, ectopic pregnancy, and chronic pelvic pain. A 1-gram dose of oral azithromycin is an appropriate treatment, including during pregnancy. Sexual contacts during the preceding 60 days should be either treated empirically or tested for infection and treated if positive. The patient should avoid sexual intercourse for 7 days after initiation of treatment. Consistent use of barrier methods for contraception reduces the risk of C. trachomatis genital infection.

A 78-year-old male comes to your office with a 3-day history of pain in the right side of his chest. The pain is described as burning and intense. Two days ago he noted a rash at that site. Examination reveals groups of vesicles on an erythematous base in a T-5 dermatome distribution on the right. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate treatment to minimize the chance of post-herpetic neuralgia? (check one) A. Famciclovir (Famvir) B. Prednisone C. Capsaicin (Zostrix) D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

A. Famciclovir (Famvir). The key indicator of postherpetic neuralgia is persistent pain 3-6 months after an episode of herpes zoster. Studies show that patients who present for treatment of herpes zoster within 72 hours will benefit from antiviral therapy such as famciclovir to reduce the pain and decrease the risk of postherpetic neuralgia. Treating zoster pain with tricyclic antidepressants in low dosage (10-25 mg amitriptyline) may also decrease risk. While steroids added to antiviral therapy may be of benefit in short-term therapy, they do not reduce pain at 6 months.

At a routine visit, a 40-year-old female asks about beginning an exercise regimen. She has a family history of heart disease and hypertension. She currently has no medical problems, but she is sedentary. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate recommendation for this patient? (check one) A. Fast walking for 30 minutes on 5 or more days per week B. Jogging for 30 minutes every other day C. Weight training once weekly D. An exercise stress test prior to beginning exercise E. A baseline EKG and rhythm strip

A. Fast walking for 30 minutes on 5 or more days per week. This patient would benefit from exercise to prevent or delay the onset of heart disease and hypertension, and to manage her weight. Exercise stress testing is not specifically indicated for this patient. Current recommendations are for healthy adults to engage in 30 minutes of accumulated moderate-intensity physical activity on 5 or more days per week.

Which one of the following surgical procedures is associated with the highest risk for perioperative myocardial ischemia? (check one) A. Femoropopliteal bypass B. Pulmonary lobectomy C. Hip arthroplasty D. Transurethral resection of the prostate E. Mastectomy

A. Femoropopliteal bypass. When deciding whether or not to recommend preoperative noninvasive cardiac testing, both patient risk factors and surgical risk factors should be taken into account. Surgical procedures associated with a high (>5%) risk of perioperative myocardial ischemia include aortic and peripheral vascular surgery and emergent major operations, especially in patients over 75 years of age. Head and neck surgery, intraperitoneal and intrathoracic surgery, orthopedic surgery, and prostate surgery carry an intermediate risk (1%-5%). Endoscopic procedures and cataract and breast surgeries are considered low-risk (<1%) procedures.

The most common manifestation of uterine rupture during labor is: (check one) A. Fetal distress B. Sudden, tearing uterine pain C. Vaginal hemorrhage D. Cessation of uterine contractions E. Regression of the fetus

A. Fetal distress. Fetal distress with prolonged, variable, or late decelerations and bradycardia is the most common, and often only, sign of uterine rupture. The other signs listed are unreliable and often absent.

Of the following, which one is the most effective treatment for bulimia nervosa? (check one) A. Fluoxetine (Prozac) B. Buspirone (BuSpar) C. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) D. Omeprazole (Prilosec) E. Metoclopramide (Reglan)

A. Fluoxetine (Prozac). A number of placebo-controlled, double-blind trials have demonstrated the effectiveness of a variety of antidepressants in the treatment of bulimia nervosa. Fluoxetine has FDA approval for this indication. The other agents are not used for treating bulimia.

You have decided that in addition to the counseling she has been receiving for depression, a 12-year-old female in your practice might benefit from an antidepressant medication. Which one of the following has shown the most favorable risk-to-benefit ratio in children and adolescents? (check one) A. Fluoxetine (Prozac) B. Lithium C. Amitriptyline D. Venlafaxine (Effexor) E. St. John's wort

A. Fluoxetine (Prozac). SSRIs have been shown to benefit children and adolescents with depression, but there are concerns regarding their association with suicidal behavior. Fluoxetine seems to be the most favorable SSRI, and is the only one recommended by the FDA for treatment of depression in children 8-17 years old. There is limited or no evidence to support the use of lithium, venlafaxine, or St. John's wort in children and adolescents. Amitriptyline and other tricyclic antidepressants are ineffective in children and have limited effectiveness in adolescents, and safety is an issue in both of these groups.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 25 ======================================================= A 46-year-old female presents to your office with a 2-week history of pain in her left shoulder. She does not recall any injury, and the pain is present when she is resting and at night. Her only chronic medical problem is type 2 diabetes mellitus. On examination, she has limited movement of the shoulder and almost complete loss of external rotation. Radiographs of the shoulder are normal, as is her erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Frozen shoulder B. Torn rotator cuff C. Impingement syndrome D. Chronic posterior shoulder dislocation E. Osteoarthritis

A. Frozen shoulder. Frozen shoulder is an idiopathic condition that most commonly affects patients between the ages of 40 and 60. Diabetes mellitus is the most common risk factor for frozen shoulder. Symptoms include shoulder stiffness, loss of active and passive shoulder rotation, and severe pain, including night pain. Laboratory tests and plain films are normal; the diagnosis is clinical (SOR C). Frozen shoulder is differentiated from chronic posterior shoulder dislocation and osteoarthritis on the basis of radiologic findings. Both shoulder dislocation and osteoarthritis have characteristic plain film findings. A patient with a rotator cuff tear will have normal passive range of motion. Impingement syndrome does not affect passive range of motion, but there will be pain with elevation of the shoulder.

During a well child examination of a healthy-appearing 4-week-old white male born at term, his mother questions you about a prominence in the left side of his scrotum, which she has noted since his baths were begun. Your physical examination reveals an oblong, nontender, nonreducible, light-transmitting mass closely adhered to or involving the testis. You should recommend which one of the following? (check one) A. Further observation B. Sterile aspiration of the mass C. Immediate surgery D. Surgery in 3-4 months

A. Further observation. A hydrocele of the tunica vaginalis testis occurs frequently at birth but usually resolves in a few weeks or months. No treatment is indicated during the first year of life unless there is a clinically evident hernia. A simple scrotal hydrocele without communication with the peritoneal cavity and no associated hernia should be excised if it has not spontaneously resolved by the age of 12 months. Aspirating the mass for diagnostic or therapeutic reasons is not recommended, since a loop of bowel may be injured. Removing the fluid is ineffectiveas it will quickly reaccumulate.

A 67-year-old white male with hypertension and chronic kidney disease presents with the recent onset of excessive thirst, frequent urination, and blurred vision. Laboratory testing reveals a fasting blood glucose level of 270 mg/dL, a hemoglobin A 1c of 8.5%, a BUN level of 32 mg/dL, and a serum creatinine level of 2.3 mg/dL. His calculated glomerular filtration rate is 28 mL/min. Which one of the following medications should you start at this time? (check one) A. Glipizide (Glucotrol) B. Metformin (Glucophage) C. Glyburide (DiaBeta) D. Acarbose (Precose)

A. Glipizide (Glucotrol). It is recommended that metformin be avoided in patients with a creatinine level >1.5 mg/dL for men or >1.4 mg/dL for women. Glyburide has an active metabolite that is eliminated renally. This metabolite can accumulate in patients with chronic kidney disease, resulting in prolonged hypoglycemia. Acarbose should be avoided in patients with chronic kidney disease, as it has not been evaluated in these patients. Glipizide does not have an active metabolite, and is safe in patients with chronic renal disease.

A 36-year-old female presents with the sudden onset of severe headache, nausea, and photophobia. Her level of consciousness is progressively diminishing. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step? (check one) A. Head CT without contrast B. Head CT with contrast C. Head MRI D. Lumbar puncture E. CT angiography

A. Head CT without contrast. The first study ordered in any patient with suspected subarachnoid hemorrhage should be a head CT without contrast. It will reveal subarachnoid hemorrhage in 100% of cases within 12 hours of the bleed, and it is useful for identifying other sources for the headache, for predicting the site of the aneurysm, and for predicting cerebral vasospasm and poor outcome. As blood is cleared from the affected area, CT sensitivity drops to 93% within 24 hours, and to 50% at 7 days. Patients with a positive CT result for subarachnoid hemorrhage should proceed directly to angiography and treatment. Patients with a suspected subarachnoid hemorrhage who have negative or equivocal results on head CT should have a lumbar puncture. MRI and CT with contrast are not used for the diagnosis of acute subarachnoid hemorrhage.

A 60-year-old male with a right-sided pleural effusion undergoes thoracentesis. Analysis of the pleural fluid reveals a protein level of 2.0 g/dL and an LDH level of 70 U/L. His serum protein level is 7.0 g/dL (N 6.0-8.3) and his serum LDH level is 200 U/L (N 100-105). Based on these findings, which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Heart failure B. Pulmonary embolism C. Tuberculous pleurisy D. Malignancy E. Bacterial pneumonia

A. Heart failure. Pleural effusions may be exudates or transudates. The distinction is important for an accurate diagnosis and to help determine what further evaluations may be necessary. Lights criteria use ratios of fluid/serum values for protein and LDH. Pleural fluid/serum ratios greater than 0.6 for LDH and 0.5 for protein are indicative of exudates. In the scenario presented, both ratios are approximately 0.3; therefore, the fluid is a transudate. The list of causes for transudates is much shorter than for exudates. The vast majority of transudates are due to heart failure, with cirrhosis being the next most common cause. Once there is reasonable certainty that the fluid is a transudate, additional studies usually are not necessary. The other conditions listed result in exudative pleural effusions.

You see a 1-year-old male for a routine well child examination. Laboratory tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL (N 9-14), a hematocrit of 31% (N 28-42), a mean corpuscular volume of 68 :m3 (N 70-86), and a mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration of 25 g/dL (N 30-36). A trial of iron therapy results in no improvement and a serum lead level is normal. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate test at this time? (check one) A. Hemoglobin electrophoresis B. Bone marrow examination C. Vitamin B12 and folate levels D. A TSH level

A. Hemoglobin electrophoresis. This patient has a microcytic, hypochromic anemia, which can be caused by iron deficiency, thalassemia, sideroblastic anemia, and lead poisoning. In a child with a microcytic anemia who does not respond to iron therapy, hemoglobin electrophoresis is appropriate to diagnose thalassemia. Hypothyroidism, vitamin B12 deficiency, and folate deficiency result in macrocytic anemias.

An 8-year-old female is brought to your office with a 3-day history of bilateral knee pain. She has had no associated upper respiratory symptoms. On examination she is afebrile. Her knees have full range of motion and no effusion, but she has a purpuric papular rash on both lower extremities. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms? (check one) A. Henoch-Schönlein purpura B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever C. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis D. Lyme disease E. Rheumatic fever

A. Henoch-Schönlein purpura. The combination of arthritis with a typical palpable purpuric rash is consistent with a diagnosis of Henoch-Schönlein purpura. This most often occurs in children from 2 to 8 years old. Arthritis is present in about two-thirds of those affected. Gastrointestinal and renal involvement are also common. Rocky Mountain spotted fever presents with a rash, but arthralgias are not typical. These patients are usually sick with a fever and headache. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is associated with a salmon-pink maculopapular rash, but not purpura. The rash associated with Lyme disease is erythema migrans, which is a bull's-eye lesion at the site of a tick bite. The rash associated with rheumatic fever is erythema marginatum, which is a pink, raised, macular rash with sharply demarcated borders.

A pregnant patient is positive for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg). Which one of the following would be most appropriate for her infant? (check one) A. Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) and hepatitis B vaccine at birth B. Hepatitis B vaccine only, at birth C. HBIG only, at birth D. Testing for HBsAg before any immunization E. No immunization until 1 year of age

A. Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) and hepatitis B vaccine at birth. Infants born to hepatitis B-positive mothers should receive both immune globulin and hepatitis B vaccine. They should receive the entire series of the vaccine, with testing for seroconversion only after completion of the vaccination series; the recommended age for testing is 9-12 months of age.

A 4-year-old white male is brought to your office because he has had a low-grade fever and decreased oral intake over the past few days. On examination you note shallow oral ulcerations confined to the posterior pharynx. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Herpangina B. Herpes C. Mononucleosis D. Roseola infantum E. Rubella

A. Herpangina. Herpangina is a febrile disease caused by coxsackieviruses and echoviruses. Vesicles and subsequent ulcers develop in the posterior pharyngeal area (SOR C). Herpes infection causes a gingivostomatitis that involves the anterior mouth. Mononucleosis may be associated with petechiae of the soft palate, but does not usually cause pharyngeal lesions. The exanthem in roseola usually coincides with defervescence. Mucosal involvement is not noted. Rubella may cause an enanthem of pinpoint petechiae involving the soft palate (Forschheimer spots), but not the pharynx.

A 25-year-old female presents with a maculopapular rash that has progressed to multiple areas and exhibits target lesions. A cold sore appeared on her upper lip 2 days before the rash appeared. She is not systemically ill and is on no medications. Which one of the following is true concerning this problem? (check one) A. Herpes simplex virus is a likely cause B. A skin biopsy will confirm the diagnosis C. The lesions usually disappear within 24 hours D. The palms of the hands and soles of the feet are not involved E. Scarring from the lesions is often seen after resolution

A. Herpes simplex virus is a likely cause. Herpes simplex virus is the most common etiologic agent of erythema multiforme. Other infections, particularly Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections and fungal infections, may also be associated with this hypersensitivity reaction. Other causes include medications and vaccines. Skin biopsy findings are not specific for erythema multiforme. As opposed to the lesions of urticaria, the lesions of erythema multiforme usually are present and fixed for at least 1 week and may evolve into target lesions. The palms of the hands and soles of the feet may be involved. The lesions of erythema multiforme usually resolve spontaneously over 3-5 weeks without sequelae.

A 40-year-old female with chronic plaque psoriasis requests topical treatment. Which one of the following topical therapies would be most effective and have the fewest adverse effects? (check one) A. High-potency corticosteroids B. Tazarotene (Tazorac) C. Coal tar polytherapy D. Anthralin

A. High-potency corticosteroids. Chronic plaque psoriasis is the most common type of psoriasis and is characterized by redness, thickness, and scaling. A variety of treatments were found to be more effective than placebo, but the best results were produced by topical vitamin D analogues and topical corticosteroids. Vitamin D and high-potency corticosteroids were equally effective when compared head to head, but the corticosteroids produced fewer local reactions (SOR A).

A 72-year-old female is admitted to the hospital after having surgery for a hip fracture. Her previous medical history is significant for hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Two days after admission the orthopedic surgeon consults with you because the patient has had several hours of fever to 39°C (102°F); tachycardia, with a pulse rate of 120 beats/min; and systolic blood pressures of 91-97 mm Hg (baseline 120-140 mm Hg with medication). When you examine the patient she says she feels weak and chilled but she is alert. Her oxygen saturation is excellent on room air, and a physical examination is normal except for the sinus tachycardia and low blood pressure. A urinary catheter is in place, but there has been little output over the last 4 hours. Her renal function was normal prior to her hospitalization. A chest radiograph is normal. Her electrolyte levels are normal, but laboratory tests reveal the following abnormal results: WBCs. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2500/mm3 (N 5000-10,000) BUN. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 50 mg/dL (N 10-15) Creatinine. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.3 mg/dL (N 0.6-1.0) Bicarbonate. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 18 mmol/L (N 22-30) Urinalysis Specific gravity. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . >1.030 (N 1.003-1.040) WBCs. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . >100/hpf RBCs.. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10-20/hpf Epithelial cells. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3-5/hpf Casts. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . few hyaline In addition to antibiotics, which one of the following would be the most appropriate management of this patient's problem? (check one) A. High-rate intravenous normal saline B. Intravenous furosemide, 40 mg every 6 hours C. Intravenous dopamine, 2-4 µg/kg/min D. Intravenous sodium bicarbonate E. Urgent nephrology consultation for dialysis

A. High-rate intravenous normal saline. This patient appears to be experiencing sepsis syndrome due to urinary infection. The renal failure that has resulted is almost certainly due to low perfusion of the kidneys (prerenal azotemia). This condition requires aggressive intravenous fluids to halt and reverse the reduction in nephrologic function. At times, this underperfusion can result in acute tubular necrosis (an intrinsic renal dysfunction) that may prevent excretion of any excess fluid, so the patient's fluid status should be monitored carefully. Metabolic acidosis will likely reverse with appropriate hydration, and sodium bicarbonate should be reserved for severe acidosis (<10-15 mmol/L) or for those with chronic kidney disease. Low-dose dopamine has been proven to be ineffective in acute renal failure, and this patient does not have an indication for dialysis. Intravenous furosemide is contraindicated.

======================================================= Endocrine Board Review Questions 02 ======================================================= In a patient with a solitary thyroid nodule, which one of the following is associated with a higher incidence of malignancy? (check one) A. Hoarseness B. Hyperthyroidism C. Female gender D. A nodule size of 2 cm E. A freely movable nodule

A. Hoarseness. When evaluating a patient with a solitary thyroid nodule, red flags indicating possible thyroid cancer include male gender; age <20 years or >65 years; rapid growth of the nodule; symptoms of local invasion such as dysphagia, neck pain, and hoarseness; a history of head or neck radiation; a family history of thyroid cancer; a hard, fixed nodule >4 cm; and cervical lymphadenopathy.

Which one of the following has been shown to be effective for improving symptoms of varicose veins? (check one) A. Horse chestnut seed extract B. Vitamin B12 C. Ephedra D. Milk thistle E. St. John's wort

A. Horse chestnut seed extract. Horse chestnut seed extract has been shown to have some effect when used orally for symptomatic treatment of chronic venous insufficiency, such as varicose veins. It may also be useful for relieving pain, tiredness, tension, and swelling in the legs. It contains a number of anti-inflammatory substances, including escin, which reduces edema and lowers fluid exudation by decreasing vascular permeability. Milk thistle may be effective for hepatic cirrhosis. Ephedra is considered unsafe, as it can cause severe life-threatening or disabling adverse effects in some people. St. John's wort may be effective for treating mild to moderate depression. Vitamin B12 is used to treat pernicious anemia.

When a woman less than 50 years of age develops vulvar cancer, which one of the following associated conditions is most frequently present? (check one) A. Human papillomavirus B. Lichen sclerosus C. Diabetes mellitus D. Syphilis E. Lymphogranuloma venereum

A. Human papillomavirus. There has been an increase in vulvar cancer in women 35-65 years of age over the last decade. This increase is associated with human papillomavirus infection, particularly involving subtypes 16 and 18. Lichen sclerosus is associated with vulvar cancer in older women. Hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and obesity may coexist, but are not felt to be independent risk factors. Syphilis and other granulomatous diseases have been associated with vulvar cancer in the past; they are not currently considered to be significant risk factors, but are considered markers for sexual behavior associated with increased risk.

A 64-year-old African-American male presents with persistent pleuritic pain. The patient does not feel well in general and has had a low-grade fever of around 100°F (38°C). His medications include simvastatin (Zocor), lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril), low-dose aspirin, spironolactone (Aldactone), furosemide (Lasix), isosorbide mononitrate (Imdur), hydralazine, carvedilol (Coreg), and nitroglycerin as needed. A chest radiograph is normal and does not demonstrate a pneumothorax. Further evaluation rules out pulmonary embolus, pneumonia, and myocardial infarction. A diagnosis of pleurisy is made. Which one of the patient's medications could be related to this condition? (check one) A. Hydralazine B. Simvastatin C. Lisinopril D. Spironolactone E. Carvedilol

A. Hydralazine. Drug-induced pleuritis is one cause of pleurisy. Several drugs are associated with drug-induced pleural disease or drug-induced lupus pleuritis. Drugs that may cause lupus pleuritis include hydralazine, procainamide, and quinidine. Other drugs known to cause pleural disease include amiodarone, bleomycin, bromocriptine, cyclophosphamide, methotrexate, minoxidil, and mitomycin.

A 55-year-old female who has hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and osteoarthritis of the knees develops acute gout and is found to have hyperuricemia. Discontinuation of which one of the following medications may improve her hyperuricemia? (check one) A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Losartan (Cozaar) C. Metoprolol (Lopressor) D. Simvastatin (Zocor) E. Acetaminophen

A. Hydrochlorothiazide. Diuretics such as hydrochlorothiazide are known to increase serum uric acid levels, but losartan has been shown to decrease uric acid. Metoprolol, simvastatin, and acetaminophen have no specific effect on serum uric acid levels.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 85 ======================================================= A 3-week-old white male presents with a history of several days of projectile vomiting after feeding, and documented weight loss despite a good appetite. There is a questionable history of a paternal uncle having surgery for a similar problem when he was an infant. Which one of the following findings is a characteristic sign of this disease? (check one) A. Hypochloremic alkalosis B. Pneumonia C. Generalized abdominal distention D. Currant jelly stool E. Direct hyperbilirubinemia

A. Hypochloremic alkalosis. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is the most likely diagnosis in this case. If it is allowed to progress untreated, there may be signs of malnutrition, constipation, oliguria, and profound hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. The latter is a characteristic sign of pyloric obstruction. As the child vomits chloride and hydrogen-rich gastric contents, hypochloremic alkalosis sets in. Pneumonia is not a common problem with pyloric stenosis, as it can be with congenital tracheoesophageal fistulae for example. After feeding, there may be a visible peristaltic wave that progresses across the abdomen. However, since the point of obstruction is proximal to the small and large intestines and affected infants lose weight, the abdomen is usually flat rather than distended, especially in the malnourished infant. Currant jelly stool is a common clinical manifestation of intussusception. Mild jaundice with elevated indirect bilirubin is seen in about 5% of infants with pyloric stenosis, but is not a characteristic sign.

A 52-year-old hypertensive male has had two previous myocardial infarctions. In spite of his best efforts, he has not achieved significant weight loss and he finds it difficult to follow a heart-healthy diet. He takes rosuvastatin (Crestor), 20 mg/day, and his last lipid profile showed a total cholesterol level of 218 mg/dL, a triglyceride level of 190 mg/dL, an HDL-cholesterol level of 45 mg/dL, and an LDL-cholesterol level of 118 mg/dL. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate change in management? (check one) A. Increase the rosuvastatin dosage B. Add atorvastatin (Lipitor) C. Add niacin D. Add fenofibrate (Lipofen, Tricor) E. Add ezetimibe (Zetia)

A. Increase the rosuvastatin dosage. This patient's goal LDL-cholesterol level is 70 mg/dL, and he is not at the maximum dosage of a potent statin. There is no data that shows that adding a different statin will be beneficial, and outcomes data for the other actions is lacking. For patients not at their goal LDL-cholesterol level, the maximum dosage of a statin should be reached before alternative therapy is chosen.

According to the Beers criteria, a list of drugs that should be avoided in geriatric patients, which one of the following NSAIDs should be avoided in older patients due to its higher rate of adverse central nervous system effects? (check one) A. Indomethacin B. Ibuprofen C. Diclofenac sodium D. Etodolac E. Celecoxib (Celebrex)

A. Indomethacin. The Beers criteria, a list of drugs that should generally be avoided by older patients, was developed by expert consensus, and was last updated in 2002. Indomethacin is on the list due to its propensity to produce more central nervous system adverse effects than other NSAIDs.

======================================================= Reproductive (Female) Board Review Questions 06 ======================================================= A 22-year-old gravida 2 para 1 presents to your office with a 1-day history of vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain. Her last menstrual period was 10 weeks ago, and she had a positive home pregnancy test 6 weeks ago. She denies any passage of clots. On pelvic examination, you note blood in the vaginal vault. The internal cervical os is open. Which one of the following best describes the patient's current condition? (check one) A. Inevitable abortion B. Completed abortion C. Threatened abortion D. Incomplete abortion E. Missed abortion

A. Inevitable abortion. Inevitable abortion is defined by bleeding, an open os, and no passage of products of conception (POCs). Bleeding also occurs with completed abortion, but the os is closed and there is complete passage of POCs. Threatened abortion also is characterized by bleeding and a closed os, but there is no passage of POCs. With incomplete abortion there is bleeding and an open os, but POCs are visualized in the os or vaginal vault. There are no symptoms with missed abortion, but there is no embryo or fetus on ultrasonography.

A 12-year-old male uses a short-acting bronchodilator three times per week to control his asthma. Lately he has been waking up about twice a week due to his symptoms. Which one of the following medications would be most appropriate? (check one) A. Inhaled medium-dose corticosteroids B. A scheduled short-acting bronchodilator C. A scheduled long-acting bronchodilator D. A leukotriene inhibitor

A. Inhaled medium-dose corticosteroids. This patient has moderate persistent asthma. Although many parents are concerned about corticosteroid use in children with open growth plates, inhaled corticosteroids have not been proven to prematurely close growth plates, and are the most effective treatment with the least side effects. Scheduled use of a shortacting bronchodilator has been shown to cause tachyphylaxis, and is not recommended. The same is true for long-acting bronchodilators. Leukotriene use may be beneficial, but compared to those using inhaled corticosteroids, patients using leukotrienes are 65% more likely to have an exacerbation requiring systemic corticosteroids.

A 28-year-old gravida 2 para 1 at 32 weeks' gestation presents with severe itching. She denies fever or vomiting. Her physical examination is remarkable for jaundice, but is otherwise benign. Laboratory studies reveal a normal CBC, normal platelets, normal glucose and serum creatinine levels, normal transaminase levels, and a bilirubin level of 4.0 mg/dL (N 0.0-1.0). Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy B. Acute viral hepatitis C. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy D. Pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy (PUPPP) E. Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets (HELLP) syndrome

A. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy is rare, occurring in 0.01% of pregnancies. It usually presents in the third trimester. Approximately 80% of patients present with pruritus alone, and another 20% with jaundice and pruritus. Laboratory results usually reveal normal or minimal elevation in transaminase levels, elevated bilirubin (usually <5 mg/dL), and occasional elevations in cholesterol and triglyceride levels. It is important to recognize and diagnose this entity, as it is associated with prematurity, fetal distress, and increased perinatal mortality. Acute viral hepatitis is a common cause of jaundice in pregnancy; however, it usually does not present with severe pruritus, and transaminase levels are markedly elevated. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is another rare condition occurring in the third trimester and is usually associated with preeclampsia (50%-100% of cases). It presents with nausea and vomiting, anorexia, jaundice, abdominal pain, headache, and neurologic abnormalities. Transaminase levels are moderately elevated, PT and PTT are prolonged, and profound hypoglycemia and renal failure are usually present. Pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy (PUPPP) is more common in women that present with severe pruritus. However, jaundice and liver function abnormalities are absent. HELLP syndrome is an uncommon but serious condition which presents in the third trimester with hemolysis, elevated transaminases, and low platelet count.

You are treating an 18-year-old white male college freshman for allergic rhinitis. It is September, and he tells you that he has severe symptoms every autumn that impair his academic performance. He has a strongly positive family history of atopic dermatitis. Which one of the following medications is considered optimal treatment for this condition? (check one) A. Intranasal glucocorticoids B. Intranasal cromolyn sodium C. Intranasal decongestants D. Intranasal antihistamines

A. Intranasal glucocorticoids. Topical intranasal glucocorticoids are currently believed to be the most efficacious medications for the treatment of allergic rhinitis. They are far superior to oral preparations in terms of safety. Cromolyn sodium is also an effective topical agent for allergic rhinitis; however, it is more effective if started prior to the season of peak symptoms. Because of the high risk of rhinitis medicamentosa with chronic use of topical decongestants, these agents have limited usefulness in the treatment of allergic rhinitis. Azelastine, an intranasal antihistamine, is effective for controlling symptoms but can cause somnolence and a bitter taste. Oral antihistamines are not as useful for congestion as for sneezing, pruritus, and rhinorrhea. Overall, they are not as effective as topical glucocorticoids.

A 34-year-old white male letter carrier has developed progressively worsening dysphagia for liquids and solids over the past 3 months. He says that he has lost about 30 lb during that time. On examination, you note that he is emaciated and appears ill. His pulse rate is 98 beats/min, temperature 37.8°C (100.2°F), respiratory rate 24/min, and blood pressure 95/60 mm Hg. His weight is 45 kg (99 lb) and his height is 170 cm (67 in). His dentition is poor, and there is evidence of oral thrush. His mucous membranes are dry. You palpate small posterior cervical and axillary nodes. The heart, lung, and abdominal examinations are normal. You promptly consult a gastroenterologist, who performs upper endoscopy, which reveals numerous small ulcers scattered throughout the esophagus with otherwise normal mucosa. As you continue to investigate, you take a more detailed history. Which one of the following is most likely to be related to the patient's problem? (check one) A. Intravenous drug use B. A family history of esophageal cancer C. Chest pain relieved by nitroglycerin D. Recent travel to Russia

A. Intravenous drug use. A young man with weight loss, oral thrush, lymphadenopathy, and ulcerative esophagitis is likely to have HIV infection. Intravenous drug use is responsible for over a quarter of HIV infections in the United States. Esophageal disease develops in more than half of all patients with advanced infection during the course of their illness. The most common pathogens causing esophageal ulceration in HIV-positive patients include Candida, herpes simplex virus, and cytomegalovirus. Identifying the causative agent through culture or tissue sampling is important for providing prompt and specific therapy.

A 2-year-old female is brought to the emergency department with a 2-day history of fever and increasing redness on the left forearm. She is otherwise healthy. On examination her temperature is 39.9°C (103.8°F), pulse rate 140 beats/min, and respiratory rate 42/min. She is irritable, and the left forearm has a 4-cm erythematous, warm, tender area, with a fluctuant area centrally. Her WBC count is 21,000/mm3 (N 4300-1 3 0,800), with 14% immature bands. In addition to incision and drainage, which one of the following is the best initial treatment in this patient? (check one) A. Intravenous vancomycin B. Intravenous ampicillin/sulbactam (Unasyn) C. Intravenous nafcillin D. Intravenous clindamycin (Cleocin) E. No antibiotics

A. Intravenous vancomycin. This patient has systemic symptoms that suggest a severe underlying infection. Community-acquired methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (CA-MRSA) should be considered the cause of this type of infection until definitive cultures are obtained. CA-MRSA can cause aggressive infections in children, especially in the skin and soft tissue. Incision and drainage of the abscess is necessary for treatment. In a severe infection, vancomycin should be started initially until culture and sensitivities are available (SORB).

A 43-year-old female complains of a several-month history of unpleasant sensations in her legs and an urge to move her legs. These symptoms only occur at night and improve when she gets up and stretches. The sensations often awaken her, and she feels very tired. She has no other medical problems and takes no medication. Laboratory tests reveal a serum calcium level of 8.9 mg/dL (N 8.5-10.5), a serum potassium level of 4.1 mmol/L (N 3.5-5.0), a serum ferritin level of 15 ng/mL (N 10-200), and a serum magnesium level of 1.5 mEq/L (N 1.4-2.0). Which one of the following may improve her symptoms? (check one) A. Iron supplementation B. Magnesium supplementation C. Antihistamines D. Stopping calcium supplementation E. Amitriptyline

A. Iron supplementation. This patient has restless legs syndrome, which includes unpleasant sensations in the legs and can cause sleep disturbances. The symptoms are relieved by movement. Recommendations for treatment include lower-body resistance training and avoiding or changing medications that may exacerbate symptoms (e.g., antihistamines, caffeine, SSRIs, tricyclic antidepressants, etc.). It is also recommended that patients with a serum ferritin level below 50 ng/mL take an iron supplement (SOR C). Magnesium supplementation does not improve restless legs syndrome. Ropinirole may be used if nonpharmacologic therapies are ineffective.

Which one of the following treatment regimens is most appropriate for an HIV-positive 42-year old who has latent tuberculosis infection? (check one) A. Isoniazid daily for 9 months B. Rifampin (Rifadin) daily for 4 months C. Rifampin plus pyrazinamide daily for 2 months D. Combination therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol (Myambutol) for 2 months

A. Isoniazid daily for 9 months. Latent tuberculosis infection carries a risk of progression to active disease, especially among patients who are immunosuppressed. Isoniazid monotherapy is the treatment of choice for most patients with latent tuberculosis infection. Rifampin is not recommended as monotherapy in patients with HIV infection because of increased rates of resistance and drug interactions with many antiretrovirals. Rifampin plus pyrazinamide is no longer recommended for treatment of latent tuberculosis infection because cases of significant hepatotoxicity have occurred with preventive therapy. Combination drug therapy is reserved for treatment of active tuberculosis in order to prevent drug resistance.

A 76-year-old white male with a history of recurrent depression has recently become more depressed and developed psychotic features. His symptoms have not responded to antidepressants and antipsychotic agents, prescribed by his psychiatrist. The psychiatrist has recommended electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) for the patient. The patient's family visits you to ask for your opinion and recommendations regarding ECT in this individual. In your consultation with this family, which one of the following would be accurate advice regarding ECT? (check one) A. It is efficacious and safe B. There is evidence that it injures the brain C. It causes irreversible short-term memory loss D. There is evidence that it predisposes to the development of dementia E. It has a low response rate

A. It is efficacious and safe. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) has a more than 60-year history of efficacy and safety for the treatment of severe depression. There has been no evidence of brain damage secondary to ECT. The most common side effect is reversible short-term memory loss. Dementia is not listed as a side effect. Response rates are generally in the 60%-90% range.

A 55-year-old white male sees you for follow-up after a recent lipid panel revealed no improvement in his hyperlipidemia. His total cholesterol level is 275 mg/dL, with an LDL-cholesterol level of 180 mg/dL, an HDL-cholesterol level of 35 mg/dL, and a triglyceride level of 275 mg/dL. These numbers are similar to two previous lipid panels obtained over the last several months, despite attempts at lifestyle changes. He has adequately treated essential hypertension, with a blood pressure of 125/83 mm Hg. There is no history of diabetes mellitus or tobacco use, and no family history of premature coronary heart disease. A physical examination is unremarkable except for a BMI of 33 kg/m2 and a waist circumference of 107 cm (42 in). His fasting blood glucose level is 107 mg/dL. After discussion with the patient, you decide to start prescription drug therapy. The initial target of this therapy should be to reach his goal level of (check one) A. LDL cholesterol B. HDL cholesterol C. non-HDL cholesterol D. triglycerides E. fasting blood glucose

A. LDL cholesterol. This patient meets the criteria for metabolic syndrome. In addition to lifestyle changes, pharmacologic treatment for his hyperlipidemia should be considered. The initial goal of this therapy should be to reach his LDL-cholesterol goal, usually using a statin. After achievement of this goal, non-HDL cholesterol is the secondary target for therapy. Non-HDL cholesterol is calculated by subtracting HDL cholesterol from total cholesterol. The non-HDL cholesterol goal is 30 mg/dL higher than the LDL-cholesterol goal.

Of the following, the INITIAL treatment of choice in the management of severe hypertension during pregnancy is: (check one) A. Labetalol (Trandate, Normodyne) intravenously B. Reserpine (Serpasil) intramuscularly C. Nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat) sublingually D. Enalapril (Vasotec) intravenously

A. Labetalol (Trandate, Normodyne) intravenously. In pregnant women with severe hypertension, the primary objective of treatment is to prevent cerebral complications such as encephalopathy and hemorrhage. Intravenous hydralazine, intravenous labetalol, or oral nifedipine may be used. Sublingual nifedipine can cause severe hypotension, and reserpine is not indicated. Nitroprusside can be used for short intervals in patients with hypertensive encephalopathy, but fetal cyanide toxicity is a risk with infusions lasting more than 4 hours. ACE inhibitors are never indicated for hypertensive therapy during pregnancy.

A 23-year-old gravida 1 para 0 at 36 weeks gestation presents to the office complaining of ankle swelling and headache for the past 2 days. She denies any abdominal pain or visual disturbances. On examination you note a fundal height of 35 cm, a fetal heart rate of 140 beats/min, 2+ lower extremity edema, and a blood pressure of 144/92 mm Hg. A urine dipstick shows 1+ proteinuria. A cervical examination reveals 2 cm dilation, 90% effacement, -1 station, and vertex presentation. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient? (check one) A. Laboratory evaluation, fetal testing, and 24-hour urine for total protein B. Ultrasonography to check for fetal intrauterine growth restriction C. Initiation of antihypertensive treatment D. Immediate induction of labor E. Immediate cesarean delivery

A. Laboratory evaluation, fetal testing, and 24-hour urine for total protein. This patient most likely has preeclampsia, which is defined as an elevated blood pressure and proteinuria after 20 weeks gestation. The patient needs further evaluation, including a 24-hour urine for quantitative measurement of protein, blood pressure monitoring, and laboratory evaluation that includes hemoglobin, hematocrit, a platelet count, and serum levels of transaminase, creatinine, albumin, LDH, and uric acid. A peripheral smear and coagulation profiles also may be obtained. Antepartum fetal testing, such as a nonstress test to assess fetal well-being, would also be appropriate. Ultrasonography should be done to assess for fetal intrauterine growth restriction, but only after an initial laboratory and fetal evaluation. Delivery is the definitive treatment for preeclampsia. The timing of delivery is determined by the gestational age of the fetus and the severity of preeclampsia in the mother. Vaginal delivery is preferred over cesarean delivery, if possible, in patients with preeclampsia. It is not necessary to start this patient on antihypertensive therapy at this point. An obstetric consultation should be considered for patients with preeclampsia.

A 50-year-old male who is a heavy smoker asks you about vitamin supplementation to prevent cancer and cardiovascular disease. The patient is unwilling to stop smoking. According to the 2003 recommendations of the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, which one of the following is true regarding vitamin supplementation in adults who are middle-age or older? (check one) A. Large supplemental doses of ~17beta-carotene may increase the risk of lung cancer in heavy smokers B. Beta-carotene supplementation decreases the risk of cardiovascular disease and cancer in nonsmokers C. Supplementation with vitamins A, C, and E plus folic acid decreases the risk of cardiovascular disease D. Supplementation with antioxidant combination vitamins plus folic acid decreases the risk of cancer

A. Large supplemental doses of ~17beta-carotene may increase the risk of lung cancer in heavy smokers. The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force found that beta-carotene supplementation provides no benefit in the prevention of cancer in middle-aged and older adults. In two trials limited to heavy smokers, supplementation with beta-carotene was associated with a higher incidence of lung cancer and all-cause mortality. In general, little evidence was found to determine whether supplementation of any of the mentioned vitamins reduces the risk of cardiovascular disease or cancer.

Which one of the following is a major advantage of second-generation (atypical) antipsychotics compared with first-generation antipsychotics? (check one) A. Less tardive dyskinesia B. Less monitoring for major side effects C. The availability of depot (intramuscular) formulations D. Lower cost E. Simpler dosing schedules

A. Less tardive dyskinesia. A recent expert consensus panel endorsed the use of second-generation antipsychotics rather than first-generation drugs. Tardive dyskinesia is much less common with the use of second-generation antipsychotics. Several of the second-generation drugs require monitoring for major side effects, however. For example, clozapine, shown by studies to be the most efficacious of the new class, causes granulocytopenia or agranulocytosis, requiring weekly and later biweekly monitoring of blood counts. Both classes have depot formulations for intramuscular administration every 2-4 weeks. Oral dosing of drugs from both classes varies from 1 to 3 times daily. First-generation antipsychotics cost less than second-generation drugs.

A 69-year-old female presents with postmenopausal bleeding. You consider whether to begin your evaluation with vaginal probe ultrasonography to assess the thickness of her endometrium. In evaluating the usefulness of this test to either support or exclude a diagnosis of endometrial cancer, which one of the following statistics is most useful? (check one) A. Likelihood ratio B. Number needed to treat C. Prevalence D. Incidence E. Relative risk

A. Likelihood ratio. There has been a large increase in the number of diagnostic tests available over the past 20 years. Although tests may aid in supporting or excluding a diagnosis, they are associated with expense and the potential for harm. In addition, the characteristics of a particular test and how the results will affect management and outcomes must be considered. The statistics that are clinically useful for evaluating diagnostic tests include the positive predictive value, negative predictive value, and likelihood ratios. Likelihood ratios indicate how a positive or negative test correlates with the likelihood of disease. Ratios greater than 5-10 greatly increase the likelihood of disease, and those less than 0.1-0.2 greatly decrease it. In the example given, if the patient's endometrial stripe is >25 mm, the likelihood ratio is 15.2 and her post-test probability of endometrial cancer is 63%. However, if it is ≤ 4 mm, the likelihood ratio is 0.02 and her post-test probability of endometrial cancer is 0.2%. The number needed to treat is useful for evaluating data regarding treatments, not diagnosis. Prevalence is the existence of a disease in the current population, and incidence describes the occurrence of new cases of disease in a population over a defined time period. The relative risk is the risk of an event in the experimental group versus the control group in a clinical trial.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 42 ======================================================= Which one of the following is NOT considered a first-line treatment for head lice? (check one) A. Lindane 1% B. Malathion 0.5% (Ovide) C. Permethrin 1% (Nix) D. Pyrethrins 0.33%/pipernyl butoxide 4% (RID)

A. Lindane 1%. Lindane's efficacy has waned over the years and it is inconsistently ovicidal. Because of its neurotoxicity, lindane carries a black box warning and is specifically recommended only as second-line treatment by the FDA. Pyrethroid resistance is widespread, but permethrin is still considered to be a first-line treatment because of its favorable safety profile. The efficacy of malathion is attributed to its triple action with isopropyl alcohol and terpineol, likely making this a resistance-breaking formulation. The probability of simultaneously developing resistance to all three substances is small. Malathion is both ovicidal and pediculicidal.

======================================================= Endocrine Board Review Questions 01 ======================================================= A 49-year-old female who takes multiple medications has a chemistry profile as part of her routine monitoring. She is found to have an elevated calcium level. All other values on the profile are normal, and the patient is not currently symptomatic. Follow-up testing reveals a serum calcium level of 11.2 mg/dL (N 8.4-10.2) and an intact parathyroid hormone level of 80 pg/mL (N 10-65). Which one of the following should be discontinued for 3 months before repeat laboratory evaluation and treatment? (check one) A. Lithium B. Furosemide (Lasix) C. Raloxifene (Evista) D. Calcium carbonate E. Vitamin D

A. Lithium. Lithium therapy can elevate calcium levels by elevating parathyroid hormone secretion from the parathyroid gland. This duplicates the laboratory findings seen with mild primary hyperparathyroidism. If possible, lithium should be discontinued for 3 months before reevaluation (SOR C). This is most important for avoiding unnecessary parathyroid surgery. Vitamin D and calcium supplementation could contribute to hypercalcemia in rare instances, but they would not cause elevation of parathyroid hormone. Raloxifene has actually been shown to mildly reduce elevated calcium levels, and furosemide is used with saline infusions to lower significantly elevated calcium levels.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 66 ======================================================= A 14-year-old female sees you for follow-up after hypercalcemia is found on a chemistry profile obtained during a 5-day episode of vomiting and diarrhea. She is now asymptomatic, but her serum calcium level at this visit is 11.0 mg/dL (N 8.5-10.5). Her aunt underwent unsuccessful parathyroid surgery for hypercalcemia a few years ago. Which one of the following laboratory findings would suggest a diagnosis other than primary hyperparathyroidism? (check one) A. Low 24-hour urine calcium B. Decreased serum phosphate C. High-normal to increased serum chloride D. Elevated alkaline phosphatase E. Elevated parathyroid hormone

A. Low 24-hour urine calcium. Low urine 24-hour calcium levels or a low urine calcium to urine creatinine ratio is not characteristic of hyperparathyroidism. This finding should suggest familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia (SOR C). Awareness of this condition is important to avoid unnecessary surgery. The parathyroid hormone level may be mildly elevated. Parathyroid hormone is elevated in hyperparathyroidism. Serum chloride tends to be high normal or mildly elevated. Alkaline phosphatase may be elevated in more severe cases, while serum phosphate levels tend to be low.

A 70-year-old male complains of lower-extremity pain. Increased pain with which one of the following would be most consistent with lumbar spinal stenosis? (check one) A. Lumbar spine extension B. Lumbar spine flexion C. Internal hip rotation D. Pressure against the lateral hip and trochanter E. Walking uphill

A. Lumbar spine extension. Extension that increases lumbar lordosis decreases the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal, thereby compressing the spinal cord further. Walking downhill can cause this. Spinal flexion that decreases lordosis has the opposite effect, and will usually improve the pain, as will sitting. Pain with internal hip rotation is characteristic of hip arthritis and is often felt in the groin. Pain in the lateral hip is more typical of trochanteric bursitis. Increased pain walking uphill is more typical of vascular claudication.

Which one of the following agents used for tocolysis has the unique adverse effect of respiratory depression? (check one) A. Magnesium sulfate B. Ritodrine (Yutopar) C. Terbutaline (Brethine, Bricanyl) D. Indomethacin (Indocin) E. Nifedipine (Adalat, Procardia)

A. Magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate infusions must be carefully monitored because respiratory depression is a potential lethal side effect. Reflexes are usually lost first. Terbutaline and ritodrine have the potential to cause respiratory distress in the form of pulmonary edema. They do not cause respiratory depression. Indomethacin and nifedipine are rarely used tocolytics that do not depress respiration.

Information derived from which one of the following provides the best evidence when selecting a specific treatment plan for a patient? (check one) A. Meta-analysis B. Prospective cohort studies C. Expert opinion D. Consensus guidelines

A. Meta-analysis. In general, the strongest evidence for treatment, screening, or prevention strategies is found in systematic reviews, meta-analyses, randomized controlled trials (RCTs) with consistent findings, or a single high-quality RCT. Second-tier levels of evidence would be poorer quality RCTs with inconsistent findings, cohort studies, or case-control studies. The lowest quality of evidence would come from such sources as expert opinion, consensus guidelines, or usual practice recommendations.

An overweight 11-year-old male with acanthosis nigricans is found to have a fasting plasma glucose level of 175 mg/dL on two occasions. Over the next 6 months, despite reasonable adherence to a diet and exercise regimen, he has preprandial and bedtime finger-stick blood glucose levels that average 180 mg/dL. His hemoglobin A1c is 9.0%. Which one of the following oral agents would be most appropriate at this time? (check one) A. Metformin (Glucophage) B. Glyburide (DiaBeta) C. Sitagliptin (Januvia) D. Pioglitazone (Actos) E. Acarbose (Precose)

A. Metformin (Glucophage). Metformin and insulin are the only agents approved for treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus in children.

Which one of the following most increases insulin sensitivity in an overweight patient with diabetes mellitus? (check one) A. Metformin (Glucophage) B. Acarbose (Precose) C. Glyburide (DiaBeta, Micronase) D. NPH insulin

A. Metformin (Glucophage). Metformin increases insulin sensitivity much more than sulfonylureas or insulin. This means lower insulin levels achieve the same level of glycemic control, and may be one reason that weight changes are less likely to be seen in diabetic patients on metformin. Acarbose is an α-glucosidase inhibitor that delays glucose absorption.

A 55-year-old female with diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia presents to your office for routine follow-up. Her serum creatinine level is 1.5 mg/dL (estimated creatinine clearance 50 mL/min). Which one of the following diabetes medications would be contraindicated in this patient? (check one) A. Metformin (Glucophage) B. Exenatide (Byetta) C. Acarbose (Precose) D. Insulin glargine (Lantus) E. Pioglitazone (Actos)

A. Metformin (Glucophage). Metformin is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease. It should be stopped in females with a creatinine level ≥1.4 mg/dL and in males with a creatinine level ≥1.5 mg/dL. Pioglitazone should not be used in patients with hepatic disease. Acarbose should be avoided in patients with cirrhosis or a creatinine level >2.0 mg/dL. Exenatide is not recommended in patients with a creatinine clearance <30 mL/min. Insulin glargine can be used in patients with renal disease at any stage, but the dosage may need to be decreased.

A 55-year-old white male sees you for a routine annual visit. His fasting blood glucose level is 187 mg/dL. Repeat testing 1 week later reveals a fasting glucose level of 155 mg/dL and an HbA1c of 9.4%. His BMI is 30 kg/m2. He does not seem to have any symptoms of diabetes mellitus. In addition to lifestyle changes, which one of the following would you prescribe initially? (check one) A. Metformin (Glucophage) B. Glyburide (DiaBeta, Micronase) C. Poiglitazone (Actos) D. Bedtime long-acting insulin (Lantus, Levamir) E. Bedtime long-acting insulin and rapid-acting insulin (NovoLog, Humalog) with each meal

A. Metformin (Glucophage). Metformin is widely accepted as the first-line drug for type 2 diabetes mellitus. It is relatively effective, safe, and inexpensive, and has been used widely for many years. Unlike other oral hypoglycemics and insulin, it does not cause weight gain. It should be started at the same time as lifestyle modifications, rather than waiting to see if a diet and exercise regimen alone will work. If metformin is not effective, a sulfonylurea, a thiazolidinedione, or insulin can be added, with the choice based on the severity of the hyperglycemia.

A 25-year-old female has been trying to conceive for over 1 year without success. Her menstrual periods occur approximately six times per year. Laboratory evaluation of her hormone status has been negative, and her husband has a normal semen analysis. Her only other medical problem is hirsutism, which has not responded to topical treatment. Pelvic ultrasonography of her uterus and ovaries is unremarkable. Of the following, which one would be the most appropriate treatment for her infertility? (check one) A. Metformin (Glucophage) B. Danazol C. Medroxyprogesterone (Provera) D. Spironolactone (Aldactone)

A. Metformin (Glucophage). This patient fits the criteria for polycystic ovary syndrome (oligomenorrhea, acne, hirsutism, hyperandrogenism, infertility). Symptoms also include insulin resistance. Evidence of polycystic ovaries is not required for the diagnosis. Metformin has the most evidence supporting its use in this situation, and is the only treatment listed that is likely to decrease hirsutism and improve insulin resistance and menstrual irregularities. Metformin and clomiphene alone or in combination are first-line agents for ovulation induction. Clomiphene does not improve hirsutism, however. Progesterone is not indicated for any of this patient's problems. Spironolactone will improve hirsutism and menstrual irregularities, but is not indicated for ovulation induction.

A 40-year-old obese African-American male presents with a history of excessive daytime drowsiness. He readily falls asleep when reading or watching television. He admits to nearly crashing his car twice in the past month because he briefly fell asleep behind the wheel. Most frightening to the patient have been episodes characterized by sudden loss of muscle tone, lasting about 1 minute, associated with laughing. An overnight sleep study shows decreased sleep latency and no evidence of obstructive sleep apnea. Appropriate treatment includes which one of the following? (check one) A. Methylphenidate (Ritalin) B. Zolpidem (Ambien) at bedtime C. Carbidopa/levodopa (Sinemet) D. Weight reduction E. Avoidance of daytime napping

A. Methylphenidate (Ritalin). The clinical history and laboratory findings presented are consistent with a diagnosis of narcolepsy. Methylphenidate and other stimulant drugs remain the pharmacologic agents of choice in managing this disorder. Since there is no evidence of obstructive sleep apnea, weight reduction would not be expected to address his sleep problem. In general, sedatives, hypnotics, and alcohol should be avoided. Periodic daytime naps may help to reduce symptoms.

A 60-year-old right-handed white male arrives in the emergency department with symptoms and signs consistent with a stroke. His past medical history is significant for tobacco abuse and chronic treated hypertension. He is alert and afebrile. His pulse rate is 100 beats/min, respirations 20/min, and blood pressure 190/95 mm Hg. He has a moderate right-sided hemiparesis and is aphasic. There are no other significant physical findings. While appropriate tests are being ordered, immediate management in the emergency department should include which one of the following? (check one) A. Monitoring oxygenation status with pulse oximetry B. Prompt lowering of systolic blood pressure to <140 mm Hg C. Beginning an intravenous heparin infusion D. Restricting fluid intake to 75 cc/hr E. Giving parenteral corticosteroids

A. Monitoring oxygenation status with pulse oximetry. Maintaining adequate tissue oxygenation is an important component of the emergency management of stroke. Hypoxia leads to anaerobic metabolism and depletion of energy stores, increasing brain injury. While there is no reason to routinely administer supplemental oxygen, the potential need for oxygen should be assessed using pulse oximetry or blood gas measurement. Overzealous use of antihypertensive drugs is contraindicated, since this can further reduce cerebral perfusion. In general, these drugs should not be used unless mean blood pressure is >130 mm Hg or systolic blood pressure is >220 mm Hg. Antithrombotic drugs such as heparin must be used with caution, and only after intracerebral hemorrhage has been ruled out by baseline CT followed by repeat CT within 48-72 hours. Hypovolemia can exacerbate cerebral hypoperfusion, so there is no need to restrict fluid intake. Optimization of cardiac output is a high priority in the immediate hours after a stroke. Based on data from randomized clinical trials, corticosteroids are not recommended for the management of cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure after a stroke.

You are caring for a 70-year-old male with widespread metastatic prostate cancer. Surgery, radiation, and hormonal therapy have failed to stop the cancer, and the goal of his care is now symptom relief. He is being cared for through a local hospice. Over the past few days he has been experiencing respiratory distress. His oxygen saturation is 94% on room air and his lungs are clear to auscultation. His respiratory rate is 16/min. Which one of the following would be best at this point? (check one) A. Morphine B. Oxygen C. Albuterol (Proventil, Ventolin) D. Haloperidol

A. Morphine. Dyspnea is a frequent and distressing symptom in terminally ill patients. In the absence of hypoxia, oxygen is not likely to be helpful. Opiates are the mainstay of symptomatic treatment.

A 35-year-old female is planning a second pregnancy. Her last pregnancy was complicated by placental abruption caused by a large fibroid tumor of the uterus, which is still present. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for the fibroid tumor? (check one) A. Myomectomy B. Myolysis with endometrial ablation C. Uterine artery embolization D. Observation

A. Myomectomy. There are numerous options for the treatment of uterine fibroids. When pregnancy is desired, myomectomy offers the best chance for a successful pregnancy when prior pregnancies have been marked by fibroid-related complications. Endometrial ablation eliminates fertility, and there is a lack of long-term data on fertility after uterine artery embolization. Observation without treatment would not remove the risk for recurrent complications during subsequent pregnancies.

A 45-year-old male asks about using nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) to help him quit smoking. You tell him that recent evidence shows that (check one) A. NRT usually doubles a smokers chance of quitting B. NRT must be tapered off C. NRT should be used for at least 6 months to be effective D. nicotine patches are the most effective form of NRT E. using combinations of NRT reduces the likelihood that a relapsed smoker will quit

A. NRT usually doubles a smokers chance of quitting. A Cochrane meta-analysis of nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) found that it almost doubles a smokers chances of quitting (SOR A). There was no benefit to tapering NRT as compared to abrupt discontinuation. Treatment for 8 weeks was as effective as a longer course. No one type of NRT is significantly more effective, but combining several types may aid a relapsed smoker in his or her next quit attempt.

A 25-year-old male presents to your office with a 1-week history of neck pain with radiation to the left hand, along with intermittent numbness and tingling in the left arm. His history is negative for injury, fever, or lower extremity symptoms. Extension and rotation of the neck to the left while pressing down on the head (Spurling's maneuver) exacerbates the symptoms. His examination is otherwise normal. Cervical radiographs are negative. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. NSAIDs for pain relief B. A trial of tricyclic antidepressants C. Cervical corticosteroid injection D. Cervical MRI E. Referral to a spine subspecialist

A. NSAIDs for pain relief. Patients who present with acute cervical radiculopathy and normal radiographs can be treated conservatively. The vast majority of patients with cervical radiculopathy improve without surgery. Of the interventions listed, NSAIDs are the initial treatment of choice. Tricyclic antidepressants, as well as tramadol and venlafaxine, have been shown to help with chronic neuropathic pain. Cervical MRI is not indicated unless there are progressive neurologic defects or red flags such as fever or myelopathy. Likewise, referral to a subspecialist should be reserved for patients who have persistent pain after 6-8 weeks of conservative management and for those with signs of instability. Cervical corticosteroid injections have been found to be helpful in the management of cervical radiculopathy, but should not be administered before MRI is performed (SOR C).

Which one of the following is the most likely cause of chronic unilateral nasal obstruction in an adult? (check one) A. Nasal septal deviation B. Foreign-body impaction C. Allergic rhinitis D. Adenoidal hypertrophy

A. Nasal septal deviation. The most common cause of nasal obstruction in all age groups is the common cold, which is classified as mucosal disease. Anatomic abnormalities, however, are the most frequent cause of constant unilateral obstruction, with septal deviation being most common. Foreign-body impaction is an important, but infrequent, cause of unilateral obstruction and purulent rhinorrhea. Mucosal disease is usually bilateral and intermittent. Adenoidal hypertrophy is the most common tumor or growth to cause nasal obstruction, followed by nasal polyps, but both are less frequent than true anatomic causes of constant obstruction.

======================================================= Respiratory Board Review Questions 04 ======================================================= In adults, which one of the following is the most likely cause of chronic, unilateral nasal obstruction? (check one) A. Nasal septal deviation B. Foreign body impaction C. Allergic rhinitis D. Adenoidal hypertrophy

A. Nasal septal deviation. The most common cause of nasal obstruction in all age groups is the common cold, which is classified as mucosal disease. Anatomic abnormalities, however, are the most frequent cause of constant unilateral obstruction. Of these, septal deviation is the most common. Foreign body impaction is an important, but infrequent, cause of unilateral obstruction and purulent rhinorrhea. Mucosal disease is usually bilateral and intermittent. Adenoidal hypertrophy is the most common tumor or growth to cause nasal obstruction, followed by nasal polyps, but both are less frequent than true anatomic causes of constant obstruction.

Children of an elderly man who suffers from Alzheimer's disease are bothered by his wandering and pacing behaviors. You have started treatment with a cholinesterase inhibitor, but the behavior persists. They ask you to prescribe additional drug therapy. You would recommend which one of the following? (check one) A. No additional drug therapy B. Risperidone (Risperdal) C. Citalopram (Celexa) D. Lorazepam (Ativan) E. Valproic acid (Depakote)

A. No additional drug therapy. Behavioral symptoms such as agitation and wandering become common as Alzheimer's disease progresses. Cholinesterase inhibitors may improve some of these symptoms. If they persist, use of a psychotropic agent may be necessary. Atypical agents can help control problematic delusions, hallucinations, severe psychomotor agitation, and combativeness. Typical agents help control these same problems, but are used more as second-line therapy in those who do not respond to atypical agents. Mood-stabilizing drugs can help control these symptoms as well, and may also be useful alternatives to antipsychotic agents for controlling severe agitated, repetitive, and combative behaviors. Benzodiazepines are used to manage insomnia, anxiety and agitation. Some behaviors, such as wandering and pacing, are not amenable to drug therapy.

You see a 17-year-old white female who has recently become sexually active. She requests oral contraceptives and you perform a brief evaluation, including blood pressure measurement. A pregnancy test is negative. She is resistant to further evaluation unless it is necessary. In addition to appropriate counseling, which one of the following should be done before prescribing oral contraceptives? (check one) A. No further evaluation at this visit unless indicated by history B. A pelvic examination and Papanicolaou test C. Screening for sexually transmitted diseases D. A breast examination

A. No further evaluation at this visit unless indicated by history. Policy statements from major organizations based on reviews of relevant medical literature support the practice of prescribing initial hormonal contraception after performing only a careful review of the medical history plus measurement of blood pressure. Requiring that patients undergo pelvic and breast examinations leads many young women to avoid this most reliable method of contraception, resulting in a much higher rate of unwanted pregnancy. Follow-up blood pressure measurements are important. Often, younger women will be willing to undergo Papanicolaou (Pap) tests and STD screening later, and periodic follow-up must be scheduled. Sexually active adolescents should have annual screening for cervical cancer and sexually transmitted diseases, but these are not necessary before prescribing oral contraceptives. The longest period of time a prescription should be given without a Pap test is 1 year, but this restriction is under study. Obviously, any history indicative of high risk would modify this approach.

A 78-year-old Hispanic male comes to see you after attending a health fair. He is concerned because he had a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level of 5.0 ng/mL (N 0.0-4.0). He has never had his PSA checked before. His medical history is significant for class IV heart failure treated with furosemide (Lasix), enalapril (Vasotec), carvedilol (Coreg), digoxin, and spironolactone (Aldactone). His review of systems is positive for longstanding nocturia and gradually worsening weakness of the urinary stream. His physical examination is noteworthy for bibasilar rales, an S3 gallop, and moderate lower extremity edema. His prostate is diffusely large and smooth. His urinalysis is unremarkable. Which one of the following is the most appropriate management for his elevated PSA? (check one) A. No intervention B. Repeat testing after a course of antibiotics C. Referral for a CT scan or MRI of the pelvis D. Referral for prostate ultrasonography and biopsy

A. No intervention. The patient described has a life expectancy that makes the risk-benefit ratio for the detection of asymptomatic prostate cancer extremely unfavorable. In addition, a mildly elevated PSA in a 78-year-old with a large prostate is most likely due to benign prostatic hypertrophy.

A 5-year-old male is scheduled for elective hernia repair at 11:00 a.m. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate recommendation? (check one) A. No solid food for 8 hours prior to surgery and clear liquids until 2 hours prior to surgery B. No solid food 4 hours prior to surgery and clear liquids until 2 hours prior to surgery C. No solid food after midnight and nothing by mouth 8 hours prior to surgery D. Nothing by mouth 2 hours prior to surgery E. Nothing by mouth 8 hours prior to surgery

A. No solid food for 8 hours prior to surgery and clear liquids until 2 hours prior to surgery. Recent American Society of Anesthesiologists guidelines recommend the following restrictions on diet prior to surgery for pediatric patients: 8 hours for solid food, 6 hours for formula, 4 hours for breast milk, and 2 hours for clear liquids. These changes have resulted in decreased numbers of canceled cases and pediatric patients who are less irritable preoperatively and less dehydrated at the time of anesthesia induction.

A previously healthy 60-year-old male is diagnosed with multiple myeloma after a workup for an incidental finding on routine laboratory work. He has no identified organ or tissue damage and is asymptomatic. Which one of the following would be appropriate treatment of this patient's condition? (check one) A. No treatment B. Chemotherapy C. Autologous stem cell transplantation D. Radiation

A. No treatment. This patient has smoldering (asymptomatic) multiple myeloma. He does not have any organ or tissue damage related to this disease and has no symptoms. Early treatment of these patients does not improve mortality (SOR A) and may increase the likelihood of developing acute leukemia. The standard treatment for symptomatic patients under age 65 is autologous stem cell transplantation. Patients over 65 who are healthy enough to undergo transplantation would also be appropriate candidates. Patients who are not candidates for autologous stem cell transplantation generally receive melphalan and prednisolone with or without thalidomide. Radiotherapy can be used to relieve metastatic bone pain or spinal cord compression.

A 55-year-old white female presents with redness at the scar from a lumpectomy performed for stage I cancer of her right breast 4 months ago. The patient has completed radiation treatments to the breast. She is afebrile and there is no axillary adenopathy. There is no wound drainage, crepitance, or bullous lesions. Which one of the following organisms would be the most likely cause of cellulitis in this patient? (check one) A. Non-group A Streptococcus B. Pneumococcus pneumoniae C. Clostridium perfringens D. Escherichia coli E. Pasteurella multocida

A. Non-group A Streptococcus. Cellulitis in patients after breast lumpectomy is thought to be related to lymphedema. Axillary dissection and radiation predispose to these infections. Non-group A hemolytic Streptococcus is the most common organism associated with this infection. The onset is often several weeks to several months after surgery. Pneumococcus is more frequently a cause of periorbital cellulitis. It is also seen in patients who have bacteremia with immunocompromised status. Immunocompromising conditions would include diabetes mellitus, alcoholism, lupus, nephritic syndrome, and some hematologic cancers. Clostridium and Escherichia coli are more frequently associated with crepitant cellulitis and tissue necrosis. Pasteurella multocida cellulitis is most frequently associated with animal bites, especially cat bites.

======================================================= Psychogenic Board Review Questions 03 ======================================================= The mother of a 3-year-old male is concerned that he doesn't like being held, doesn't interact much with other children, and rarely smiles. Of the following, which feature would be most helpful in distinguishing Asperger's syndrome from autism in this patient? (check one) A. Normal language development B. Delayed gross motor development C. Repetitive fine motor mannerisms D. Preoccupation with parts of objects E. Focused patterns of intense interest

A. Normal language development. The DSM-IV categorizes Asperger's syndrome and autism as pervasive developmental disorders. In both conditions, children have significant difficulties with social interactions, although the impairment is more severe and sustained in autism. Both Asperger's and autism may be associated with symptoms of repetitive motor mannerisms, restricted patterns of interest (which are abnormal in focus or intensity), or preoccupation with parts of objects. However, unlike children with Asperger's syndrome, autistic children have serious problems with communication skills, either in the development of speech itself or in the ability to carry on a conversation. Normal, age-appropriate language skills in a 3-year-old would rule out a diagnosis of autism. It is an important distinction to make, as the prognosis for independent functioning in children with Asperger's syndrome is significantly better than in children with autism.

During a comprehensive health evaluation a 65-year-old African-American male reports mild, very tolerable symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia, rated as a score of 7 on the American Urological Association Symptom Index. He has never smoked, and his medical history is otherwise unremarkable. Objective findings include an enlarged prostate that is firm and nontender, with no nodules. A urinalysis is normal and his prostate-specific antigen level is 1.8ng/mL. Based on current evidence, which one of the following treatment options is most appropriate at this time? (check one) A. Observation, with repeat evaluation in 1 year B. Saw palmetto C. An α-receptor antagonist D. A 5-α-reductase inhibitor E. Urologic referral for transurethral resection of the prostate

A. Observation, with repeat evaluation in 1 year. Watchful waiting with annual follow-up is appropriate for men with mild benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels correlate with prostate volume, which may affect the treatment of choice, if indicated (SOR C). PSA levels >2.0 ng/mL for men in their 60s correlate with a prostatic volume >40 mL. This patient's PSA falls below this level. In men with a prostatic volume >40 mL, 5 -reductase inhibitors should be considered for treatment (SOR A). -Blockers provide symptomatic relief in men whose disease has progressed to the point that they have moderate to severe BPH symptoms (SOR A). A recent high-quality, randomized, controlled trial found no benefit from saw palmetto with regard to symptom relief or urinary flow after 1 year of therapy. The American Urological Association does not recommend the use of phytotherapy for BPH. Surgical consultation is appropriate when medical therapy fails or the patient develops refractory urinary retention, persistent hematuria, or bladder stones.

You see a 5-year-old white female with in-toeing due to excessive femoral anteversion. She is otherwise normal and healthy, and her mobility is unimpaired. Her parents are greatly concerned with the cosmetic appearance and possible future disability, and request that she be treated. You recommend which one of the following? (check one) A. Observation B. Medial shoe wedges C. Torque heels D. Sleeping in a Denis Browne splint for 6 months E. Derotational osteotomy of the femur

A. Observation. There is little evidence that femoral anteversion causes long-term functional problems. Studies have shown that shoe wedges, torque heels, and twister cable splints are not effective. Surgery should be reserved for children 8-10 years of age who still have cosmetically unacceptable, dysfunctional gaits. Major complications of surgery occur in approximately 15% of cases, and can include residual in-toeing, out-toeing, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, osteomyelitis, fracture, valgus deformity, and loss of position. Thus, observation alone is appropriate treatment for a 5-year-old with uncomplicated anteversion.

A 15-year-old male presents for a routine evaluation. He has no complaints. He has a BMI of 30 kg/m2, which places him in the 97th percentile for his age. The remainder of his examination is normal; however, a random blood glucose level is 162 mg/dL. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step for this patient? (check one) A. Obtain a fasting blood glucose level B. Start metformin (Glucophage), 500 mg daily, and follow up in 4 weeks C. Order a hemoglobin A1c level D. Advise the patient to start a weight-loss program and follow up in 4 weeks

A. Obtain a fasting blood glucose level. This patient should have further testing for diabetes mellitus. Current recommendations for diagnosing diabetes mellitus are based on either a fasting glucose level or a 2-hour 75-g oral glucose tolerance test. A casual blood glucose level >200 mg/dL is also diagnostic of diabetes mellitus in patients with symptoms of hyperglycemia. If unequivocal hyperglycemia is not present, the diagnosis must be confirmed by testing on another day. Metformin can be used to treat diabetes mellitus in adolescents, but it is not recommended for prevention in this age group. A diagnosis of diabetes mellitus should be established prior to starting metformin. Current recommendations for treating adolescents with type 2 diabetes mellitus include weight loss through dietary modification and exercise.

A 30-year-old white male visits your clinic after being in a bar fight. He describes hitting another man in the mouth with his closed fist. He reports a painful distal fifth metacarpal with a superficial abrasion. After assessing tetanus status and copiously irrigating the wound, you should do which one of the following? (check one) A. Obtain a radiograph and give prophylactic antibiotics B. Obtain a radiograph only C. Give prophylactic antibiotics only D. Probe the abrasion

A. Obtain a radiograph and give prophylactic antibiotics. This presentation is consistent with a common injury called a "fight bite." Radiographs are needed to determine if there is a distal metacarpal fracture so that it can be treated appropriately. Because human bites commonly cause infection, prophylactic antibiotics are recommended with any break in the skin. If the skin break is superficial, this is sufficient. Deeper wounds should be explored by a surgeon, but superficial wounds should not be probed indiscriminately.

A 40-year-old nurse presents with a 1-year history of rhinitis, and a more recent onset of episodic wheezing and dyspnea. Her symptoms seem to improve when she is on vacation. She does not smoke, although she says that her husband does. Her FEV1 improves 20% with inhaled β-agonists. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Occupational asthma B. Sarcoidosis C. COPD D. Anxiety E. Vocal cord dysfunction

A. Occupational asthma. Occupational asthma merits special consideration in all cases of new adult asthma or recurrence of childhood asthma after a significant asymptomatic period (SOR C). Occupational asthma is often preceded by the development of rhinitis in the workplace and should be considered in patients whose symptoms improve away from work. Reversibility with β-agonist use makes COPD less likely, in addition to the fact that the patient is a nonsmoker. Cystic fibrosis is not a likely diagnosis in a patient this age with a long history of being asymptomatic. Sarcoidosis would be less likely to cause reversible airway obstruction and intermittent symptoms. Vocal cord dysfunction would not be expected to respond to bronchodilators.

A 7-year-old African-American male is brought to your office with a 1-day history of purulent, crusted eyelashes in the morning, and red eye. There is no history of visual change, foreign body, or injury. The child is otherwise in good health and has normal developmental milestones. No fever or respiratory distress is noted. A clinical diagnosis of bacterial conjunctivitis is made. The mother is anxious to keep the child in school. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate time for the child to return to school? (check one) A. Once treatment is started B. When there is no crusting or drainage in the morning C. After 1 week of treatment D. When the absence of fever for 24 hours is documented E. When there is resolution of conjunctival erythema

A. Once treatment is started. Once therapy is initiated, children with bacterial conjunctivitis should be allowed to remain in school. Careful hand hygiene is important, however, and behavior must be appropriate to maintain adequate hygiene. No specific length of treatment or evidence of clinical response is required before returning to school. Reference: Pickering LK (ed): Red Book: 2006 Report of the Committee on Infectious Diseases, ed 27. American Academy of Pediatrics, 2006, p 149.

A 72-year-old male presents with unintentional weight loss of 25 lb over the last 6 months. His history, including a nutritional assessment, is unremarkable, as is his physical examination. His current medications include mirtazapine (Remeron) for depression and hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension.Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step? (check one) A. Order a CBC, chemistry panel, stool for occult blood, and TSH B. Refer for immediate colonoscopy and esophagogastroduodenoscopy C. Schedule CT of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis D. Start megestrol (Megace) to promote weight gain E. Discontinue mirtazapine

A. Order a CBC, chemistry panel, stool for occult blood, and TSH. There should be a rational approach to evaluating weight loss in an elderly patient. The workup should be directed by findings in the history and physical examination, with special emphasis given to neurologic and psychosocial aspects. Unless the history or physical examination point in a specific direction, standard tests should be performed first, including a CBC, chemistry panel, stool for occult blood, and TSH level. Although the etiology of unintentional weight loss in the elderly is malignancy in 16%-36% of such cases, specific tests are not indicated before CT. Medications, including SSRIs, NSAIDs, bupropion, digoxin, and metformin can cause weight loss; however, tricyclics often lead to weight gain. Mirtazapine has been shown to increase appetite and promote weight gain. Megestrol has been used successfully to treat cachexia in patients with AIDS or cancer. When given in a dosage of at least 320 mg/day, megestrol has produced weight gain, but side effects of edema, constipation, and delirium may limit its usefulness. Lower dosages may be effective for stimulating weight gain in frail elderly patients, although this approach needs to be tested in randomized, controlled trials. In the patient described, a workup seeking the etiology of the weight loss should begin promptly.

A 24-year-old male presents with a fever of 38.9°C (102.0°F), generalized body aches, a sore throat, and a cough. His symptoms started 24 hours ago. He is otherwise healthy. You suspect novel influenza A H1N1 infection, as there have been numerous cases in your community recently. A rapid influenza diagnostic test is positive, and you recommend over-the-counter symptomatic treatment. You see him 2 days later after he is admitted to the hospital through the emergency department with dehydration and mild respiratory distress. A specimen is sent to the state laboratory for PCR testing. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) B. Zanamivir (Relenza) C. Amantadine (Symmetrel) D. Rimantadine (Flumadine) E. No antiviral treatment

A. Oseltamivir (Tamiflu). The currently circulating novel influenza A H1N1 virus is almost always susceptible to neuraminidase inhibitors (oseltamivir and zanamivir) and resistant to the adamantanes (amantadine and rimantadine). Zanamivir should not be used in patients with COPD, asthma, or respiratory distress. Antiviral treatment of influenza is recommended for all persons with clinical deterioration requiring hospitalization, even if the illness started more than 48 hours before admission. Antiviral treatment should be started as soon as possible. Waiting for laboratory confirmation is not recommended.

Which one of the following is true regarding PPD testing for tuberculosis? (check one) A. Patients who have converted within the past year should be treated, regardless of age B. In patients who previously received a BCG vaccination, the threshold for a positive test is 25 mm of induration C. Patients who test positive only on the second step of a two-step PPD test, given 2 weeks after the first test, are at high risk for development of active disease D. PPD testing is contraindicated in patients who are HIV positive

A. Patients who have converted within the past year should be treated, regardless of age. Because the risk of developing active disease is highest in patients within 2 years after conversion, recent converters should generally be treated regardless of age. BCG vaccination has a limited effect on PPD reactivity; tests should not be interpreted any differently in patients who have previously received BCG. The use of a two-step approach (i.e., retesting 1-4 weeks later in patients who initially test negative) is designed to decrease the false-negative rate of PPD testing. The significance of a positive result on either phase of the test is the same. Patients who are HIV positive are at higher risk for false-negative PPDs and active disease, but PPD testing is not contraindicated.

A 38-year-old day-care worker consults you for "a cold that won't go away." It began with a runny nose, malaise, and a slight temperature elevation up to 100°F (37.8°C). She notes that after 2 weeks she is now experiencing "coughing fits," which are sometimes so severe that she vomits. She has had no immunizations since her freshman year in college and does not smoke. On examination you note excessive lacrimation and conjunctival injection. Her lungs are clear. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Pertussis B. Rhinovirus infection C. Nonasthmatic eosinophilic bronchitis D. Cough-variant asthma E. Gastroesophageal reflux

A. Pertussis. Pertussis, once a common disease in infants, declined to around 1000 cases in 1976 as a result of widespread vaccination. The incidence began to rise again in the 1980s, possibly because the immunity from vaccination rarely lasts more than 12 years. The disease is characterized by a prodromal phase that lasts 1-2 weeks and is indistinguishable from a viral upper respiratory infection. It progresses to a more severe cough after the second week. The cough is paroxysmal and may be severe enough to cause vomiting or fracture ribs. Patients are rarely febrile, but may have increased lacrimation and conjunctival injection. The incubation period is long compared to a viral infection, usually 7-10 days. Nonasthmatic eosinophilic bronchitis, cough-variant asthma, and gastroesophageal reflux disease cause a severe cough not associated with a catarrhal phase. A rhinovirus infection would probably be resolving within 2-3 weeks.

The best available evidence supports which one of the following guidelines for discussing serious illnesses? (check one) A. Physicians should delay having a detailed discussion with the patient about the expected prognosis of cancer until staging is completed B. For patients who are ambivalent about knowing their prognosis, the discussion should focus on optimal potential outcomes and providing hope, even if this is unrealistic C. Physicians should delay discussions about palliative care until curative measures have failed D. Physicians should respect the family's wishes regarding how much information to share with the patient

A. Physicians should delay having a detailed discussion with the patient about the expected prognosis of cancer until staging is completed. It is best to discuss prognosis after accurate cancer staging, when specific details about survival rates will give a much clearer and more accurate picture. After assessing the patient's readiness to receive prognostic information, the physician should focus on communicating an accurate prognosis without giving a false sense of hope. Using simultaneous-care models, physicians can provide palliative and curative care at the same time. Physicians should initiate a discussion about the availability of coordinated, symptomdirected services such as palliative care early in the disease process; as the disease progresses, patients should transition from curative to palliative therapy. How much information to share with the patient depends on the physician's assessment of the patient's level of understanding about the disease and how much patients themselves want to know.

A 22-year-old female presents with lower right leg pain. She reports that it hurts when she presses her shin. She has been training for a marathon over the past 4 months and has increased her running frequency and distance. She now runs almost every day and is averaging approximately 40 miles per week. She has little pain while at rest, but the pain intensifies with weight bearing and ambulation. She initially thought the pain was from shin splints, but it has intensified this week and she has had to shorten her usual running distances due to worsening pain. On examination you note tenderness to palpation over the anterior aspect of her mid-tibia. She also has trace edema localized to the area of tenderness. Which one of the following imaging studies should be performed first? (check one) A. Plain radiographs B. CT C. MRI D. Ultrasonography E. Bone scintigraphy

A. Plain radiographs. The findings in this patient are consistent with a stress fracture. Plain radiographs should be the initial imaging modality because of availability and low cost (SOR C). These are usually negative initially, but are more likely to be positive over time. If the initial films are negative and the diagnosis is not urgently needed, a second plain radiograph can be performed in 2-3 weeks. Although CT is useful for evaluation of bone pathology, it is not commonly used as even second-line imaging for stress fractures, due to lower sensitivity and higher radiation exposure than other modalities. Triple-phase bone scintigraphy has a high sensitivity and was previously used as a second-line modality; however, MRI has equal or better sensitivity than scintigraphy and higher specificity. MRI is now recommended as the second-line imaging modality when plain radiographs are negative and clinical suspicion of stress fracture persists (SOR C). Musculoskeletal ultrasonography has the advantage of low cost with no radiation exposure, but additional studies are needed before it can be recommended as a standard imaging modality.

A 62-year-old white male complains of fatigue and proximal extremity discomfort without any localized joint pain. Which one of the following conditions is associated with a consistently normal creatine kinase enzyme level at all phases of disease? (check one) A. Polymyalgia rheumatica B. Polymyositis C. Dermatomyositis D. Drug-induced myopathy E. Hypothyroid endocrinopathy

A. Polymyalgia rheumatica. Polymyalgia rheumatica is a disease of the middle-aged and elderly. Discomfort is common in the neck, shoulders, and hip girdle areas. There is an absence of objective joint swelling, and findings tend to be symmetric. Characteristically, the erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein levels are significantly elevated; however, these tests are nonspecific. Occasionally there are mild elevations of liver enzymes, but muscle enzymes, including creatine kinase, are not elevated in this disorder. Elevation of muscle enzymes strongly suggests another diagnosis. Polymyositis and dermatomyositis are associated with variable levels of muscle enzyme elevations during the active phases of the disease. Drug-induced myopathies such as those seen with the cholesterol-lowering statin medications tend to produce some elevation of muscle enzymes during the course of the disorder. Hypothyroidism is associated with creatine kinase elevation. It should be strongly considered in the patient with unexplained, otherwise asymptomatic creatine kinase elevation found on a routine chemistry profile. Hyperthyroidism may cause muscle disease and loss of muscle, but it is not associated with creatine kinase elevation.

A 32-year-old female experiences an episode of unresponsiveness associated with jerking movements of her arms and legs. Which one of the following presentations would make a diagnosis of true seizure more likely? (check one) A. Post-event confusion B. Eye closure during the event C. A history of fibromyalgia D. A history of chronic back pain E. A normal serum prolactin level after the event

A. Post-event confusion. Up to 20% of patients diagnosed with epilepsy actually have pseudoseizures. Eye closure throughout the event is uncommon in true seizures, and a history of fibromyalgia or chronic pain syndrome is predictive of pseudoseizures. If obtained within 20 minutes of the event, a serum prolactin level may be useful in differentiating a true seizure from a pseudoseizure. An elevated level has a sensitivity of 60% for generalized tonic-clonic seizures and 46% for complex partial seizures. Other features suggestive of seizure activity include tongue biting, the presence of an aura, postictal confusion, and focal neurologic signs.

Which one of the following is the most common risk factor for retinal detachment? (check one) A. Posterior detachment of the vitreous B. Hyphema C. Glaucoma D. Cataract surgery E. Diabetic retinopathy

A. Posterior detachment of the vitreous. Vitreous detachment is very common after age 60 and occurs frequently in younger persons with myopia. The separation of the posterior aspect of the vitreous from the retina exerts traction on the retina, with the attendant risks of a retinal tear and detachment. Symptoms of retinal detachment may include light flashes (photopsia), a sudden appearance or increase in "floaters," or peripheral visual field loss, any of which should prompt an ophthalmology referral. Cataract surgery can result in premature shrinkage of the vitreous and thereby poses an increased risk, but vitreous detachment resulting from other processes is more common. Hyphema, glaucoma, and diabetic retinopathy are not specific risk factors for retinal detachment.

An 18-year-old male seen in your office is found to be overweight and to have acanthosis nigricans. Both of his parents have a history of diabetes mellitus. His fasting plasma glucose level is 111 mg/dL (N <100). Which one of the following is the correct diagnosis? (check one) A. Prediabetes B. Type 1 diabetes mellitus C. Type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Maturity-onset diabetes of the young

A. Prediabetes. This patient has prediabetes, which is defined as having a fasting plasma glucose level of 101-125 mg/dL. These patients are at high risk for developing diabetes mellitus later in life. Prediabetes is associated with metabolic syndrome, and weight loss, exercise, and certain pharmacologic agents have been shown to prevent or delay the subsequent development of diabetes mellitus. Diabetes mellitus is diagnosed in three ways: symptoms of diabetes (polyuria, polydipsia, unexplained weight loss) plus a random plasma glucose level ≥200 mg/dL; a fasting plasma glucose level ≥126 mg/dL; or a glucose level ≥200 mg/dL on a 2-hour 75-g oral glucose tolerance test. It is important to note that in the absence of unequivocal hyperglycemia the diagnosis must be confirmed by repeat testing on a subsequent day. Once the diagnosis of diabetes is confirmed, further testing is needed to differentiate between type 1, type 2, and maturity-onset diabetes of youth.

A 61-year-old female is found to have a serum calcium level of 11.6 mg/dL (N 8.6-10.2) on routine laboratory screening. To confirm the hypercalcemia you order an ionized calcium level, which is 1.49 mmol/L (N 1.14-1.32). Additional testing reveals an intact parathyroid hormone level of 126 pg/mL (N 15-75) and a urine calcium excretion of 386 mg/24 hr (N 100-300). Which one of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's hypercalcemia? (check one) A. Primary hyperparathyroidism B. Malignancy C. Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia D. Hypoparathyroidism E. Hyperthyroidism

A. Primary hyperparathyroidism. Primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy account for more than 90% of hypercalcemia cases. These conditions must be differentiated early to provide the patient with optimal treatment and an accurate prognosis. Humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy implies a very limited life expectancy—often only a matter of weeks. On the other hand, primary hyperparathyroidism has a relatively benign course. Intact parathyroid hormone (PTH) will be suppressed in cases of malignancy-associated hypercalcemia, except for extremely rare cases of parathyroid carcinoma. Thyrotoxicosis-induced bone resorption elevates serum calcium, which also results in suppression of PTH. Patients with familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia (FHH) have moderate hypercalcemia but relatively low urinary calcium excretion. PTH levels can be normal or only mildly elevated despite the hypercalcemia. This mild elevation can lead to an erroneous diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism. The conditions can be differentiated by a 24-hour urine collection for calcium; calcium levels will be high or normal in patients with hyperparathyroidism and low in patients with FHH.

A 57-year-old female is noted to have a serum calcium level of 11.1 mg/dL (N 8.9-10.5) on a chemistry profile obtained at the time of a routine annual visit. The remainder of the chemistry profile is unremarkable, including normal BUN and creatinine levels. She is otherwise healthy, and is on no medications. On follow-up testing her calcium level is unchanged, a vitamin D level is normal, and her parathyroid hormone level is elevated. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of her hypercalcemia? (check one) A. Primary hyperparathyroidism B. Secondary hyperparathyroidism C. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism D. Cancer metastatic to bone E. Humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy

A. Primary hyperparathyroidism. This woman most likely has primary hyperparathyroidism due to a parathyroid adenoma or hyperplasia. Secondary hyperparathyroidism is unlikely with normal renal function, a normal vitamin D level, and hypercalcemia. Likewise, tertiary hyperparathyroidism is unlikely with normal renal function. The parathyroid hormone level is suppressed with hypercalcemia associated with bone metastases. Parathyroid hormone-related protein, produced by cancer cells in humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy, is not detected by the assay for parathyroid hormone.

A 3-year-old female is brought to your office for evaluation of mild intoeing. The child's patellae face forward, and her feet point slightly inward. Which one of the following would be most appropriate? (check one) A. Reassurance B. Foot stretching exercises C. Use of orthotics D. Use of night splints E. Surgery

A. Reassurance. Intoeing, as described, is usually caused by internal tibial torsion. This problem is believed to be caused by sleeping in the prone position, and sitting on the feet. In 90% of cases, internal tibial torsion gradually resolves without intervention by the age of 8. Avoiding prone sleeping enhances resolution of the problem. Night splints, orthotics, and shoe wedges are ineffective. Surgery (osteotomy) has been associated with a high complication rate, and is therefore not recommended in mild cases before the age of 8.

A 2-year-old white female is brought to your office by her parents, who are concerned about the child's "flat feet." On evaluation, the child's feet are flat with weight-bearing, but with toe standing and with sitting the arch appears. You would: (check one) A. Reassure the parents B. Recommend orthotics C. Recommend surgery D. Recommend casting E. Recommend foot-stretching exercises

A. Reassure the parents. Flexible flat feet as described are not pathologic unless painful, which is uncommon. Flexibility of the flat foot is determined by appearance of an arch when the feet are not bearing weight. No treatment is indicated for painless flexible flatfoot. Spontaneous correction is usually expected within 1 year of walking.

At a routine visit in October, a 17-year-old primigravida at 10 weeks gestation asks whether she should get influenza vaccine. Her mother recommended it, but she is concerned about the needle stick and potential harm to the fetus. Which one of the following would you do? (check one) A. Recommend intramuscular vaccine and tell her that evidence indicates some protection for the baby up to 6 months of age B. Recommend nasal vaccine because the patient is under age 50 and needle-averse C. Recommend vaccine only if the patient has a coexistent chronic illness D. Recommend that vaccination be delayed until the second trimester to reduce fetal risk E. Recommend immunization of household contacts to reduce maternal risk, but no immunization of the patient

A. Recommend intramuscular vaccine and tell her that evidence indicates some protection for the baby up to 6 months of age. Women who will be pregnant during the influenza season should receive the inactivated vaccine (SOR C). The live nasal vaccine is not approved for use in pregnancy. The vaccine can be given in any trimester. Coexistent illness is not required for this indication. There appears to be some protective effect for the infant up to the age of 6 months. Immunization of family members is sometimes recommended for immunocompromised patients. In the absence of other indications, however, it has not been recommended for family members of pregnant patients.

A 7-year-old male presents with a 3-day history of sore throat, hoarseness, fever to 100 degrees (38 degrees C), and cough. Examination reveals injection of his tonsils, no exudates, and no abnormal breath sounds. Which one of the following would be most appropriate? (check one) A. Recommend symptomatic treatment B. Perform a rapid antigen test for streptococcal pharyngitis C. Treat empirically for streptococcal pharyngitis D. Perform a throat culture for streptococcal pharyngitis E. Perform an office test for mononucleosis

A. Recommend symptomatic treatment. Pharyngitis is a common complaint, and usually has a viral cause. The key factors in diagnosing streptococcal pharyngitis are a fever over 100.4 degrees F, tonsillar exudates, anterior cervical lymphadenopathy, and absence of cough. Age plays a role also, with those <15 years of age more likely to have streptococcal infection, and those 10-25 years of age more likely to have mononucleosis. The scenario described is consistent with a viral infection, with no risk factors to make streptococcal infection likely; therefore, this patient should be offered symptomatic treatment for likely viral infection. Testing for other infections is not indicated unless the patient worsens or does not improve.

A 26-year-old gravida 1 para 0 presents for a prenatal examination. She has two cats and expresses concern about toxoplasmosis. Which one of the following would be most appropriate for this patient? (check one) A. Recommend that she avoid directly handling the cats' litter box B. Immunize the patient against toxoplasmosis C. Prophylactically treat the cats with antibiotics D. Screen the patient's urine for Toxoplasma antigens E. Screen the patient's serum for Toxoplasma antibody

A. Recommend that she avoid directly handling the cats' litter box. There is no immunization against toxoplasmosis, and the use of antibiotics is limited to cases in which there is known maternal infection with the protozoa. Screening pregnant women for seroconversion (not with urine antigen testing) is controversial, and recommendations by various professional groups differ. Currently, the American College of Obstetrics and Gynecology does not recommend routine screening except in patients who are known to be HIV positive. However, because the infection is thought to be passed primarily from undercooked meat or through infected animal feces, it is universally recommended that pregnant women avoid direct contact with cats' litter boxes. If avoidance is not possible, wearing gloves when handling a litter box is recommended.

A 59-year-old white female has a blood pressure consistently at or above 140/90 mm Hg. Her only other significant medical problem is diabetes mellitus, which is controlled by diet. Which one of the following is the most clearly established advantage of angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) when compared with ACE inhibitors in patients such as this? (check one) A. Reduced risk of persistent cough B. Reduced risk of headache C. Reduced risk of heart failure D. Improved control of blood pressure E. Improved lipid profile

A. Reduced risk of persistent cough. In multiple studies, angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) have been shown to be less likely to cause a chronic cough when compared with ACE inhibitors. Although this is not a life-threatening danger, it is a side effect that can be persistent and lead to discontinuation of medication. Angioedema, a more dangerous side effect, was thought to be ACE-inhibitor specific. However, it is rare and there is not yet good evidence that ARBs are safer. There have been case reports of angioedema associated with ARB use. The incidence of headache is similar for the two drug classes. ARBs have not been proven superior to ACE inhibitors in blood pressure control, effects on lipid profiles, or prevention of heart failure, and there is substantially more data on ACE inhibitors for the prevention of heart failure and proteinuria.

A 2-week-old female is brought to the office for a well child visit. The physical examination is completely normal except for a clunking sensation and feeling of movement when adducting the hip and applying posterior pressure. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step? (check one) A. Referral for orthopedic consultation B. Reassurance that the problem resolves spontaneously in 90% of cases, and follow-up in 2 weeks C. Triple diapering and follow-up in 2 weeks D. A radiograph of the pelvis

A. Referral for orthopedic consultation. Developmental dysplasia of the hip encompasses both subluxation and dislocation of the newborn hip, as well as anatomic abnormalities. It is more common in firstborns, females, breech presentations, oligohydramnios, and patients with a family history of developmental dysplasia. Experts are divided with regard to whether hip subluxation can be merely observed during the newborn period, but if there is any question of a hip problem on examination by 2 weeks of age, the recommendation is to refer to a specialist for further testing and treatment. Studies show that these problems disappear by 1 week of age in 60% of cases, and by 2 months of age in 90% of cases. Triple diapering should not be used because it puts the hip joint in the wrong position and may aggravate the problem. Plain radiographs may be helpful after 4-6 months of age, but prior to that time the ossification centers are too immature to be seen. Because the condition can be difficult to diagnose, and can result in significant problems, the current recommendation is to treat all children with developmental dysplasia of the hip. Closed reduction and immobilization in a Pavlik harness, with ultrasonography of the hip to ensure proper positioning, is the treatment of choice until 6 months of age. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends ultrasound screening at 6 weeks for breech girls, breech boys (optional), and girls with a positive family history of developmental dysplasia of the hip. Other countries have recommended universal screening, but a review of the literature has not shown that the benefits of early diagnosis through universal screening outweigh the risks and potential problems of overtreating.

A 50-year-old female presents with a 2-day history of four vesicles on her upper eyelid, but no pain or swelling. She has not experienced any eye trauma, has had no vision changes, and has no other skin changes. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step in treating this patient? (check one) A. Referral to an ophthalmologist B. A methylprednisolone (Medrol) dose pack C. A topical corticosteroid D. Topical mupirocin (Bactroban) E. Topical metronidazole (MetroGel)

A. Referral to an ophthalmologist. This patient likely has herpes zoster ophthalmicus. In addition to treatment with a systemic antiviral agent, it is important that the patient see an ophthalmologist to be evaluated for corneal disease and iritis, as vision can be lost. This is a viral infection, so corticosteroids could worsen the infection. Mupirocin or metronidazole would not resolve the infection.

Which one of the following is most appropriate for the initial treatment of claudication? (check one) A. Regular exercise B. Chelation C. Vasodilating agents D. Warfarin (Coumadin)

A. Regular exercise. Claudication is exercise-induced lower-extremity pain that is caused by ischemia and relieved by rest. It affects 10% of persons over 70 years of age. However, up to 90% of patients with peripheral vascular disease are asymptomatic. Initial treatment should consist of vigorous risk factor modification and exercise. Patients who follow an exercise regimen can increase their walking time by 150%. A supervised program may produce better results. Risk factors include diabetes mellitus, hypertension, smoking, and hyperlipidemia. Unconventional treatments such as chelation have not been shown to be effective. Vasodilating agents are of no benefit. There is no evidence that anticoagulants such as aspirin have a role in the treatment of claudication.

A 60-year-old male presents with profound weakness after 3 days of watery, frequent diarrhea. He has had no fever, bloody stool, or vomiting. His appetite has been poor. He has a history of hypertension treated with chlorthalidone, 25 mg daily, and potassium chloride, 20 mEq twice daily. Laboratory testing reveals a serum creatinine level of 2.0 mg/dL (N 0.6-1.5), a potassium level of 6.5 mmol/L (N 3.4-4.8), and a BUN of 50 mg/dL (N 8-25). Baseline values were normal. Which one of the following is most likely to lower the serum potassium within 1 hour? (check one) A. Regular insulin plus dextrose intravenously B. Calcium chloride, 10% solution intravenously C. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kalexate) orally D. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate rectally

A. Regular insulin plus dextrose intravenously. Insulin and glucose intravenously will provide the fastest and most consistent early lowering of serum potassium (SOR C). Calcium is important for arrhythmia prevention, but does not lower the potassium level. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate given orally or rectally will only lower potassium in a delayed fashion.

A 75-year-old male develops a mild Clostridium difficile infection and is treated with 10 days of metronidazole (Flagyl), 500 mg orally 3 times daily. The diarrhea recurs 10 days after he completes the course of treatment. Which one of the following would be most appropriate? (check one) A. Repeat the course of metronidazole B. Repeat the course of metronidazole and add vancomycin C. Administer vancomycin intravenously D. Prescribe loperamide (Imodium), 4 mg twice daily as needed E. Prescribe a probiotic

A. Repeat the course of metronidazole. Clostridium difficile infection is more common with aging and can be treated with either metronidazole or vancomycin daily. For mild recurrent disease, repeating the course of the original agent is appropriate (SOR B). Multiple recurrences or severe disease warrants the use of both agents. The effectiveness of probiotics such as Lactobacillus remains uncertain. Intravenous vancomycin has not been effective. Antiperistaltic drugs should be avoided.

A positive flexion abduction external rotation (FABER) test that elicits posterior pain indicates involvement of which joint? (check one) A. Sacroiliac B. Shoulder C. Ankle D. Wrist E. Knee

A. Sacroiliac. When the flexion abduction external rotation (FABER) test elicits pain posteriorly, it indicates sacroiliac involvement. Anterior pain indicates hip involvement.

A 34-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a severe migraine headache unresponsive to tramadol (Ultram) and sumatriptan (Imitrex) at home. She takes fluoxetine (Prozac) for depression. Soon after being given an injection of meperidine (Demerol), she develops agitation, diaphoresis, tremor, diarrhea, fever, and incoordination. The most likely cause of this patient's symptoms is: (check one) A. Serotonin syndrome B. Thyrotoxic storm C. Sepsis D. Viral encephalitis E. Panic attack

A. Serotonin syndrome. Physicians who prescribe SSRIs such as fluoxetine should be aware of potential drug interactions. Several of the SSRIs may increase the effects of warfarin and raise tricyclic antidepressant levels. Combination of an SSRI with a drug that increases serotonin concentrations may induce the potentially life-threatening serotonin syndrome, with mental status changes, agitation, myoclonus, hyperreflexia, diaphoresis, shivering, tremor, diarrhea, incoordination, and fever. These drugs include monoamine oxidase inhibitors, tramadol, sibutramine, meperidine, sumatriptan, lithium, St. John's wort, ginkgo biloba, and atypical antipsychotic agents.

You have just diagnosed post-traumatic stress disorder in a 32-year-old male. You immediately begin a program of patient education for him and his family, and connect them with a support group. Since his symptoms are quite severe you decide to begin pharmacotherapy before initiating trauma-focused psychotherapy. Based on available evidence, which one of the following medications is the best INITIAL treatment choice? (check one) A. Sertraline (Zoloft) B. Amitriptyline C. Phenelzine (Nardil) D. Alprazolam (Xanax) E. Haloperidol (Haldol)

A. Sertraline (Zoloft). Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) such as sertraline have the broadest range of efficacy in treating posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) since they are able to reduce all three clusters of PTSD symptoms. Studies on the effectiveness of tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline demonstrate modest lessening of the symptoms of reexperiencing, with minimal or no effect on avoidance or arousal symptoms. Patients treated with monoamine oxidase inhibitors such as phenelzine have shown moderate to good improvement in reexperiencing and avoidance symptoms, but little improvement in hyperarousal. Benzodiazepines such as alprazolam have been used to treat PTSD, but their efficacy against the major symptoms has not been proven in controlled studies.

A 21-year-old married Hispanic female who is using no method of contraception presents to your office for evaluation of vaginal spotting 6 weeks after her last menstrual period. Her periods have previously been regular. She has had one previous episode of pelvic inflammatory disease. A home pregnancy test is positive. Which one of the following is true in this situation? (check one) A. Serum hCG levels should double every 2-3 days if the pregnancy is viable B. Painless bleeding excludes the diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy C. Laparoscopy should be performed to exclude ectopic pregnancy D. A serum progesterone level >25 ng/mL indicates that ectopic pregnancy is likely

A. Serum hCG levels should double every 2-3 days if the pregnancy is viable. Early diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy requires a high index of suspicion. Risk factors include previous ectopic pregnancy, tubal sterilization, pelvic inflammatory disease, IUD use, and in utero exposure to diethylstilbestrol. The classic triad of missed menses, pain, and bleeding may not always be present. In early pregnancies of less than 5 weeks' gestation, serial hCG levels are helpful. Serum hCG levels double every 1.4-2 days. In a healthy pregnancy the level is expected to increase by at least 66% in 48 hours. Combining serial hCG levels with transvaginal ultrasonography is the best combination for evaluation of first-trimester problems. Serum hCG levels correlate well with sonographic landmarks. At 5 weeks' gestation in a normal pregnancy, serum hCG is >1000 mIU/mL and a gestational sac can be visualized in the uterus. Serum hCG is >2500 mIU/mL at 6 weeks and a yolk sac can be seen within the gestational sac. An hCG level of 5000 mIU/mL is compatible with visualization of a fetal pole. When the level is 17,000 mIU/mL, cardiac activity can be detected. Progesterone levels are also predictive of fetal outcome. A single level of 25 ng/mL or higher indicates a healthy pregnancy and excludes ectopic pregnancy with a sensitivity of 98%. If the level is <5 ng/mL, the pregnancy is nonviable. Assessment of fetal well-being is difficult if levels are in the intermediate range of 5-25 ng/mL.

Which one of the following sleep disorders is in the general class of circadian sleep disorders and may respond to bright-light therapy? (check one) A. Shift-work insomnia B. Alcohol-dependent sleep disorder C. Inadequate sleep hygiene D. Sleep-related myoclonus

A. Shift-work insomnia. Shift-work insomnia is the only circadian sleep disorder listed. It may respond to bright-light therapy. Alcoholism is a behavioral disorder that may respond to gradual discontinuance. Inadequate sleep hygiene (use of stimulants at night, sleeping other than at bedtime, etc.) may respond to habit changes. Sleep-related myoclonus is an intrinsic sleep disorder and can be treated with levodopa or clonazepam.

A patient with ascites is suspected to have secondary hyperaldosteronism. Which one of the following would be typical levels of electrolytes in an aliquot specimen of urine? (check one) A. Sodium 2 mEq/L, potassium 40 mEq/L B. Sodium 5 mEq/L, potassium 0 mEq/L C. Sodium 40 mEq/L, potassium 40 mEq/L D. Sodium 80 mEq/L, potassium 2 mEq/L E. Sodium 100 mEq/L, potassium 20 mEq/L

A. Sodium 2 mEq/L, potassium 40 mEq/L. Secondary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by sodium retention, and thus decreased urinary sodium excretion, while potassium secretion is normal to increased.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 44 ======================================================= A 34-year-old female with a history of bilateral tubal ligation consults you because of excessive body and facial hair. She has a normal body weight, no other signs of virilization, and regular menses. Which one of the following is the most appropriate treatment for her mild hirsutism? (check one) A. Spironolactone (Aldactone) B. Leuprolide (Lupron) C. Prednisone D. Metformin (Glucophage)

A. Spironolactone (Aldactone). Antiandrogens such as spironolactone, along with oral contraceptives, are recommended for treatment of hirsutism in premenopausal women (SOR C). In addition to having side effects, prednisone is only minimally helpful for reducing hirsutism by suppressing adrenal androgens. Leuprolide, although better than placebo, has many side effects and is expensive. Metformin can be used to treat patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome, but this patient does not meet the criteria for this diagnosis.

An 80-year-old female is seen for progressive weakness over the past 8 weeks. She says she now has difficulty with normal activities such as getting out of a chair and brushing her teeth. Her medical problems include hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and hyperlipidemia. Her medications include glipizide (Glucotrol), simvastatin (Zocor), and lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril). Findings on examination are within normal limits except for diffuse proximal muscle weakness and normal deep tendon reflexes. A CBC, urinalysis, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, TSH level, and serum electrolyte levels are normal. Her blood glucose level is 155 mg/dL, and her creatine kinase level is 1200 U/L (N 40-150). Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Statin-induced myopathy B. Polymyalgia rheumatica C. Guillain-Barré syndrome D. Diabetic ketoacidosis

A. Statin-induced myopathy. This patient is most likely suffering from a drug-induced myopathy caused by the simvastatin, which is associated with elevated creatine kinase. Polymyalgia rheumatica is usually associated with an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Guillain-Barré syndrome is associated with depressed deep tendon reflexes. This case has no clinical features or laboratory findings that suggest ketoacidosis.

A 68-year-old male was seen in a local urgent-care clinic 6 days ago for upper respiratory symptoms and was started on cefuroxime (Ceftin). He presents to your office with a 2-day history of 4-5 watery stools per day with no blood or mucus. He is afebrile and has a normal abdominal and rectal examination. A stool guaiac test is negative, and a stool sample is sent for further testing. What is the best initial management for this patient? (check one) A. Stop the cefuroxime B. Start ciprofloxacin (Cipro) C. Start metronidazole (Flagyl) D. Start loperamide (Imodium) E. Recommend probiotics until he completes the course of cefuroxime

A. Stop the cefuroxime. This patient is at high risk for Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea, based on his age and his recent broad-spectrum antibiotic use. The initial management is to stop the antibiotics. Treatment should not be initiated unless the stool is positive for toxins A and B. The recommended initial treatment for C. difficileenteritis is oral metronidazole. Probiotics may be useful for prevention, but their use is controversial. Loperamide should be avoided, as it can slow down transit times and worsen toxin-mediated diarrhea.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 77 ======================================================= A 3-year-old female is brought to your office for a health maintenance examination, and her father expresses concern about her vision. Her visual acuity is 20/20 bilaterally on a tumbling E visual acuity chart. With both eyes uncovered during a cover/uncover test, the corneal light reflex in the right eye is medial to the pupil when focused on a fixed point, but the light reflex in the left eye is almost centered in the pupil. When the left eye is covered, the right eye moves quickly inward to focus on the fixed point, and the corneal light reflex is centered in the pupil. When the left eye is uncovered, the right eye returns to its original position. When you cover the right eye, no left eye movement is noted. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Strabismus B. Amblyopia C. Cataract D. Esotropia E. Heterophoria

A. Strabismus. Strabismus is an ocular misalignment that can be diagnosed on a cover/uncover test when the corneal light reflex is deviated from its normal position slightly nasal to mid-pupil. The misaligned eye then moves to fixate on a held object when the opposite eye is covered. The eye drifts back to its original position when the opposite eye is uncovered. Amblyopia is cortical visual impairment from abnormal eye development-most often as a result of strabismus. Cataract is a less frequent cause of amblyopia. Esotropia is a type of strabismus with an inward or nasal deviation of the eye that would be evidenced by a corneal light reflex lateral to its normal position. (The outward eye deviation seen in this patient is exotropia.) Heterophoria, or latent strabismus, does not cause eye deviation when both eyes are uncovered.

A 28-year-old white female presents with painful genital ulcers. She has not had any previous episodes of similar outbreaks. She is single, but has had several heterosexual relationships. She has been with her current partner for 3 years. A culture confirms a herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection. Which one of the following is true regarding her situation? (check one) A. Suppressive therapy can reduce the risk of transmission to her partner B. In the genital area, HSV type 1 infection can be differentiated clinically from HSV type 2 infection C. This outbreak is conclusive evidence of infidelity in her partner D. An HSV vaccine is available for her partner to reduce his risk of infection

A. Suppressive therapy can reduce the risk of transmission to her partner. Suppressive therapy with acyclovir, valacyclovir, or famciclovir reduces, but does not eliminate, the risk of transmission of HSV to sexual partners. HSV type 1 and HSV type 2 infections in the genital area are clinically identical. Psychological issues, including anger, guilt, low self-esteem, anxiety, and depression are common after first receiving a diagnosis of genital HSV infection. Initial clinical outbreaks of genital HSV infections are often recurrences of previous infection. Either of the partners may have had an asymptomatic infection acquired in a previous relationship. An experimental HSV type 2 vaccine has been developed, but it is ineffective in men.

A 37-year-old recreational skier is unable to lift his right arm after falling on his right side with his arm elevated. Radiographs of the right shoulder are negative, but diagnostic ultrasonography shows a complete rotator cuff tear. Which one of the following is most accurate with regard to treatment? (check one) A. Surgery is most likely to be beneficial if performed less than 6 weeks after the injury B. Treatment with NSAIDs for 3 months is recommended before further intervention C. Subacromial corticosteroid injections will provide functional and symptomatic relief in the majority of patients D. Surgical repair of rotator cuff tears to restore function is necessary only in geriatric patients E. Therapeutic ultrasound of the shoulder will make the condition tolerable during spontaneous healing

A. Surgery is most likely to be beneficial if performed less than 6 weeks after the injury. Surgery for rotator cuff tears is most beneficial in young, active patients. In cases of acute, traumatic, complete rotator cuff tears, repair is recommended in less than 6 weeks, as muscle atrophy is associated with reduced surgical benefit (SOR B). Advanced age and limited strength are also associated with reduced surgical benefit. NSAIDs are used for analgesia. Their benefit has not been shown to exceed that of other simple analgesics, and the side-effect profile may be higher. Corticosteroid injections will not improve a complete tear. Some experts also recommend avoiding their use in partial or complete tendon tears. Therapeutic ultrasound does not add to the benefit from range-of-motion exercises and exercises to strengthen the involved muscle groups.

A 25-year-old male presents to your office for evaluation of pain in the right index finger that has been present for the past 4 days. The pain has been getting progressively worse. On examination the finger is swollen and held in a flexed position. The pain increases with passive extension of the finger, and there is tenderness to palpation from the tip of the finger into the palm. Which one of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient? (check one) A. Surgical drainage and antibiotics B. Antiviral medication C. Oral antibiotics and splinting D. Needle aspiration E. Corticosteroid injection

A. Surgical drainage and antibiotics. This patient has pyogenic tenosynovitis. When early tenosynovitis (within 48 hours of onset) is suspected, treatment with antibiotics and splinting may prevent the spread of the infection. However, this patient's infection is no longer in the early stages and is more severe, so it requires surgical drainage and antibiotics. A delay in treatment of these infections can lead to ischemia of the tendons and damage to the flexor tendon and sheath. This can lead to impaired function of the finger. Needle aspiration would not adequately drain the infection. Antiviral medication would not be appropriate, as this is a bacterial infection. Corticosteroid injections are contraindicated in the presence of infection.

A 24-year-old female has noted excessive hair loss over the past 2 months, with a marked increase in hairs removed when she brushes her hair. She delivered a healthy baby 5 months ago. She is on no medications, and is otherwise healthy. Examination of her scalp reveals diffuse hair thinning without scarring. An evaluation for thyroid dysfunction and iron deficiency is negative. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of her hair loss? (check one) A. Telogen effluvium B. Anagen effluvium C. Alopecia areata D. Female-pattern hair loss E. Discoid lupus erythematosus

A. Telogen effluvium. The recycling of scalp hair is an ongoing process, with the hair follicles rotating through three phases. The actively growing anagen-phase hairs give way to the catagen phase, during which the follicle shuts down, followed by the resting telogen phase, during which the hair is shed. The normal ratio of anagen to telogen hairs is 90:10. This patient most likely has a telogen effluvium, a nonscarring, shedding hair loss that occurs when a stressful event, such as a severe illness, surgery, or pregnancy, triggers the shift of large numbers of anagen-phase hairs to the telogen phase. Telogen-phase hairs are easily shed. Telogen effluvium occurs about 3 months after a triggering event. The hair loss with telogen effluvium lasts 6 months after the removal of the stressful trigger. Anagen effluvium is the diffuse hair loss that occurs when chemotherapeutic medications cause rapid destruction of anagen-phase hair. Alopecia areata, which causes round patches of hair loss, is felt to have an autoimmune etiology. Female-pattern hair loss affects the central portion of the scalp, and is not associated with an inciting trigger or shedding. Discoid lupus erythematosus causes a scarring alopecia.

A 50-year-old male has a pre-employment chest radiograph showing a pulmonary nodule. There are no previous studies available. Which one of the following would raise the most suspicion that this is a malignant lesion if found on the radiograph? . (check one) A. The absence of calcification B. Location above the midline of the lung C. A diameter of 4 mm D. A solid appearance

A. The absence of calcification. Pulmonary nodules are a common finding on routine studies, including plain chest radiographs, and require evaluation. Radiographic features of benign nodules include a diameter <5 mm, a smooth border, a solid appearance, concentric calcification, and a doubling time of less than 1 month or more than 1 year. Features of malignant nodules include a size >10 mm, an irregular border, a "ground glass" appearance, either no calcification or an eccentric calcification, and a doubling time of 1 month to 1 year (SOR B).

When obtaining informed consent from a patient, which one of the following is NOT required for a patient to legally have decision-making capacity? (check one) A. The absence of mental illness B. The ability to express choice C. The ability to understand relevant information D. The ability to engage in reasoning E. The ability to appreciate the significance of information and its consequences

A. The absence of mental illness. Patients with mental illness may have decision-making capacity if they are able to understand and communicate a rational decision. The key factors to consider in determining decision-making capacity include whether the patient can express a choice, understand relevant information, appreciate the significance of the information and its consequences, and engage in reasoning as it relates to medical treatment.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 20 ======================================================= An 82-year-old white male suffers from chronic low back pain. He is on warfarin (Coumadin) for chronic atrial fibrillation, tamsulosin (Flomax) for benign prostatic hyperplasia, and famotidine (Pepcid) for gastroesophageal reflux disease. Which one of the following analgesic medications would have the least potential for adverse side effects? (check one) A. The lidocaine patch (Lidoderm) B. Hydrocodone/acetaminophen C. Nortriptyline (Pamelor) D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta) E. Celecoxib (Celebrex)

A. The lidocaine patch (Lidoderm). Topical lidocaine produces very low serum levels of active drug, resulting in very few adverse effects (SOR C). Hydrocodone could produce any opiate-type effect. Nortriptyline and duloxetine could aggravate this patient's atrial arrhythmia and cause urinary retention. Celecoxib could aggravate his reflux problem.

Your patient is moving to another state and requests transfer of his medical records. Which one of the following is true regarding this patient's request? (check one) A. The medical record should be released only with written permission from a patient or legal representative B. Although it is kept by the physician, the physical paper or electronic medical record is the property of the patient C. A physician may withhold medical record information that could cause undue stress to a patient D. In spite of a patient request, the physician may withhold information from a third party E. A physician has the right to withhold the medical record until medical bills are paid in full

A. The medical record should be released only with written permission from a patient or legal representative. Permission for the release of patient information should always be in writing. Although the actual medical record is the property of the physician, the information in the chart is the property of the patient. Ethically and legally, patients have a right to the information in their medical records, and it cannot be withheld from the patient or a third party (at the request of the patient), even if medical bills are unpaid or the physician is concerned about the patient.

======================================================= Reproductive (Female) Board Review Questions 03 ======================================================= A 30-year-old African-American female presents with a vaginal discharge. On examination the discharge is homogeneous with a pH of 5.5, a positive whiff test, and many clue cells. Which one of the following findings in this patient is most sensitive for the diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis? (check one) A. The pH of the discharge B. The presence of clue cells C. The character of the discharge D. The whiff test

A. The pH of the discharge. Patients must have 3 of 4 Amsel criteria to be diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis. These include a pH >4.5 (most sensitive), clue cells >20% (most specific), a homogeneous discharge, and a positive whiff test (amine odor with addition of KOH).

A 7-year-old male is hospitalized after sustaining abdominal trauma in an accident. The child is conscious. His pulse rate is 150 beats/min, his systolic blood pressure is palpated at 60 mm Hg, and his respiratory rate is 40/min. His hemoglobin level is 4.0 g/dL because of trauma-related blood loss. His clinical condition is deteriorating despite an infusion of intravenous volume expanders, but the parents are Jehovah's Witnesses and refuse to consent to a blood transfusion because of their religious convictions. Your prognosis is that without a blood transfusion the patient will die. According to medical-legal precedent, which one of the following is correct? (check one) A. The patient should receive the transfusion regardless of the parents' wishes B. The patient can be transfused regardless of the parents' wishes once he becomes asystolic C. The parents may refuse the transfusion if they are in agreement D. The parents may refuse the transfusion if the patient identifies himself as a Jehovah's Witness E. The parents may refuse the transfusion if there is a legally executed advance directive

A. The patient should receive the transfusion regardless of the parents' wishes. The refusal to accept any medical intervention, including life-saving blood transfusions, has been well established for adults who have the ability to definitively communicate their wishes. Also, parents have the power to give or withhold consent to medical treatment on behalf of their children. However, Western courts have deemed that parents cannot refuse emergency, life-saving treatment to children based on these principles: (1) the child's interests and those of the state outweigh parental rights to refuse medical treatment; (2) parental rights do not give parents life and death authority over their children; and (3) parents do not have an absolute right to refuse medical treatment for their children, if that refusal is regarded as unreasonable.

Treatment for Helicobacter pylori infection will reduce or improve which one of the following? (check one) A. The risk of peptic ulcer bleeding from chronic NSAID therapy B. The risk of developing gastric cancer in asymptomatic patients C. Symptoms of nonulcer dyspepsia D. Symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease

A. The risk of peptic ulcer bleeding from chronic NSAID therapy. Eradication of Helicobacter pylori significantly reduces the risk of ulcer recurrence and rebleeding in patients with duodenal ulcer, and reduces the risk of peptic ulcer development in patients on chronic NSAID therapy. Eradication has minimal or no effect on the symptoms of nonulcer dyspepsia and gastroesophageal reflux disease. Although H. pylori infection is associated with gastric cancer, no trials have shown that eradication of H. pylori purely to prevent gastric cancer is beneficial.

The results of a given study are reported as achieving significance at a p-value of <0.05 (the 5% level). True statements about this finding include which one of the following? (check one) A. There is a 5% likelihood of the results having occurred by chance alone B. If the study were replicated 100 times, 95 studies would repeat this finding and 5 would not C. The confidence interval is 0%-10% D. The null hypothesis has a 5% chance of being true E. The B or type II error is < 5%

A. There is a 5% likelihood of the results having occurred by chance alone. The p-value is a level of statistical significance, and characterizes the likelihood of achieving the observed results of a study by chance alone, and in this case that likelihood is 5%. (In this case, 5% or less of the results can be achieved by chance alone and still be significant.) The confidence interval is a measure of variance and is derived from the test data. The p-value in and of itself says nothing about the truth or falsity of the null hypothesis, only that the likelihood of the observed results occurring by chance is 5%. The a or type I error is akin to the error of false-positive assignment; the B or type II error is analogous to the false-negative rate, or 1 - specificity, and cannot be calculated from the information given.

The results of a given study are reported as achieving significance at a p-value of <0.05 (the 5% level). True statements about this finding include which one of the following? (check one) A. There is a 5% likelihood of the results having occurred by chance alone B. If the study were replicated 100 times, 95 studies would repeat this finding and 5 would not C. The confidence interval is 0%-10% D. The null hypothesis has a 5% chance of being true E. The β (type II) error is <5%

A. There is a 5% likelihood of the results having occurred by chance alone. The p-value is a level of statistical significance, and characterizes the likelihood of achieving the observed results of a study by chance alone; in this study that likelihood is 5%, although 5% or less of the results of the study can be achieved by chance alone and still be significant. The confidence interval is a measure of variance and is derived from the test data. The p-value in and of itself says nothing about the truth or falsity of the null hypothesis, only that the likelihood of the observed results occurring by chance is 5%. The α or type I error is akin to the error of false-positive assignment; the β or type II error is analogous to the false-negative rate, or 1 - specificity, and cannot be calculated from the information given.

A 55-year-old white male notices a nodular thickening over the flexor tendons in his medial palm. He has no difficulty using his hand, and he is able to lay his palm flat on a tabletop. You suspect Dupuytren's disease. Which one of the following is true regarding this condition? (check one) A. There is a strong association with diabetes mellitus B. Surgical intervention is recommended at this point to prevent progression to contracture C. Once a contracture develops, it is irreversible and no treatment is indicated D. A single cortisone injection often leads to disease regression in mild to moderate cases E. A search for an occult malignancy is indicated

A. There is a strong association with diabetes mellitus. Dupuytren's disease is characterized by shortening and thickening of the palmar fascia. It is initially asymptomatic, but may progress and cause difficulty with function of the hand, and may eventually lead to contracture. Early asymptomatic disease does not require treatment. A series of cortisone injections over a period of months may lead to disease regression, and is useful in patients with mild to moderate symptoms. Surgery is indicated if a metacarpal joint contracture reaches 30°, or with a proximal interphalangeal joint contracture of any degree. If surgery is delayed, irreversible joint contracture may occur. There is a strong association between diabetes mellitus and Dupuytren's disease, with up to a third of diabetic patients having evidence of the disease. It is also associated with alcohol use and smoking. Patients requiring surgery have an increased risk of dying from cancer, probably related to smoking, alcohol use, or diabetes mellitus, but a search for cancer at the time of diagnosis is not indicated.

A 47-year-old female presents to your office complaining of hot flashes and cold sweats of several months' duration. She is premenopausal. Which one of the following is accurate advice for this patient regarding vasomotor symptoms? (check one) A. They usually peak around the time of menopause, then decline after menopause B. Without treatment, they usually get worse each year after menopause C. They are always caused by estrogen deficiency D. Estrogen alone is recommended for therapy

A. They usually peak around the time of menopause, then decline after menopause. Vasomotor symptoms slowly increase until perimenopause, at which time they peak. The symptoms then tend to diminish after menopause. Numerous other pathologic and functional vasomotor etiologies may mimic hot flashes. Estrogen is effective in treating hot flashes but generally should not be given alone, as it increases the risk for endometrial cancer.

A 24-year-old female presents with pelvic pain. She says that the pain is present on most days, but is worse during her menses. Ibuprofen has helped in the past but is no longer effective. Her menses are normal and she has only one sexual partner. A physical examination is normal. Which one of the following should be the next step in the workup of this patient? (check one) A. Transvaginal ultrasonography B. CT of the abdomen and pelvis C. MRI of the pelvis D. A CA-125 level E. Colonoscopy

A. Transvaginal ultrasonography. The initial evaluation for chronic pelvic pain should include a urinalysis and culture, cervical swabs for gonorrhea and Chlamydia, a CBC, an erythrocyte sedimentation rate, a β-hCG level, and pelvic ultrasonography. CT and MRI are not part of the recommended initial diagnostic workup, but may be helpful in further assessing any abnormalities found on pelvic ultrasonography. Referral for diagnostic laparoscopy is appropriate if the initial workup does not reveal a source of the pain, or if endometriosis or adhesions are suspected. Colonoscopy would be indicated if the history or examination suggests a gastrointestinal source for the pain after the initial evaluation.

A 50-year-old female with a history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation has been successfully treated for depression with sertraline (Zoloft). However, she has persistent insomnia, and a 10-day trial of zolpidem (Ambien) has yielded minimal improvement. The most appropriate addition to her current medication would be: (check one) A. Trazodone (Desyrel) each evening B. Lorazepam (Ativan) daily C. Zaleplon (Sonata) at night D. Amitriptyline (Elavil) at night

A. Trazodone (Desyrel) each evening. Trazodone has been found useful for its sedative and hypnotic effects, and is often used in combination with another antidepressant. Benzodiazepines are not recommended for long-term use. Zaleplon is more short-acting than zolpidem and therefore would not be more effective. Amitriptyline could be used for its antidepressant and sedative effects, but its chronotropic side effects make it less preferable for someone with a disposition to cardiac arrhythmia.

A healthy 24-year-old male presents with a sore throat of 2 days' duration. He reports mild congestion and a dry cough. On examination, his temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F). His pharynx is red without exudates, and there are no anterior cervical nodes. His tympanic membranes are normal, and his chest is clear. You would do which one of the following? (check one) A. Treat with analgesics and supportive care B. Treat with azithromycin (Zithromax) C. Perform a throat culture and begin treatment with penicillin D. Perform a rapid strep test

A. Treat with analgesics and supportive care. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) assembled a panel of national health experts to develop evidence-based guidelines for evaluating and treating adults with acute respiratory disease. According to these guidelines, the most reliable clinical predictors of streptococcal pharyngitis are the Centor criteria. These include tonsillar exudates, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy, absence of cough, and history of fever. The presence of three or four of these criteria has a positive predictive value of 40%-60%, and the absence of three or four of these criteria has a negative predictive value of 80%. Patients with four positive criteria should be treated with antibiotics, those with three positive criteria should be tested and treated if positive, and those with 0-1 positive criteria should be treated with analgesics and supportive care only. This patient has only one of the Centor criteria, and according to the panel should not be tested or treated with antibiotics.

Which one of the following best describes this injury? (check one) A. Triquetral fracture B. Scaphoid (navicular) fracture C. Lunate fracture D. Lunate dislocation E. Wrist sprain

A. Triquetral fracture. Triquetral fractures typically occur with hyperextension of the wrist. Dorsal avulsion fractures are more common than fractures of the body of the bone. Tenderness is characteristically noted on the dorsal wrist on the ulnar side distal to the ulnar styloid. The typical radiologic finding is a small bony avulsion visible on a lateral view of the wrist. Most studies indicate that this carpal bone has the second or third highest fracture rate after the navicular. Avulsion fractures respond well to 4 weeks of splinting and protection. Clinical and radiologic signs do not match those expected in navicular or scaphoid fractures. Navicular fractures may initially have normal radiologic findings. Immobilization and follow-up radiographs are required. Tenderness in the snuffbox area is expected, but dorsal tenderness and swelling are not characteristic. The radiographs do not show a lunate fracture or dislocation. A wrist sprain is a diagnosis of exclusion and should not be considered too early.

Which one of the following is most likely to induce withdrawal symptoms if discontinued abruptly? (check one) A. Venlafaxine (Effexor) B. Divalproex (Depakote) C. Fluoxetine (Prozac) D. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) E. Donepezil (Aricept)

A. Venlafaxine (Effexor). The abrupt discontinuation of venlafaxine, or a reduction in dosage, is associated with withdrawal symptoms much more severe than those seen with other SSRIs such as fluoxetine. Although more pronounced with higher dosages and prolonged administration, they also occur at lower dosages. These symptoms include agitation, anorexia, confusion, impaired coordination, seizures, sweating, tremor, and vomiting. To avoid this withdrawal symptom, dosage changes should be instituted gradually. Abrupt discontinuation of mood stabilizers such as divalproex, and atypical antipsychotics such as olanzapine, can result in the return of psychiatric symptoms, but not severe physiologic dysfunction. Similarly, stopping anticholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil will not cause a withdrawal syndrome.

A 32-year-old white female presents with a 6-week history of increasing headache, which she now describes as severe. The only abnormal finding on examination is a BMI of 32.4 kg/m2 . A neurologic examination is normal. CT of the head is normal and a lumbar puncture is remarkable only for increased cerebrospinal fluid pressure. There is no history of trauma or hypercoagulable disorder. Management should be directed toward preventing which one of the following? (check one) A. Visual loss B. Hearing loss C. Vertigo D. A cerebrovascular accident E. Cerebral herniation

A. Visual loss. Loss of vision is a devastating neurologic deficit that occurs with idiopathic intracranial hypertension (pseudotumor cerebri, benign intracranial hypertension), although it is uncommon. Sixth cranial nerve palsies may also occur as a false localizing sign. The typical presentation is a young, obese woman with a headache, palpable tinnitus, and nausea and vomiting. CT is usually normal or shows small ventricles. The lumbar puncture shows elevated pressure with normal fluid examination. CSF protein levels may be low. Hearing loss and vertigo are not characteristic of this disorder. Long tract signs and facial nerve palsies have been attributed to idiopathic intracranial hypertension; they are atypical and should lead to consideration of other diagnoses.

Total parenteral nutrition is most appropriate for patients: (check one) A. With poorly functioning gastrointestinal tracts who cannot tolerate enteral feeding B. Who cannot swallow because of an esophageal motility problem C. Who refuse to eat D. In whom maintenance nutrition is desired for a short period following recovery from surgery

A. With poorly functioning gastrointestinal tracts who cannot tolerate enteral feeding. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is indicated for patients with poorly functioning gastrointestinal tracts who cannot tolerate other means of nutritional support and for those with high caloric requirements that cannot otherwise be met. Patients who cannot swallow because of an esophageal motility problem and those who are resistant to feeding can be managed with tube feedings. Peripheral alimentation, which provides fewer calories than TPN or liquid tube feedings, would be more appropriate over the short term in patients recovering from surgery.

A 72-year-old male is brought by ambulance to the emergency department with weakness and numbness of his left side that began earlier this morning. While in the emergency department he becomes comatose with infrequent, gasping breaths and is quickly intubated and placed on a ventilator. A full evaluation shows an acute ischemic right-sided stroke. His wife states that she wishes to have the ventilator stopped, as she believes this would be consistent with her husband's wishes in this circumstance. She understands that this would precipitate the patient's death. The wife presents a legally valid advance directive confirming her as the patient's healthcare proxy. Which one of the following responses to the wife's request is most ethically appropriate? (check one) A. Withdraw the ventilator as requested B. Contact the hospital ethics committee to initiate the legal requirements to process the wife's request C. Inform the wife that all life-sustaining care should be given until the patient's condition has been determined to be irreversible D. Inform the wife that intubation may have been avoided in the emergency department, but once life-sustaining care has been initiated it should not be withdrawn E. Promptly contact hospital security or the local law enforcement agency to report the wife's request

A. Withdraw the ventilator as requested. Competent adult patients have the right to refuse any medical intervention, even if forgoing this treatment may result in their death. Legally and ethically it does not matter whether the patient requests that care be withheld before it is started or that it be withdrawn once it is begun. All states currently allow competent patients to legally designate a health-care proxy to make these decisions for them if they become unable to communicate or are no longer competent to decide for themselves. The patient in this example has instituted such a legal advance directive and his proxy's request should be respected as his own and the care withdrawn. If there were no advance directive the decision in this case would become more difficult, and might require a family conference or the involvement of an ethics committee. A patient's condition does not need to be terminal or irreversible to allow the removal of life-sustaining therapy. Legal involvement is rarely required in situations where advance directives are already available and valid.

A 34-year-old female who delivered a healthy infant 18 months ago complains of a milky discharge from both nipples. She reports that normal periods have resumed since cessation of breastfeeding 6 months ago. She takes ethinyl estradiol/norgestimate (Ortho Tri-Cyclen) for birth control. A complete review of systems is otherwise negative. The most likely cause of the discharge is (check one) A. a medication side effect B. breast cancer C. a hypothalamic tumor D. hypothyroidism

A. a medication side effect. This patient has galactorrhea, which is defined as a milk-like discharge from the breast in the absence of pregnancy in a non-breastfeeding patient who is more than 6 months post partum. It is more common in women ages 20-35 and in women who are previously parous. It also can occur in men. Medication side effect is the most common etiology. The most common pharmacologic cause of galactorrhea is oral contraceptives. Oral contraceptives that contain estrogen can both suppress prolactin inhibitory factor and stimulate the pituitary directly, both of which can cause galactorrhea. Other medications that can cause galactorrhea include metoclopramide, cimetidine, risperidone, methyldopa, codeine, morphine, verapamil, SSRIs, butyrophenones, dopamine-receptor blockers, tricyclics, phenothiazines, and thioxanthenes. Breast cancer is unlikely to present with a bilateral milky discharge. The nipple discharge associated with cancer is usually unilateral and bloody. Pituitary tumors are a pathologic cause of galactorrhea due to the hyperprolactinemia that is caused by the blockage of dopamine from the hypothalamus, or by the direct production of prolactin. However, patients often have symptoms such as headache, visual disturbances, temperature intolerance, seizures, disordered appetite, polyuria, and polydipsia. Patients with prolactinomas often have associated amenorrhea. These tumors are associated with marked levels of serum prolactin, often >200 ng/mL. Hypothalamic lesions such as craniopharyngioma, primary hypothalamic tumor, metastatic tumor, histiocytosis X, tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, and empty sella syndrome are significant but infrequent causes of galactorrhea, and generally cause symptoms similar to those of pituitary tumors, particularly headache and visual disturbances. It is rare for primary hypothyroidism to cause galactorrhea in adults. Symptoms that would be a clue to this diagnosis include fatigue, constipation, menstrual irregularity, weight changes, and cold intolerance.

Fibromyalgia is characterized by tender trigger points (check one) A. along the medial border of each scapula B. bilaterally at the anatomic snuffbox C. at the insertion of the Achilles tendon into the posterior heel D. at the second and third web spaces on the plantar surface of the foot

A. along the medial border of each scapula. The typical fibromyalgia trigger points lie along the medial scapula borders, as well as the posterior neck, upper outer quadrants of the gluteal muscles, and medial fat pads of the knees. Tenderness of the anatomic snuffbox, Achilles tendons, or web spaces of the toes would most likely be related to another diagnosis.

While evaluating a stroke patient, you ask him to stick out his tongue. At first he is unable to do this, but a few moments later he performs this movement spontaneously. This defect is known as: (check one) A. apraxia B. agnosia C. expressive (Broca's) aphasia D. astereognosis

A. apraxia. Apraxia is a transmission disturbance on the output side, which interferes with skilled movements. Even though the patient understands the request, he is unable to perform the task when asked, but may then perform it after a time delay. Agnosia is the inability to recognize previously familiar sensory input, and is a modality-bound deficit. For example, it results in a loss of ability to recognize objects. Aphasia is a language disorder, and expressive aphasia is a loss of the ability to express language. The ability to recognize objects by palpation in one hand but not the other is called astereognosis.

According to the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, multivitamin supplements in the geriatric age group: (check one) A. are not recommended for prevention of any disorder B. should be prescribed to reduce elevated homocysteine levels C. decrease coronary atherosclerosis D. decrease the incidence of lung cancer E. decrease the incidence of colon cancer

A. are not recommended for prevention of any disorder. The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force makes no specific recommendations for vitamins or antioxidants to prevent cancer or cardiovascular disease. Moreover, it makes no specific recommendations for vitamin supplements for any condition.

In addition to calcium and vitamin D supplementation, patients who are beginning long-term treatment with prednisone (≥3 months at a dosage ≥5 mg/day) should also receive (check one) A. bisphosphonate therapy B. calcitonin C. estrogen replacement therapy D. recombinant human parathyroid hormone E. raloxifene (Evista)

A. bisphosphonate therapy. The American College of Rheumatology recommends that patients who are beginning long-term treatment with prednisone (≥3 months at a dosage ≥5 mg/day), or an equivalent, receive bisphosphonate therapy in addition to calcium and vitamin D supplementation, regardless of their DEXA-scan T score. The other treatments are not recommended for prevention of glucocorticoid-induced osteoporosis.

A 24-year-old female who works at a day-care facility presents to your office to discuss ways to avoid getting "all the infections the kids get." She plans to enroll her child in the facility. She is specifically concerned about diarrheal illnesses, and a friend has suggested the use of probiotics. (check one) A. can lessen the severity and duration of infectious diarrhea B. are recommended only for patients who are immunocompromised C. have no known side effects D. often interact with common prescription medications E. are not appropriate for use in children

A. can lessen the severity and duration of infectious diarrhea. Probiotics are microorganisms with likely health benefits, based on recent randomized, controlled trials. Good evidence suggests that probiotics reduce the incidence, duration, and severity of antibiotic-associated and infectious diarrhea. Common side effects include flatulence and abdominal pain. Contraindications include short-gut syndromes and immunocompromised states. There are no known drug interactions, and these agents appear safe for all ages (SOR A).

A 70-year-old retired engineer who is an avid runner asks you about his slow, progressive decrease in exercise performance. He says he realizes he is getting older, but is in good health and is curious as to why this is happening. You tell him that there are multiple physiologic changes associated with aging that lower exercise performance, including a decrease in: (check one) A. cardiac output B. systolic blood pressure C. pulse pressure D. residual lung volume

A. cardiac output. Cardiovascular changes associated with aging include decreased cardiac output, maximum heart rate, and stroke volume, as well as increased systolic and diastolic blood pressure. Respiratory changes include an increase in residual lung volume and a decrease in vital capacity. Other changes include decreases in nerve conduction, proprioception and balance, maximum O2 uptake, bone mass, muscle strength, and flexibility. Most of these changes, however, can be reduced in degree by a regular aerobic and resistance training program.

A 68-year-old white male with diabetes mellitus is hospitalized after suffering a right middle cerebral artery stroke. A nurse in the intensive-care unit calls to advise you that his blood pressure is 200/110 mm Hg. You should: (check one) A. continue monitoring the patient B. administer labetalol (Trandate) C. administer nicardipine (Cardene) D. administer nitroprusside (Nitropress) E. administer nitroglycerin

A. continue monitoring the patient. Current American Heart Association guidelines for blood pressure control in stroke patients advise monitoring with no additional treatment for patients with a systolic blood pressure <220 mm Hg or a diastolic blood pressure <120 mm Hg. The elevated blood pressure is thought to be a protective mechanism that increases cerebral perfusion, and lowering the blood pressure may increase morbidity.

A 34-year-old white male is brought to the emergency department following an automobile accident in which he was the only occupant of the vehicle. He lost control of the vehicle and hit a utility pole. He was knocked unconscious initially, but he is now awake and combative. You note a strong smell of alcohol. He has a frontal hematoma approximately 3 cm in diameter and an actively bleeding 4-cm laceration of the occiput. He will not permit you to examine him further and he prepares to leave the emergency department. You should: (check one) A. detain him in the emergency department B. make him sign out against medical advice C. tell him that he cannot return if he leaves D. tell him that if he leaves he can return later

A. detain him in the emergency department. Two of the most important ethical principles in medicine are respect for autonomy and beneficence. Respect for autonomy means regarding patients as rightfully self-governing in matters of choice and action. To make an autonomous decision, the patient must be mentally sound, have knowledge and understanding of the facts, and be free of coercion. Beneficence means that physicians are motivated solely by what is good for the patient. There are often ethical conflicts between these two principles. This particular patient is clearly in need of further emergency treatment, but he refuses. He has had a significant head injury, is combative and possibly intoxicated, and therefore cannot be considered mentally sound. The physician should detain him for his own good and provide the appropriate care. Threatening the patient, having him sign out against medical advice, or encouraging him to return later is not appropriate because his mentation is impaired.

You see a 30-year-old white male for the first time for a routine evaluation. He says that he has been bothered by multiple skin lesions on the neck and axillae. On examination you note numerous skin tags. The presence of these lesions indicates an increased risk for: (check one) A. diabetes mellitus B. squamous cell skin cancer C. melanoma D. glioblastoma multiforme E. AIDS

A. diabetes mellitus. Skin tags, or acrochordons, are associated with diabetes mellitus and obesity. The onset often occurs in early adulthood, and the most common locations are the neck and axillae. These skin lesions are not associated with any significant cancer risk, and have not been associated with HIV infection.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 56 ======================================================= The most common presenting symptom of obstructive sleep apnea is: (check one) A. excessive daytime sleepiness B. snoring C. morning headache D. gastroesophageal reflux E. enuresis

A. excessive daytime sleepiness. The most common presenting symptom of obstructive sleep apnea is excessive daytime sleepiness (SOR A). Other symptoms include snoring, unrefreshing or restless sleep, witnessed apneas and nocturnal choking, morning headache, nocturia or enuresis, gastroesophageal reflux, and reduced libido.

A 60-year-old African-American male who has a 15-year history of diabetes mellitus reports a 1-week history of weakness of the lower left leg, giving way of the knee, and discomfort in the anterior thigh. He has no history of recent trauma. A physical examination reveals decreased sensation to pinprick and light touch over the left anterior thigh, and reduced motor strength on hip flexion and knee extension. The straight leg raising test is normal. The most likely cause of this condition is: (check one) A. femoral neuropathy B. diabetic polyneuropathy C. meralgia paresthetica D. spinal stenosis E. iliofemoral atherosclerosis

A. femoral neuropathy. These findings are typical of femoral neuropathy, a mononeuropathy commonly associated with diabetes mellitus, although it has been found to be secondary to a number of conditions that are common in diabetics and not to the diabetes itself. Diabetic polyneuropathy is characterized by symmetric and distal limb sensory and motor deficits. Meralgia paresthetica, or lateral femoral cutaneous neuropathy, may be secondary to diabetes mellitus, but is manifested by numbness and paresthesia over the anterolateral thigh with no motor dysfunction. Spinal stenosis causes pain in the legs, but is not associated with the neurologic signs seen in this patient, nor with knee problems. Iliofemoral atherosclerosis, a relatively common complication of diabetes mellitus, may produce intermittent claudication involving one or both calf muscles but would not produce the motor weakness noted in this patient.

The most likely etiologic agent is (check one) A. human parvovirus B. adenovirus C. cytomegalovirus D. coxsackievirus

A. human parvovirus. All of these viruses can cause an erythematous exanthem; however, this description is classic for fifth disease, or erythema infectiosum. It was the fifth exanthem to be identified after measles, scarlet fever, rubella, and Filatov-Dukes disease (atypical scarlet fever). Roseola infantum is known as sixth disease. Erythema infectiosum is caused by parvovirus B19. It presents with the typical viral prodrome, along with mild upper respiratory symptoms. The hallmark rash has three stages. The first is a facial flushing, described as a "slapped cheek" appearance. In the next stage, the exanthem can spread concurrently to the trunk and proximal extremities as a diffuse macular erythematous rash. Finally, central clearing of this rash creates a lacy, reticulated appearance, as seen in Figure 1. This rash tends to be on the extensor surfaces and spares the palms and soles. It resolves in 1-3 weeks but can recur with heat, stress, and exposure to sunlight.

Dizziness is most likely to have a serious etiology when it (check one) A. is associated with diplopia B. is associated with intense nausea and vomiting C. occurs when the patient rolls over in bed D. occurs when the patient first arises in the morning E. occurs after 2 minutes of hyperventilation

A. is associated with diplopia. Diplopia, along with other neurologic symptoms such as weakness or difficulty with speech, suggests a central cause of vertigo and requires a complete workup. Dizziness on first arising, dizziness with rolling over in bed, and dizziness with nausea and vomiting are consistent with peripheral causes of vertigo, such as benign positional vertigo. Dizziness that occurs after a couple of minutes of hyperventilation suggests a psychogenic cause.

About a month after returning from the Middle East, an American soldier develops a papule on his forearm that subsequently ulcerates to form a shallow annular lesion with a raised margin. The lesion shows no signs of healing 3 months after it first appeared. He has no systemic symptoms. The most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. leishmaniasis B. schistosomiasis C. malaria D. trypanosomiasis E. syphilis

A. leishmaniasis. The indolent course of the sore described favors the diagnosis of cutaneous leishmaniasis. Neither malaria nor schistosomiasis produces these sores. The chancres of syphilis and trypanosomiasis are more fleeting in duration.

You have been treating a 43-year-old male for unipolar depression for 4 years. He has developed treatment-resistant depression, and despite having a good initial response to an SSRI, his symptoms are worsening. He has failed to improve despite escalated doses of multiple SSRIs and SNRIs. He is currently taking citalopram (Celexa), 60 mg daily. Of the following, the most effective adjunctive therapy would be augmentation with: (check one) A. lithium bicarbonate B. high-dose triiodothyronine C. an atypical antipsychotic, such as olanzapine (Zyprexa) D. an anticonvulsant, such as gabapentin (Neurontin)

A. lithium bicarbonate. Up to one-third of patients with unipolar depression will fail to respond to treatment with a single antidepressant, despite adequate dosing and an appropriate treatment interval. Lithium, triiodothyronine (T3 ), and atypical antipsychotics can all provide clinical improvement when used in conjunction with the ineffective antidepressant. The American Psychiatric Association and the Institute for Clinical Systems Improvement both recommend a trial of lithium or low-dose T 3 for patients who have an incomplete response to antidepressant therapy. A meta-analysis showed that a serum lithium level ≥0.5 mEq/L and a treatment duration of 2 weeks or greater resulted in a good response (SOR A). While thyroid supplementation as adjunctive therapy is effective, the recommended dosage is no higher than 50 μg/day (SOR B). Atypical antipsychotics can be used as add-on therapy, but are not as effective as lithium or T3 (SOR B). Anticonvulsant medications such as gabapentin have been shown to be effective in the management of bipolar affective disorder, but not as adjunctive therapy in the treatment of unipolar depression resistant to single-agent antidepressants.

A 68-year-old female presents with a several-month history of weight loss, fatigue, decreased appetite, and vague abdominal pain. The most appropriate initial test to rule out adrenal insufficiency is: (check one) A. morning serum cortisol B. a cosyntropin (ACTH) stimulation test C. MRI D. an insulin tolerance test E. a metyrapone test

A. morning serum cortisol. A single morning serum cortisol level >13µg/dL reliably excludes adrenal insufficiency. If the morning cortisol level is lower than this, further evaluation with a 1µg ACTH stimulation test is necessary, although the test is somewhat difficult. It requires dilution of the ACTH prior to administration, and requires multiple blood draws. The insulin tolerance test and metyrapone test, although historically considered to be "gold standards," are not widely available or commonly used in clinical practice. MRI does not provide information about adrenal function.

A 45-year-old white male is admitted to the intensive-care unit after being pinned in a car wreck for 2 hours. He has sustained several broken bones and crush injuries to both thighs. On admission his urine is clear but the next morning it is burgundy colored. Some fresh urine is drawn from his Foley catheter and sent for analysis, with the following results: Specific gravity............1.020 pH............6.0 Protein............30 mg/dL (N 1-14) Glucose............negative Hemoglobin............4+ Urobilinogen............0.1 Ehrlich Units (N 0.1-1.0) Bile............negative RBCs............1-2/hpf WBCs............0-2/hpf Occasional hyaline casts You immediately order a CBC which shows his hematocrit to have dropped 4 percentage points overnight. Visual inspection of the serum shows it is light yellow. The color of his urine is most likely due to (check one) A. myoglobinuria B. hematuria from trauma to the urinary tract C. a transfusion reaction with hemolysis of RBCs and free hemoglobin into the urine D. hemoglobinuria resulting from reabsorption of hemoglobin from hematomas E. acute porphyria provoked by trauma

A. myoglobinuria. A positive dipstick for hemoglobin without any RBCs noted in the urine sediment indicates either free hemoglobin or myoglobin in the urine. Since the specimen in this case was a fresh sample, significant RBC hemolysis within the urine would not be expected. If a transfusion reaction occurs, haptoglobin binds enough free hemoglobin in the serum to give it a pink coloration. Only when haptoglobin is saturated will the free hemoglobin be excreted in the urine. Myoglobin is released when skeletal muscle is destroyed by trauma, infarction, or intrinsic muscle disease. If the hematuria were due to trauma there would be many RBCs visible on microscopic examination of the urine. Free hemoglobin resorption from hematomas does not occur. Porphyria may cause urine to be burgundy colored, but it is not associated with a positive urine test for hemoglobin.

A previously alert, otherwise healthy 74-year-old African-American male has a history of slowly developing progressive memory loss and dementia associated with urinary incontinence and gait disturbance resembling ataxia. This presentation is most consistent with: (check one) A. normal pressure hydrocephalus B. Alzheimer's disease C. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis D. multiple sclerosis

A. normal pressure hydrocephalus. In normal pressure hydrocephalus a mild impairment of memory typically develops gradually over weeks or months, accompanied by mental and physical slowness. The condition progresses insidiously to severe dementia. Patients also develop an unsteady gait and urinary incontinence, but there are no signs of increased intracranial pressure. In Alzheimer's disease the brain very gradually atrophies. A disturbance in memory for recent events is usually the first symptom, along with some disorientation to time and place; otherwise, there are no symptoms for some period of time. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis usually occurs in children and young adults between the ages of 4 and 20 years and is characterized by deterioration in behavior and work. The most characteristic neurologic sign is mild clonus. Multiple sclerosis is characteristically marked by recurrent attacks of demyelinization. The clinical picture is pleomorphic, but there are usually sufficient typical features of incoordination, paresthesias, and visual complaints. Mental changes may occur in the advanced stages of the disease. About two-thirds of those affected are between the ages of 20 and 40.

A 42-year-old male with well-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with a 24-hour history of influenza-like symptoms, including the sudden onset of headache, fever, myalgias, sore throat, and cough. It is December, and there have been a few documented cases of influenza recently in the community. The CDC recommends initiating treatment in this situation: (check one) A. on the basis of clinical symptoms alone B. only if rapid influenza testing is positive C. only if the diagnosis is confirmed by immunoassay testing D. only if the diagnosis is confirmed by reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assay

A. on the basis of clinical symptoms alone. Influenza is a highly contagious viral illness spread by airborne droplets. This patient's symptoms are highly suggestive of typical influenza: a sudden onset of malaise, myalgia, headache, fever, rhinitis, sore throat, and cough. While influenza is typically uncomplicated and self-limited, it can result in severe complications, including encephalitis, pneumonia, respiratory failure, and death. The effectiveness of treatment for influenza is dependent on how early in the course of the illness it is given. Because of the recent global H1N1 influenza outbreak that resulted in demand potentially outstripping the supply of antiviral medication, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention has modified its recommendation as follows: Antiviral treatment is recommended as soon as possible for patients with confirmed or suspected influenza who have severe, complicated, or progressive illness or who require hospitalization. Antiviral treatment is recommended as soon as possible for outpatients with confirmed or suspected influenza who are at higher risk for influenza complications based on their age or underlying medical conditions. Clinical judgment should be an important component of outpatient treatment decisions. Antiviral treatment also may be considered on the basis of clinical judgment for any outpatient with confirmed or suspected influenza who does not have known risk factors for severe illness, if treatment can be initiated within 48 hours of illness onset. Many rapid influenza tests produce false-negative results, and more accurate assays can take more than 24 hours. Thus, treatment of patients with a clinical picture suggesting influenza is recommended, even if a rapid test is negative. Delaying treatment until further test results are available is not recommended.

A 50-year-old female complains of a 6-month history of the insidious onset of right shoulder pain and decreased range of motion. She does not respond to consistent use of prescription strength anti-inflammatory medication. Radiographs are negative. Treatment of this patient's condition should include: (check one) A. physical therapy with home exercises B. early surgical referral C. a short course of oral methylprednisolone D. corticosteroid injection of the acromioclavicular joint

A. physical therapy with home exercises. This patient most likely has either adhesive capsulitis or a degenerative rotator cuff tendinopathy. It is important to rule out osteoarthritis with radiographs. Treatment typically includes NSAIDs, subacromial cortisone injections, and physical therapy. These problems take months to treat and should not be referred quickly for surgical evaluation, unless the diagnosis is in question.

You see a 90-year-old male with a 5-year history of progressive hearing loss. The most common type of hearing loss at this age affects: (check one) A. predominantly high frequencies B. predominantly mid frequencies C. predominantly low frequencies D. all frequencies roughly the same

A. predominantly high frequencies. In the geriatric population, presbycusis is the most common cause of hearing loss. Patients typically have the most difficulty hearing higher-frequency sounds such as consonants. Lower-frequency sounds such as vowels are preserved.

You volunteer some of your time to provide services to athletes at a small liberal arts college that has several NCAA Division II teams. When screening these athletes for health problems, you would advise that students with uncontrolled stage 2 hypertension should not participate in: (check one) A. rowing B. soccer C. tennis D. fencing E. baseball

A. rowing. Students with uncontrolled stage 2 hypertension should not participate in sports associated with static exercise, in which the blood pressure load is more significantly increased (SOR C). Rowing involves both a high static and a high dynamic load. Soccer, tennis, fencing, and baseball have relatively few static exercise components and blood pressure spikes are less likely.

A 7-year-old female is brought to your clinic by her mother, who has concerns about her behavior. For the last 2 months, the patient has resisted going to school. Each school morning she complains of not feeling well and asks to stay home. When forcibly taken to school she cries and begs to go home. Once at home she is playful and engages in normal activities. She also resists attending her usual swimming lessons in the evenings. She has frequent nightmares in which one of her parents dies. After a thorough history and physical examination rule out an underlying medical condition, you diagnose the patient with: (check one) A. separation anxiety disorder B. generalized anxiety disorder C. acute stress disorder D. panic disorder with agoraphobia E. social phobia

A. separation anxiety disorder. This patient suffers from separation anxiety disorder, which is unique to pediatric patients and is characterized by excessive anxiety regarding separation from the home or from people the child is attached to, such as family members or other caregivers. The anxiety is beyond what is developmentally appropriate for the child's age. Patients may even suffer distress from anticipation of the separation. Other characteristics include persistent worry about harm occurring to major attachment figures, worry about an event that may separate the patient from caregivers, reluctance to attend school due to the separation it implies, fear of being alone, recurring nightmares with themes of separation, and physical complaints when faced with separation. Children diagnosed with separation anxiety disorder must be under 18 years of age and have had symptoms for at least 4 weeks. Social phobia is a persistent fear of a specific object or situation. Exposure to the object provokes an immediate anxiety response such as a panic attack. To meet the criteria for social phobia, patients must suffer symptoms for at least 6 months. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized as excessive anxiety and worry regarding a number of events or activities. Physical symptoms include restlessness, irritability, or sleep disturbance. Symptoms must be present for at least 6 months. Acute stress disorder occurs after a traumatic event that the individual considers life threatening. Patients experience dissociative symptoms, flashbacks, and increased arousal. Symptoms are present for at least 2 days, with a maximum of 4 weeks. Beyond 4 weeks, a diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder is made. Panic disorder with agoraphobia is characterized by recurrent panic attacks with a fear of being in situations in which the patient cannot escape or may be embarrassed by doing so. Symptoms must be present for 1 month for the diagnosis to be made (SOR C).

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) (check one) A. sets a federal minimum on the protection of privacy B. requires that privacy notices be acknowledged and signed at each office visit C. allows the patient to inspect and obtain a copy of his/her record without exception D. requires privacy notices prior to giving emergency care

A. sets a federal minimum on the protection of privacy. HIPAA regulations set a minimum standard for privacy protection. Privacy notices must be provided at the first delivery of health services, and written acknowledgement is encouraged but not required.Exceptions to patient inspections include psychotherapy notes and instances where disclosure is likely to cause substantial harm to the patient or another individual in the judgment of a licensed health professional. Although it is not necessary to provide patients with a privacy notice before rendering emergency care, it is required that patients be provided with a privacy notice after the emergency has ended.

A 20-year-old female long-distance runner presents with a 3-month history of amenorrhea. A pregnancy test is negative, and other blood work is normal. She has no other medical problems and takes no medications. With respect to her amenorrhea, you advise her (check one) A. to increase her caloric intake B. that this is a normal response to training C. to begin an estrogen-containing oral contraceptive D. to stop running

A. to increase her caloric intake. Amenorrhea is an indicator of inadequate calorie intake, which may be related to either reduced food consumption or increased energy use. This is not a normal response to training, and may be the first indication of a potential developing problem. Young athletes may develop a combination of conditions, including eating disorders, amenorrhea, and osteoporosis (the female athlete triad). Amenorrhea usually responds to increased calorie intake or a decrease in exercise intensity. It is not necessary for patients such as this one to stop running entirely, however.

When prescribing an inhaled corticosteroid for control of asthma, the risk of oral candidiasis can be decreased by: (check one) A. using a valved holding chamber B. limiting use of the inhaled corticosteroid to once daily C. adding nasal fluticasone propionate (Flonase) D. adding montelukast (Singulair) E. adding salmeterol (Serevent)

A. using a valved holding chamber. Pharyngeal and laryngeal side effects of inhaled corticosteroids include sore throat, coughing on inhalation of the medication, a weak or hoarse voice, and oral candidiasis. Rinsing the mouth after each administration of the medication and using a valved holding chamber when it is delivered with a metered-dose inhaler can minimize the risk of oral candidiasis.

A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with chronic normocytic anemia with a hemoglobin level of 7.8 g/dL. The best outcome is predicted if you raise the hemoglobin level to: (check one) A. 8-10 g/dL B. 10-12 g/dL C. 12-14 g/dL D. >14 g/dL

B. 10-12 g/dL. The Cardiovascular risk Reduction by Early Anemia Treatment with Epoetin Beta (CREATE) trial, the Correction of Hemoglobin and Outcomes in Renal insufficiency (CHOIR) trial, and the Trial to Reduce Cardiovascular Events with Aranesp Therapy (TREAT) have shown that patients who had hemoglobin levels targeted to normal ranges did worse than patients who had hemoglobin levels of 10-12 g/dL. The incidence of stroke, heart failure, and death increased in patients targeted to normal hemoglobin levels, and there was no demonstrable decrease in cardiovascular events (SOR A).

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 84 ======================================================= In 2001, the National Cholesterol Education Program published updated guidelines for cholesterol testing and management, as recommended by its Expert Panel on Detection, Evaluation, and Treatment of High Blood Cholesterol in Adults. According to these guidelines and the 2004 Adult Treatment Panel (ATP) III Update, the target LDL cholesterol for patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus is: (check one) A. 60 mg/dL B. 100 mg/dL C. 130 mg/dL D. 160 mg/dL E. 200 mg/dL

B. 100 mg/dL. The 2001 National Cholesterol Education Program Adult Treatment Panel III guidelines and the 2004 update, as well as guidelines previously published by the American Diabetes Association, have established a target LDL cholesterol level of 100 mg/dL for patients with diabetes. This target is also applicable for individuals with known coronary artery disease (CAD), symptomatic carotid artery disease, abdominal aortic aneurysm, peripheral vascular disease, and multiple risk factors that confer a 10-year risk for coronary heart disease that is >20%. An LDL level of 130 mg/dL is acceptable for other individuals with only two risk factors for CAD and a 10-year CAD risk <20%, and 160 mg/dL is the upper limit of acceptability for patients with no more than one risk factor for CAD and a 10-year CAD risk <20%.

A hemoglobin A1c of 7.0% would correspond to which one of the following mean (average) plasma glucose levels? (check one) A. 126 mg/dL B. 154 mg/dL C. 183 mg/dL D. 212 mg/dL E. 240 mg/dL

B. 154 mg/dL. A hemoglobin A1c(HbA1c) of 6.0% correlates with a mean plasma glucose level of 126 mg/dL or 7.0 1c 1c mmol/dL. A calculator to convert HbA1clevels into estimated average glucose levels is available at http://professional.diabetes.org/eAG. A rough guide for estimating average plasma glucose levels assumes that an 1cof 6.0% equals an average glucose level of 120 mg/dL. Each percentage point increase in 1c is equivalent to a 30-mg/dL rise in average glucose. An HbA1cof 7.0% is therefore roughly equivalent to an average glucose level of 150 mg/dL, and an HbA1c of 8.0% translates to an average glucose level of 180 mg/dL.

The FDA recommends that over-the-counter cough and cold products not be used in children below the age of: (check one) A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 3 years D. 4 years E. 5 years

B. 2 years. In 2008 the FDA issued a public health advisory for parents and caregivers, recommending that over-the-counter cough and cold products not be used to treat infants and children younger than 2 years of age, because serious and potentially life-threatening side effects can occur from such use. These products include decongestants, expectorants, antihistamines, and antitussives.

A 69-year-old male has a 4-day history of swelling in his left leg. He has no history of trauma, recent surgery, prolonged immobilization, weight loss, or malaise. His examination is unremarkable except for a diffusely swollen left leg. A CBC, chemistry profile, prostate-specific antigen level, chest radiograph, and EKG are all normal; however, compression ultrasonography of the extremity reveals a clot in the proximal femoral vein. He has no past history of venous thromboembolic disease. In addition to initiating therapy with low molecular weight heparin, the American College of Chest Physicians recommends that warfarin (Coumadin) be instituted now and continued for at least (check one) A. 1 month B. 3 months C. 6 months D. 12 months

B. 3 months. For patients with a first episode of unprovoked deep venous thrombosis, evidence supports treatment with a vitamin K antagonist for at least 3 months (SOR A). The American College of Chest Physicians recommends that patients be evaluated at that point for the potential risks and benefits of long-term therapy (SOR C).

An 80-year-old female is being started on warfarin (Coumadin) for atrial fibrillation. According to the American College of Chest Physicians guidelines, the initial dose in this patient should NOT exceed: (check one) A. 2.5 mg B. 5 mg C. 7.5 mg D. 10 mg E. 12.5 mg

B. 5 mg. The American College of Chest Physicians recommends a starting warfarin dosage of ≤5 mg/day in elderly patients, or in patients who have conditions such as heart failure, liver disease, or a history of recent surgery. The INR should be used to guide adjustments in the dosage.

A 55-year-old male consults you because he wants to begin an exercise program. He is asymptomatic, but because of his family history you determine that he should undergo a stress test with echocardiography. Which one of the following would be considered a normal ejection fraction in this patient? (check one) A. 48% B. 65% C. 76% D. 84% E. 92%

B. 65%. The ejection fraction value is an important measure of left ventricular function, especially with regard to previous cardiac events, medications, exercise tolerance, and preoperative risk. The normal predicted value is 55%-75% when measured by echocardiography in a healthy asymptomatic patient. There is no gender difference, but there is a decline with age. It may be as low as 15% in patients with left ventricular dysfunction. Ischemic and valvular heart disease may significantly reduce the ejection fraction.

Screening for colon cancer would be recommended for which one of the following patients? (check one) A. A 35-year-old male whose mother was diagnosed with colon cancer at age 52 B. A 40-year-old female whose mother was diagnosed with colon cancer at age 54 C. A 44-year-old female whose father had a tubular adenoma <1 cm in size removed during colonoscopy at age 50 D. A 46-year-old male whose paternal uncle was diagnosed with colon cancer at age 51 E. A 48-year-old female whose father was diagnosed with colon cancer at age 74

B. A 40-year-old female whose mother was diagnosed with colon cancer at age 54. A history of a first degree relative diagnosed with colon cancer before age 60 predicts a higher lifetime incidence of colorectal cancer (CRC) and a higher yield on colonoscopic screening. The overall colon cancer risk for these persons is three to four times that of the general population. Screening should consist of colonoscopy, beginning either at age 40 or 10 years before the age at diagnosis of the youngest affected relative, whichever comes first. The 2008 update of the guidelines on screening for CRC published by the American College of Gastroenterology no longer recommends earlier screening for patients who have a single first degree relative with CRC diagnosed at 60 years of age or after. Another change in this guideline is that an increased level of screening is no longer recommended for a simple family history of adenomas in a first degree relative.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 06 ======================================================= Which one of the following patients should be advised to take aspirin, 81 mg daily, for the primary prevention of stroke? (check one) A. A 42-year-old male with a history of hypertension B. A 72-year-old female with no chronic medical conditions C. An 80-year-old male with a history of depression D. An 87-year-old female with a history of peptic ulcer disease

B. A 72-year-old female with no chronic medical conditions. The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) has summarized the evidence for the use of aspirin in the primary prevention of cardiovascular disease as follows: The USPSTF recommends the use of aspirin for men 45-79 years of age when the potential benefit from a reduction in myocardial infarctions outweighs the potential harm from an increase in gastrointestinal hemorrhage (Grade A recommendation) The USPSTF recommends the use of aspirin for women 55-79 years of age when the potential benefit of a reduction in ischemic strokes outweighs the potential harm of an increase in gastrointestinal hemorrhage (Grade A recommendation) The USPSTF concludes that the current evidence is insufficient to assess the balance of benefits and harms of aspirin for cardiovascular disease prevention in men and women 80 years of age or older (Grade I statement) The USPSTF recommends against the use of aspirin for stroke prevention in women younger than 55 and for myocardial infarction prevention in men younger than 45 (Grade D recommendation) In summary, consistent evidence from randomized clinical trials indicates that aspirin use reduces the risk for cardiovascular disease events in adults without a history of cardiovascular disease. It reduces the risk for myocardial infarction in men, and ischemic stroke in women. Consistent evidence shows that aspirin use increases the risk for gastrointestinal bleeding, and limited evidence shows that aspirin use increases the risk for hemorrhagic strokes. The overall benefit in the reduction of cardiovascular disease events with aspirin use depends on baseline risk and the risk for gastrointestinal bleeding.

Which one of the following community health programs best fits the definition of secondary prevention? (check one) A. A smoking education program at a local middle school B. A blood pressure screening at a local church C. A condom distribution program D. Screening diabetic patients for microalbuminuria

B. A blood pressure screening at a local church. Prevention traditionally has been divided into three categories: primary, secondary, and tertiary. Primary prevention targets individuals who may be at risk to develop a medical condition and intervenes to prevent the onset of that condition (e.g., childhood vaccination programs, water fluoridation, antismoking programs, and education about safe sex). Secondary prevention targets individuals who have developed an asymptomatic disease and institutes treatment to prevent complications (e.g., routine Papanicolaou smears, and screening for hypertension, diabetes, or hyperlipidemia). Tertiary prevention targets individuals with a known disease, with the goal of limiting or preventing future complications (e.g., screening diabetics for microalbuminuria, rigorous treatment of diabetes mellitus, and post-myocardial infarction prophylaxis with β-blockers and aspirin).

======================================================= Reproductive (Female) Board Review Questions 07 ======================================================= Black cohosh is: (check one) A. A form of herbal licorice with gastrointestinal effects B. A botanical medicine used to alleviate menopausal symptoms C. A type of toxic hallucinogenic mushroom D. A variety of Cannabis sativa E. A form of dried hashish

B. A botanical medicine used to alleviate menopausal symptoms. Black cohosh is an herbal preparation widely used in the treatment of menopausal symptoms and menstrual dysfunction. Studies have demonstrated that this botanic medicine appears to be effective in alleviating menopausal symptoms. It has not been proven effective in randomized controlled trials and should not be used to prevent osteoporosis. Questions as to its stimulating effect on endometrial tissue are as yet unanswered.

A 55-year-old male presents with a 2-year history of persistent, worsening neck stiffness. Over the past month, the stiffness has been associated with left thumb tingling. After completing a thorough history and physical examination, which one of the following studies would be the most appropriate next step in further evaluating the patient's complaints? (check one) A. Lateral neck radiography B. A cervical spine series C. Neck MRI D. CT myelography E. Diskography

B. A cervical spine series. Based on the American College of Radiology's Appropriateness Criteria for chronic neck pain, a complete cervical spine series that includes five views is the correct study in a patient of any age with chronic neck pain and no history of trauma, malignancy, or surgery. If the radiographs are normal and the patient has neurologic signs or symptoms, the next step would be MRI. If MRI is contraindicated, CT myelography should be offered (SOR B). A single lateral radiograph is not sufficient. Diskography is not recommended in patients with chronic neck pain (SOR C).

A 42-year-old female presents with a 2-day history of chest pain. She describes the pain as sharp, located in the right upper chest, and worsened by deep breathing or coughing. She also complains of shortness of breath. She was previously healthy and has no recent history of travel. Her vital signs are normal. A pleural friction rub is noted on auscultation of the lungs. The remainder of the examination is normal. An EKG, cardiac enzymes, oxygen saturation, and a D-dimer level are all normal. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. No further testing B. A chest radiograph C. An antinuclear antibody test D. Echocardiography E. Pulmonary angiography

B. A chest radiograph. This patient has pleurisy. Patients presenting with pleuritic chest pain may have life-threatening disorders, and pulmonary embolism, acute myocardial infarction, and pneumothorax should be excluded. While 5%-20% of patients with pulmonary embolism present with pleuritic chest pain, this patient has no risks for pulmonary embolism and the normal D-dimer level obviates the need for further evaluation. Moderate- to high-risk patients may need a helical CT scan or other diagnostic testing. An EKG and chest radiograph are recommended in the evaluation of acute/subacute pleuritic chest pain. The chest radiograph will exclude pneumothorax, pleural effusion, or pneumonia. An echocardiogram would not be indicated if the cardiac examination and EKG are normal. An antinuclear antibody level could be considered in recurrent pleurisy or if other symptoms or signs of lupus were present, but it would not be indicated in this patient. Most cases of acute pleurisy are viral and should be treated with NSAIDs unless the workup indicates another problem.

A 42-year-old female is found to have a thyroid nodule during her annual physical examination. Her TSH level is normal. Ultrasonography of her thyroid gland shows a solitary nodule measuring 1.2 cm. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. A radionuclide thyroid scan B. A fine-needle aspiration biopsy of the nodule C. Partial thyroidectomy D. Total thyroidectomy E. Reassurance

B. A fine-needle aspiration biopsy of the nodule. All patients who are found to have a thyroid nodule on a physical examination should have their TSH measured. Patients with a suppressed TSH should be evaluated with a radionuclide thyroid scan; nodules that are "hot" (show increased isotope uptake) are almost never malignant and fine-needle aspiration biopsy is not needed. For all other nodules, the next step in the workup is a fine-needle aspiration biopsy to determine whether the lesion is malignant (SOR B).

A 23-year-old male returns from a Florida beach vacation, where he sustained a cut to his foot while wading. The cut wasn't treated when it happened, and it is healing, but he says that it feels like something in the wound is "poking" him. Of the following, which one would most likely be easily visible on plain film radiography? (check one) A. A wood splinter B. A glass splinter C. A plastic splinter D. A sea urchin spine

B. A glass splinter. Almost all glass is visible on radiographs if it is 2 mm or larger, and contrary to popular belief, it doesn't have to contain lead to be visible on plain films. Many common or highly reactive materials, such as wood, thorns, cactus spines, some fish bones, other organic matter, and most plastics, are not visible on plain films. Alternative techniques such as ultrasonography or CT scanning may be effective and necessary in those cases. Sea urchin spines, like many animal parts, have not been found to be easily detected by plain radiography.

A 39-year-old female presents with lower abdominal/pelvic pain. On examination, with the patient in a supine position, you palpate the tender area of her abdomen. When you have her raise both legs off the table while you palpate the abdomen, her pain intensifies. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Appendicitis B. A hematoma within the abdominal wall musculature C. Diverticulitis D. Pelvic inflammatory disease E. An ovarian cyst

B. A hematoma within the abdominal wall musculature. Carnett's sign is the easing of the pain of abdominal palpation with tightening of the abdominal muscles. If the cause is visceral, the taut abdominal muscles could guard the source of pain from the examining hand. In contrast, intensification of pain with this maneuver points to a source of pain within the abdominal wall itself.

A 6-year-old male is brought in for evaluation by his mother, who is concerned that he may have asthma. She reports that he coughs about 3 days out of the week and has a nighttime cough approximately 1 night per week. There is a family history of eczema and allergic rhinitis. Which one of the following would be the preferred initial treatment for this patient? (check one) A. A leukotriene receptor antagonist such as montelukast (Singulair) B. A low-dose inhaled corticosteroid such as budesonide (Pulmicort Turbuhaler) C. A long-acting beta-agonist such as salmeterol (Serevent) D. A mast-cell stabilizer such as cromolyn sodium (Intal)

B. A low-dose inhaled corticosteroid such as budesonide (Pulmicort Turbuhaler). The National Asthma Education and Prevention Program (NAEPP) updated its recommendations for the treatment of asthma in 2002. Treatment is based on asthma classification. This child meets the criteria for mild persistent asthma: symptoms more than 2 times per week but less than once a day, symptoms less than 2 nights per month, peak expiratory flow (PEF) or FEV1 >80% of predicted, and a PEF variability of 20%-30%. Asthma controller medications are recommended for all patients with persistent asthma, and the preferred long-term controller treatment in mild persistent asthma is a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid. Cromolyn, leukotriene modifiers, nedocromil, and sustained-release theophylline are alternatives, but are not preferred initial agents. Quick-acting, quick-relief agents such as short-acting beta-agonists are appropriate for prompt reversal of acute airflow obstruction.

Which one of the following is true regarding death certificates? (check one) A. The immediate cause of death is the final or terminal cause of death, such as cardiac arrest B. A physician can certify a death from a natural cause but a coroner or medical examiner must certify a death due to any other cause C. In a case of unknown or probable cause of death, the manner of death is designated as "uncertain" D. Death certificates are part of the patient's medical record and, as such, are confidential and regulated by HIPAA laws E. In a case of death due to an accidental fall, the immediate attending physician must complete the death certificate

B. A physician can certify a death from a natural cause but a coroner or medical examiner must certify a death due to any other cause. It would be difficult to overstate the importance of death certificates, especially in an era of increasing reliance on evidence-based medicine, yet physicians receive inadequate training in this important area, and their performance on this task remains less than ideal. Death certificates are the primary tool for measuring the mortality rate and its many ramifications in socioeconomic matters such as research funding, estate settlement, financial matters, and other legal concerns. Most problems with death certificates stem from a failure to complete them correctly. Notably, one study showed a 50% decrease in errors after primary care physicians attended a 75-minute educational session. Only coroners and medical examiners can complete a death certificate when the manner of death is not natural. The immediate cause of death is a specific etiology, not a general concept. "Uncertain" is not a manner of death, but "undetermined" may be used by coroners and medical examiners. The death certificate is a public document when filed.

Patient-centered medical home is a term used to describe which one of the following developments in medical care? (check one) A. A federally imposed restriction on family medicine's role in providing care B. A physician-led team of care providers taking responsibility for the quality and safety of an individual's health C. A "practice without walls" that provides primary care services in the homes of patients D. A small group of patients paying an annual fee to have a physician be available to them at all times E. Improving the dignity of care for nursing-home residents

B. A physician-led team of care providers taking responsibility for the quality and safety of an individual's health. The patient-centered medical home (PCMH) is a development in primary care that stresses a personal physician leading a multidisciplinary team that takes responsibility for integrating and coordinating an individual's care. Quality and safety are hallmarks of the PCMH, which stresses outcome-based and evidence-supported practices. This concept was originated by organizations in the field of pediatrics and was further developed by a collaboration of the major academies of primary care. There are institutions that accredit individual and group practices as fulfilling the role of a PCMH, which are now being compensated at a higher level by third-party payers, including Medicare.

A 5-year-old male fell while playing and complained that his wrist hurt. The next day he is brought to your office because he refuses to use his arm. Which one of the following best describes the condition seen in the radiographs shown in Figure 9? (check one) A. A normal appearance B. A radial fracture C. An ulnar fracture D. A radioulnar fracture E. Indeterminate result

B. A radial fracture. Even though they are the most common fracture in this age group, radial fractures can be missed byclinicians. The bend in the cortex of the distal radius indicates the fracture. Sometimes referred to as a buckle or torus fracture, it will heal with almost any choice of treatment. Most clinicians opt for casting to reduce the chance of reinjury during the first few weeks of healing, but the parents' preferences in this regard are important. Some pediatric long-bone fractures involve growth plates, and the results can be indeterminate, requiring either more advanced imaging or comparison views of the opposite limb.

A 28-year-old primigravida is at 20 weeks' gestation by dates but her fundal height is consistent with a 26-week gestation. She has had episodes of vomiting during the pregnancy that were more severe than the physiologic vomiting typically seen in pregnancy. A sonogram performed at about 5 weeks' gestation for vaginal bleeding was normal and showed a single fetus. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. A serum hCG level B. A repeat sonogram C. MRI of the pelvis D. Expectant management

B. A repeat sonogram. Ultrasonography is the initial test of choice for evaluating the possibility of multiple gestation. It should be done if uterine size is larger than expected, or if pregnancy-associated symptoms are excessive. It should also be done in women who received fertility treatment. An initial sonogram that shows a single pregnancy does not rule out multiple gestation. In one study, 30 of 220 twin pregnancies had an original sonogram which showed a single pregnancy. Serum hCG and MRI would not be indicated at this stage in the evaluation.

A 60-year-old African-American male is found to have type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which one of the following should be ordered before initiating treatment with metformin (Glucophage)? (check one) A. Serum electrolytes B. A serum creatinine level C. A CBC D. A lipid panel E. A thyroid panel

B. A serum creatinine level. Metformin is contraindicated in patients with renal dysfunction, because it is associated with an increased incidene of lactic acidosis.

A 4-year-old is brought to the emergency department with abdominal pain and is noted to have 3+ proteinuria on a dipstick. Three days later the pain has resolved spontaneously, and a repeat urinalysis in your office shows 2+ proteinuria with normal findings on microscopic examination. A metabolic panel, including creatinine and total protein, is also normal. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. Renal ultrasonography B. A spot first morning urine protein/creatinine ratio C. An antinuclear antibody and complement panel D. Referral to a nephrologist

B. A spot first morning urine protein/creatinine ratio. When proteinuria is noted on a dipstick and the history, examination, full urinalysis, and serum studies suggest no obvious underlying problem or renal insufficiency, a urine protein/creatinine ratio is recommended. This test correlates well with 24-hour urine protein, which is particularly difficult to collect in a younger patient. Renal ultrasonography is appropriate once renal insufficiency or nephritis is established. If pathogenic proteinuria is confirmed, an antinuclear antibody and/or complement panel may be indicated. A nephrology referral is not necessary until the presence of kidney disease or proteinuria from a cause other than benign postural proteinuria is confirmed.

A 20-year-old white male presents to your office after a fall on an outstretched hand while skateboarding. He has pain at the anatomic snuffbox with no abrasion. Radiographs are negative. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management? (check one) A. A long arm cast for 8 weeks B. A thumb spica splint and follow-up radiographs in 2 weeks C. A sugar tong splint and follow-up radiographs in 2 weeks D. An Ace bandage and follow-up radiographs in 2 weeks E. An Ace bandage and follow-up in 2 weeks if the patient is still experiencing pain

B. A thumb spica splint and follow-up radiographs in 2 weeks. This is a classic presentation of a possible scaphoid fracture. This fracture is important to diagnose and treat appropriately because of a high rate of non-union. If radiographs are negative, the patient should be placed in a thumb spica splint and have repeat radiographs in 2 weeks, because initial studies may be negative. An Ace bandage or a sugar tong splint would be inappropriate because they do not immobilize the thumb. A long arm cast for 8 weeks would immobilize the thumb, but could lead to loss of function, and may overtreat the injury if it is not truly a scaphoid fracture.

A 35-year-old white male presents with dyspepsia. He has had no symptoms that suggest gastroesophageal reflux or bleeding, but a test for Helicobacter pylori is positive. After 2 weeks of treatment with omeprazole (Prilosec), amoxicillin, and clarithromycin (Biaxin), he is asymptomatic. Which one of the following is recommended to test for the eradication of H. pylori in this patient? (check one) A. Immunoglobulin G serology B. A urea breath test C. Upper endoscopy with a biopsy D. An upper gastrointestinal series

B. A urea breath test. There is strong evidence that eradication of H. pylori improves healing and reduces the risk of recurrence or rebleeding in patients with duodenal or gastric ulcer. A test-and-treat approach is recommended for most patients with undifferentiated dyspepsia. This strategy reduces the need for antisecretory medications, as well as the number of endoscopies. The currently recommended test for eradication of H. pylori in this clinical setting is either the urea breath test or H. pylori stool antigen. Serology remains positive for months after eradication and may give misleading information. Although upper endoscopy, with a biopsy for histology, urease activity, or culture, can be used to test for eradication, it is an invasive procedure with a higher cost and the potential for more morbidity compared to the urea breath test or the H. pylori stool antigen test. Rather than recommending endoscopy for all patients, most national guidelines suggest a test-and-treat strategy unless the patient is over 45 years old or has red flags for malignancy or a complicated ulcer. Although an upper gastrointestinal series might provide information about gross pathology, it will not provide information about the eradication of H. pylori following treatment.

A 45-year-old male has diabetes mellitus and hypertension. He has no other medical problems. Which one of the following classes of medications is the preferred first-line therapy for the treatment of hypertension in this patient? (check one) A. Potassium-sparing diuretics B. ACE inhibitors C. α-Receptor blockers D. Calcium channel blockers E. β-Blockers

B. ACE inhibitors. The target blood pressure in patients with diabetes mellitus is <130/80 mm Hg (SOR A). ACE inhibitors and angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) are the preferred first-line agents for the management of patients with hypertension and diabetes mellitus (SOR A). If the target blood pressure is not achieved with an ACE inhibitor or ARB, the addition of a thiazide diuretic is the preferred second-line therapy for most patients; potassium-sparing and loop diuretics are not recommended (SOR B). β-Blockers are recommended for patients with diabetes mellitus who also have a history of myocardial infarction, heart failure, coronary artery disease, or stable angina (SOR A). Calcium channel blockers should be reserved for patients with diabetes mellitus who cannot tolerate preferred antihypertensive agents, or for those who need additional agents to achieve their target blood pressure (SOR A).

Which one of the following injection sites for insulin administration is best for preventing hypoglycemia in a 14-year-old male with diabetes mellitus who wishes to participate in track and field running events? (check one) A. Arm B. Abdomen C. Hip D. Calf E. Thigh

B. Abdomen. The use of a nonexercised injection site for insulin administration, such as the abdomen, may reduce the risk of exercise-induced hypoglycemia. If the leg is used as an injection site, exercise may accelerate insulin absorption, resulting in increased levels of plasma insulin. However, leg exercise has no effect on insulin disappearance from the arm and may actually reduce the rate of insulin disappearance from abdominal injection sites. Compared with leg injection, arm or abdominal injection reduces the hypoglycemic effect of exercise by approximately 60% and 90%, respectively.

An asymptomatic 68-year-old male sees you for a health maintenance visit. He is a former cigarette smoker, but quit 20 years ago. According to the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, evidence shows that the potential benefit exceeds the risk for which one of the following screening tests in this patient? (check one) A. A chest radiograph B. Abdominal ultrasonography C. Ophthalmic tonometry D. A prostate-specific antigen level E. An EKG

B. Abdominal ultrasonography. The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) recommends one-time screening for abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) by ultrasonography in men aged 65-75 who have ever smoked (SOR B, USPSTF B Recommendation). The USPSTF found good evidence that screening these patients for AAA and surgical repair of large AAAs (≥5.5 cm) leads to decreased AAA-specific mortality. There is good evidence that abdominal ultrasonography, performed in a setting with adequate quality assurance (i.e., in an accredited facility with credentialed technologists), is an accurate screening test for AAA. There is also good evidence of important harms from screening and early treatment, including an increased number of operations, with associated clinically significant morbidity and mortality, and short-term psychological harms. Based on the moderate magnitude of net benefit, the USPSTF concluded that the benefits of screening for AAA in men aged 65-75 who have ever smoked outweighs the potential harm. While they may be considered for making the diagnosis in patients who have symptoms, none of the other tests listed have evidence to support a net benefit from their use as routine screening tools in patients like the one described here.

A 75-year-old female is admitted to the hospital with a change in mental status. The initial workup includes a chemistry profile that reveals a plasma potassium level of 6.4 mEq/L (N 3.7-5.2). Which one of the following should be given now to rapidly lower the plasma potassium level? (check one) A. Corticosteroids B. Albuterol C. Furosemide (Lasix) D. 0.45% saline

B. Albuterol. Severe hyperkalemia (>7.0 mEq/L) requires aggressive treatment. Calcium chloride or gluconate has no effect on the plasma potassium level, but it should be given first, as it rapidly stabilizes the membranes of cardiac myocytes, reducing the risk of cardiac dysrhythmias. Therapies that translocate potassium from the serum to the intracellular space should be instituted next, as they can quickly (albeit temporarily) lower the plasma concentration of potassium. These interventions include sodium bicarbonate, glucose with insulin, and albuterol. Total body potassium can be lowered with sodium polystyrene sulfonate, but this takes longer to affect the plasma potassium level than translocation methods. In the most severe cases, acute hemodialysis can be instituted.

Which one of the following is known to cause hyperthyroidism? (check one) A. Propranolol (Inderal) B. Amiodarone (Cordarone) C. Methimazole (Tapazole) D. Propylthiouracil E. Methotrexate (Rheumatrex, Trexall)

B. Amiodarone (Cordarone). Amiodarone is 37% iodine and is the most common source of iodine excess in the United States. Excessive iodine intake from dietary sources, radiographic contrast media, or amiodarone increases the production and release of thyroid hormone in iodine-deficient individuals and in older persons with multinodular goiter. Additionally, like other medications such as interferon and interleukin-2, amiodarone can trigger thyroiditis in patients with normal thyroid glands. These characteristics combine to induce hyperthyroidism in slightly over 10% of patients treated with amiodarone. -Blockers such as propranolol may be useful in controlling the symptoms of hyperthyroidism. Methimazole and propylthiouracil interfere with organification of iodine, thereby suppressing thyroid hormone production; they are commonly used as antithyroid agents when treating hyperthyroidism. Research is ongoing to determine if methotrexate plus prednisone is an effective treatment for the ophthalmopathy associated with Graves' hyperthyroidism.

Which one of the following therapeutic agents is most appropriate for daily use in the prevention of migraine headache? (check one) A. Dihydroergotamine (D.H.E. 45) B. Amitriptyline (Elavil) C. Sumatriptan (Imitrex) D. Aspirin/caffeine/butalbital (Fiorinal) E. Acetaminophen/hydrocodone bitartrate (Vicodin)

B. Amitriptyline (Elavil). Beta-adrenergic blockers, antidepressants, anticonvulsants, calcium channel blockers, NSAIDs, and serotonin antagonists are the major classes of drugs used for preventive migraine therapy. All of these medications result in about a 50% reduction in the frequency of headaches. The other drugs listed are useful for the treatment of acute migraine, but not for prevention.

Which one of the following antihypertensive drugs is most likely to cause ankle edema? (check one) A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Amlodopine (Norvasc) C. Lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril) D. Losartan (Cozar) E. Atenolol (Tenormin)

B. Amlodopine (Norvasc). The most common side effects of calcium channel blockers, such as amlodipine, are due to vasodilation. One result of this may be peripheral edema, but it can also cause dizziness, nausea, hypotension, cough, and pulmonary edema. These problems may decrease with time, with reductions in dosage, or with the addition of a diuretic or second calcium antagonist. Other classes of drugs are not associated with these problems.

Which one of the following is the first-line antibiotic treatment for uncomplicated acute otitis media? (check one) A. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) B. Amoxicillin C. Azithromycin (Zithromax) D. Cefuroxime (Ceftin) E. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra)

B. Amoxicillin. Amoxicillin remains the recommended first-line treatment for uncomplicated acute otitis media. Various other antimicrobial agents have not proved to be more efficacious, and are associated with more frequent side effects.

An enlarged tongue is associated with which one of the following? (check one) A. Pellagra B. Amyloidosis C. Pernicious anemia D. Xerostomia E. Syphilis

B. Amyloidosis. An enlarged tongue (macroglossia) may be part of a syndrome found in developmental conditions such as Down syndrome, or may be caused by a tumor (hemangioma or lymphangioma), metabolic diseases such as primary amyloidosis, or endocrine disturbances such as acromegaly or cretinism. A "bald" tongue may be associated with xerostomia, pernicious anemia, iron deficiency anemia, pellagra, or syphilis.

Which one of the following would suggest that the sudden and unexpected death of a healthy infant resulted from deliberate suffocation rather than sudden infant death syndrome? (check one) A. No previous history of apneic episodes B. An age of 9 months C. Mottled skin D. Clenched fists E. Blood-tinged froth in the mouth

B. An age of 9 months. Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is the most common cause of death during the first 6 months of life in the United States, with a peak incidence at 2-4 months of age and a quick dropoff by the age of 6 months. The cause of death is a retrospective diagnosis of exclusion, and is supported by a history of quiet death during sleep in a previously healthy infant younger than 6 months of age. Evidence of terminal activity may be present, such as clenched fists or a serosanguineous, blood-tinged, or mucoid discharge from the mouth or nose. Lividity and mottling are frequently present in dependent areas. The reported history and autopsy findings of deliberate suffocation may mirror the findings of SIDS, but suffocation should be considered when there is documentation of any of the following: infant age older than 6 months, previous similar sibling deaths, simultaneous twin deaths, or evidence of pulmonary hemorrhage. A history of recurrent apnea or cyanosis has not been causally linked to SIDS; when such reported events have only been witnessed by one caretaker, deliberate suffocation should be suspected.

According to the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, which one of the following patients should be screened for an abdominal aortic aneurysm? (check one) A. A 52-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus B. An asymptomatic 67-year-old male smoker with no chronic illness C. A 72-year-old male with a history of chronic renal failure D. A 69-year-old female with a history of coronary artery disease E. A 75-year-old female with hypertension and hypothyroidism

B. An asymptomatic 67-year-old male smoker with no chronic illness. The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force has released a statement summarizing recommendations for screening for abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). The guideline recommends one-time screening with ultrasonography for AAA in men 65-75 years of age who have ever smoked. No recommendation was made for or against screening women. Men with a strong family history of AAA should be counseled about the risks and benefits of screening as they approach 65 years of age.

A 48-year-old white female comes to see you because of abnormal vaginal bleeding. Her periods are lasting 3-5 days longer than usual, bleeding is heavier, and she has experienced some intermenstrual bleeding. Her physical examination is unremarkable, except for a parous cervix with dark blood at the os and in the vagina. She has no orthostatic hypotension, and her hemoglobin level is 11.5 g/dL. A pregnancy test is negative. Which one of the following is the most important next step in management? (check one) A. Laboratory tests to rule out thyroid dysfunction B. An endometrial biopsy C. Oral contraceptives, 4 times a day for 5-7 days D. Cyclic combination therapy with conjugated estrogens (Premarin) and medroxy-progesterone (Provera) each month E. Administration of a gonadotropin-releasing hormone analog such as leuprolide acetate (Eligard Lupron Depot)

B. An endometrial biopsy. A patient over the age of 35 who experiences abnormal vaginal bleeding must have an endometrial assessment to exclude endometrial hyperplasia or cancer. An endometrial biopsy is currently the preferred method for identifying endometrial disease. A laboratory evaluation for thyroid dysfunction or hemorrhagic diathesis is appropriate if no cancer is present on an endometrial biopsy and medical therapy fails to halt the bleeding. The other options listed can be used as medical therapy to control the bleeding once the histopathologic diagnosis has been made.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 52 ======================================================= A 20-year-old nonsmoker presents to your office with a sudden onset of chest pain. You order a chest radiograph, which shows a small (<15%) pneumothorax. He is in no respiratory distress and vital signs are normal. Pulse oximetry shows a saturation of 98% on room air. which one of the following would be most appropriate initially? (check one) A. CT of the affected lung B. Analgesics and a follow-up visit in 48 hours C. Chest tube insertion D. Hospital admission and a repeat chest film in 24 hours

B. Analgesics and a follow-up visit in 48 hours. Practice guidelines state that a patient without apparent lung disease who develops a spontaneous "small" pneumothorax (<15% of lung volume) can be managed as an outpatient with analgesics and follow-up within 72 hours. CT of the lung is needed in complicated cases, including patients with known lung disease or recurrent pneumothoraces. A chest tube is required only when the pneumothorax involves >15% of lung volume.

A 53-year-old male presents with a 3-month history of despondency, insomnia, and irritability with family and co-workers. During your interview you also discover that he is drinking heavily at times and has several firearms at home. He thinks his life is "useless," noting that he "would be better off dead." The most appropriate action at this time would be to: (check one) A. Prescribe an SSRI B. Arrange immediate hospitalization C. Have the patient agree to a suicide prevention contract D. Avoid direct questions regarding suicidal thoughts

B. Arrange immediate hospitalization. More than 50% of suicides are associated with a major depressive episode and 25% are associated with a substance abuse disorder. Suicide rates increase with age and are higher among men. Increased suicide rates also occur in patients with significant medical illnesses. Because discussing suicidal ideation may relieve the patient's anxiety, the physician should directly ask depressed patients about any suicidal thoughts. There are no known reliable tools for assessing suicide risk, so the assessment is subjective. The initial management of suicidal ideation should establish safety, often by hospitalization. The suicide prevention contract is of unproven clinical and legal usefulness. Antidepressant medication has not been shown to reduce suicide rates, especially on a short-term basis.

A 79-year-old male is admitted to the hospital because of a sudden inability to ambulate. He has a past history of gout. On examination his temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F) and he has bilateral knee effusions. His WBC count is 14,000/mm3 with 82% segs. His serum uric acid level is 8.5 mg/dL (N <6.5). Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. 24-hour urine collection for uric acid B. Arthrocentesis C. Initiation of allopurinol D. Initiation of antibiotics E. Initiation of furosemide (Lasix)

B. Arthrocentesis. Polyarticular arthritis often presents with fever, knee and other joint effusions, and leukocytosis. A 24-hour urine collection is not routine, is difficult for the patient, and typically does not change therapy. Especially in cases where a joint effusion is accompanied by fever, diagnostic arthrocentesis should be performed to help guide therapy. Allopurinol should not be initiated during an acute gouty attack, but may be started after a patient has recovered. Diuretics increase uric acid levels.

A 55-year-old male is brought to the emergency department with a complaint of pain in the right eye and reduced vision of about 10 minutes' duration. His eye was injured while he was hitting a metal stake with a sledge hammer. He was not wearing safety goggles. On examination you note a subconjunctival hemorrhage completely surrounding the cornea. The iris is irregular. Which one of the following is contraindicated prior to emergency transfer to an ophthalmologist? (check one) A. Administering an analgesic B. Attempting tonometry C. A visual acuity test D. Use of an eye shield E. Administering an antiemetic

B. Attempting tonometry. The injury and findings described raise the possibility of globe rupture due to a fragment of steel penetrating through the cornea and pupil and into the globe. Relief of pain with an analgesic is appropriate before transfer. Because of a risk of extruding intraocular fluid, tonometry should not be attempted if globe rupture is suspected. A rapid assessment of gross visual acuity (e.g., counting fingers, seeing light versus dark) may be performed. An eye shield should be placed over the affected eye to avoid putting pressure on the eye during transport to the ophthalmologist. Because the Valsalva effect from vomiting may lead to extrusion of intraocular contents, an antiemetic would be appropriate before transfer as well.

A 32-year-old white male teacher is seen for a paroxysmal cough of 5 days duration. He tells you that a student in his class was diagnosed with pertussis 3 weeks ago. Which one of the following would be the best treatment? (check one) A. Amoxicillin B. Azithromycin (Zithromax) C. Cephalexin (Keflex) D. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) E. Doxycycline

B. Azithromycin (Zithromax). Macrolides are considered first-line therapy for Bordetella pertussis infection. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole is considered second-line therapy.

Overweight and obesity in children should be determined by which one of the following? (check one) A. Body weight B. BMI percentile for age and gender C. Individual BMI D. Abdominal girth E. Percentage of body fat

B. BMI percentile for age and gender. In children, overweight and obesity is determined by the BMI percentile for age and gender. In adults, BMI, body fat percentage, and abdominal girth are used to determine a patient's classification (SOR B).

An anxious 62-year-old white male comes to the emergency department complaining of extreme shortness of breath and a cough producing blood-tinged sputum. The patient denies chest pain and fever. On examination he is afebrile and has expiratory wheezes and a few rales throughout the chest. The heart is normal except for a rapid rate and an S3 gallop. A chest radiograph reveals a right pleural effusion with enlargement of the cardiac silhouette and redistribution of blood flow to the upper lobes. Which one of the following tests would be best for confirming the diagnosis? (check one) A. Troponin I B. BNP C. D-dimer D. CT angiography of the chest E. Arterial blood gases

B. BNP. This patient has heart failure with a bronchospastic component. The S3 gallop occurs with a dilated left ventricle and a right-sided pleural effusion, which are common in heart failure. A BNP level is useful in differentiating cardiac and pulmonary diseases, while a troponin I level is helpful in assessing for cardiac ischemia. Arterial blood gasses are not useful in confirming the diagnosis. A CT angiogram of the chest would be useful for diagnosing pulmonary embolism. A d-dimer test is helpful to rule out venous thromboembolic disease.

A 27-year-old Korean female consults you regarding several painful ulcers she has developed in the vaginal area. Your examination reveals multiple 0.5-cm to 1.5-cm oval ulcers with sharply defined borders and a yellowish-white membrane. She denies recent sexual activity. Except for recurring aphthous ulcers of her mouth, her past history is unremarkable. You obtain blood for a CBC and serology. A Tzanck smear and culture of her ulcer is negative for herpes simplex virus. Two days later she returns to discuss her laboratory findings. She draws your attention to a pustule with an erythematous margin at the site where the venipuncture was done. At this time the most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. Reiter's syndrome B. Behçet's syndrome C. syphilis D. mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome (Kawasaki disease) E. AIDS

B. Behçet's syndrome. The original description of Behçet's syndrome included recurring genital and oral ulcerations and relapsing uveitis. It is more common in Japan, Korea, and the Eastern Mediterranean area, and affects primarily young adults. The cause is unknown. Two-thirds of patients will develop ocular involvement that may progress to blindness. Patients may develop arthritis, vasculitis, intestinal manifestations, or neurologic manifestations. This disease is also associated with cutaneous hypersensitivity; 60%-70% of patients will develop a sterile pustule with an erythematous margin within 48 hours of an aseptic needle prick. Reiter's syndrome is not associated with genital ulcers. The ulcers of syphilis are characteristically painless. Mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome (Kawasaki disease) primarily affects children under 6 years of age. While AIDS causes distinctive skin lesions, genital ulcers are not a common manifestation of this disease.

A 26-year-old gravida 2 para 1 presents at 30 weeks gestation with a complaint of severe itching. She has excoriations from scratching in various areas. She says that she had the same problem during her last pregnancy, and her medical records reveal a diagnosis of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy. Elevation of which one of the following is most characteristic of this disorder? (check one) A. γ-Glutamyltransferase (GGT) B. Bile acids C. Direct bilirubin D. Indirect bilirubin E. Prothrombin time

B. Bile acids. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy classically presents as severe pruritus in the third trimester. Characteristic findings include the absence of primary skin lesions and elevation of serum levels of total bile acids. Jaundice and elevated bilirubin levels may or may not be present. The GGT usually is normal or modestly elevated, which can help differentiate this condition from other cholestatic liver diseases. The prothrombin time usually is normal, but if elevated it may reflect a vitamin K deficiency from malabsorption.

Which one of the following community health programs best fits the definition of secondary prevention? (check one) A. An antismoking education program at a local middle school B. Blood pressure screening at a local church C. A condom distribution program D. Screening diabetic patients for microalbuminuria

B. Blood pressure screening at a local church. Prevention traditionally has been divided into three categories: primary, secondary, and tertiary. Primary prevention targets individuals who may be at risk to develop a medical condition and intervenes to prevent the onset of that condition (e.g., childhood vaccination programs, water fluoridation, antismoking programs, and education about safe sex). Secondary prevention targets individuals who have developed an asymptomatic disease and institutes treatment to prevent complications (e.g., routine Papanicolaou tests; screening for hypertension, diabetes, or hyperlipidemia). Tertiary prevention targets individuals with a known disease, with the goal of limiting or preventing future complications (e.g., screening diabetics for microalbuminuria, rigorous treatment of diabetes mellitus, and post-myocardial infarction prophylaxis with β-blockers and aspirin).

Which one of the following is true concerning Paget's disease of bone? (check one) A. It is a precursor of multiple myeloma B. Both bone formation and bone resorption are increased C. The treatment of choice for symptomatic disease is a calcium channel blocker D. Pagetic bone pain is difficult to relieve and resistant to medical treatment E. Extracellular calcium homeostasis is typically abnormal

B. Both bone formation and bone resorption are increased. Paget's disease of bone is a focal disorder of skeletal metabolism in which all elements of skeletal remodeling (resorption, formation, and mineralization) are increased. There is no known relationship between Paget's disease and multiple myeloma, although most cases of sarcoma in patients over 50 arise in pagetic bone. The preferred treatment for nearly all patients with symptomatic disease is one of the newer bisphosphonates. Treatment of bone pain resulting from Paget's disease is generally very satisfactory, and in fact, relief may continue for many months or years after treatment is stopped, lending support for intermittent symptomatic therapy. Finally, despite the massive bone turnover, extracellular calcium homeostasis is almost invariably normal.

A 60-year-old female is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia 1 week after her discharge following elective colorectal surgery. Her initial stay was 5 days and she had no complications. She had no signs of infection until 2 days ago when she developed a temperature of 39.1°C (102.4°F), a cough with yellow sputum, and hypoxia. She has no abdominal pain or diarrhea. Her pulse rate is slightly elevated to 96 beats/min, and her blood pressure is unchanged from baseline. A chest radiograph confirms a left lingular infiltrate. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus pneumonia is rare in this institution. Of the following antibiotic regimens, which one would be the best initial treatment for this patient? (check one) A. Ampicillin/sulbactam (Unasyn) B. Ceftazidime sodium (Fortaz) and gentamicin C. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) and azithromycin (Zithromax) D. Clarithromycin (Biaxin) E. Levofloxacin (Levaquin)

B. Ceftazidime sodium (Fortaz) and gentamicin. This patient has a significant pneumonia that requires the initiation of empiric antibiotics. It is important to remember that because this patient was recently in the hospital, the usual coverage for community-acquired pneumonia is not adequate. Health care-associated pneumonia is more likely to involve severe pathogens such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella pneumoniae, and Acinetobacter species. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus also is a consideration, depending on local prevalence. Of the antibiotic regimens listed, ceftazidime and gentamicin is the only choice that covers these organisms.

A 9-month-old white male is brought to your office for a well-child visit. You note that the child's weight gain has been flat over the last several months. He has fallen from the 75th percentile to the 15th for weight, and his percentile for length is beginning to decline as well. The mother states that the child began having diarrhea as soon as she began giving him various grain cereals and baby foods 5 months ago. The remainder of a review of systems and a social and family history is unremarkable. Physical examination reveals an undernourished infant with mild abdominal distention. A check of the infant's hemoglobin shows a microcytic anemia with a low serum ferritin level. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Thalassemia minor B. Celiac sprue C. Cystic fibrosis D. Congenital megacolon (Hirschsprung's disease) E. Inborn error of metabolism

B. Celiac sprue. Celiac sprue is a condition of acquired malabsorption that resolves when the patient is exposed to a gluten-free diet. Gluten is a substance found in wheat, rye, and barley, but not in corn or rice products. Children with this sensitivity will develop inflammation and destruction of the microvilli in the small intestine as a result of an immune response to gluten. Patients with celiac sprue often present as this child has, between 4 and 24 months of age with impaired growth, diarrhea, and abdominal distention. An iron deficiency anemia can occur with impairment of iron absorption from the small intestine. Lesser cases of malabsorption are common, and this condition often goes unrecognized into adolescence or adulthood. Serologic tests, and ultimately a biopsy of the small intestine, can confirm the diagnosis.

A 50-year-old Hispanic male has a solitary 5-mm pulmonary nodule on a chest radiograph. His only medical problem is severe osteoarthritis. He quit smoking 10 years ago. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate follow-up for the pulmonary nodule? (check one) A. Positron emission tomography (PET) B. Chest CT C. A repeat chest radiograph in 6 weeks D. A repeat chest radiograph in 6 months E. Referral for a biopsy

B. Chest CT. Solitary pulmonary nodules are common radiologic findings, and the differential diagnosis includes both benign and malignant causes. The American College of Chest Physicians guidelines for evaluation of pulmonary nodules are based on size and patient risk factors for cancer. Lesions ≥8 mm in diameter with a "ground-glass" appearance, an irregular border, and a doubling time of 1 month to 1 year suggest malignancy, but smaller lesions should also be evaluated, especially in a patient with a history of smoking. CT is the imaging modality of choice to reevaluate pulmonary nodules seen on a radiograph (SOR C). PET is an appropriate next step when the cancer pretest probability and imaging results are discordant (SOR C). Patients with notable nodule growth during follow-up should undergo a biopsy (SOR C).

In a patient with a sudden onset of dyspnea, which one of the following makes a pulmonary embolus more likely? (check one) A. Fever >38.0°C (100.4°F) B. Chest pain C. Orthopnea D. Wheezes E. Rhonchi

B. Chest pain. Chest pain is common in patients with pulmonary embolism (PE). When evaluating a patient for possible PE, the presence of orthopnea suggests heart failure, fever suggests an infectious process, wheezing suggests asthma or COPD, and rhonchi suggest heart failure, interstitial lung disease, or infection. These generalizations are supported by a 2008 study designed to improve the diagnosis of PE based on the history, physical examination, EKG, and chest radiograph.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 63 ======================================================= A 4-week-old white male is brought to your office with a 2-week history of increasing dyspnea, cough, and poor feeding. The child appears nontoxic and is afebrile. On examination you note conjunctivitis, and a chest examination reveals tachypnea and rales. A chest film shows hyperinflation and diffuse interstitial infiltrates. A WBC count reveals eosinophilia. What is the most likely etiologic agent? (check one) A. Staphylococcus species B. Chlamydia trachomatis C. Respiratory syncytial virus D. Parainfluenza virus

B. Chlamydia trachomatis. Chlamydial pneumonia is usually seen in infants 3-16 weeks of age, and they frequently have been sick for several weeks. The infant appears nontoxic and is afebrile, but is tachypneic with a prominent cough. Physical examination reveals diffuse rales with few wheezes. Conjunctivitis is present in about 50% of cases. The chest film shows hyperinflation and diffuse interstitial or patchy infiltrates. Staphylococcal pneumonia has a sudden onset. The infant appears very ill and has a fever. At the time of onset there may be an expiratory wheeze simulating bronchiolitis. Signs of abdominal distress, tachypnea, dyspnea, and localized or diffuse bronchopneumonia or lobar disease may be present. The WBC count shows a prominent leukocytosis. Respiratory syncytial infections start with rhinorrhea and pharyngitis, followed in 1-3 days by cough and wheezing. Auscultation reveals diffuse rhonchi, fine rales, and wheezes. The chest film is often normal. If the illness progresses, cough and wheezing increase, air hunger and intercostal retractions develop, and evidence of hyperexpansion of the chest is seen. In some infants, the course of the illness may be similar to that of pneumonia. Rash or conjunctivitis may occur occasionally, and fever is an inconsistent sign. The WBC count is normal or elevated, and the differential may be normal or shifted either to the right or left. Chlamydial infections may be differentiated from respiratory syncytial infections by a history of conjunctivitis and a subacute onset. Coughing is prominent, but wheezing is not. There may also be eosinophilia. Fever is usually absent. Parainfluenza virus infection presents with typical cold symptoms. Eight percent of infections affect the upper respiratory tract. In children hospitalized for severe respiratory illness, parainfluenza viruses account for about 50% of the cases of laryngotracheitis and about 15% each of the cases of bronchitis, bronchiolitis, and pneumonia.

A 20-year-old white female presents with painful and frequent urination that has had a gradual onset over the past week. She has never had a urinary tract infection. There is no associated hematuria, flank pain, suprapubic pain, or fever. She says she has not noted any itching or vaginal discharge. A midstream urine specimen taken earlier in the week showed significant pyuria but a culture was reported as no growth. She has taken an antibiotic for 2 days without relief. Her only other medication is an oral contraceptive agent. Which one of the following is the most likely infectious agent? (check one) A. Escherichia coli B. Chlamydia trachomatis C. Candida albicans D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

B. Chlamydia trachomatis. Women who present with symptoms of acute dysuria, frequency, and pyuria do not always have bacterial cystitis. In fact, up to 30% will show either no growth or insignificant bacterial growth on a midstream urine culture. Most commonly these patients represent cases of sexually transmitted urethritis caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, or herpes simplex virus. In this case, the gradual onset, absence of hematuria, and week-long duration of symptoms suggest a sexually transmitted disease. A history of a new sexual partner or a finding of mucopurulent cervicitis would confirm the diagnosis. Empiric treatment with a tetracycline and a search for other sexually transmitted diseases would then be indicated. Another possible diagnosis is urinary tract infection with Escherichia coli or Staphylococcus species; however, the onset of these infections is usually abrupt and accompanied by other signs, such as suprapubic pain or hematuria. Candida is unlikely because there is no accompanying discharge or itching, and the patient's symptoms predate the use of antibiotics.

You see a 32-year-old white female for her first visit. She presents with numerous complaints which do not conform to patterns seen in organic disease. She states that she has seen several physicians and describes a changing set of symptoms. Although she appears to be well, she claims to have been "sickly" for years. From her affect, you suspect that she is depressed. The most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. Conversion reaction B. Chronic somatization disorder C. Schizophrenia with multiple somatic delusions D. Histrionic personality E. Primary hypochondriasis

B. Chronic somatization disorder. Conversion disorder usually involves a single symptom which is neurologic or pain-related. Symptoms of chronic somatization differ from psychoses in that the symptoms of the psychotic patient are bizarre and more vivid, persist over time, are unaltered by reasoned argument, and are not congruent with the patient's social or cultural background. The delusional nature of psychotic somatic symptoms usually unfolds as the patient talks. The essential feature of the histrionic (hysterical) personality is a pervasive pattern of excessive emotionality and attention seeking. People with this disorder constantly seek to be the center of attention. Emotions are often expressed with inappropriate exaggeration. People with this disorder tend to be very self-centered and have little tolerance for delayed gratification. These people are typically attractive and seductive, often to the point of looking flamboyant and acting inappropriately. Features of primary hypochondriasis include the patient's fixed conviction that he or she is ill, the interpretation of all somatic changes as confirmation of this, and a relentless pursuit of medical assistance despite persistent dissatisfaction with the results. The patient's symptoms remain consistent for years. Physicians frequently feel overwhelmed when initially presented with a patient with somatization disorder. This disorder begins before age 30 and is rarely seen in males. The patient complains of multiple symptoms which involve many organ systems and do not readily conform to patterns seen in organic diseases. The patient skips back and forth from symptom to symptom during the interview. Anxiety and depressed mood are frequent in this disorder, and suicide attempts are common.

Children under 1 year of age should not be given honey because of possible contamination with which one of the following? (check one) A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Clostridium botulinum C. Clostridium difficile D. Escherichia coli E. Hepatitis A

B. Clostridium botulinum. The most common cause of infant botulism is ingestion of Clostridium botulinum spores in honey.

A 70-year-old African-American male who has been hospitalized for 2½ weeks for heart failure develops severe, persistent diarrhea. For the past 3 days he has had abdominal cramps and profuse, semi-formed stools without mucus or blood. The patient's current medications include captopril (Capoten), digoxin, furosemide (Lasix), subcutaneous heparin, spironolactone (Aldactone), and loperamide (Imodium). He has coronary artery disease, but has been relatively pain free since undergoing coronary artery bypass surgery 4 years ago. An appendectomy and cholecystectomy were performed in the past, and the patient has since been free of gastrointestinal disease. On physical examination his blood pressure is 100/80 mm Hg, pulse 100 beats/min and regular, and temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F). He has mild jugular venous distention and crackles at both lung bases. Examination of his heart is unremarkable, although there is 1+ dependent edema. His abdomen is diffusely tender without masses or organomegaly. Findings on a rectal examination are normal. The results of routine laboratory tests, including a CBC, chemistry profile, EKG, and urinalysis, are all normal. The stool examination shows numerous white blood cells. Of the following, the most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. viral gastroenteritis B. Clostridium difficile colitis C. ulcerative colitis D. gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue) E. digoxin toxicity

B. Clostridium difficile colitis. This patient most likely has Clostridium difficile colitis, suggested by semiformed rather than watery stool, fecal leukocytes (not seen in viral gastroenteritis or sprue), and a hospital stay greater than 2 weeks. While this disease has traditionally been associated with antibiotic use, it is posing an increasing threat to patients in hospitals and chronic-care facilities who have not been given antibiotics. The primary sources for infection in such cases have been toilets, bedpans, floors, and the hands of hospital personnel. Prompt recognition and treatment is essential to prevent patient relapse and to minimize intramural epidemics. The diarrhea of ulcerative colitis usually contains blood and occurs intermittently over a protracted course. Digoxin toxicity is likely to be accompanied by electrocardiographic and laboratory abnormalities, particularly hyper- or hypokalemia.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 39 ======================================================= A 40-year-old white male presents with a 5-year history of periodic episodes of severe right-sided headaches. During the most recent episode the headaches occurred most days during January and February and lasted about 1 hour. The most likely diagnosis is which one of the following? (check one) A. Migraine headache B. Cluster headache C. Temporal arteritis D. Trigeminal neuralgia

B. Cluster headache. Cluster headache is predominantly a male disorder. The mean age of onset is 27-30 years. Attacks often occur in cycles and are unilateral. Migraine headaches are more common in women, start at an earlier age (second or third decade), and last longer (4-24 hours). Temporal arteritis occurs in patients above age 50. Trigeminal neuralgia usually occurs in paroxysms lasting 20-30 seconds.

A 37-year-old female presents with concerns about difficulty initiating and maintaining sleep for the past 3-4 months. She is irritable and feels fatigued and sleepy during the day. After further evaluation, she is diagnosed with chronic insomnia. She asks about alternatives to hypnotic drug treatments. Which one of the following management options is best supported by current evidence? (check one) A. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) B. Cognitive behavior therapy C. St. Johns wort D. 4 oz of red wine 30 minutes before bedtime E. Vigorous aerobic exercise 30-45 minutes before bedtime

B. Cognitive behavior therapy. Routine use of over-the-counter antihistamines should be discouraged because they are only minimally effective in inducing sleep, may reduce sleep quality, and can cause residual drowsiness. Cognitive-behavioral therapy helps change incorrect beliefs and attitudes about sleep (e.g., unrealistic expectations, misconceptions, amplifying consequences of sleeplessness). Techniques include reattribution training (goal setting and planning coping responses), decatastrophizing (balancing anxious automatic thoughts), reappraisal, and attention shifting. Cognitive-behavioral therapy is recommended as an effective, nonpharmacologic treatment for chronic insomnia (SOR A). Many herbs and dietary supplements have been promoted as sleep aids. However, with the exceptions of melatonin and valerian, there is insufficient evidence of benefit. Alcohol acts directly on GABA-gated channels, reducing sleep-onset latency, but it increases wakefulness after sleep onset and suppresses rapid eye movement (REM) sleep. It also has the potential for abuse and should not be used as a sleep aid. Moderate-intensity exercise can improve sleep, but exercising just before bedtime can delay sleep onset.

======================================================= Gastrointestinal Board Review Questions 01 ======================================================= A 36-hour-old male is noted to have jaundice extending to the abdomen. He is breastfeeding well, 10 times a day, and is voiding and passing meconium-stained stool. He was born by normal spontaneous vaginal delivery at 38 weeks gestation after an uncomplicated pregnancy. The mother's blood type is A positive with a negative antibody screen. The infants total serum bilirubin is 13.0 mg/dL. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management of this infants jaundice? (check one) A. Continue breastfeeding and supplement with water or dextrose in water to prevent dehydration B. Continue breastfeeding, evaluate for risk factors, and initiate phototherapy if at risk C. Discontinue breastfeeding and supplement with formula until the jaundice resolves D. Discontinue breastfeeding and supplement with formula until total serum bilirubin levels begin to decrease

B. Continue breastfeeding, evaluate for risk factors, and initiate phototherapy if at risk. In 2004 the American Academy of Pediatrics published updated clinical practice guidelines on the management of hyperbilirubinemia in the newborn infant at 35 or more weeks gestation. These guidelines focus on frequent clinical assessment of jaundice, and treatment based on the total serum bilirubin level, the infants age in hours, and risk factors. Phototherapy should not be started based solely on the total serum bilirubin level. The guidelines encourage breastfeeding 8-12 times daily in the first few days of life to prevent dehydration. There is no evidence to support supplementation with water or dextrose in water in a nondehydrated breastfeeding infant. This infant is not dehydrated and is getting an adequate number of feedings, and there is no reason to discontinue breastfeeding at this time.

A 30-year-old white male complains of several weeks of nasal stuffiness, purulent nasal discharge, and facial pain. He does not respond to a 3-day course of trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra). Follow-up treatment with 2 weeks of amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) is similarly ineffective. Of the following diagnostic options, which one is most appropriate at this time? (check one) A. Pulmonary function testing B. Coronal CT of the sinuses C. Culture and sensitivity testing of the discharge D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

B. Coronal CT of the sinuses. This patient has a clinical presentation consistent with acute sinusitis. Failure to respond to adequate antibiotic therapy suggests either a complication, progression to chronic sinusitis, or a different, confounding diagnosis. The diagnostic procedure of choice in this situation is coronal CT of the sinuses, due to its increased sensitivity and competitive cost when compared with standard radiographs. Cultures of the nasal discharge give unreliable results because of bacterial contamination from the resident flora of the nose. The other options listed do not contribute to the diagnosis and treatment of sinusitis.

Which one of the following sonographic measurements is most accurate for estimating gestational age? (check one) A. Amniotic sac size at 5 weeks of pregnancy B. Crown-rump length at 10 weeks of pregnancy C. Femur length at 16 weeks of pregnancy D. Biparietal diameter at 20 weeks of pregnancy E. Abdominal circumference at 24 weeks of pregnancy

B. Crown-rump length at 10 weeks of pregnancy. Estimation of gestational age by ultrasound is most accurate early in the first trimester and begins to decline by 22 weeks gestation. Crown-rump length is typically used to estimate gestational age before 13 weeks gestation. After 11 weeks gestation, combinations of biparietal diameter, femur length, head circumference, and abdominal circumference are used to estimate the gestational age. These factors are used by the software that generates ultrasonography reports.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 36 ======================================================= A 91-year-old white male presents with a 6-month history of a painless ulcer on the dorsum of the proximal interphalangeal joint of the second toe. Examination reveals a hallux valgus and a rigid hammer toe of the second digit. His foot has mild to moderate atrophic skin changes, and the dorsal and posterior tibial pulses are absent. Appropriate treatment includes which one of the following? (check one) A. Surgical correction of the hammer toe B. Custom-made shoes to protect the hammer toe C. Bunionectomy D. A metatarsal pad

B. Custom-made shoes to protect the hammer toe. The treatment of foot problems in the elderly is difficult because of systemic and local infirmities, the most limiting being the poor vascular status of the foot. Conservative, supportive, and palliative therapy replace definitive reconstructive surgical therapy. Surgical correction of a hammer toe and bunionectomy could be disastrous in an elderly patient with a small ulcer and peripheral vascular disease. The best approach with this patient is to prescribe custom-made shoes and a protective shield with a central aperture of foam rubber placed over the hammer toe. Metatarsal pads are not useful in the treatment of hallux valgus and a rigid hammer toe.

A 38-year-old white female presents to your office with a 4-cm palpable nodule in her right breast. Fine-needle aspiration yields 4 cc of bloody fluid. Following the aspiration, the breast nodule is no longer palpable. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. No further workup B. Cytologic examination of the fluid C. Surgical referral for core needle biopsy D. Surgical referral for excisional biopsy E. Ultrasonography of the breast

B. Cytologic examination of the fluid. When straw-colored or grey-green fluid is obtained by fine-needle aspiration of a breast nodule and the lesion completely disappears, the diagnosis is simple cyst. The fluid should not be sent for analysis because the risk for cancer is exceedingly small. If the fluid is bloody or otherwise unusual, it should be sent for cytologic examination because about 7% of bloodstained aspirates are associated with cancer.

A 19-year-old white female presents for an initial family planning evaluation. Specifically, she is interested in oral contraception. She is not presently sexually active, but has a steady boyfriend. She has no contraindications to oral contraceptive use. She has mild acne vulgaris. You discuss possible side effects and benefits of combined oral contraceptives, including improvement of her acne. Which one of the following is also associated with oral contraceptive use? (check one) A. Increased risk of ovarian cancer B. Decreased risk of ovarian cysts C. Increased risk for ectopic pregnancy D. Increased incidence of dysmenorrhea

B. Decreased risk of ovarian cysts. Women who take combination oral contraceptives have a reduced risk of both ovarian and endometrial cancer. This benefit is detectable within a year of use and appears to persist for years after discontinuation. Other benefits include a reduction in dysfunctional uterine bleeding and dysmenorrhea; a lower incidence of ovarian cysts, ectopic pregnancy and benign breast disease; and an increase in hemoglobin concentration. Many women also benefit from the convenience of menstrual regularity. All combination oral contraceptives raise sex hormone-binding globulin and decrease free testosterone concentrations, which can lead to improvement in acne.

A 66-year-old white male is brought to your office for evaluation of progressive memory loss over the last several months. The problem seems to wax and wane significantly over the course of days and weeks. At times when he is more confused, he tends to have visual and auditory hallucinations that he is back fighting in Vietnam, thinking a ringing telephone is calling in fighter jets. He has also been falling occasionally. On physical examination, he has a resting tremor in his left leg, and rigidity of his upper body and face. A full medical workup, including standard blood work and a CT scan, shows no abnormalities that suggest delirium, stroke, or other primary etiologies. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Alzheimer's disease B. Dementia with Lewy bodies C. Fronto-temporal dementia D. Multi-infarct dementia E. Pseudodementia

B. Dementia with Lewy bodies. Dementia with Lewy bodies is currently considered one of the most common etiologies of dementia in elderly patients, representing up to 20%-30% of those with significant memory loss. The clinical presentation consists of parkinsonian symptoms (rigidity, tremor), fluctuating levels of alertness and cognitive abilities, and behavior sometimes mimicking acute delirium. Significant visual hallucinations are common, and delusions and auditory hallucinations are seen to a lesser degree. On pathologic examination, Lewy bodies (seen in the substantia nigra in patients with Parkinson's disease) are present diffusely in the cortex. There is currently no specific treatment.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 86 ======================================================= A 72-year-old white female who is otherwise healthy complains of occasional incontinence. She reports that this occurs mainly at night when she awakens with an intense desire to void, and by the time she is able to get to the bathroom she has "wet herself." The most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. Sphincter incompetence B. Detrusor instability C. Detrusor hypotonia D. Uninhibited neurogenic bladder

B. Detrusor instability. Urinary incontinence is very common in the elderly female. Treatment depends entirely on a careful history to ascertain the exact circumstances when the patient wets herself. One of the most common types of incontinence results from uninhibited contractions of the detrusor muscle. This detrusor instability causes an intense urge to void, which overcomes the patient's voluntary attempt to hold the sphincter closed; hence, the common term urge incontinence. Other common causes of incontinence include a weak sphincter (sphincter incompetence), which leads to leakage associated with ordinary activities such as coughing or lifting (stress incontinence). Another common cause is overflow of urine from an abnormally distended, hypotonic, poorly contractile bladder (detrusor hypotonia). This is probably more common in males with longstanding obstruction due to prostatic hypertrophy. A rare type of incontinence is caused by spinal cord damage. This reflex incontinence is due to the patient being unable to sense the need to void.

A 43-year-old male complains of difficulty washing his face and combing his hair with his right hand. On examination a nodule, band, and slight contracture are noted in the palm proximal to the fourth finger. This patient's symptoms are associated with which one of the following? (check one) A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hyperthyroidism D. Hypothyroidism E. Adrenal insufficiency

B. Diabetes mellitus. The patient has Dupuytren's disease, which is most common in men over 40 years of age. It is a progressive condition that causes the fibrous fascia of the palmar surface to shorten and thicken. It initially can be managed with observation, but corticosteroid injection and surgery may be needed. The condition will regress in 10% of patients. There is a 3%-33% prevalence of Dupuytren's contracture in patients with diabetes mellitus; however, these patients tend to have a mild form of the disease with slow progression.

A patient dying of cancer is suffering from pain in spite of his narcotic regimen. You increase his dosage of morphine, knowing it will probably hasten his death. Which ethical principle are you following? (check one) A. Distributive justice B. Double effect C. Death with dignity D. Futility E. Autonomy

B. Double effect. The concept of "double effect" dates back to the Middle Ages. It is used to justify medical treatment designed to relieve suffering when death is an unintended but foreseeable consequence. It is based on two basic presuppositions: first, that the doctor's motivation is to alleviate suffering, and second, that the treatment is appropriate to the illness. Distributive justice relates to the allocations of resources. Death with dignity is a recently introduced concept and is not a factor in the scenario described here. Futility refers to using a treatment for which there is no rational justification. Autonomy refers to the patient's ability to direct his or her own care,which is n ot an issue in this case.

Which one of the following would be best at this point for determining the cause of the patient's chest pain? (check one) A. Cardiac angiography B. Echocardiography C. An erythrocyte sedimentation rate D. A CBC E. An antinuclear antibody titer

B. Echocardiography. Echocardiography is the most effective imaging study for the diagnosis of pericardial effusion. It is a simple, sensitive, specific, noninvasive test that can be used at the patient's beside (SOR A). The test also helps to quantify the amount of pericardial fluid and to detect the presence of any accompanying cardiac tamponade. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate, WBC count, and antinuclear antibody titer are helpful for guiding the follow-up care of patients with systemic lupus erythematosus, but not for diagnosing precordial pain. Cardiac angiography has no role in the diagnosis of pericardial effusion.

You see a 16-year-old white female for a preparticipation evaluation for volleyball. She is 183 cm (72 in) tall, and her arm span is greater than her height. She wears contacts for myopia. Which one of the following should be performed at this time? (check one) A. An EKG B. Echocardiography C. A stress test D. A chest radiograph E. Coronary MRI angiography

B. Echocardiography. Marfan's syndrome is an autosomal dominant disease manifested by skeletal, ophthalmologic, and cardiovascular abnormalities. Men taller than 72 in and women taller than 70 in who have two or more manifestations of Marfans disease should be screened by echocardiography for associated cardiac abnormalities. Any of these athletes who have a family history of Marfan's syndrome should be screened, whether they have manifestations themselves or not. If there is no family history, echocardiography should be performed if two or more of the following are present: cardiac murmurs or clicks, kyphoscoliosis, anterior thoracic deformity, arm span greater than height, upper to lower body ratio more than 1 standard deviation below the mean, myopia, or an ectopic lens. Patients with Marfan's syndrome who have echocardiographic evidence of aortic abnormalities should be placed on beta-blockers and monitored with echocardiography every 6 months. Reference: Bader RS, Goldberg L, Sahn DJ: Risk of sudden cardiac death in young athletes: Which screening strategies are appropriate? Pediatr Clin North Am 2004;51(5):1421-1441.

A 62-year-old female with numbness in the lower extremities and macrocytosis has a normal serum folate level and a serum B12 level of 200 pg/mL (N 150-800). Which one of the following laboratory findings would confirm the diagnosis of B12 deficiency? (check one) A. Elevated angiotensin converting enzyme B. Elevated methylmalonic acid C. Elevated free erythrocyte protoporphyrin D. Low haptoglobin E. Low homocysteine

B. Elevated methylmalonic acid. This patient has several clinical features of vitamin B12 deficiency. Some patients with significant vitamin B12 deficiency have levels in the lower range of normal, as this patient does. Vitamin B12 is a cofactor in the synthesis of both methionine and succinyl coenzyme A, and vitamin B12 deficiency leads to the accumulation of methylmalonic acid and homocysteine, which are the precursors of these compounds. An elevated level of these substances is therefore more sensitive than a low vitamin B12 level for vitamin B12 deficiency. Homocysteine is also elevated in folic acid deficiency, however, so a methylmalonic acid level is recommended if vitamin B12 deficiency is a concern and serum vitamin B12 levels are 150-400 pg/mL. A reduced haptoglobin level is useful to confirm hemolytic anemia. An elevated free erythrocyte protoporphyrin level may occur in lead poisoning or iron deficiency. An elevated angiotensin converting enzyme level is found in sarcoidosis.

You see a patient with a serum sodium level of 122 mEq/L (N 135-145) and a serum osmolality of 255 mOsm/kg H2O (N 280-295). Which one of the following would best correlate with a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion? (check one) A. Fractional excretion of sodium <1% B. Elevated urine osmolality C. Elevated serum glucose D. Elevated BUN E. Low plasma arginine vasopressin

B. Elevated urine osmolality. The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is related to a variety of pulmonary and central nervous system disorders in which hyponatremia and hypo-osmolality are paradoxically associated with an inappropriately concentrated urine. Most, but not all, cases are associated with increased levels of the antidiuretic hormone arginine vasopressin (AVP). For a diagnosis of SIAD to be made, the patient must be euvolemic and not on diuretics (within 24-48 hours), and the urine osmolality must be high in conjunction with both low serum sodium and low osmolality. The BUN is normal or low and the fractional excretion of sodium is >1%. Fluid restriction (<800 cc/24 hours) over several days will correct the hyponatremia/hypo-osmolality, but definitive treatment requires eliminating the underlying cause, if possible. In the case of severe, acute hyponatremia with symptoms (e.g., confusion, obtundation, seizures), hypertonic (3%) saline can be slowly infused intravenously but can have dangerous neurologic side effects. Elevated serum glucose levels give rise to a factitious hyponatremia, but not SIAD.

You are evaluating a 28-year-old primigravida for an abnormal Papanicolaou (Pap) test. Which one of the following procedures would be contraindicated? (check one) A. Colposcopy B. Endocervical curettage C. Human papillomavirus (HPV) testing D. Cervical staining E. A cervical biopsy

B. Endocervical curettage. Of the choices listed, only endocervical curettage is contraindicated in pregnancy. Colposcopy, cervical biopsy, cervical staining, and HPV testing can all be safely performed during pregnancy.

======================================================= Cardiovascular Board Review Questions 03 ======================================================= A 35-year-old African-American female has just returned home from a vacation in Hawaii. She presents to your office with a swollen left lower extremity. She has no previous history of similar problems. Homan's sign is positive, and ultrasonography reveals a noncompressible vein in the left popliteal fossa extending distally. Which one of the following is true in this situation? (check one) A. Monotherapy with an initial 10-mg loading dose of warfarin (Coumadin) would be appropriate B. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) should be administered at a dosage of 1 mg/kg subcutaneously twice a day C. The incidence of thrombocytopenia is the same with low-molecular-weight heparin as with unfractionated heparin D. The dosage of warfarin should be adjusted to maintain the INR at 2.5-3.5 E. Anticoagulant therapy should be started as soon as possible and maintained for 1 year to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) recurrence

B. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) should be administered at a dosage of 1 mg/kg subcutaneously twice a day. The use of low-molecular-weight heparin allows patients with acute deep vein thrombosis (DVT) to be managed as outpatients. The dosage is 1 mg/kg subcutaneously twice daily. Patients chosen for outpatient care should have good cardiopulmonary reserve, normal renal function, and no risk for excessive bleeding. Oral anticoagulation with warfarin can be initiated on the first day of treatment after heparin loading is completed. Monotherapy with warfarin is inappropriate. The incidence of thrombocytopenia with low-molecular-weight heparin is lower than with conventional heparin. The INR should be maintained at 2.0-3.0 in this patient. The 2.5-3.5 range is used for patients with mechanical heart valves. The therapeutic INR should be maintained for 3-6 months in a patient with a first DVT related to travel.

An otherwise healthy 37-year-old male presents to your office with a 2-week history of redness and slight irritation in his groin. On examination a tender erythematous plaque with mild scaling is seen in his right crural fold. The area fluoresces coral-red under a Wood's light. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate treatment at this time? (check one) A. Amoxicillin B. Erythromycin C. Ketoconazole D. Nystatin (Mycostatin) E. Triamcinolone (Kenalog)

B. Erythromycin. The characteristics of this lesion, including coral-red fluorescence under a Wood's light, suggests Corynebacterium infection, which is associated with erythrasma. Tinea cruris caused by Microsporum infection fluoresces green, while intertrigo and tinea cruris caused by Epidermophyton or Trichophyton infections do not fluoresce. Erythromycin, either systemic or topical, is the treatment of choice.

An incidental 2-cm adrenal nodule is discovered on renal CT performed to evaluate hematuria in a 57-year-old female with flank pain. She has no past medical history of palpitations, headache, hirsutism, sweating, osteoporosis, diabetes mellitus, or hypertension. A physical examination is normal, with the exception of a blood pressure of 144/86 mm Hg. Laboratory evaluation reveals a serum sodium level of 140 mmol/L (N 135-145) and a serum potassium level of 3.8 mmol/L (N 3.5-5.0). What is the most appropriate next step in the evaluation of this patient? (check one) A. Repeat CT in 12 months B. Evaluation for adrenal hormonal secretion C. Fine-needle aspiration of the nodule D. MRI of the abdomen E. Referral to a general surgeon for exploratory laparotomy

B. Evaluation for adrenal hormonal secretion. The incidental discovery of adrenal masses presents a common clinical challenge. Such masses are found on abdominal CT in 4% of cases, and the incidence of adrenal masses increases to 7% in adults over 70 years of age. While the majority of masses are benign, as many as 11% are hypersecreting tumors and approximately 7% are malignant tumors; the size of the mass and its appearance on imaging are major predictors of malignancy. Once an adrenal mass is identified, adrenal function must be assessed with an overnight dexamethasone suppression test. A morning cortisol level >5 μg/dL after a 1-mg dose indicates adrenal hyperfunction. Additional testing should include 24-hour fractionated metanephrines and catecholamines to rule out pheochromocytoma. If the patient has hypertension, morning plasma aldosterone activity and plasma renin activity should be assessed to rule out a primary aldosterone-secreting adenoma. Nonfunctioning masses require assessment with CT attenuation, chemical shift MRI, and/or scintigraphy to distinguish malignant masses. PET scanning is useful to verify malignant disease. Nonfunctioning benign masses can be monitored for changes in size and for the onset of hypersecretory states, although the appropriate interval and studies are controversial. MRI may be preferred over CT because of concerns about excessive radiation exposure. Fine-needle aspiration of the mass can be performed to differentiate between adrenal and non-adrenal tissue after malignancy and pheochromocytoma have been excluded.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 37 ======================================================= A patient presents with a pigmented skin lesion that could be a melanoma. Its largest dimension is 0.5 cm. What should be the first step in management? (check one) A. A shave biopsy B. Excision with a 1-mm margin C. Wide excision with a 1-cm margin D. Wide excision with a 1-cm margin E. Excision with sentinel node dissection

B. Excision with a 1-mm margin. The diagnosis of melanoma should be made by simple excision with clear margins. A shave biopsy should be avoided because determining the thickness of the lesion is critical for staging. Wide excision with or without node dissection is indicated for confirmed melanoma, depending on the findings from the initial excisional biopsy.

An 80-year-old male presents with the chief complaint of a "bone spur," describing mid-heel pain that worsens as the day progresses. The pain is not relieved with ibuprofen. Examination reveals tenderness in the central aspect of the heel and a radiograph of the foot is unremarkable. The most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. Multiple myeloma B. Fat-pad atrophy C. Tarsal tunnel syndrome D. S1 radiculopathy E. Plantar fasciitis

B. Fat-pad atrophy. Fat-pad atrophy is a common cause of heel pain in the geriatric patient, and in contrast to plantar fasciitis, causes pain as the day progresses. Plantar fasciitis classically presents as morning pain. Tarsal tunnel syndrome causes neuropathic pain in the distribution of the posterior tibial nerve, radiating into the plantar aspect of the foot toward the toes. Lumbar radiculopathy involves pain radiating down the leg into the heel, and is usually associated with weakness of dorsiflexion of the big toe and a decreased ankle reflex. Multiple myeloma would be an extremely unusual cause of heel pain; heel pain associated with cancer more commonly presents nocturnally.

Uterine rupture is a potential complication of attempted vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC). The most reliable indication that uterine rupture may have occurred is: (check one) A. Cessation of uterine contractions during active labor B. Fetal bradycardia C. Vaginal bleeding D. Sudden lower abdominal pain E. Maternal hypotension

B. Fetal bradycardia. Uterine rupture occurs in 0.2%-1.0% of women in labor after one previous low transverse cesarean section. Obviously, this can have devastating consequences for the mother and baby, so vigilance during labor is paramount. Uterine pain, cessation of contractions, vaginal bleeding, failure of labor to progress, or fetal regression may occur, but none of these are as consistent as fetal bradycardia in cases of uterine rupture during labor for VBAC patients.

A 14-year-old African-American female presents for a routine evaluation. On examination, you note a rubbery, well-defined, nontender breast mass approximately 2 cm in diameter. The patient denies any history of breast tenderness, nipple discharge, or skin changes. The most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. Fibrocystic breast disease B. Fibroadenoma C. Benign breast cyst D. Cystosarcoma phyllodes E. Intraductal papilloma

B. Fibroadenoma. Most breast masses in adolescent girls are benign. Fibroadenoma is the most common, accounting for approximately two-thirds of all adolescent breast masses. It is characterized by a slow growing, nontender, rubbery, well-defined mass, most commonly located in the upper, outer quadrant. Size varies, and is most commonly in the range of 2-3 cm. Fibrocystic disease is found in older adolescents and is characterized by bilateral nodularity and cyclic tenderness. Benign breast cysts are characterized by a spongy, tender mass with symptoms exacerbated by menses. Cysts are frequently multiple, and spontaneous regression occurs in 50% of patients. Cystosarcoma phyllodes is a rare tumor with malignant potential, although most are benign. It presents as a firm, rubbery mass that may enlarge rapidly. Skin necrosis is usually associated with the tumor. Intraductal papillomas are usually benign but do have malignant potential. They are commonly subareolar and are associated with nipple discharge. These tumors are rare in the adolescent population.

You are evaluating a 68-year-old male with obstructive urinary symptoms. Which one of the following medications may lead to falsely depressed levels of prostate-specific antigen (PSA)? (check one) A. Terazosin (Hytrin) B. Finasteride (Proscar) C. Tamsulosin (Flomax) D. Doxazosin (Cardura) E. Lycopene

B. Finasteride (Proscar). Finasteride has considerable efficacy in treating obstructive symptoms, but it unfortunately falsely depresses PSA levels. In patients taking finasteride, this can affect the evaluation for carcinoma of the prostate.

A 24-year-old female with a 2-year history of dyspnea on exertion has been diagnosed with exercise-induced asthma by another physician. Which one of the following findings on pulmonary function testing would raise concerns that she actually has vocal cord dysfunction? (check one) A. A good response to an inhaled β-agonist B. Flattening of the inspiratory portion of the flow-volume loop, but a normal expiratory phase C. Flattening of the expiratory portion of the flow-volume loop, but a normal inspiratory phase D. Flattening of both the inspiratory and expiratory portion of the flow-volume loop E. A decreased FEV1 and a normal FVC

B. Flattening of the inspiratory portion of the flow-volume loop, but a normal expiratory phase. The diagnosis of vocal cord dysfunction should be considered in patients diagnosed with exercise-induced asthma who do not have a good response to β-agonists before exercise. Pulmonary function testing with a flow-volume loop typically shows a normal expiratory portion but a flattened inspiratory phase (SOR C). A decreased FEV1 and normal FVC would be consistent with asthma.

A 5-month-old infant has had several episodes of wheezing, not clearly related to colds. The pregnancy and delivery were normal; the infant received phototherapy for 1 day for hyperbilirubinemia. He had an episode of otitis media 1 month ago. There is no chronic runny nose or strong family history of asthma. He spits up small amounts of formula several times a day, but otherwise appears well. His growth curve is normal. An examination is unremarkable except for mild wheezing. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Benign reactive airway disease of infancy B. Gastroesophageal reflux C. Unresolved respiratory syncytial virus infection D. Early asthma E. Cystic fibrosis

B. Gastroesophageal reflux. Gastroesophageal reflux is a common cause of wheezing in infants. At 5 months of age, most infants no longer spit up several times a day, and this is a major clue that this child's wheezing may be from the reflux. In addition, there is no family history of asthma and the wheezing is not related to infections.Cystic fibrosis is more likely to present with recurrent infections and failure to thrive than with intermittent wheezing.

A 5-year-old female is seen for a kindergarten physical and is noted to be below the 3rd percentile for height. A review of her chart shows that her height curve has progressively fallen further below the 3rd percentile over the past year. She was previously at the 50th percentile for height. The physical examination is otherwise normal, but your workup shows that her bone age is delayed. Of the following conditions, which one is the most likely cause of her short stature? (check one) A. Constitutional growth delay B. Growth hormone deficiency C. Genetic short stature D. Turner syndrome E. Skeletal dysplasia

B. Growth hormone deficiency. This patient has delayed bone age coupled with a reduced growth velocity, which suggests an underlying systemic cause. Growth hormone deficiency is one possible cause for this. Although bone age can be delayed with constitutional growth delay, after 24 months of age growth curves are parallel to the 3rd percentile. Bone age would be normal with genetic short stature. Patients with Turner syndrome or skeletal dysplasia have dysmorphic features, and bone age would be normal.

An outbreak of pediatric diarrhea has swept your community. You evaluate a 30-month-old male who developed diarrhea yesterday. He is still breastfed. He is alert, his mucous membranes are moist, and his skin turgor is good. He passes a liquid stool in your office. Which one of the following would be the best advice with regard to his diet? (check one) A. The mother should withhold breastfeeding B. He should consume a normal age-appropriate diet, and continue breastfeeding C. Fasting will promote intestinal mucosal recovery D. Oral intake should be limited to clear fluids, bananas, rice, applesauce, and toast (BRAT diet)

B. He should consume a normal age-appropriate diet, and continue breastfeeding. Continued oral feeding in diarrhea aids in recovery, and an age-appropriate diet should be given. Breastfeeding or regular formula should be continued. Foods with complex carbohydrates (e.g., rice, wheat, potatoes, bread, and cereals), lean meats, yogurt, fruits, and vegetables are well tolerated. Foods high in simple sugars (e.g., juices, carbonated sodas) should be avoided because the osmotic load can worsen the diarrhea. Fatty foods should be avoided as well. The BRAT diet has not been shown to be effective.

Which one of the following preventive measures is recommended for nearly all international travelers to developing countries? (check one) A. γ-Globulin B. Hepatitis A vaccine C. Hepatitis B vaccine D. Typhoid vaccine E. Yellow fever vaccine

B. Hepatitis A vaccine. More than a dozen vaccines are available for diseases with a high prevalence in developing countries. The primary care physician should make sure that international travelers are up to date on routine immunizations, given that vaccine-based immunity to tetanus, diphtheria, polio, and measles wanes over time, and that these diseases are highly prevalent abroad. While location-specific situations may require particular immunizations such as typhoid, yellow fever, or hepatitis B vaccine, and/or administration of γ-globulin, hepatitis A vaccine is recommended for nearly all international travelers.

An otherwise healthy 10-year-old female presents with a papulovesicular eruption on one leg.It extends from the lateral buttock, down the posterolateral thigh, to the lateral calf. It is mildly painful. The patient's immunizations are up to date, including varicella and MMR. Her family has a pet cat at home, and another child at her school was sent home with a rash earlier in the week. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Contact dermatitis B. Herpes zoster dermatitis C. Tinea corporis D. Scabies

B. Herpes zoster dermatitis. Herpes zoster can occur from either a wild strain or a vaccine strain of varicella-zoster virus in vaccinated children, but the incidence is low. All cases are mild and uncomplicated.

A 75-year-old female presents with a 2-month history of bilateral headache, diffuse myalgias, and diplopia. On examination she has substantially diminished vision in her left eye, but no other neurologic findings. A moderately tender, cordlike structure is palpable just anterior to her ear and extending up to her lateral scalp. Blood tests show a markedly elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. Clopidogrel (Plavix) B. High-dose corticosteroids C. NSAIDs E. Dipyridamole/aspirin (Aggrenox)

B. High-dose corticosteroids. The clinical findings in this patient are consistent with temporal arteritis: age over 50, new-onset headache, abnormalities of the temporal artery, and an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. A temporal artery biopsy is needed to confirm the diagnosis, but when the findings are this compelling, corticosteroids should be started even before a biopsy, to prevent further vision loss. Temporal arteritis is the most common clinical pattern of giant cell arteritis, which can also involve other branches of the carotid artery.

The parents of a 40-day-old infant bring her to your clinic because she has had a persistent fever for the past 2 days with rectal temperatures between 38.1°C (100.5°F) and 38.9°C (102.0°F). She has been fussy and wants to be held, but has been nursing well. She is crying when you enter the room, and on examination she has good skin turgor and capillary refill. The examination does not reveal any obvious source of infection. By the time you complete the examination the infant is resting quietly in her father's arms. You obtain a CBC and urinalysis. The WBC count is 12,500/mm3 (N 5000-19,500) with an absolute neutrophil count of 9500/mm3 (N 1000-9000). The urinalysis is within normal limits. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this time? (check one) A. Home care and parental observation only, as long as the temperature remains under 39.0°C (102.2°F) B. Home care and reevaluation in 24 hours C. Oral antibiotics and reevaluation in 24 hours D. A complete sepsis workup, including blood cultures, stool studies, a chest radiograph, and cerebrospinal fluid studies

B. Home care and reevaluation in 24 hours. Most children will be evaluated for a febrile illness before 36 months of age, with the majority having a self-limited viral illness. Nontoxic-appearing febrile infants 29-90 days of age who have a negative screening laboratory workup, including a CBC with differential and a normal urinalysis, can be sent home and followed up in 24 hours (SOR B). A second option is to obtain blood cultures and stool studies, or a chest film if indicated by the history or examination, and spinal fluid studies if empiric antibiotics are to be given. This infant's clinical status did not indicate that any of these additional studies should be performed, and empiric antibiotic treatment is not planned. Observation with no follow-up is an appropriate strategy in nontoxic children, but only if the child is 3-36 months of age and the temperature is under 39°C (SOR B). Nontoxic children 3-36 months of age should be reevaluated in 24-48 hours if the temperature is over 39°C. Although a positive response to antipyretics has been considered an indication of a lower risk of serious bacterial infection, there is no correlation between fever reduction and the likelihood of such an infection. Any infant younger than 29 days, and any infant or child with a toxic appearance regardless of age, should undergo a complete sepsis workup and be admitted for observation until culture results are obtained or the source of the fever is found and treated (SOR A).

A 75-year-old patient with underlying chronic renal failure requires cardiac catheterization. Which one of the following interventions is most likely to help prevent acute renal failure due to contrast-induced nephropathy? (check one) A. Hydration with normal saline and mannitol B. Hydration with sodium bicarbonate-containing fluids C. Hydration plus a loop diuretic D. Administering fenoldopam (Corlopam) prior to the procedure E. Infusion of natriuretic peptides prior to the procedure

B. Hydration with sodium bicarbonate-containing fluids. Several studies have demonstrated that hydration with sodium bicarbonate-containing fluids reduces the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy in those undergoing cardiac catheterization. Studies of interventions to prevent renal failure in patients at high risk have shown that mannitol plus hydration does not reduce acute renal failure compared to hydration alone. Randomized, controlled trials have shown that fenoldopam does not decrease the need for dialysis or improve survival. One systematic review found that low-osmolality contrast media reduced nephrotoxicity in persons with underlying renal failure requiring studies using contrast. One systematic review and one subsequent randomized, controlled trial found that adding loop diuretics to fluids was not effective and may actually increase the possibility of acute renal failure compared to fluids alone. A large randomized, controlled trial found no significant difference between natriuretic peptides and placebo in preventing acute renal failure induced by contrast media.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 75 ======================================================= A 59-year-old male reports nausea, vomiting, and progressive fatigue for the past few months. At his last visit, 6 months ago, his blood pressure was poorly controlled and hydrochlorothiazide was added to his β-blocker therapy. At this visit he appears moderately dehydrated on examination. Laboratory testing reveals a serum calcium level of 12.5 mg/dL (N 8.0-10.0), a BUN level of 36 mg/dL (N 6-20), and a creatinine level of 2.2 mg/dL (N 0.6-1.1). A CBC, albumin level, and electrolyte levels are normal. His intact parathyroid hormone level is reported a few days later, and is 60 pg/mL (N 10-65). What is the most likely cause of his hypercalcemia? (check one) A. Renal failure B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Milk alkali syndrome D. Sarcoidosis

B. Hyperparathyroidism. Many patients have mild hyperparathyroidism that becomes evident only with an added calcium load. Thiazide diuretics reduce calcium excretion and can cause overt symptoms in a patient whose hyperparathyroidism would otherwise have remained asymptomatic. The finding of a normal parathyroid hormone (PTH) level in a patient with hypercalcemia is diagnostic for hyperparathyroidism, since PTH should be suppressed in the presence of elevated calcium. Symptomatic hypercalcemia causes dehydration because of both intestinal symptoms and diuresis. Reversible renal insufficiency can result, and can become permanent if it is long-standing and severe. Conversely, renal failure usually causes hypocalcemia, but can cause hypercalcemia resulting from tertiary hyperparathyroidism. This develops after severe hyperphosphatemia and vitamin D deficiency eventually produce hypersecretion of PTH. This patient's renal insufficiency is not severe enough to cause tertiary hyperparathyroidism. Milk alkali syndrome is hypercalcemia resulting from a chronic overdose of calcium carbonate, and is becoming more common as more patients take calcium and vitamin D supplements. In milk alkali syndrome, and other causes of hypercalcemia such as sarcoidosis, the PTH level is appropriately suppressed.

Which one of the following is more likely to occur with glipizide (Glucotrol) than with metformin (Glucophage)? (check one) A. Lactic acidosis B. Hypoglycemia C. Weight loss D. Gastrointestinal distress

B. Hypoglycemia. Metformin is a biguanide used as an oral antidiabetic agent. One of its main advantages over some other oral agents is that it does not cause hypoglycemia. Lactic acidosis, while rare, can occur in patients with renal impairment. In contrast to most other agents for the control of elevated glucose, which often cause weight gain, metformin reduces insulin levels and more frequently has a weight-maintaining or even a weight loss effect. Gastrointestinal distress is a common side-effect of metformin, particularly early in therapy.

A 52-year-old white male is being considered for pharmacologic treatment of hyperlipidemia because of an LDL cholesterol level of 180 mg/dL. Before beginning medication for his hyperlipidemia, he should be screened for: (check one) A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypothyroidism C. Addison's disease D. Cushing's disease E. Pernicious anemia

B. Hypothyroidism. According to the Summary of the National Cholesterol Education Program (NCEP) Adult Treatment Panel III Report of 2001, any person with elevated LDL cholesterol or any other form of hyperlipidemia should undergo clinical or laboratory assessment to rule out secondary dyslipidemia before initiation of lipid-lowering therapy. Causes of secondary dyslipidemia include diabetes mellitus, hypothyroidism, obstructive liver disease, chronic renal failure, and some medications.

A small child with failure to thrive is found to have a bone age that is markedly delayed relative to height age and chronologic age. The most likely etiology is: (check one) A. Cystic fibrosis B. Hypothyroidism C. Down syndrome D. Fetal alcohol syndrome E. Gonadal dysgenesis

B. Hypothyroidism. Hypothyroidism is associated with markedly delayed bone age relative to height age and chronologic age. In cystic fibrosis, bone age and height age are equivalent, but both lag behind chronologic age. Children with chromosomal anomalies such as trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) or XO have a height age which is delayed relative to bone age. This pattern is also seen as a result of maternal substance abuse.

Of the following dietary factors recommended for the prevention and treatment of cardiovascular disease, which one has been shown to decrease the rate of sudden death? (check one) A. Increased intake of plant protein B. Increased intake of omega-3 fats C. Increased intake of dietary fiber and whole grains D. Increased intake of monounsaturated oils E. Moderate alcohol consumption (1 or 2 standard drinks per day)

B. Increased intake of omega-3 fats. Omega-3 fats contribute to the production of eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA), which inhibit the inflammatory immune response and platelet aggregation, are mild vasodilators, and may have antiarrhythmic properties. The American Heart Association guidelines state that omega-3 supplements may be recommended to patients with preexisting disease, a high risk of disease, or high triglyceride levels, as well as to patients who do not like or are allergic to fish. The Italian GISSI study found that the use of 850 mg of EPA and DHA daily resulted in decreased rates of mortality, nonfatal myocardial infarction, and stroke, with particular decreases in the rate of sudden death.

Which one of the following is associated with the use of percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tubes? (check one) A. A reduced risk of aspiration pneumonia in patients with dysphagia B. Increased use of restraints C. Improved nutritional status in nursing-home residents with dementia D. Improved quality of life for patients with dementia

B. Increased use of restraints. When a patient or nursing-home resident is losing weight or has suffered an acute change in the ability to perform activities of daily living, a decision must be made as to whether or not to place a PEG tube to provide artificial nutrition. Studies have shown that PEG tubes do not improve nutritional status or quality of life for residents with dementia, nor do they decrease the risk of aspiration pneumonia, although aspiration risk may possibly be decreased if the feeding tube is placed below the gastroduodenal junction (SOR B). Feeding tubes can also cause discomfort and agitation, leading to an increased use of restraints (SOR B).

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 91 ======================================================= Three members of the same family present with a high fever and cough that began abruptly yesterday. All three report having fevers over 40° C (104° F), painful coughs, moderate sore throats, and prostration. They have loss of appetite, but no vomiting or diarrhea. Two other family members have similar symptoms. On examination the patients appear ill and flushed. There is no cervical adenopathy, no visible pharyngeal inflammation, and no significant findings on examination of the chest. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Mycoplasma pneumonia B. Influenza-like illness C. Bacterial bronchitis D. Upper respiratory infection E. Legionnaires disease

B. Influenza-like illness. Influenza has a very abrupt onset, and a fever with a nonproductive cough is almost always present. Unconfirmed cases are referred to as influenza-like illness (ILI) or suspected influenza. Patients with confirmed cases tend to say they have never been so ill. Mycoplasma pneumonia can spread among family members, but it is milder and has a more indolent onset and a longer incubation period. Bacterial bronchitis is an overdiagnosed, supposed complication of upper respiratory infections, and is not contagious. While the phrase cold and flu is often used, upper respiratory infections are not so febrile or prostrating, and coryza is the dominant syndrome sooner or later. Legionella can have point-source epidemics, but the incubation period is longer, symptoms vary from mild illness to life-threatening pneumonia, and diarrhea is prominent in many cases. Reference: Thibodeau KP, Viera AJ: Atypical pathogens and challenges in community-acquired pneumonia. Am Fam Physician 2004;69(7):1699-1706.

Which one of the following causes rhinitis medicamentosa with prolonged use in the treatment of rhinitis? (check one) A. Intranasal antihistamines B. Intranasal decongestants C. Intranasal anticholinergics D. Intranasal mast cell stabilizers E. Leukotriene antagonists

B. Intranasal decongestants. Intranasal decongestants such as phenylephrine should not be used for more than 3 days, as they cause rebound congestion on drug withdrawal. When used for several months or more, these agents can cause a form of rhinitis, rhinitis medicamentosa, that can be extremely difficult to treat.

An 82-year-old male nursing-home resident is sent to the emergency department with lower abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea. He has a history of multi-infarct dementia, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. On examination he is afebrile, and a nasogastric aspirate is negative for evidence of bleeding. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's bleeding? (check one) A. Peptic ulcer disease B. Ischemic colitis C. Diverticular bleeding D. Angiodysplasia E. Infectious colitis

B. Ischemic colitis. This patient most likely has ischemic colitis, given the abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea, and cardiovascular risks. Peptic ulcer disease is unlikely because the nasogastric aspirate was negative. Diverticular bleeding and angiodysplasia are painless. Infectious colitis is associated with fever.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 02 ======================================================= You see a 22-year-old female who sustained a right knee injury in a recent college soccer game.She is a defender and executed a sudden cutting maneuver. With her right foot planted and her ankle locked, she attempted to shift the position of her body to stop an oncoming ball and felt her knee pop. She has had a moderate amount of pain and swelling, which began within 2 hours of the injury, but she is most concerned about the loss of knee hyperextension. Which one of the following tests is most likely to be abnormal in this patient? (check one) A. Anterior drawer B. Lachman C. McMurray D. Pivot shift

B. Lachman. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tears occur more commonly in women than in men. The intensity of play is also a factor, with a much greater risk of ACL injuries occurring during games than during practices. The most accurate maneuver for detecting an ACL tear is the Lachman test (sensitivity 60%-100%, mean 84%), followed by the anterior drawer test (sensitivity 9%-93%, mean 62%) and the pivot shift test (sensitivity 27%-95%, mean 62%) (SOR C). McMurray's test is used to detect meniscal tears.

A 36-year-old member of the National Guard who has just returned from Iraq consults you because of several "boils" on the back of his neck that have failed to heal over the last 6 months, despite two week-long courses of cephalexin (Keflex). You observe three 1- to 2-cm raised minimally tender lesions with central ulceration and crust formation. He denies any fever or systemic symptoms. The most likely cause of these lesions is: (check one) A. Pyogenic granuloma B. Leishmaniasis C. Atypical mycobacterial infection D. Squamous cell carcinoma E. Epidermal inclusion cysts

B. Leishmaniasis. The most likely diagnosis is cutaneous leishmaniasis, caused by an intracellular parasite transmitted by the bite of small sandflies. Lesions develop gradually, and are often misdiagnosed as folliculitis or as infected epidermal inclusion cysts, but they fail to respond to usual skin antibiotics. Hundreds of cases have been diagnosed in troops returning from Iraq, most due to Leishmania major. Treatment is not always required, as most lesions will resolve over several months; however, scarring is frequent. U.S. military medical facilities and the CDC are coordinating treatment when indicated with sodium stibogluconate. Family physicians can play a key role in correctly identifying these lesions.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 28 ======================================================= A 72-year-old male has had persistent interscapular pain with movement since rebuilding his deck 1 week ago. He rates the pain as 6 on a 10-point scale. A chest radiograph shows a thoracic vertebral compression fracture. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. Complete bed rest for 2 weeks B. Markedly decreased activity until the pain lessens, and follow-up in 1 week C. Referral for vertebroplasty as soon as possible D. NSAIDs and referral for physical therapy

B. Markedly decreased activity until the pain lessens, and follow-up in 1 week. This patient has suffered a thoracic vertebral compression fracture. Most can be managed conservatively with decreased activity until the pain is tolerable, possibly followed by some bracing. Vertebroplasty is an option when the pain is not improved in 2 weeks. Complete bed rest is unnecessary and could lead to complications. Physical therapy is not indicated, and NSAIDs should be used with caution.

Which one of the following is a possible etiology for this fetal heart rate pattern? (check one) A. Normal progress of labor B. Maternal fever C. Effects of epidural anesthesia D. Post-dates pregnancy E. Umbilical cord prolapse

B. Maternal fever. This tracing shows fetal tachycardia, defined as a baseline fetal heart rate >160 beats/min for at least 15 minutes. This is considered a nonreassuring pattern. Causes of fetal tachycardia include maternal fever, fetal hypoxia, hyperthyroidism, maternal or fetal anemia, medication effects of parasympatholytic or sympathomimetic drugs, chorioamnionitis, fetal tachyarrhythmia, and prematurity. Fetal tachycardia is not a sign of normal progression of labor. Epidural anesthesia, post-dates pregnancy, and umbilical cord prolapse would all be causes of fetal bradycardia.

A 67-year-old female has started receiving home hospice care. Her attending physician can bill through which one of the following? (check one) A. Medicare Part A B. Medicare Part B C. Medicare Part C D. Medicare Part D E. The attending physician cannot bill Medicare

B. Medicare Part B. As long as the attending physician is not employed by hospice, Medicare Part B can be billed. Medicare Part A (hospital insurance) covers inpatient care in hospitals and skilled nursing facilities, hospice, and home health services, but not custodial or long-term care. Medicare Part B (medical insurance) covers outpatient physician services, including office visits and home health services. Medicare Part C (Medicare Advantage Plans) is offered by private companies, and combines Part A and Part B coverage. These plans always cover emergency and urgent care, and may offer extra coverage such as vision, hearing, dental, and/or health and wellness programs. Most plans also include Medicare Part D, which provides prescription drug coverage. Medicare Part D plans vary with regard to cost and drugs covered.

The best available evidence supports which one of the following statements regarding the cardiovascular effects of hypoglycemic agents? (check one) A. Sulfonylureas increase cardiovascular events B. Metformin (Glucophage) reduces cardiovascular mortality rates C. Incretin mimetics reduce the risk of cardiovascular events D. α-Glucosidase inhibitors have no effect on cardiovascular events

B. Metformin (Glucophage) reduces cardiovascular mortality rates. Metformin is the only hypoglycemic agent shown to reduce mortality rates in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. A recent systematic review concluded that cardiovascular events are neither increased nor decreased with the use of sulfonylureas. The effect of incretin mimetics and incretin enhancers on cardiovascular events has not been determined. The STOP-NIDDM study suggests that α-glucosidase inhibitors reduce the risk of cardiovascular events in patients with impaired glucose tolerance.

A 28-year-old female sees you with a complaint of irregular menses. She has not had a menstrual period for 6 months. She is also concerned about weight gain, worsening acne, and dark hair on her upper lip, chin, and periareolar region. She is also interested in becoming pregnant soon. The patient tells you she has started an exercise program, which has helped with weight loss, but she continues to have amenorrhea. She has a negative urine β-hCG test, a mild elevation in free testosterone levels, and glucose intolerance. Which one of the following would you consider initially for inducing ovulation? (check one) A. Insulin B. Metformin (Glucophage) C. Ethinyl estradiol/norgestimate (Ortho Tri-Cyclen) D. Glipizide (Glucotrol) E. Spironolactone (Aldactone)

B. Metformin (Glucophage). First-line agents for ovulation induction and treatment of infertility in patients with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) include metformin and clomiphene, alone or in combination, as well as rosiglitazone (SOR A). In one study of nonobese women with PCOS, metformin was found to be more effective than clomiphene for improving the rate of conception (level of evidence 1b). However, the treatment of infertile women with PCOS remains controversial. One recent group of experts recommended that metformin use for ovulation induction in PCOS be restricted to women with glucose intolerance (SOR C). Oral contraceptives are commonly used to treat menstrual irregularities in women with PCOS; however, there are few studies supporting their use, and they would not be appropriate for ovulation induction. Spironolactone is a first-line agent for treatment of hirsutism (SOR A) and has shown promise in treating menstrual irregularities, but is not commonly recommended for ovulation induction. There is a high prevalence of insulin resistance in women with PCOS, as measured by glucose intolerance; insulin-sensitizing agents are therefore indicated, but not insulin or sulfonylurea medications.

An elderly couple is having trouble paying for the considerable number of medications they require. They ask you about the safety of obtaining drugs from Canada. Which one of the following is true concerning Canadian drugs? (check one) A. Few of the drugs available from Canada have been approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) B. Most of the drugs available from Canada come from the same manufacturers as in the U.S. C. The approval process for a drug by Health Canada is shorter than the FDA's process D. Many drugs discontinued for safety reasons by the FDA are still available in Canada E. Drugs obtained through websites advertising Canadian drugs are well regulated

B. Most of the drugs available from Canada come from the same manufacturers as in the U.S.. The FDA has approved more than 90% of the drugs available from Canada. Most of these drugs come from the same manufacturers as drugs in the U.S. Health Canada takes longer, on average, to approve a drug for release than does the FDA, and most drugs discontinued for safety reasons by the FDA between 1992 and 2001 had not been approved for use in Canada. Websites advertising Canadian drugs may be selling counterfeit drugs from unregulated sources.

In a patient who presents with symptoms of acute myocardial infarction, which one of the following would be an indication for thrombolytic therapy? (check one) A. New-onset ST-segment depression B. New-onset left bundle branch block C. New-onset first degree atrioventricular block D. New-onset Wenckebach second degree heart block E. Frequent unifocal ventricular ectopic beats

B. New-onset left bundle branch block. In patients with ischemic chest pain, the EKG is important for determining the need for fibrinolytic therapy. Myocardial infarction is diagnosed by ST elevation ≥1 mm in two or more limb leads and ≥2 mm in two or more contiguous precordial leads. In a patient with an MI, new left bundle branch block suggests occlusion of the left anterior descending artery, placing a significant portion of the left ventricle in jeopardy. Thrombolytic therapy could be harmful in patients with ischemia but not infarction - they will show ST-segment depression only. Frequent unifocal ventricular ectopy may warrant antiarrhythmic therapy, but not thrombolytic therapy.

A 49-year-old white female comes to your office complaining of painful, cold finger tips which turn white when she is hanging out her laundry. While there is no approved treatment for this condition at this time, which one of the following drugs has been shown to be useful? (check one) A. Propranolol (Inderal) B. Nifedipine (Procardia) C. Ergotamine/caffeine (Cafergot) D. Methysergide (Sansert)

B. Nifedipine (Procardia). At present there is no approved treatment for Raynaud's disease. However, patients with this disorder reportedly experience subjective symptomatic improvement with calcium channel antagonists, with nifedipine being the calcium channel blocker of choice. -Blockers can produce arterial insufficiency of the Raynaud type, so propranolol and atenolol are contraindicated. Drugs such as ergotamine preparations and methysergide can produce cold sensitivity, and should therefore be avoided in patients with Raynaud's disease.

A 3-year-old male was treated for acute otitis media last month. His mother brings him in for follow-up because she believes his hearing has not been normal since then. He attends day care and has had several upper respiratory infections. On examination the tympanic membranes are not inflamed, but the membrane is retracted on the right side. An office tympanogram shows a normal peak (type A) on the left side, but a flat tracing (type B) on the right side. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate recommendation? (check one) A. Audiometry B. Observation with follow-up C. An antihistamine/decongestant combination D. Intranasal corticosteroids E. Systemic corticosteroids

B. Observation with follow-up. This patient has unilateral serous otitis and is unlikely to have delayed language from decreased hearing on one side. The patient should be observed for now. Hearing loss of longer than 3 months may indicate a need for tympanostomy tubes. Surgical treatment has been shown to be helpful, but should be reserved for patients with chronic effusion. Audiometry is not needed to make a decision about surgery at this point. The mother's judgment is likely correct about his current hearing loss, so a hearing test most likely would not add any useful information. Numerous studies have shown that all medical treatments for serous otitis are ineffective, including antihistamine and decongestant therapy, and corticosteroids by any route.

A 12-year-old white male is brought to your office after accidentally cutting his left hand with a pocketknife. On examination you find a deep 2-cm laceration at the base of the thenar eminence. To test for motor injury to the median nerve you would have the patient: (check one) A. Extend the thumb and fingers B. Oppose the thumb and little finger C. Flex the wrist D. Abduct the thumb and index finger

B. Oppose the thumb and little finger. The ability to touch the tip of the thumb to the tip of the little finger indicates normal motor function of the median nerve. The radial nerve controls extension of the thumb and fingers. The median nerve partially controls flexion of the wrist, but the site of innervation is proximal to the wound site at the base of the thumb. Abduction of the thumb is a function of the radial nerve. Finger abduction is a function of the ulnar nerve.

A 12-year-old white male asthmatic has an acute episode of wheezing. You diagnose an acute asthma attack and prescribe an inhaled β2-adrenergic agonist. After 2 hours of treatment, he continues to experience wheezing and shortness of breath. Which one of the following is the most appropriate addition to acute outpatient management? (check one) A. Oral theophylline (Theo-Dur) B. Oral corticosteroids C. An oral β-adrenergic agonist D. Inhaled cromolyn (Intal) E. Inhaled corticosteroids

B. Oral corticosteroids. The treatment of choice for occasional acute symptoms of asthma is an inhaled β2-adrenergic agonist such as albuterol, terbutaline, or pirbuterol. If symptoms do not respond to β-agonists, they should be treated with a short course of systemic corticosteroids. Theophylline has limited usefulness for treatment of acute symptoms in patients with intermittent asthma; it is a less potent bronchodilator than subcutaneous or inhaled adrenergic drugs, and therapeutic serum concentrations can cause transient adverse effects such as nausea and central nervous system stimulation in patients who have not been taking the drug continuously. Cromolyn can decrease airway hyperreactivity, but has no bronchodilating activity and is useful only for prophylaxis. Inhaled corticosteroids should be used to suppress the symptoms of chronic persistent 2 asthma. Oral β2-selective agonists are less effective and have a slower onset of action than the same drugs given by inhalation.

Current U.S. Preventive Services Task Force recommendations for preventing dental caries in preschool-aged children include which one of the following? (check one) A. Primary care clinicians should prescribe oral fluoride at currently recommended doses to all preschool-aged children B. Oral fluoride is not necessary if the primary water source contains adequate fluoride C. Oral fluoride supplementation should begin at birth when indicated D. Evidence for fluoride supplementation is insufficient to recommend for or against its use

B. Oral fluoride is not necessary if the primary water source contains adequate fluoride. The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) recommends that primary care clinicians prescribe oral fluoride supplementation at currently recommended dosages to preschool-aged children older than 6 months of age whose primary water source is deficient in fluoride. The USPSTF concluded that the benefits of caries prevention outweigh the potential harms of dental fluorosis. The USPSTF also concluded that there is insufficient evidence to recommend for or against routine risk assessment of preschool-aged children for dental disease prevention.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 71 ======================================================= A 31-year-old African-American female presents with the chief complaint of bilateral galactorrhea of 3 months' duration. She also has not menstruated for 1 year despite changing birth control pills several times. A review of systems is otherwise noncontributory. Except for a milky discharge with stimulation of the breasts, her examination is within normal limits. Serum prolactin on two occasions is >200 μg/L (N 0-20). Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. Stop her oral contraceptive and repeat the serum prolactin level in 1 month B. Order a brain MRI with enhancement and emphasis on the pituitary fossa C. Order bilateral mammography D. Start the patient on risperidone (Risperdal)

B. Order a brain MRI with enhancement and emphasis on the pituitary fossa. Galactorrhea associated with a prolactin level >200 μg/L usually indicates a prolactinoma, and requires MRI of the pituitary with gadolinium enhancement. Many drugs can cause galactorrhea, including oral contraceptives and risperidone, but they would not elevate serum prolactin to this level. Dopamine agonists such as bromocriptine or cabergoline are the preferred treatment for most patients with hyperprolactinemia.

A 40-year-old white female presents with pain on inspiration and dyspnea since this morning. She has no chronic medical problems, takes no medications, has not traveled, and has no history of trauma. On examination the patient is afebrile, has a heart rate of 90 beats/min and a respiratory rate of 20/min, and her lungs are clear to auscultation. The pain is worse in the supine position. Which one of the following would you do initially? (check one) A. Order a CBC with differential B. Order a chest film and EKG C. Prescribe ibuprofen D. Prescribe omeprazole (Prilosec) E. Prescribe a bronchodilator

B. Order a chest film and EKG. This patient has pleuritic chest pain, and the fact that it is worse when supine and is accompanied by dyspnea creates additional concern. Supine pain could be due to pericarditis, which may be evident on an EKG. Dyspnea increases suspicion for pneumonia, pulmonary embolism, pneumothorax, and myocardial infarction, and a chest film and EKG are recommended to evaluate these possibilities. The lack of any significant medical history does not rule out any of these problems. Once these problems have been ruled out, a diagnosis of pleurisy would be reasonable and can be treated with an NSAID. A CBC would only indicate the possibility that infection or anemia is the cause of the problem. Omeprazole or a bronchodilator would be inappropriate treatment, as asthma and reflux are not likely in this patient.

A 45-year-old male was admitted to the hospital for nausea resulting from chemotherapy for colon cancer. He has no other chronic diseases and takes no routine medications. He was mildly dehydrated on admission and has been receiving intravenous fluids (D5 ½-normal saline with potassium chloride) at slightly higher than maintenance rates through an indwelling port for the last 24 hours. The nausea is being controlled by antiemetics, and his condition is improving. Results of routine blood work at the time of admission and from the following morning are shown below. Admission Following Morning Glucose 109 mg/dL (N 65-110) 371 mg/dL BUN 13 mg/dL (N 7-21) 9 mg/dL Creatinine 0.9 mg/dL (N 0.6-1.6) 0.9 mg/dL Sodium 143 mmol/L (N 136-144) 129 mmol/L Potassium 3.7 mmol/L (N 3.6-5.1) 6.6 mmol/L Chloride 110 mmol/L (N 101-111) 108 mmol/L Total CO2 20 mmol/L (N 22-32) 22 mmol/L Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step? (check one) A. Start an intravenous insulin drip B. Order blood work taken from a peripheral vein C. Restrict the patient's free water intake D. Switch from normal saline to hypertonic saline E. Treat with diuretics

B. Order blood work taken from a peripheral vein. Physicians should avoid reacting to laboratory values without considering the clinical scenario. This patient presented with mild dehydration and normal laboratory values. Although he is improving clinically, his laboratory values show multiple unexpected results. The most noticeable is the severely elevated glucose, because he has no history of diabetes mellitus or use of medications that could cause this effect. Similarly, the elevated potassium and decreased sodium suggest profound electrolyte abnormalities. Most likely, the laboratory technician drew blood from the patients indwelling port without discarding the first several milliliters. Thus, the blood was contaminated with intravenous fluids, resulting in the erroneous results. A repeat blood test from a peripheral vein should give more accurate results.

A 40-year-old female comes to your office with a 1-month history of right heel pain that she describes as sharp, searing, and severe. The pain is worst when she first bears weight on the foot after prolonged sitting and when she gets out of bed in the morning. It gets better with continued walking, but worsens at the end of the day. She does not exercise except for being on her feet all day in the hospital where she works as a floor nurse. She denies any history of trauma. An examination reveals point tenderness to palpation on the plantar surface of the heel at the medial calcaneal tuberosity. Which one of the following should you recommend as first-line treatment? (check one) A. Taping/strapping B. Over-the-counter heel inserts C. Extracorporeal shock wave therapy D. A corticosteroid injection E. A fiberglass walking cast

B. Over-the-counter heel inserts. Plantar fasciitis is a common cause of heel pain. It may be unilateral or bilateral, and the etiology is unknown, although it is thought to be due to cumulative overload stress. While it may be associated with obesity or overuse, it may also occur in active or inactive patients of all ages. Typically the pain is located in the plantar surface of the heel and is worst when the patient first stands up when getting out of bed in the morning (first step phenomenon) or after prolonged sitting. The pain may then improve after the patient walks around, only to worsen after prolonged walking. The diagnosis is made by history and physical examination. Typical findings include point tenderness to palpation on the plantar surface of the heel at the medial calcaneal tuberosity where the calcaneal aponeurosis inserts. Radiographs are not necessary unless there is a history of trauma or if the diagnosis is unclear. The condition may last for months or years, and resolves in most patients over time with or without specific therapy. One long-term follow-up study showed that 80% of patients had complete resolution of their pain after 4 years. Treatments with limited (level 2) evidence of effectiveness include off-the-shelf insoles, custom-made insoles, stretching of the plantar fascia, corticosteroid iontophoresis, custom-made night splints, and surgery (for those who have failed conservative therapy). NSAIDs and ice, although not independently studied for plantar fasciitis, are included in most studies of other treatments, and are reasonable adjuncts to first-line therapy. Magnetic insoles and extracorporeal shockwave therapy are ineffective in treating plantar fasciitis. Due to their expense, custom-made insoles, custom-made night splints, and corticosteroid iontophoresis should be reserved as second-line treatments for patients who fail first-line treatment. Surgery may be offered if more conservative therapies fail. Corticosteroid injection may have a short-term benefit at 1 month, but is no better than other treatments at 6 months and carries a risk of plantar fascia rupture.

A 25-year-old white female presents to your office with the following complaints: sudden onset of intense apprehension, fear, terror associated with impending doom, dyspnea, palpitations, and a feeling of loss of control. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Pheochromocytoma B. Panic attack C. Hypochondriasis D. Hypoglycemia E. Hyperthyroidism

B. Panic attack. Panic attacks generally begin between the ages of 17 and 30, and 80% of those affected are women. Panic attacks are manifested by the sudden onset of intense apprehension, fear, or terror, often associated with thoughts of impending doom and at least four of the following somatic symptoms: dyspnea (patients often hyperventilate); palpitations, chest pain, or discomfort; choking or smothering sensations; dizziness; a feeling of unreality; paresthesias; diaphoresis; faintness; trembling or shaking; hot and cold flashes; and fears of dying, going crazy, or losing control during an attack. Hypochondriasis is a condition where the patient is preoccupied with health and absorbed in his/her own physical ailments. Major depressive episodes/depression are characterized by marked, sustained changes of mood. In major depression the prevailing mood is low, being described as "blue," "down in the dumps," or apathetic. Part of the low mood consists of a decreased ability to enjoy activities that usually are a source of pleasure.

Which one of the following would be most appropriate to treat a dental infection requiring antibiotic therapy? (check one) A. Erythromycin B. Penicillin C. Dicloxacillin (Dynapen) D. Tetracycline E. Cefixime (Suprax)

B. Penicillin. Many dental conditions causing inflammation do not require antibiotic therapy. Dental caries, reversible pulpitis, gingivitis, periodontitis, and periapical abscesses usually are treated with local procedures without antibiotics. Cellulitis, however, requires either outpatient antibiotics or inpatient antibiotic treatment if the cellulitis spreads to the deeper spaces of the head and neck. The antibiotic of choice, especially for outpatient treatment, is oral penicillin G, 500 mg 3 times daily.

======================================================= Musculoskeletal Board Review Questions 01 ======================================================= Osteoporotic bone loss can be caused or accelerated by prolonged use of which one of the following medications? (check one) A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Phenytoin C. Raloxifene (Evista) D. Diazepam (Valium) E. Fluoxetine (Prozac)

B. Phenytoin. Secondary osteoporosis can result from a variety of endocrine, nutritional, or genetic disorders, as well as from prolonged use of certain medications. Anticonvulsants such as phenytoin increase the hepatic metabolism of vitamin D, thereby reducing intestinal calcium absorption. Other medications that adversely affect bone mineral density include glucocorticoids, cyclosporine, phenobarbital, and heparin. Thiazide diuretics reduce urinary calcium loss and are believed to preserve bone density with long-term use. Benzodiazepines and SSRIs have not been associated with increases in bone loss or in hip fractures. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator, is indicated for the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women.

A 70-year-old male with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with a 2-month history of increasing paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea and shortness of breath with minimal exertion. An echocardiogram shows an ejection fraction of 25%. Which one of the patients current medications should be discontinued? (check one) A. Lisinopril (Zestril) B. Pioglitazone (Actos) C. Glipizide (Glucotrol) D. Metoprolol (Toprol-XL) E. Repaglinide (Prandin)

B. Pioglitazone (Actos). According to the American Diabetes Association guidelines, thiazolidinediones (TZDs) are associated with fluid retention, and their use can be complicated by the development of heart failure. Caution is necessary when prescribing TZDs in patients with known heart failure or other heart diseases, those with preexisting edema, and those on concurrent insulin therapy (SOR C). Older patients can be treated with the same drug regimens as younger patients, but special care is required when prescribing and monitoring drug therapy. Metformin is often contraindicated because of renal insufficiency or heart failure. Sulfonylureas and other insulin secretagogues can cause hypoglycemia. Insulin can also cause hypoglycemia, and injecting it requires good visual and motor skills and cognitive ability on the part of the patient or a caregiver. TZDs should not be used in patients with New York Heart Association class III or IV heart failure.

A 5-year-old African-American male presents with behavior problems noted in the first 3 months of kindergarten. The mother explains that the child does not pay attention and often naps in class. He averages 10 hours of sleep nightly and is heard snoring frequently. The mother has a history of attention-deficit disorder and takes atomoxetine (Strattera). The boy's examination is within normal limits except for his being in the 25th percentile for weight and having 3+ tonsillar enlargement. The most reasonable plan at this point would include which one of the following? (check one) A. An electroencephalogram B. Polysomnography C. Atomoxetine D. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)

B. Polysomnography. Obstructive sleep apnea is increasingly recognized in children. The peak incidence is in the preschool-age range of 2-5 years when adenotonsillar tissue is greatest in relation to airway size. It is associated with obesity in older children. Common clinical manifestations include snoring with sleep interruptions and respiratory pauses. Polysomnography is the gold standard for the diagnosis. Although the child has inattention, excessive drowsiness is not seen in attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and medications for that condition are not indicated. None of his symptoms suggests a seizure disorder, so an EEG would not be helpful.

A 65-year-old male has recently undergone coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. Generally, he has recovered well from his surgery. However, his cardiac surgeon referred him back to you because of symptoms suggestive of depression. Which one of the following is true in this situation? (check one) A. Patients with chronic cardiac symptoms prior to surgery are more likely to develop postoperative depression B. Postoperative depression increases the risk for subsequent cardiovascular events C. Treatment of postoperative depression with antidepressants decreases the rate of subsequent cardiovascular events D. Enrollment in a cardiac rehabilitation program often worsens depression

B. Postoperative depression increases the risk for subsequent cardiovascular events. In patients who are depressed after coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery, impaired memory and cognition are seen more frequently than other depressive symptoms. Patients with rapid progression of cardiac symptoms before surgery are at particular risk of depressive symptoms after surgery. Newly depressed patients are at higher risk than non-depressed patients for long-term cardiovascular events and death from cardiovascular causes. The Sertraline AntiDepressant Heart Attack Randomized Trial (SADHART) showed that antidepressant use was associated with a slight, but not significant, reduction in the rates of cardiovascular events. The Enhancing Recovery in Coronary Heart Disease (ENRICHD) trial showed that although it did not reduce the risk of cardiac events, participation in a cardiac rehabilitation program reduced depressive symptoms and increased social ties.

A 45-year-old Hispanic male with schizophrenia presents with an exacerbation of his COPD. He currently takes only ziprasidone (Geodon). He asks for a prescription for clarithromycin (Biaxin) because it has worked well for previous exacerbations. Which one of the following effects of this drug combination should you be alert for? (check one) A. Stevens-Johnson syndrome B. Prolonged QT interval C. Seizures D. Diarrhea E. Hypoglycemia

B. Prolonged QT interval. Ziprasidone is a second-generation antipsychotic used in the treatment of schizophrenia. These drugs cause QT-interval prolongation, which can in turn lead to torsades de pointes and sudden cardiac death. This risk is further increased when these drugs are combined with certain antibiotics (e.g., clarithromycin), antiarrhythmics (class I and III), and tricyclic antidepressants. The FDA has issued a black box warning for both first- and second-generation antipsychotic drugs due to a 1.6- to 1.7-fold increase in the risk of sudden cardiac death and cerebrovascular accidents associated with their use in the elderly population (SOR A). None of the other conditions listed is associated with this drug combination.

Which one of the following is considered first-line therapy for migraine prophylaxis in adults? (check one) A. Gabapentin (Neurontin) B. Propranolol (Inderal) C. Fluoxetine (Prozac) D. Vitamin B2 (riboflavin) F. Naproxen (Naprosyn)

B. Propranolol (Inderal). Propranolol is a first-line therapy for migraine prophylaxis in adults (SOR A). In a review of 26 placebocontrolled trials using data pooled from nine studies, the calculated responder ratio (comparable to relative risk) was 1.9 (95% confidence interval 1.6-2.35). Other first-line agents include timolol, amitriptyline, divalproex sodium, sodium valproate, and topiramate. Gabapentin, fluoxetine, vitamin B , and naproxen are considered second-line therapies for migraine prophylaxis in adults (SOR B), and should be used when no first-line agent or combination is effective or tolerable.

A 45-year-old white male develops disabling tremulousness, loss of voice, and a marked sense of forceful and rapid heartbeat whenever he must speak to a large group. Which one of the following drugs is likely to be of most value in enabling him to give presentations at sales and stockholders' meetings? (check one) A. Desipramine (Norpramin) B. Propranolol (Inderal) C. Alprazolam (Xanax) D. Amantadine (Symmetrel) E. Buspirone (BuSpar)

B. Propranolol (Inderal). This patient has a specific situational anxiety disorder or social phobia called performance anxiety or speech phobia, characterized by marked and sometimes disabling symptoms of catecholamine excess during specific performance situations, such as public speaking. Rates of speech phobia may exceed 50% in the population, but it is unclear whether such fear and avoidance of public speaking warrants a psychiatric diagnosis. Specific phobias such as speech phobia respond moderately well to β-blockers used prior to a performance. These drugs block peripheral anxiety symptoms such as tachycardia and tremulousness that can escalate subjective anxiety and impair performance. Drugs that are primarily psychotropics or antiparkinsonian agents are much less likely to be of value in this specific anxiety disorder, and may cause undesirable sedation and dry mouth.

======================================================= Special Sensory Board Review Questions ======================================================= You are the team physician for the local high-school swim team. Over the past week, seven members of the team have developed both folliculitis and outer ear infections. You suspect bacterial contamination of the swimming pool. Which one of the following is the most likely cause? (check one) A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Corynebacterium ulcerans D. Staphylococcus epidermidis E. Escherichia coli

B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Athletes, including swimmers, are susceptible to a number of skin infections. The pH of the external ear is normally acidic. Continued water exposure raises the pH, creating conditions for bacterial overgrowth, most often caused by either Pseudomonas aeruginosa or Staphylococcus aureus. Swimming pool folliculitis is most often attributed to colonization of water with P. aeruginosa.

What is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Patellar tendon rupture B. Quadriceps tendon rupture C. Tibial plateau fracture D. Patellar subluxation E. Lumbar radiculopathy

B. Quadriceps tendon rupture. Quadriceps tendon rupture can be partial or complete. When complete, as in this case, the patient has no ability to straighten the leg actively. A similar pattern is seen with patellar tendon rupture, but in this situation the patella is retracted superiorly by the quadriceps. Quadriceps rupture often produces a sulcus sign, a painful indentation just above the patella. If the patient is not seen until some time has passed since the injury, the gap in the quadriceps can fill with blood, so that it is no longer palpable. The clinical examination is usually diagnostic for this condition, but this patient's radiograph shows some interesting findings, especially on the lateral view. A small shard of the patella has been pulled off and has migrated superiorly with the quadriceps. The hematoma filling the gap in the quadriceps is the same density as the muscle, but wrinkling of the fascia over the distal quadriceps provides a clue that it is no longer attached to the superior margin of the patella. Tibial plateau fractures are intra-articular, so they produce a large hemarthrosis. They are evident on a radiograph in almost all cases. Pain inhibits movement of the knee, but the extreme weakness evident in this case would not be seen. Patellar subluxation is obvious acutely, when the patella is displaced laterally. More often, the patient comes in after the patella has relocated. Findings then include tenderness along the medial retinaculum, sometimes a joint effusion, and a positive apprehension sign when the patella is pushed gently laterally. Lumbar radiculopathy can cause weakness of the quadriceps if it involves the third lumbar root, but complete paralysis would not occur. Other findings would include lumbar pain radiating to the leg, possibly with paresthesias and fasciculations if there were significant neurologic impairment.

In an 11-year-old male with dark brown urine and hand and foot edema, which one of the following would be most suggestive of glomerulonephritis? (check one) A. WBC casts in the urine B. RBC casts in the urine C. Eosinophils in the urine D. Positive serum antinuclear antibody levels E. Elevated C3 and C4 complement levels

B. RBC casts in the urine. Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) in children manifests as brown or cola-colored urine, which may be painless or associated with mild flank or abdominal pain. There are many etiologies of AGN but the most common in children are IgA nephropathy (which may directly follow an acute upper respiratory tract infection) and acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis following a streptococcal throat or skin infection (usually 7-21 days later). In cases with more severe renal involvement, patients may develop hypertension, edema, and oliguria. RBC casts are the classic finding on urinalysis in a patient with AGN. WBC casts are seen in acute pyelonephritis, often manifested by high fever, and costovertebral angle or flank pain and tenderness. Patients may also appear septic. Positive serum antinuclear antibodies are associated with lupus nephritis. Urine eosinophils are seen in drug-induced tubulointerstitial nephritis. Serum complement levels are reduced, not elevated, in various forms of acute glomerulopathies, including poststreptococcal AGN.

A 67-year-old white female has a DXA scan with a resulting T-score of -2.7. She has a strong family history of breast cancer. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient? (check one) A. A bisphosphonate B. Raloxifene (Evista) C. Calcitonin nasal spray (Miacalcin) D. Teriparatide (Forteo) E. Conjugated estrogens (Premarin)

B. Raloxifene (Evista). Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator. While it increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, it is indicated in this patient to decrease the risk of invasive breast cancer (SOR A). Bisphosphonates inhibit osteoclastic activity. Zoledronic acid, alendronate, and risedronate decrease both hip and vertebral fractures, whereas ibandronate decreases fracture risk at the spine only. Calcitonin nasal spray is an antiresorptive spray that decreases the incidence of vertebral compression fractures. Teriparatide is a recombinant human parathyroid hormone with potent bone anabolic activity, effective against vertebral and nonvertebral fractures. Hormone replacement therapy is recommended for osteoporosis only in women with moderate or severe vasomotor symptoms. The lowest possible dose should be used for the shortest amount of time possible (SOR C).

A 3-year-old male is brought to your office by his parents because they are concerned about three "spells" he has had in the past month. In each case, the child started crying when he was prevented by a parent from doing something he wished to do. While crying, he suddenly stopped breathing and his face and lips began to turn blue. After 30-45 seconds he resumed crying, his color returned to normal, and he showed no evidence of impairment. A physical examination today is normal and the child is developmentally appropriate for his age. A recent hemoglobin level was in the normal range. Which one of the following should you do now? (check one) A. Teach the parents age-appropriate disciplinary procedures to implement when the child behaves in this manner B. Reassure the parents that this is a benign condition and will resolve as the child gets older C. Order an EEG D. Obtain appropriate laboratory studies to confirm the most likely diagnosis E. Initiate treatment with valproic acid (Depakene)

B. Reassure the parents that this is a benign condition and will resolve as the child gets older. This child is experiencing simple breath-holding spells, a relatively common and benign condition that usually begins in children between the ages of 6 months and 6 years. The cause is uncertain but seems to be related to overactivity of the autonomic nervous system in association with emotions such as fear, anger, and frustration. The episodes are self-limited and may be associated with pallor, cyanosis, and loss of conciousness if prolonged. There may be an association with iron deficiency anemia, but this child had a recent normal hemoglobin level. These events are not volitional, so disciplinary methods are neither effective nor warranted. While children may experience a loss of consciousness and even exhibit some twitching behavior, the episodes are not seizures so neither EEG evaluation nor anticonvulsant therapy is indicated. No additional laboratory studies are indicated. Parents should be reassured that the episodes are benign and will resolve without treatment.

A 73-year-old Hispanic male presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of abdominal and right flank pain. He is lethargic and pale, and his skin is clammy. His blood pressure is 86/30 mm Hg, pulse 106 beats/min, and temperature 38.6 degrees C (101.5 degrees F). His chest is clear and no murmurs are heard. He responds to painful stimuli. The abdomen is soft with no guarding or rebound. Immediate fluid resuscitation is begun and after an hour he has received 2 L of normal saline. In that hour he has had a urine output of only 30 cc. A chest film and an EKG are normal Laboratory Findings WBCs15,500/mm3 (N 4300-10,800) Platelets70,000/mm3 (N 150,000-300,000) Base deficit13 mEq/L Serum pH7.21 (N 7.35-7.45) Urinalysispacked WBCs, 3+ bacteria Which one of the following is most likely to enhance survival in this patient? (check one) A. Low-dose dopamine B. Recombinant human activated protein C (Xigris) C. Antithrombin D. Bicarbonate E. Erythropoietin

B. Recombinant human activated protein C (Xigris). This clinical scenario should lead one to think of septic shock. Recent comprehensive investigations and reviews have demonstrated that the use of recombinant activated protein C in patients with severe sepsis and a high risk for death does improve survival. Low-dose dopamine should not be used for maintenance or improvement of renal function. Antithrombin administration is not recommended for the treatment of severe sepsis and septic shock. As a specific treatment for anemia associated with severe sepsis, erythropoietin has not been shown to be of benefit. There is no evidence to support the use of bicarbonate in the treatment of hypoperfusion-induced acidemia associated with sepsis. References: 1) Dellinger RP, Carlet JM, Masur H, et al: Surviving sepsis campaign guidelines for management of severe sepsis and septic shock. Crit Care Med 2004;32(3):858-873. 2) Kasper DL, Braunwald E, Fauci AS, et al (eds): Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, ed 16. McGraw-Hill, 2005, p 254.

A 79-year-old male presents with left-sided hemiparesis. His previous medical history is significant for long-standing hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. On examination his blood pressure is 220/130 mm Hg and his pulse rate is 96 beats/min. CT of the head shows no acute bleeding. An EKG shows left ventricular hypertrophy with diffuse nonspecific changes. Which one of the following would be most appropriate with regard to his blood pressure at this time? (check one) A. Watchful waiting B. Reduction of systolic blood pressure (SBP) to 190 mm Hg C. Reduction of SBP to 170 mm Hg D. Reduction of SBP to 150 mm Hg E. Reduction of SBP to 130 mm Hg

B. Reduction of systolic blood pressure (SBP) to 190 mm Hg. Cautious reduction of systolic blood pressure by 10%-15% while monitoring neurologic status seems to be the safest treatment goal in the setting of acute ischemic stroke when the systolic blood pressure is >220 mm Hg or the diastolic blood pressure is 120-140 mm Hg. According to JNC-7, more aggressive blood pressure reduction may increase cerebrovascular complications.

A 3-year-old male is brought to your office because of ear pain. On examination you find a round, plastic bead in the lower third of the ear canal close to the tympanic membrane. You restrain the child and are unable to remove the object despite several attempts, first using water irrigation and then fast-acting glue on an applicator. Which one of the following is the best option for removal? (check one) A. A plastic loop curette through an otoscope B. Referral for removal under anesthesia C. Grasping with forceps D. Applying acetone to dissolve the object

B. Referral for removal under anesthesia. After several unsuccessful attempts to remove an object deep in the ear canal of an uncooperative child, it is best to refer the patient to an otolaryngologist for removal under anesthesia. Additional attempts are very unlikely to succeed, especially with the techniques listed. A loop curette cannot be safely placed behind a foreign body that is close to the tympanic membrane. A round, hard object cannot be grasped with forceps. Acetone can be used to dissolve Styrofoam foreign bodies, but it would not dissolve a plastic bead.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 69 ======================================================= A 35-year-old white male who has had diabetes mellitus for 20 years begins having episodes of hypoglycemia. He was previously stable and well controlled and has not recently changed his diet or insulin regimen. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of the hypoglycemia? (check one) A. Spontaneous improvement of β-cell function B. Renal disease C. Reduced physical activity D. Insulin antibodies

B. Renal disease. The most common cause of hypoglycemia in a previously stable, well-controlled diabetic patient who has not changed his or her diet or insulin dosage is diabetic renal disease. A reduction in physical activity or the appearance of insulin antibodies (unlikely after 20 years of therapy) would increase insulin requirements and produce hyperglycemia. Spontaneous improvement β -cell function after 20 years would be very rare.

Contraindications to thrombolytic therapy in acute stroke include which one of the following? (check one) A. Age >80 B. Resolving transient ischemic attack C. Blood glucose >200 mg/dL D. Deficit present for >1 hour

B. Resolving transient ischemic attack. Thrombolysis is now an approved treatment for acute stroke. The critical time frame is 3 hours after the onset of the deficit. Beyond that time span, the use of thrombolytic agents is contraindicated. Advanced age per se is not a contraindication to thrombolytic therapy. Contraindications include blood glucose levels <50 mg/dL or >400 mg/dL, resolving transient ischemic attack, and hemorrhage visible on a CT scan.

One day after a nurse performs CPR on an emergency-department patient, she learns that the patient had meningococcal meningitis. Which one of the following is the most appropriate chemoprophylaxis for this condition? (check one) A. Penicillin G benzathine (Bicillin LA), 1.2 million units intramuscularly B. Rifampin, 600 mg every 12 hours for 2 days C. Oral prednisone, 40 mg daily for 5 days D. Quadrivalent meningococcal vaccine E. No prophylaxis

B. Rifampin, 600 mg every 12 hours for 2 days. Health-care workers exposed to a patient with meningococcal meningitis are at increased risk of developing systemic disease and should receive chemoprophylaxis, especially if the contact is intimate. Secondary cases usually occur within 4 days of the initial case. Therefore, prophylactic treatment should begin as soon as possible. Rifampin has been shown to be 90% effective in eliminating meningococcus from the nasopharynx. Other appropriate chemoprophylactic agents include minocycline and ciprofloxacin. Even high doses of penicillin may not eradicate nasopharyngeal meningococci. Prednisone has no place in chemoprophylaxis. Meningococcal vaccine appears to have clinical efficacy, but it usually takes more than 5 days to become effective.

A 47-year-old male is preparing for a 3-day trip to central Mexico to present the keynote address for an international law symposium. He asks you for an antibiotic to be taken prophylactically to prevent bacterial diarrhea. Which one of the following would you recommend? (check one) A. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra) B. Rifaximin (Xifaxan) C. Doxycycline D. Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid)

B. Rifaximin (Xifaxan). While prophylactic antibiotics are not generally recommended for prevention of traveler's diarrhea, they may be useful under special circumstances for certain high-risk hosts, such as the immunocompromised, or for those embarking on critical short trips for which even a short period of diarrhea might cause undue hardship. Rifaximin, a nonabsorbable antibiotic, has been shown to reduce the risk for traveler's diarrhea by 77%. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole and doxycycline are no longer considered effective antimicrobial agents against enteric bacterial pathogens. Increasing resistance to the fluoroquinolones, especially among Campylobacter species, is limiting their use as prophylactic agents.

A 52-year-old male has had a chronic course of multiple vague and exaggerated symptoms for which no cause has been found despite extensive testing. Which one of the following is the most effective management approach for this patient? (check one) A. Reassure the patient that his symptoms are not real B. Schedule the patient for regular appointments every 2-4 weeks C. Prescribe opioids for the pain D. Order additional diagnostic tests E. Advise the patient to go to the emergency department if the symptoms occur after office hours

B. Schedule the patient for regular appointments every 2-4 weeks. The management of somatizing patients can be difficult. One strategy that has been shown to be effective is to schedule regular office visits so that the patient does not need to develop new symptoms in order to receive medical attention. Regular visits have been shown to significantly reduce the cost and chaos of caring for patients with somatization disorder and to help progressively diminish emergency visits and telephone calls. In addition, it is important to describe the patient's diagnosis with compassion and avoid suggesting that it's "all in your head." Continued diagnostic testing and referrals in the absence of new symptoms or findings is unwarranted. Visits to the emergency department often result in inconsistent care and mixed messages from physicians who are seeing the patient for the first time, and unnecessary and often repetitive tests may be ordered. Opiates have significant side effects such as constipation, sedation, impaired cognition, and risk of addiction.

A 64-year-old white male appears to be depressed 2 weeks after hospital discharge for a myocardial infarction. He experienced short runs of ventricular tachycardia during his hospitalization, and echocardiography revealed an ejection fraction of 40% at the time of discharge, with no symptoms of heart failure. He has a history of depression in the past. His current symptoms include depressed mood, sleep disturbance, feelings of hopelessness, and anhedonia. He denies suicidal ideation.Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. Low-dose amitriptyline at bedtime B. Sertraline (Zoloft) C. Referral for electroconvulsive therapy D. Referral for intense interpersonal psychotherapy

B. Sertraline (Zoloft). Several studies have demonstrated that SSRIs are safe and effective in treating depression in patients with coronary disease, particularly those with a history of previous episodes of depression. Medications have performed significantly better than intensive interpersonal psychotherapy in this setting. Electroconvulsive therapy is not considered first-line therapy in the absence of severe symptoms. While it may be effective for sleep disturbance, amitriptyline has potential cardiac side effects and is unlikely to be effective for the treatment of depression in low doses.

When treating acute adult asthma in the emergency department, using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) with a spacer has been shown to result in which one of the following, compared to use of a nebulizer? (check one) A. Higher hospitalization rates B. Shorter stays in the emergency department C. Higher relapse rates D. Less improvement in peak-flow rates E. Increases in the total dose of albuterol

B. Shorter stays in the emergency department. Compared to nebulizers, MDIs with spacers have been shown to lower pulse rates, provide greater improvement in peak-flow rates, lead to greater improvement in arterial blood gases, and decrease required albuterol doses. They have also been shown to lower costs, shorten emergency department stays, and significantly lower relapse rates at 2 and 3 weeks compared to nebulizers. There is no difference in hospital admission rates.

A 44-year-old female presents with a complaint of increasingly dry eyes over the past 3-4 months, and says she can no longer wear contacts due to the discomfort and itching. She also apologizes for chewing gum during the visit, explaining that it helps keep her mouth moist. On examination you note decreased tear production, decreased saliva production, and new dental caries. She stopped taking a daily over-the-counter allergy medication about 1 month ago. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Sarcoidosis B. Sjögren's syndrome C. Ocular rosacea D. Allergic conjunctivitis E. Medication side effect

B. Sjögren's syndrome. Sjögren's syndrome is one of the three most common systemic autoimmune diseases. It results from lymphocytic infiltration of exocrine glands and leads to acinar gland degeneration, necrosis, atrophy, and decreased function. A positive anti-SS-A or anti-SS-B antigen test or a positive salivary gland biopsy is a criterion for classification of this diagnosis. In addition to ocular and oral complaints, clinical manifestations include arthralgias, thyroiditis, pulmonary disease, and GERD. Most patients with sarcoidosis present with shortness of breath or skin manifestations, and patients with lupus generally have fatigue and joint pain. Ocular rosacea causes eye symptoms very similar to those of Sjögren's syndrome, but oral findings would not be expected. Drugs such as anticholinergics can cause a dry mouth, but this would be unlikely a month after the medication was discontinued (SOR B).

A 4-year-old male is brought to your office for evaluation of fever, coryza, and cough. On examination, the child appears mildly ill but in no respiratory distress. His temperature is 37.4°C (99.3°F) and other vital signs are within the normal range. An HEENT examination is significant only for light yellow rhinorrhea and reddened nasal mucous membranes. Lung auscultation reveals good air flow with a few coarse upper airway sounds. While performing the examination you note multiple red welts and superficial abrasions scattered on the chest and upper back. When you question the parents, they tell you the marks are where "the sickness is leaving his body," and were produced by rubbing the skin with a coin. This traditional healing custom is practiced principally by people from which geographic region? (check one) A. Sub-Saharan Africa B. Southeast Asia C. The Middle East D. Caribbean islands E. Andean South America

B. Southeast Asia. Coin rubbing is a traditional healing custom practiced primarily in east Asian countries such as Cambodia, Korea, China, and Vietnam. The belief is that one's illness must be drawn out of the body, and the red marks produced by rubbing the skin with a coin are evidence of the body's "release" of the illness. These marks may be confused with abuse, trauma from some other source, or an unusual manifestation of the illness itself.

A 59-year-old male with known cirrhosis is beginning to show some lower abdominal distention. Ultrasonography confirms your suspicion that he has developed moderate ascites for the first time. Which one of the following is recommended as the initial treatment of choice for this condition? (check one) A. Chlorthalidone B. Spironolactone (Aldactone) C. Furosemide (Lasix) D. Ramipril (Altace) E. Large-volume paracentesis

B. Spironolactone (Aldactone). In patients with grade 2 ascites (visible clinically by abdominal distention, not just with ultrasonography), the initial treatment of choice is diuretics along with salt restriction. Aldosterone antagonists such as spironolactone are more effective than loop diuretics such as furosemide (SOR A). Chlorthalidone, a thiazide diuretic, is not recommended. Large-volume paracentesis is the recommended treatment of grade 3 ascites (gross ascites with marked abdominal distention), and is followed by salt restriction and diuretics.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 50 ======================================================= A 25-year-old female is concerned about recurrent psychological and physical symptoms that occur during the luteal phase of her menstrual cycle and resolve by the end of menstruation. She wants help managing these symptoms, but does not want to take additional estrogen or progesterone. Which one of the following management strategies is supported by the best clinical evidence? (check one) A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy B. Spironolactone during the luteal phase C. Bright light therapy during the luteal phase D. Evening primrose oil started 2-4 days prior to the luteal phase E. Black cohosh

B. Spironolactone during the luteal phase. Randomized, controlled trials found that luteal-phase spironolactone improved psychological and physical symptoms of premenstrual syndrome over 2-6 months compared with placebo. Based on existing evidence, the effectiveness is unknown for cognitive-behavioral therapy, bright light therapy, evening primrose oil, and black cohosh.

Which one of the following situations is most likely to result in immunity from court-awarded damages for personal injuries occurring as a result of reasonable and ordinary emergency care? (check one) A. Evaluating a football injury as a volunteer team physician at a local high-school game B. Stabilizing an injured victim at the scene of an automobile accident until EMS arrives C. Providing emergency care to your office nurse after he collapses while on the job D. Responding to the collapse of one of your patients in the hospital parking lot E. Treating an asthma attack while staffing the first-aid shelter at an outdoor rock concert

B. Stabilizing an injured victim at the scene of an automobile accident until EMS arrives. Laws providing immunity from civil damages for injuries or death resulting from care deemed reasonable under the circumstance (ordinary negligence) are generally described as Good Samaritan laws. Good Samaritan statutes have been enacted in some form in all 50 states, the District of Columbia, and Puerto Rico to protect physicians from liability (in the absence of gross negligence) if they provide emergency care to individuals with whom they share no preexisting obligation to provide medical care. In most states such protection is limited to emergency care provided outside of the hospital setting, although a few states offer protection for hospital care in certain circumstances. While there is no legal obligation to provide Good Samaritan care in most states, in some states (e.g., Louisiana, Minnesota, and Vermont) not doing so is a violation of "duty to assist" laws. A preexisting obligation to provide care exists in each of the examples given, except for the provision of care at the scene of a traffic accident. Providing stabilizing care at the scene of an accident clearly fits within the protections defined by Good Samaritan laws. The obligation to provide care when volunteering at an event such as a football game or concert is implied even if it is provided without charge. An obligation to provide care for someone identified as your patient exists even outside of the office setting; a similar responsibility to provide emergency care for office employees is generally accepted. Federal law provides for similar Good Samaritan protection from liability to physicians who respond to in-flight emergencies originating in the United States. Protection is also offered by statute in the U.K., Canada, and other countries; Australian law also includes a legal obligation to provide emergency care.

An 81-year-old African-American female complains of increasing fatigue over the past several months. She has also noticed that her skin and hair feel dry and that she often feels cold. She also complains of intermittent swallowing difficulties. Her past medical history is significant for long-standing coronary artery disease, for which she takes metoprolol (Lopressor). Her physical examination is normal except for a resting pulse rate of 56 beats/min, dry skin, brittle hair, and a slow relaxation phase of the deep tendon reflexes. Her serum TSH level is 63.2 μU/mL (N 0.5-5.0). Which one of the following should you do now? (check one) A. Stop the metoprolol B. Start levothyroxine (Synthroid) C. Start liothyronine (Cytomel) D. Start propylthiouracil E. Refer for radioactive iodine ablation

B. Start levothyroxine (Synthroid). Autoimmune hypothyroidism is common in elderly women. Symptoms often include fatigue, bradycardia, dry skin, brittle hair, and a prolonged relaxation phase of the deep tendon reflexes. While replacement therapy with levothyroxine is indicated, care must be taken in the elderly, particularly in those with coronary artery disease, to replace the deficit slowly. Levothyroxine replacement should begin at 25μg daily for 6 weeks, with the dosage increased in 25-μg increments as needed, based on TSH levels. Rapid replacement of thyroid hormone can increase the metabolic rate, and therefore myocardial oxygen demand, too quickly. This can precipitate complications of coronary artery disease such as atrial fibrillation, angina, and myocardial infarction. Stopping a β-blocker in this setting is likely to increase the risk. Radioactive iodine ablation is indicated for some cases of hyperthyroidism.

A 63-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus is seen in the emergency department for an acute, superficial, previously untreated infected great toe. Along with Staphylococcus aureus, which one of the following is the most common pathogen in this situation? (check one) A. Pseudomonas B. Streptococcus C. Clostridium D. Escherichia coli E. Adenovirus

B. Streptococcus. The most common pathogens in previously untreated acute superficial foot infections in diabetic patients are aerobic gram-positive Staphylococcus aureus and β-hemolytic streptococci (groups A, B, and others). Previously treated and deep infections are often polymicrobial.

A 19-year-old female runner has a 1-week history of constant groin pain. There is limited hip motion on flexion and internal rotation of the right hip. Radiographs of the hip and pelvis are normal. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Iliotibial band syndrome B. Stress fracture of the right femoral neck C. Osteitis pubis D. Pelvic inflammatory disease

B. Stress fracture of the right femoral neck. Stress fractures of the femoral neck are most commonly seen in military recruits and runners. They present with persistent groin pain, and limited hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs may be normal early. Iliotibial band syndrome also occurs in runners and presents with stinging pain over the lateral femoral epicondyle. Osteitis pubis occurs in distance runners and presents with pain in the anterior pelvic area and tenderness over the symphysis pubis. Pelvic inflammatory disease is associated with abdominal pain and fever.

A 40-year-old runner complains of gradually worsening pain on the lateral aspect of his foot. He runs on asphalt, and has increased his mileage from 2 miles/day to 5 miles/day over the last 2 weeks. Palpation causes pain over the lateral 5th metatarsal. The pain is also reproduced when he jumps on the affected leg. When you ask about his shoes he tells you he bought them several years ago. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Ligamentous sprain of the arch B. Stress fracture C. Plantar fasciitis D. Osteoarthritis of the metatarsal joint

B. Stress fracture. Running injuries are primarily caused by overuse due to training errors. Runners should be instructed to increase their mileage gradually. A stress fracture causes localized tenderness and swelling in superficial bones, and the pain can be reproduced by having the patient jump on the affected leg. Plantar fasciitis causes burning pain in the heel and there is tenderness of the plantar fascia where it inserts onto the medial tubercle of the calcaneus.

Of the following, which is the most frequent cause of seizures in the elderly? (check one) A. Alcohol withdrawal B. Stroke C. Head trauma D. Hypoglycemia E. Dementia

B. Stroke. The conditions listed are all causes of seizures. Of course, there are many other causes of seizures in the elderly, including primary and metastatic neoplasias (e.g., electrolyte disorders). However, in the geriatric population, cerebrovascular disease is the most common cause of seizures, with about 10% of stroke victims developing epileptic seizures. Seizures are more common following hemorrhagic strokes compared to nonhemorrhagic strokes.

You see a 68-year-old mechanic for a routine evaluation. He has a 2-year history of hypertension. His weight is normal and he adheres to his medication regimen. His current medications are metoprolol (Lopressor), 100 mg twice daily; olmesartan (Benicar), 40 mg/day; and hydrochlorothiazide, 25 mg/day. His serum glucose levels have always been normal, but his lipid levels are elevated. A physical examination is unremarkable except for an enlarged prostate and a blood pressure of 150/94 mm Hg. Laboratory studies show a serum creatinine level of 1.6 mg/dL (N 0.6-1.5) and a serum potassium level of 4.9 mmol/L (N 3.5-5.0). The patient's record shows blood pressures ranging from 145/80 mm Hg to 148/96 mm Hg over the past year. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. Continue his current management with no changes B. Substitute furosemide (Lasix) for hydrochlorothiazide C. Add clonidine (Catapres) D. Add spironolactone (Aldactone) E. Add hydralazine (Apresoline)

B. Substitute furosemide (Lasix) for hydrochlorothiazide. Resistant or refractory hypertension is defined as a blood pressure ≥140/90 mm Hg, or ≥130/80 mm Hg in patients with diabetes mellitus or renal disease (i.e., with a creatinine level >1.5 mg/dL or urinary protein excretion >300 mg over 24 hours), despite adherence to treatment with full doses of at least three antihypertensive medications, including a diuretic. JNC 7 guidelines suggest adding a loop diuretic if serum creatinine is >1.5 mg/dL in patients with resistant hypertension.

A 30-year-old gravida 3 para 2 at 28 weeks' gestation is a restrained passenger in a high-speed motor vehicle accident. After initial stabilization in the field with supplemental oxygen and intravenous fluids, she is brought into the emergency department on a backboard and wearing a cervical collar. Until you are able to rule out a spinal injury, in what position should the patient be kept? (check one) A. Supine B. Supine, with the uterus manually deflected laterally C. Prone D. Trendelenburg's position E. Left lateral decubitus

B. Supine, with the uterus manually deflected laterally. In general, it is best to place a woman who is greater than 20 weeks pregnant in the left lateral decubitus position because the uterus can compress the great vessels, resulting in decreased systolic blood pressure and uterine blood flow. However, in the case of trauma where a spinal cord injury cannot be ruled out, the woman needs to be kept supine on a backboard. The weight of the uterus can be shifted off the great vessels by either manual deflection laterally or by elevating the right hip 4-6 inches by placing towels under the backboard. The Trendelenburg position does not relieve the weight of the uterus on the great vessels. The prone position does not provide adequate spinal cord protection, and would be extremely awkward in a large pregnant woman.

A 60-year-old female with moderate COPD presents with ongoing dyspnea in spite of treatment with both an inhaled long-acting β-agonist and a long-acting anticholinergic agent. Your evaluation reveals an oxygen saturation of 88% and a PaO2 of 55%. Echocardiography reveals a normal ejection fraction but moderate pulmonary hypertension. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this time? (check one) A. No changes in the current medical regimen B. Supplemental oxygen C. Low-dose sildenafil (Revatio) D. Nifedipine (Procardia) E. Low-dose prednisone

B. Supplemental oxygen. This patient with moderate COPD and moderate nonpulmonary arterial hypertension pulmonary hypertension is hypoxic and meets the criteria for use of supplemental oxygen (SOR A). Sildenafil and nifedipine are utilized in pulmonary arterial hypertension, but evidence is lacking for their use in pulmonary hypertension associated with chronic lung disease and/or hypoxemia. Low-dose prednisone may be a future option.

Which one of the following is considered a contraindication to the use of beta-blockers for congestive heart failure? (check one) A. Mild asthma B. Symptomatic heart block C. New York Heart Association (NYHA) Class III heart failure D. NYHA Class I heart failure in a patient with a history of a previous myocardial infarction E. An ejection fraction <30%

B. Symptomatic heart block. According to several randomized, controlled trials, mortality rates are improved in patients with heart failure who receive beta-blockers in addition to diuretics, ACE inhibitors, and occasionally, digoxin. Contraindications to beta-blocker use include hemodynamic instability, heart block, bradycardia, and severe asthma. Beta-blockers may be tried in patients with mild asthma or COPD as long as they are monitored for potential exacerbations. Beta-blocker use has been shown to be effective in patients with NYHA Class II or III heart failure. There is no absolute threshold ejection fraction. Beta-blockers have also been shown to decrease mortality in patients with a previous history of myocardial infarction, regardless of their NYHA classification.

Compared to children with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), adults with ADHD: (check one) A. Tend to be more hyperactive B. Tend to be less impulsive C. Are less likely to have corroboration of symptoms by family members D. Are less likely to complain of inattention difficulties

B. Tend to be less impulsive. Longitudinal studies of young people diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) show that symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity may decrease with age, but inattention tends to persist. Studies of clinically referred adults with ADHD show that about half have clinically important levels of hyperactivity and impulsivity and up to 90% have prominent attentional symptoms. Like some youth with ADHD, adults with ADHD tend to have additional cognitive deficits, specifically executive function deficits, which include problems encoding and manipulating information and difficulties with organization and time management. Research shows that using retrospective self-reports of adults is a valid method of diagnosing ADHD. Studies have shown that the consistent reporting of childhood ADHD symptoms by both adults and their parents is highly correlated. Research has also found strong agreement between the self-reports of adults and their partners regarding ADHD symptoms.

A nurse who completed a hepatitis B vaccine series a year ago is accidentally stuck by a needle that has just been used on a dialysis patient. The patient is known to be HBsAg-positive. Your first response should be to: (check one) A. Provide reassurance only B. Test the nurse for hepatitis B antibody C. Repeat the hepatitis B vaccine series D. Administer hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) only E. Administer HBIG plus a booster of hepatitis B vaccine

B. Test the nurse for hepatitis B antibody. Postexposure prophylaxis after hepatitis B exposure via the percutaneous route depends upon the source of the exposure and the vaccination status of the exposed person. In the case described, a vaccinated person has been exposed to a known positive individual. The exposed person should be tested for hepatitis B antibodies; if antibody levels are inadequate (<10 IU/L by radioimmunoassay, negative by enzyme immunoassay) HBIG should be administered immediately, as well as a hepatitis B vaccine booster dose. An unvaccinated individual in this same setting should receive HBIG immediately (preferably within 24 hours after exposure) followed by the hepatitis B vaccine series (injection in 1 week or less, followed by a second dose in 1 month and a third dose in 6 months).

You are caring for an 88-year-old female nursing-home resident with multiple comorbidities and advanced Alzheimer's disease. The patient has never completed advance directives and no longer has the ability to make decisions. The family inquires about hospice services for this patient. Which one of the following is true regarding this patient and hospice? (check one) A. Nursing-home residents are not eligible for hospice B. The decision to enter hospice care is reversible C. End-stage Alzheimer's disease is not a qualifying diagnosis for hospice D. Failure to complete advance directives by this patient prevents participation in hospice E. The patient must have a life expectancy of less than 4 months to qualify for hospice services

B. The decision to enter hospice care is reversible. The decision to utilize the Medicare hospice benefit is reversible, and patients may elect to return to Medicare Part A. Individuals who reside in nursing homes and assisted-living facilities are eligible for the Medicare hospice benefit. Patients with end-stage Alzheimer's disease are eligible for the Medicare hospice benefit if they meet criteria for hospice. If the patient lacks decision-making capacity, a family member or guardian may elect the Medicare hospice benefit for the patient. The patient must be certified by the hospice medical director and primary physician to have a life expectancy of less than 6 months to qualify for hospice services. This requirement is the same whether or not the patient resides in a nursing home.

A 15 and a half year-old female is brought to your office by her mother. They are concerned because she has not started her periods. She has been healthy, and has grown several inches in the last year. Her height is now 152 cm (60 in) and she weighs 44 kg (98 lb). She started to develop breast buds about a year ago and has scant pubic hair. She denies sexual activity. The mother's menarche occurred at age 15. Which one of the following is true in this case? (check one) A. The patient has delayed puberty and should have her hormone levels evaluated B. The patient will likely start her periods within a year C. Oral contraceptives will be needed to trigger menarche D. A pregnancy test should be performed E. The daughter's age of menarche is unrelated to her mother's age of menarche

B. The patient will likely start her periods within a year. The changes associated with puberty occur in an orderly sequence over a definite time frame. Any deviation from this sequence or time frame should be regarded as abnormal. In girls, pubertal development typically requires 4.5 years. Although generally the first sign of puberty is accelerated growth, breast budding is usually the first recognized pubertal change, followed by the presence of pubic hair, peak growth velocity, and menarche. Girls must have adequate nutrition and reach a critical body weight and body fat percentage before menarche occurs. There is a concordance in the age of menarche in mother-daughter pairs and between sisters. Delayed or interrupted puberty is defined as failure to develop any secondary sex characteristics by age 13, to have menarche by age 16, or to have menarche 5 or more years after the onset of pubertal development.

Which one of the following best defines the sensitivity of a diagnostic test for a particular disease? (check one) A. The test's accuracy in correctly identifying patients without the disease B. The test's accuracy in correctly identifying patients with the disease C. The difference between the false-positive and false-negative rates D. A value calculated from the test's specificity

B. The test's accuracy in correctly identifying patients with the disease. Sensitivity is the ability of a test to identify patients who actually have the disease, or the true-positive rate. Independent of the sensitivity is the tests specificity, which is the ability to correctly identify patients who do not have the disease, or the true-negative rate. The greater the tests specificity, the lower the false-positive rate; the greater the tests sensitivity, the lower the false-negative rate.

Which one of the following is true regarding the use of opiates in terminally ill patients? (check one) A. They are frequently addictive B. They are indicated for relieving dyspnea C. A medication contract is required by law D. Respiratory depression is the first sign of excessive dosage E. Gastrointestinal hypermotility is a common side effect

B. They are indicated for relieving dyspnea. In terminally ill patients, the most common physical symptoms are pain, fatigue, and dyspnea. Opiates are useful for controlling pain and relieving dyspnea as well. Even small doses of a weaker opiate can reduce the sensation of shortness of breath in cancer patients and in those with heart failure or chronic obstructive lung disease. Addiction is rare in terminally ill patients who are being treated with opiates for pain and/or dyspnea. A medication contract between physician and patient is not required by law and generally is not necessary in this situation, unless diversion of the medication from the patient by the caregivers is suspected. Constipation due to decreased gastrointestinal motility is a very common, if not universal, side effect. Respiratory depression is a late, not early, sign of excessive opiate dosage. Another sign of opiate excess, pinpoint pupils, occurs before respiratory depression and is therefore a useful parameter for monitoring these patients.

Which one of the following is true regarding NSAIDs? (check one) A. They are cardioprotective B. They should be avoided in persons with cirrhotic liver disease C. They are not safe in pregnancy D. They are not safe in lactating women

B. They should be avoided in persons with cirrhotic liver disease. NSAIDs are prescribed commonly and many are available over the counter. It is important for clinicians to understand when they are not appropriate for clinical use. They should be avoided, if possible, in persons with hepatic cirrhosis (SOR C). While hepatotoxicity with NSAIDs is rare, they can increase the risk of bleeding in cirrhotic patients, as they further impair platelet function. In addition, NSAIDs decrease blood flow to the kidneys and can increase the risk of renal failure in patients with cirrhosis. NSAIDs differ from aspirin in terms of their cardiovascular effects. They have the potential to increase cardiovascular morbidity, worsen heart failure, increase blood pressure, and increase events such as ischemia and acute myocardial infarction. There are no known teratogenic effects of NSAIDs in humans. This drug class is considered to be safe in pregnancy in low, intermittent doses, although discontinuation of NSAID use within 6-8 weeks of term is recommended. Ibuprofen, indomethacin, and naproxen are considered safe for lactating women, according to the American Academy of Pediatrics.

A 21-year-old sexually active female presents with acute pelvic pain of several days' duration. A pelvic examination reveals right-sided tenderness and a general fullness in that area. In addition to laboratory testing, you decide to order an imaging study. Which one of the following is the best choice at this time? (check one) A. Transabdominal ultrasonography B. Transvaginal ultrasonography C. Contrast CT of the abdomen and pelvis D. Hysteroscopy E. Hysterosalpingography

B. Transvaginal ultrasonography. The best initial imaging study for acute pelvic pain in women is transvaginal ultrasonography (SOR C). This provides the greatest level of detail regarding the uterus and adnexae, superior to transcutaneous ultrasonography. CT of the abdomen/pelvis and hysterosalpingography may be indicated eventually in some patients with pelvic pain, but they are not the initial studies of choice. Hysteroscopy is not routinely used in the evaluation of pelvic pain.

A 62-year-old male is admitted to the hospital with acute renal failure. A renal biopsy confirms the diagnosis of acute interstitial nephritis (AIN). Infection and immune-associated causes are ruled out, and you consider medications as a potential cause. Which one of the following would be most likely to cause AIN? (check one) A. Chronic daily use of metoprolol (Lopressor) B. Twice-daily use of ibuprofen for 2 weeks C. Initiation of lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril) therapy 1 week ago D. A 5-day course of azithromycin (Zithromax) 6 months ago E. Intermittent use of acetaminophen, up to 4 g/day

B. Twice-daily use of ibuprofen for 2 weeks. Acute interstitial nephritis (AIN) is often drug-induced. Discontinuation of medications that are likely to cause AIN is the most important first step in management. If these medications are withdrawn early, most patients can be expected to recover normal renal function. Of the medications listed, ibuprofen is the most likely offending agent, because all NSAIDs are known to be associated with AIN. Development of AIN usually becomes evident approximately 2 weeks after starting a medication and is not dose-related. Other medications strongly associated with AIN include various antibiotics (particularly cephalosporins, penicillins, sulfonamides, aminoglycosides, and rifampin), diuretics, and miscellaneous medications such as allopurinol.

A 42-year-old previously healthy white female presents to your office with her third episode of abdominal pain. This episode began 2 hours ago, and the pain is improving. She describes colicky right upper quadrant and epigastric pain. On examination you note mild right upper quadrant tenderness, with otherwise unremarkable findings. Renal function tests are normal. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. KUB films B. Ultrasonography of the right upper quadrant C. Abdominal CT with intravenous contrast D. Abdominal CT with intravenous and oral contrast E. MRI of the abdomen

B. Ultrasonography of the right upper quadrant. Ultrasonography of the right upper quadrant is recommended as the initial imaging study for right upper quadrant pain (SOR C). KUB films can detect kidney stones but may miss gallstones. CT also may miss gallstones, and is more invasive than ultrasonography. Abdominal CT with intravenous contrast is the preferred test for right lower quadrant pain, and abdominal CT with intravenous and oral contrast is preferred for left lower quadrant pain. MRI is preferred for detecting tumors, and is inappropriate as the initial imaging study for right upper quadrant pain.

Patients often use echinacea for the prevention and treatment of: (check one) A. Memory loss B. Upper respiratory symptoms C. Gastrointestinal illnesses D. Depression E. Fatigue

B. Upper respiratory symptoms. Echinacea is a genus of native North American plants commonly known as purple coneflower. It has been recommended as a prophylactic treatment for upper respiratory infection, and is widely used for this indication, although it appears to be relatively ineffective. The research is difficult to evaluate because of the heterogeneity of the products used in various studies.

Which one of the following is true concerning Norwalk virus? (check one) A. Outbreaks occur mostly in settings with large numbers of children, such as schools and day-care centers B. Viral shedding continues long after the acute illness C. The virus does not survive long on most environmental surfaces D. An episode of Norwalk gastroenteritis leads to long-lasting immunity E. It is a less common cause of diarrhea in adults than Shigella

B. Viral shedding continues long after the acute illness. Outbreaks of Norwalk gastroenteritis occur in a wide variety of settings, involve all ages, and are more likely to involve high-risk groups such as immunocompromised patients or the elderly. Not only does viral shedding of the Norwalk virus often precede the onset of illness, but it can continue long after the illness has clinically ended. The virus persists on environmental surfaces and can tolerate a broad range of temperatures. There are multiple strains of the virus, so a single infection does not confer immunity, and repeated infections occur throughout life. It is the most common cause of diarrhea in adults.

Which one of the following is associated with an increased risk of delirium in hospitalized patients? (check one) A. Not having family members present at the time of admission B. Vision or hearing impairment C. Repeated reorientation for patients with cognitive impairment D. Early mobilization

B. Vision or hearing impairment. Delirium occurs in 11%-42% of hospitalized patients. Risk factors for delirium in hospitalized patients include vision impairment, hearing impairment, dehydration, immobility, cognitive impairment, and sleep deprivation. Repeated reorientation of patients with cognitive impairment, early mobilization, and minimizing unnecessary noise or stimulation are all effective interventions for reducing the risk of delirium in hospitalized patients. Not having family members available at the time of admission has no effect on the incidence of delirium.

A mother brings in her 2-month-old infant for a routine checkup. The baby is exclusively breastfed, and the mother has no concerns or questions. Which one of the following would you recommend at this time in addition to continued breastfeeding? (check one) A. Iron supplementation B. Vitamin D supplementation C. A multivitamin D. 8 oz of water daily E. 4 oz of cereal daily

B. Vitamin D supplementation. Although breast milk is the ideal source of nutrition for healthy term infants, supplementation with 200 IU/day of vitamin D is recommended beginning at 2 months of age and continuing until the child is consuming at least 500 mL/day of formula or milk containing vitamin D (SOR B). The purpose of supplementation is to prevent rickets. Unless the baby is anemic or has other deficiencies, neither iron nor a multivitamin is necessary. Parents often mistakenly think babies need additional water, which can be harmful because it decreases milk intake and can cause electrolyte disturbances. Cereal should not be started until 4 to 6 months of age.

A 65-year-old white female presents with weight loss and fatigue. On examination, she has lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly, and mild splenomegaly. Her hemoglobin level is 9.0 g/dL (N 12.0-16.0), and a chemistry panel reveals a serum protein level of 9.0 g/dL (N 6.0-8.0). You order a chest radiograph, which shows clear lung fields and no evidence of lytic lesions in the thoracic spine. Serum protein electrophoresis reveals a monoclonal gamma-globulin spike, which on immunoelectrophoresis is found to be due to IgM kappa-protein. Urine for Bence-Jones protein is positive. A bone marrow biopsy from the iliac crest demonstrates hypercellularity, with a large number of lymphocytes, but normal-appearing plasma cells. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Multiple myeloma B. Waldenström's macroglobulinemia C. Sarcoidosis D. Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance E. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma

B. Waldenström's macroglobulinemia. The patient has symptoms, signs, and laboratory findings consistent with a diagnosis of Waldenström's macroglobulinemia. This illness is due to an uncontrolled proliferation of lymphocytes and plasma cells, which produce IgM proteins with kappa light chains. The average age at the time of diagnosis is 65 years. Weakness, fatigue, weight loss, bleeding, and recurrent infections are common presenting symptoms. Physical findings include pallor, hepatosplenomegaly, and lymphadenopathy. Typical laboratory findings include moderate anemia and monoclonal IgM peaks on serum electrophoresis. Bence-Jones protein is seen in 80% of cases, but is typically absent in monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance. Unlike in multiple myeloma, lytic bone lesions are not seen, and marrow biopsy reveals mostly lymphocytes. Sarcoidosis usually presents with hilar lymphadenopathy and a polyclonal gammopathy. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma presents with similar symptoms, lymphadenopathy, and hepatosplenomegaly, but generally lacks a monoclonal gammopathy and Bence-Jones proteinemia, and has distinctive malignant lymphocytes on bone marrow biopsy.

A 31-year-old healthy female is admitted to the hospital from the emergency department after presenting with aching in her right shoulder and swelling in the ipsilateral forearm and hand. The only precipitating event that she can recall is digging strenuously in the back yard to put in a new garden. Ultrasonography is remarkable for a thrombus in the axillosubclavian vein. She has no prior history of clotting, takes no medications, and has no previous history of medical or surgical procedures involving this extremity. The most likely etiology for this patient's condition is (check one) A. a hypercoagulable state B. a compressive anomaly in the thoracic outlet C. use of injection drugs D. Budd-Chiari syndrome

B. a compressive anomaly in the thoracic outlet. Thrombosis of the upper extremity accounts for about 10% of all venous thromboembolism (VTE) cases. However, axillosubclavian vein thrombosis (ASVT) is becoming more frequent with the increased use of indwelling subclavian vein catheters. Spontaneous ASVT (not catheter related) is seen most commonly in young, healthy individuals. The most common associated etiologic factor is the presence of a compressive anomaly in the thoracic outlet. These anomalies are often bilateral, and the other upper extremity at similar risk for thrombosis. While a hypercoagulable state also may contribute to the thrombosis, it is much less common. Budd-Chiari syndrome refers to thrombosis in the intrahepatic, suprahepatic, or hepatic veins. It is not commonly associated with spontaneous upper-extremity thrombosis.

According to both the Centers for Disease Control and the American College of Sports Medicine, in order to burn fat stores obese patients should exercise: (check one) A. a minimum of 30 minutes 3 days/week B. a minimum of 30 minutes at least 5 days/week D. a minimum of 20 minutes every day E. a minimum of 10 minutes at least 3 times daily

B. a minimum of 30 minutes at least 5 days/week. Because glycogen is the primary energy source for muscles during the first 20 minutes of exercise, at least 30 minutes of exercise is necessary to begin burning fat stores. The CDC and the American College of Sports Medicine recommend a minimum of 30 minutes of exercise 5 days per week. Twenty minutes of exercise daily or three 10-minute sessions daily does improve cardiovascular fitness, but does not cause significant weight loss. Walking, on land or in water, and stationary biking are equivalent in benefit.

A 34-year-old white female visits your office complaining of a sore throat. She takes haloperidol, 2 mg after each meal, for schizophrenia, and you notice that she seems unable to sit still and is extremely anxious. The most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. drug-induced parkinsonism B. akathisia C. tardive dyskinesia D. hysteria E. dystonia

B. akathisia. Motor side effects of the antipsychotic drugs can be separated into five general categories: dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, withdrawal dyskinesias, and tardive dyskinesia. Akathisia is a syndrome marked by motor restlessness. Affected patients commonly complain of being inexplicably anxious, of being unable to sit still or concentrate, and of feeling comfortable only when moving. A diagnosis of hysteria is inconsistent with the findings presented.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 16 ======================================================= Two doses of varicella vaccine are recommended for: (check one) A. adults under 60 years of age who develop shingles B. all children with normal immune status C. only immunocompromised individuals D. only children between 12 months and 13 years of age

B. all children with normal immune status. Two doses of varicella vaccine are recommended for all children unless they are immunocompromised, in which case they should not be immunized against varicella, or with other live-virus vaccines. Shingles is evidence of prior varicella infection and is a reason not to vaccinate with varicella vaccine.

A 64-year-old white male presents to the emergency department with a 48-hour history of left lower quadrant pain. After a thorough history and a physical examination you conclude that the patient has diverticulitis. The patient is allergic to metronidazole (Flagyl). You recommend a clear-liquid diet, a follow-up visit with his primary care physician in 48 hours, and treatment with: (check one) A. amoxicillin B. amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) C. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) D. doxycycline E. azithromycin (Zithromax)

B. amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin). An accepted regimen for outpatient treatment of diverticulitis is amoxicillin/clavulanate, 875 mg every 12 hours. The other regimens are not optimal treatments because they do not include anaerobic coverage.

A 50-year-old male is brought to the emergency department with shortness of breath, chest tightness, tremulousness, and diaphoresis. Aside from tachypnea, the physical examination is normal. Arterial blood gases on room air show a pO2 of 98 mm Hg (N 80-100), a pCO2 of 24 mm Hg (N 35-45), and a pH of 7.57 (N 7.38-7.44). The most likely cause of the patient's blood gas abnormalities is: (check one) A. carbon monoxide poisoning B. anxiety disorder with hyperventilation C. an acute exacerbation of asthma D. pulmonary embolus E. pneumothorax

B. anxiety disorder with hyperventilation. The elevated pH, normal oxygen saturation, and low pCO2 are characteristic of acute respiratory alkalosis, as seen with acute hyperventilation states. In patients with a pulmonary embolism, pO2 and pCO2 are decreased, while the pH is elevated, indicating the acute nature of the disorder. With the other diagnoses, findings on the physical examination would be different than those seen in this patient. Vital signs would be normal with carbon monoxide poisoning, and patients with an asthma exacerbation have a prominent cough and wheezing, and possibly other abnormalities. Tension pneumothorax causes severe cardiac and respiratory distress, with significant physical findings including tachycardia, hypotension, and decreased mental activity.

When considering a diagnosis of pancreatitis, amylase levels (check one) A. can help determine the severity of the disease B. are less likely to be elevated in alcoholics C. are more sensitive and specific than serum lipase levels D. are less likely to be affected by nonpancreatic conditions such as renal insufficiency

B. are less likely to be elevated in alcoholics. Amylase and lipase levels are used to help make the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. The serum lipase level is more specific and more sensitive than the amylase level. Amylase elevations can be seen with other abdominal illnesses, such as inflammation of the small bowel. Alcoholics with recurrent pancreatitis may have normal serum amylase levels; in such cases, serum lipase would be a better test. There are several scoring systems for the severity of pancreatitis, including the CT severity index, the APACHE II score, the Imrie Scoring System, and Ransons Criteria, but none of these use serum amylase in their calculation. The elevation of serum amylase does not correspond well with the severity of the pancreatitis.

In patients with breast cancer, the most reliable predictor of survival is (check one) A. estrogen receptor status B. cancer stage at the time of diagnosis C. tumor grade D. histologic type E. lymphatic or blood vessel involvement

B. cancer stage at the time of diagnosis. The most reliable predictor of survival in breast cancer is the stage at the time of diagnosis. Tumor size and lymph node involvement are the main factors to take into account. Other prognostic parameters (tumor grade, histologic type, and lymphatic or blood vessel involvement) have been proposed as important variables, but most microscopic findings other than lymph node involvement correlate poorly with prognosis. Estrogen receptor (ER) status may also predict survival, with ER-positive tumors appearing to be less aggressive than ER-negative tumors.

A 22-year-old male presents to your office with a 2-hour history of a painful right scrotal mass. The physical examination raises concerns that the patient may have testicular torsion. The imaging study of choice would be (check one) A. a plain film B. color duplex Doppler ultrasonography C. CT D. MRI E. a nuclear scan

B. color duplex Doppler ultrasonography. The history and physical examination are critical for making a diagnosis in patients with scrotal pain. Transillumination may also be performed as part of the clinical assessment. If the diagnosis is uncertain, ultrasonography with color Doppler imaging has become the accepted standard for evaluation of the acutely swollen scrotum (SOR B). Ultrasonography alone can confirm the diagnosis in a number of conditions, such as hydrocele, spermatocele, and varicocele. For other conditions such as orchitis, carcinoma, or torsion, color Doppler ultrasonography is essential because it will show increased flow in orchitis, normal or increased flow in carcinoma, and decreased blood flow in testicular torsion. For testicular torsion, color Doppler ultrasonography has a sensitivity of 86%-88% and a specificity of 90%-100%. When testicular torsion is strongly suspected, emergent surgical consultation should be obtained before ultrasonography is performed, because surgical exploration as soon as possible is critical to salvaging the testis and should not be delayed for imaging unless the diagnosis is in doubt. While radionuclide imaging would be accurate for diagnosing testicular torsion, it is not used for this purpose because of time limits and lack of easy availability. CT or MRI may be appropriate if ultrasonography indicates a possibility of carcinoma. Plain films are not useful in assessing scrotal swelling or masses.

The Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) code to document a patient encounter can be determined by the amount of face-to-face time spent with the patient when (check one) A. the office visit exceeds 1 hour B. counseling or coordinating care accounts for more than 50% of the face-to-face time spent with the patient C. the intensity of the visit supports a higher code than is supported by the level of history, examination, and medical decision making D. a comprehensive history and examination or complex medical decision making is conducted E. considerable time is spent outside the office visit coordinating prior authorizations or referrals on behalf of the patient

B. counseling or coordinating care accounts for more than 50% of the face-to-face time spent with the patient. The times published for Current Procedural Terminology codes are typical for each level of office visit, but there is no requirement associated with them unless counseling or coordination of care accounts for more than 50% of the face-to-face time of the encounter. In such cases physicians are able to code on the basis of time.

======================================================= Patient-Based Systems Board Review Questions ======================================================= The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists and the American Academy of Pediatrics support the advance provision of drugs and instructions for emergency contraception to sexually active women, so that they have ready access to them if they are needed. The evidence shows that advance provision of emergency contraception (check one) A. decreases pregnancy rates on a population level B. decreases the time from unprotected sex to use of emergency contraception C. decreases contraception use by the patient prior to sexual activity D. increases rates of sexually transmitted infection E. increases rates of unprotected intercourse

B. decreases the time from unprotected sex to use of emergency contraception. A Cochrane review including randomized, controlled trials (RCTs) compared standard access to emergency contraception (EC) with advance provision. The review found eight trials, five of which were conducted in the U.S. Two of the RCTs were sufficiently powered to show a difference in pregnancy rates. No study showed that giving advance EC reduced pregnancy rates on a population level. However, women who were provided with advance EC took the pills an average of approximately 15 hours sooner than women without advance access. Five studies that reported on contraception use did not show a difference in type or frequency of regular contraception use among women who were provided advance EC. Women randomized to the advance EC groups were 2.5 times more likely to use EC once, and 4 times more likely to use it 2 or more times, compared to those without advance access. Three studies reported rates of sexually transmitted infection and none found differences between the advance and standard access EC groups. Six studies reported rates of unprotected sexual intercourse and found no difference. The Cochrane review concludes that advance access to EC appears to be safe, but does not reduce pregnancy on a population level. However, advance provision might be beneficial because it increases the speed and frequency of EC use.

A 72-year-old white female is admitted to the hospital with her first episode of acute heart failure. She has a history of hypertension treated with a thiazide diuretic. An echocardiogram reveals no evidence of valvular disease and no segmental wall motion abnormalities. Left ventricular hypertrophy is described, and the ejection fraction is 55%. Her pulse rate is 72beats/min. The most likely cause of her heart failure is: (check one) A. systolic dysfunction B. diastolic dysfunction C. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. high-output failure

B. diastolic dysfunction. Diastolic dysfunction is now recognized as an important cause of heart failure. It is due to left ventricular hypertrophy as a response to chronic systolic hypertension. The ventricle becomes stiff and unable to relax or fill adequately, thus limiting its forward output. The typical patient is an elderly person who has systolic hypertension, left ventricular hypertrophy, and a normal ejection fraction (50%-55%).

An anxious and agitated 18-year-old white male presents to your office with a 2-hour history of severe muscle spasms in the neck and back. He was seen 2 days ago in a local emergency department with symptoms of gastroenteritis, treated with intravenous fluids, and sent home with a prescription for prochlorperazine (Compazine) suppositories. The best therapy for this problem is intravenous administration of: (check one) A. atropine B. diphenhydramine (Benadryl) C. haloperidol D. succinylcholine (Anectine) E. carbamazepine (Tegretol)

B. diphenhydramine (Benadryl). While rarely life threatening, an acute dystonic reaction can be frightening and painful to the patient and confusing to the treating physician who may be unaware of what medications the patient is taking. Dystonia can be caused by any agent that blocks dopamine, including prochlorperazine, metoclopramide, and typical neuroleptic agents such as haloperidol. The acute treatment of choice is diphenhydramine or benztropine.

A 40-year-old white female lawyer sees you for the first time. When providing a history, she describes several problems, including anxiety, sleep disorders, fatigue, persistent depressed mood, and decreased libido. These symptoms have been present for several years and are worse prior to menses, although they also occur to some degree during menses and throughout the month. Her menstrual periods are regular for the most part. The most likely diagnosis at this time is: (check one) A. premenstrual syndrome B. dysthymia C. dementia D. menopause E. anorexia nervosa

B. dysthymia. Psychological disorders, including anxiety, depression, and dysthymia, are frequently confused with premenstrual syndrome (PMS), and must be ruled out before initiating therapy. Symptoms are cyclic in true PMS. The most accurate way to make the diagnosis is to have the patient keep a menstrual calendar for at least two cycles, carefully recording daily symptoms. Dysthymia consists of a pattern of ongoing, mild depressive symptoms that have been present for 2 years or more and are less severe than those of major depression. This diagnosis is consistent with the findings in the patient described here.

A 54-year-old female presents with a 2-month history of intense vulvar itching that has not improved with topical antifungal treatment. On examination you note areas of white, thickened, excoriated skin. Concerned about malignancy you perform punch biopsies, which reveal lichen sclerosus. The treatment of choice for this condition is topical application of: (check one) A. conjugated estrogens B. fluorinated corticosteroids C. petrolatum D. 2% testosterone E. fluorouracil (Efudex)

B. fluorinated corticosteroids. Lichen sclerosus is a chronic, progressive, inflammatory skin condition found in the anogenital region. It is characterized by intense vulvar itching. The treatment of choice is high-potency topical corticosteroids. Testosterone has been found to be no more effective than petrolatum. Fluorouracil is an antineoplastic agent most frequently used to treat actinic skin changes or superficial basal cell carcinomas.

A 46-year-old white female complains of a 3-month history of hoarseness and nocturnal wheezing. On further questioning, she tells you that she has to clear her throat repeatedly and feels like she has something stuck in her throat. These symptoms are most likely related to: (check one) A. thyroid disease B. gastroesophageal reflux disease C. sinusitis D. tracheal stenosis

B. gastroesophageal reflux disease. Acid laryngitis is a group of respiratory symptoms related to gastroesophageal reflux disease. The symptoms of hoarseness (especially in the morning), a repeated need to clear the throat, and nocturnal or early morning wheezing may occur singly or in varying combinations, and are believed to be caused by gastric contents irritating the larynx and hypopharynx. Thyroid disease, sinusitis, and tracheal stenosis can produce one or more of the symptoms described, but not all of them.

A 4-year-old white male is brought to your office in late August. His mother tells you that over the past few days he has developed a rash on his hands and sores in his mouth. On examination you note a vesicular exanthem on his hands, with lesions ranging from 3 to 6 mm in diameter. The oral lesions are shallow, whitish, 4- to 8-mm ulcerations distributed randomly over the hard palate, buccal mucosa, gingiva, tongue, lips, and pharynx. Except for a temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), the remainder of the examination is normal. The most likely diagnosis is (check one) A. herpangina B. hand, foot, and mouth disease C. aphthous stomatitis D. herpetic gingivostomatitis E. streptococcal pharyngitis

B. hand, foot, and mouth disease. Hand, foot, and mouth disease is a mild infection occurring in young children, and is caused by coxsackievirus A16, or occasionally by other strains of coxsackie- or enterovirus. In addition to the oral lesions, vesicular lesions may occur on the feet and nonvesicular lesions may occur on the buttocks. A low-grade fever may also develop. Herpangina is also caused by coxsackieviruses, but it is a more severe illness characterized by severe sore throat and vesiculo-ulcerative lesions limited to the tonsillar pillars, soft palate, and uvula, and occasionally the posterior oropharynx. Temperatures can range to as high as 41°C (106°F). The etiology of aphthous stomatitis is multifactorial, and it may be due to a number of conditions. Systemic signs, such as fever, are generally absent. Lesions are randomly distributed. Herpetic gingivostomatitis also causes randomly distributed oral ulcers, but it is a more severe illness, regularly accompanied by a higher fever, and is extremely painful. Streptococcal pharyngitis is rarely accompanied by ulceration except in agranulocytic patients.

In order to be eligible for Medicare hospice benefits, a patient must be entitled to Medicare Part A and: (check one) A. be essentially bedridden B. have a life expectancy of 6 months or less C. have a hematologic or a solid tumor malignancy D. have a caregiver in the home who is present at least 50% of the time E. have documentation of a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order

B. have a life expectancy of 6 months or less. The Medicare Hospice Benefit reimburses hospice providers for the care of terminally ill patients. In order to be eligible for this benefit, patients must be entitled to Medicare Part A and be certified by both the personal physician and the hospice medical director as having a life expectancy of 6 months or less. Services covered include physician services; nursing services; social services; counseling services; physical, occupational, and speech therapy; diagnostic testing; home health aides; homemaker services; and medical supplies. These services may be provided in the patient's home or in the hospital setting. Malignancy, ambulatory status, caregiver availability, and do-not-resuscitate orders are not specifically related to eligibility requirements for this benefit.

A 52-year-old white male is being considered for pharmacologic treatment of hyperlipidemia because of an LDL-cholesterol level of 180 mg/dL. Before beginning medication for his hyperlipidemia, he should be screened for: (check one) A. hyperthyroidism B. hypothyroidism C. Addison's disease D. Cushing's disease E. pernicious anemia

B. hypothyroidism. According to the National Cholesterol Education Program Adult Treatment Panel III Report of 2001, any person with elevated LDL cholesterol or any other form of hyperlipidemia should undergo clinical or laboratory assessment to rule out secondary dyslipidemia before initiation of lipid-lowering therapy. Causes of secondary dyslipidemia include diabetes mellitus, hypothyroidism, obstructive liver disease, chronic renal failure, and some medications.

The use of a corticosteroid inhaler in patients with stable chronic obstructive lung disease has been shown to: (check one) A. increase the risk for osteoporotic fracture B. increase the risk for pneumonia C. produce no change in patients' perceptions of quality of life D. reduce overall mortality

B. increase the risk for pneumonia. COPD is the fourth leading cause of death in the United States. Stopping smoking and the use of continuous oxygen, when necessary, are the main interventions that have been shown to lessen overall mortality in this illness. The use of corticosteroid inhalers for COPD has received mixed reviews. Studies show an increase in the incidence of pneumonia, which is directly related to the dosage. There are also concerns about the potential for an increase in fractures; however, a meta-analysis of multiple studies has not shown this to be the case. There has been no improvement in overall mortality with the use of the corticosteroid inhalers; nevertheless, on questionnaires patients indicate an improvement in quality of life and fewer bronchitis exacerbations.

A 70-year-old male sees you because of slowly increasing problems with COPD. He has had frequent exacerbations requiring emergency department visits. He currently uses a tiotropium (Spiriva) inhaler once a day, as well as an albuterol (Proventil) inhaler, 2 puffs 4 times a day as needed. An examination shows decreased breath sounds throughout, and an oxygen saturation of 92%. Spirometry shows he has severe COPD (stage III); his FEV1/FVC ratio is 65% of predicted and his FEV1 is 45% of predicted. The most reasonable change in treatment would be to add (check one) A. oxygen, 2 L/min while sleeping B. inhaled fluticasone (Flovent), 2 puffs twice daily C. oral low-dose prednisone daily D. oral theophylline (TheoDur, Uniphyl) twice daily

B. inhaled fluticasone (Flovent), 2 puffs twice daily. This patient is suffering from severe COPD (stage III) and has a history of frequent exacerbations. The addition of a corticosteroid inhaler for patients with severe disease has been found to significantly decrease the number of exacerbations, but has no effect on overall mortality. Side effects of oral candidiasis and easy bruising of the skin are increased. Continuous oxygen has been shown to improve overall mortality and endurance in patients with an oxygen saturation of 88% or less, but has not been shown to improve quality of life in those with mild hypoxemia or if used only at night. Oral prednisone has been shown to be effective when used to treat acute exacerbations, but when used on a chronic basis it is no more effective than corticosteroid inhalers. Chronic oral prednisone is also associated with significant side effects, and therefore is not generally recommended. Oral theophylline has not been shown to be of benefit in either preventing exacerbations or improving quality of life, and has significant side effects of gastrointestinal toxicity, seizures, and arrhythmias. It should be reserved for carefully selected patients only.

When a screening test identifies a cancer earlier, thereby increasing the time between diagnosis and death without prolonging life, this is called: (check one) A. length-time bias B. lead-time bias C. a false-positive screening test D. increasing the positive predictive value of the screening test E. attributable risk

B. lead-time bias. Lead-time bias is when a screening test identifies a cancer earlier, thereby increasing the time between diagnosis and death without actually prolonging life. Length-time bias is when a screening test finds a disproportionate number of cases of slowly progressive disease and misses the aggressive cases, thereby leading to an overestimate of the effectiveness of the screening. A false-positive test is one that suggests cancer when no cancer exists. The positive predictive value is the proportion of positive test results that are true positives. Attributable risk is the amount of difference in risk for a disease that can be accounted for by a specific risk factor.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 09 ======================================================= A 21-year-old African-American female has been confused and delirious for 2 days. She has no significant past medical history, and she is taking no medications. She recently returned from a missionary trip to Southeast Asia. During your initial examination in the emergency department, she has several convulsions and rapidly becomes comatose. Her temperature is 37.9°C (100.3°F) and her blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg. A neurologic examination shows no signs of meningeal irritation and a cranial nerve evaluation is normal. There is a mild, bilateral, symmetric increase in deep tendon reflexes. All other physical examination findings are normal. Laboratory Findings Hemoglobin........................... 7.0 g/dL (N 12.0-16.0) Hematocrit............................ 20% (N 36-46) WBCs.. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6500/mm3 (N 4300-10,800) Platelets. ............................. 450,000/mm3 (N 150,000-350,000) Serum bilirubin Total............................... 5.0 mg/dL (N 0.3-1.1) Direct.............................. 1.0 mg/dL (N 0.1-0.4) The urine is dark red and positive for hemoglobin. CT of the brain shows neither bleeding nor infarction. The most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. vitamin B12 deficiency B. malaria C. ehrlichiosis D. sickle cell anemia

B. malaria. Clinical clues to the diagnosis of malaria in this case include an appropriately targeted recent travel history, a prodrome of delirium or erratic behavior, unarousable coma following a generalized convulsion, fever, and a lack of focal neurologic signs in the presence of a diffuse, symmetric encephalopathy. The peripheral blood smear shows normochromic, normocytic anemia with Plasmodium falciparum trophozoites and schizonts involving erythrocytes, diagnostic of cerebral malaria. Treatment of this true medical emergency is intravenous quinidine gluconate. Vitamin B 12 deficiency is a predominantly peripheral neuropathy seen in older adults. Ehrlichiosis causes thrombocytopenia but not hemolytic anemia. Sickle cell disease presents with painful vaso-occlusive crises in multiple organs. Coma is rare.

A 54-year-old white female has been taking amoxicillin for 1 week for sinusitis. She has developed diarrhea and has had 6-8 stools per day for the past 2 days. Examination shows the patient to be well hydrated with normal vital signs and a normal physical examination. The stool is positive for occult blood, and a stool screen for Clostridium difficile toxin is positive. The most appropriate treatment at this time would be (check one) A. vancomycin (Vancocin) intravenously B. metronidazole (Flagyl) orally C. trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra) orally D. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) orally

B. metronidazole (Flagyl) orally. Many antibiotics can induce pseudomembranous colitis. Although oral vancomycin was once the initial drug of choice for C. difficile, oral metronidazole is now the first-line agent because of cost considerations and because of concerns about the development of vancomycin-resistant organisms. If the patient has refractory symptoms despite treatment with oral metronidazole, then oral vancomycin would be appropriate. Vancomycin given orally is not absorbed, leading to high intraluminal levels of the drug.

You see a 9-year-old female for evaluation of her asthma. She and her mother report that she has shortness of breath and wheezing 3-4 times per week, which improves with use of her albuterol inhaler. She does not awaken at night due to symptoms, and as long as she has her albuterol inhaler with her she does not feel her activities are limited by her symptoms. About once per year she requires prednisone for an exacerbation, often triggered by a viral infection. Based on this information you classify her asthma severity as: (check one) A. intermittent B. mild persistent C. moderate persistent D. severe persistent

B. mild persistent. The 2007 update to the guidelines for the diagnosis and management of asthma published by the National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute outlines clear definitions of asthma severity. Severity is determined by the most severe category in which any feature occurs. This patient has mild persistent asthma, based on her symptoms occurring more than 2 days per week, but not daily, and use of her albuterol inhaler more than 2 days per week, but not daily. Clinicians can use this assessment to help guide therapy.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 11 ======================================================= A 75-year-old male consults you after his family expresses concern about his loss of interest in his usual activities. They believe he has become increasingly withdrawn since the death of his wife 8 months earlier. You note he has lost 8 kg (18 lb) since his last office visit 6 months earlier. He does not drink alcohol. His physical examination is unremarkable for his age except for a blood pressure of 105/70 mm Hg. Detailed laboratory studies, including thyroid function tests, are all within normal limits. He tells you he would be fine if he could just get some sleep. His Mini-Mental State Examination is normal, but he is obviously clinically depressed. The most appropriate medication for his depression would be: (check one) A. trazodone (Oleptro) B. mirtazapine (Remeron) C. bupropion (Wellbutrin) D. amitriptyline E. nortriptyline (Pamelor)

B. mirtazapine (Remeron). Trazodone may be useful for insomnia, but is not recommended as a primary antidepressant because it causes sedation and orthostatic hypotension at therapeutic doses. Bupropion would aggravate this patient's insomnia. Tricyclic antidepressants may be effective, but are no longer considered first-line treatments because of side effects and because they can be cardiotoxic. Mirtazapine has serotonergic and noradrenergic properties and is associated with increased appetite and weight gain. It may be particularly useful for patients with insomnia and weight loss.

The physician counseling a 4-year-old child about the death of a loved one should keep in mind that children in this age group: (check one) A. often feel no sense of loss B. often believe they are somehow responsible for the death C. should not attend a funeral D. should usually be told the loved one is having a long sleep E. usually accept the finality of death with little question

B. often believe they are somehow responsible for the death. Children from the ages of 2 to 6 often believe they are somehow responsible for the death of a loved one. The emotional pain may be so intense that the child may react by denying the death, or may somehow feel that the death is reversible. If children wish to attend a funeral, or if their parents want them to, they should be accompanied by an adult who can provide comfort and support. Telling a child the loved one is asleep or that he or she "went away" usually creates false hopes for return, or it may foster a sleep phobia.

A 30-year-old African-American female is being evaluated because of absent menses for the last 6 months. Menarche was at age 12. Her menstrual periods have frequently been irregular, and are accompanied only occasionally by dysmenorrhea. She had her first child 4 years ago, but has not been able to become pregnant since. A physical examination and pelvic examination are unremarkable. A serum pregnancy test is negative, prolactin levels are normal, and LH and FSH levels are both three times normal on two occasions. These findings are consistent with: (check one) A. hypothalamic amenorrhea B. ovarian failure C. pituitary microadenoma D. polycystic ovary syndrome

B. ovarian failure. The history and physical findings in this patient are consistent with all of the conditions listed. However, the elevated FSH and LH indicate an ovarian problem, and this case is consistent with ovarian failure or premature menopause. Most pituitary tumors associated with amenorrhea produce hyperprolactinemia. Polycystic ovary syndrome usually results in normal to slightly elevated LH levels and tonically low FSH levels. Hypothalamic amenorrhea is a diagnosis of exclusion, and can be induced by weight loss, excessive physical exercise (running, ballet), or systemic illness. It is associated with tonically low levels of LH and FSH.

A 25-year-old Hispanic male comes to the emergency department with the sudden onset of moderate to severe right-sided chest pain and mild dyspnea. Vital signs are normal. A chest film shows a loss of markings along the right lung margins, involving about 10%-15% of the lung space. The mediastinum has not shifted. The best INITIAL treatment would be (check one) A. strict bed rest B. oxygen supplementation and close observation C. decompression of the chest by insertion of a large-bore intravenous catheter into the right second intercostal space at the midclavicular line D. immediate chest tube insertion using a water seal E. thoracotomy for wedge resection of pulmonary blebs

B. oxygen supplementation and close observation. A small spontaneous pneumothorax involving less than 15%-20% of lung volume can be managed by administering oxygen and observing the patient. The pneumothorax will usually resorb in about 10 days if no ongoing air leak is present. Oxygen lowers the pressure gradient for nitrogen and favors transfer of gas from the pleural space to the capillaries. Decompression with anterior placement of an intravenous catheter is usually reserved for tension pneumothorax. Chest tube placement is used if observation is not successful or for larger pneumothoraces. Strict bed rest is not indicated.

The best drug treatment for symptomatic mitral valve prolapse is: (check one) A. quinidine B. propranolol (Inderal) C. digoxin D. procainamide E. phenytoin (Dilantin)

B. propranolol (Inderal). The primary treatment for symptomatic mitral valve prolapse is β-blockers. Quinidine and digoxin were used to treat this problem in the past, especially if sinus bradycardia or cardiac arrest occurred with administration of propranolol. Procainamide and phenytoin have not been used to treat this syndrome. Asymptomatic patients require only routine monitoring, while those with significant mitral regurgitation may require surgery. Some patients with palpitations can be managed with lifestyle changes such as elimination of caffeine and alcohol. Orthostatic hypotension can often be managed with volume expansion, such as by increasing salt intake.

A 70-year-old African-American male undergoes routine sigmoidoscopy. He has a long history of constipation, hypertension, and diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. The examination reveals brown to black leopard spotting of the colonic mucosa. You would now: (check one) A. perform a metastatic workup B. review his medications C. prescribe oral corticosteroids D. prescribe antibiotics and a proton pump inhibitor E. check his stool for Clostridium difficile

B. review his medications. This patient has melanosis coli, which is a benign condition resulting from abuse of anthraquinone laxatives such as cascara, senna, or aloe. The condition resolves with discontinuation of the medication.

A patient presenting with severe carbon monoxide poisoning should be treated with: (check one) A. inhaled helium B. supplemental oxygen C. intravenous calcium gluconate D. intravenous iron E. intravenous magnesium

B. supplemental oxygen. Patients with carbon monoxide poisoning should be treated immediately with normobaric oxygen, which speeds up the excretion of carbon monoxide.

The preferred site for an emergency airway is: (check one) A. the thyrohyoid membrane B. the cricothyroid membrane C. immediately below the cricoid cartilage D. through the first and second tracheal rings E. at the level of the thyroid isthmus

B. the cricothyroid membrane. Fortunately, emergency tracheotomy is not often necessary, but should one be necessary the best site for the incision is directly above the cricoid cartilage, through the cricothyroid membrane. Strictly speaking, this is not a tracheotomy, because it is actually above the trachea. However, it is below the vocal cords and bypasses any laryngeal obstruction. The thyrohyoid membrane lies well above the vocal cords, making this an impractical site. The area directly below the cricoid cartilage—which includes the second, third, and fourth tracheal rings, as well as the thyroid isthmus—is the preferred tracheotomy site under controlled circumstances, but excessive bleeding and difficulty finding the trachea may significantly impede the procedure in an emergency.

An elevation of serum alkaline phosphatase combined with an elevation of 5'-nucleotidase is most suggestive of conditions affecting (check one) A. bone B. the liver C. the placenta D. the small intestine

B. the liver. Alkaline phosphatase is elevated in conditions affecting the bones, liver, small intestine, and placenta. The addition of elevated 5'-nucleotidase suggests the liver as the focus of the problem. Measuring 5'-nucleotidase to determine whether the alkaline phosphatase elevation is due to a hepatic problem is well substantiated, practical, and cost effective (SOR C).

A 59-year-old male reports decreases in sexual desire and spontaneous erections, as well as reduced beard growth. The most appropriate test to screen for late-onset male hypogonadism is: (check one) A. free testosterone B. total testosterone C. sex hormone-binding globulin D. LH E. FSH

B. total testosterone. A serum total testosterone level is recommended as the initial screening test for late-onset male hypogonadism. Due to its high cost, a free testosterone level is recommended only if the total testosterone level is borderline and abnormalities in sex hormone-binding globulin are suspected. Follow-up LH and FSH levels help to distinguish primary from secondary hypogonadism.

A 25-year-old female sees you in the office for follow-up after a visit to the emergency department for respiratory distress. She complains of several episodes of an acute onset of shortness of breath, wheezing, coughing, and a choking sensation, without any obvious precipitant. She has been on inhaled corticosteroids for 2 months without any improvement in her symptoms. Albuterol (Proventil, Ventolin) does not consistently relieve her symptoms. She is asymptomatic today. Spirometry shows a normal FEV1 , a normal FVC and FEV1 /FVC ratio, and a flattened inspiratory loop. The most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. globus hystericus B. vocal cord dysfunction C. asthma D. anaphylaxis E. COPD

B. vocal cord dysfunction. Vocal cord dysfunction is an idiopathic disorder commonly seen in patients in their twenties and thirties in which the vocal cords partially collapse or close on inspiration. It mimics, and is commonly mistaken for, asthma. Symptoms include episodic tightness of the throat, a choking sensation, shortness of breath, and coughing. A careful history and examination reveal that the symptoms are worse with inspiration than with exhalation, and inspiratory stridor during the episode may be mistaken for the wheezing of asthma. The sensation of throat tightening or choking also helps to differentiate it from asthma. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) are normal, with the exception of flattening of the inspiratory loop, which is diagnostic of extra-thoracic airway compression. Fiberoptic laryngoscopy shows paradoxical inspiratory and/or expiratory partial closure of the vocal cords. Vocal cord dysfunction is treated with speech therapy, breathing techniques, reassurance, and breathing a helium-oxygen mixture (heliox). PFTs in patients with asthma are normal between exacerbations, but when symptoms are present the FEV1 /FVC ratio is reduced, as with COPD. With anaphylaxis, there will typically be itching or urticaria and signs of angioedema, such as lip or tongue swelling, in response to a trigger such as food or medication; PFTs are normal when anaphylaxis symptoms are absent. Globus hystericus is a type of conversion disorder in which emotional stress causes a subjective sensation of pain or tightness in the throat, and/or dysphagia; diagnostic tests such as spirometry and laryngoscopy are normal.

According to the guidelines of the Joint National Committee on Prevention, Detection, Evaluation, and Treatment of High Blood Pressure, for hypertensive patients who also have diabetes mellitus, the blood pressure goal is below a threshold of: (check one) A. 140/95 mm Hg B. 135/90 mm Hg C. 130/80 mm Hg D. 120/75 mm Hg

C. 130/80 mm Hg. Hypertension and diabetes mellitus are very common, both separately and in combination. End-organ damage to the heart, brain, and kidneys is more common in patients with both diabetes mellitus and hypertension, occurring at lower blood pressure levels than in patients with only hypertension. JNC 7, an evidence-based consensus report, recommends that patients with diabetes and hypertension be treated to reduce blood pressure to below 130/80 mm Hg, as opposed to 140/90 mm Hg for other adults. It should be noted, however, that the recently published ACCORD blood pressure trial found no significant cardiovascular benefit from targeting systolic blood pressure at <120 mm Hg rather than <140 mm Hg in patients with type 2 diabetes. This finding may affect the JNC 8 guidelines, which are currently being developed.

A 55-year-old male who has a long history of marginally-controlled hypertension presents with gradually increasing shortness of breath and reduced exercise tolerance. His physical examination is normal except for a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg, bilateral basilar rales, and trace pitting edema. Which one of the following ancillary studies would be the preferred diagnostic tool for evaluating this patient? (check one) A. 12-lead electrocardiography B. Posteroanterior and lateral chest radiographs C. 2-dimensional echocardiography with Doppler D. Radionuclide ventriculography E. Cardiac MRI

C. 2-dimensional echocardiography with Doppler. The most useful diagnostic tool for evaluating patients with heart failure is two-dimensional echocardiography with Doppler to assess left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF), left ventricular size, ventricular compliance, wall thickness, and valve function. The test should be performed during the initial evaluation. Radionuclide ventriculography can be used to assess LVEF and volumes, and MRI or CT also may provide information in selected patients. Chest radiography (posteroanterior and lateral) and 12-lead electrocardiography should be performed in all patients presenting with heart failure, but should not be used as the primary basis for determining which abnormalities are responsible for the heart failure.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 54 ======================================================= You test a patient's muscles and find that his maximum performance consists of the ability to move with gravity neutralized. This qualifies as which grade of muscle strength, on a scale of 5? (check one) A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4

C. 2. Muscle strength is scored on a scale of 0 to 5. The inability to contract a muscle is scored as 0. Contraction without movement constitutes grade 1 strength. Movement with the effect of gravity neutralized is grade 2 strength, while movement against gravity only is grade 3 strength. Movement against gravity plus some additional resistance indicates grade 4 strength. Normal, or grade 5, strength is demonstrated by movement against substantial resistance.

For normal term infants, current practice is to introduce solid foods into the diet at what age? (check one) A. 2-4 weeks B. 2-3 months C. 4-6 months D. 7-9 months E. 1 year

C. 4-6 months. In normal term infants, there is little evidence that solid foods contribute to well-being before the age of 4-6 months. In addition, the extrusion reflex (pushing foreign material out of the mouth with the tongue) makes feeding of solids difficult and often forced. This reflex disappears around the age of 4 months, making feeding easier. The introduction of solids at this age helps supply calories, iron, and vitamins, and may prepare the infant for later dietary diversity and healthy dietary habits.

A 52-year-old white male has chronic musculoskeletal pain. He has been using frequent doses of Extra-Strength Tylenol with good results. He is concerned that he may be taking too much and asks what his maximum daily dosage of acetaminophen should be. He weighs 70 kg (154 lb). (check one) A. 2000 mg B. 3000 mg C. 4000 mg D. 5000 mg E. 6000 mg

C. 4000 mg. The maximum daily dosage for all acetaminophen preparations is 4000 mg. Acetaminophen is used in more combination products than any other drug, for a number of different indications. An FDA panel has recommended that stronger warnings about hepatotoxicity be added to the label information for acetaminophen. Because it is used so frequently and is present in so many different preparations, care must be taken not to exceed the maximum 24-hour dosage in order to avoid hepatotoxicity.

======================================================= Reproductive (Female) Board Review Questions 05 ======================================================= The definition of post-term pregnancy is a pregnancy that has reached: (check one) A. 40 weeks' gestation B. 41 weeks' gestation C. 42 weeks' gestation D. 43 weeks' gestation

C. 42 weeks' gestation. Postdate and post-term pregnancy are terms that are used interchangeably. The postdate pregnancy is defined as a pregnancy that has reached 42 weeks of amenorrhea. This is important because perinatal mortality doubles at 42 weeks gestational age. The diagnosis of postdate pregnancy depends heavily on accurate dating methods.

A 70-year-old white male has a slowly enlarging, asymptomatic abdominal aortic aneurysm. You should usually recommend surgical intervention when the diameter of the aneurysm approaches: (check one) A. 3.5 cm B. 4.5 cm C. 5.5 cm D. 6.5 cm E. 7.5 cm

C. 5.5 cm. Based on recent clinical trials, the most common recommendation for surgical repair is when the aneurysm approaches 5.5 cm in diameter. Two large studies, the Aneurysm Detection and Management (ADAM) Veteran Affairs Cooperative Study, and the United Kingdom Small Aneurysm Trial, failed to show any benefit from early surgery for men with aneurysms less than 5.5 cm in diameter. The risks of aneurysm rupture were 1% or less in both studies, with 6-year cumulative survivals of 74% and 64%, respectively. Interestingly, the risk for aneurysm rupture was four times greater in women, indicating that 5.5 cm may be too high, but a new evidence-based threshold has not yet been defined.

In a study to evaluate a test as a screen for the presence of a disease, 235 of the 250 people with the disease had a positive test and 600 of the 680 people without the disease had a negative test. Based on this data, the specificity of the test for the disease is (check one) A. 235/250 = 94% B. 15/250 = 6% C. 600/680 = 88% D. 80/680 = 12% E. 15/80 = 19%

C. 600/680 = 88%. The specificity of a test for a disease is the proportion or percentage of those without the disease who have a negative test. In this case, option A is the sensitivity, i.e., the proportion of those with the disease who have a positive test. Option B is the false-negative rate and option D is the false-positive rate. Option E is the ratio of false-negative tests to false-positive tests, a meaningless ratio. The predictive values of positive and negative tests are extremely important characteristics of a screening test. Determination of these values requires knowledge of the prevalence of the disease in the population screened, as well as the sensitivity, specificity, and false-positive and false-negative rates. Since the prevalence of most diseases is low, the percentage of those with a positive test (the predictive value of a positive test) is relatively low, even when sensitivity and specificity are high. When prevalence is low, however, the predictive value of a negative test is very high and may approach 100%.

A study finds that the positive predictive value of a new test for breast cancer is 75%, which means: (check one) A. if 100 patients with known breast cancer have the test, 75 (75%) will have a positive test result B. if 100 patients with no breast cancer have the test, 75 (75%) will have a negative test C. 75% of patients who test positive actually have breast cancer D. 75% of patients who test negative do not have breast cancer

C. 75% of patients who test positive actually have breast cancer. Positive predictive value refers to the percentage of patients with a positive test for a disease who actually have the disease. The negative predictive value of a test is the proportion of patients with negative test results who do not have the disorder. The percentage of patients with a disorder who have a positive test for that disorder is a test's sensitivity. The percentage of patients without a disorder who have a negative test for that disorder is a test's specificity.

In patients with chronic renal insufficiency and hypertension, the target blood pressure should be: (check one) A. <110/70 mm Hg B. <120/80 mm Hg C. <130/80 mm Hg D. <140/90 mm Hg

C. <130/80 mm Hg. Treatment of hypertension reduces the risk of stroke, myocardial infarction, and heart failure. For most patients, JNC-7 recommends a goal blood pressure of <140/90 mm Hg. However, the goal for patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) or diabetes mellitus is <130/80 mm Hg. Both conditions are independent risk factors for cardiovascular disease. The National Kidney Foundation and the American Society of Nephrology recommend treating most patients with CKD with an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB), plus a diuretic, with a goal blood pressure of <130/80 mm Hg. Most patients with CKD will require two drugs to reach this goal.

The pneumococcal polyvalent vaccine (Pneumovax 23) would be recommended for which one of the following patients? (check one) A. A 1-year-old patient as a routine immunization B. An 18-month-old patient diagnosed with cystic fibrosis C. A 35-year-old patient recently diagnosed with HIV infection D. A healthy 49-year-old patient E. A healthy 75-year-old patient who received a dose 8 years ago

C. A 35-year-old patient recently diagnosed with HIV infection. The Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) recommends routine pneumococcal vaccination for healthy patients starting at age 65 years. One-time revaccination after 5 years is recommended only for persons with chronic renal failure or nephrotic syndrome; functional or anatomic asplenia (e.g., sickle cell disease or splenectomy); and for persons with immunocompromising conditions. For persons aged >65 years, one-time revaccination is recommended if they were vaccinated >5 years previously and were aged <65 years at the time of primary vaccination. Patients over 2 years of age with various chronic diseases and patients who are immunocompromised also should be vaccinated (SOR A). Children less than 2 years of age should receive the 13-valent conjugate vaccine as a part of their routine well child vaccinations at 2, 4, 6, and 12 to 15 months of age.

You are considering recommending surgical treatment for obesity in selected patients. All other attempts to control weight have failed in these patients, including diet education, medication, exercise, and behavior modification. Each of these individuals is a well-informed and motivated patient with acceptable operative risks and is able to participate in treatment and long-term follow-up. They strongly desire substantial weight loss because their obesity impairs the quality of their lives, and they have asked about surgical options. Which one of these patients would meet the criteria for surgical treatment of obesity? (check one) A. A 44-year-old with a BMI of 34 and degenerative joint disease of the knees that significantly limits his ability to walk B. A 45-year-old with a BMI of 36 and controlled diabetes mellitus C. A 48-year-old with a BMI of 42 and no other health problems D. A 52-year-old with a BMI of 29 and sleep apnea E. A 55-year-old with a BMI of 29 and uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

C. A 48-year-old with a BMI of 42 and no other health problems. The 1991 National Institutes of Health Consensus Development Panel recommended that surgical treatment of severe obesity be considered for any patient with a BMI >40 or those with a BMI >35 who have serious coexisting medical problems. Examples of such coexisting medical problems include severe sleep apnea, Pickwickian syndrome, obesity-related cardiomyopathy, and severe diabetes mellitus.

A 56-year-old female presents for a health maintenance examination. She has a history of a total hysterectomy for benign disease 4 years ago. You are able to document that the hysterectomy pathology was benign and that she has had normal Papanicolaou (Pap) tests for 10 years. The patient asks about regular Pap smears. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate recommendation? (check one) A. Routine Pap smears should be continued until age 70 B. A Pap smear should be done every 3 years C. A Pap smear is not indicated D. A Pap smear should be done yearly for 3 years and only if indicated thereafter

C. A Pap smear is not indicated. After a hysterectomy for documented benign disease, cytologic screening may be discontinued. Papanicolaou (Pap) smears in this population are low yield and may cause unnecessary testing due to false-positives. Pap smears may be continued if the reason for the hysterectomy is uncertain. If there is a history of invasive cervical cancer or DES exposure, screening should be continued, although there is not a great deal of data to support this practice.

An asymptomatic 24-year-old white female comes to your office for a refill of oral contraceptive pills. A speculum examination is normal with the exception of a slightly friable, well-demarcated, 1.4-cm raised lesion involving a portion of the cervix. All previous Papanicolaou (Pap) tests have been normal and she has no history of abnormal bleeding or leukorrhea. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. A Pap test, including a scraping of the erosion, with routine follow-up unless the patient becomes symptomatic B. A Pap test with follow-up in 3 months if results are normal C. A Pap test and a colposcopically-directed biopsy D. A cone biopsy E. Topical antibiotic cream

C. A Pap test and a colposcopically-directed biopsy. The finding of a red, raised, friable lesion on the cervix, or a well-demarcated cervical lesion, mandates a biopsy to exclude cervical carcinoma, and treatment for chronic cervicitis should not be started until the biopsy results are available. A Papanicolaou test by itself is insufficient if there is a grossly visible lesion, as false-negatives occur in 10%-50% of tests.

A 36-year-old male presents to the emergency department with disorientation, tachycardia, diaphoresis, and hypertension. According to his family, he has been consuming up to a fifth of vodka daily but abruptly discontinued alcohol consumption 2 days ago. There is no history of additional substance abuse and a urine drug screen is negative. Which one of the following is most indicated in the management of this patient? (check one) A. An anticonvulsant B. A typical antipsychotic C. A benzodiazepine D. A centrally-acting α2-agonist E. Baclofen

C. A benzodiazepine. Psychomotor agitation is experienced by most patients during alcohol withdrawal. Benzodiazepines are clearly the drug class of choice. Providing medication on an as-needed basis rather than on a fixed schedule is generally preferred. Antipsychotics and butyrophenones (including haloperidol) lower the seizure threshold and should not be used. For short-term management of status epilepticus, anticonvulsants may be used in conjunction with benzodiazepines. The vast majority of seizures from withdrawal are self-limited and do not require anticonvulsant treatment. Clonidine and other α2-agonists do reduce minor symptoms of withdrawal, but have not been shown to prevent seizures. The effectiveness of baclofen in acute alcohol withdrawal is unknown.

Which one of the following is most typical of polymyalgia rheumatica? (check one) A. Headache and neck pain B. A normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate C. A dramatic response to corticosteroids D. A lack of systemic symptoms and signs

C. A dramatic response to corticosteroids. Polymyalgia rheumatica is an inflammatory disorder that occurs in persons over the age of 50. White women of European ancestry are most commonly affected. The clinical hallmarks of polymyalgia rheumatica are pain and stiffness in the shoulder and pelvic girdle. One review found that 4%-13% of patients with clinical polymyalgia rheumatica have a normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). As many as 5% of patients initially have a normal ESR that later rises. Polymyalgia rheumatica can have a variety of systemic symptoms. Fever is common, with temperatures as high as 39°C (102°F) along with night sweats. Additional symptoms include depression, fatigue, malaise, anorexia, and weight loss. Corticosteroids are the mainstay of therapy for polymyalgia rheumatica. Typically, a dramatic response is seen within 48-72 hours.

A 25-year-old white male who has a poorly controlled major seizure disorder and a 6-week history of recurrent fever, anorexia, and persistent, productive coughing visits your office. On physical examination he is noted to have a temperature of 38.3°C (101.0°F), a respiratory rate of 16/min, gingival hyperplasia, and a fetid odor to his breath. Auscultation of the lungs reveals rales in the mid-portion of the right lung posteriorly. Which one of the following is most likely to be found on a chest radiograph? (check one) A. Sarcoidosis B. Miliary calcifications C. A lung abscess D. A right hilar mass E. A right pleural effusion

C. A lung abscess. Anaerobic lung abscesses are most often found in a person predisposed to aspiration who complains of a productive cough associated with fever, anorexia, and weakness. Physical examination usually reveals poor dental hygiene, a fetid odor to the breath and sputum, rales, and pulmonary findings consistent with consolidation. Patients who have sarcoidosis usually do not have a productive cough and have bilateral physical findings. A persistent productive cough is not a striking finding in disseminated tuberculosis, which would be suggested by miliary calcifications on a chest film. The clinical presentation and physical findings are not consistent with a simple mass in the right hilum nor with a right pleural effusion.

A 70-year-old Asian male presents with hematochezia. He has stable vital signs. Lower endoscopy is performed, but is unsuccessful due to active bleeding. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. Abdominal CT B. A barium enema C. A technetium-99m blood pool scan D. Exploratory laparotomy E. A small-bowel radiograph

C. A technetium-99m blood pool scan. In most patients with heavy gastrointestinal bleeding, localizing the bleeding site, rather than diagnosing the cause of the bleeding, is the most important task. A lower GI series is usually nondiagnostic during heavy, active bleeding. A small-bowel radiograph may be helpful after the active bleeding has stopped, but not during the acute phase of the bleeding. A blood pool scan allows repeated scanning over a prolonged period of time, with the goal of permitting enough accumulation of the isotope to direct the arteriographer to the most likely source of the bleeding. If the scan is negative, arteriography would be unlikely to reveal the active source of bleeding, and is also a more invasive procedure. Exploratory laparotomy may be indicated if a blood pool scan or an arteriogram is nondiagnostic and the patient continues to bleed heavily.

A 55-year-old African-American male with osteoarthritis of the knees asks for advice on improving the function of his knees and controlling arthritis pain. Which one of the following would be appropriate advice? (check one) A. Topical capsaicin (Zostrix) applied twice daily will improve both pain and function B. Glucosamine will improve both pain and function C. A therapeutic exercise program will improve both pain and function D. An intra-articular corticosteroid injection will provide at least 6 months of pain relief E. NSAIDs will slow the progression of the disease

C. A therapeutic exercise program will improve both pain and function. A therapeutic exercise program will reduce both pain and disability in patients with osteoarthritis of the knee (SOR A). There is no evidence to support the use of capsaicin cream, but NSAIDs will reduce pain and there are proven therapies that will improve function of the patients knee. While intra-articular corticosteroids are effective in relieving pain in the short term (up to 4 weeks), there is no evidence for long-term efficacy. There is not good evidence to support the use of glucosamine for treating osteoarthritis of the knee. One systematic review found it no more effective than placebo.

While playing basketball, a 29-year-old male falls on his outstretched hand with his wrist fully extended. He sees you the following day because of diffuse wrist pain and decreased range of motion. The point of maximal tenderness is on the dorsal aspect of the wrist between the extensor pollicis brevis and extensor pollicis longus tendons. There is no visible deformity. Radiographs show no fracture. Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment of this patient? (check one) A. A wrist extension splint B. An ulnar gutter splint C. A thumb spica splint D. A short arm cast E. Physical therapy

C. A thumb spica splint. The scenario described is suspicious for an occult fracture of the scaphoid bone of the wrist. The mechanism of injury, falling on an outstretched hand with the wrist extended, combined with tenderness in the anatomic snuff box (between the extensor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis tendons) raises the possibility of a scaphoid fracture even if initial radiographs are negative. In order to reduce the potential for serious complications, including vascular necrosis and non-union, it is imperative that both the wrist and the thumb be immobilized. In the case described, a thumb spica splint is the best option initially. It should be worn continuously until a follow-up evaluation, including radiographs, in 1-2 weeks.

A 10-week-old term male infant is brought to your office with a 2-day history of difficulty breathing. He has been healthy since birth, with the exception of a 3-day episode of wheezing and rhinorrhea 3 weeks ago. Your initial examination shows an alert infant with increased work of breathing, rhinorrhea, and wheezing. His oxygen saturation is 93% and his temperature is 38.4°C (101.1°F). Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. Antigen testing or another rapid assay B. A baseline chest radiograph C. A trial of nebulized albuterol (AccuNeb) D. Advising the parents that the child can safely be returned to day care tomorrow

C. A trial of nebulized albuterol (AccuNeb). The American Academy of Pediatrics guideline on the diagnosis and management of bronchiolitis recommends against the use of laboratory or radiographic studies to make the diagnosis, although additional testing may be appropriate if there is no improvement. Bronchiolitis can be caused by a number of different viruses, alone or in combination, and the knowledge gained from virologic testing rarely influences management decisions or outcomes for the vast majority of children. While the guideline does not support routine use of bronchodilators in the management of bronchiolitis, it does allow for a trial of bronchodilators as an option in selected cases, and continuation of the treatment if the patient shows objective improvement in respiratory status. Bronchodilators have not been shown to affect the course of bronchiolitis with respect to outcomes. The guideline places considerable emphasis on hygienic practices, including the use of alcohol-based hand sanitizers before and after contact with the patient or inanimate objects in the immediate vicinity. Education of the family about hygienic practices is recommended as well. Returning the child to day care the next day is potentially harmful.

A 26-year-old male presents with hand pain. He tells you he was out drinking with friends last night and does not remember sustaining any injuries. On examination, there is diffuse swelling and tenderness across the dorsal and lateral aspects of the hand. Radiographs are shown in Figures 8 and 9. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate treatment? (check one) A. A wrist extension splint B. A molded finger splint C. A ular gutter splint D. A short arm cast E. Surgical pin fixation

C. A ular gutter splint. In the radiograph shown, there is a fracture of the fifth metacarpal head, commonly known as a boxer's fracture. There is only slight volar angulation and no displacement. The proper treatment for this fracture is an ulnar gutter splint, which immobilizes the wrist, hand, and fourth and fifth digits in the neutral position. Generally, 3 or 4 weeks of continuous splinting is adequate for healing. Surgical pinning is indicated in cases of significant angulation (35°-40° or more of volar angulation) or in fractures with significant rotational deformity or displacement. The other options listed are not appropriate treatments for this injury. This injury most commonly results from "man-versus-wall" pugilistics, but other mechanisms of injury are possible.

A moderately obese 50-year-old African-American female presents with colicky right upper quadrant pain that radiates to her right shoulder. Which one of the following is considered the best study to confirm the likely cause of the patient's symptoms? (check one) A. Plain abdominal radiography B. Oral cholecystography C. Abdominal ultrasonography D. A barium swallow E. Esophagogastroscopy

C. Abdominal ultrasonography. The symptom complex presented is typical of cholelithiasis. Plain radiography of the abdomen may reveal radiopaque gallstones, but will not reveal radiolucent stones or biliary dilatation. Although rarely used, oral cholecystography is 98% accurate, but only when compliance is assured, the contrast agent is absorbed, and liver function is normal. Abdominal ultrasonography is considered the best study to confirm this diagnosis because of its high sensitivity and its accuracy in detecting gallstones. A barium swallow will identify some functional and structural esophageal abnormalities, but will not focus on the suspected organ in this case. The same is true of esophagogastroscopy.

A 15-month-old male is brought to the emergency department following a generalized tonic-clonic seizure at home. The parents report that the seizure lasted 5 minutes, with confusion for the next 15 minutes. This is the child's first seizure. There is no family history of seizures. His medical history is normal except for a 1-day history of a URI. While initially lethargic in the emergency department, the child is now awake and playful, with a temperature of 39.5 degrees C (103.2 degrees F) and a normal examination. Appropriate diagnostic tests are performed, including a blood glucose level, which is 96 mg/dL. Which one of the following would be most appropriate to administer at this point? (check one) A. Phenytoin (Dilantin) intravenously B. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) intravenously C. Acetaminophen orally D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) orally E. Phenobarbital orally

C. Acetaminophen orally. This child has had a simple febrile seizure, the most common seizure disorder of childhood. Treatment includes finding a source for the fever; this should include a lumbar puncture if meningitis is suspected. The most common infections associated with febrile seizures include viral upper respiratory infections, otitis media, and roseola. Antipyretics are the first-line treatment. Antibiotics are indicated only for appropriate treatment of underlying infections. Phenytoin and carbamazepine are ineffective for febrile seizures. Phenobarbital is sometimes used for prevention of recurrent febrile seizures, but is not indicated as an initial therapy. Only 30%-50% of children with an initial febrile seizure will have recurrent seizures.

A 20-year-old patient comes to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath. On examination his heart rate is 180 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 122/68 mm Hg. An EKG reveals a narrow complex tachycardia with a regular rhythm. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate initial treatment? (check one) A. Amiodarone (Cordarone) B. Diltiazem (Cardizem) C. Adenosine (Adenocard) D. Magnesium E. Synchronized cardioversion

C. Adenosine (Adenocard). After vagal maneuvers are attempted in a stable patient with supraventricular tachycardia, the patient should be given a 6-mg dose of adenosine by rapid intravenous push. If conversion does not occur, a 12-mg dose should be given. This dose may be repeated once. If the patient is unstable, immediate synchronized cardioversion should be administered.

A 2-year-old Hispanic male with a 3-day history of nasal congestion presents with a barking cough and hoarseness. He is afebrile. The examination reveals tachypnea, inspiratory and expiratory stridor, noticeable intercostal retractions, and good color. Which one of the following is indicated? (check one) A. Albuterol syrup and the use of a humidifier B. Inhaled albuterol (Proventil, Ventolin) C. Aerosolized epinephrine and intramuscular dexamethasone D. Visualization of the epiglottis, and ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

C. Aerosolized epinephrine and intramuscular dexamethasone. This child has a history and physical findings typical of viral laryngotracheobronchitis, or croup. In rare instances, this illness can be complicated by critical upper airway obstruction. The symptoms of cough, respiratory stridor, and distress result from edema of the subglottic portion of the upper airway. Humidification of inspired air is sometimes beneficial, but the child should not be sent home until improvement is demonstrated. Because this child has stridor and intercostal retractions, aerosolized epinephrine is indicated, along with intramuscular dexamethasone, and hospitalization may be required for observation and continued treatment. Antibiotics do not have a role in the treatment of viral croup, and attempted visualization of the epiglottis is not indicated since it will increase the child's anxiety and worsen the symptoms.

A 38-year-old female with seasonal allergies presents with a 10-day history of sinus pain and purulent nasal drainage, along with temperature elevations up to 102°F (39°C). She has been taking nonprescription loratidine (Claritin), but says it provides little relief. She asks you to prescribe an antibiotic. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. Continuation of symptomatic treatment only B. In-office nasal irrigation2 C. Amoxicillin D. Azithromycin (Zithromax) E. Imaging of the sinuses

C. Amoxicillin. The American Academy of Otolaryngology published guidelines for the diagnosis and management of rhinosinusitis in adults in 2007. They cite reasonable evidence for initiating antibiotic treatment in patients with symptoms persisting for 7-10 days that are not improving or worsening (SOR B). Amoxicillin should be the first-line agent, with azithromycin or trimethroprim/sulfamethoxazole recommended for penicillinallergic patients. Broader-spectrum antibiotics such as fluoroquinolones should be reserved for treatment failures. Imaging is indicated only if other etiologies are being considered or if the problem is recurrent.

A 20-month-old male presents with a history of a fever up to 38.5°C (101.3°F), pulling at both ears, drainage from his right ear, and a poor appetite following several days of nasal congestion. This is his first episode of acute illness, and he has no history of drug allergies. The fever is confirmed on examination and the child is found to be fussy but can be distracted. He is eating adequately and shows no signs of dehydration. Positive findings include mild nasal congestion, a purulent discharge from the right auditory canal, and a red, bulging, immobile tympanic membrane in the left auditory canal. Which one of the following would be first-line treatment for this patient? (check one) A. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) B. Amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) C. Amoxicillin D. Azithromycin (Zithromax) E. Penicillin VK

C. Amoxicillin. This patient has acute bilateral otitis media, with presumed tympanic membrane perforation, and qualifies by any criterion for treatment with antibiotics. Amoxicillin, 80-90 mg/kg/day, should be the first-line antibiotic for most children with acute otitis media (SOR B). The other medications listed are either ineffective because of resistance (e.g., penicillin), are second-line treatments (e.g., amoxicillin/clavulanate), or should be used in patients with a penicillin allergy or in other special situations.

A 59-year-old female with type 2 diabetes develops a 2x1-cm ulcer on the plantar aspect of her right foot. The ulcer is very deep and there is surrounding cellulitis. A plain film is normal. Which one of the following would be the imaging study of choice to rule out osteomyelitis in this patient? (check one) A. Angiography B. A CT scan C. An MRI scan D. A PET scan E. A leukocyte scan

C. An MRI scan. Although leukocyte scans are sensitive for the diagnosis of foot ulcers, MRI is now considered the imaging study of choice when osteomyelitis is suspected; the sensitivity and specificity of MRI in diabetic patients are 90% or greater.

A 50-year-old white female comes to you because she has found a breast mass. Your examination reveals a firm, fixed, nontender, 2-cm mass. No axillary nodes are palpable, nor is there any nipple discharge. You send her for a mammogram, and fine-needle aspiration is performed to obtain cells for cytologic examination. The mammogram is read as "suspicious" and the fine-needle cytology report reads, "a few benign ductal epithelioid cells and adipose tissue." Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step? (check one) A. A repeat mammogram in 3 months B. Repeat fine-needle aspiration in 3 months C. An excisional biopsy of the mass D. Referral for breast irradiation E. Referral to a surgeon for simple mastectomy

C. An excisional biopsy of the mass. In the ideal setting, the accuracy of fine-needle aspiration may be over 90%. Clinical information is critical for interpreting the results of fine-needle aspiration, especially given the fact that the tissue sample is more limited than with a tissue biopsy. It is crucial to determine whether the findings on fine-needle aspiration explain the clinical findings. Although the report from the mammogram and the biopsy are not ominous in this patient, they do not explain the clinical findings. Immediate repeat fine-needle aspiration or, preferably, a tissue biopsy is indicated. Proceeding directly to therapy, whether surgery or irradiation, is inappropriate because the diagnosis is not clearly established. Likewise, any delay in establishing the diagnosis is not appropriate.

Estimating the 10-year risk of developing coronary heart disease with the Framingham Heart Study Score Sheet would be most reliable when applied to which one of the following individuals? (check one) A. A 19-year-old female with a strong family history of cardiac disease B. An obese 50-year-old male with a history of a previous myocardial infarction C. An otherwise healthy 36-year-old white male smoker D. A postmenopausal 54-year-old female with angina E. A 78-year-old male with a history of hypertension

C. An otherwise healthy 36-year-old white male smoker. The 10-year risk of developing coronary heart disease can be effectively predicted with the algorithmic calculator developed using multivariable data collected over a period of more than half a century as part of the Framingham Heart Study. This iconic study defined what are now commonly known as major risk factors: elevated blood pressure, cigarette smoking, cholesterol levels, diabetes mellitus, and advancing age. Using measurements of each of these risk factors and consideration of the gender of the individual,a reliable determination of risk can be obtained in individuals 30-74 years of age who have no overt coronary heart disease. The largely white study population presumptively makes the risk determination most accurate for white patients.

A 16-year-old high-school football player plants his left foot to make a cut and feels his left leg give way. He feels a pop in the knee, followed by acute pain. He is evaluated on the field, and examination with the knee flexed 20° reveals that the tibia can be displaced farther anteriorly than with the uninvolved knee. Which one of the following conditions is most likely? (check one) A. Patellar tendon rupture B. Posterior cruciate ligament tear C. Anterior cruciate ligament tear D. Tibial plateau fracture E. Patellar dislocation

C. Anterior cruciate ligament tear. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tears are the most common ligament injury requiring surgery. Females have a significantly higher rate of ACL tears, with the majority of tears in both men and women occurring without physical contact. In addition to the immediate problems, there is a significant increase in premature osteoarthritis of the knee. Approximately 50% of patients with this injury develop osteoarthritis in 10-20 years. Findings that help make the diagnosis of ACL tear include a noncontact mechanism of injury, an audible popping sound, early swelling of the joint, and the inability to participate in the game after the injury. Many patients can walk normally and can perform such straight-plane activities as climbing stairs, biking, or jogging. Physical examination using the Lachman test or pivot shift test can be used to further assess whether the ligament is torn. MRI can be used to confirm the diagnosis, although it is not needed if the diagnosis is clear from the history and examination. The other conditions listed are also sports-related knee injuries, but have different mechanisms of injury or physical findings. Patients with patellar tendon rupture are unable to fully extend their knee and examination shows a palpable defect in the patellar ligament and a high-riding patella. While the mechanism of injury in patients with posterior cruciate ligament tears may be similar to that of ACL injury, the examination would show posterior rather than anterior displacement of the tibia when the knee is flexed at 90° (the posterior drawer sign). The mechanism of injury of tibial plateau fractures in a healthy young male generally involves a highenergy collision causing a valgus force with axial loading. Patients with patellar dislocations have symptoms similar to those of an ACL injury, including an audible crack or pop and the feeling of the knee giving way after a twisting motion. Immediately following the injury, however, examination would show an obvious deformity, but the patella may spontaneously relocate prior to the on-field exam. There would be no instability on the Lachman maneuver.

Your patient is in the second stage of labor, and you determine that the fetus is in face presentation, mentum anterior. Progress has been rapid and fetal heart tones are normal. You would now: (check one) A. Perform an immediate cesarean delivery B. Proceed with midforceps delivery C. Anticipate vaginal delivery with close fetal monitoring D. Manually convert to vertex presentation

C. Anticipate vaginal delivery with close fetal monitoring. Most infants with face presentation, mentum anterior, can be delivered vaginally, either spontaneously or with low forceps. Cesarean section is indicated for fetal distress and failure to progress. Midforceps delivery is not indicated. If fetal electrodes are attached, the chin is the preferred location.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 88 ======================================================= A 68-year-old white female presents to your office and reports that yesterday she had a 20-minute episode of difficulty speaking and weakness of the right side of the face and right arm. She has never experienced any episodes similar to this in the past and reports her overall health to be excellent. In fact, she tells you that she has not seen a physician since her hysterectomy for fibroids 20 years ago. Her only medication is occasional acetaminophen or ibuprofen for knee pain. Physical examination reveals a blood pressure of 160/90 mm Hg, an irregularly irregular heartbeat with a rate of 90/min, an otherwise normal cardiovascular examination, and a completely normal neurologic examination. Her EKG confirms atrial fibrillation with evidence for left ventricular hypertrophy but no Q waves or ST elevation. You are able to obtain an emergent CT scan of the brain without contrast, which is negative. Which one of the following is the most appropriate immediate management? (check one) A. Lowering blood pressure B. Antiplatelet therapy with clopidogrel (Plavix) C. Anticoagulation with warfarin (Coumadin) D. Electrical or chemical cardioversion E. An MRI scan of the brain with contrast

C. Anticoagulation with warfarin (Coumadin). The patient described presents with a history most consistent with a recent, resolved transient ischemic attack (TIA). This was most likely due to an embolus related to her atrial fibrillation. Her risk for a recurrent neurologic event (TIA or stroke) is high. Long-term anticoagulation with warfarin reduces this risk. The use of antiplatelet agents such as clopidogrel to reduce TIAs has not been studied. Lowering blood pressure and lipid levels can reduce risks over the long term, but do not require immediate intervention. Cardioversion for patients with atrial fibrillation of uncertain or long duration may be appropriate but should not be attempted before several weeks of anticoagulation in the stable patient.

A 29-year-old white female is hospitalized following a right middle cerebral artery stroke confirmed by MRI. Her past medical history is remarkable only for a history of an uncomplicated tonsillectomy during childhood and a second-trimester miscarriage 3 years ago. The only remarkable finding on physical examination is left hemiplegia.The initial laboratory workup reveals normal hematocrit and hemoglobin levels, a normal prothrombin time, and a platelet count of 200,000/mm3 (N 140,000-440,000). The activated partial thromboplastin time is 95 sec (N 23.6-34.6), and it does not normalize when the patient's serum is mixed with normal plasma. A serum VDRL is positive, and a serum FTA-ABS is nonreactive. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Hemophilia B. Neurosyphilis C. Antiphospholipid syndrome D. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura E. Protein C deficiency

C. Antiphospholipid syndrome. The antiphospholipid syndrome is due to the appearance of a heterogeneous group of circulating antibodies to negatively charged phospholipids, including most commonly a lupus anticoagulant and anticardiolipin antibodies. The antibodies are usually detected by a false-positive serologic test for syphilis. Clinical features include venous and arterial thrombosis, fetal wastage, thrombocytopenia, and the presence of an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) inhibitor. It is an important diagnostic consideration in all patients with unexplained thrombosis or cerebral infarction, particularly in young patients. Although hemophilia would also be associated with a prolonged aPTT, the PTT would normalize when the patient's serum was mixed with normal plasma. Neurosyphilis is excluded by the negative serum FTAABS result. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is not associated with prolongation of the aPTT and is associated with a hemolytic anemia. Although protein C deficiency is a hypercoagulable state that can lead to stroke, none of the laboratory abnormalities suggests this diagnosis.

A 4-year-old female has had three urinary tract infections in the past 6 months. She complains of difficulty with urination and on examination is noted to have labial adhesions that have resulted in near closing of the introitus. Which one of the following is the most appropriate management? (check one) A. No treatment at this time B. Reporting your suspicion of child abuse to the appropriate authorities C. Application of estrogen cream to the site D. Gentle insertion of progressively larger dilators over a period of several days E. Referral to a gynecologist for surgical correction

C. Application of estrogen cream to the site. The etiology of prepubertal labial adhesions is idiopathic. The adhesions may be partial or complete; in some cases only a small pinhole orifice may be seen that allows urine to exit from the fused labia. This problem may be asymptomatic, but the patient may also have a pulling sensation, difficulty with voiding, recurrent urinary tract infections, or vaginitis. If there is enough labial fusion to interfere with urination, treatment should be undertaken. The use of topical estrogen cream twice daily at the point of the midline fusion will usually result in resolution of the problem.

A 67-year-old male who recently had a screening colonoscopy presents for follow-up. During the procedure, a mass was discovered in the sigmoid colon and a biopsy revealed a poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma. When you tell the patient you have the test results and can provide information about the prognosis, he says, "To be honest, I can tell that the news is not good, and I would rather not talk about it right now." Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step? (check one) A. Relay the prognosis, but focus as much as possible on any positives B. Discuss the prognosis with the patient's wife, who is in the waiting room C. Ask the patient if he would like to talk again at another time D. Refer the patient to a support group

C. Ask the patient if he would like to talk again at another time. When giving bad news to a patient, it is important to assess how much information the patient wants to know and tailor the discussion accordingly (SOR C). If the patient states that he does not want to know about the prognosis, the most appropriate response is to ask if he would like to talk again at another time. The physician may be regarded as rude, cruel, or uncaring if he persists in providing information that the patient is not ready to hear. In addition, the patient is more at risk for feelings of hopelessness, depression, or anxiety if he is not psychologically ready to hear a bad prognosis. Once the patient verbalizes a readiness to discuss the prognosis, specific information can be provided, focusing on both the positive and negative aspects of the situation. It is not appropriate to discuss the case with the patient's wife, unless he specifically requests she be a proxy to receive the information. Referrals to either a support group or an oncologist should be deferred until the information has been discussed with the patient.

A 66-year-old female presents for a preoperative evaluation prior to elective podiatric surgery. She has no complaints other than her foot problem, and says she feels well. On examination she has an irregularly irregular heart rate with a 2/6 holosystolic murmur. An EKG reveals atrial fibrillation with a rate of 110 beats/min. Echocardiography shows mild to moderate mitral regurgitation and a dilated left atrium, but is otherwise normal. Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient? (check one) A. Digoxin, 0.125 mg/day B. Quinidine gluconate, 324 mg 3 times daily C. Atenolol (Tenormin), 50 mg/day D. Sustained-release nifedipine (Adalat CC, Procardia XL), 60 mg/day E. Unfractionated heparin sodium, 5000 units subcutaneously 3 times daily

C. Atenolol (Tenormin), 50 mg/day. The primary goals of atrial fibrillation treatment are rate control and prevention of thromboembolism. Guidelines recommend rate control with atenolol, metoprolol, diltiazem, or verapamil (SOR A). Digoxin does not control the heart rate with stress. Quinidine is proarrhythmic and does not control the heart rate. Nifedipine does not control the heart rate, and heparin does not provide adequate anticoagulation or control the heart rate.

As a member of the local emergency response management team you are asked about the treatment of nerve gas (e.g., sarin) poisoning. Which one of the following is most effective in reversing the symptoms of nerve gas toxicity? (check one) A. Albuterol (Proventil, Ventolin) via inhalation B. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) C. Atropine D. Parenteral verapamil (Calan, Isoptin) E. Parenteral corticosteroids

C. Atropine. Nerve gas agents such as sarin resemble organophosphate insecticides and inactivate anticholinesterase, leading to the accumulation of acetylcholine at nerve endings. Respiratory symptoms include rhinorrhea, bronchorrhea, bronchospasm, and respiratory muscle paralysis. Gastrointestinal symptoms include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Central nervous system symptoms include headache, vertigo, agitation, seizures, and coma. Exposed patients benefit from treatment with atropine, which competitively inhibits acetylcholine. Pralidoxine chloride and diazepam are also beneficial. Although beta-agonists and corticosteroids are beneficial in the general treatment of bronchospasm, atropine is preferred in this situation. Verapamil and ciprofloxacin have no role in the treatment of nerve gas exposure.

Which one of the following Papanicolaou (Pap) test results is most likely to indicate a cancerous lesion? (check one) A. Atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASC-US) B. Atypical squamous cells cannot exclude high-grade intraepithelial lesion (ASC-H) C. Atypical glandular cells not otherwise specified (AGC-NOS) D. Low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL) E. High-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL)

C. Atypical glandular cells not otherwise specified (AGC-NOS). Papanicolaou (Pap) tests are intended to screen for cervical cancer, but most abnormal Pap tests are associated with precancerous lesions or with no abnormality. The category of atypical glandular cells not otherwise specified (AGC-NOS) has a benign sound to it, although it is associated with a 17% rate of cancer (8% carcinoma in situ and 9% invasive carcinoma). High-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL), which would seem worse intuitively, has only a 3% associated cancer rate. AGC-NOS is associated with higher rates of cancer than the other choices listed.

The most serious complication of a slipped capital femoral epiphysis is: (check one) A. Osteomyelitis B. Pathologic fracture C. Avascular necrosis D. Chondrolysis

C. Avascular necrosis. Avascular necrosis is the most serious complication of a slipped capital femoral epiphysis, and leads to more rapid arthritic deterioration. It may require hip fusion and total hip replacement early in adulthood.

A primigravida at 38 weeks gestation is concerned that her fetus is getting too large and wants to know what interventions could prevent complications from a large baby. On examination her uterine fundus measures 41 cm from the pubic symphysis. Ultrasonography is performed and an estimated fetal weight of 4000 g (8 lb 13 oz) is reported. Which one of the following management options is supported by the best evidence? (check one) A. Induction of labor B. Cesarean section C. Awaiting spontaneous labor D. Weekly ultrasonography to follow fetal growth

C. Awaiting spontaneous labor. This estimated fetal weight is at the 90th percentile for a term fetus. Unfortunately, the accuracy of fetal weight estimates declines as pregnancy proceeds, and the actual size may be as much as 15% different from the estimate. Delivery of a large infant results in shoulder dystocia more often than delivery of a smaller infant, but most large infants are delivered without complications. Intuitively, it would seem logical to induce labor when the fetus seems to be getting large, but this intervention has been studied in controlled trials and the only difference in outcome was an increase in the cesarean rate for women who underwent elective induction for this indication. Recently, there has been an increase in requests from patients to have an elective cesarean section near term to avoid the risks of labor, including pain, shoulder dystocia, and pelvic relaxation. The American Congress of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG) recommends consideration of cesarean delivery without a trial of labor if the estimated fetal weight is 4500 g in a mother with diabetes mellitus, or 5000 g in the absence of diabetes. Even at that size, there is not adequate data to show that cesarean section is preferable to a trial of labor. Frequent ultrasonography is often performed to reduce anxiety for both patient and physician, but the problem of accuracy of weight estimates remains an issue even with repeated scans at term.

An 8-year-old male presents to your office 2 days after returning from a trip to Mexico with his family. He developed watery, nonbloody diarrhea on the day of departure. He has mild abdominal cramping, but no fever or vomiting. His mother had similar symptoms, which were milder and resolved with over-the-counter treatments. Which one of the following would be most appropriate to treat this patient's condition? (check one) A. Metronidazole (Flagyl) B. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) C. Azithromycin (Zithromax) D. Mebendazole E. Metoclopramide (Reglan)

C. Azithromycin (Zithromax). Traveler's diarrhea commonly occurs in travelers to Mexico and developing countries. It is usually caused by bacterial organisms such as Escherichia coli, Campylobacter, Shigella, and Salmonella. Viral and parasitic organisms are less common causes, unless the diarrhea persists for 2 weeks. Appropriate medications include antidiarrheal agents such as loperamide, bismuth subsalicylate, and antibiotics. Fluoroquinolones are effective in adults, but should not be used in an 8-year-old. Azithromycin isgenerally effective and safe in children. Metronidazole, mebendazole, and metoclopramide would not be likely to successfully treat bacterial traveler's diarrhera.

According to the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, which one of the following strategies for osteoporosis screening is supported by current clinical evidence? (check one) A. Begin universal screening 5 years after the date of the last menstrual period B. Begin universal screening at age 55 C. Begin universal screening at age 65 D. Screen only those women at increased risk for hip fracture based on a multiple risk-assessment scale

C. Begin universal screening at age 65. No single study has evaluated the effectiveness of osteoporosis screening. The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) recommends universal screening for women over the age of 65, as well as for women age 60-64 with risk factors for osteoporosis. Multiple risk assessment scales have been studied to identify women over the age of 65 who are at increased risk for hip fracture. None of the scales, however, had good discriminatory performance. Thus, the criteria for screening women less than 65 years of age are unclear.

You make a diagnosis of depression in a 26-year-old female. Her BMI is 32 kg/m² and she has been trying to lose weight. Which one of the following antidepressants would be LEAST likely to cause her to gain weight? (check one) A. Mirtazapine (Remeron) B. Amitriptyline C. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) D. Paroxetine (Paxil) E. Citalopram (Celexa)

C. Bupropion (Wellbutrin). Bupropion is the antidepressant least likely to cause weight gain, and may induce modest weight loss. All of the other choices are more likely to cause weight gain. Among SSRIs, paroxetine is associated with the most weight gain and fluoxetine with the least. Mirtazapine has been associated with more weight gain than the SSRIs.

Metformin (Glucophage) should be stopped prior to which one of the following, and withheld until 48 hours after completion of the test? (check one) A. An upper GI series B. Abdominal ultrasonography C. CT angiography D. MRI of the brain E. Colonoscopy

C. CT angiography. Since even a temporary reduction in renal function, such as occurs after pyelography or angiography, can cause lactic acidosis in patients taking metformin, the drug should be discontinued 48 hours before such procedures (SOR C) and restarted 48 hours after the procedure if renal function is normal. The other procedures listed are not indications for stopping metformin.

Which one of the following is the best radiographic test for confirming the diagnosis of renal colic? (check one) A. A KUB radiograph B. Ultrasonography C. CT D. Intravenous pyelography E. MRI

C. CT. CT is the gold standard for the diagnosis of renal colic. Its sensitivity and specificity are superior to those of ultrasonography and intravenous pyelography. Noncalcium stones may be missed by plain radiography but visualized by CT. MRI is a poor tool for visualizing stones.

A 74-year-old male presents with a 4-day history of diarrhea that he had initially thought was "a 24-hour virus." He states that the onset of his illness included nausea, one episode of vomiting, and profuse diarrhea. He has felt feverish and has been having abdominal cramps. He does not recall eating anything unusual and has not traveled recently. On examination he appears uncomfortable, but in no real distress. His oral temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure 134/82 mm Hg, and pulse rate 100 beats/min. He has lost 4 kg (9 lb) since his last visit 2 months earlier. His abdomen is soft, with hyperactive bowel sounds and mild diffuse tenderness on palpation. A CBC and basic metabolic profile are normal. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's illness? (check one) A. Norwalk-like virus (Norovirus) B. Shigella C. Campylobacter D. Escherichia coli O157:H7 E. Staphyloccocus aureus

C. Campylobacter. Campylobacter jejuni is one of the most common causes of bacterial foodborne illnesses, estimated to affect 1 million Americans annually. Undercooked or improperly handled chicken is most often implicated as the source; surveys have demonstrated that between 20% and 100% of all retail chicken sold in the United States is contaminated. The infection is generally isolated and sporadic, occurs more frequently at the extremes of age, is most common during the summer months, and affects males disproportionately. Symptoms typically begin 2-5 days following exposure. Diarrhea is the predominant symptom, with a lesser degree of nausea and vomiting. Up to 10 days is required for full recovery. While Escherichia coli O157:H7 and Shigella may cause a similar illness, both generally present with bloody diarrhea. E. coli O157:H7 is most often transmitted in contaminated undercooked beef, and Shigella is usually spread in a fecal-oral pattern or via contaminated water. The peripheral WBC count is typically increased substantially in shigellosis. Staphylococcus aureus produces an enterotoxin in food that causes the onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea within hours of ingestion and clears within 24-48 hours. Norovirus is a very common cause of acute viral gastroenteritis, usually with more vomiting than diarrhea. It spreads person to person, and patients usually recover within 24 hours.

In patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus, intensive glycemic control has not been shown to be beneficial for which one of the following diabetic complications? (check one) A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Foot infections C. Cardiovascular disease D. Proliferative retinopathy E. Nephropathy

C. Cardiovascular disease. Intensive management of hyperglycemia, with a goal of achieving nondiabetic glucose levels, helps reduce microvascular complications such as retinopathy, nephropathy, and neuropathy. Foot infections are less common in patients without neuropathy and in patients with good glycemic control. Intensive management of hyperglycemia also has a beneficial effect on cardiovascular disease in patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus but, unfortunately, not in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. In fact, there is data to suggest 1c that intensive glycemic control (hemoglobin A <6.5) may be detrimental in certain populations, such as the elderly and those with cardiovascular disease.

A 20-year-old male presents with a complaint of pain in his right testis. The onset of pain has been gradual and has been associated with dysuria and urinary frequency. The patient has no medical problems and is sexually active. On examination he has some swelling and mild tenderness of the testis. The area posterior to the testis is swollen and very tender. He has a normal cremasteric reflex, and the pain improves with elevation of the testicle. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management of this patient? (check one) A. Surgical evaluation B. Doppler ultrasonography C. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) and doxycycline D. Levofloxacin (Levaquin) E. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

C. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) and doxycycline. This patient has epididymitis. In males 14-35 years of age, the most common causes are Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis. The recommended treatment in this age group is ceftriaxone, 250 mg intramuscularly, and doxycycline, 100 mg twice daily for 10 days (SOR C). A single 1-g dose of azithromycin may be substituted for doxycycline. In those under age 14 or over age 35, the infection is usually caused by one of the common urinary tract pathogens, and levofloxacin, 500 mg once daily for 10 days, would be the appropriate treatment (SOR C). If there is concern about testicular torsion, urgent surgical evaluation and ultrasonography are appropriate. Testicular torsion is most common between 12 and 18 years of age but can occur at any age. It usually presents with an acute onset of severe pain and typically does not have associated urinary symptoms. On examination there may be a high-riding transversely oriented testis with an abnormal cremasteric reflex and pain with testicular evaluation. Color Doppler ultrasonography will show a normal-appearing testis with decreased blood flow.

Which one of the following is appropriate and effective treatment for genitourinary gonorrhea in a 20-year-old male with a purulent urethral discharge? (check one) A. Amoxicillin, 3.5 g orally once B. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro), 500 mg orally once C. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin), 125 mg intramuscularly once D. Doxycycline, 100 mg 2 times daily for 3 days E. Erythromycin, 500 mg 4 times daily for 7 days

C. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin), 125 mg intramuscularly once. Not only has the incidence of gonorrhea increased since 2002, but the rate of quinolone-resistant infection has also increased. Ceftriaxone is therefore the currently recommended treatment, and amoxicillin, ciprofloxacin, and erythromycin are no longer recommended because of resistance to these drugs. Doxycycline can be used but should be continued for 7 days.

The only nonsexual behavior that is consistently and strongly correlated with cervical dysplasia and cervical cancer is: (check one) A. Alcohol consumption B. Caffeine consumption C. Cigarette smoking D. Cocaine use E. A high-fat diet

C. Cigarette smoking. Cigarette smoking is the only nonsexual behavior consistently and strongly correlated with cervical dysplasia and cancer, independently increasing the risk two- to fourfold.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 23 ======================================================= A 56-year-old white male reports lower leg claudication that occurs when he walks approximately one block, and is relieved by standing still or sitting. He has a history of diabetes mellitus and hyperlipidemia. His most recent hemoglobin A 1c level was 5.9% and his LDL-cholesterol level at that time was 95 mg/dL. Current medications include glyburide (DiaBeta), metformin (Glucophage), simvastatin (Zocor), and daily aspirin. He stopped smoking 1 month ago and began a walking program. A physical examination is normal, except for barely palpable dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses. Femoral and popliteal pulses are normal. Noninvasive vascular studies of his legs show an ankle-brachial index of 0.7 bilaterally, and decreased flow. Which one of the following would be most appropriate for addressing this patient's symptoms? (check one) A. Fish oil B. Warfarin (Coumadin) C. Cilostazol (Pletal) D. Dipyridamole (Persantine) E. Clopidogrel (Plavix)

C. Cilostazol (Pletal). The patient described has symptomatic arterial vascular disease manifested by intermittent claudication. He has already initiated the two most important changes: he has stopped smoking and started a walking program. His LDL-cholesterol is at target levels; further lowering is not likely to improve his symptoms. In the presence of diffuse disease, interventional treatments such as angioplasty or surgery may not be helpful; in addition, these interventions should be reserved as a last resort. Cilostazol has been shown to help with intermittent claudication, but additional antiplatelet agents are not likely to improve his symptoms. Fish oil and warfarin have not been found to be helpful in the management of this condition.

A 35-year-old male with a toothache presents to a local clinic for uninsured patients. On examination you find a decayed left lower molar that is tender when tapped lightly, and surrounding gingival inflammation and tenderness. There is no obvious mandibular swelling, but he does have a tender submandibular lymph node. The earliest available dental appointment is in 1 week. He is allergic to penicillin. Which one of the following would be the best antibiotic treatment for this patient? (check one) A. Doxycycline B. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra) C. Clindamycin (Cleocin) D. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) E. Cephalexin (Keflex)

C. Clindamycin (Cleocin). This patient most likely has periodontitis of the tooth's roots with cellulitis, complicated by an apical abscess. This infection is caused by anaerobic oral bacteria. Penicillin VK, amoxicillin or amoxicillin/clavulanate is preferred for antibiotic treatment, but this patient is allergic to penicillin. Clindamycin is a good choice to cover the likely pathogens. Doxycycline, trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, ciprofloxacin, and cephalexin have limited effectiveness against anaerobes and would not be indicated.

Patients treated with which one of the following require regular hematologic monitoring for the development of granulocytopenia? (check one) A. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) B. Haloperidol (Haldol) C. Clozapine (Clozaril) D. Fluphenazine (Prolixin) E. Risperidone (Risperdal)

C. Clozapine (Clozaril). Clozapine is one of the so-called second-generation antipsychotics, which are believed to be less likely to cause extrapyramidal side effects than the first-generation drugs such as haloperidol or the phenothiazines (e.g., fluphenazine). A 2003 meta-analysis concluded that clozapine was the most efficacious second-generation antipsychotic, followed by risperidone and olanzapine. However, clozapine use is associated with an approximately 1% incidence of granulocytopenia or agranulocytosis. Early detection by monitoring blood counts every 1-2 weeks has led to a reduction in agranulocytosis-related death, but clozapine is generally considered second-line therapy, to be used in cases unresponsive to other drugs.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 67 ======================================================= A 27-year-old male with a diagnosis of depression prefers to avoid pharmacologic treatment. You agree to engage in a trial of therapy in your office. During the treatment process, you help the patient realize that some of his perceptions and interpretations of reality may be false and lead to negative thoughts. Next, you help him discover alternative thoughts that reflect reality more closely, and to learn to discard his previous distorted thinking. By learning to substitute healthy thoughts for negative thoughts, he finds his mood, behavior, and physical reaction to different situations are improved. Which one of the following best categorizes this type of therapy? (check one) A. Psychoanalysis B. Biofeedback C. Cognitive therapy D. Group psychotherapy E. Hypnosis therapy

C. Cognitive therapy. This patient is engaged in cognitive therapy, which is a treatment process that helps patients correct false self-beliefs that can lead to negative moods and behaviors. Cognitive therapy has been shown to effectively treat patients with unipolar major depression, and is particularly useful in patients who do not respond to medication or who prefer nonpharmacologic therapy. Psychoanalysis is a process of free association where repressed memories are recovered. Biofeedback involves instrumentation that gives feedback about a patient's physiologic response to various situations in order to bring the autonomic nervous system under voluntary control. Group psychotherapy is a form of treatment in which people who are emotionally ill meet in a group guided by a trained therapist and help one another effect personality change. Hypnosis involves helping a patient enter a state of heightened focal concentration and receptivity that is typified by a feeling of involuntariness or an altered state of consciousness.

A 64-year-old male presents with a 3-month history of difficulty sleeping. A history and physical examination, followed by appropriate ancillary testing, leads to a diagnosis of chronic primary insomnia. Which one of the following would be most appropriate for managing this patient's problem? (check one) A. An SSRI B. A small glass of wine 1 hour before bedtime C. Cognitive-behavioral therapy D. Watching television at bedtime, with the timer set to turn off in 60 minutes E. Reading in bed with a soft light

C. Cognitive-behavioral therapy. Chronic insomnia is defined as difficulty with initiating or maintaining sleep, or experiencing nonrestorative sleep, for at least 1 month, leading to significant daytime impairment. Primary insomnia is not caused by another sleep disorder, underlying psychiatric or medical condition, or substance abuse disorder. Cognitive-behavioral therapy is effective for managing this problem, and should be used as the initial treatment for chronic insomnia. It has been shown to produce sustained improvement at both 12 and 24 months after treatment is begun. One effective therapy is stimulus control, in which patients are taught to eliminate distractions and associate the bedroom only with sleep and sex. Reading and television watching should occur in a room other than the bedroom. Pharmacotherapy alone does not lead to sustained benefits. SSRIs can cause insomnia, as can alcohol.

A 30-year-old female who had a deep venous thrombosis in her left leg during pregnancy has an uneventful delivery. During the pregnancy she was treated with low molecular weight heparin. Just after delivery her left leg is pain free and is not swollen. She plans to resume normal activities soon. Which one of the following would be most appropriate with regard to anticoagulation? (check one) A. Discontinuing treatment, with no further evaluation B. Discontinuing treatment if venous Doppler ultrasonography is negative for thrombus C. Continuing low molecular weight heparin for 6 more weeks D. Switching to low-dose unfractionated heparin for 6 weeks E. Switching to aspirin for 6 weeks

C. Continuing low molecular weight heparin for 6 more weeks. The risk of pulmonary embolism continues in the postpartum period, and may actually increase during that time. For patients who have had a deep-vein thrombosis during pregnancy, treatment should be continued for 6 weeks after delivery, with either warfarin or low molecular weight heparin.

During a routine prenatal visit, a patient at 28 weeks gestation describes a worsening pain in her lower back and pelvic area. She is averse to analgesics but is eager to try exercise to relieve the pain. Additional patient history and an examination confirm that the pain is not due to underlying medical problems. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate exercise prescription for this patient? (check one) A. Isometric exercise B. Concentric exercise C. Core stability exercise D. Closed kinetic chain exercise E. Isotonic exercise

C. Core stability exercise. Low back pain and pelvic pain are commonly encountered in pregnancy, a time when medication or physical modality use may prove undesirable or difficult. A properly prescribed exercise program is a generally safe and effective method to treat this pain. The most appropriate exercises for pregnancyrelated pelvic pain and low back pain target the low back, trunk, and abdominal muscles to increase core stability. Examples of such exercises include Pilates, back extension exercises, and abdominal crunches.Isometric and isotonic exercises work muscle groups against either an external force or opposing muscle groups, and are best suited for the development of muscle tone, strength, and conditioning in the extremities. Likewise, concentric and closed kinetic chain exercises involve working muscles against resistance, and are best suited for rehabilitating and strengthening the extremities.

A 68-year-old female is being monitored in the hospital after elective surgery. On her third postoperative day she suddenly develops hypoxia, fever, tachycardia, and hypotension. You institute high-rate intravenous fluids and empiric antibiotics. However, approximately 2 hours into this therapy, her blood pressure remains at 80 mm Hg systolic with sluggish urine output. Which one of the following hormones should be assessed at this time? (check one) A. Aldosterone B. Catecholamines C. Cortisol D. Renin E. TSH

C. Cortisol. It has been recognized that patients suffering from a critical illness with an exaggerated inflammatory response often have a relative cortisol deficiency. Clinically, this can cause hypotension that is resistant to intravenous fluid resuscitation, and evidence is mounting that survival is increased if these patients are treated with intravenous corticosteroids during acute management. Cortisol levels can be assessed with a single serum reading, or by the change in the cortisol level after stimulation with cosyntropin (referred to as Δcortisol). The other hormones listed are not important for the acute management of a critically ill patient.

A 68-year-old African-American female with primary hypothyroidism is taking levothyroxine (Synthroid), 125 μg/day. Her TSH level is 0.2μU/mL (N 0.5-5.0). She has no symptoms of either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. Continuing levothyroxine at the same dosage B. Increasing the levothyroxine dosage C. Decreasing the levothyroxine dosage D. Discontinuing levothyroxine E. Ordering a free T 4

C. Decreasing the levothyroxine dosage. Because of the precise relationship between circulating thyroid hormone and pituitary TSH secretion, measurement of serum TSH is essential in the management of patients receiving levothyroxine therapy. Immunoassays can reliably distinguish between normal and suppressed concentrations of TSH. In a patient receiving levothyroxine, a low TSH level usually indicates overreplacement. If this occurs, the dosage should be reduced slightly and the TSH level repeated in 2-3 months' time. There is no need to discontinue therapy in this situation, and repeating the TSH level in 2 weeks would not be helpful. A free T4 level would also be unnecessary, since it is not as sensitive as a TSH level for detecting mild states of excess thyroid hormone.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 47 ======================================================= The mother of a 16-year-old male calls to report that her son has a severe sore throat and has been running a fever of 102°F. Which one of the following additional findings would be most specific for peritonsillar abscess? (check one) A. A 1-day duration of illness B. Ear pain C. Difficulty opening his mouth D. Hoarseness E. Pain with swallowing

C. Difficulty opening his mouth. Trismus is almost universally present with peritonsillar abscess, while voice changes, otalgia, and odynophagia may or may not be present. Pharyngotonsillitis and peritonsillar cellulitis may also be associated with these complaints. Otalgia is common with peritonsillar abscess, otitis media, temporomandibular joint disorders, and a variety of other conditions. Peritonsillar abscess is rarely found in patients who do not have at least a 3-day history of progressive sore throat.

Of the following, which one is the most common adverse event to complicate the hospital course of patients age 65 and over? (check one) A. Falls B. Wound infections C. Drug-related events D. Procedure-related events E. Anesthesia-related events

C. Drug-related events. It has been observed that drug-related problems are the most common type of adverse event, and for hospitalized patients the rate of these events increases with the patient's age. One study showed that in patients who are >65 years of age, the number of events per 1000 discharges was 11.46 for drug-related events, 6.15 for wound infection, 3.85 for procedure-related events, 3.19 for falls, and 0.09 for anesthesia-related events.

A 52-year-old male presents with a small nodule in his palm just proximal to the fourth metacarpophalangeal joint. It has grown larger since it first appeared, and he now has mild flexion of the finger, which he is unable to straighten. He reports that his father had similar problems with his fingers. On examination you note pitting of the skin over the nodule. The most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. degenerative joint disease B. trigger finger C. Dupuytren's contracture D. a ganglion E. flexor tenosynovitis

C. Dupuytren's contracture. Dupuytren's contracture is characterized by changes in the palmar fascia, with progressive thickening and nodule formation that can progress to a contracture of the associated finger. The fourth finger is most commonly affected. Pitting or dimpling can occur over the nodule because of the connection with the skin. Degenerative joint disease is not associated with a palmar nodule. Trigger finger is related to the tendon, not the palmar fascia, and causes the finger to lock and release. Ganglions also affect the tendons or joints, are not located in the fascia, and are not associated with contractures. Flexor tenosynovitis, an inflammation, is associated with pain, which is not usually seen with Dupuytren's contracture.

A 42-year-old female presents to the emergency department with pleuritic chest pain. Her probability of pulmonary embolism is determined to be low. Which one of the following should be ordered to further evaluate this patient? (check one) A. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) B. CT pulmonary angiography C. ELISA-based D-dimer D. A cardiac troponin level E. A ventilation-perfusion lung scan

C. ELISA-based D-dimer. Patients who have a low or moderate pretest probability of pulmonary embolism should have d-dimer testing as the next step in establishing a diagnosis.

A 73-year-old female presents with complaints of dyspnea and decreasing exercise tolerance over the past few months. She says she has to prop herself up on two pillows in order to breathe better. She also complains of palpitations, even at rest. She has long-standing hypertension, but has not taken any antihypertensive medications for several years. She has no history of ischemic heart disease. On examination her blood pressure is 155/92 mm Hg, her pulse rate is 108 beats/min and irregular, and her lungs have bibasilar crackles. An EKG reveals atrial fibrillation, but no changes of acute ischemia. Which one of the following would be most useful for determining her initial treatment? (check one) A. A chest radiograph B. Cardiac catheterization C. Echocardiography D. A TSH level E. A D-dimer level

C. Echocardiography. This patient's history and clinical examination suggest heart failure. The most important distinction to make is whether it is diastolic or systolic, as the drug treatment may be somewhat different. Physical findings and chest radiographs do not distinguish systolic from diastolic heart failure. An echocardiogram is the study of choice, as it will assess left ventricular function. In diastolic dysfunction, the left ventricular ejection fraction is normal or slightly elevated. Diastolic failure is more common in elderly females and patients with hypertension, and less common in patients with a previous history of coronary artery disease. Diuretics and angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) are useful treatments. Because of their effects on diastolic filling times, tachycardia and atrial fibrillation often cause decompensation in patients with diastolic heart failure. At this time, cardiac catheterization is not indicated, and a stress test will not provide useful information. If the patient had systolic failure, a workup for ischemic disease would be needed, but most cases of diastolic dysfunction are not caused by ischemia. While hyperthyroidism can cause tachycardia and atrial fibrillation, the more immediate issue in this patient is the heart failure, which requires diagnosis and treatment. A pulmonary embolus can cause shortness of breath but usually has an acute onset, so a D-dimer level would not help at this time.

A 24-year-old male, new to your practice, presents for a mental health evaluation. The patient has a past history of schizophrenia, diagnosed several years ago. Which one of the following, if present, would lead to a reconsideration of this diagnosis? (check one) A. Auditory hallucinations B. Loose associations C. Elated mood D. Social dysfunction E. Incoherent speech

C. Elated mood. Schizophrenia can be very difficult to definitively diagnose, and there are many subtypes. There are many sets of diagnostic criteria, but most, including DSM-IV, include the presence of thought disorders such as hallucinations, delusions, and loose associations; disorganized speech; catatonic behavior; and apathy or flat affect. (Two of these must be present to meet DSM-IV criteria.) Additionally, there must be social or occupational impairment and a minimum duration of symptoms (6 months for DSM-IV). Mood disorders, including depression, mania, and schizoaffective disorder, must be excluded in order to diagnose schizophrenia. Obviously, treatment of these disorders is very different from that of schizophrenia.

A severely depressed 77-year-old male is hospitalized after an intentional drug overdose. He was found by chance when his housekeeper returned to retrieve something she had left behind. The patient has been severely depressed since he suffered a myocardial infarction 1 year ago, and the recent death of his wife has increased his despondency. He had left a note apologizing to his family and his physician, who has treated him with multiple medications for depression over the past year. He has been treated with SSRIs, SNRIs, and atypical antipsychotics in high doses and in various combinations without significant improvement. Which one of the following would be most likely to improve this patient's depression at this point? (check one) A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy B. Psychoanalysis C. Electroconvulsive therapy D. Goal-directed psychotherapy E. Limbic stimulation

C. Electroconvulsive therapy. Electroconvulsive therapy has been shown to be more effective than psychiatric therapy, pharmacologic therapy, and other interventions in depressed older patients. It would be particularly appropriate in this case given the patient's age, his failure to respond to medications, and the need for rapid improvement to decrease the risk of further suicide attempts.

A 25-year-old white male truck driver complains of 1 day of throbbing rectal pain. Your examination shows a large, thrombosed external hemorrhoid. Which one of the following is the preferred initial treatment for this patient? (check one) A. Warm sitz baths, a high-residue diet, and NSAIDs B. Rubber band ligation of the hemorrhoid C. Elliptical excision of the thrombosed hemorrhoid D. Stool softeners and a topical analgesic/hydrocortisone cream (e.g., Anusol-HC)

C. Elliptical excision of the thrombosed hemorrhoid. The appropriate management of a thrombosed hemorrhoid presenting within 48 hours of onset of symptoms is an elliptical excision of the hemorrhoid and overlying skin under local anesthesia (i.e., 0.5% bupivacaine hydrochloride [Marcaine] in 1:200,000 epinephrine) infiltrated slowly with a small (27 gauge) needle for patient comfort. Incision and clot removal may provide inadequate drainage with rehemorrhage and clot reaccumulation. Most thrombosed hemorrhoids contain multilocular clots which may not be accessible through a simple incision. Rubber band ligation is an excellent technique for management of internal hemorrhoids. Banding an external hemorrhoid would cause exquisite pain. When pain is already subsiding or more time has elapsed (in the absence of necrosis or ulceration), measures such as sitz baths, bulk laxatives, stool softeners, and local analgesia may all be helpful. Some local anesthetics carry the risk of sensitization, however counseling to avoid precipitating factors (e.g., prolonged standing/sitting, constipation, delay of defecation) is also appropriate.

A 78-year-old male presents for a routine follow-up visit for hypertension. He is a smoker, but has no known coronary artery disease and is otherwise healthy. On examination you note an irregular pulse. An EKG reveals multiple premature ventricular contractions (PVCs), but no other abnormalities. Current guidelines recommend which one of the following? (check one) A. Amiodarone (Cordarone) for suppression of PVCs B. Flecainide (Tambocor) for suppression of PVCs C. Evaluation for underlying coronary artery disease D. No further evaluation or treatment

C. Evaluation for underlying coronary artery disease. In patients with no known coronary artery disease (CAD), the presence of frequent premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) is linked to acute myocardial infarction and sudden death. The Framingham Heart Study defines frequent as >30 PVCs per hour. The American College of Cardiology and the American Heart Association recommend evaluation for CAD in patients who have frequent PVCs and cardiac risk factors, such as hypertension and smoking (SOR C). Evaluation for CAD may include stress testing, echocardiography, and ambulatory rhythm monitoring (SOR C). Strong evidence from randomized, controlled trials suggests that PVCs should not be suppressed with antiarrhythmic agents. The CAST I trial showed that using encainide or flecainide to suppress PVCs increases mortality (SOR A).

A 16-year-old male is brought to your office by his mother for "stomachaches." On review of systems, he also complains of headaches, occasional bedwetting, and trouble sleeping. His examination is within normal limits. His mother says that he is often in the nurse's office at school, and doesn't seem to have any friends. After some questions from you, he admits to being called names and teased at school. Which one of the following would be most appropriate? (check one) A. Explain that he must try to conform to be more popular B. Explain that these symptoms are a stress reaction and will lessen with time C. Explore whether his school counselor has a process to address this problem D. Order a TSH level

C. Explore whether his school counselor has a process to address this problem. Childhood bullying has potentially serious implications for bullies and their targets. The target children are typically quiet and sensitive, and may be perceived to be weak and different. Children who say they are being bullied must be believed and reassured that they have done the right thing in acknowledging the problem. Parents should be advised to discuss the situation with school personnel. Bullying is extremely difficult to resolve. Confronting bullies and expecting victims to conform are not successful approaches. The presenting symptoms are not temporary, and in fact can progress to serious issues such as suicide, substance abuse, and victim-to-bully transformation. These are not signs or symptoms of thyroid disease. The Olweus Bullying Program developed in Norway is a well documented, effective program for reducing bullying among elementary and junior-high-school students by altering social norms and by changing school responses to bullying incidents, including efforts to protect and support victims. Students who have been bullied regularly are most likely to carry weapons to school, be in frequent fights, and eventually be injured.

In a patient with microcytic anemia, which one of the following patterns of laboratory abnormalities would be most consistent with iron deficiency as the underlying cause? (check one) A. Ferritin low, total iron binding capacity (TIBC) low, serum iron low B. Ferritin low, TIBC low, serum iron high C. Ferritin low, TIBC high, serum iron low D. Ferritin high, TIBC low, serum iron low

C. Ferritin low, TIBC high, serum iron low. Ferritin and serum iron levels fall with iron deficiency. Total iron binding capacity rises, indicating a greater capacity for iron to bind to transferrin (the plasma protein that binds to iron for transport throughout the body) when iron levels are low.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 30 ======================================================= A 53-year-old male presents to your office with a several-day history of hiccups. They are not severe, but have been interrupting his sleep, and he is becoming exasperated. What should be the primary focus of treatment in this individual? (check one) A. Drug treatment to prevent recurrent episodes B. Decreasing the intensity of the muscle contractions in the diaphragm C. Finding the underlying pathology causing the hiccups D. Improving the patient's quality of sleep E. Suppressing the current hiccup symptoms

C. Finding the underlying pathology causing the hiccups. Hiccups are caused by a respiratory reflex that originates from the phrenic and vagus nerves, as well as the thoracic sympathetic chain. Hiccups that last a matter of hours are usually benign and self-limited, and may be caused by gastric distention. Treatments usually focus on interrupting the reflex loop of the hiccup, and can include mechanical means (e.g., stimulating the pharynx with a tongue depressor) or medical treatment, although only chlorpromazine is FDA-approved for this indication. If the hiccups have lasted more than a couple of days, and especially if they are waking the patient up at night, there may be an underlying pathology causing the hiccups. In one study, 66% of patients who experienced hiccups for longer than 2 days had an underlying physical cause. Identifying and treating the underlying disorder should be the focus of management for intractable hiccups.

Which one of the following is the preferred treatment for patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder? (check one) A. Lithium carbonate B. Alprazolam (Xanax) C. Fluoxetine (Prozac) D. Amitriptyline (Elavil) E. Valproic acid (Depakene)

C. Fluoxetine (Prozac). Obsessive-compulsive disorder is characterized by obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors that impair everyday functioning. SSRIs such as fluoxetine and fluvoxamine are FDA-approved and considered first-line agents in the treatment of this condition. None of the other agents listed is recommended for the treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder. Lithium is useful in bipolar disease and depression, alprazolam is used in generalized anxiety and panic disorder, and amitriptyline is used in depression and chronic pain syndromes. Valproic acid is primarily an anti-epileptic agent.

The parents of a young child ask your advice about the need for fluoride supplementation in order to prevent tooth decay. Which one of the following is true regarding current U.S. Preventive Services Task Force guidelines for fluoride supplementation? (check one) A. It is not recommended due to potential fluoride toxicity B. Dental fluoride varnish is too toxic for routine use C. Oral fluoride supplementation is recommended if the primary drinking water source is low in fluoride D. Fluoridated toothpaste provides adequate protection if used as soon as the child has teeth E. The need for fluoride supplementation is determined by serum fluoride levels

C. Oral fluoride supplementation is recommended if the primary drinking water source is low in fluoride. The current (2004) recommendation of the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) is that children over the age of 6 months receive oral fluoride supplementation if the primary drinking water source is deficient in fluoride. The USPSTF cites "fair" evidence (B recommendation) that such supplementation reduces the incidence of dental caries and concludes that the overall benefit outweighs the potential harm from dental fluorosis. Dental fluorosis is chiefly a cosmetic staining of the teeth, is uncommon with currently recommended fluoride intake, and has no other functional or physiologic consequences. Fluoridated toothpaste can cause fluorosis in children younger than 2 years of age, and is therefore not recommended in this age group. Fluoridated toothpaste by itself does not reliably prevent tooth decay. Fluoride varnish, applied by a dental or medical professional, is another treatment option to prevent caries. It provides longer-lasting protection than fluoride rinses, but since it is less concentrated, it may carry a lower risk of fluorosis than other forms of supplementation. Oral fluoride supplementation for children over the age of 6 months is based not only on age but on the concentration of fluoride in the primary source of drinking water, whether it be tap water or bottled water. Most municipal water supplies in the United States are adequately fluoridated, but concentrations vary. Fluoride concentrations in bottled water vary widely. If the concentration is >0.6 ppm no supplementation is needed, and may result in fluorosis if given. Lower concentrations of fluoride may indicate the need for partial or full-dose supplementation.

The parents of three children ask your advice about the need for fluoride supplementation in order to prevent tooth decay. Which one of the following is true regarding current U.S. Preventive Services Task Force guidelines for fluoride supplementation? (check one) A. It is not recommended due to potential fluoride toxicity B. Dental fluoride varnish is too toxic for routine use C. Oral fluoride supplementation is recommended if the primary drinking water source is low in fluoride D. Fluoridated toothpaste provides adequate protection if used as soon as the child has teeth E. The need for fluoride supplementation is determined by serum fluoride levels

C. Oral fluoride supplementation is recommended if the primary drinking water source is low in fluoride. The current (2004) recommendation of the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force is that children over the age of 6 months receive oral fluoride supplementation if the primary drinking water source is deficient in fluoride. They cite fair evidence (B recommendation) that such supplementation reduces the incidence of dental caries and conclude that the overall benefit outweighs the potential harm from dental fluorosis. Dental fluorosis is chiefly a cosmetic staining of the teeth, is uncommon with currently recommended doses, and has no other functional or physiologic consequences. Fluoridated toothpaste can cause fluorosis in children younger than 2 years of age, and is therefore not recommended in this age group. By itself it does not reliably prevent tooth decay. Fluoride varnish, applied by a dental or medical professional, is another treatment option to prevent caries. It provides longer lasting protection than fluoride rinses, but since it is less concentrated, it may carry a lower risk of fluorosis than other forms of supplementation. Oral fluoride supplementation for children over the age of 6 months is based not only on age but on the concentration of fluoride in the primary source of drinking water, whether it be tap water or bottled water. Most municipal water supplies in the U.S. are adequately fluoridated, but concentrations vary. Fluoride concentrations in bottled water vary widely. If the concentration is greater than 0.6 ppm no supplementation is needed, and if given, may result in fluorosis. Lower concentrations of fluoride may indicate the need for partial or full-dose supplementation.

A 75-year-old white female presents with hyponatremia, with a serum level of 118 mEq/L, a urine osmolality >100 mOsm/kg H2O, and a serum osmolality of 242 mOsm/kg H2O. She complains of some fatigue, but is alert and oriented. Her blood pressure is 136/82 mm Hg. She has normal thyroid, adrenal, cardiac, hepatic, and renal function. You admit her to the hospital for treatment and observation. Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment? (check one) A. Administration of 3% normal saline B. Administration of normal saline C. Free water restriction D. Demeclocycline (Declomycin)

C. Free water restriction. This patient probably has the syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). SIADH can be caused by CNS tumors, various infections such as meningitis, and pneumonia. Several drugs can cause this condition, including amiodarone, carbamazepine, SSRIs, and chlorpromazine. In this fairly asymptomatic patient, initial management should be free water restriction. As she is hemodynamically stable, she does not need normal saline. Moreover, administration of normal saline may exacerbate the hyponatremia, as the sodium may be rapidly excreted while the water is retained. If she had a rapid onset and neurologic symptoms such as seizures, hypertonic saline could be given. Correction should be slow, with a goal of no more than a 1-2 mmol/L/hr increase in the sodium level; a normal sodium level should not be reached within the first 48 hours of treatment. Demeclocycline is appropriate for patients who cannot adhere to the requirement for fluid restriction, or who have recalcitrant hyponatremia despite restriction. References: 1) Goh KP: Management of hyponatremia. Am Fam Physician 2004;69(10):2387-2394. 2) Ellison DH, Berl T: The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis. N Engl J Med 2007;356(20):2064-2072.

Which one of the following confirmed findings in a 3-year-old female is diagnostic of sexual abuse? (check one) A. Bacterial vaginosis B. Genital herpes C. Gonorrhea D. Anogenital warts E. Hepatitis

C. Gonorrhea. The diagnosis of any sexually transmitted or associated infection in a postnatal prepubescent child should raise immediate suspicion of sexual abuse and prompt a thorough physical evaluation, detailed historical inquiry, and testing for other common sexually transmitted diseases. Gonorrhea, syphilis, and postnatally acquired Chlamydia or HIV are virtually diagnostic of sexual abuse, although it is possible for perinatal transmission of Chlamydia to result in infection that can go unnoticed for as long as 2-3 years. Although a diagnosis of genital herpes, genital warts, or hepatitis B should raise a strong suspicion of possible inappropriate contact and should be reported to the appropriate authorities, other forms of transmission are common. Genital warts or herpes may result from autoinoculation, and most cases of hepatitis B appear to be contracted from nonsexual household contact. Bacterial vaginosis provides only inconclusive evidence for sexual contact, and is the only one of the options listed for which reporting is neither required nor strongly recommended.

The use of automated external defibrillators by lay persons in out-of-hospital settings: (check one) A. Has been frustrated by liability concerns B. Has been hampered by an unwillingness to place the devices in public areas C. Has been shown to contribute to significant gains in full neurologic and functional recovery D. Has been eclipsed by the widespread use of internal cardiac defibrillators in high-risk patients

C. Has been shown to contribute to significant gains in full neurologic and functional recovery. The use of automated external defibrillators (AEDs) by lay persons, trained and otherwise, has been quite successful, with up to 40% of those treated recovering full neurologic and functional capacity. At present, 45 states have passed Good Samaritan laws covering the use of AEDs by well-intentioned lay persons. There are initiatives for widespread placement of AEDs, to include commercial airlines and other public facilities. Implantable cardioverter defibrillators (ICDs) are useful in known at-risk patients, but the use of AEDs is for the population at large.

A 6-year-old white male visits your office with chief complaints of a recent onset of fever, bilateral knee and ankle pain, colicky abdominal pain, and rash. On examination, his temperature is 38.3 degrees C (101.0 degrees F), and there is a prominent palpable reddish-brown rash on the buttocks and thighs. There is pain on motion of his knees and ankles, and mild diffuse abdominal tenderness. The stool is positive for occult blood. Laboratory Findings Hemoglobin 11.0 g/dL (N 11.5-13.5) Hematocrit 33% (N 34-40) WBCs 14,500/mm3 (N 5500-15,000); 85% segs, 15% lymphs Platelets 345,000/mm3 (N 150,000-400,000) Prothrombin time 12 sec (N 11-15) Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Systemic onset juvenile rheumatoid arthritis B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever C. Henoch-Schonlein purpura D. Disseminated anthrax E. Acute iron ingestion

C. Henoch-Schonlein purpura. Henoch-Schonlein purpura typically follows an upper respiratory tract infection, and presents with low-grade fever, fatigue, arthralgia, and colicky abdominal pain. The hallmark of the disease is the rash, which begins as pink maculopapules, progresses to petechiae or purpura, which are clinically palpable, and changes in color from red to dusty brown before fading. Arthritis, usually involving the knees and ankles, is present in two-thirds of cases, and gastrointestinal tract involvement results in heme-positive stools in 50% of cases. Laboratory findings are not specific or diagnostic, and include indications of mild to moderate thrombocytosis, leukocytosis, and anemia, and an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Treatment is typically symptomatic and supportive, although corticosteroids are indicated in the rare patient with life-threatening gastrointestinal or central nervous system manifestations. Systemic juvenile-onset rheumatoid arthritis usually presents with an evanescent salmon-pink rash. Rocky Mountain spotted fever does not present with arthritis and the rash begins distally on the legs. Iron ingestion does not typically cause a rash, fever, or arthritis. Disseminated anthrax does not present with a rash and joint symptoms.

A 25-year-old female at 36 weeks gestation presents for a routine prenatal visit. Her blood pressure is 118/78 mm Hg and her urine has no signs of protein or glucose. Her fundal height shows appropriate fetal size and she says that she feels well. On palpation of her legs, you note 2+ pitting edema bilaterally. Which one of the following is true regarding this patient's condition? (check one) A. You should order a 24-hr urine for protein B. A workup for possible cardiac abnormalities is necessary C. Her leg swelling requires no further evaluation D. She most likely has preeclampsia E. She most likely has deep venous thrombosis

C. Her leg swelling requires no further evaluation. Lower-extremity edema is common in the last trimester of normal pregnancies and can be treated symptomatically with compression stockings. Edema has been associated with preeclampsia, but the majority of women who have lower-extremity edema with no signs of elevated blood pressure will not develop preeclampsia or eclampsia. For this reason, edema has recently been removed from the diagnostic criteria for preeclampsia. Disproportionate swelling in one leg versus another, especially associated with leg pain, should prompt a workup for deep venous thrombosis but is unlikely given this patient's presentation, as are cardiac or renal conditions.

A 12-year-old male middle-school wrestler comes to your office complaining of a recurrent painful rash on his arm. There appear to be several dry vesicles. The most likely diagnosis is which one of the following? (check one) A. Molluscum contagiosum B. Human papillomavirus C. Herpes gladiatorum D. Tinea corporis E. Mat burn

C. Herpes gladiatorum. The most common infection transmitted person-to-person in wrestlers is herpes gladiatorum caused by the herpes simplex virus. Molluscum contagiosum causes keratinized plugs. Human papillomavirus causes warts. Tinea corporis is ringworm, which is manifested by round to oval raised areas with central clearing. Mat burn is an abrasion.

Which one of the following laboratory test results would confirm a diagnosis of vitamin B12 deficiency? (check one) A. Low epogen B. Low folic acid C. High methylmalonic acid (MMA) D. Low homocysteine E. A normal peripheral smear

C. High methylmalonic acid (MMA). Patients with renal failure often have normal vitamin B12 levels despite an actual deficiency. In this situation, the clinician can order a methylmalonic acid (MMA) level to confirm the diagnosis. Vitamin B12 is the necessary coenzyme in the metabolism of MMA to succinyl-CoA. Thus, in the absence of vitamin B12, MMA levels increase. Additionally, homocysteine levels would be elevated in the presence of vitamin B12 deficiency (SOR A).

A 25-year-old medical student reads about the benefits of moderate alcohol consumption on lipid levels and begins to drink 5 ounces of red wine a day, adding 100 calories to his diet. Assuming that his diet and exercise levels stay the same, what effect will the additional 3000 calories a month have on his body weight over the next 10 years? (check one) A. They will have essentially no effect B. His weight will increase by about 25 kg C. His weight will increase slightly then stabilize D. His normal caloric expenditure will decrease

C. His weight will increase slightly then stabilize. There is not a direct relation between daily calorie consumption and weight. An adult male consuming an extra 100 calories a day above his caloric need will not continue to gain weight indefinitely; rather, his weight will increase to a certain point and then become constant. Fat must be fed, and maintaining the newly created tissue requires an increase in caloric expenditure. An extra 100 calories a day will result in a weight gain of approximately 5 kg, which will then be maintained.

A 13-year-old white female reports a 6-month history of intermittent abdominal cramping, with each episode becoming progressively worse. Based on her history, there is no obvious relationship to eating, voiding, or defecating. She reports that she has not yet begun menstruating and is not sexually active. Her weight has been stable. She appears to be in mild emotional distress about being "the last girl in her class to have a period." She is in no physical discomfort and her vital signs are normal. Secondary sexual characteristics appear to be developing normally. She is in the 57th percentile for height and the 65th percentile for weight. A complete physical examination confirms your presumptive diagnosis. The therapeutic procedure of choice would be: (check one) A. Appendectomy B. Colonoscopy C. Hymenotomy D. Cystoscopy E. Paracentesis

C. Hymenotomy. The key to making a diagnosis of imperforate hymen, aside from the obvious finding on physical examination, lies in the systematic drawing of inferences. One can speculate that this patient's recurrent crescendo abdominal cramping represented six menstrual sheddings, with no egress from the body. Her delay in menarche, despite normal growth parameters, offers another clue that structural amenorrhea is present. Amounts of retained blood vary among patients; up to 3000 mL have been reported. A large volume can accumulate without causing any permanent damage, and subsequent fertility is usually normal. Hymenotomy will relieve the pressure, and normal menses should ensue.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 82 ======================================================= A 75-year-old African-American female is diagnosed with macular degeneration. She is being treated for type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypothyroidism, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and gout. Which one of her conditions is associated with macular degeneration? (check one) A. Type 2 diabetes mellitus B. Hypothyroidism C. Hypertension D. Gout

C. Hypertension. Age-related macular degeneration is the most common cause of blindness in the older population. It occurs more frequently in light-skinned individuals than in dark-skinned individuals. Risk factors include smoking and hypertension.

A 40-year-old male who recently immigrated from central Africa presents to a public health clinic where you are working. He was referred by a physician in the local emergency department, who made a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. The patient has no history of fever or night sweats, weight loss, or cough. He does have a history of receiving bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine in the past. Screening tests for HIV and hepatitis performed in the emergency department were negative. Which one of the following is true regarding screening for latent tuberculosis infection by in vitro interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA) compared to screening by the traditional targeted tuberculin skin test (TST) in this patient? (check one) A. Both tests require subjective interpretation B. BCG interferes with IGRA results C. IGRA differentiates Mycobacterium tuberculosis from nontuberculous mycobacteria D. IGRA results are valid if the sample is analyzed within 24 hours E. IGRA should be done in tandem with TST

C. IGRA differentiates Mycobacterium tuberculosis from nontuberculous mycobacteria. In vitro interferon-gamma release assays (IGRAs) are a new way of screening for latent tuberculosis infection. One of the advantages of IGRA is that it targets antigens specific to Mycobacterium tuberculosis. These proteins are absent from the BCG vaccine strains and from commonly encountered nontuberculous mycobacteria. Unlike skin testing, the results of IGRA are objective. It is unnecessary for IGRA to be done in tandem with skin testing, and it eliminates the need for two-step testing in high-risk patients. IGRAs are labor intensive, however, and the blood sample must be received by a qualified laboratory and incubated with the test antigens within 8-16 hours of the time it was drawn,depending upon the brand of cuurently available IGRAs

Which one of the following statements regarding nutrition during pregnancy is correct? (check one) A. Maternal age is not related to nutritional status B. In an uncomplicated pregnancy, iron supplementation is most important during the first trimester C. In nonobese women, lack of weight gain is associated with an increased risk of fetal growth retardation D. Vitamin B12 is the only vitamin supplementation required with the usual diet during pregnancy E. Adding extra salt to foods must be avoided

C. In nonobese women, lack of weight gain is associated with an increased risk of fetal growth retardation. The greatest demand for iron is during the latter half of pregnancy. Only vegetarians and those with actual serum vitamin B12 deficiency require vitamin B12 supplementation. Unless there are complications, e.g., hypertension or cardiovascular disease, there is no reason the pregnant patient cannot salt her food to taste. Obstetric risk factors for teenagers include poor nutrition, smoking, alcohol and drug abuse, and genital infections. In women of average or low weight, lack of weight gain throughout pregnancy is often associated with fetal growth retardation.

A 41-year-old male trips on a curb while running, sustaining an inversion ankle injury. According to the Ottawa ankle rules, which one of the following would be an indication for radiographic evaluation? (check one) A. Tenderness at the anterior talofibular ligament B. Point tenderness over the cuboid C. Inability to take four steps either immediately after the injury or while in your office D. Bony tenderness at the anterior aspect of the distal tibia E. Point tenderness over the base of the fourth metatarsal

C. Inability to take four steps either immediately after the injury or while in your office. The Ottawa ankle rules have been designed and validated to reduce unnecessary radiographs. Radiographs should be obtained for all patients with an acute ankle injury who meet any of the following criteria: inability to take four steps, either immediately after the injury or when being evaluated; localized tenderness of the navicular bone or the base of the fifth metatarsal; or localized tenderness at the posterior edge or tip of either malleolus.

Which one of the following is most characteristic of patellofemoral pain syndrome in adolescent females? (check one) A. Posterior knee pain B. Pain exacerbated by walking on a flat surface C. Inadequate hip abductor strength D. A high rate of surgical intervention

C. Inadequate hip abductor strength. Patellofemoral pain syndrome is a common overuse injury observed in adolescent girls. The condition is characterized by anterior knee pain associated with activity. The pain is exacerbated by going up or down stairs or running in hilly terrain. It is associated with inadequate hip abductor and core strength; therefore, a prescription for a rehabilitation program is recommended. Surgical intervention is rarely required.

A 29-year-old gravida 2 para 1 presents for pregnancy confirmation. Her last menstrual period began 6 weeks ago. Her medical history is significant for hypothyroidism, which has been well-controlled on levothyroxine (Synthroid), 150 μg daily, for the past 2 years. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step in the treatment of this patient's hypothyroidism during her pregnancy? (check one) A. Add liothyronine (Cytomel) to her current regimen B. Decrease the levothyroxine dosage C. Increase the levothyroxine dosage D. Continue her current regimen

C. Increase the levothyroxine dosage. Maternal hypothyroidism can have serious effects on the fetus, so thyroid dysfunction should be treated during pregnancy. Because of hormonal and metabolic changes in early pregnancy, the levothyroxine dosage often needs to be increased at 4-6 weeks gestation, and the patient eventually may require a 30%-50% increase in dosage in order to maintain her euthyroid status.

A 54-year-old female takes levothyroxine (Synthroid), 0.125 mg/day, for central hypothyroidism secondary to a pituitary adenoma. The nurse practitioner in your office orders a TSH level, which is found to be 0.1 mIU/mL (N 0.5-5.0). Which one of the following would you recommend? (check one) A. Decrease the dosage of levothyroxine B. Increase the dosage of levothyroxine C. Order a free T4 level D. Order a TRH stimulation test E. Repeat the TSH level in 3 months

C. Order a free T4 level. Although uncommon, pituitary disease can cause secondary hypothyroidism. The characteristic laboratory findings are a low serum free T4 and a low TSH. A free T4 level is needed to evaluate the proper dosage of replacement therapy in secondary hypothyroidism. The TSH level is not useful for determining the adequacy of thyroid replacement in secondary hypothyroidism since the pituitary is malfunctioning. In the initial evaluation of secondary hypothyroidism, a TRH stimulation test would be useful if TSH failed to rise in response to stimulation. It is not necessary in this case, since the diagnosis has already been made.

A 19-year-old college freshman consults you at the request of her cross-country coach because she has not had a period in 2 of the last 3 months. She notes that her current training regimen is much more intense than in high school last year. She has an appropriate body image and denies caloric restriction. A pregnancy test at the student health center was negative. On examination she is lean and highly trained. Her examination is otherwise normal. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate recommendation for this patient? (check one) A. Estrogen supplementation B. Cyclic oral contraceptive pills C. Increased caloric intake D. Bisphosphonate therapy E. Discontinuation of elite-level athletics

C. Increased caloric intake. This patient has exercise-related oligomenorrhea, but does not have the eating disorder that characterizes the female athlete triad. Menstrual problems in athletes do correlate with bone density loss and impaired recovery from exercise. Additionally, menstrual irregularity of varying severity is extremely common in female distance runners, perhaps affecting as many as 60%. Hormonal manipulation has not been shown to affect bone density, though it may produce withdrawal bleeding. Bisphosphonate therapy has been shown to be ineffective, and is not recommended in women of child-bearing age. The main issue in well-nourished female athletes seems to be that energy intake is not increased to match energy expenditures at high levels of training. Unlike those with the female athlete triad, there is little evidence that athletes without eating disorders suffer substantial harm from exercise-induced menstrual problems. Ending an athletic career for this reason alone is not justified.

Patients with rheumatoid arthritis should be screened for tuberculosis before starting which one of the following medications? (check one) A. Gold B. Hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) C. Infliximab (Remicade) D. Methotrexate (Rheumatrex) E. Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)

C. Infliximab (Remicade). Tumor necrosis factor inhibitors have been associated with an increased risk of infections, including tuberculosis. This class of agents includes monoclonal antibodies such as infliximab, adalimumab, certolizumab pegol, and golimumab. Patients should be screened for tuberculosis and hepatitis B and C before starting these drugs. The other drugs listed can have adverse effects, but do not increase the risk for tuberculosis.

A 47-year-old female presents to your office with a complaint of hair loss. On examination she has a localized 2-cm round area of complete hair loss on the top of her scalp. Further studies do not reveal an underlying metabolic or infectious disorder. Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment? (check one) A. Topical minoxidil (Rogaine) B. Topical immunotherapy C. Intralesional triamcinolone (Kenalog) D. Oral finasteride (Proscar) E. Oral spironolactone (Aldactone)

C. Intralesional triamcinolone (Kenalog). These findings are consistent with alopecia areata, which is thought to be caused by a localized autoimmune reaction to hair follicles. It occasionally spreads to involve the entire scalp (alopecia totalis) or the entire body (alopecia universalis). Spontaneous recovery usually occurs within 6-12 months, although areas of regrowth may be pigmented differently. Recovery is less likely if the condition persists for longer than a year, worsens, or begins before puberty. The initial treatment of choice for patients older than 10 years of age, in cases where alopecia areata affects less than 50% of the scalp, is intralesional corticosteroid injections. Minoxidil is an alternative for children younger than 10 years of age or for patients in whom alopecia areata affects more than 50% of the scalp. While topical immunotherapy is the most effective treatment for chronic severe alopecia areata, it has the potential for severe side effects and should not be used as a first-line agent. Finasteride inhibits 5 ß-reductase type 2, resulting in a decrease in dihydrotestosterone levels, and is used in the treatment of androgenic alopecia (male-pattern baldness). Similarly, spironolactone is sometimes used for androgenic alopecia because it is an aldosterone antagonist with antiandrogenic effects.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 83 ======================================================= A 4-year-old male has a fever of 1 week's duration. It has been at or slightly above 38° C (101° F) and has responded poorly to antipyretics. The patient complains of photophobia, burning in his eyes, and a sore throat. His mother also notes that his eyes look red, his lips are red and cracked, and he has a "strawberry tongue." The child's palms and soles are erythematous and the periungual regions show desquamation of the skin. He has minimally painful nodes located in the anterior cervical region, about 2×2 cm in size. A Streptococcus screen is negative. The most appropriate management at this time would be: (check one) A. Intramuscular benzathine penicillin G (Bicillin L-A), 600,000 U B. Intravenous nafcillin (Nallpen) C. Intravenous immune globulin and aspirin D. Prednisone, 2-3 mg/kg daily E. A fine-needle biopsy of the lymph nodes

C. Intravenous immune globulin and aspirin. Kawasaki disease, or mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome, is a common form of vasculitis in childhood. It is typically self-limited, with fever and acute inflammation lasting 12 days on average without therapy. However, if untreated, this illness can result in heart failure, coronary artery aneurysm, myocardial infarction, arrhythmias, or occlusion of peripheral arteries. It is most common in those under the age of 5 years. To diagnose this disease, fever must be present for 5 days or more with no other explanation. In addition, at least four of the following symptoms must be present: 1) nonexudative conjunctivitis that spares the limbus; 2) changes in the oral membranes such as diffuse erythema, injected or fissured lips, or "strawberry tongue"; 3) erythema of palms and soles, and/or edema of the hands or feet followed by periungual desquamation; 4) cervical adenopathy in the anterior cervical triangle with at least one node larger than 1.5 cm in diameter; and, 5) an erythematous polymorphous rash, which may be targetoid or purpuric in 20% of cases. The disease must be distinguished from toxic shock syndrome, streptococcal scarlet fever, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, measles, adenovirus infection, echovirus infection, and drug reactions. Treatment significantly diminishes the risk of complications. Current recommendations are to hospitalize the patient for treatment with intravenous immune globulin. In addition, aspirin is used for both its anti-inflammatory and antithrombolitic effects. While prednisone is used to treat other forms of vasculitis, it is considered unsafe in Kawasaki disease, as a previous study showed an extraordinarily high rate of coronary artery aneurysm with its use.

Chronic excess thyroid hormone replacement over a number of years in postmenopausal women can lead to: (check one) A. Diffuse nontoxic goiter B. Osteoarthritis C. Osteoporosis D. Hyperparathyroidism

C. Osteoporosis. Even mild chronic excess thyroid hormone replacement over many years can cause bone mineral resorption, increase serum calcium levels, and lead to osteoporosis. The elevated calcium decreases parathyroid hormone. Goiter is an indicator, not a cause, for hormone replacement. Osteoarthritis is not related to thyroid hormone replacement.

Which one of the following is true regarding the risk of physical spouse abuse? (check one) A. It decreases during pregnancy B. It decreases when a woman exits an abusive relationship C. It increases with alcohol and substance abuse D. It increases as socioeconomic status rises E. It is higher among patients from racial minorities

C. It increases with alcohol and substance abuse. Pregnancy represents a time of heightened risk for battery, and prompts a shift in the area of physical abuse from the head and neck to the breasts and abdomen. Although some studies have shown a higher prevalence of partner abuse among minority women, a National Crime Victimization Survey concluded that women of all races and ethnic backgrounds are equally likely to be abused by an intimate. Alcohol and/or substance abuse is a significant risk factor associated with the occurrence of partner abuse and family violence in general. Less education and lower occupational status or income (particularly when total family income is less than $10,000 per year) have been found to increase the risk of violence. Women who have separated from their spouses are 3 times more likely to be victimized than are those who are already divorced and 25 times more likely than women who are married. A woman's danger substantially increases at the point of exiting an abusive relationship.

A 21-year-old female complains of bulging veins in her right shoulder region, along with swelling and a "tingling" sensation in her right arm that has developed over the past 2 days. There were no unusual events other than her regular workouts with her swim team. Ultrasonography confirms an upper extremity deep-vein thrombosis of her right axillary vein. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate treatment? (check one) A. Intravenous heparin for 72 hours, followed by oral warfarin (Coumadin) for 3 months B. Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) subcutaneously for 5 days only C. LMWH subcutaneously for at least 5 days, followed by oral warfarin for 3 months D. LMWH subcutaneously for at least 5 days, followed by oral warfarin indefinitely E. Oral warfarin for 3 months

C. LMWH subcutaneously for at least 5 days, followed by oral warfarin for 3 months. Upper extremity deep-vein thrombosis (UE-DVT) accounts for 4% of all cases of DVT. Catheter-related thromboses make up the majority of these cases. Occult cancer, use of oral contraceptives, and inheritable thrombophilia are other common explanations. Another proposed risk factor is the repetitive compression of the axillary-subclavian vein in athletes or laborers, which is the most likely cause of this patient's UE-DVT. Taken as a whole, UE-DVT is generally associated with fewer venous complications, including less chance for thromboembolism, postphlebitic syndrome, and recurrence compared to lower-extremity deep-vein thrombosis (LE-DVT). However, the rates of these complications are still high enough that most experts recommend treatment identical to that of LE-DVT. Specifically, heparin should be given for 5 days, and an oral vitamin-K antagonist for at least 3 months.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 61 ======================================================= A 35-year-old male consults you about a vague chest pain he developed while sitting at his desk earlier in the day. The pain is right-sided and was sharp for a brief time when it began, but it rapidly subsided. There was no hemoptysis and the pain does not seem pleuritic. His physical examination, EKG, and oxygen saturation are unremarkable. A chest film shows a 10% right pneumothorax. Which one of the following is true in this situation? (check one) A. He is likely to be an overweight smoker with a chronic cough B. Rupture of subpleural bullae would be an unlikely cause of his problem C. Outpatient observation with a repeat chest radiograph in 24 hours is indicated D. A chest tube should be placed expeditiously E. After treatment his probability of recurrence is less than 15%

C. Outpatient observation with a repeat chest radiograph in 24 hours is indicated. The majority of patients presenting with spontaneous pneumothorax are tall, thin individuals under 40 years of age. Most do not have clinically apparent lung disease, and the chest pain is sometimes minimal at onset and may resolve within 24 hours even if untreated. Patients with small pneumothoraces involving less than 15% of the hemithorax may have a normal physical examination, although tachycardia is occasionally noted. The diagnosis is confirmed by chest radiographs. Studies of recurrence have found that an average of 30% of patients will have a recurrence within 6 months to 2 years. The treatment of an initial pneumothorax of less than 20% may be monitored if a patient has few symptoms. Follow-up should include a chest radiograph to assess stability at 24-48 hours. Indications for treatment include progression, delayed expansion, or the development of symptoms. The majority of patients with spontaneous pneumothoraces, and perhaps almost all of them, will have subcutaneous bullae on a CT scan.

A 54-year-old male presents to the emergency department with an acute onset of chest pain. His cardiac risk factors include hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and a positive family history. His temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), pulse rate 80 beats/min, blood pressure 155/86 mm Hg, and respiratory rate 22/min. His oxygen saturation is 95% on room air. An EKG shows rare unifocal PVCs and nonspecific ST-T-wave changes. Initial cardiac markers are negative. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. Helical (spiral) CT of the chest B. Echocardiography C. PA and lateral chest films D. A ventilation-perfusion scan E. Magnetic resonance angiography

C. PA and lateral chest films. PA and lateral chest radiographs are still valuable in the early evaluation of patients with chest pain. While they do not confirm or rule out the presence of myocardial ischemia, other causes of chest pain may be evident, such as pneumothorax, pneumonia, or heart failure. The chest film may also provide clues about other possible diagnoses, such as pulmonary embolism, aortic disease, or neoplasia. The other tests listed often have a role in the evaluation of chest pain, but none has supplanted the plain chest film as the best initial imaging study.

A patient is sent to you by his employer after falling down some steps and twisting his ankle and foot. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate reason to obtain foot or ankle radiographs? (check one) A. Notable swelling and discoloration over the anterior talofibular ligament B. A complaint of marked pain with weight bearing as he walks into the examining room C. Pain in the maleolar zone and bone tenderness of the posterior medial malleolus D. The absence of passive plantar foot flexion when the calf is squeezed (Thompson test)

C. Pain in the maleolar zone and bone tenderness of the posterior medial malleolus. The Ottawa ankle and foot rules are prospectively validated decision rules that help clinicians decrease the use of radiographs for foot and ankle injuries without increasing the rate of missed fracture. The rules apply in the case of blunt trauma, including twisting injuries, falls, and direct blows. According to these guidelines, an ankle radiograph series is required only if there is pain in the malleolar zone and bone tenderness of either the distal 6 cm of the posterior edge or the tip of either the lateral malleolus or the medial malleolus. Inability to bear weight for four steps, both immediately after the injury and in the emergency department, is also an indication for ankle radiographs. Foot radiographs are required only if there is pain in the midfoot zone and bone tenderness at the base of the 5th metatarsal or the navicular, or if the patient is unable to bear weight both immediately after the injury and in the emergency department. A positive Thompson sign, seen with Achilles tendon rupture, is the absence of passive plantar foot flexion when the calf is squeezed.

Which one of the following statements regarding antidepressant drug therapy is true? (check one) A. The response rate to most antidepressants is 90%-95% B. Patients unimproved after 2 weeks should receive a different drug C. Patients unresponsive after 6 weeks should have their treatment altered D. Patients unresponsive to one class of drugs are unlikely to respond to another class E. In patients who have not improved after 6 weeks of drug therapy, depression is unlikely to be the cause of their symptoms

C. Patients unresponsive after 6 weeks should have their treatment altered. An adequate trial of antidepressant therapy is 4-6 weeks. Patients who are unresponsive to treatment may respond to another antidepressant with a different mechanism of action. Patients who are partially responsive may benefit from dosage titration or the addition of a second antidepressant in combination. Electroconvulsive therapy is the most effective treatment in patients with severe resistance to medical antidepressant therapy or those with psychotic depression.

A 30-year-old female comes to your office because she is concerned about irregular menses (fewer than 9/year), acne, and hirsutism. Her BMI is 36.0 kg/m2. She has no other medical problems and would like to have a baby. Her fasting blood glucose level is 140 mg/dL. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient's condition and concerns? (check one) A. Lifestyle modification only B. Lifestyle modification and pioglitazone (Actos) C. Lifestyle modification and metformin (Glucophage) D. Lifestyle modification and an oral contraceptive E. Lifestyle modification and oral testosterone

C. Lifestyle modification and metformin (Glucophage). This patient has classic features of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). The diagnosis is based on the presence of two of the following: oligomenorrhea or amenorrhea, clinical or biochemical hyperandrogenism, or polycystic ovaries visible on ultrasonography. Lifestyle modifications are necessary, but medications are also needed. First-line agents for the treatment of hirsutism in patients with PCOS include spironolactone, metformin, and eflornithine (SOR A). Firstline agents for ovulation induction and treatment of infertility in patients with PCOS include metformin and clomiphene, alone or in combination with rosiglitazone (SOR A). Metformin can also improve menstrual irregularities in patients with PCOS (SOR A), and is probably the first-line agent for obese patients to promote weight reduction (SOR B). In addition, metformin improves insulin resistance (diagnosed by elevated fasting blood glucose) in patients with PCOS, as do rosiglitazone and pioglitazone. Pioglitazone would not be appropriate for this patient because it causes weight gain. Oral contraceptives would improve the patient's menstrual irregularities and hirsutism, but she wishes to become pregnant. Testosterone would worsen the hyperandrogenism and would not treat the PCOS.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 53 ======================================================= A 13-year-old male presents with a 3-week history of left lower thigh and knee pain. There is no history of a specific injury, and his past medical history is negative. He has had no fevers, night sweats, or weight loss, and the pain does not awaken him at night. He tried out for the basketball team but had to quit because of the pain, which was worse when he tried to run. Which one of the following physical examination findings would be pathognomonic for slipped capital femoral epiphysis? (check one) A. Excessive forward passive motion of the tibia with the knee flexed B. Lateral displacement of the patella with active knee flexion C. Limited internal rotation of the flexed hip D. Reduced hip abduction with the hip flexed E. Inability to extend the hip past the neutral position

C. Limited internal rotation of the flexed hip. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) typically occurs in young adolescents during the growth spurt. Physical activity, obesity, and male gender are predisposing factors for the development of this condition, in which the femoral head is displaced posteriorly through the growth plate. There is pain with physical activity, most commonly in the upper thigh anteriorly, but one-third of patients present with referred lower thigh or knee pain, which can make accurate and timely diagnosis more difficult. The hallmark of SCFE on examination is limited internal rotation of the hip. Specific to SCFE is the even greater limitation of internal rotation when the hip is flexed to 90°. No other pediatric condition has this physical finding, which makes the maneuver very useful in children with lower extremity pain. Orthopedic consultation is advised if SCFE is suspected. Hip extension and abduction are also limited in SCFE, but these findings are nonspecific. The knee findings in this patient are not associated with SCFE.

A 35-year-old white male presents to the emergency department with chest pain of 30 minutes duration. He describes the pain as feeling like pressure on his chest, and says it radiates into his left arm. It is accompanied by dyspnea, diaphoresis, anxiety, and palpitations. His past medical history is unremarkable and he has no family history of premature heart disease. He smokes 2 packs of cigarettes per day and admits to intranasal cocaine use 2 hours ago. Vital signs include a blood pressure of 180/110 mm Hg, a pulse rate of 110 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 24/min, and a temperature of 37.2°C (99.0°F). Other than the anxiety and diaphoresis, the general examination is unremarkable. An EKG shows sinus tachycardia with an early repolarization pattern. Aspirin and nitroglycerin have been administered, as well as oxygen via nasal cannula. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. Nifedipine (Procardia) B. Enalaprilat intravenously C. Lorazepam (Ativan) intravenously D. Metoprolol (Toprol) intravenously E. Thrombolytic therapy

C. Lorazepam (Ativan) intravenously. Treatment of cocaine-associated chest pain is similar to that of acute coronary syndrome, unstable angina, or acute myocardial infarction, but there are exceptions. The hypertension, tachycardia, and chest pain will often respond to intravenous benzodiazepines as early management. While β-blockers are recommended for acute myocardial infarction, they can exacerbate coronary artery spasm in cocaineassociated chest pain. Fibrinolytic therapy should be given only to patients who clearly have an STsegment elevation myocardial infarction and cannot receive immediate direct percutaneous coronary intervention. Calcium channel blocker use in the setting of cocaine-induced ischemia has not been studied, but may be considered if there is no response to benzodiazepines and nitroglycerin. There are no recommendations regarding the use of ACE inhibitors, but these agents would not address the tachycardia.

A 42-year-old female brings you the results of a comprehensive metabolic profile obtained through a health screening program offered by her employer. She fasted for 8 hours prior to the test, and her blood glucose level was reported as 110 mg/dL. Her lipid values and her blood pressure were normal, but her BMI is 30.5 kg/m 2 . She currently views herself as relatively healthy and reports no symptoms consistent with diabetes mellitus during your review of systems. Additional testing reveals a hemoglobin A1c of 6.3%. Based on this data, which one of the following is most appropriate at this time? (check one) A. Order a C-peptide level B. Order an islet cell antibody level C. Recommend lifestyle modifications only D. Start low-dose glyburide (DiaBeta) daily E. Start low-dose insulin glargine (Lantus) daily

C. Recommend lifestyle modifications only. The ADA recommends testing to detect type 2 diabetes mellitus in asymptomatic adults with a BMI ≥25 kg/m 2 and one or more additional risk factors. Risk factors include physical inactivity, hypertension, an HDL-cholesterol level <35 mg/dL, a triglyceride level >250 mg/dL, a history of cardiovascular disease, a hemoglobin A 1c≥5.7%, a history of gestational diabetes or delivery of an infant weighing >4 kg (9 lb), and a history of polycystic ovary syndrome. Diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed if the patient's fasting blood glucose level is ≥126 mg/dL on two separate occasions. It can also be diagnosed if a random blood glucose level is ≥200 mg/dL if classic symptoms of diabetes are present. A fasting blood glucose level of 100-125 mg/dL, a glucose level of 140-199 mg/dL 2 hours following a 75-g glucose load, or a hemoglobin A 1c of 5.7%-6.9% signifies impaired glucose tolerance. Patients meeting these criteria have a significantly higher risk of progression to diabetes and should be counseled about lifestyle modifications such as weight loss and exercise.

Which one of the following is the most common cause of hypertension in children under 6 years of age? (check one) A. Essential hypertension B. Pheochromocytoma C. Renal parenchymal disease D. Hyperthyroidism E. Excessive caffeine use

C. Renal parenchymal disease. Although essential hypertension is most common in adolescents and adults, it is rarely found in children less than 10 years old and should be a diagnosis of exclusion. The most common cause of hypertension is renal parenchymal disease, and a urinalysis, urine culture, and renal ultrasonography should be ordered for all children presenting with hypertension. Other secondary causes, such as pheochromocytoma, hyperthyroidism, and excessive caffeine use, are less common, and further testing and/or investigation should be ordered as clinically indicated.

During a routine physical examination of a 35-year-old Asian female, you note a right adnexal fullness. She has had no symptoms of pain or bloating and has been menstruating normally. Her menses occur approximately every 30 days and her next period is expected to occur in 1 week. Pelvic ultrasonography reveals a thin-walled simple cyst 5 cm in diameter. No other abnormalities are seen in the pelvic structures. Which one of the following is the best course of management for this condition? (check one) A. Reassurance only B. Checking for any increase in adnexal fullness at her next annual physical examination C. Repeat ultrasonography in 2-3 months to confirm resolution of the cyst D. Referral for ultrasound-guided aspiration of the cyst E. Referral for laparoscopic removal of the cyst

C. Repeat ultrasonography in 2-3 months to confirm resolution of the cyst. Adnexal masses in women under 45 years of age are benign in 80%-85% of cases. The specific findings of this case also strongly suggest a benign etiology, namely a thin-walled, simple cyst, a lesion that is less than 8 cm in size, and a patient of relatively young age. No aggressive means are indicated in these situations unless there are significant clinical symptoms such as pain, abdominal pressure, urinary symptoms, or gastrointestinal symptoms. Most experts currently recommend a conservative approach with repeat ultrasonography in at least 2 months, during which time the vast majority of benign cysts resolve spontaneously.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 55 ======================================================= A 7-year-old Hispanic female has a 3-day history of a fever of 40.0°C (104.0°F), muscle aches, vomiting, anorexia, and headache. Over the past 12 hours she has developed a painless maculopapular rash that includes her palms and soles but spares her face, lips, and mouth. She has recently returned from a week at summer camp in Texas. Her pulse rate is 140 beats/min, and her blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg in the right arm while lying down. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome B. Leptospirosis C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever D. Scarlet fever E. Toxic shock syndrome

C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. While all of the diagnoses listed are in the differential, the most likely is Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF) (SOR C). It occurs throughout the United States, but is primarily found in the South Atlantic and south central states. It is most common in the summer and with exposure to tall vegetation (e.g., while camping, hiking, or gardening), and is transmitted by ticks. The diagnosis is based on clinical criteria that include fever, hypotension, rash, myalgia, vomiting, and headache (sometimes severe). The rash associated with RMSF usually appears 2-4 days after the onset of fever and begins as small, pink, blanching macules on the ankles, wrists, or forearms that evolve into maculopapules. It can occur anywhere on the body, including the palms and soles, but the face is usually spared. Mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome is a similar condition in children (usually <2 years old), but symptoms include changes in the lips and oral cavity, such as strawberry tongue, redness and cracking of the lips, and erythema of the oropharyngeal mucosa. Leptospirosis is usually accompanied by severe cutaneous hyperesthesia. The patient with scarlet fever usually has prominent pharyngitis and a fine, papular, erythematous rash. Toxic shock syndrome may present in a similar fashion, but usually in postmenarchal females.

A previously healthy 27-year-old female has had a progressive decline in social and occupational functioning over the past year, along with a withdrawal from activities. In addition, her family notes that over the past 4 months she has had paranoid delusions, exhibited disorganized speech, and heard voices. She has not had any major depressive or manic episodes. A physical examination reveals a disheveled female with a flat affect, poor eye contact, and loosely-associated speech. A toxicology screen and basic laboratory analysis are unremarkable. She is not on any medications. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Brief psychotic disorder B. Delirium C. Schizophrenia D. Mood disorder with psychotic features E. Delusional disorder

C. Schizophrenia. The diagnosis of schizophrenia requires two or more of the following characteristic symptoms (each present for a significant portion of time during a 1-month period): delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior, and negative symptoms (i.e., affective flattening, alogia, or avolition). In addition, one or more major areas of functioning, such as work, interpersonal relationships, or self-care, should be markedly below the level seen prior to the onset of symptoms. Schizoaffective and mood disorders, substance abuse, medical illness or medication-induced disorders, and pervasive developmental disorders should be ruled out. Brief psychotic disorder is characterized by the presence of delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, or grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior lasting at least 1 day but less than 1 month. Delirium may present with psychotic symptoms but is the direct physiologic consequence of a general medical condition and usually has a much shorter course. Mood disorders with psychotic features can be ruled out if no major depressive, manic, or mixed episodes have occurred concurrently with the active-phase symptoms, or if the duration of mood disturbance is brief compared to the overall duration of active and residual symptoms. Delusional disorder does not cause bizarre delusions and also lacks other characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia such as hallucinations, disorganized speech or behavior, or prominent negative symptoms.

A 38-year-old widow consults you 2 years after her husband's accidental death. She is planning to remarry and asks about the possibility of resuming the low-dose oral contraceptives she took before she was widowed. Which one of the following may contraindicate resumption of oral contraceptives? (check one) A. Her 42-year-old sister has breast cancer B. Her blood pressure is 135/88 mm Hg C. She smokes a pack of cigarettes each day D. She has a history of migraines resistant to triptans E. Her LDL/HDL ratio is 2.8

C. She smokes a pack of cigarettes each day. Oral contraceptives increase the risk of venous thromboembolic phenomena. The combination of oral contraceptives and smoking substantially increases the risk of cardiovascular disease. Caution should be exercised in prescribing oral contraceptives for women older than 35 years of age who smoke. In general, oral contraceptive use is considered absolutely contraindicated in women older than 35 who are heavy smokers. Women who smoke fewer than 15 cigarettes a day and patients with mildly elevated blood pressure and elevated lipid levels are not at increased risk for cardiovascular disease when oral contraceptives are used.

A 58-year-old male complains of leg claudication. Subsequent tests reveal that he has significant bilateral peripheral arterial disease. His current medications include atenolol (Tenormin), 50 mg/day, and aspirin, 325 mg/day. His blood pressure is 128/68 mm Hg, and his pulse rate is 64 beats/min. His LDL-cholesterol level is 123 mg/dL. The addition of which one of the following could reduce this patient's symptoms? (check one) A. Epoetin alfa (Epogen) B. Nifedipine (Procardia) C. Simvastatin (Zocor) D. Testosterone supplementation E. Warfarin (Coumadin) titrated to an INR of 2.0-3.0

C. Simvastatin (Zocor). Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is a common malady that has several proven treatments. The outcomes of these treatments can be separated into two primary categories: reducing PAD symptoms and preventing death due to systemic cardiovascular events (CVEs), especially myocardial infarction. Routine exercise up to near-maximal pain on a regular basis has been shown to be one of the most effective treatments for symptoms of PAD. Smoking cessation and aspirin are also standard recommendations, and can both prevent CVEs and slow the rate of progression of PAD symptoms. Statin drugs (specifically simvastatin and atorvastatin) have been shown to be beneficial for treatment of PAD symptoms and prevention of CVEs through the reduction of cholesterol, but they also appear to have other properties that help reduce leg pain in patients with PAD. Although lowering abnormally high blood pressure is recommended in PAD patients, only ACE inhibitors have been shown to reduce symptoms of PAD directly. Furthermore, the combination of atenolol and nifedipine has actually been shown to worsen symptoms of PAD. The addition of warfarin to aspirin has no additional benefit in either reduction of PAD symptoms or prevention of CVEs, but it may have a role in preventing clots in patients who have undergone revascularization.

A 62-year-old male presents for surgical clearance prior to transurethral resection of the prostate. His past history is significant for a pulmonary embolus after a cholecystectomy 15 years ago. His examination is unremarkable except that he is 23 kg (50 lb) overweight. The most appropriate recommendation to the urologist would be to: (check one) A. Cancel the surgery indefinitely B. Place the patient on 650 mg of aspirin daily prior to surgery C. Start the patient on subcutaneous enoxaparin (Lovenox), 40 mg 1-2 hr prior to surgery and once a day after surgery D. Start warfarin (Coumadin) after surgery with a goal INR of 1.5 E. Start intravenous heparin according to a weight-based protocol 24 hours after surgery

C. Start the patient on subcutaneous enoxaparin (Lovenox), 40 mg 1-2 hr prior to surgery and once a day after surgery. A patient with a past history of postoperative venous thromboembolism is at risk for similar events with subsequent major operations. The most appropriate treatment of the choices listed would be subcutaneous enoxaparin. Aspirin is ineffective for prophylaxis of venous thromboembolism. Warfarin is effective at an INR of 2.0-3.0. Full anticoagulation with heparin is unnecessary for prophylaxis and can result in a higher rate of postoperative hemorrhage.

A 62-year-old male with a history of prostate cancer and well-controlled hypertension presents with severe osteoporosis. At 55 years of age he received prostate brachytherapy and androgen deprivation for his prostate cancer and has been disease-free since. He presently takes lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril), 5 mg daily; alendronate (Fosamax), 70 mg weekly; calcium, 1000 mg daily; and vitamin D, 1200 units daily. He has never smoked, exercises five times a week, and maintains a healthy lifestyle. In spite of his lifestyle and the medications he takes, he continues to have severe osteoporosis on his yearly bone density tests. In addition to recommending fall precautions, which one of the following would you consider next to treat his osteoporosis? (check one) A. Testosterone B. Calcitonin C. Teriparatide (Forteo) D. Raloxifene (Evista) E. Zoledronic acid (Reclast)

C. Teriparatide (Forteo). Teriparatide is indicated for the treatment of severe osteoporosis, for patients with multiple osteoporosis risk factors, or for patients with failure of bisphosphonate therapy (SOR B). Therapy with teriparatide is currently limited to 2 years and is contraindicated in patients with a history of bone malignancy, Paget disease, hypercalcemia, or previous treatment with skeletal radiation. Its route of administration (subcutaneous) and high cost should be considered when prescribing teriparatide therapy. Testosterone therapy is contraindicated in patients with a history of prostate cancer. Zoledronic acid is a parenterally administered bisphosphonate and would not be appropriate in a patient who has already failed bisphosphonate therapy. Likewise, raloxifene and calcitonin are not indicated in patients with severe osteoporosis who have failed bisphosphonate therapy.

A mother brings in her 2-week-old infant for a well child check. She reports that she is primarily breastfeeding him, with occasional formula supplementation. Which one of the following should you advise her regarding vitamin D intake for her baby? (check one) A. Breastfed infants do not need supplemental vitamin D B. As long as the baby is taking at least 16 oz of formula per day, he does not need supplemental vitamin D C. The baby should be given 400 IU of supplemental vitamin D daily D. Intake of vitamin D in excess of 200 IU/day is potentially toxic E. Vitamin D supplementation should not be started until he is at least 6 months old

C. The baby should be given 400 IU of supplemental vitamin D daily. In 2008, the American Academy of Pediatrics increased its recommended daily intake of vitamin D in infants, children, and adolescents to 400 IU/day (SOR C). Breastfeeding does not provide adequate levels of vitamin D. Exclusive formula feeding probably provides adequate levels of vitamin D, but infants who consume less than 1 liter of formula per day need supplementation with 400 IU of vitamin D daily. Vitamin D supplementation should be started within the first 2 months of birth.

An 18-month-old white male has been brought into your office multiple times over the past year with a reported fever of over 101 degrees F (38 degrees C). The child's reported temperatures at home have usually been higher than those measured at the time of the office visit. The remainder of the history is usually unremarkable. The child has a sibling who is in good health, but another sibling died several years ago for unknown reasons. On two occasions you diagnosed acute otitis media and acute bronchitis. However, at most visits the child has not had any abnormal physical findings. Repeated laboratory studies have been within normal limits, including complete blood counts, erythrocyte sedimentation rates, blood cultures, chest radiographs, and urinalyses. Almost always, the mother has reported little reduction in fever with age-appropriate doses of acetaminophen or ibuprofen. At the last office visit the child's temperature was measured at 40.6 degrees C (105.1 degrees F). Although the examination was once again unrevealing, it was decided to hospitalize the child for close observation and evaluation by an infectious disease consultant. Closed-circuit television observation in the hospital showed the mother putting the thermometer into hot water before a nurse came to record the patient's temperature. During the hospitalization you make a diagnosis. Which one of the following is a strong indicator of the suspected final diagnosis? (check one) A. The child has seen no other health-care provider but you B. Both parents have been involved with each office visit C. The child is afebrile while staying at the day-care center D. The parents have resisted having painful or risky diagnostic tests performed on the child

C. The child is afebrile while staying at the day-care center. This is a characteristic presentation of factitious disorder by proxy, or what is commonly known as Munchausen syndrome by proxy. Warning signs for this disorder include the episodes of illness beginning only when the child is, or has recently been, with the parent; the parent taking the child to numerous caregivers, resulting in multiple diagnostic evaluations but neither cure nor definitive diagnosis; the other parent (usually the father) being notably uninvolved despite the ostensible health crises; the parent not being assured by normal test results and continually advocating for painful or risky diagnostic tests for the child; the child persistently failing to tolerate or respond to usual medical therapies; and another child in the family having an unexplained illness or childhood death.

A 23-year-old gravida 3 para 1 at 28 weeks' gestation whose blood type is O-negative is antibody positive (D antibody) on a routine 28-week screen. Which one of the following best describes the clinical significance of this finding? (check one) A. The fetus HAS hemolytic disease and requires appropriate monitoring and treatment B. The fetus is AT RISK for hemolytic disease only if the biological father is Rh-negative C. The fetus is AT RISK for hemolytic disease only if the biological father is Rh-positive D. The current fetus is NOT at risk for hemolytic disease, but subsequent pregnancies may be at risk

C. The fetus is AT RISK for hemolytic disease only if the biological father is Rh-positive. When a person is Rh negative, this indicates that they do not have type D antigen on their red blood cells. If a woman is exposed to Rh D antigen-positive red blood cells, she can have an immune response of variable strength. This may occur in the setting of pregnancy (transplacental fetomaternal transfusion), or exposure outside of pregnancy (e.g., transfusion with mismatched blood). If a maternal antibody screen for D antigen is positive, this indicates that the current fetus MAY be at risk for hemolytic disease. The level of risk is determined by the antibody titer. For example, an antibody titer of 1:4 poses much less risk to the fetus than a titer of 1:64. Determination of the blood type of the father is helpful if paternity is certain. If the father is homozygous Rh negative, there is no risk of alloimmunization to the fetus and the fetus is NOT at risk for hemolytic disease. In this scenario, maternal sensitization occurred either from a prior pregnancy with a different partner or from another source (e.g., transfusion). If the father is heterozygous or homozygous Rh positive, then the fetus IS at risk. If paternity is uncertain, a polymerase chain reaction can be performed on 2 mL of amniotic fluid or 5 mL of chorionic villi to accurately determine the fetal Rh status.

In prescribing an exercise program for elderly, community-dwelling patients, it is important to note that: (check one) A. Graded exercise stress testing should be done before beginning the program B. Target heart rates should be 80% of the predicted maximum C. The initial routines can be as short as 6 minutes repeated throughout the day and still be beneficial D. Treadmill walking is especially beneficial to patients with peripheral neuropathy

C. The initial routines can be as short as 6 minutes repeated throughout the day and still be beneficial. Initial exercise routines for the elderly can be as short as 6 minutes in duration. Even 30 minutes per week of exercise has been shown to be beneficial. Graded exercise testing need not be done, especially if low-level exercise is planned. A target heart rate of 60%-75% of the predicted maximum should be set as a ceiling. Patients with peripheral neuropathy should not perform treadmill walking or step aerobics because of the risk of damage to their feet.

An asymptomatic 40-year-old male presents for a routine examination and is found to have a total bilirubin level of 1.8 mg/dL (N ≤1.0) and an indirect bilirubin level of 1.3 mg/dL. He drinks 3-6 beers/week. An examination and laboratory tests, including a CBC and serum liver enzymes, are within normal limits. Which one of the following is true regarding the diagnosis? (check one) A. The most likely diagnosis is alcoholic liver disease B. The most likely diagnosis is Dubin-Johnson syndrome C. The most likely diagnosis is Gilbert syndrome D. Ultrasonography of the liver and gallbladder are necessary to make a diagnosis

C. The most likely diagnosis is Gilbert syndrome. Gilbert syndrome is an autosomal dominant disease characterized by indirect hyperbilirubinemia caused by impaired glucuronyl transferase activity. The workup includes studies to exclude hemolysis (CBC, reticulocyte count, and haptoglobin) and liver disease (AST, ALT, alkaline phosphatase, and prothrombin time). Alcoholic liver disease is associated with a greater elevation of AST than of ALT. Dubin-Johhnson syndrome is a benign liver disease distinguished by direct or conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Imaging studies are not required to confirm Gilbert syndrome; such studies are more useful for conditions involving conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Other causes of indirect hyperbilirubinemia include hematoma, infection, cardiac disease, rhabdomyolysis, living at high altitude, thyrotoxicosis, and some medications.

Which one of the following is the most correct recommendation regarding seat belt use for a woman at 38 weeks' gestation? (check one) A. The seat belt should be positioned over the dome of the uterus and the shoulder harness should be positioned between the breasts B. The seat belt should be positioned under the abdomen over both the anterior superior iliac spines and the pubic symphysis; the belt should be applied with some slack C. The seat belt should be positioned under the abdomen over both the anterior superior iliac spines and the pubic symphysis; the shoulder harness should be positioned between the breasts; the belt should be applied as snugly as comfort will allow D. Seat belts, should not be used in the later stages of pregnancy

C. The seat belt should be positioned under the abdomen over both the anterior superior iliac spines and the pubic symphysis; the shoulder harness should be positioned between the breasts; the belt should be applied as snugly as comfort will allow. Pregnant women can and should always wear a seat belt when driving or riding in a car. The seat belt should be positioned under the pregnant woman's abdomen over both the anterior superior iliac spines and the pubic symphysis. The shoulder harness should be positioned between the breasts.

Which one of the following tinea infections in children always requires systemic antifungal therapy? (check one) A. Tinea cruris B. Tinea corporis C. Tinea capitis D. Tinea pedis E. Tinea versicolor

C. Tinea capitis. Dermatophyte infections caused by aerobic fungi produce infections in many areas. Tinea capitis requires systemic therapy to penetrate the affected hair shafts. Tinea cruris and tinea pedis rarely require systemic therapy. Extensive outbreaks of tinea corporis and tinea versicolor benefit from both oral and topical treatment (SOR A), but more localized infections require only topical treatment.

A 45-year-old female presents with a complaint of pain and swelling in her right index finger of 2 days' duration. She reports that 5 days ago she had artificial nails applied, which she removed yesterday due to the pain. She used hydrogen peroxide on the finger, but it did not help. She denies any systemic symptoms or fever. On examination there is erythema and swelling in the lateral nail fold of the right index finger, with purulent material noted. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient? (check one) A. Removal of the proximal nail fold B. Topical corticosteroids C. Topical antibiotics D. Topical antifungals

C. Topical antibiotics. This is a common presentation for acute paronychia, which typically is caused by local trauma to the nail fold or cuticle, with resulting inoculation and infection. Topical antibiotics, with or without topical corticosteroids, is one treatment option. Other options include warm compresses, oral antibiotics, and incision and drainage; however, incision and drainage is not always necessary. Removal of the proximal nail fold is used to treat chronic paronychia that is not responsive to other treatments. Topical corticosteroids can be used alone for chronic paronychia, but if used for acute paronychia, they should be combined with antibiotics since acute paronychia is typically caused by a bacterial infection. Topical antifungals are a treatment option for chronic paronychia, which can be associated with a fungal infection, but not for acute paronychia.

A middle-aged hairdresser presents with a complaint of soreness of the proximal nail folds of several fingers on either hand, which has slowly worsened over the last 6 months. The nails appear thickened and distorted. Otherwise she is healthy and has no evidence of systemic disease. Which one of the following would be the most effective initial treatment? (check one) A. Soaking in a dilute iodine solution twice daily to cleanse and sterilize the nail beds B. Oral amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) for up to 4-6 weeks C. Topical betamethasone dipropionate (Diprolene) applied twice daily to the nail folds for 3-4 weeks D. Evaluation for HIV, hepatitis C, psoriasis, and rheumatoid arthritis

C. Topical betamethasone dipropionate (Diprolene) applied twice daily to the nail folds for 3-4 weeks. Chronic paronychia is a common condition in workers whose hands are exposed to chemical irritants or are wet for long periods of time. This patient is an otherwise healthy hairdresser, with frequent exposure to irritants. The patient should be advised to avoid exposure to harsh chemicals and water. In addition, the use of strong topical corticosteroids over several weeks can greatly reduce the inflammation, allowing the nail folds to return to normal and helping the cuticles recover their natural barrier to infection. Soaking in iodine solution would kill bacteria, but would also perpetuate the chronic irritation. Because the condition is related to chemical and water irritation, a prolonged course of antibiotics should not be the first treatment step, and could have serious side effects. There is no need to explore less likely autoimmune causes for nail changes at this time.

Which one of the following is the preferred treatment for scabies? (check one) A. Topical benzoyl peroxide, 10% B. Topical crotamiton (Eurax), 10% C. Topical permethrin (Elimite), 5% D. Topical lindane, 1% E. Oral ivermectin (Stromectol), 200 mg

C. Topical permethrin (Elimite), 5%. Permethrin and lindane are the two most studied topical treatments for scabies. A Cochrane meta-analysis of four randomized trials comparing these agents indicates that a single overnight application of permethrin is more effective than lindane (odds ratio for clinical failure, 0.66; 95% confidence interval, 0.46-0.95). The potential neurotoxicity of lindane, especially with repeated applications, has limited its use. Other topical treatments include benzoyl benzoate and crotamiton. Crotamiton has significantly less efficacy than permethrin at 4 weeks (61% versus 89%). Several controlled trials have assessed the efficacy of a single dose of ivermectin (200 g/kg) for the treatment of scabies. In one placebo-controlled trial, 37 of 50 patients treated with ivermectin (74%) were cured.

After fitting a 30-year-old gravida 2 para 2 for a diaphragm, you advise her not to leave the diaphragm in place for longer than 24 hours because of the risk of which one of the following? (check one) A. Loss of contraceptive effectiveness B. Chlamydia infection C. Toxic shock syndrome D. Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection E. Adhesions

C. Toxic shock syndrome. Much like with tampons, leaving diaphragms in place for more than 24 hours is associated with toxic shock syndrome.

An 82-year-old male presents to your office because his blood pressure has been "high" when taken by a friend on several occasions. His blood pressure in your office is 173/94 mm Hg, which is similar to the levels his friend recorded. The history and physical examination are otherwise unremarkable, and a CBC, metabolic panel, and urinalysis are normal. Which one of the following is most consistent with current evidence? (check one) A. This patient's mortality will not be affected by treatment of his hypertension B. Treating this patient with an ARB for hypertension would be ineffective and dangerous C. Treatment with a thiazide diuretic will lower this patient's risk of death D. In this age group, treatment of hypertension in males does not reduce stroke and heart failure as it does in females

C. Treatment with a thiazide diuretic will lower this patient's risk of death. Studies have shown that the treatment of systolic and diastolic hypertension, especially with thiazide diuretics, with or without an ACE inhibitor, reduces stroke, heart failure, and death from all causes. Such treatment is effective in both sexes.

======================================================= Reproductive (Female) Board Review Questions 04 ======================================================= A 31-year-old married white female complains of vaginal discharge, odor, and itching. Speculum examination reveals a homogeneous yellow discharge, vulvar and vaginal erythema, and a "strawberry" cervix. The most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. Candidal vaginitis B. Bacterial vaginosis C. Trichomonal vaginitis D. Chlamydial infection E. Herpes simplex type 2

C. Trichomonal vaginitis. Trichomonal vaginitis usually causes a yellowish discharge which sometimes has a frothy appearance. Colpitis macularis (strawberry cervix) is often present. Monilial vaginitis classically causes a cheesy, whitish exudate with associated vaginal itching and burning. There may be vaginal and vulvar erythema and edema, but colpitis macularis is not a feature. Bacterial vaginosis is characterized by a grayish discharge with few other physical signs or symptoms, if any. Chlamydia may cause a yellowish cervical discharge and symptoms of pelvic inflammatory disease or, alternatively, may be totally asymptomatic. Herpes simplex type 2 causes ulcerations on the vulva and vaginal mucosa which are exquisitely tender, often with marked surrounding erythema and edema.

Which one of the following should be avoided in the treatment and prophylaxis of migraine during early pregnancy? (check one) A. Calcium channel blockers B. Beta-blockers C. Triptans D. NSAIDS

C. Triptans. Headaches, and migraines in particular, are very common in women of childbearing age. Migraine sufferers usually have improvement of symptoms in pregnancy and many have complete remission. Most medications used for prophylaxis and abortive treatment of migraines in the nonpregnant patient can also be used in pregnant patients. Most beta-blockers and calcium channel blockers are safe. Acetaminophen and narcotics can be used for acute pain. Ibuprofen can also be used but should be avoided late in pregnancy because it is associated with premature closure of the ductus arteriosus and oligohydramnios. Ergotamines should be avoided as they are uterotonic and have abortifacient properties. They have also been associated with case reports of fetal birth defects. Triptans have the potential to cause vasoconstriction of the placental and uterine vessels and should be used only if the benefit clearly outweighs the harm.

A 32-year-old white female at 16 weeks' gestation presents to your office with right lower quadrant pain. Which one of the following imaging studies would be most appropriate for initial evaluation of this patient? (check one) A. CT of the abdomen B. MRI of the abdomen C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen D. A small bowel series E. Intravenous pyelography

C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen. CT has demonstrated superiority over transabdominal ultrasonography for identifying appendicitis, associated abscess, and alternative diagnoses. However, ultrasonography is indicated for the evaluation of women who are pregnant and women in whom there is a high degree of suspicion for gynecologic disease.

Which one of the following anticonvulsant medications is preferred for the treatment of mania or hypomania in patients with bipolar disorder? (check one) A. Phenytoin (Dilantin) B. Phenobarbital C. Valproic acid (Depakene) D. Gabapentin (Neurontin) E. Clonazepam (Klonopin)

C. Valproic acid (Depakene). Anticonvulsant medications are used in the treatment of various psychiatric disorders. Valproic acid is FDA-approved for the treatment of manic episodes associated with bipolar disorder. It has been shown in controlled studies to be significantly more effective than placebo. The initial dosage is 750 mg daily given in divided doses, and most individuals require between 1000 and 2500 mg daily. Carbamazepine has also been used to treat mania and is an alternative for individuals who cannot tolerate lithium or valproic acid. Clonazepam is used in the treatment of panic attacks, and gabapentin is used to treat anxiety. Both phenytoin and gabapentin are also used to treat peripheral neuropathy. The primary use of phenobarbital is as an anticonvulsant.

A 68-year-old African-American female is brought to your office by her daughter, who tells you that her mother has recently been exhibiting short-term memory loss and confusion. For example, she has difficulty remembering how to get dressed appropriately and sometimes forgets to turn off the oven after using it. These symptoms developed fairly abruptly. The patient's medical problems include type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and osteoarthritis. She had a stroke last year and has residual mild hemiparesis. A physical examination is normal except for mild hemiparesis. On cognitive testing she is able to recall only one of three words, and all the numbers are on one side on the clock-drawing test. Which one of the following types of dementia is most likely in this patient? (check one) A. Alzheimer's disease B. Dementia with Lewy bodies C. Vascular dementia D. Frontotemporal dementia E. Multisystem atrophy

C. Vascular dementia. This patient's history and examination meet the criteria for vascular dementia published by the National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke, and the Association Internationale pour la Neurosciences (NINDS-AIREN). Significant findings include cognitive decline from a previously higher level of functioning, manifested by impairment of memory and of two or more cognitive domains, and evidence of cerebrovascular disease by focal signs on neurologic examination, consistent with stroke. To fully meet the NINDS-AIREN criteria, she would need to have neuroimaging that demonstrates characteristic vascular dementia lesions.

A 72-year-old white male in otherwise good health complains of generalized pruritus that worsens in the winter. The itching is most intense after he bathes. He recently noticed a rash on his abdomen and legs as well. On examination you note poorly defined red, scaly plaques with fine fissures on the abdomen. No eruption is present at other pruritic sites. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this problem? (check one) A. Stasis dermatitis B. Lichen simplex chronicus C. Xerosis D. Rosacea E. Candidiasis

C. Xerosis. Xerosis is a pathologic dryness of the skin that is especially prominent in the elderly. It is probably caused by minor abnormalities in maturation of the epidermis that lead to decreased hydration of the superficial portion of the stratum corneum. Xerosis often intensifies in winter, because of the lower humidity and cold temperatures. Stasis dermatitis, due to chronic venous insufficiency, appears as a reddish-brown discoloration of the lower leg. Lichen simplex chronicus, the end result of habitual scratching or rubbing, usually presents as isolated hyperpigmented, edematous lesions, which become scaly and thickened in the center. Rosacea is most often seen on the face as an erythematous, acneiform eruption, which flushes easily and is surrounded by telangiectasia. Candidiasis is an opportunistic infection favoring areas that are warm, moist, and macerated, such as the perianal and inguinal folds, inframammary folds, axillae, interdigital areas, and corners of the mouth.

Having all patients over age 50 take low-dose (81 mg) aspirin daily would result in (check one) A. a decrease in cardiovascular mortality in men and women B. a decrease in hemorrhagic stroke in women C. a decrease in myocardial infarction in men D. a decrease in strokes in men E. no increase in major bleeding episodes

C. a decrease in myocardial infarction in men. A meta-analysis of six well controlled clinical trials of aspirin prophylaxis showed a 32% decrease in myocardial infarctions in men taking aspirin. There was no decrease in cardiovascular mortality or all-cause mortality in either sex, and there was a trend toward increased risk of stroke, primarily hemorrhagic stroke. There was a 24% decrease in ischemic stroke in women, however. The risk of major bleeding disorders was around 76% higher in aspirin users. The analysis suggests that aspirin may do more harm than good in healthy persons without cardiovascular risk factors. Reference: Aspirin for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease (revisited). Med Lett Drugs Ther 2006;48:53.

An 18-year-old female basketball player comes to your office the day after sustaining an inversion injury to her ankle. She says she treated the injury overnight with rest, ice, compression, and elevation. You examine her and diagnose a moderate to severe lateral ankle sprain. In addition to rehabilitative exercises, you advise (check one) A. a short-term cast B. a posterior splint that allows no flexion or extension C. a semi-rigid stirrup brace (Air-Stirrup, "Aircast") D. an elastic bandage E. no external brace or support

C. a semi-rigid stirrup brace (Air-Stirrup, "Aircast"). In acute ankle sprains, functional treatment with a semi-rigid brace that allows flexion and axtension, or a soft lace-up brace is recommended over immobilization. Casting or posterior splinting is no longer recommended. Elastic bandaging does not offer the same lateral and medial support. External ankle support has been shown to improve proprioception.

You see a 6-year-old male for the third time in 3 months with a persistently painful hand condition. He has been treated with oral amoxicillin, followed by oral trimethoprim/ sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra), with no improvement. A physical examination reveals retraction of the proximal nail fold, absence of the cuticle, and erythema and tenderness around the nail fold area. The thumb and second and third fingers are affected on both hands. The patient is otherwise healthy. First-line treatment for this condition includes: (check one) A. warm soaks three times a day B. avoidance of emollient lotions C. a topical corticosteroid cream D. an oral antifungal agent

C. a topical corticosteroid cream. This patient has symptoms and signs consistent with chronic paronychia. This condition is often associated with chronic immersion in water, contact with soaps or detergents, use of certain systemic drugs (antiretrovirals, retinoids) and, as is most likely in a 6-year-old child, finger sucking. Findings on examination are similar to those of acute paronychia, with tenderness, erythema, swelling, and retraction of the proximal nail fold. Often the adjacent cuticle is absent. Chronic paronychia has usually been persistent for at least 6 weeks by the time of diagnosis. In addition to medication, basic treatment principles for the condition include avoidance of contact irritants, avoiding immersion of the hands in water, and use of an emollient. Topical corticosteroids have higher efficacy for treating chronic paronychia compared to oral antifungals (SOR B), particularly given the young age of the patient. A topical antifungal can also be tried in conjunction with the corticosteroid.

A 42-year-old white male develops respiratory distress 12 hours after he sustained a closed head injury and a femur fracture. A physical examination reveals a respiratory rate of 40/min. He has a pO2 of 45 mm Hg (N 75-100), a pCO2 of 25 mm Hg (N 35-45), and a blood pH of 7.46 (N 2 2 7.35-7.45). His hematocrit is 30.0% (N 37.0-49.0). Of the following, the most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. respiratory depression due to central nervous system damage B. heart failure C. adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) D. hypovolemic shock E. tension pneumothorax

C. adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Acute respiratory failure following severe injury and critical illness has received increasing attention over the last decade. With advances in the management of hemorrhagic shock and support of circulatory and renal function in injured patients, it has become apparent that 1%-2% of significantly injured patients develop acute respiratory failure in the post-injury period. Initially this lung injury was thought to be related to a particular clinical situation. This is implied by such names as "shock lung" and "traumatic wet lung," which have been applied to acute respiratory insufficiency. It is now recognized that the pulmonary problems that follow a variety of insults have many similarities in their clinical presentation and physiologic and pathologic findings. This has led to the theory that the lung has a limited number of ways of reacting to injury and that several different types of acute, diffuse lung injury result in a similar pathophysiologic response. The common denominator of this response appears to be injury at the alveolar-capillary interface, with resulting leakage of proteinaceous fluid from the intravascular space into the interstitium and subsequently into alveolar spaces. It has become acceptable to describe this entire spectrum of acute diffuse injury as adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). The syndrome of ARDS can occur under a variety of circumstances and produces a spectrum of clinical severity from mild dysfunction to progressive, eventually fatal, pulmonary failure. Fortunately, with proper management, pulmonary failure is far less frequent than milder abnormalities.

The recommended time to screen for gestational diabetes in asymptomatic women with no risk factors for this condition is: (check one) A. in the first trimester B. at 16-20 weeks gestation C. at 24-28 weeks gestation D. at 35-37 weeks gestation

C. at 24-28 weeks gestation. The recommended time to screen for gestational diabetes is 24-28 weeks gestation. The patient may be given a 50-g oral glucose load followed by a glucose determination 1 hour later.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 04 ======================================================= A 30-year-old female asks you whether she should have a colonoscopy, as her father was diagnosed with colon cancer at the age of 58. There are no other family members with a history of colon polyps or cancer. You recommend that she have her first screening colonoscopy: (check one) A. now and every 5 years if normal B. now and every 10 years if normal C. at age 40 and then every 5 years if normal D. at age 40 and then every 10 years if normal E. at age 50 and then every 5 years if normal

C. at age 40 and then every 5 years if normal. Patients should be risk-stratified according to their family history. Patients who have one first degree relative diagnosed with colorectal cancer or adenomatous polyps before age 60, or at least two second degree relatives with colorectal cancer, are in the highest risk group. They should start colon cancer screening at age 40, or 10 years before the earliest age at which an affected relative was diagnosed (whichever comes first) and be rescreened every 5 years. Colonoscopy is the preferred screening method for this highest-risk group, as high-risk patients are more likely to have right-sided colon lesions that would not be detected with sigmoidoscopy.

The preferred antibiotic treatment for community-acquired pneumonia in a young adult in the ambulatory setting is: (check one) A. trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra) B. cephalexin (Keflex) C. azithromycin (Zithromax) D. penicillin V E. ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

C. azithromycin (Zithromax). In a young adult with community-acquired pneumonia who is not sick enough to be hospitalized, the current recommendation is to empirically treat with a macrolide antibiotic such as azithromycin. This covers the atypical organism Mycoplasma pneumoniae, which is one of the most common causes of community-acquired pneumonia. Certain fluoroquinolones such as levofloxacin also cover atypical causes, but ciprofloxacin does not. The other antibiotics listed are also ineffective against Mycoplasma.

The pruritic lesions on the arm shown in Figure 6 are typical of: (check one) A. poison ivy dermatitis B. brown recluse spider bites C. bedbug bites D. Hymenoptera stings E. molluscum contagiosum

C. bedbug bites. Bedbug bites are difficult to diagnose due to the variability in bite response between people and the changes in a given individual's skin reaction over time. It is best to collect and identify bedbugs to confirm bites. Cimex lectularius injects saliva into the bloodstream of the host to prevent coagulation. It is this saliva that causes the intense itching and welts.

Treatment with donepezil (Aricept) is associated with an increased risk for : (check one) A. pulmonary embolism B. liver failure C. bradycardia requiring pacemaker implantation D. cataract development requiring surgery E. confusion requiring institutionalization

C. bradycardia requiring pacemaker implantation. A large population study has established a significant increased risk of bradycardia, syncope, and pacemaker therapy with cholinesterase inhibitor therapy. Elevation of liver enzymes with the potential for hepatic dysfunction has been seen with tacrine, but it has not been noted with the other approved cholinesterase inhibitors. Cataract formation and thrombosis with pulmonary embolism do not increase with this therapy. Although improvement in mental function is often marginal with cholinesterase inhibitor therapy, the therapy has not been shown to increase the need for institutionalization.

The test of choice for immediate evaluation of an acutely swollen scrotum is: (check one) A. a pelvic radiograph B. radionuclide imaging C. color Doppler ultrasonography D. CT E. MRI

C. color Doppler ultrasonography. Any patient with a new scrotal mass should be evaluated immediately because of the risk of potential emergencies, such as testicular torsion, or of life-threatening diseases such as testicular carcinoma. Color Doppler ultrasonography is the test of choice for immediate evaluation of scrotal masses (SOR B) because it can be done quickly and has a high sensitivity (86%-88%) and specificity (90%-100%) for detecting testicular torsion, which is a surgical emergency. Radionuclide imaging is also accurate in diagnosing testicular torsion, but involves too much of a time delay to be useful. CT and MRI should be used only if ultrasonography is inconclusive or carcinoma is suspected, and are particularly useful for staging testicular tumors. Pelvic radiographs are not recommended for evaluation of scrotal masses.

A mother brings her 2-month-old infant to the emergency department because of profuse vomiting and severe diarrhea. The infant is dehydrated, has a cardiac arrhythmia, appears to have ambiguous genitalia, and is in distress. This presentation suggests a diagnosis of: (check one) A. acute gastroenteritis B. hypertrophic pyloric stenosis C. congenital adrenal hyperplasia D. congenital intestinal malrotation E. Turner's syndrome

C. congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a family of diseases caused by an inherited deficiency of any of the enzymes necessary for the biosynthesis of cortisol. In patients with the salt-losing variant, symptoms begin shortly after birth with failure to regain birth weight, progressive weight loss, and dehydration. Vomiting is prominent, and anorexia is also present. Disturbances in cardiac rate and rhythm may occur, along with cyanosis and dyspnea. In the male, various degrees of hypospadias may be seen, with or without a bifid scrotum or cryptorchidism.

False-positive urine screens for drug abuse can occur as a result of (check one) A. passive inhalation of crack cocaine B. passive inhalation of marijuana smoke C. eating poppy seed muffins D. consuming products containing hemp E. use of black cohosh

C. eating poppy seed muffins. Eating as little as one poppy seed muffin can produce amounts of morphine and codeine detectable by immunoassay, as well as by gas chromatography and mass spectrometry. Passively inhaled crack cocaine or marijuana (unless an extreme amount is inhaled), and ingested products containing hemp or other common herbal preparations do not produce positive urine drug screens. In addition to poppy seeds, substances reported to cause false-positive urine drug screens include selegiline, Vicks inhalers, NSAIDs, oxaprozin, fluoroquinolones, rifampin, venlafaxine, and dextromethorphan. Reference: Vincent EC, Zebelman A, Goodwin C: What common substances can cause false positives on urine screens for drugs of abuse? J Fam Pract 2006;55(10):893-894, 897.

A 53-year-old male presents for a routine well-care visit. He has no health complaints. His wife has accompanied him, however, and is quite concerned about changes she has noticed over the last 1-2 years. She says that he has become quite apathetic and seems to have lost interest in his job and his hobbies. He has been accused of making sexually harassing comments and inappropriate touching at work, and he no longer helps with household chores at home. He often has difficulty expressing himself and his speech can lack meaning. The physical examination is normal. Based on the history provided by the wife, you should suspect a diagnosis of : (check one) A. Alzheimer's disease B. major depressive disorder C. frontotemporal dementia D. dementia with Lewy bodies E. schizophrenia

C. frontotemporal dementia. This patient meets the criteria for frontotemporal dementia (FTD), a common cause of dementia in patients younger than 65, with an insidious onset. Unlike with Alzheimer's disease, memory is often relatively preserved, even though insight is commonly impaired. There are three subtypes of frontotemporal dementia: behavioral variant FTD, semantic dementia, and progressive nonfluent aphasia. This patient would be diagnosed with the behavioral variant due to his loss of executive functioning leading to personality change (apathy) and inappropriate behavior (SOR C). Speech output is often distorted in frontotemporal dementia, although the particular changes differ between the three variants. Patients with FTD often are mistakenly thought to have major depressive disorder due to their apathy and diminished interest in activities. However, patients with depression do not usually exhibit inappropriate behavior and lack of restraint. Dementia with Lewy bodies and Alzheimer's dementia are both characterized predominantly by memory loss. Alzheimer's dementia is most common after age 65, whereas FTD occurs most often at a younger age. Lewy body dementia is associated with parkinsonian motor features. Patients diagnosed with schizophrenia exhibit apathy and personality changes such as those seen in FTD. However, the age of onset is much earlier, usually in the teens and twenties in men and the twenties and thirties in women.

One week after returning from a Caribbean vacation, a 43-year-old female presents to a walk-in clinic with a complaint of redness and itching on the sole of her foot, shown in Figure 2. She recalls experiencing a stinging sensation in the same area while she was wading in the surf on the day before she was to return home, but was unable to see any sign of injury immediately following the incident. Since her return the itching has intensified and the red area has enlarged. The most likely cause of this condition is a: (check one) A. filarial nematode B. jellyfish C. hookworm D. roundworm E. tapeworm

C. hookworm. When third-stage hookworm larvae, most commonly of the species infecting dogs and cats, penetrate the skin and migrate through the dermis, they create the serpiginous, erythematous tracks characteristic of cutaneous larva migrans. Although this dermatosis can occur in northern areas when conditions are ideal, it is most often encountered in tropical and semitropical regions such as the Caribbean, Africa, Asia, and South America. Travelers to beach environments where pet feces have been previously deposited are most at risk because of the direct contact of bare skin with the sand. As in this case, a stinging or itching sensation may be noted upon penetration; this is followed by the development of the creeping eruption, which usually appears 1-5 days later, although the onset may be delayed for up to a month. The larvae will not develop in the human host, so the infection is self-limited, usually resolving within weeks to months. Treatment with antihelminthic drugs can greatly reduce the clinical course. Preventive measures include treatment of infected dogs and cats and limiting exposure to contaminated soil by wearing shoes and protective clothing.

The 1990 Patient Self-Determination Act requires that: (check one) A. the process for advance directives be standardized for all 50 states B. a living will be implemented for patients upon admission to the hospital C. hospitals ask patients about advance directives D. verbally expressed wishes be honored for individuals who do not have a written advance directive

C. hospitals ask patients about advance directives. The 1990 Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) requires hospitals, nursing homes, and health care programs to ask patients about advance directives and then incorporate the information into medical records. The living will, a written advance directive, allows a competent person to indicate his or her health care preferences while cognitively and physically healthy. A living will may list medical interventions the patient wishes to have withheld or withdrawn when he or she becomes unable to communicate. Another type of advance directive, the durable power of attorney for health care, allows persons to designate a proxy (or surrogate) to make decisions for them if they become incapacitated. Although PSDA mandates that patients be asked about their advance directive status upon admission to the hospital, it does not require hospitals or individual physicians to offer patients an opportunity to complete an advance directive. The acceptance and precision of verbal preferences varies from state to state. Although verbal discussions are binding in many states, five states require "clear and convincing evidence of patient preferences." In California, Delaware, Michigan, Missouri, and New York, advance directives must include such evidence regarding a specific condition and/or treatment, even if a durable power of attorney states prior general verbal preferences. Therefore, lack of an advance directive may result in continued medical interventions to preserve life even if the patient may not want such treatment.

You are examining a patient with a chronically painful shoulder. You forward flex the arm to 90° with the elbow bent to 90°. You then internally rotate the arm, which causes pain in the shoulder. This finding suggests: (check one) A. glenohumeral instability B. anterior shoulder dislocation C. impingement/rotator cuff disorder D. acromioclavicular joint osteoarthritis E. acromioclavicular joint separation

C. impingement/rotator cuff disorder. The maneuver described is Hawkins' impingement test. Pain with this maneuver may signify subacromial impingement, including a rotator cuff tendinopathy or tear.

A 55-year-old male presents to your office for evaluation of increasing dyspnea with exertion over the past 2 weeks. He has smoked 2 packs of cigarettes per day since the age of 20. He has had a chronic cough for years, along with daily sputum production. He was given an albuterol inhaler for wheezing in the past, which he uses intermittently. On examination he has a severe decrease in breath sounds, no evidence of jugular venous distention, no cardiac murmur, and no peripheral edema. A chest film shows hyperinflation, but no infiltrates or pleural effusion. Office spirometry shows that his FEV1 is only 55% of the predicted value. You consider using inhaled corticosteroids as part of the treatment regimen for this patient. This has been shown to: (check one) A. increase cataract formation B. increase the incidence of fracture C. increase the risk of pneumonia D. slow the progression of the disease E. improve overall mortality from the disease

C. increase the risk of pneumonia. COPD has several symptoms, including poor exercise tolerance, chronic cough, sputum production, dyspnea, and signs of right-sided heart failure. The most common etiology is cigarette smoking. A patient with any combination of two of these findings, such as a 70-pack-year history of smoking, decreased breath sounds, or a history of COPD, likely has airflow obstruction, defined as an FEV1 ≤60% of the predicted value. In stable COPD, treatment is reserved for patients who have symptoms and airflow obstruction. Treatment options for monotherapy are all similar in effectiveness and include long-acting inhaled anticholinergics, long-acting β-agonists, and inhaled corticosteroids. Inhaled corticosteroids will not reduce mortality or affect long-term progression of COPD. However, they do reduce the number of exacerbations and the rate of decline in the quality of life. There appears to be no increase in cataract formation or rate of fracture. These agents do have side effects, including candidal infection of the oropharynx, hoarseness, and an increased risk of developing pneumonia.

Increasing patient copayments for prescription medications results in: (check one) A. an increase in the number of prescriptions filled by low-income medical-assistance recipients B. little demonstrable change in purchasing patterns C. increased hospitalizations for patients with chronic illnesses D. improved efficiency in the utilization of outpatient medical services

C. increased hospitalizations for patients with chronic illnesses. Increasing prescription copayments results in a decrease in the number of prescriptions filled and worsening clinical outcomes for patients with heart failure, diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, and schizophrenia. With each 10% increase in copayments, it is estimated that overall prescription spending decreases 2%-6%. The cited study found that up to 25% of Medicaid recipients, faced with a copayment, could not afford to fill at least one prescription in the previous year.

A 75-year-old white male suffers an anteroseptal myocardial infarction. Four hours after admission to the hospital his blood pressure is 65/40 mm Hg. A Swan-Ganz catheter is inserted into the pulmonary artery, and the pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is found to be 8 mm Hg. The best therapy in this instance is: (check one) A. infusion of dopamine B. infusion of 5% dextrose C. infusion of normal saline D. digoxin E. furosemide (Lasix)

C. infusion of normal saline. A pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 8 mm Hg suggests hypovolemia. Normal saline should be given because 5% dextrose is not a reliable volume expander.

The mother of an 4-week-old male asks about the viral gastroenteritis vaccine. You advise that it is (check one) A. routinely given at the 12-month visit B. associated with an increased risk for intussusception C. initiated at 6-12 weeks of age D. indicated only for immunocompromised children E. indicated only for children attending day care

C. initiated at 6-12 weeks of age. Rotavirus vaccine (RotaTeq) was licensed in February 2006 to protect against viral gastroenteritis. The Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices recommends the routine vaccination of infants with three doses to be given at 2, 4, and 6 months of age. The first dose should be given between 6 and 12 weeks of age, and subsequent doses should be given at 4- to 10-week intervals, but all three doses should be administered by 32 weeks of age. Unlike the vaccine RotaShield, which was marketed in 1999, RotaTeq is not known to increase the risk for intussusception.

In patients with pes anserine bursitis, tenderness is most likely to be noted: (check one) A. over the medial epicondyle B. over the lateral pelvic/hip region C. over the medial proximal tibia D. just posterior to the medial malleolus E. just distal to the lateral malleolus

C. over the medial proximal tibia. The pes anserine bursa is associated with the tendinous insertion of the sartorius, gracilis, and semitendinosus muscles into the medial aspect of the proximal tibia. Commonly associated with early osteoarthritis in the medial knee compartment, pes anserine bursitis can also result from overuse of the involved muscles or from direct trauma to the area. A patient with pes anserine bursitis will generally complain of pain in the area of insertion when flexing and extending the knee and tenderness of the area will be noted on examination. Slight swelling may be present but no effusion is generally evident. Treatment may include oral anti-inflammatory agents, physical therapy, and corticosteroid injection.

An anxious 30-year-old white female comes to the emergency department with shortness of breath, circumoral paresthesia, and carpopedal spasms. Which one of the following sets of blood gas values is most consistent with this clinical picture? (check one) A. pH 7.25 (N 7.35-7.45), pCO2 25 mm Hg (N 35-45), pO2 100 mm Hg (N 80-100) B. pH 7.25, pCO2 50 mm Hg, pO2 80 mm Hg C. pH 7.50, pCO2 25 mm Hg, pO2 100 mm Hg D. pH 7.55, pCO2 50 mm Hg, pO2 80 mm Hg

C. pH 7.50, pCO2 25 mm Hg, pO2 100 mm Hg. Anxiety, shortness of breath, paresthesia, and carpopedal spasm are characteristic of psychogenic hyperventilation. Respiratory alkalosis secondary to hyperventilation is diagnosed when arterial pH is 2 elevated and pCO is depressed. Low pH is characteristic of acidosis, either respiratory or metabolic, and 2 elevated pH with elevated pCO is characteristic of metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation.

A 26-year-old female calls your office to inquire about the results of her recent Papanicolaou (Pap) test. The report indicates the presence of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASC-US), and her reflex HPV test is negative for high-risk HPV types. The patient has never had an abnormal Pap test and has had three normal tests over the past 6 years. She is a nonsmoker. You advise the patient that the most appropriate next step would be to: (check one) A. repeat the Pap test every 3 months for 1 year B. repeat the Pap test in 6 months and 12 months C. repeat the Pap test in 12 months D. continue routine Pap tests, with the next test in 3 years E. schedule colposcopy as soon as possible

C. repeat the Pap test in 12 months. The ASC-US/LSIL Triage Study (ALTS) demonstrated that there are three appropriate follow-up options for managing women with an ASC-US Papanicolaou (Pap) test result: (1) two repeat cytologic examinations performed at 6-month intervals; (2) reflex testing for HPV; or (3) a single colposcopic examination. This expert consensus recommendation has been confirmed in more recent clinical studies, additional analyses of the ALTS data, and meta-analyses of published studies (SOR A). Reflex HPV testing refers to testing either the original liquid-based cytology residual specimen or a separate sample collected for HPV testing at the time of the initial screening visit. This approach eliminates the need for women to return to the office or clinic for repeat testing, rapidly reassures women who do not have a significant lesion, spares 40%-60% of women from undergoing colposcopy, and has been shown to have a favorable cost-effectiveness ratio. In this patient's case, the HPV testing was negative, and there is no need to repeat the Pap test at 6-month intervals or to perform colposcopy. Although women in certain low-risk groups need routine cervical cancer screening only every 3 years, this patient should have a repeat Pap test in 12 months. Immediately repeating the test or testing at 3-month intervals is not recommended in any of the algorithms to manage ASC-US results for otherwise healthy women.

A 45-year-old white male undergoes a health screening at his church. He has a carotid Doppler study, abdominal ultrasonography, heel densitometry, and a multiphasic blood panel. He receives a report indicating that all of the studies are normal, but a 0.7-cm thyroid nodule was noted. The TSH level is normal. He schedules a visit with you and brings you the report. A neck examination and ENT examination are normal, and you do not detect a nodule. You recommend (check one) A. a radionuclide thyroid scan B. T3, T4, and calcitonin levels C. repeat ultrasonography in 6-12 months D. a fine-needle biopsy E. hemithyroidectomy

C. repeat ultrasonography in 6-12 months. This is a classic incidentaloma. Nodules are detected in up to 50% of thyroid sonograms and carry a low risk of malignancy (<5%). If the TSH level is normal, nuclear scanning and further thyroid studies are not necessary. Nodules smaller than 1 cm are difficult to biopsy and thyroid surgery is not indicated for what is almost certainly benign disease. It is reasonable to follow small nodules with clinical examinations and periodic sonograms.

A 27-year-old female presents with 2 weeks of generalized pruritus. She had previously been in good health except for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy 3 weeks earlier. She has had intermittent right upper quadrant abdominal pain since the surgery, and has occasionally taken acetaminophen with hydrocodone for pain relief. Her examination is remarkable only for questionable scleral icterus. The most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. hydrocodone allergy B. liver toxicity from acetaminophen C. retained common duct stone D. acute hepatitis

C. retained common duct stone. Postcholecystectomy pain associated with jaundice (which can cause itching) is a classic presentation for a retained common duct stone. Acetaminophen toxicity is usually painless, and is associated with ingestion of large amounts of the drug and/or alcohol, or other potentially hepatotoxic drugs. Viral hepatitis is usually painless and accompanied by other systemic symptoms. Hydrocodone can cause pruritus but not pain and jaundice.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 62 ======================================================= A 24-year-old African-American male presents with a history of several weeks of dyspnea, cough productive of bloody streaks, and malaise. His examination is normal except for bilateral facial nerve palsy. A CBC and urinalysis are normal. A chest radiograph reveals bilateral lymph node enlargement.This presentation is most consistent with: (check one) A. polyarteritis nodosa B. Goodpasture's syndrome C. sarcoidosis D. pulmonary embolus

C. sarcoidosis. Sarcoidosis, a disease of unknown etiology, affects young to middle-age adults (predominantly 20-29 years ld). In the U.S. it is more common in African-Americans. It is asymptomatic in 30%-50% of patients, and is often diagnosed on a routine chest film. About one-third of cases will present with fever, malaise, weight loss, cough, and dyspnea. The pulmonary system is the main organ system affected, and findings may include bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and discrete, noncaseating epithelial granulomas. Facial nerve palsy is seen in <5% of patients, and usually occurs late in the process. Before Lyme disease was recognized, bilateral facial nerve palsy was almost always due to sarcoidosis. Hemoptysis does not generally occur until late in the course of sarcoidosis, and is usually related to Aspergillus infection or cavitation. Renal involvement rarely results in significant proteinuria or hematuria. Polyarteritis nodosa may involve the lungs. Although pneumonic episodes may be associated with hemoptysis in a small percentage of patients, the chest radiograph is more likely to reveal granulomatous lesions rather than patchy infiltrates. Goodpasture's syndrome is characterized by pulmonary hemorrhage, glomerulonephritis, and antiglomerular basement membrane antibodies. Hemoptysis, pulmonary alveolar infiltrates, dyspnea, and iron-deficiency anemia are frequent presenting features. Within days or weeks, the pulmonary findings are generally followed by hematuria, proteinuria, and the rapid loss of renal function. Pulmonary embolus is an acute event, and would present with dyspnea and possibly hemoptysis, but not hilar lymphadenopathy.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 64 ======================================================= A 15-year-old white female who has had regular periods since age 12 comes to your office because of secondary amenorrhea and a milky discharge from her breasts. A pregnancy test is negative. The best test for initial evaluation of the pituitary in this patient is: (check one) A. plasma antidiuretic hormone B. plasma ACTH C. serum prolactin D. serum FSH and LH E. fasting growth hormone

C. serum prolactin. Anterior pituitary hormone overproduction is suspected on clinical grounds and confirmed by appropriate laboratory evaluation. The most common secretory pituitary adenomas are prolactinomas. They cause galactorrhea and hypogonadism, including amenorrhea, infertility, and impotence. Growth hormone-secreting tumors, which are the next most common secretory pituitary tumors, cause acromegaly or gigantism. Next in frequency are corticotropic (ACTH-secreting) adenomas, which cause cortisol excess (Cushing's disease). Glycoprotein hormone-secreting pituitary adenomas (secreting TSH, LH, or FSH) are the least common. TSH-secreting adenomas are a rare cause of hyperthyroidism. Paradoxically, most patients with gonadotropin-secreting adenomas have hypogonadism.

Actinic keratoses of the skin may progress to: (check one) A. nodular basal cell cancer B. pigmented basal cell cancer C. squamous cell cancer D. Merkel cell cancer E. malignant melanoma

C. squamous cell cancer. Actinic keratoses are scaly lesions that develop on sun-exposed skin, and are believed to be carcinoma in situ. While most actinic keratoses spontaneously regress, others progress to squamous cell cancers.

A 2-year-old child stumbles, but his mother keeps him from falling by pulling up on his right hand. An hour later the child refuses to use his right arm and cries when his mother tries to move it. The most likely diagnosis is (check one) A. dislocation of the ulna B. dislocation of the olecranon epiphysis C. subluxation of the head of the radius D. subluxation of the head of the ulna E. anterior dislocation of the humeral head

C. subluxation of the head of the radius. "Nursemaid's elbow" is one of the most common injuries in children under 5 years of age. It occurs when the child's hand is suddenly jerked up, forcing the elbow into extension and causing the radial head to slip out from the annular ligament.

The CAGE-AID questionnaire is a tool for screening for: (check one) A. depression B. bipolar illness C. substance abuse risk D. psychosis E. compatibility

C. substance abuse risk. The CAGE-AID (CAGE Adapted to Include Drugs) questionnaire is a tool for assessing potential substance abuse risk. In one study it had a sensitivity of 70% and a specificity of 85% for drug abuse when two or more affirmative responses were defined as a positive result. It consists of the following four questions: Have you ever felt you ought to Cut down on your drinking or drug use? Have people Annoyed you by criticizing your drinking or drug use? Have you ever felt bad or Guilty about your drinking or drug use? Have you ever had a drink or used drugs first thing in the morning as an Eye opener to steady your nerves or to get rid of a hangover?

A 70-year-old white female complains of two episodes of urinary incontinence. On both occasions she was unable to reach a bathroom in time to prevent loss of urine. The first episode occurred when she was in her car and the second while she was in a shopping mall. She is reluctant to go out because of this problem. The most likely cause of her problem is: (check one) A. overflow incontinence B. stress incontinence C. urge incontinence D. functional incontinence

C. urge incontinence. At least 10 million Americans suffer from urinary incontinence. In the neurologically intact individual the most common subtypes are stress incontinence, which occurs with coughing or lifting; urge incontinence, which occurs when patients sense the urge to void but are unable to inhibit leakage long enough to reach the toilet; and overflow incontinence, which occurs when the bladder cannot empty normally and becomes overdistended. The term functional incontinence is applied to those cases where lower urinary tract function is intact but other factors such as immobility and severe cognitive impairment lead to incontinence. This patient has mild urge incontinence. The first approach to this problem should be behavioral. In a mild case such as this, a cure can be expected, with success rates of 30%-90% in published studies. For more severe cases, various pharmacologic agents, including anticholinergics, are useful. Failure of these modalities should lead to urodynamic testing and consideration of surgery.

A 4-month-old white male in respiratory distress is brought to the emergency department. On examination, heart sounds include a grade 4/6 pansystolic murmur, best heard at the lower left sternal border. He is acyanotic. A chest radiograph shows an enlarged heart and increased pulmonary vascular markings, and an EKG shows combined ventricular hypertrophy. Of the following, the most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. hypoplastic left heart syndrome (aortic valve atresia) B. transposition of the great vessels C. ventricular septal defect D. tetralogy of Fallot E. patent ductus arteriosus

C. ventricular septal defect. Ventricular septal defect causes overload of both ventricles, since the blood is shunted left to right. The murmur is harsh and holosystolic, generally heard best at the lower left sternal border. As the volume of the shunting increases, cardiac enlargement and increased pulmonary vascular markings can be seen on a chest radiograph. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome would be manifested by near-obliteration of the left ventricle on the EKG and chest radiograph, and the infant would be cyanotic. Transposition of the great vessels would cause AV conduction defects and single-sided hypertrophy on the EKG. The chest radiograph would show a straight shoulder on the left heart border where the aorta was directed to the right. Tetralogy of Fallot causes cyanosis and right ventricular enlargement. The murmur of patent ductus arteriosus is continuous, best heard below the left clavicle. The EKG shows left atrial and ventricular enlargement.

The best management of localized, well-differentiated prostate cancer in men older than 65 is: (check one) A. radiation implants B. external beam radiation therapy C. watchful waiting D. primary androgen deprivation therapy E. robot-assisted prostatectomy

C. watchful waiting. For men older than 65 years of age with small-volume, low-grade disease and a 10- to 15-year life expectancy, the risk of complications from treatment outweighs any decreased risk of dying from prostate cancer. Radiation, androgen deprivation therapy, and surgical approaches have not been shown to improve disease-free survival (SOR A).

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 72 ======================================================= Sympathomimetic decongestants such as pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine can be problematic in elderly patients because they can: (check one) A. decrease blood pressure B. cause bradycardia C. worsen existing urinary obstruction D. enhance the anticholinergic effects of other medications E. enhance the sedative effects of other medications

C. worsen existing urinary obstruction. Sympathomimetic agents can elevate blood pressure and intraocular pressure, may worsen existing urinary obstruction, and adversely interact with -blockers, methyldopa, tricyclic antidepressants, and oral hypoglycemic agents and MAOIs. They also speed up the heart rate. First-generation nonprescription antihistamines can enhance the anticholinergic and sedative effects of other medications.

A 55-year-old male has New York Heart Association Class II heart failure. He becomes dyspneic with significant exertion. His only medication is an ACE inhibitor. Which one of the following additional medications has been shown to improve longevity in this situation? (check one) A. Digitalis B. Warfarin (Coumadin) C. β-Blockers D. Amiodarone (Cordarone) E. Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers

C. β-Blockers. β-Blockers are recommended to reduce mortality in symptomatic patients with heart failure (SOR A). The role that digoxin will ultimately play in heart failure is unclear. The Digitalis Investigation Group study revealed a trend toward increased mortality among women with heart failure who were taking digoxin, but digoxin levels were higher among women than men. There is no evidence that warfarin decreases mortality in patients with heart failure. There is also no evidence that amiodarone decreases mortality from heart failure in patients with no history of atrial fibrillation. Calcium channel blockers should be used with caution in patients with heart failure because they can cause peripheral vasodilation, decreased heart rate, decreased cardiac contractility, and decreased cardiac conduction.

A 55-year-old male is found to have three hyperplastic polyps on a routine screening colonoscopy. He has no personal or family history of colon cancer. This patient's next colonoscopy should be in: (check one) A. 1 year B. 3 years C. 5 years D. 10 years

D. 10 years. Colonoscopy is the gold standard for screening for colon cancer. Because of differences in recommended screening intervals, the American Cancer Society and the U.S. Multi-Society Task Force on Colorectal Cancer issued recommendations for follow-up in 2006 to bring some uniformity to the guidelines. Patients with hyperplastic polyps are considered to have normal colonoscopy findings and can be followed up in 10 years, unless they have hyperplastic polyposis syndrome. Patients with one or two small adenomas (<1 cm, with no- or low-grade dysplasia) are considered at low risk and can be followed up in 5-10 years, depending on family history, previous colonoscopy findings, and patient and physician preference. Patients with three or more small adenomas, or one adenoma >1 cm in size should be followed up in 3 years if the adenomas are completely removed. Patients who have had a sessile adenoma removed piecemeal should have repeat colonoscopy in 2-6 months to make sure that the polyp has been completely removed. Other factors that influence the screening interval include the quality of the preparation and the ability of the physician to see the entire colon. Although this patient had three hyperplastic polyps removed, he is at low risk for colon cancer and should have repeat screening at the normal 10-year interval.

A 58-year-old white male has a negative screening colonoscopy. He has no symptoms and no family history of colon carcinoma. His next screening colonoscopy should be scheduled in (check one) A. 1 year B. 3 years C. 5 years D. 10 years

D. 10 years. The evidence supports a 10-year interval for colonoscopy in patients less than 80 years old. For patients with a family history of colon cancer a 5-year interval is recommended, or 3 years if benign polyps are found. Screening in patients over 80 years old is controversial. References: 1) Kasper DL, Braunwald E, Fauci AS, et al (eds): Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, ed 16. McGraw-Hill, 2005, pp 1737-1738. 2) Singh H, Turne D, Xue L, et al: Risk of developing colorectal cancer following a negative colonoscopy examination: Evidence for a 10-year interval between colonoscopies. JAMA 2006;295(20):2366-2373.

You have diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus in a 64-year-old male. He has no known coronary heart disease. You recommend lowering his LDL-cholesterol to below a threshold of: (check one) A. 190 mg/dL B. 160 mg/dL C. 130 mg/dL D. 100 mg/dL E. 70 mg/dL

D. 100 mg/dL. High-risk patients should have a target LDL-cholesterol level of <100 mg/dL. High risk is defined as the presence of known coronary heart disease (CHD), diabetes mellitus, noncoronary atherosclerotic disease, or multiple risk factors for CHD (SOR C). Patients at very high risk (known CHD and multiple additional risk factors) have an optional target of <70 mg/dL.

Cow's milk should be withheld from a child's diet until what age? (check one) A. 4 months B. 6 months C. 9 months D. 12 months E. 15 months

D. 12 months. Whole cow's milk does not supply infants with enough vitamin E, iron, and essential fatty acids, and overburdens their system with too much protein, sodium, and potassium. Skim and low-fat milk lead to the same problems as whole milk, and also fail to provide adequate calories for growth. For these reasons cow's milk is not recommended for children under 12 months of age. Human breast milk or iron-fortified formula, with introduction of solid foods after 4-6 months of age if desired, is appropriate for the first year of life.

A critically ill adult male is admitted to the intensive-care unit because of sepsis. He has no history of diabetes mellitus, but his glucose level on admission is 215 mg/dL and insulin therapy is ordered. Which one of the following is the most appropriate target glucose range for this patient? (check one) A. 80-120 mg/dL B. 100-140 mg/dL C. 120-160 mg/dL D. 140-180 mg/dL E. 160-200 mg/dL

D. 140-180 mg/dL. The 2009 consensus guidelines on inpatient glycemic control issued by the American Association of Clinical Endocrinologists and the American Diabetes Association recommend insulin infusion with a target glucose level of 140-180 mg/dL in critically ill patients. This recommendation is based on clinical trials in critically ill patients. In the groups studied, there was no reduction in mortality from intensive treatment targeting near-euglycemic glucose levels compared to conventional management with a target glucose level of <180 mg/dL. There also were reports of harm resulting from intensive glycemic control, including higher rates of severe hypoglycemia and even increased mortality.

A new drug treatment is shown to reduce the incidence of a complication of a disease by 50%. If the usual incidence of this complication were 1% per year, how many patients with this disease would have to be treated with this medication for 1 year to prevent one occurrence of this complication? (check one) A. 20 B. 50 C. 100 D. 200 E. 500

D. 200. Considering relative risk reduction without also considering the absolute rate can distort the importance of a therapy. A useful way to assess the importance of a therapy is to determine the number needed to treat to benefit one patient. To calculate this number, the percentage of absolute risk reduction of a particular therapy is divided into 100. In the case in question, the absolute risk reduction is 0.5% (0.5×.01). Thus, the number-needed-to-treat for the example cited is 200 (100/0.5).

A new drug treatment is shown to reduce the incidence of a complication of a disease by 50%. If the usual incidence of this complication were 1% per year, how many patients with this disease would have to be treated with this medication for 1 year to prevent one occurrence of this complication? (check one) A. 20 B. 50 C. 100 D. 200 E. 500

D. 200. Considering relative risk reduction without also considering the absolute rate can distort the importance of a therapy. A useful way to assess the importance of a therapy is to determine the number-needed-to-treat for that therapy. To calculate this number, the percentage of absolute risk reduction of a particular therapy is divided into 100. In the case in question, the absolute risk reduction would be 0.5% (0.5x.01). Thus, the number-needed-to-treat for the example cited would be 200 (100/0.5).

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 46 ======================================================= For a healthy 1-month-old, daily vitamin D intake should be: (check one) A. 50 IU B. 100 IU C. 200 IU D. 400 IU E. 800 IU

D. 400 IU. It is now recommended that all infants and children, including adolescents, have a minimum daily intake of 400 IU of vitamin D, beginning soon after birth. The current recommendation replaces the previous recommendation of a minimum daily intake of 200 IU/day of vitamin D supplementation beginning in the first 2 months after birth and continuing through adolescence. These revised guidelines for vitamin D intake for healthy infants, children, and adolescents are based on evidence from new clinical trials and the historical precedent of safely giving 400 IU of vitamin D per day in the pediatric and adolescent population. New evidence supports a potential role for vitamin D in maintaining innate immunity and preventing diseases such as diabetes mellitus and cancer.

On his first screening colonoscopy, a 67-year-old male is found to have a 0.5-cm adenomatous polyp with low-grade dysplasia. According to current guidelines, when should this patient have his next colonoscopy? (check one) A. 6 months B. 1 year C. 3 years D. 5 years E. Screening is no longer necessary

D. 5 years. Overuse of colonoscopy has significant costs. In response to these concerns, the American Cancer Society and the U.S. Multi-Society Task Force on Colorectal Cancer collaborated on a consensus guideline on the use of surveillance colonoscopy. According to these guidelines, patients with one or two small (<1 cm) tubular adenomas, including those with only low-grade dysplasia, should have their next colonoscopy in 5-10 years (SOR B).

You are considering how useful a new treatment might be in preventing stroke. A well designed study is reported with 200 patients in the treated group and 200 patients in the untreated group. The study finds a 5-year risk of stroke of 3% in the treated group versus 5% in the untreated group. Assuming this study is valid and applicable to your patient population, how many patients would you have to treat for 5 years to prevent one stroke (number needed to treat, or NNT)? (check one) A. 400 B. 200 C. 100 D. 50 E. 25

D. 50. The relative risk reduction (RRR) is the proportional decrease in disease incidence in the treated group relative to the incidence in the control group. In this example the 3% incidence in the treated group is 40% less than the 5% incidence in the control group: (5%-3%)/5% = 40%. The absolute risk reduction (ARR) is the difference between the incidence of disease in the treatment group and the incidence in the control group. In this example the ARR is 5% minus 3% = 2%. The number needed to treat (NNT) equals the reciprocal of the ARR: 1/.02 = 50. The RRR is not a very useful statistic in clinical practice. It amplifies small differences and makes clinically insignificant findings appear significant because it essentially ignores the baseline risk of the outcome event. The ARR provides a more useful measure of clinical effect. It answers the question "How much will I decrease my patient's risk of an adverse outcome by this treatment?" The NNT is also very useful for clinicians, as it answers the question, "How many patients will I need to treat to prevent one adverse outcome?"

A 26-year-old gravida 3 para 2 was diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus at 24 weeks gestation. She was prescribed appropriate nutritional therapy and an exercise program. After 4 weeks, her fasting plasma glucose levels remain in the range of 105-110 mg/dL. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient at this time? (check one) A. Continuation of the current regimen B. Long-acting insulin glargine (Lantus) once daily C. Pioglitazone (Actos) once daily D. A combination of intermediate-acting insulin (e.g., NPH) and a short-acting insulin (e.g., lispro) twice daily E. Sliding-scale insulin 4 times daily using ultra-short-acting insulin

D. A combination of intermediate-acting insulin (e.g., NPH) and a short-acting insulin (e.g., lispro) twice daily. In addition to an appropriate diet and exercise regimen, pharmacologic therapy should be initiated in pregnant women with gestational diabetes mellitus whose fasting plasma glucose levels remain above 100 mg/dL despite diet and exercise. There is strong evidence that such treatment to maintain fasting plasma glucose levels below 95 mg/dL and 1-hour postprandial levels below 140 mg/dL results in improved fetal well-being and neonatal outcomes. While oral therapy with metformin or glyburide is considered safe and possibly effective, insulin therapy is the best option for the pharmacologic treatment of gestational diabetes. Thiazolidinediones such as pioglitazone have not been shown to be effective or safe in pregnancy. The use of long-acting basal insulin analogues, such as glargine and detemir, has not been sufficiently evaluated in pregnancy. Sliding-scale coverage with ultra-short-acting insulin or insulin analogues, such as lispro and aspart, is generally not required in most women with gestational diabetes. While it may be effective, it involves four daily glucose checks and injections. Most patients are successfully treated with a twice-daily combination of an intermediate-acting insulin and a short-acting insulin while continuing a diet and exercise program.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 08 ======================================================= You are asked to perform a preoperative evaluation on a 55-year-old white female with type 2 diabetes mellitus prior to elective femoral-anterior tibial artery bypass surgery. She is unable to climb a flight of stairs or do heavy work around the house. She denies exertional chest pain, and is otherwise healthy. Based on current guidelines, which one of the following diagnostic studies would be appropriate prior to surgery because the results could alter the management of this patient? (check one) A. Pulmonary function studies B. Coronary angiography C. Carotid angiography D. A dipyridamole-thallium scan E. A hemoglobin A1c level

D. A dipyridamole-thallium scan. Family physicians are often asked to perform a preoperative evaluation prior to noncardiac surgery. This requires an assessment of the perioperative cardiovascular risk of the procedure involved, the functional status of the patient, and clinical factors that can increase the risk, such as diabetes mellitus, stroke, renal insufficiency, compensated or prior heart failure, mild angina, or previous myocardial infarction. This patient is not undergoing emergency surgery, nor does she have an active cardiac condition; however, she is undergoing a high-risk procedure (>5% risk of perioperative myocardial infarction) with vascular surgery. As she cannot climb a flight of stairs or do heavy housework, her functional status is <4 METs, and she should be considered for further evaluation. The patient's diabetes is an additional clinical risk factor. With vascular surgery being planned, appropriate recommendations include proceeding with the surgery with heart rate control, or performing noninvasive testing if it will change the management of the patient. Coronary angiography is indicated if the noninvasive testing is abnormal. Pulmonary function studies are most useful in patients with underlying lung disease or those undergoing pulmonary resection. Hemoglobin A1c is a measure of long-term diabetic control and is not particularly useful perioperatively. Carotid angiography is not indicated in asymptomatic patients being considered for lower-extremity vascular procedures.

A 23-year-old female comes to your office 6 days after giving birth to her first child by cesarean section. Her pregnancy was complicated by preeclampsia. During the history she reports brief crying spells, irritability, poor sleep, and nervousness. Her husband notes that "even the littlest thing can set her off." She has a history of major depression 2 years ago that resolved with psychotherapy and SSRI treatment. She and her husband are concerned that she may be suffering from postpartum depression. Which one of the following is the greatest risk factor for postpartum depression in this patient? (check one) A. Operative delivery B. First pregnancy and delivery C. Preeclampsia D. A previous history of depression

D. A previous history of depression. "Baby blues" are differentiated from postpartum depression by the severity and duration of symptoms. Baby blues occur in 80% of postpartum women and are associated with mild dysfunction. They begin during the first 2-3 days after delivery and resolve within 10 days. Symptoms include brief crying spells, irritability, poor sleep, nervousness, and emotional reactivity. An estimated 5%-7% of women develop a postpartum major depression associated with moderate to severe dysfunction during the first 3 months post partum. While women with baby blues are at risk for progression to major depression, no more than 8%-10% will progress to a major postpartum depression. A previous history of major depressive disorder significantly increases the risk of developing postpartum depression (RR = 4.5), and a prior episode of postpartum depression is the strongest risk factor for postpartum depression in subsequent pregnancies. Prenatal and obstetric complications and socioeconomic status have not consistently been shown to be risk factors. First pregnancy is also not a significant risk factor.

A 2-year-old white male is seen for a well child visit. His mother is concerned because he is not yet able to walk. The routine physical examination, including an orthopedic evaluation, is unremarkable. Speech and other developmental landmarks seem normal for his age. Which one of the following tests would be most appropriate? (check one) A. A TSH level B. Random urine for aminoaciduria C. Phenylketonuria screening D. A serum creatine kinase level E. Chromosome analysis

D. A serum creatine kinase level. The diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, the most common neuromuscular disorder of childhood, is usually not made until the affected individual presents with an established gait abnormality at the age of 4-5 years. By then, parents unaware of the X-linked inheritance may have had additional children who would also be at risk. The disease can be diagnosed earlier by testing for elevated creatine kinase in boys who are slow to walk. The mean age for walking in affected boys is 17.2 months, whereas over 75% of developmentally normal children in the United States walk by 13.5 months. Massive elevation of creatine kinase (CK) from 20 to 100 times normal occurs in every young infant with the disease. Early detection allows appropriate genetic counseling regarding future pregnancies. Hypothyroidism and phenylketonuria could present as delayed walking. However, these diseases cause significant mental retardation and would be associated with global developmental delay. Furthermore, these disorders are now diagnosed in the neonatal period by routine screening. Disorders of amino acid metabolism present in the newborn period with failure to thrive, poor feeding, and lethargy. Gross chromosomal abnormalities would usually be incompatible with a normal physical examination at 18 months of age.

A 15-year-old African-American male presents to the emergency department with a chief complaint of fever, abdominal pain, nausea, and anorexia. In addition to the usual laboratory evaluation, which one of the following imaging modalities would be most helpful for confirming a diagnosis of appendicitis? (check one) A. Plain flat plate and upright radiographs of the abdomen B. An air contrast barium enema C. Abdominal ultrasonography D. A spiral CT scan of the abdomen E. MRI of the abdomen

D. A spiral CT scan of the abdomen. A retrospective review of 650 patients with suspected appendicitis showed a sensitivity of 97% and a specificity of 98% for spiral CT. In patients in whom the clinical diagnosis was uncertain, sensitivity was 92% and specificity was 85%. Two prospective studies comparing ultrasonography with spiral CT have favored spiral CT. Ultrasonography is used in women who are pregnant and women in whom there is a high degree of suspicion of gynecologic disease. Abdominal radiography has low specificity and sensitivity for the diagnosis of acute appendicitis. Air contrast barium enema also has low accuracy. Limitations of MRI include increased cost, decreased availability, and increased examination time compared to CT.

Which one of the following provides the best evidence for a given therapeutic intervention? (check one) A. An individual randomized, controlled trial B. A prospective case-control study C. A systematic review of cohort studies D. A systematic review of randomized, controlled trials

D. A systematic review of randomized, controlled trials. A systematic review is a literature review focused on a research question that tries to identify, appraise, select, and synthesize all high-quality research evidence relevant to that question. A randomized, controlled trial (RCT) involves a group of patients who are randomized into an experimental group and a control group. These groups are followed for the outcomes of interest. The process of randomization minimizes bias and is thus the individual study type that is most likely to provide accurate results about an intervention's effectiveness. A cohort study is a nonexperimental study design that follows a group of people (a cohort), and then looks at how events differ among people within the group. A study that examines a cohort of persons who differ in respect to exposure to some suspected risk factor such as smoking is useful for trying to ascertain whether exposure is likely to cause specified events such as lung cancer. This study design is less reliable due to inherent biases that may not be accounted for and may exist in the groupings of patients. Retrospective and prospective case-control studies compare people with a disease or specific diagnosis with people who do not have the disease. The groups are studied to find out if other characteristics are also different between the two groups. This type of study often overestimates the benefit of a trial and is of lower quality than a randomized, controlled trial.

A 60-year-old male is referred to you by his employer for management of his hypertension. He has been without primary care for several years due to a lapse in insurance coverage. During a recent employee health evaluation, he was noted to have a blood pressure of 170/95 mm Hg. He has a 20-year history of hypertension and suffered a small lacunar stroke 10 years ago. He has no other health problems and does not smoke or drink alcohol. A review of systems is negative except for minor residual weakness in his right upper extremity resulting from his remote stroke. His blood pressure is 168/98 mm Hg when initially measured by your nurse, and you obtain a similar reading during your examination. In addition to counseling him regarding lifestyle modifications, which one of the following is the most appropriate treatment for his hypertension? (check one) A. An angiotensin receptor blocker B. A β-blocker C. A calcium channel blocker D. A thiazide diuretic/ACE inhibitor combination E. No medication

D. A thiazide diuretic/ACE inhibitor combination. This patient has stage 2 hypertension, and his history of stroke is a compelling indication to use specific classes of antihypertensives. For patients with a history of previous stroke, JNC-7 recommends using combination therapy with a diuretic and an ACE inhibitor to treat the hypertension, as this combination has been clinically shown to reduce the risk of recurrent stroke. Other classes of drugs have not been shown to be of benefit for secondary stroke prevention. Although blood pressure should not be lowered quickly in the setting of acute ischemic stroke, this patient is not having an acute stroke, so treatment of his hypertension is warranted.

A 43-year-old female presents to your office for evaluation of a chronic cough that has been present for the past 6 months. She is not a smoker, and is not aware of any exposure to environmental irritants. She does not have any systemic complaints such as fever or weight loss, and does not have any symptoms of heartburn or regurgitation. She is not on any regular medications. Auscultation of the lungs and a chest radiograph show no evidence of acute disease. A trial of an inhaled bronchodilator and antihistamine therapy does not improve the patient's symptoms. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step? (check one) A. A methacholine inhalation challenge test B. Pulmonary function testing C. CT of the chest D. A trial of a proton pump inhibitor E. 24-hour pH monitoring

D. A trial of a proton pump inhibitor. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is one of the most common causes of chronic cough. Patients with chronic cough have a high likelihood of having GERD, even in the absence of gastrointestinal symptoms (level of evidence 3). In fact, up to 75% of patients with a cough caused by GERD may have no gastrointestinal symptoms. The cough is thought to be triggered by microaspiration of acidic gastric contents into the larynx and upper bronchial tree. The American College of Chest Physicians states that patients with a chronic cough should be given a trial of antisecretory therapy (SOR B). Aggressive acid reduction using a proton pump inhibitor twice daily before meals for 3-4 months is the best way to demonstrate a causal relationship between GERD and extra-esophageal symptoms (SOR B). Methacholine inhalation testing is not necessary in this patient, since symptomatic asthma has been ruled out by the lack of response to bronchodilator therapy. Chest CT and pulmonary function tests are not indicated given the lack of findings from the history, physical examination, and chest film to suggest underlying pulmonary disease. An initial therapeutic trial of proton pump inhibitors is favored over 24-hour pH monitoring because it is less uncomfortable to the patient and has a better clinical correlation.

A 22-year-old competitive cross-country skier presents with a complaint of not being able to perform as well as she expects. She has been training hard, but says she seems to get short of breath more quickly than she should. She also coughs frequently while exercising. A review of systems is otherwise negative. Her family history is negative for cardiac or pulmonary diseases. Her physical examination is completely normal, and pulmonary function tests obtained before and after bronchodilator use are normal. After you discuss your findings with the patient, she acknowledges that her expectations may be too high, but can think of no other cause for her problem. Which one of the following would be the next reasonable step? (check one) A. An echocardiogram to look for cardiomyopathy or valvular dysfunction B. Counseling regarding competition stress and athlete burnout syndrome C. A sports medicine consultation to evaluate her training regimen D. A trial of inhaled albuterol (Proventil) for exercise-induced bronchospasm

D. A trial of inhaled albuterol (Proventil) for exercise-induced bronchospasm. Exercise-induced bronchoconstriction (EIB) is a very common and underdiagnosed condition in athletes. It is defined as a 10% lowering of FEV1 when challenged with exercise. The exercise required to cause bronchoconstriction is 5-8 minutes at 80% of maximal oxygen consumption. EIB is much more common in high-ventilation sports, such as track and cross-country skiing. It is also more common in winter sports, because of the inspiration of cold, dry air. In some studies the incidence among cross-country skiers is as high as 50%, and 40% of those who have positive tests for bronchospasm are unaware of the problem. A physical examination, as well as pulmonary function tests at rest and before and after bronchodilators, will be normal unless there is underlying asthma. Among athletes with EIB, 10% will not have asthma. Bronchoprovocative testing can be ordered, but if it is not available a trial with an albuterol inhaler is reasonable. Cardiomyopathy or valvular dysfunction not found during the physical examination is possible, but much less likely. Psychological stresses are also a possible etiology, but should not receive undue attention, especially when simple questioning is not productive and more likely diagnoses have not been ruled out. Poor training methods are also possible, but in a competitive athlete this is not the most likely cause.

Which one of the following is preferred for chronic treatment of congestive heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction? (check one) A. Diuretics B. Digoxin C. Calcium channel blockers D. ACE inhibitors E. Hydralazine (Apresoline) plus isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil, Sorbitrate)

D. ACE inhibitors. ACE inhibitors are the preferred drugs for congestive heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction, because they are associated with the lowest mortality. The combination of hydralazine/isosorbide dinitrate is a reasonable alternative, and diuretics should be used cautiously. It is not known whether digoxin affects mortality, although it can help with symptoms.

A 72-year-old white male presents with a complaint of headache, blurred vision, and severe right eye pain. His symptoms began acutely about 1 hour ago. Examination of the eye reveals a mid-dilated, sluggish pupil; a hazy cornea; and a red conjunctiva. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Retinal detachment B. Central retinal artery occlusion C. Mechanical injury to the globe D. Acute angle-closure glaucoma

D. Acute angle-closure glaucoma. This patient presents with acute angle-closure glaucoma, manifested by an acute onset of severe pain, blurred vision, halos around lights, increased intraocular pressure, red conjunctiva, a mid-dilated and sluggish pupil, and a normal or hazy cornea. Findings with retinal detachment include either normal vision or peripheral or central vision loss; absence of pain; increasing floaters; and a normal conjunctiva, cornea, and pupil. Central retinal artery occlusion findings include amaurosis fugax, a red conjunctiva, a pale fundus, a cherry-red spot at the fovea, and "boxcarring" of the retinal vessels. In patients with mechanical injury to the globe, findings include moderate to severe pain, normal or decreased vision, subconjunctival hemorrhage completely surrounding the cornea, and a pupil that is irregular or deviated toward the injury (SOR B).

A 70-year-old alcoholic male is recovering from a nontransmural myocardial infarction. On the fourth hospital day, he describes a sudden onset of excruciating abdominal pain, which is not significantly reduced by large doses of morphine. He becomes nauseated, begins to vomit, and has diarrhea. The patient appears agitated and confused, and his heart rate increases. He also becomes hypotensive. Physical examination of his abdomen reveals minimal tenderness, decreased bowel sounds, and a moderately enlarged liver. Laboratory Findings WBCs 17,600/mm3 with a left shift (N 4300-10,800) Hematocrit 54% (N 37-49) BUN 40 mg/dL (N 8-25) Creatinine 1.0 (N 0.6-1.5) Serum amylase 250 U/L (N 43-115) Serum lipase 100 U/L (N 0-160) pH 7.14 (N 7.35-7.45) The most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome B. Pulmonary embolus C. Pancreatitis D. Acute mesenteric artery embolism

D. Acute mesenteric artery embolism. The hallmark of acute mesenteric artery ischemia is severe abdominal pain that is out of proportion to physical findings. This is a life-threatening event, which often follows myocardial infarction when a mural thrombus occludes a superior mesenteric artery. Patients rapidly become acidotic and hypotensive, and experience a high mortality rate. Alcoholic withdrawal syndrome has a much more insidious onset, with tremors, agitation, and anxiety being the prominent features. Abdominal pain is not a common prominent symptom or finding. Although pulmonary embolism is possible in the setting described, dyspnea and chest pain are the major symptoms. Abdominal pain and tenderness are not the usual manifestation of this disease. A normal serum lipase level should point to a non-pancreatic origin for this patient's problem. A mildly elevated serum amylase level is not specific to the diagnosis and is commonly seen in other pathologies.

A 3-year-old male presents with a 3-day history of fever and refusal to eat. Today his parents noted some sores just inside his lips. No one else in the family is ill, and he has no significant past medical history. He is up-to-date on his immunizations and has no known allergies. On examination, positive findings include a temperature of 38.9°C (102.0°F) rectally, irritability, and ulcers on the oral buccal mucosa, soft palate, tongue, and lips. He also has cervical lymphadenopathy. The remainder of the physical examination is normal. The child is alert and has no skin lesions or meningeal signs. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate treatment? (check one) A. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) intramuscularly B. Nystatin oral suspension C. Amoxicillin suspension D. Acyclovir (Zovirax) suspension E. Methotrexate (Trexall)

D. Acyclovir (Zovirax) suspension. The history and physical findings in this patient are consistent with gingivostomatitis due to a primary or initial infection with herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1). There are no additional findings to suggest other diagnoses such as aphthous ulcers, Behçet's syndrome, or herpangina (coxsackievirus). After a primary HSV-1 infection with oral involvement, the virus invades the neurons and replicates in the trigeminal sensory ganglion, leading to recurrent herpes labialis and erythema multiforme, among other things. Although some clinicians might choose to use oral anesthetics for symptomatic care, it is not a specific therapy. Antibiotics are not useful for the treatment of herpetic gingivostomatitis and could confuse the clinical picture should this child develop erythema multiforme, which occurs with HSV-1 infections. An orally applied corticosteroid is not specific treatment, but some might try it for symptomatic relief. An immunosuppressant is sometimes used for the treatment of Behçet's syndrome, but this patient's findings are not consistent with that diagnosis. Therefore, the only specific treatment listed is acyclovir suspension, which has been shown to lead to earlier resolution of fever, oral lesions, and difficulties with eating and drinking. It also reduces viral shedding from 5 days to 1 day (SOR B).

A 30-year-old female presents to your office for an initial visit. She reports a long history of asthma that currently awakens her three times per month, necessitating the use of an albuterol inhaler (Proventil, Ventolin). According to current guidelines, which one of the following would be optimal treatment? (check one) A. Continued use of a short-acting β-agonist only as needed B. Adding a long-acting β-agonist C. Adding a leukotriene receptor antagonist D. Adding a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid E. Adding theophylline

D. Adding a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid. Inhaled corticosteroids improve asthma control more effectively in children and adults than any other single long-term controller medication (SOR A). This patient has mild persistent asthma and should be treated with a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid.

Which one of the following would be the best treatment for this patient? (check one) A. Synchronized DC cardioversion B. Metoprolol (Lopressor) C. Amiodarone (Cordarone) D. Adenosine (Adenocard) E. Atropine

D. Adenosine (Adenocard). The patient has paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) with a heart rate of approximately 170 beats/min. Intravenous adenosine is the treatment of choice for PSVT. Because the patient is hemodynamically stable, DC cardioversion is not indicated. Metoprolol may slow the heart rate but likely will not convert it to sinus rhythm. Amiodarone is indicated for hemodynamically stable ventricular tachycardia. Atropine is contraindicated in this or any other tachyarrhythmia.

Which one of the following nutritional interventions should be recommended to accelerate pressure ulcer healing in the elderly? (check one) A. Supplemental arginine B. Oral vitamin C and zinc C. High-dose multivitamins D. Adequate protein intake

D. Adequate protein intake. Very few nutritional interventions have been shown to accelerate pressure ulcer healing in the elderly. Maintaining a protein intake of at least 1.2-1.5 g/kg/day is recommended, and some authorities recommend 2 g/kg/day with stage III or IV ulcers. Increased caloric intake is also necessary to promote healing. The role of vitamins and minerals in preventing and treating pressure ulcers is unclear.

======================================================= Cardiovascular Board Review Questions 01 ======================================================= You see a 23-year-old gravida 1 para 0 for her prenatal checkup at 38 weeks gestation. She complains of severe headaches and epigastric pain. She has had an uneventful pregnancy to date and had a normal prenatal examination 2 weeks ago. Her blood pressure is 140/100 mm Hg. A urinalysis shows 2+ protein; she has gained 5 lb in the last week, and has 2+ pitting edema of her legs. The most appropriate management at this point would be: (check one) A. Strict bed rest at home and reexamination within 48 hours B. Admitting the patient to the hospital for bed rest and frequent monitoring of blood pressure, weight, and proteinuria C. Admitting the patient to the hospital for bed rest and monitoring, and beginning hydralazine (Apresoline) to maintain blood pressure below 140/90 mm Hg D. Admitting the patient to the hospital, treating with parenteral magnesium sulfate, and planning prompt delivery either vaginally or by cesarean section

D. Admitting the patient to the hospital, treating with parenteral magnesium sulfate, and planning prompt delivery either vaginally or by cesarean section. This patient manifests a rapid onset of preeclampsia at term. The symptoms of epigastric pain and headache categorize her preeclampsia as severe. These symptoms indicate that the process is well advanced and that convulsions are imminent. Treatment should focus on rapid control of symptoms and delivery of the infant.

A 79-year-old white male with a previous history of prostate cancer has a lumbar spine film suggesting osteopenia. Subsequent bone density studies show a T score of -2.7. Which one of the following would be appropriate therapy? (check one) A. Testosterone B. Calcitonin nasal spray (Micalcin) C. Raloxifene (Evista) D. Alendronate (Fosamax)

D. Alendronate (Fosamax). The only approved treatments for male osteoporosis are alendronate and recombinant parathyroid hormone. Several drugs have been tested in clinical trials, and more pharmacologic treatments should become available in the future as male osteoporosis is increasingly recognized. Testosterone should not be used in this patient because of his history of prostate cancer.

A 23-year-old female sees you with a complaint of intermittent irregular heartbeats that occur once every week or two, but do not cause her to feel lightheaded or fatigued. They last only a few seconds and resolve spontaneously. She has never passed out, had chest pain, or had difficulty with exertion. She is otherwise healthy, and a physical examination is normal. Which one of the following cardiac studies should be ordered initially? (check one) A. 24-hour ambulatory EKG monitoring (Holter monitor) B. 30-day continuous closed-loop event recording C. Echocardiography D. An EKG E. Electrophysiologic studies

D. An EKG. The symptom of an increased or abnormal sensation of one's heartbeat is referred to as palpitations. This condition is common to primary care, but is often benign. Commonly, these sensations have their basis in anxiety or panic. However, about 50% of those who complain of palpitations will be found to have a diagnosable cardiac condition. It is recommended to start the evaluation for cardiac causes with an EKG, which will assess the baseline rhythm and screen for signs of chamber enlargement, previous myocardial infarction, conduction disturbances, and a prolonged QT interval.

A 28-year-old male recreational runner has a midshaft posteromedial tibial stress fracture. Although he can walk without pain, he cannot run without pain. The most appropriate treatment at this point includes which one of the following? (check one) A. A short leg walking cast B. A non-weight-bearing short leg cast C. A non-weight-bearing long leg cast D. An air stirrup leg brace (Aircast) E. Low-intensity ultrasonic pulse therapy

D. An air stirrup leg brace (Aircast). Midshaft posteromedial tibial stress fractures are common and are considered low risk. Management consists of relative rest from running and avoiding other activities that cause pain. Once usual daily activities are pain free, low-impact exercise can be initiated and followed by a gradual return to previous levels of running. A pneumatic stirrup leg brace has been found to be helpful during treatment (SOR C). Non-weight bearing is not necessary, as this patient can walk without pain. Casting is not recommended. Ultrasonic pulse therapy has helped fracture healing in some instances, but has not been shown to be beneficial in stress fractures.

Which one of the following is associated with vacuum-assisted delivery? (check one) A. Lower fetal risk than with forceps delivery B. More maternal soft-tissue trauma than forceps delivery C. A reduced likelihood of severe perineal laceration compared to spontaneous delivery D. An increased incidence of shoulder dystocia

D. An increased incidence of shoulder dystocia. Vacuum-assisted delivery is associated with higher rates of neonatal cephalhematoma and retinal hemorrhage compared with forceps delivery. A systematic review of 10 trials found that vacuum-assisted deliveries are associated with less maternal soft-tissue trauma when compared to forceps delivery. Compared with spontaneous vaginal delivery, the likelihood of a severe perineal laceration is increased in women who have vacuum-assisted delivery without episiotomy, and the odds are even higher in vacuum-assisted delivery with episiotomy. Operative vaginal delivery is a risk factor for shoulder dystocia, which is more common with vacuum-assisted delivery than with forceps delivery.

A 27-year-old white male construction worker suffers from severe plaque-type psoriasis that has required systemic therapy. Which one of the following is associated with this condition? (check one) A. A reduced overall risk of cardiovascular mortality B. A decreased risk of skin cancer with successful treatment C. A low likelihood of recurrence with successful treatment D. An increased risk for the condition in the children of affected individuals E. Low body mass index and difficulty maintaining weight

D. An increased risk for the condition in the children of affected individuals. Psoriasis is a genetic inflammatory condition that has been associated with a significant risk of cardiovascular morbidity and mortality. Children of patients with the disorder are at increased risk. This is especially true if both parents have the disorder. Life expectancy is somewhat reduced in patients with severe psoriasis, particularly if the disease had an early onset. Plaque psoriasis is usually a lifelong disease; this is in contrast to guttate psoriasis, which may be self-limited and never recur. Cigarette smoking may increase the risk of developing psoriasis. Psoriasis is also associated with an increased likelihood of obesity, diabetes mellitus, and metabolic syndrome.

A 16-year-old white male is seen for a preparticipation sports examination. His height is 183 cm (72 in), his weight is 64 kg (141 lb), and he appears to have long arms. A physical examination reveals a high arched palate, kyphosis, myopia, and pectus excavatum. Which one of the following valvular abnormalities is most likely in this patient? (check one) A. Mitral stenosis B. Pulmonic stenosis C. Aortic stenosis D. Aortic insufficiency E. Bicuspid aortic valve

D. Aortic insufficiency. This adolescent has findings of Marfan syndrome. It is associated with arachnodactly, arm span greater than height, a high arched palate, kyphosis, lenticular dislocation, mitral valve prolapse, myopia, and pectus excavatum. Cardiac examination may reveal an aortic insufficiency murmur, or a murmur associated with mitral valve prolapse. Cardiovascular defects are progressive, and aortic root dilation occurs in 80%-100% of affected individuals. Aortic regurgitation becomes more common with increasing age.

You have just received test results confirming that a 78-year-old patient has metastatic lung cancer. She informs you she does not want to know the results of the tests and is "leaving it in God's hands." You know that additional issues need to be explored, such as her desire for chemotherapy and hospice care. Which one of the following is the most appropriate strategy for determining her wishes? (check one) A. Acknowledge her concerns, but proceed with a discussion of her diagnosis and prognosis B. Ask family members to gently break the news to your patient and tell them you will return later to discuss the details and answer questions C. Have a hospice representative visit and discuss the diagnosis and options for care D. Ask the patient to designate someone with whom you can discuss the results and prognosis

D. Ask the patient to designate someone with whom you can discuss the results and prognosis. In a patient-centered approach to communication regarding end-of-life care, a patient's wishes to not know about a diagnosis or prognosis should be respected. However, it is reasonable to ask the patient to name a proxy with whom you may discuss the issues. The other options listed do not respect the patient's desire to not know her diagnosis or prognosis.

You are evaluating a 25-year-old gravida 5 para 1 at 6 weeks estimated gestation. She has a history of three consecutive spontaneous miscarriages. Her workup has been negative except for a positive lupus anticoagulant on two occasions, separated by 6 weeks. You make the diagnosis of antiphospholipid antibody syndrome. She has no previous history of venous or arterial thrombosis. The best medical management at this time is: (check one) A. Acetaminophen B. Warfarin (Coumadin) C. Prednisone D. Aspirin and heparin combined E. Progesterone

D. Aspirin and heparin combined. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome in pregnancy is associated with an increased risk of thromboembolism, fetal loss, thrombocytopenia, and poor pregnancy outcome. Studies comparing aspirin alone versus aspirin and heparin suggest that the combination of aspirin and heparin is most effective for decreasing fetal loss. One study showed decreased fetal loss with a combination of corticosteroids and aspirin, but the results have not been reproduced in subsequent studies. In addition, the use of prednisone was associated with an increased risk of premature rupture of membranes, preterm delivery, fetal growth restriction, infection, preeclampsia, diabetes, osteopenia, and avascular necrosis. Progesterone may be useful for recurrent spontaneous abortion related to a luteal phase defect, but has not been shown to be effective in preventing complications associated with antiphospholipid antibody syndrome.

A 53-year-old male presents with a 1-day history of swelling in his upper arm, shown in Figure 1. The swelling appeared after a sudden painful "pop" as he was lifting a heavy box. A physical examination reveals a soft to firm, nontender mass in the anterior aspect of the arm, and weakness of forearm supination. Shoulder radiographs are normal. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Acute anterior shoulder dislocation B. Lateral epicondylitis C. Biceps tendinitis D. Biceps tendon rupture

D. Biceps tendon rupture. Biceps tendon rupture is one of the most common musculotendinous ruptures. Patients typically present with a visible lump in the upper arm following an audible, painful "pop." The injury typically results from application of an eccentric load to a flexed elbow. Risk factors for biceps tendon rupture include age >40, deconditioning, contralateral biceps tendon rupture, a history of rotator cuff tear, rheumatoid arthritis, and cigarette smoking. Weakness in forearm supination and elbow flexion may be present. The biceps squeeze test and the hook test are both sensitive and specific for diagnosing the condition. Acute anterior shoulder dislocation is typically very painful, with restricted shoulder movements. Lateral epicondylitis results in pain and tenderness over a localized area of the proximal lateral forearm. Biceps tendinitis results in a deep throbbing pain over the anterior shoulder, accompanied by bicipital groove tenderness.

A 40-year-old female is scheduled for a cholecystectomy and you wish to estimate her risk for postoperative bleeding. Which one of the following provides the most sensitive method for identifying her risk? (check one) A. Bleeding time B. Prothrombin time (PT) C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) D. Bleeding history

D. Bleeding history. Bleeding time, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), and prothrombin time (PT) are relatively poor predictors of bleeding risk. Studies have shown that baseline coagulation assays do not predict postoperative bleeding in patients undergoing general or vascular surgery who have no history that suggests a bleeding disorder. Obtaining a history for evidence of prior bleeding problems is the most sensitive and accurate method of determining a patient's risk.

A 25-year-old female comes to your office requesting a referral to an otolaryngologist for surgery on her nose. She states that her nose is too large and that "something must be done." She has already seen multiple family physicians, as well as several otolaryngologists. She is 168 cm (66 in) tall and weighs 64 kg (141 lb). A physical examination is normal, and even though she initially resists a nasal examination, it also is normal. The size of her nose is normal. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's concern about her nose? (check one) A. Obsessive-compulsive disorder B. Anorexia nervosa C. Depression D. Body dysmorphic disorder

D. Body dysmorphic disorder. Body dysmorphic disorder is an increasingly recognized somatoform disorder that is clinically distinct from obsessive-compulsive disorder, eating disorders, and depression. Patients have a preoccupation with imagined defects in appearance, which causes emotional stress. Body dysmorphic disorder may coexist with anorexia nervosa, atypical depression, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and social anxiety. Cosmetic surgery is often sought. SSRIs and behavior modification may help, but cosmetic procedures are rarely helpful.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 68 ======================================================= A 44-year-old male sees you for evaluation of an episode of pink-tinged urine last week. He denies any flank or abdominal pain, as well as frequency, urgency, and dysuria. He has no prior history of renal or other urologic disease, and no other significant medical problems. He has a 24-pack-year smoking history. A urinalysis today reveals 8-10 RBCs/hpf. You refer him to a urologist for cystoscopy. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate additional evaluation? (check one) A. KUB radiography B. Transabdominal ultrasonography C. Voiding cystourethrography D. CT urography E. Magnetic resonance urography

D. CT urography. CT urography or intravenous pyelography is recommended by the American College of Radiology as the most appropriate imaging procedure for hematuria in all patients, with the exception of those with generalized renal parenchymal disease, young women with hemorrhagic cystitis, children, and pregnant females.

A 57-year-old African-American female has a partial resection of the colon for cancer. The surgical specimen has clean margins, and there is no lymph node involvement. There is no evidence of metastasis. You recommend periodic colonoscopy for surveillance, and also plan to monitor which one of the following tumor markers for recurrence? (check one) A. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) B. Cancer antigen 27.29 (CA 27-29) C. Cancer antigen 125 (CA-125) D. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) E. Alpha-fetoprotein

D. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA). Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is a marker that is used to screen for prostate cancer. It is elevated in more than 70% of organ-confined prostate cancers. Alpha-tetoprotein is a marker for hepatocellular carcinoma and nonseminomatous germ cell tumor, and is elevated in 80% of hepatocellular carcinomas. CA-125 is a marker for ovarian cancer. Although it is elevated in 85% of ovarian cancers, it is elevated in only 50% of early-stage ovarian cancers. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a marker for colon, esophageal, and hepatic cancers. It is expressed in normal mucosal cells and is overexpressed in adenocarcinoma, especially colon cancer. Though not specific for colon cancer, levels above 10 ng/mL are rarely due to benign disease. CEA levels typically return to normal within 4-6 weeks after successful surgical resection. CEA elevation occurs in nearly half of patients with a normal preoperative CEA level that have cancer recurrence. Cancer antigen 27.29 (CA 27-29) is a tumor marker for breast cancer. It is elevated in about 33% of early-stage breast cancers and about 67% of late-stage breast cancers. Some tumor markers, such as CEA, alpha-fetoprotein, and CA-125, may be more helpful in monitoring response to therapy than in detecting the primary tumor.

A slender 22-year-old female is concerned about a recent weight loss of 10 lb, frequent mild abdominal pain, and significant diarrhea of 2 months' duration. Her physical examination is unremarkable, and laboratory studies reveal only a moderate microcytic, hypochromic anemia. Based on this presentation, which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Villous adenoma C. Infectious colitis D. Celiac disease E. Ulcerative colitis

D. Celiac disease. This constellation of symptoms strongly suggests celiac disease, a surprisingly common disease with a prevalence of 1:13 in the U.S. Half the adults in the U.S. with celiac disease or gluten-sensitive enteropathy present with anemia or osteoporosis, without gastrointestinal symptoms. Individuals with more significant mucosal involvement present with watery diarrhea, weight loss, and vitamin and mineral deficiencies.

A 29-year-old gravida 1 para 0 at 8 weeks gestation is concerned about Down syndrome. She had a sibling with Down syndrome, and she and her spouse want to know what antenatal tests are available to them. Which one of the following has the best detection rate for Down syndrome in the first trimester of pregnancy? (check one) A. Serum β-hCG and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A), with nuchal translucency (combined screening) B. Maternal serum levels of inhibin A, α-fetoprotein, unconjugated estriol, and β-hCG (quadruple screening) C. Ultrasonography D. Chorionic villus sampling E. Amniocentesis

D. Chorionic villus sampling. In today's environment, there are multiple screening tools and tests to detect fetal aneuploidy. All pregnant women, regardless of age, should be offered the opportunity to undergo some form or combination of screening to detect fetal abnormalities (SOR B). Chorionic villus sampling can be offered at 10-13 weeks gestation, and has a 97.8% detection rate for Down syndrome—the best detection rate of studies offered in the first trimester (SOR C). Combined screening can be offered at 11-14 weeks gestation, and has a 78.7%-89% detection rate (SOR A). Although amniocentesis has the best detection rate of the options listed (99.4%), it cannot be offered until 16-18 weeks gestation (SOR C). Quadruple screening is done at 15-20 weeks gestation, and has a 67%-81% detection rate (SOR A); ultrasonography at 18-22 weeks gestation has a 35%-79% detection rate (SOR C).

Which one of the following is a criterion for gastric bypass surgery, according to recommendations of the National Institutes of Health? (check one) A. A Framingham risk score >25% B. Severe insulin resistance C. Failed pharmacotherapy D. Clearance by a mental health professional E. A BMI >30 kg/m2 with comorbidities

D. Clearance by a mental health professional. The National Institutes of Health Consensus Development Conference issued recommendations for gastric bypass surgery in 1991, and these are still considered to be basic criteria (SOR C). Indications for laparoscopic bariatric surgery for morbid obesity include a BMI >40 kg/m2 or a BMI of 35-40 kg/m2 withsignificant obesity-related comorbidities. Weight loss by nonoperative means should be attempted before surgery, and patients should be evaluated by a multidisciplinary team that includes a dietician and a mental health professional before surgery.

A 45-year-old male presents with a complaint of recent headaches. He has had four headaches this week, and his description indicates that they are moderate to severe, bilateral, frontal, and nonthrobbing. There is no associated aura. He has had similar episodes of recurring headachesin the past. Based on this limited history, which one of the following headache types can be eliminated from the differential diagnosis? (check one) A. Tension-type headache B. Sinus headache C. Migraine headache D. Cluster headache E. Headache of intracranial neoplasm

D. Cluster headache. Cluster headache can be removed from the differential because it is always unilateral, although the affected side can vary. The remainder of these headache types can be bilateral, frontal, and nonthrobbing. Brain tumor headaches may be similar in character to previous headaches, but are often more severe or frequent.

The Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) tests for: (check one) A. Mood B. Behavior C. Intelligence quotient D. Cognitive function E. Functional impairment

D. Cognitive function. The MMSE is most commonly used in clinical settings. It is considered valuable because it assesses a broad range of cognitive abilities (i.e., memory, language, spatial ability, set shifting) in a simple and straightforward manner. In addition, the wide use of the MMSE in epidemiologic studies has yielded cutoff scores that facilitate the identification of patients with cognitive dysfunction.

Which one of the following indicates that a patient has entered the second stage of labor? (check one) A. A small amount of bloody, mucous discharge from the cervix ("bloody show") B. Braxton Hicks contractions C. Spontaneous rupture of the chorioamnionic membranes D. Complete dilation of the uterine cervix E. Successful delivery of the placenta

D. Complete dilation of the uterine cervix. For many women, labor will be preceded by several hours, or even days, by "bloody show." So-called "false labor," or Braxton Hicks contractions, consists of weak, irregular, regional contractions that usually occur for weeks before the onset of actual labor and abate with time, analgesia, and sedation. Spontaneous chorioamnionic membrane rupture precedes the onset of labor in about 10% of pregnancies, and amniotic fluid leaks through the cervix and out the vagina. The second stage of labor is defined as the period from complete cervical dilation to complete delivery of the baby. When the cervix is completely dilated, the patient usually experiences the urge to push with contractions. The third stage of labor begins with the delivery of the baby and ends with the delivery of the placenta.

A 47-year-old male with chronic kidney disease is being treated with epoetin alfa (Procrit). His hemoglobin level is 11.3 g/dL (N 13.0-18.0). Which one of the following would be most appropriate with regard to his epoetin alfa regimen? (check one) A. Increase the dosage until the hemoglobin level is >12.0 g/dL B. Increase the frequency of injections, using the same dose C. Decrease the frequency of injections, using the same dose D. Continue the current regimen

D. Continue the current regimen. In patients with renal failure, the risk for death and serious cardiovascular events is increased with higher hemoglobin levels (≥13.5 g/dL), and it is therefore recommended that levels be maintained at 10-12 g/dL. Studies have also demonstrated less mortality and morbidity when the dosage of epoetin alfa is set to achieve a target hemoglobin of <12 g/dL.

A 36-year-old male presents with pain over the lumbar paraspinal muscles. He says the pain began suddenly while he was shoveling snow. Which one of the following is true regarding this patients injury? (check one) A. Systemic corticosteroids speed recovery B. Exercises specific to low back injuries speed recovery C. Opioids have significant advantages for symptom relief when compared with NSAIDs or acetaminophen D. Continued activity rather than bed rest helps speed recovery E. Trigger-point injections are superior to placebo in relieving acute back pain

D. Continued activity rather than bed rest helps speed recovery. Multiple studies have demonstrated that bed rest is detrimental to recovery from low back pain. Patients should be encouraged to remain as active as possible. Exercises designed specifically for the treatment of low back pain have not been shown to be helpful. Neither opioids nor trigger-point injections have shown superiority over placebo, NSAIDs, or acetaminophen in relieving acute back pain. There is no good evidence to suggest that systemic corticosteroids are effective for low back pain with or without sciatica.

Over the last 6 months a developmentally normal 12-year-old white female has experienced intermittent abdominal pain, which has made her quite irritable. She also complains of joint pain and general malaise. She has lost 5 kg (11 lb) and has developed an anal fissure. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of these symptoms? (check one) A. Celiac disease (gluten enteropathy) B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Hepatitis A D. Crohn's disease E. Giardiasis

D. Crohn's disease. The most common age of onset for inflammatory bowel disease is during adolescence and young adulthood, with a second peak at 50-80 years of age. The manifestations of Crohn's disease are somewhat dependent on the site of involvement, but systemic signs and symptoms are more common than with ulcerative colitis. Perianal disease is also common in Crohn's disease. Irritable colon and other functional bowel disorders may mimic symptoms of Crohn's disease, but objective findings of weight loss and anal lesions are extremely uncommon. This is also true for viral hepatitis and giardiasis. In addition, the historical and epidemiologic findings in this case are not consistent with either of these infections. Celiac disease and giardiasis can produce Crohn's-like symptoms of diarrhea and weight loss, but are not associated with anal fissures.

Which one of the following fetal ultrasound measurements gives the most accurate estimate of gestational age in the first trimester (up to 14 weeks)? (check one) A. Femur length B. Biparietal diameter C. Abdominal circumference D. Crown-rump length E. Scapulo-sacral length

D. Crown-rump length. Because the growth pattern of the fetus varies throughout pregnancy, the accuracy of measurements and their usefulness in determining gestational age and growth vary with each trimester. Crown-rump length is the distance from the top of the head to the bottom of the fetal spine. It is most accurate as a measure of gestational age at 7-14 weeks. After that, other measurements are more reliable. In the second trimester, biparietal diameter and femur length are used. During the third trimester, biparietal diameter, abdominal circumference, and femur length are best for estimating gestational age.

Which one of the following is recommended for the treatment of intravaginal genital warts in pregnant women? (check one) A. Imiquimod 5% cream (Aldara) B. Podofilox 0.5% solution (Condylox) C. Podophyllin 10%-25% in tincture of benzoin (Podofin) D. Cryotherapy with liquid nitrogen E. Interferon-alpha

D. Cryotherapy with liquid nitrogen. Genital warts can proliferate and fragment during pregnancy, and many specialists recommend that they be eliminated. Imiquimod, podophyllin, and podofilox are not recommended for use during pregnancy. For the treatment of vaginal warts, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends the use of cryotherapy. Liquid nitrogen, rather than a cryoprobe, should be used to avoid possible vaginal perforation and subsequent fistula formation. An alternative is the use of trichloroacetic acid or bichloroacetic acid carefully applied to the lesions to avoid damage to adjacent tissue. Interferon is no longer recommended for routine use in treating genital warts, due to a high frequency of systemic adverse effects.

At the 18-month visit, which one of the following is the most specific sign of autism? (check one) A. Delayed or odd use of language B. Repetitive behaviors C. Stereotypic movements D. Delayed attainment of social skill milestones E. Self-injurious behaviors

D. Delayed attainment of social skill milestones. Delayed attainment of social skill milestones is the earliest and most specific sign of autism. Delayed or odd use of language is a common, but less specific, early sign of autism. Compared with social and language impairments, restricted interests and repetitive behaviors are less prominent and more variable in young children. Self-injurious behaviors are associated with autism, but not specific for it. For example, new-onset head banging may be the way an autistic child attempts to deal with pain from a dental abscess, headache, sinusitis, otitis media, or other source of pain.

An 83-year-old female is admitted to the hospital with an exacerbation of her COPD. On the second hospital day she is clinically improved but is quite disoriented, experiencing visual hallucinations, agitation, and problems with recent memory and attention span. She is noted by the nursing staff to periodically fall asleep during conversation. Her previous medical history is notable for emphysema and hypertension, but there is no history of psychiatric problems. Her blood pressure is 140/82 mm Hg, pulse 88 beats/min, and oxygen saturation 98% on 2 L of nasal O2. Which one of the following does this patient most likely have? (check one) A. Dementia B. Acute depression C. Mania D. Delirium E. Schizophrenia

D. Delirium. The primary distinguishing feature of delirium is a course that is typically acute, with rapid deterioration over hours or days, rather than months as with dementia. Also, the severity of delirium tends to fluctuate over the course of hours, with patients appearing quite normal at times and wildly agitated with hallucinations at others. Frequently, extreme changes in psychomotor activity are noted with delirium; although this may also be seen with dementia, it is typically not seen until the latter stages. Bipolar disorders are characterized by the occurrence of mania, which is manifested by a full-blown disturbance of mood together with elation and irritability. Its onset is generally in the third or fourth decade of life. Schizophrenia, while often including hallucinations and delusions, usually starts in late adolescence or early adulthood, with a prodromal phase showing a gradual deterioration in function.

A 62-year-old female undergoes elective surgery and is discharged on postoperative day 3. A week later she is hospitalized again with pneumonia. A CBC shows that her platelet count has dropped to 150,000/mm3 (N 150,000-300,000) from 350,000 /mm3 a week ago. She received prophylactic heparin postoperatively during her first hospitalization. The patient is started on intravenous antibiotics for the pneumonia and subcutaneous heparin for deep-vein thrombosis prophylaxis. On hospital day 2, she has an acute onset of severe dyspnea and hypoxia; CT of the chest reveals bilateral pulmonary emboli. Her platelet count is now 80,000/mm3 . Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. Continue subcutaneous heparin B. Discontinue subcutaneous heparin and start a continuous intravenous heparin drip C. Discontinue heparin and give a platelet transfusion D. Discontinue heparin and start a non-heparin anticoagulant such as argatroban or desirudin (Iprivask) E. Discontinue unfractionated heparin and start a low molecular weight heparin such as enoxaparin (Lovenox)

D. Discontinue heparin and start a non-heparin anticoagulant such as argatroban or desirudin (Iprivask). This patient needs prompt evaluation and treatment for probable heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). HIT is a potentially life-threatening syndrome that usually occurs within 1-2 weeks of heparin administration and is characterized by the presence of HIT antibodies in the serum, associated with an otherwise unexplained 30%-50% decrease in the platelet count, arterial or venous thrombosis, anaphylactoid reactions immediately following heparin administration, or skin lesions at the site of heparin injections. Postoperative patients receiving subcutaneous unfractionated heparin prophylaxis are at highest risk for HIT. Because of this patient's high-risk scenario and the presence of acute thrombosis, it is advisable to begin immediate empiric treatment for HIT pending laboratory confirmation. Management should include discontinuation of heparin and treatment with a non-heparin anticoagulant.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 13 ======================================================= Which one of the following is a recommended treatment for presumptive methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection? (check one) A. Azithromycin (Zithromax) B. Dicloxacillin C. Levofloxacin (Levaquin) D. Doxycycline E. Cephalexin (Keflex)

D. Doxycycline. Community-acquired methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is resistant to β-lactam and macrolide antibiotics, and is showing increasing resistance to fluoroquinolones. FDA-approved treatments include clindamycin and doxycycline. Other commonly used treatments include minocycline and trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole.

======================================================= Musculoskeletal Board Review Questions 03 ======================================================= A 21-year-old white female presents to the emergency department with a history consistent with a lateral ankle sprain that occurred 2 hours ago while she was playing softball. She complains of pain over the distal anterior talofibular ligament, but is able to bear weight. There is mild swelling, mild black and blue discoloration, and moderate tenderness to palpation over the insertion of the anterior talofibular ligament, but the malleoli are nontender to palpation. Which one of the following statements is true regarding the management of this case? (check one) A. Anteroposterior, lateral, and 30 degrees internal oblique (mortise view) radiographs should be done to rule out fracture B. Stress radiographs will be needed to rule out a major partial or complete ligamentous tear C. The patient should use crutches and avoid weight bearing for 10-14 days D. Early range-of-motion exercises should be initiated to maintain flexibility E. For best results, functional rehabilitation should begin within the first 24 hours after injury

D. Early range-of-motion exercises should be initiated to maintain flexibility. This patient has an uncomplicated lateral ankle sprain and requires minimal intervention. The Ottawa ankle rules were developed to determine when radiographs are needed for ankle sprains. In summary, ankle radiographs should be done if the patient has pain at the medial or lateral malleolus and either bone tenderness at the back edge or tip of the lateral or medial malleolus, or an inability to bear weight immediately after the injury or in the emergency department, or both. If the patient complains of midfoot pain and/or bone tenderness at the base of the fifth metatarsal or navicular, or an inability to bear weight, radiographs should be ordered. Sprains can be differentiated from major partial or complete ligamentous tears by anteroposterior, lateral, and 30 degrees internal oblique (mortise view) radiographs. If the joint cleft between either malleolus and the talus is >4 mm, a major ligamentous tear is probable. Stress radiographs in forced inversion are sometimes helpful to demonstrate stability, but ankle instability can be present with a normal stress radiograph. Grade I and II ankle sprains are best treated with RICE (rest, ice, compression, elevation) and an air splint for ambulation. NSAIDs are used for control of pain and inflammation. Heat should not be applied. Early range-of-motion exercises should be initiated to maintain flexibility. Weight bearing is appropriate as tolerated and functional rehabilitation should be started when pain permits. Exercises on a balance board will help develop coordination.

A 65-year-old male presents for a follow-up visit for severe depression. His symptoms have included crying episodes, difficulty maintaining sleep, and decreased appetite. He has suicidal ideations and states that he has a gun in his home. He also thinks his wife is having an affair, but she is present and is adamant that this is not true. His symptoms have not been relieved by maximum doses of sertraline (Zoloft), venlafaxine (Effexor), or citalopram (Celexa). He currently is taking duloxetine (Cymbalta), which also has failed to relieve his symptoms. Which one of the following would most likely provide the quickest relief of his symptoms? (check one) A. Counseling B. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) C. Stopping duloxetine and starting an MAO inhibitor D. Electroconvulsive therapy

D. Electroconvulsive therapy. This patient has psychotic depression with suicidal ideations and has not responded to maximum doses of several antidepressants. He is more likely to respond to electroconvulsive therapy than to counseling or a change in medication.

In a patient with chronic hepatitis B, which one of the following findings suggests that the infection is in the active phase? (check one) A. A normal liver biopsy B. Detectable levels of HBeAb C. Detectable levels of HBsAb D. Elevated levels of ALT E. Undetectable levels of HBV DNA

D. Elevated levels of ALT. Chronic hepatitis B develops in a small percentage of adults who fail to recover from an acute infection, in almost all infants infected at birth, and in up to 50% of children infected between the ages of 1 and 5 years. Chronic hepatitis B has three major phases: immune-tolerant, immune-active, and inactive-carrier.There usually is a linear transition from one phase to the next, but reactivation from immune-carrier phase to immune-active phase also can be seen. Active viral replication occurs during the immune-tolerant phase when there is little or no evidence of disease activity, and this can last for many years before progressing to the immune-active phase (evidenced by elevated liver enzymes, indicating liver inflammation, and the presence of HBeAg, indicating high levels of HBV DNA). Most patients with chronic hepatitis B eventually transition to the inactive-carrier phase, which is characterized by the clearance of HBeAg and the development of anti-HBeAg, accompanied by normalization of liver enzymes and greatly reduced levels of hepatitis B virus in the bloodstream.

A 3-day-old female developed a rash 1 day ago that has continued to progress and spread. The infant was born at term after an uncomplicated pregnancy and delivery to a healthy mother following excellent prenatal care. The infant was discharged 2 days ago in good health. She does not appear to be irritable or in distress, and she is afebrile and feeding well. On examination, abnormal findings are confined to the skin, including her face, trunk, and proximal extremities, which have macules, papules, and pustules that are all 2-3 mm in diameter. Her palms and soles are spared. A stain of a pustular smear shows numerous eosinophils. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Staphylococcal pyoderma B. Herpes simplex C. Acne neonatorum D. Erythema toxicum neonatorum E. Rocky Mountain spotted fever

D. Erythema toxicum neonatorum. This infant has a typical presentation of erythema toxicum neonatorum. Staphylococcal pyoderma is vesicular and the stain of the vesicle content shows polymorphonuclear leukocytes and clusters of gram-positive bacteria. Because the mother is healthy and the infant shows no evidence of being otherwise ill, systemic infections such as herpes are unlikely. Acne neonatorum consists of closed comedones on the forehead, nose, and cheeks. Rocky Mountain spotted fever is a tickborne disease that does not need to be considered in a child who is not at risk.

A 65-year-old female who is morbidly obese presents to your office with intertrigo in the axilla. On examination you detect small, reddish-brown macules that are coalescing into larger patches with sharp borders. You suspect cutaneous erythrasma complicating the intertrigo. What would be the most appropriate topical treatment for this condition? (check one) A. Cornstarch B. A mild corticosteroid lotion C. A high-potency corticosteroid lotion D. Erythromycin

D. Erythromycin. Intertrigo is inflammation of skinfolds caused by skin-on-skin friction and is common on opposing cutaneous or mucocutaneous surfaces. Secondary cutaneous bacterial and fungal infections are common complications. Cutaneous erythrasma may complicate intertrigo of interweb areas, intergluteal and crural folds, axillae, or inframammary regions. Erythrasma is caused by Corynebacterium minutissimum and presents as small reddish-brown macules that may coalesce into larger patches with sharp borders. Intertrigo complicated by erythrasma is treated with topical or oral erythromycin.

One of your patients has been diagnosed with monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS). Which one of the following is used to determine whether his condition has progressed to multiple myeloma? (check one) A. The length of time since the diagnosis of MGUS was made B. The level of M protein C. The percentage of plasma cells in bone marrow D. Evidence of end-organ damage

D. Evidence of end-organ damage. The diagnosis of multiple myeloma is based on evidence of myeloma-related end-organ impairment in the presence of M protein, monoclonal plasma cells, or both. This evidence may include hypercalcemia, renal failure, anemia, or skeletal lesions. Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance does not progress steadily to multiple myeloma. There is a stable 1% annual risk of progression.

Painful ingrown toenails that display granulation tissue and lateral nail fold hypertrophy are best treated by: (check one) A. Antibiotic therapy B. Cotton-wick elevation of the affected nail corner C. Removal of the entire nail D. Excision of the lateral nail plate combined with lateral matricectomy

D. Excision of the lateral nail plate combined with lateral matricectomy. Excision of the lateral nail plate with lateral matricectomy yields the best results in the treatment of painful ingrown toenails that display granulation tissue and lateral nail fold hypertrophy. Antibiotic therapy and cotton-wick elevation are acceptable for very mildly inflamed ingrown toenails. Partial nail avulsion often leaves a spicule of nail that will grow and become an ingrown nail. Phenol produces irregular tissue destruction and significant inflammation and discharge after the matricectomy procedure.

A 12-year-old male who lives on a farm presents with lesions on his toes (shown in Figure 7). Which one of the following items from the patient's history is relevant to the diagnosis? (check one) A. Recent tooth extraction and gingival surgery B. A family history of systemic lupus erythematosus C. Recurrent fevers for the past 2 weeks D. Exposure to cold temperatures E. Vaccination of the sheep he is raising for a 4-H project

D. Exposure to cold temperatures. This patient has pernio, or chilblains, which is a localized inflammatory lesion of the skin, usually found in the extremities following exposure to nonfreezing cold temperatures. It is generally a benign condition, and is not associated with any systemic diseases. These lesions are red-purple plaques with deep swelling, and are accompanied by itching or burning. They are not associated with infections or connective tissue disease.

A mother brings her 12-month-old son to your clinic, concerned that he is repeatedly banging his head against the floor, wall, or crib. She reports that this behavior began about 2 months ago. It now occurs several times per week, and at times is incited when the child is frustrated with a toy or when he does not get what he wants from his parents. The mother notes that she is sometimes awakened at night by the sound of her son rhythmically banging his head against the rail of his crib. Physical examination reveals a normal child with some soft-tissue swelling of the forehead, but no broken skin, ecchymosis, or signs of bony damage. Developmental milestones and growth have been normal, and the child is not on any medications. Children with this presentation are most likely to have which one of the following? (check one) A. A history of child abuse B. A skin laceration or skull fracture C. An eventual diagnosis of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome D. Extinction of this habit by age 3 E. Future cognitive delay when compared with children without this habit

D. Extinction of this habit by age 3. Head banging has been estimated to be present in 3%-15% of normal children and usually begins between the ages of 5 and 11 months. The vast majority of these children will engage in this activity for only a few months, and most will stop by age 3. Rarely does the behavior cause lacerations or skull fractures, and the presence of either should prompt the physician to consider the possibility of another cause such as abuse. The incidence of head banging is higher in children with developmental disorders such as Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, Down syndrome, or autism. However, this child has no sign of any such disorder and has normal developmental milestones.

Which one of the following is the most reliable clinical symptom of uterine rupture? (check one) A. Sudden, tearing uterine pain B. Vaginal bleeding C. Loss of uterine tone D. Fetal distress

D. Fetal distress. Fetal distress has proven to be the most reliable clinical symptom of uterine rupture. The "classic" signs of uterine rupture such as sudden, tearing uterine pain, vaginal hemorrhage, and loss of uterine tone or cessation of uterine contractions are not reliable and are often absent. Pain and bleeding occur in as few as 10% of cases. Even ruptures monitored with an intrauterine pressure catheter fail to show loss of uterine tone. Signs of fetal distress are often the only manifestation of uterine rupture.

Which one of the following has the best evidence that it is safe for use in pregnancy? (check one) A. Alprazolam (Xanax) B. Lithium C. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) D. Fluoxetine (Prozac) E. Paroxetine (Paxil)

D. Fluoxetine (Prozac). The use of psychiatric medications during pregnancy should always involve consideration of the potential risks to the fetus in comparison to the well-being of the mother. Lithium is known to be teratogenic. Benzodiazepines such as alprazolam are controversial due to a possible link to cleft lip/palate. Studies have shown no significant risk of congenital anomalies from SSRI use in pregnancy, except for paroxetine. Paroxetine is a category D medication and should be avoided in pregnant women (SOR B). There is concern about an increased risk of congenital cardiac malformations from first-trimester exposure. Bupropion has not been studied extensively for use in pregnancy, and in one published study of 136 patients it was linked to an increased risk of spontaneous abortion.

A 23-year-old white male is brought to the emergency department with slurred speech, confusion, and ataxia. He works as an auto mechanic and has been known to consume alcohol heavily in the past, but denies recent alcohol intake. He appears intoxicated, but no odor of alcohol is noted on his breath. Abnormalities on the metabolic profile include a carbon dioxide content of 10 mmol/L (N 20-30). His blood alcohol level is <10 mg/dL (0.01%). A urinalysis shows calcium oxalate crystals and an RBC count of 10-20/hpf. Woods lamp examination of the urine shows fluorescence. His arterial pH is 7.25. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. Immediate hemodialysis B. Gastric lavage C. Administration of activated charcoal D. Fomepizole (Antizol)

D. Fomepizole (Antizol). Ethylene glycol poisoning should be suspected in patients with metabolic acidosis of unknown cause and subsequent renal failure, as rapid diagnosis and treatment will limit the toxicity and decrease both morbidity and mortality. This diagnosis should be considered in a patient who appears intoxicated but does not have an odor of alcohol, and has anion gap acidosis, hypocalcemia, urinary crystals, and nontoxic blood alcohol levels. Ethylene glycol is found in products such as engine coolant, de-icing solution, and carpet and fabric cleaners. Ingestion of 100 mL of ethylene glycol by an adult can result in toxicity. The American Academy of Clinical Toxicology criteria for treatment of ethylene glycol poisoning with an antidote include a plasma ethylene glycol concentration >20 mg/dL, a history of ingesting toxic amounts of ethylene glycol in the past few hours with an osmolal gap >10 mOsm/kg H O2 (N 5-10), and strong clinical suspicion of ethylene glycol poisoning, plus at least two of the following: arterial pH <7.3, serum bicarbonate <20 mmol/L, or urinary oxalate crystals. Until recently, ethylene glycol poisoning was treated with sodium bicarbonate, ethanol, and hemodialysis. Treatment with fomepizole (Antizol) has this specific indication, however, and should be initiated immediately when ethylene glycol poisoning is suspected. If ethylene glycol poisoning is treated early, hemodialysis may be avoided, but once severe acidosis and renal failure have occurred hemodialysis is necessary. Ethylene glycol is rapidly absorbed, and use of ipecac or gastric lavage is therefore not effective. Large amounts of activated charcoal will only bind to relatively small amounts of ethylene glycol, and the therapeutic window for accomplishing this is less than 1 hour.

A 60-year-old white female with type 1 diabetes mellitus presents with early satiety, nausea, bloating, and postprandial fullness. Laboratory tests are normal, as are upper endoscopy and biliary ultrasonography. Which one of the following would help confirm the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Pelvic ultrasonography B. An exercise stress test C. Psychiatric consultation D. Gastric emptying scintigraphy E. Colonoscopy

D. Gastric emptying scintigraphy. This patient has typical findings of gastroparesis, an autonomic neuropathy more commonly seen in type 1 diabetics and in women. The initial evaluation should include a patient history and examination, a CBC to rule out infection, a metabolic panel, endoscopy, and a biliary tract evaluation, but the diagnosis is best confirmed by scintigraphy. Pelvic ultrasonography and colonoscopy are not indicated because the patient's symptoms are upper intestinal. Cardiac evaluation and psychiatric consultation are not warranted with these symptoms.

Which one of the following variables is the most important risk factor for being a victim of domestic abuse? (check one) A. Educational background B. Psychological problems C. Race D. Gender E. Socioeconomic status

D. Gender. Domestic violence can affect children, intimate partners, and older adults. It is a serious medical problem that should be considered in the care of patients and families. There is great variation in the profiles of patients affected by domestic violence. Neither demographic factors nor psychological problems have been found to be consistent predictors of victimization or violence. Domestic violence cuts across all racial, socioeconomic, religious, and ethnic lines. The only consistent risk factor for being a victim of domestic violence is female gender.

A previously healthy 22-year-old female presents for her regular prenatal checkup at 38 weeks' gestation. She has a blood pressure of 145/95 mm Hg today and this is unchanged 1 hour later. Her blood pressure was normal before pregnancy. She is otherwise feeling well. She has moderate edema at the ankles and 3+ reflexes at the knees and ankles. A urinalysis for protein is normal. Given this presentation, which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Preeclampsia B. Unmasked chronic hypertension C. Essential hypertension D. Gestational hypertension E. Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets (HELLP) syndrome

D. Gestational hypertension. This patient has gestational hypertension. This condition is diagnosed when elevated blood pressure without proteinuria develops after 20 weeks' gestation and blood pressure returns to normal within 12 weeks of delivery. The new criteria for preeclampsia specify a new onset of hypertension (systolic pressure >140 mm Hg or diastolic pressure >90 mm Hg) after 20 weeks' gestation, along with 300 mg protein in a 24-hour urine specimen. A certain amount of increase in blood pressure is no longer a criterion. Edema is also no longer a criterion. Elevated uric acid levels are no longer considered necessary for the diagnosis of preeclampsia. Chronic hypertension can only be diagnosed if present before pregnancy, or if it does not resolve by 12 weeks post partum. Essential hypertension is the most common cause of chronic hypertension. HELLP syndrome is a serious, but relatively rare, form of pregnancy-related hypertension associated with hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets.

Your community recently experienced an outbreak of infectious diarrheal illness due to the protozoan Cryptosporidium, a chlorine-resistant organism. A reporter from the local newspaper asks you if there are other chlorine-resistant fecal organisms that could contaminate public drinking water. You would tell the reporter that such organisms include: (check one) A. Escherichia coli B. Vibrio cholerae C. Campylobacter jejuni D. Giardia lamblia E. Rotavirus

D. Giardia lamblia. Organisms that can persist in water environments and survive disinfection, especially chlorination, are most likely to cause disease outbreaks related to drinking water. Cryptosporidium oocysts and Giardia cysts are resistant to chlorine and are important causes of gastroenteritis from drinking water. Entamoeba histolytica and hepatitis A virus are also relatively chlorine resistant. The other organisms listed are chlorine sensitive.

A 38-year-old male who is a new patient reports mild intermittent jaundice without other associated symptoms for the past several years. His liver function tests are normal except for a total bilirubin of 1.3 mg/dL (N 0.3-1.0) and an indirect or unconjugated bilirubin of 1.0 mg/dL (N 0.2-0.8). His CBC is normal. His past medical and surgical history is unremarkable. Findings are similar on repeat laboratory testing. The most likely cause of these findings is: (check one) A. Hepatitis C B. Wilson's disease C. Sickle cell anemia D. Gilbert's syndrome E. Drug toxicity

D. Gilbert's syndrome. Gilbert's syndrome is the most common inherited disorder of bilirubin metabolism. In patients with a normal CBC and liver function tests, except for recurrent mildly elevated total and unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, the most likely diagnosis is Gilbert's syndrome. Fasting, heavy physical exertion, sickle cell anemia, and drug toxicity can also cause hyperbilirubinemia.

A 71-year-old female with end-stage lung cancer was recently extubated and is awaiting transfer to hospice. She is awake and confused and has significant respiratory secretions. Which one of the following medications used for reducing respiratory secretions is LEAST likely to cause central nervous system effects such as sedation? (check one) A. Atropine B. Transdermal scopolamine (Transderm Scop) C. Hyoscyamine (Levsin) D. Glycopyrrolate (Robinul)

D. Glycopyrrolate (Robinul). Glycopyrrolate does not cross the blood-brain barrier, and is therefore least likely to cause central nervous system effects such as sedation. The other medications listed do cross the blood-brain barrier.

======================================================= Population-Based Care Board Review Questions ======================================================= Which one of the following is recommended for routine prenatal care? (check one) A. Hepatitis C antibody testing B. Parvovirus antibody testing C. Cystic fibrosis carrier testing D. HIV screening E. Examination of a vaginal smear for clue cells

D. HIV screening. HIV screening is recommended as part of routine prenatal care, even in low-risk pregnancies. Counseling about cystic fibrosis carrier testing is recommended, but not routine testing. Hepatitis C and parvovirus antibodies are not part of routine prenatal screening. Routine screening for bacterial vaginosis with a vaginal smear for clue cells is not recommended.

Which one of the following is recommended for routine prenatal care? (check one) A. Hepatitis C antibody testing B. Parvovirus antibody testing C. Cystic fibrosis carrier testing D. HIV screening E. Examination of a vaginal smear for clue cells

D. HIV screening. HIV screening is recommended as part of routine prenatal care, even in low-risk pregnancies. Counseling about cystic fibrosis carrier testing is recommended, but not routine testing. Hepatitis C and parvovirus antibodies are not part of routine prenatal screening. Routine screening for bacterial vaginosis with a vaginal smear for clue cells is not recommended.

Which one of the following is recommended to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)? (check one) A. The use of home cardiorespiratory monitors B. The use of soft bedding materials C. Having the infant sleep in a prone position D. Having the infant sleep in a separate bed E. Maintaining a room temperature of 78°F-80°F when the infant is sleeping

D. Having the infant sleep in a separate bed. Home cardiorespiratory monitoring has not been shown to be effective for preventing sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). The risk of SIDS increases with higher room temperatures and soft bedding. Placing the infant in a supine position will significantly decrease the risk of SIDS, and is probably the most important preventive measure that can be taken. Bed sharing has been shown to increase the risk of SIDS.

An 86-year-old female presents to your office with a complaint of increasing cough, especially at night, over the past 2-3 weeks. On examination you hear crackles at the bases of both lungs. The chest radiograph shown in Figure 1 is consistent with which one of the following causes of this patient's cough? (check one) A. Bilateral pneumonia B. Asbestosis C. Tuberculosis D. Heart failure E. Emphysema

D. Heart failure. The chest radiograph is consistent with heart failure. It shows cardiomegaly, with a cardiothoracic ratio >6.50, as well as some enlargement of pulmonary veins due to pulmonary venous hypertension. The radiograph does not show an infiltrate, as would be expected with community-acquired pneumonia. Pleural plaques would be expected with asbestosis, and upper-lobe involvement or cavitary lesions with tuberculosis. With emphysema, there is typically a small vertical heart and evidence of hyperexpansion.

A 55-year-old female has severe symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Upper endoscopy with a biopsy shows severe esophagitis and Barrett's esophagus. Which one of the following is true regarding this patient? (check one) A. The severity of her symptoms is due to the presence of Barrett's esophagus B. Follow-up screening endoscopy will reduce her risk of death from esophageal cancer C. Her risk of developing esophageal adenocarcinoma is >90% D. Her risk of developing esophageal adenocarcinoma is <1%

D. Her risk of developing esophageal adenocarcinoma is <1%. The actual risk of adenocarcinoma from Barrett's esophagus is less than 1%. Endoscopy does nothing to reduce the risk of death. Patients with Barrett's esophagus can have minimal symptoms.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 07 ======================================================= Breastfeeding a full-term, healthy infant is contraindicated when which one of the following maternal conditions is present? (check one) A. Chronic hepatitis B infection B. Seropositive cytomegalovirus carrier state C. Current tobacco smoking D. Herpes simplex viral lesions on the breasts E. Undifferentiated fever

D. Herpes simplex viral lesions on the breasts. Breastfeeding provides such optimal nutrition for an infant that the benefits still far outweigh the risks even when the mother smokes tobacco, tests positive for hepatitis B or C virus, or develops a simple undifferentiated fever. Maternal seropositivity to cytomegalovirus (CMV) is not considered a contraindication except when it has a recent onset or in mothers of low birthweight infants. When present, the CMV load can be substantially reduced by freezing and pasteurization of the milk. All patients who smoke should be strongly encouraged to discontinue use of tobacco, particularly in the presence of infants, but smoking is not a contraindication to breastfeeding. Mothers with active herpes simplex lesions on a breast should not feed their infant from the infected breast, but may do so from the other breast if it is not infected. Breastfeeding is also contraindicated in the presence of active maternal tuberculosis, and following administration or use of radioactive isotopes, chemotherapeutic agents, "recreational" drugs, or certain prescription drugs.

A 16-year-old sexually active nulliparous white female complains of pelvic pain and vaginal discharge. On examination she is found to have a temperature of 39.8 degrees C (102.0 degrees F), pain with movement of the cervix, and tenderness and a mass in the right adnexa. According to CDC guidelines, which one of the following treatments would be appropriate? (check one) A. Outpatient treatment with penicillin G procaine (Wycillin) intramuscularly; probenecid (Benemid) orally; plus doxycycline (Vibramycin) orally for 14 days and reexamination in 3 days B. Outpatient treatment with ceftriaxone (Rocephin) intramuscularly; probenecid orally; plus doxycycline twice a day for 14 days and reexamination in 1 week C. Outpatient treatment with cefoxitin (Mefoxin) intramuscularly; plus doxycycline twice a day for 14 days and reexamination in 10 days D. Hospitalization for treatment with cefoxitin intravenously and doxycycline orally or intravenously, then doxycycline orally twice a day to complete 14 days of treatment

D. Hospitalization for treatment with cefoxitin intravenously and doxycycline orally or intravenously, then doxycycline orally twice a day to complete 14 days of treatment. Patients with PID and tubo-ovarian abscess and high fever should be hospitalized and treated for at least 24 hours with intravenous antibiotics. Amoxicillin and penicillin G procaine are no longer recommended because of the increasing prevalence of penicillinase-producing and chromosomally-mediated resistant Neisseria gonorrhoeae. If cefoxitin is used intramuscularly for outpatient treatment, it should be combined with probenecid. If ceftriaxone is used for outpatient treatment, probenecid is not required. Reexamination should be done within 3 days of initiation of therapy.

Which one of the following can contribute to serum calcium elevation? (check one) A. Furosemide (Lasix) B. Verapamil (Calan, Isoptin) C. Enalapril (Vasotec) D. Hydrochlorothiazide E. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

D. Hydrochlorothiazide. While thiazide diuretics do not cause hypercalcemia by themselves, they can exacerbate the hypercalcemia associated with primary hyperparathyroidism. Thiazides decrease the renal clearance of calcium by increasing distal tubular calcium reabsorption. Furosemide tends to lower serum calcium levels and is used in the treatment of hypercalcemia. None of the other medications would be expected to significantly affect the serum calcium level in this patient.

A 55-year-old male is brought to the emergency department because of confusion and seizures. He has a history of hypertension and obstructive sleep apnea due to obesity. He is not conscious and no other history is available. An examination shows no focal neurologic findings, but a general examination is limited because of his size. Breath sounds are diminished, and heart sounds are difficult to hear. He has venous insufficiency changes on his lower extremities, with brawny-type edema. Laboratory testing reveals a sodium level of 116 mmol/L (N 135-145), but normal renal and liver functions. A chest radiograph shows mild cardiomegaly. A BNP level is pending, but immediate treatment is felt to be indicated. Which one of the following is the treatment of choice for this patient? (check one) A. Valsartan (Diovan) B. Furosemide C. Vasopressin (Pitressin) D. Hypertonic saline E. Conivaptan (Vaprisol)

D. Hypertonic saline. This patient has severe hyponatremia manifested by confusion and seizures, a life-threatening situation warranting urgent treatment with hypertonic (3%) saline. The serum sodium level should be raised by only 1-2 mmol/L per hour, to prevent serious neurologic complications. Saline should be used only until the seizures stop. Some authorities recommend concomitant use of furosemide, especially in patients who are likely to be volume overloaded, as this patient is, but it should not be used alone. The arginine vasopressin antagonist conivaptan is approved for the treatment of euvolemic or hypervolemic hyponatremia, but not in patients who are obtunded or in a coma, or who are having seizures.

The Valsalva maneuver will typically cause the intensity of a systolic murmur to increase in patients with which one of the following conditions? (check one) A. Aortic stenosis B. Rheumatic mitral insufficiency C. Valvular pulmonic stenosis D. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

D. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy. The Valsalva maneuver decreases venous return to the heart, thereby decreasing cardiac output. This causes most murmurs to decrease in length and intensity. The murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, however, increases in loudness. The murmur of mitral valve prolapse becomes longer, and may also become louder.

An 88-year-old male has been hospitalized for the past 3 days after being found on the floor of his home by a neighbor and transported to the hospital by ambulance. He was cachectic and dehydrated at the time of admission, with a serum albumin level of 1.9 g/dL (N 3.5-4.7). He has received intravenous fluids and is now euvolemic. He began nasogastric tube feeding 2 days ago and has now developed nausea, vomiting, hypotension and delirium. Which one of the following is the most classic electrolyte abnormality with this condition? (check one) A. Hypocalcemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypophosphatemia E. Hyperphosphatemia

D. Hypophosphatemia. Refeeding syndrome can be defined as the potentially fatal shifts in fluids and electrolytes that may occur in malnourished patients receiving artificial refeeding (whether enterally or parenterally). These shifts result from hormonal and metabolic changes and may cause serious clinical complications. The hallmark biochemical feature of refeeding syndrome is hypophosphatemia. However, the syndrome is complex and may also include abnormal sodium and fluid balance; changes in glucose, protein, and fat metabolism; thiamine deficiency; hypokalemia; and hypomagnesemia.

Which one of the following is true concerning nausea and vomiting in pregnancy? (check one) A. Psychological factors play a causative role B. Pharmacologic therapy, in general, is no more effective than placebo in relieving symptoms and preventing hospitalization C. Metoclopramide (Reglan) is contraindicated in the first trimester but is safe and effective for nausea and vomiting in later trimesters D. If nausea and vomiting begin after 9 weeks' gestation, secondary causes are more likely to be present

D. If nausea and vomiting begin after 9 weeks' gestation, secondary causes are more likely to be present. While the exact etiology of nausea and vomiting in pregnancy remains unclear, there are few data to support the theory that psychological factors play a role. Although nausea is usually a self-limited condition, other causes must be ruled out. Secondary causes are more likely to be present if the onset of symptoms occurs after 9 weeks' gestation. Several pharmacologic treatments are proven safe and are superior to placebo in relieving symptoms and preventing hospitalization. Metoclopramide is more effective than placebo and has not been associated with an increased risk of adverse effects on the fetus.

You see a 30-year-old male who has just fallen on an outstretched hand. He complains of wrist pain and edema. Examination reveals tenderness over the anatomic snuffbox and over the scaphoid tubercle at the proximal wrist crease with the hand in extension. Radiographs of the wrist are negative. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate action at this point? (check one) A. Order a bone scan for the next day B. Order high-spatial-resolution ultrasonography of the wrist C. Immobilize in a cast for 6-8 weeks D. Immobilize in a thumb spica splint for 1-2 weeks and then order repeat radiographs

D. Immobilize in a thumb spica splint for 1-2 weeks and then order repeat radiographs. Snuffbox tenderness and tenderness over the scaphoid tubercle are very sensitive for fracture of the scaphoid, but their specificity is only 40% and 60% respectively. Therefore, while the lack of tenderness at these sites almost rules out fracture, further imaging is needed in positive cases. Plain films are recommended as the next step. A bone scan or follow-up films after immobilization for 2 weeks should be done if the initial films are negative. Bone scans may be negative until enough time has passed for osteoblastic activity to begin. Ultrasonography is not helpful for evaluation of scaphoid fractures.

A 35-year-old male amateur rugby player seeks your advice because right hip pain of several months' duration has progressed to the point of interfering with his athletic performance. The pain is accentuated when he transitions from a seated to a standing position, and especially when he pivots on the hip while running, but he cannot recall any significant trauma to the area and finds no relief with over-the-counter analgesics. On examination his gait is stable. The affected hip appears normal and is neither tender to palpation nor excessively warm to touch. Although he has a full range of passive motion, obvious discomfort is evident with internal rotation of the flexed and adducted right hip. Which one of the following is most strongly suggested by this clinical picture? (check one) A. Osteoarthritis B. Avascular necrosis C. Bursitis D. Impingement E. Pathologic fracture

D. Impingement. Gradually worsening anterolateral hip joint pain that is sharply accentuated when pivoting laterally on the affected hip or moving from a seated to a standing position is consistent with femoroacetabular impingement. Reproduction of the pain on range-of-motion examination by manipulating the hip into a position of flexion, adduction, and internal rotation (FADIR test) is the most sensitive physical finding. Special radiographic imaging of the flexed and adducted hip can emphasize the anatomic abnormalities associated with impingement that may go unnoticed on standard radiographic series views. Although the pain associated with avascular necrosis is similarly insidious and heightened when bearing weight, tenderness is usually evident with hip motion in any direction. Osteoarthritis of the hip generally occurs in individuals of more advanced age than this patient, and the pain produced is typically localized to the groin area and can be elicited by flexion, abduction, and external rotation (FABER test) of the affected hip.Bursitis manifests as soreness after exercise and tenderness over the affected bursa.

An 18-year-old primigravida at 38 weeks' gestation complains of a headache. Her blood pressure is 130/92 mm Hg. The fetal heart rate is 140 beats/min. A urine dipstick shows 2+ protein. Laboratory Findings Hemoglobin 10.8 g/dL (N 12.0-16.0) Hematocrit 32.4% (N 36.0-46.0) Platelets 110,000/mm3 (N 150,000-400,000) WBCs 14,900/mm3 (N 4000-10,000) Creatinine 0.5 mg/dL (N 0.8-1.3) AST (SGOT) 31 U/L (N 0-37) ALT (SGPT) 60 U/L (N 0-65) LDH 240 U/L (N 100-190) Bilirubin 1.9 mg/dL (N 0.0-1.0) A non stress test is reactive and the amniotic fluid index is 9.4 (N 8.0-20.0). The patient is admitted for further testing. After 24 hours repeat testing shows the following: Hemoglobin 9.8 g/dL Hematocrit 30.2% Platelets 92,000/mm3 WBCs 15,200/mm3 Creatinine 0.6 mg/dL AST (SGOT) 72 U/L ALT (SGPT) 98 U/L LDH 620 U/L Bilirubin 2.4 mg/dL 24-hour urine protein 2400 mg Which one of the following would be the most appropriate course of action at this point? (check one) A. Continued monitoring, repeating the 24-hour urine collection, and repeating the laboratory studies tomorrow B. Immediate delivery by cesarean section C. Discharge to home on bed rest, with close follow-up D. Induction of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin) if the cervix is favorable

D. Induction of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin) if the cervix is favorable. This patient has hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets (HELLP) syndrome and needs to be delivered. There is no reason to delay delivery in a term pregnancy. HELLP syndrome is a form of severe preeclampsia. If the patient has a favorable cervical examination, labor induction with oxytocin is appropriate. If the cervix is unfavorable, cesarean delivery should be considered to expedite delivery.

An 81-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus has a hemoglobin A 1c of 10.9%. He is already on the maximum dosage of glipizide (Glucotrol). His other medical problems include mild renal insufficiency and moderate ischemic cardiomyopathy. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate change in this patient's diabetes regimen? (check one) A. Add metformin (Glucophage) B. Add sitagliptin (Januvia) C. Add pioglitazone (Actos) D. Initiate insulin therapy

D. Initiate insulin therapy. This geriatric diabetic patient should be treated with insulin. Metformin is contraindicated in patients with renal insufficiency. Sitagliptin should not be added to a sulfonylurea drug initially, the dosage should be lowered in patients with renal insufficiency, and given alone it would probably not result in reasonable diabetic control. Pioglitazone can cause fluid retention and therefore would not be a good choice for a patient with cardiomyopathy.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 43 ======================================================= Which one of the following insulin regimens most closely mimics the normal pattern of pancreatic insulin release in a nondiabetic person? (check one) A. 70/30 NPH/regular insulin (Humulin 70/30) twice daily B. NPH insulin twice daily plus an insulin sliding-scale protocol using regular insulin C. Insulin glargine (Lantus) daily plus an insulin sliding-scale protocol using regular insulin D. Insulin detemir (Levamir) daily plus rapid-acting insulin with meals E. Rapid-acting insulin before each meal

D. Insulin detemir (Levamir) daily plus rapid-acting insulin with meals. Basal insulin provides a relatively constant level of insulin for 24 hours, with an onset of action in 1 hour and no peak. NPH gives approximately 12 hours of coverage with a peak around 6-8 hours. Regular insulin has an onset of action of about 30 minutes and lasts about 5-8 hours, with a peak at about 2-4 hours. New rapid-acting analogue insulins have an onset of action within 5-15 minutes, peak within 30-75 minutes, and last only about 2-3 hours after administration. Thus, a 70/30 insulin mix (typically 70% NPH and 30% regular) provides coverage for 12 hours, but the peaks of insulin release do not closely mimic natural patterns. NPH given twice daily along with an insulin sliding-scale protocol using regular insulin is only slightly closer than a 70/30 twice-daily regimen. Rapid insulin alone does not provide any basal insulin, and the patient would therefore not have insulin available during the night.

A 36-year-old male complains of clear rhinorrhea, nasal congestion, and watery, itchy eyes for several months. Tests in the past have suggested that he has an allergy to dust mites. Which one of the following is most likely to provide the most relief from his symptoms? (check one) A. Oral antihistamines B. An oral leukotriene-receptor antagonist C. Intranasal antihistamines D. Intranasal corticosteroids E. Furnace filters and mite-proof bedding covers

D. Intranasal corticosteroids. This patient has classic symptoms of allergic rhinitis. Intranasal corticosteroids are considered the mainstay of treatment for mild to moderate cases. In multiple studies, intranasal corticosteroid sprays have proven to be more efficacious than the other options listed, even for ocular symptoms. Air filtration systems and bedding covers have not been shown to reduce symptoms.

Which one of the following is the best INITIAL management for hypercalcemic crisis? (check one) A. Intravenous furosemide B. Intravenous pamidronate (Aredia) C. Intravenous plicamycin (Mithramycin) D. Intravenous saline

D. Intravenous saline. The initial management of hypercalcemic crisis involves volume repletion and hydration. The combination of inadequate fluid intake and the inability of hypercalcemic patients to conserve free water can lead to calcium levels over 14-15 mg/dL. Because patients often have a fluid deficiency of 4-5 liters, delivering 1000 mL of normal saline during the first hour, followed by 250-300 mL/hour, may decrease the hypercalcemia to less than critical levels (<13 mg/dL). If the clinical status is not satisfactory after hydration alone, then renal excretion of calcium can be enhanced by saline diuresis using furosemide. Intravenous pamidronate, a diphosphonate, reduces the hypercalcemia of malignancy and is best used in the semi-acute setting, since calcium levels do not start to fall for 24 hours. The same is true for intravenous plicamycin.

A 42-year-old female with a history of alcoholism and binge drinking presents with a 3-hour history of severe epigastric pain associated with nausea and vomiting. Her pain radiates to her back and into her lower abdomen. The patient appears to be in moderate distress due to pain. She is afebrile with a pulse rate of 110 beats/min and a blood pressure of 98/66 mm Hg. Her abdominal examination is remarkable for epigastric tenderness, guarding, and mild abdominal distention. Laboratory evaluation reveals a serum lipase level of 562 U/L (N 22-51) and a serum amylase level of 317 U/L (N 36-128). You admit the patient to the hospital. Your treatment plan includes volume repletion, pain control, and close monitoring of her hemodynamic status. After 48 hours of treatment, she is hemodynamically stable. Her serum lipase level is now 168 U/L. She is awake and alert and in no distress, but still requires parenteral pain medication. Which one of the following is most appropriate for meeting her fluid and caloric needs at this time? (check one) A. D5 normal saline intravenously at a maintenance rate B. Enteral feedings via nasogastric feeding tube C. A low-fat diet orally and oral fluids ad libitum D. Intravenous total parenteral nutrition

D. Intravenous total parenteral nutrition. Although intravenous dextrose in normal saline can initially be used for aggressive rehydration, it does not meet the nutritional needs of patients with acute pancreatitis. Total enteral nutrition is superior to total parenteral nutrition in stable patients with acute pancreatitis, in both mild and severe cases (SOR A). When compared to total parenteral nutrition in these patients, enteral nutrition is associated with reduced rates of mortality, multiple organ failure, systemic infection, and operative interventions (SOR A). Enteral nutrition likely contributes to better outcomes by inhibiting bacterial translocation from the gut, thereby preventing the development of infected necrosis. This patient is awake and alert and presumably able to protect her airway, so nasogastric tube feeding is unnecessary to provide enteral nutrition.

A 78-year-old white male is scheduled to undergo CT with contrast. His current diagnoses include type 2 diabetes mellitus, heart failure, anemia of chronic disease, and renal insufficiency. Evidence supports the use of which one of the following to reduce the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy in this patient? (check one) A. Intravenous furosemide B. Ascorbic acid C. Calcium antagonists D. Isotonic bicarbonate infusion E. High osmolar contrast media

D. Isotonic bicarbonate infusion. Prospective randomized trials examining the risk for contrast-induced nephropathy have identified significant differences between contrast agents due to their physiochemical properties. Low-osmolar or iso-osmolar contrast media should be used to prevent contrast-induced nephropathy in at-risk patients. The volume of contrast medium should be as low as possible. Evidence also supports hydration before the 8 procedure, preferably with isotonic saline or isotonic sodium bicarbonate solution. There is limited evidence that any pharmacologic intervention will prevent contrast-induced nephropathy.

A 20-year-old college wrestler is seen for an examination prior to the wrestling season. He tells you that some friends have told him he should start taking dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), and he asks for your advice. Which one of the following is true about the effects of this drug? (check one) A. It enhances performance but not muscle strength B. It enhances muscle strength but not performance C. It enhances both performance and muscle strength D. It does not enhance either performance or muscle strength

D. It does not enhance either performance or muscle strength. Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) is illegal under the Anabolic Steroid Control Act of 2004, and is prohibited by the NCAA and the International Olympic Committee. Like androstenedione, DHEA is a precursor to testosterone, but neither of these substances has been shown to enhance either performance or strength. In fact, they increase serum estrogen and luteinizing hormone levels.

Which one of the following is true concerning breast cancer screening? (check one) A. It is useful for detecting premalignant conditions B. It can predict which of the discovered cancers are indolent, with a low potential for harm C. The decrease in mortality from breast cancer can be attributed almost entirely to early detection D. It has resulted in an increase in the diagnosis of localized disease E. It has resulted in a significant decrease in the incidence of regional and metastatic disease

D. It has resulted in an increase in the diagnosis of localized disease. Breast cancer screening has resulted in an increase in the diagnosis of localized disease without a commensurate decrease in the incidence of more widespread disease. Unfortunately, it cannot predict which of the discovered cancers are more aggressive, and cannot accurately detect premalignant lesions. The decrease in the mortality rate of breast cancer is due both to earlier detection and better follow-up medical care.

A 53-year-old white female visits your office for her annual examination. During the last year she has stopped having menstrual periods and has had moderately severe sleep disturbance. She has been waking up at night with sweats. She denies other problems or complaints. She has a previous history of depression and her family history is significant for osteoporosis, heart disease, and Alzheimer's disease in older members of her family. There is no family history of breast cancer. The patient is concerned about her future and current health and wants to know the benefits and risks of hormone replacement therapy (HRT). Which one of the following statements about HRT is correct? (check one) A. It protects against coronary heart disease B. It slows progression of Alzheimer's disease C. It improves symptoms of depression D. It improves vaginal dryness E. It improves urinary incontinence

D. It improves vaginal dryness. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) improves the urogenital symptoms of menopause, such as vaginal dryness and dyspareunia. However, recent research regarding HRT has not shown a benefit for reducing coronary events, slowing the progression of Alzheimer's disease, improving depression, or improving urinary incontinence.

A 55-year-old white male smoker has had daily severe gastroesophageal reflux symptoms unrelieved by intensive medical therapy with proton pump inhibitors. A recent biopsy performed during upper endoscopy identified Barrett's esophagus. Which one of the following is true about this condition? (check one) A. It will regress after antireflux surgery B. It will regress following esophageal dilation C. It will regress after Helicobacter pylori treatment D. It is associated with an increased risk of adenocarcinoma

D. It is associated with an increased risk of adenocarcinoma. Barrett's esophagus is an acquired intestinal metaplasia of the distal esophagus associated with longstanding gastroesophageal acid reflux, although a quarter of patients with Barrett's esophagus have no reflux symptoms. It is more common in white and Hispanic men over 50 with longstanding severe reflux symptoms, and possible risk factors include obesity and tobacco use. It is a risk factor for adenocarcinoma of the esophagus, with a rate of about one case in every 200 patients with Barrett's esophagus per year. Treatment is directed at reducing reflux, thus reducing symptoms. Neither medical nor surgical treatment has been shown to reduce the carcinoma risk. One reasonable screening suggestion is to perform esophagoduodenoscopy in all men over 50 with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), but these recommendations are based only on expert opinion (level C evidence), and no outcomes-based guidelines are available.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 26 ======================================================= Which one of the following is an appropriate rationale for antibiotic treatment of Bordetella pertussis infections? (check one) A. It delays progression from the catarrhal stage to the paroxysmal stage B. It reduces the severity of symptoms C. It reduces the duration of illness D. It reduces the risk of transmission to others E. It reduces the need for hospitalization

D. It reduces the risk of transmission to others. Antibiotic treatment for pertussis is effective for eradicating bacterial infection but not for reducing the duration or severity of the disease. The eradication of infection is important for disease control because it reduces infectivity. Antibiotic treatment is thought to be most effective if started early in the course of the illness, characterized as the catarrhal phase. The paroxysmal stage follows the catarrhal phase. The CDC recommends macrolides for primary treatment of pertussis. The preferred antimicrobial regimen is azithromycin for 3-5 days or clarithromycin for 7 days. These regimens are as effective as longer therapy with erythromycin and have fewer side effects. Children under 1 month of age should be treated with azithromycin. There is an association between erythromycin and hypertrophic pyloric stenosis in young infants. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole can be used in patients who are unable to take macrolides or where macrolide resistance may be an issue, but should not be used in children under the age of 2 months. Fluoroquinolones have been shown to reduce pertussis in vitro but have not been shown to be clinically effective (SOR A).

A generally healthy 35-year-old female has mild generalized anxiety, but is not depressed. She does not want to take a prescription medication, and asks if an herbal or dietary supplement might be helpful. Which one of the following botanical medications has the best clinical evidence of potential benefit for anxiety disorders when used for a short time (up to 24 weeks)? (check one) A. St. Johns wort B. Valerian C. Passionflower D. Kava E. Chamomile

D. Kava. The use of herbal and nutritional supplements has become commonplace in the United States. Unfortunately, there is insufficient research for most herbal remedies, in terms of both efficacy and safety. However, there is a significant body of evidence from randomized, controlled trials and various meta-analyses showing benefit from the use of kava in the short-term treatment of anxiety disorders (up to 24 weeks), including generalized anxiety disorder (SOR A). The other remedies listed have only single studies or anecdotal evidence attesting to benefit for patients with anxiety. At best, information about them is limited, and there are often conflicting results. Safety concerns about kava have been addressed by recent randomized, controlled trials demonstrating that kava has a safety profile similar to those of FDA-approved treatments for anxiety disorders. Care should be taken with any concurrent use of kava and medications metabolized by the liver, and patients should be discouraged from using alcohol while taking kava. Physicians should be aware of all remedies their patients are taking, even if they are not prescribed. In addition, it is important to be aware of remedies that have evidence supporting their use.

Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Actinic keratosis B. Metastatic breast carcinoma C. Seborrheic keratosis D. Lentigo maligna melanoma E. Basal cell carcinoma

D. Lentigo maligna melanoma. This patient has a malignant melanoma, often called lentigo maligna melanoma. These lesions typically appear during the seventh or eighth decade of life, and are most often located on the face. This patient's age, health status, and wishes must be considered in any treatment plans. The other skin lesions listed can be seen in this age group, but they are easily distinguished from this malignant lesion.

A 32-year-old African-American female presents with a 3-day history of fever, cough, and shortness of breath. She has been healthy otherwise, except for a sinus infection 2 months ago treated with amoxicillin. She does not appear toxic. A chest radiograph reveals an infiltrate in the right lower lobe, consistent with pneumonia. Which one of the following would be the best choice for antibiotic treatment? (check one) A. High-dose amoxicillin B. Azithromycin (Zithromax) C. Doxycycline D. Levofloxacin (Levaquin) E. Cefuroxime axetil (Ceftin)

D. Levofloxacin (Levaquin). For previously healthy patients with community-acquired pneumonia and no risk factors for drug resistance, a macrolide such as azithromycin is the preferred treatment (SOR A). Doxycycline is also acceptable (SOR C). Patients who have been treated with antibiotics within the previous 3 months should be treated with a respiratory fluoroquinolone (moxifloxacin, gemifloxacin, or levofloxacin) (SOR A). A β-lactam plus a macrolide is also an alternative (SOR A). The antibiotic chosen should be from a different class than the one used for the previous infection. These alternative treatments are also recommended for those with comorbidities such as chronic heart, lung, liver, or renal disease; diabetes mellitus; alcoholism; malignancies; asplenia; immunosuppressing conditions or use of immunosuppressing drugs; or other risk factors for drug-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae infection (SOR A).

A patient who underwent coronary bypass grafting several months ago has been intolerant of all medications for cholesterol lowering. However, on the recommendation of a friend, he began taking red yeast rice that he purchased at a natural healing store. His cholesterol level has improved with this product and he has tolerated it so far. You should consider monitoring which one of the following in this patient, based on the active ingredient in red yeast rice? (check one) A. WBC count B. Platelet count C. Prothrombin time D. Liver enzymes E. Kidney function tests

D. Liver enzymes. Red yeast rice (Monascus purpureus) is a widely available dietary supplement that has been used as an herbal medication in China for centuries. In recent years it has been used for alternative management of hyperlipidemia in the U.S. Extracts of red yeast rice contain several active ingredients, including monacolin K and other monacolins, that have HMG-CoA reductase inhibitory activity and are considered to be naturally occurring forms of lovastatin. Red yeast rice extract lowers total cholesterol, LDL-cholesterol, and triglycerides. It may be useful for patients unable to tolerate statins due to myalgias, but requires periodic monitoring of liver enzymes because its metabolic effects and potential for consequences are similar to those of statins.

A 32-year-old female who is an avid runner presents with knee pain. You suspect patellofemoral pain syndrome. Which one of the following signs or symptoms would prompt an evaluation for an alternative diagnosis? (check one) A. Peripatellar pain while running B. Knee stiffness with sitting C. A popping sensation in the knee D. Locking of the joint E. A positive J sign (lateral tracking of the patella when moved from flexion to full extension)

D. Locking of the joint. Patellofemoral pain syndrome is a clinical diagnosis and is the most common cause of knee pain in the outpatient setting. It is characterized by anterior knee pain, particularly with activities that overload the joint, such as stair climbing, running, and squatting. Patients complain of popping, catching, stiffness, and giving way. On examination there will be a positive J sign, with the patella moving from a medial to a lateral location when the knee is fully extended from the 90° position. This is caused by an imbalance in the medial and lateral forces acting on the patella. Locking is not characteristic of patellofemoral pain syndrome, so a loose body or meniscal tear should be considered if this is reported.

Because of safety concerns, which one of the following asthma medications should be used only as additive therapy and not as monotherapy? (check one) A. Inhaled corticosteroids B. Leukotriene-receptor antagonists C. Short-acting β2-agonists D. Long-acting β2-agonists E. Mast cell stabilizers

D. Long-acting β2-agonists. Because of the risk of asthma exacerbation or asthma-related death, the FDA has added a warning against the use of long-acting β2-agonists as monotherapy. Inhaled corticosteroids, leukotriene-receptor antagonists, short-acting β2-agonists, and mast-cell stabilizers are approved and accepted for both monotherapy and combination therapy in the management of asthma (SOR A).

A health-care worker has a negative tuberculin skin test (Mantoux method). A second test 10 days later is positive. This result indicates: (check one) A. Previous vaccination with BCG B. A false-positive skin test C. Recent conversion D. Long-standing, latent infection E. Probable immunodeficiency

D. Long-standing, latent infection. A positive result on the second, but the not the first, step of a two-step Mantoux tuberculin skin test indicates long-standing, latent infection.

Of the following, which one causes the most deaths in the United States? (check one) A. Colorectal cancer B. Breast cancer C. Prostate cancer D. Lung cancer

D. Lung cancer. Lung cancer is the leading cause of cancer-related deaths in the United States. In 2006, lung cancer caused more deaths than colorectal, breast, and prostate cancers combined.

A 65-year-old male presents with a 1-month history of problems passing urine. He says that his bladder will feel full when he needs to urinate, but the urine stream is weak and his bladder does not feel as if it has emptied completely. The symptoms have become increasingly severe over the past week. Other symptoms include upper respiratory congestion for 3 days which he has treated with an over-the-counter decongestant with some relief, constipation with no passage of stool in the past 9 days, and increasing low back pain incompletely relieved with ibuprofen, with associated weakness in both legs. Examination shows a healthy-appearing male who is moderately overweight. He is afebrile and vital signs are normal. There is no abdominal tenderness and no masses are detected. A rectal examination reveals a large amount of hard stool in the rectum; a markedly enlarged (4+), boggy, tender prostate gland; laxity of the anal sphincter; and numbness in the perianal area. Urinalysis shows trace protein and 10-20 WBCs/hpf. Ultrasonography shows a post-void residual volume of 250 mL (normal for age <100). Which one of the following must be done urgently in this complicated patient? (check one) A. Foley catheterization B. Hospitalization for intravenous antibiotics C. Digital disimpaction of the rectum, and Fleet enemas until clear D. MRI of the lumbosacral spine

D. MRI of the lumbosacral spine. The differential diagnosis of urinary retention in the elderly is broad. While most causes are benign and readily treated, the physician must be vigilant in looking for conditions that require urgent intervention.This patient presents with many possible causes of urinary retention, with the most common being benign prostatic hyperplasia. Acute prostatitis, especially in a male with an enlarged prostate, is another relatively common reason for obstructive symptoms. This patients physical examination and abnormal urinalysis support this diagnosis, but his normal vital signs and lack of fever suggest he can be treated with an oral fluroquinolone and does not require hospital admission for intravenous therapy. Medications such as oral decongestants can contribute to urinary retention in men with enlarged prostate glands, and should be used with caution and discontinued if obstructive symptoms occur. Obstipation with stool impaction is another relatively common reason for urinary retention in the elderly and can be treated with manual disimpaction and enemas. In this patient, the presence of increasing low back pain and leg weakness, and the findings of anal sphincter laxity and numbness in the perianal area on examination, suggest the presence of a serious neurologic etiology such as cauda equina syndrome. Urgent diagnosis and treatment are necessary to reduce morbidity, and MRI should be performed immediately. The presence of a mildly elevated post-void residual is not an indication for urgent decompression with a Foley catheter.

A 36-year-old female has been seen multiple times in the past several months for various pain-related complaints. On each occasion, no physical or laboratory findings were found to explain the symptoms. The patient is involved in a workers compensation case and could make a significant amount of money if it is demonstrated that her physical complaints are related to work conditions. Which one of the following diagnoses characterizes her unexplained physical symptoms? (check one) A. Somatization disorder B. Conversion disorder C. Hypochondriasis D. Malingering

D. Malingering. This patient most likely is malingering, which is to purposefully feign physical symptoms for external gain. Factitious disorder involves adopting physical symptoms for unconscious internal gain, such as deriving comfort from taking on the role of being sick. Somatization disorder is related to numerous unexplained physical symptoms that last for several years and typically begin before 30 years of age. Conversion disorder involves a single voluntary motor or sensory dysfunction suggestive of a neurologic condition, but not conforming to any known anatomic pathways or physiologic mechanisms.

A previously healthy 3-year-old male is brought to your office with a 4-hour history of abdominal pain followed by vomiting. Just after arriving at your office he passes bloody stool. A physical examination reveals normal vital signs, and guarding and tenderness in the right lower quadrant. A rectal examination shows blood on the examining finger. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Appendicitis B. Viral gastroenteritis C. Midgut volvulus D. Meckels diverticulum E. Necrotizing enterocolitis

D. Meckels diverticulum. Meckels diverticulum is the most common congenital abnormality of the small intestine. It is prone to bleeding because it may contain heterotopic gastric mucosa. Abdominal pain, distention, and vomiting may develop if obstruction has occurred, and the presentation may mimic appendicitis. Children with appendicitis have right lower quadrant pain, abdominal tenderness, guarding, and vomiting, but not rectal bleeding. With acute viral gastroenteritis, vomiting usually precedes diarrhea (usually without blood) by several hours, and abdominal pain is typically mild and nonfocal with no localized tenderness. The incidence of midgut volvulus peaks during the first month of life, but it can present anytime in childhood. Volvulus may present in one of three ways: as a sudden onset of bilious vomiting and abdominal pain in the neonate; as a history of feeding problems with bilious vomiting that now appears to be due to bowel obstruction; or, less commonly, as a failure to thrive with severe feeding intolerance. Necrotizing enterocolitis is typically seen in the neonatal intensive-care unit, occurring in premature infants in their first few weeks of life. The infants are ill, and signs and symptoms include lethargy, irritability, decreased oral intake, abdominal distention, and bloody stools. A plain abdominal film showing pneumatosis intestinalis, caused by gas in the intestinal wall, is diagnostic of this disease.

Screening for osteoporosis should be done in which one of the following groups? (check one) A. Postmenopausal women B. Women over age 50 with a BMI ≥30 kg/m2 C. Men over age 50 with type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Men over age 70

D. Men over age 70. All women ≥65 (SOR A) and all men ≥70 (SOR C) should be screened for osteoporosis. For men and women age 50-69, the presence of factors associated with low bone density would merit screening. Risk factors include low body weight, previous fracture, a family history of osteoporosis with fracture, a history of falls, physical inactivity, low vitamin D or calcium intake, and the use of certain medications or the presence of certain medical conditions. Chronic systemic diseases that increase risk include COPD, HIV, severe liver disease, renal failure, systemic lupus erythematosus, and rheumatoid arthritis. Endocrine disorders that increase risk include type 1 diabetes mellitus, hyperparathyroidism, hyperthyroidism, Cushing's syndrome, and others. Medications that increase risk include anticonvulsants, corticosteroids, and immunosuppressants. Nutritional risks include celiac disease, vitamin D deficiency, anorexia nervosa, gastric bypass, and increased alcohol or caffeine intake.

A 35-year-old male presents with a 4-month history of pain in the lower lumbar region without radiation. He works in retail sales, and the pain and stiffness prevent him from working. He estimates the pain to be 7 on a 10-point scale. He has been under the care of a chiropractor and has experienced some relief with spinal manipulation. His history is negative for red flags indicating a serious cause for his pain. The only positive findings on a physical examination are diffuse mild tenderness over the lumbar region and mild limitation of lumbar mobility on forward and lateral flexion/extension maneuvers. Appropriate laboratory tests and imaging studies are all within normal limits. In addition to appropriate analgesics, which one of the following modalities has the best evidence of long-term benefit in this situation? (check one) A. Transdermal electric nerve stimulation (TENS) B. Epidural corticosteroid injections C. SSRIs D. Multidisciplinary rehabilitation

D. Multidisciplinary rehabilitation. This patient has nonspecific chronic back pain, most likely a lumbar strain or sprain. In addition to analgesics (e.g., acetaminophen or NSAIDs) (SOR A) and spinal manipulation (SOR B), a multidisciplinary rehabilitation program is the best choice for management (SOR A). This program includes a physician and at least one additional intervention (psychological, social, or vocational). Such programs alleviate subjective disability, reduce pain, return the person to work earlier, and reduce the amount of sick time taken in the first year by 7 days. Benefits persist for up to 5 years. Back school, TENS, and SSRIs have been found to have negative or conflicting evidence of effectiveness (SOR C). There is no evidence to support the use of epidural corticosteroid injections in patients without radicular signs or symptoms (SOR C).

A 72-year-old male with class III congestive heart failure (CHF) due to systolic dysfunction asks if he can take ibuprofen for his "aches and pains." Appropriate counseling regarding NSAID use and heart failure should include which one of the following? (check one) A. NSAIDs are a good choice for pain relief, as they decrease systemic vascular resistance B. NSAIDs are a good choice for pain relief, as they augment the effect of his diuretic C. High-dose aspirin (325 mg/day) is preferable to other NSAIDs for patients taking ACE inhibitors D. NSAIDs, including high-dose aspirin, should be avoided in CHF patients because they can cause fluid retention

D. NSAIDs, including high-dose aspirin, should be avoided in CHF patients because they can cause fluid retention. If possible, NSAIDs should be avoided in patients with heart failure. They cause sodium and water retention, as well as an increase in systemic vascular resistance which may lead to cardiac decompensation. Patients with heart failure who take NSAIDs have a tenfold increased risk of hospitalization for exacerbation of their CHF. NSAIDs alone in patients with normal ventricular function have not been associated with initial episodes of heart failure. NSAIDs, including high-dose aspirin (325 mg/day), may decrease or negate entirely the beneficial unloading effects of ACE inhibition. They have been shown to have a negative impact on the long-term morbidity and mortality benefits that ACE inhibitors provide. Sulindac and low-dose aspirin (81 mg/day) are less likely to cause these negative effects.

======================================================= Reproductive (Female) Board Review Questions 01 ======================================================= A 16-year-old female presents with a complaint of pelvic cramps with her menses over the past 2 years. She describes her periods as heavy, and says they occur once a month and last for 7 days, with no spotting in between. She has never been sexually active and does not expect this to change in the foreseeable future. An abdominal examination is normal. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step? (check one) A. A pelvic examination B. Ultrasonography C. A TSH level D. Naproxen prior to and during menses

D. Naproxen prior to and during menses. This patient is experiencing primary dysmenorrhea, a common finding in adolescents, with estimates of prevalence ranging from 20% to 90%. Because symptoms started at a rather young age and she has pain only during menses, endometriosis or other significant pelvic pathology is unlikely. An infection is doubtful, considering that she is not sexually active and that symptoms have been present for 2 years. In the absence of red flags, a pelvic examination, laboratory evaluation, and pelvic ultrasonography are not necessary at this time. However, they can be ordered if she does not respond to simple treatment. NSAIDs such as naproxen have a slight effect on platelet function, but because they inhibit prostaglandin synthesis they actually decrease the volume of menstrual flow and lessen the discomfort of pelvic cramping. Acetaminophen would have no effect on prostaglandins.

Which one of the following is an effective screening method for ovarian cancer in elderly females at average risk? (check one) A. Annual CA-125 assays B. Annual pelvic ultrasonography C. Annual Papanicolaou (Pap) tests and pelvic examinations D. No currently available method

D. No currently available method. Two large European trials studied the use of CA-125 and CA-125 with transvaginal ultrasonography (TVU) as screening methods for ovarian cancer. TVU has been reviewed separately. None of these methods is effective as a screening test. No major organization recommends screening women at average risk. The American Cancer Society does not recommend routine screening; the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommends against population-based screening; an NIH consensus conference recommended obtaining a family history and performing annual pelvic examinations. The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force graded routine screening for ovarian cancer as a "D," meaning that there is fair evidence to recommend excluding ovarian cancer screening as a part of the periodic health examination. This recommendation reflects both a lack of benefit from screening and the fact that a significant number of women have to undergo exploratory surgery to find a single case.

A 56-year-old female has a 35-pack-year smoking history. She is concerned that she may have COPD, although she has no history of chronic cough, chest pain, or other pulmonary symptoms. Her family history is remarkable for a mother with COPD who was a smoker, but there is no family history of α1-antitrypsin disease. Which one of the following would you recommend with regard to screening spirometry? (check one) A. Screening, based on her age B. Screening, based on her family history C. Screening, based on her smoking history D. No screening, based on lack of benefit

D. No screening, based on lack of benefit. COPD is the fourth leading cause of death in the United States. The diagnosis is made by documenting airflow obstruction in the presence of symptoms and/or risk factors. Airflow limitation cannot be accurately predicted by the history and examination. The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force recently concluded that there is "moderate certainty" that screening asymptomatic patients for COPD using spirometry has little or no benefit and is not recommended. This recommendation applies to otherwise healthy individuals without a family history of α1-antitrypsin disease.

A 65-year-old female develops gram-negative septicemia from a urinary tract infection. Despite the use of fluid resuscitation she remains hypotensive, with a mean arterial pressure of 50 mm Hg. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient? (check one) A. Vasopressin (Pitressin) B. Phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) C. Epinephrine D. Norepinephrine (Levophed) E. Low-dose dopamine

D. Norepinephrine (Levophed). In a patient with sepsis, vasopressors are indicated when fluid resuscitation does not restore organ perfusion and blood pressure. Norepinephrine and dopamine currently are the preferred pressor agents; however, norepinephrine appears to be more effective and has a lower mortality rate. Phenylephrine, epinephrine, or vasopressin should not be used as first-line therapy. Vasopressin is employed after high-dose conventional vasopressors have failed. The use of low-dose dopamine is no longer recommended based on a clinical trial showing no benefit in critically ill patients at risk for renal failure. If an agent is needed to increase cardiac output, dobutamine is the agent of choice.

A 75-year-old white female presents with back pain of several months' duration, which is worsened by movement. A physical examination is unremarkable except for mild pallor. She takes furosemide (Lasix) for hypertension. Laboratory Findings Hemoglobin.. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10.0 g/dL (N 12.0-16.0) Serum creatinine.. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.0 mg/dL (N 0.6-1.5) BUN. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 40 mg/dL (N 8-25) Serum uric acid. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8.0 mg/dL (N 3.0-7.0) Serum calcium. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 12.0 mg/dL (N 8.5-10.5) Total serum protein. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9.8 g/dL (N 6.0-8.4) Globulin. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6.1 g/dL (N 2.3-3.5) Albumin. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3.7 g/dL (N 3.5-5.0) Serum IgG.. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3700 mg/dL (N 639-1349) Urine. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . positive for Bence-Jones protein Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. Repeat the physical examination and laboratory evaluation every 6 months B. Discontinue the diuretic and repeat the laboratory evaluation in 1 month C. Obtain a bone scan D. Obtain a bone marrow examination E. Begin therapy with tamoxifen (Soltamox), 20 mg daily

D. Obtain a bone marrow examination. This patient has typical symptoms and laboratory findings of multiple myeloma, which accounts for 1% of all malignant diseases and has a mean age at diagnosis of 61 years. The diagnosis is confirmed by a bone marrow examination showing >10% plasma cells in the marrow. The serum level of monoclonal immunoglobulin is typically >3 g/dL. A bone scan is inferior to conventional radiography and should not be used. Tamoxifen is indicated for the treatment of breast cancer, which is unlikely given the physicaland laboratory findings in this case.

You are consulted for medical management of a 45-year-old male, previously unknown to you, who is hospitalized in the psychiatric unit with paranoid schizophrenia. His fasting blood glucose level is 180 mg/dL. Which one of the following medications is the most likely cause of the hyperglycemia? (check one) A. Alprazolam (Xanax) B. Haloperidol (Haldol) C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) D. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) E. Thiothixene (Navane)

D. Olanzapine (Zyprexa). The atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, ziprasidone, quetiapine, and aripiprazole. As a class, they have fewer extrapyramidal side effects than the classical antipsychotics haloperidol, thiothixene, chlorpromazine, and others. Some of the atypical agents, notably olanzapine and clozapine, have been associated with hyperglycemia and the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus. Neither benzodiazepines like alprazolam nor the classical antipsychotics have been associated with hyperglycemia.

Which one of the following interpretations of Figure 5 is most accurate? (check one) A. Surgical menopause is on the increase B. Menopause is occurring at an earlier age C. The mean age for reaching menopause is 50 D. One hundred percent of this sample reached menopause by age 60 E. Menopause is the result of relative estrogen deficiency

D. One hundred percent of this sample reached menopause by age 60. The most efficient method of gathering epidemiologic data is to study a representative sample rather than the entire population subject to the event. The measurements obtained are still affected by sampling variation, however, due to the effect of chance. In the figure shown, only one of the listed conclusions can be inferred: 100% of the sample selected reached menopause by age 60. This does not imply that all women reach menopause by age 60. No conclusions regarding the plausible causes of menopause, surgical or hormonal, are valid on the basis of this graph. Although 18 years is the earliest age of menopause represented on this particular graph, a comparative conclusion cannot be drawn in the absence of corresponding comparative data. This graph illustrates a skewed, or asymmetric, distribution. Therefore, the mean (arithmetic average) age of menopause is different from the median age or middle value in the sequence from highest to lowest. Whereas the median age of menopause is approximately 50, the mean age is closer to 45, due to the skewing effect of the younger age groups represented.

A 27-year-old male presents with what he thinks is a sinus infection. He has a 2-day history of right maxillary pain associated with nasal congestion and clear rhinorrhea. The only significant findings on examination are a low-grade fever and subjective tenderness with palpation over the right maxillary sinus. Which one of the following treatments is most supported by current evidence? (check one) A. Antihistamines B. Oral decongestants C. Topical vasoconstrictor sprays D. Oral analgesics E. Nasal lavage

D. Oral analgesics. Although oral antibiotics are overwhelmingly prescribed as initial treatment in acute sinusitis, it has been shown that the majority of acute illnesses are viral in origin and that 98% of cases will resolve spontaneously. Analgesics are considered the mainstay of therapy for acute sinusitis, according to evidence-based recommendations (SOR A). Other treatments should be considered if symptoms are prolonged (>7 days) or severe (two or more localizing symptoms or signs of serious bacterial complications). There is little evidence of effectiveness for antihistamines, oral decongestants, or vasoconstrictor sprays. There is also little evidence of effectiveness for nasal lavage in acute sinusitis, although it has an emerging role in chronic sinusitis.

A 60-year-old female presents with a 1-year history of episodes of urinary incontinence. She tells you that she will suddenly feel the need to urinate and can barely make it to the bathroom. She occasionally loses urine before reaching the toilet. Her only medication is hydrochlorothiazide, which she has been taking for many years for hypertension. On examination, her vaginal mucosa is pale and somewhat dry. Minimal prolapse of her vaginal and urethral areas is noted. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. Urodynamic testing B. Referral for surgical evaluation C. Oral estrogen D. Oral anticholinergic therapy E. Stopping the hydrochlorothiazide

D. Oral anticholinergic therapy. First-line therapies for urge urinary incontinence include behavioral therapy, such as pelvic muscle contractions, and anticholinergic therapy. Oral estrogen is not indicated. Noninvasive treatments should be tried initially. Urodynamic testing is indicated preoperatively. Stopping the hydrochlorothiazide would not be helpful, as it would not address the issue of detrusor instability.

A 24-year-old female with a past history of asthma presents to the emergency department with an asthma exacerbation. Treatment with an inhaled bronchodilator and ipratropium (Atrovent) does not lead to significant improvement, and she is admitted to the hospital for ongoing management. On examination she is afebrile, her respiratory rate is 24/min, her pulse rate is 92 beats/min, and oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. She has diffuse bilateral inspiratory and expiratory wheezes with mild intercostal retractions. Which one of the following should be considered in the acute management of this patient? (check one) A. Chest physical therapy B. Inhaled fluticasone/salmeterol (Advair) C. Oral azithromycin (Zithromax) D. Oral prednisone E. Oral theophylline

D. Oral prednisone. Hospital management of acute exacerbations of asthma should include inhaled short-acting bronchodilators in all patients. Systemic corticosteroids are recommended for all patients admitted to the hospital. The efficacy of oral prednisone has been shown to be equivalent to that of intravenous methylprednisolone (SOR A). Oxygen should also be considered in most patients. Antibiotics are not recommended in the treatment of asthma exacerbations unless there is a comorbid infection. Inhaled ipratropium bromide is recommended for treatment in the emergency department, but not in the hospital (SOR A). Chest physical therapy and methylxanthines are not recommended in the treatment of acute asthma exacerbations.

A 65-year-old white female develops a burning pain in the left lateral thorax, followed 2 days later by an erythematous vesicular rash. Of the following, the best treatment is: (check one) A. Topical corticosteroids B. Oral corticosteroids C. Topical acyclovir (Zovirax) D. Oral valacyclovir (Valtrex) E. Topical capsaicin (Zostrix)

D. Oral valacyclovir (Valtrex). The rash described is typical of herpes zoster. This commonly occurs in older individuals who have had chickenpox in childhood. The treatment of choice for acute herpes zoster is oral antiviral agents. Acyclovir, valacyclovir, and famciclovir have all been shown to be efficacious with 7 days of oral treatment. Studies suggest that valacyclovir may be superior to acyclovir in decreasing both acute and postherpetic pain. Famciclovir appears to be equal in efficacy to valacyclovir. Topical acyclovir may be effective for more limited forms of herpes simplex, but is usually not effective for herpes zoster. Topical and oral corticosteroids may have some use for combatting the inflammatory process, and may decrease the incidence of postherpetic neuralgia in certain individuals. Topical capsaicin may be useful in treating the pain of acute herpes zoster infection, as well as postherpetic neuralgia.

You are evaluating a 5-month-old with fever, tachypnea, and mild respiratory distress in the emergency department. You hear mild basilar rales. The child does not appear toxic. Which one of the following tests would be the most appropriate as an initial study? (check one) A. A chest radiograph B. A CBC C. A C-reactive protein level D. Oxygen saturation by pulse oximetry

D. Oxygen saturation by pulse oximetry. Pulse oximetry should be obtained on all pediatric patients with significant tachypnea, pallor, or respiratory distress. It has been found that CBCs, C-reactive protein levels, and erythrocyte sedimentation rates are not effective in differentiating between viral and bacterial pneumonia. Chest radiographs are also ineffective in distinguishing viral and bacterial pneumonia, and should be obtained in cases of ambiguous clinical findings, prolonged pneumonia, and pneumonia that is unresponsive to antibiotic therapy, as well as when there is the possibility of complications such as pleural effusions.

A male infant is delivered at 41 weeks gestation by spontaneous vaginal delivery. The amniotic fluid is meconium stained. Apgar scores are 7 at 1 minute and 7 at 5 minutes. The baby is noted to have respiratory distress from birth and is hypoxic by pulse oximetry. Respiration improves with supplemental oxygen, as does the hypoxia, but does not return to normal. Which one of the following would most likely be seen on a chest radiograph? (check one) A. A normal heart and lungs B. Fluid in the pulmonary fissures C. Homogeneous opaque infiltrates with air bronchograms D. Patchy atelectasis

D. Patchy atelectasis. The chest radiograph of a child with meconium aspiration syndrome will show patchy atelectasis or consolidation. If the child has a normal chest film and respiratory distress, a noncardiopulmonary source should be considered (i.e., a neurologic or metabolic etiology). The chest film of a child with transient tachypnea of the newborn will show a wet silhouette around the heart, diffuse parenchymal infiltrates, or intralobar fluid accumulation. Homogeneous opaque infiltrates with air bronchograms on a chest radiograph are seen with hyaline membrane disease.

Which one of the following is true regarding medical errors? (check one) A. Malpractice litigation is more common when physicians disclose errors to patients B. The use of the word "error" should be avoided when disclosing mistakes to patients C. Physicians in private practice are more likely to disclose errors to patients than physicians employed by institutions or health care organizations D. Patients prefer to receive apologies and explanations when an error has been made E. It is ethically defensible to only disclose an error if the patient is aware there is a problem

D. Patients prefer to receive apologies and explanations when an error has been made. When a medical error has been made, patients prefer that their physician disclose the error and offer an explanation of events. Withholding that information from a patient is not ethical and is counter to standards set forth by various organizations such as the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Health Care Organizations. Using the word "error" is acceptable and does not lead to an increase in litigation. In fact, there is no evidence that malpractice litigation rates increase when an error is admitted, and rates often decrease. Private-practice physicians are less likely to admit errors to patients. It is surmised that these physicians have less access to training in disclosure than those employed by hospitals or health care organizations.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 18 ======================================================= When added to compression therapy, which one of the following has been shown to be an effective adjunctive treatment for venous ulcers? (check one) A. Warfarin (Coumadin) B. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) C. Clopidogrel (Plavix) D. Pentoxifylline (Trental) E. Atorvastatin (Lipitor)

D. Pentoxifylline (Trental). Pentoxifylline is effective when used with compression therapy for venous ulcers, and may be useful as monotherapy in patients unable to tolerate compression therapy. Aspirin has also been shown to be effective. Other treatments that have been studied but have not been found to be effective include oral zinc and antibiotics (SOR A).

Hepatitis C screening is routinely recommended in which one of the following? (check one) A. Pregnant women B. Nonsexual household contacts of hepatitis C-positive persons C. Health care workers D. Persons with a history of illicit intravenous drug use

D. Persons with a history of illicit intravenous drug use. Patients should be routinely screened for hepatitis C if they have a history of any of the following: intravenous drug abuse no matter how long or how often, receiving clotting factor produced before 1987, persistent alanine aminotransferase elevations, or recent needle stick with HCV-positive blood.

In the United States, the number of deaths has increased in recent years for which one of the following vaccine-preventable illnesses? (check one) A. Tetanus B. Hepatitis C C. Rubella D. Pertussis E. West Nile virus

D. Pertussis. In the United States, deaths from pertussis increased from 4 deaths in 1996 to 17 deaths in 2001, and a total of 56 deaths from 2001 to 2003. Immunity has decreased in previously vaccinated adolescents and adults, and now they are a reservoir for infection. Tdap vaccine is recommended as a single booster for patients age 19-65, and those between the ages of 11 and 18 years should receive Tdap rather than a Td booster. The Tdap vaccine protects against pertussis, in addition to tetanus and diphtheria. Tetanus and rubella deaths are not increasing. There are no vaccines for hepatitis C or West Nile virus.

A 30-year-old white gravida 2 para 1 who has had no prenatal care presents for urgent care at 33 weeks gestation. Her symptoms include vaginal bleeding, uterine tenderness, uterine pain between contractions, and fetal distress. Her first pregnancy was uncomplicated, with a vaginal delivery at term. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Uterine rupture B. Vasa previa C. Placenta previa D. Placental abruption E. Cervical cancer

D. Placental abruption. Late pregnancy bleeding may cause fetal morbidity and/or mortality as a result of uteroplacental insufficiency and/or premature birth. The condition described here is placental abruption (separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before delivery). There are several causes of vaginal bleeding that can occur in late pregnancy that might have consequences for the mother, but not necessarily for the fetus, such as cervicitis, cervical polyps, or cervical cancer. Even advanced cervical cancer would be unlikely to cause the syndrome described here. The other conditions listed may bring harm to the fetus and/or the mother. Uterine rupture usually occurs during active labor in women with a history of a previous cesarean section or with other predisposing factors, such as trauma or obstructed labor. Vaginal bleeding is an unreliable sign of uterine rupture and is present in only about 10% of cases. Fetal distress or demise is the most reliable presenting clinical symptom. Vasa previa (the velamentous insertion of the umbilical cord into the membranes in the lower uterine segment) is typically manifested by the onset of hemorrhage at the time of amniotomy or by spontaneous rupture of the membranes. There are no prior maternal symptoms of distress. The hemorrhage is actually fetal blood, and exsanguination can occur rapidly. Placenta previa (placental implantation that overlies or is within 2 cm of the internal cervical os) is clinically manifested as vaginal bleeding in the late second or third trimester, often after sexual intercourse. The bleeding is typically painless, unless labor or placental abruption occurs.

A 16-year-old male accompanied by his mother presents to your outpatient clinic with concerns about his short stature and "boyish" looks. He is a sophomore in high school but is frequently mistaken for someone much younger. Radiographs reveal a bone age of 14.7 years. Which one of the following would suggest the need for further evaluation? (check one) A. A family history of delayed growth B. Height below the fifth percentile for age C. Weight below the fifth percentile for age D. Prepubescent testicular size

D. Prepubescent testicular size. Most cases of short stature are due to constitutional growth delay, a term which implies that the child is normal but delayed in his development. A hallmark of this condition is being below the fifth percentile for height for most of childhood. Usually these children are thin and have a family history of delayed development. Bone age would be expected to be at least 2.5 standard deviations below the mean for agematched peers of the same chronologic age. However, most experts agree that if no signs of puberty are seen by 14 years of age (no breast development in girls, no testicular enlargement in boys), then further workup for a more serious condition should be sought. Other indications for evaluation would be no menarche in a girl by 16 years of age and underdeveloped genitalia in a boy 5 years after his first pubertal changes.

A 52-year-old male with stable coronary artery disease and controlled hypertension sees you for a routine visit and asks for advice regarding prevention of altitude illness for his upcoming trip to Bhutan to celebrate his anniversary. His medical chart indicates that he had a reaction to a sulfa drug in the past. Which one of the following would be most appropriate? (check one) A. Advise the patient to not make the trip B. Recommend ginkgo biloba C. Prescribe acetazolamide D. Prescribe dexamethasone

D. Prescribe dexamethasone. Altitude illness is common, affecting 25%-85% of travelers to high altitudes. The most common manifestation is acute mountain sickness, heralded by malaise and headache. Risk factors include young age, residence at a low altitude, rapid ascent, strenuous physical exertion, and a previous history of altitude illness. However, activity restriction is not necessary for patients with coronary artery disease who are traveling to high altitudes (SOR C). Ginkgo biloba has been evaluated for both prevention and treatment of acute mountain sickness and high-altitude cerebral edema, and it is not recommended. Acetazolamide is an effective prophylactic agent (SOR B), but is contraindicated in patients with a sulfa allergy. If used, it should be started a minimum of one day before ascent and continued until the patient acclimatizes at the highest planned elevation. Dexamethasone is an effective prophylactic and treatment agent (SOR B), and it is not contraindicated for those with a sulfa allergy. It would be the best option for this patient.

Compared to anesthesia using only parenteral opioids, the use of epidural anesthesia in labor and delivery increases the rate of which one of the following? (check one) A. Cesarean section B. Low Apgar scores (<7) C. Maternal low backache 3 months post delivery D. Prolonged second stage of labor

D. Prolonged second stage of labor. Multiple systematic reviews have been conducted to examine the effects of epidural anesthesia on maternal and neonatal outcomes. There are many confounding variables in the studies and, as a result, only a few effects of epidural anesthesia are consistently seen on a statistically significant basis: an increased duration of the second stage of labor, an increased rate of instrument-assisted vaginal deliveries, and an increased likelihood of maternal fever. Overall, there is no statistically significant difference in the duration of the first stage of labor, the incidence of low Apgar scores, or the incidence of maternal backache at 3 months or 12 months.

An 8-year-old male is brought to your office for evaluation of recurrent headaches. His mother explains that the headaches occur at least twice a week and often require him to miss school. The patient says he sometimes feels nauseated and that being in a dark room helps. His mother states that she had migraines as a child. The child's only other medical issue is constipation. A head CT ordered by another physician was negative. Which one of the following would be best for preventing these episodes? (check one) A. Sumatriptan (Imitrex) B. Ibuprofen C. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) D. Propranolol (Inderal) E. Amitriptyline

D. Propranolol (Inderal). This patient most likely is suffering from recurrent migraine headaches; at the described frequency and intensity, he meets the criteria for prophylactic medication. Ibuprofen or acetaminophen could still be used as rescue medications, but a daily agent is indicated and propranolol is the best choice for this patient (SOR B). Sumatriptan is not approved for children under the age of 12 years. Carbamazepine has significant side effects and requires monitoring. Amitriptyline is a commonly used agent, but it could worsen his constipation.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 87 ======================================================= A 4-week-old full-term male is brought to your office by his parents. They report that their child started vomiting just after his 1-week visit. The parents are concerned because they think the vomiting is worsening, occurring after every feeding, and "shooting across the room." You note that the baby is afebrile, but has not gained any weight since birth. Based on this information, the most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. Formula intolerance B. Meningitis C. Viral gastroenteritis D. Pyloric stenosis E. Inappropriate feeding

D. Pyloric stenosis. Pyloric stenosis fits the described scenario; it is characterized by the early onset of worsening projectile vomiting and poor weight gain, and occurs most often in full-term male infants who are otherwise healthy. Formula intolerance causes regurgitation, as would inappropriate feeding. Meningitis, whether viral or bacterial, would be associated with fever. Viral gastroenteritis is a common cause of vomiting in older children, and is usually associated with fever and diarrhea.

A 79-year-old male has psychosis secondary to dementia associated with Parkinson's disease. After exhausting all other options you decide to prescribe an antipsychotic agent. Which one of the following would be the best choice in this situation? (check one) A. Haloperidol B. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) C. Risperidone (Risperdal) D. Quetiapine (Seroquel) E. Thioridazine

D. Quetiapine (Seroquel). Quetiapine is an atypical antipsychotic that has no clinically significant effect on the dopamine D2 receptor, which is responsible for the parkinsonian side effects of antipsychotic medications. Because of this, it is considered the antipsychotic of choice in patients with dementia associated with Parkinson's disease, although its use has not been studied extensively in this clinical situation. The other atypical antipsychotics listed, olanzapine and risperidone, have some D2 receptor effect. Thioridazine and haloperidol are typical antipsychotics and have more side effects, including parkinsonian side effects; they are not recommended in this clinical situation.

Patients with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome who have episodic symptomatic supraventricular tachycardia or atrial fibrillation benefit most from: (check one) A. Episodic intravenous digoxin B. Long-term oral digitalis C. Episodic beta-blockers D. Radiofrequency catheter ablation of bypass tracts

D. Radiofrequency catheter ablation of bypass tracts. Radiofrequency catheter ablation of bypass tracts is possible in over 90% of patients and is safer and more cost effective than surgery, with a similar success rate. Intravenous and oral digoxin can shorten the refractory period of the accessory pathway, and increase the ventricular rate, causing ventricular fibrillation. Beta-blockers will not control the ventricular response during atrial fibrillation when conduction proceeds over the bypass tract.

During a preparticipation examination of a 5-year-old male for summer soccer camp, his mother states that he frequently awakens during the night with complaints of cramping pain in both legs, and that he seems to experience this after a day of heavy physical activity. She says that he appears to drag his legs at times, but she has never noticed a definite limp. A physical examination of the hips, knees, ankles, and leg musculature is entirely normal. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step in the evaluation and management of this patient? (check one) A. Plain films of both hips and knees B. Serum electrolyte levels C. Recommending that he not participate in running sports D. Reassurance, with no activity restrictions or treatment E. Referral to a pediatric orthopedist

D. Reassurance, with no activity restrictions or treatment. Benign nocturnal limb pains of childhood (growing pains) occur in as many as one-third of children, most often between 4 and 6 years of age. The etiology is unknown, but the course does not parallel pubescent growth, as would be expected if bone growth was the source of pain. The pain often awakens the child within hours of falling asleep following an active day. The pain is generally localized around the knees, most often in the shins and calves, but also may affect the thighs and the upper extremities. A characteristic history coupled with a normal physical examination will confirm the diagnosis. Reassurance that no additional tests or treatments are necessary and that the condition is self-limiting is the most appropriate response.

Staff members of an assisted-living facility ask for your advice regarding aerobic exercise programs for their older residents. The evidence is greatest for which one of the following benefits of physical activity in the elderly? (check one) A. Maintaining weight after weight loss B. Improving quality of sleep C. Increasing bone density D. Reducing the risk of falls

D. Reducing the risk of falls. There is strong evidence that physical activity will prevent falls in the elderly. The evidence for maintaining weight, improving sleep, and increasing bone density is not as strong.

You have provided care for a 27-year-old married, monogamous female for several years. One year ago, she had abnormal cervical cytology that was interpreted as "atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance" (ASC-US). She had repeat cervical cytologic examinations 6 months ago and again last week, both reported as negative. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step? (check one) A. Repeat cervical cytology again in 4-6 months B. Screening for human papillomavirus C. Colposcopic examination with a biopsy and endocervical curettage D. Resuming a routine screening protocol E. Cervical culture for herpesvirus

D. Resuming a routine screening protocol. The cervical cytology category of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASC-US) is one that is poorly reproducible, having been shown to be frequently downgraded to negative or upgraded to a low- or high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion on review. Recommended management strategies for women with ASC-US include repeat cytology at 4-6 months, immediate colposcopy, and reflex DNA testing for oncogenic HPV types. Should two repeat cytologic examinations at 4- to 6-month intervals prove negative, the patient can safely return to routine cytologic screenings. Should any repeat examination detect ASC-US or more significant cytology, colposcopy is indicated.

Which one of the following is most consistent with a diagnosis of iron deficiency anemia? (check one) A. Low iron-binding capacity B. An elevated methylmalonic acid level C. Increased serum ferritin D. Reticulocytosis about 1 week after administration of iron

D. Reticulocytosis about 1 week after administration of iron. In iron deficiency anemia, serum iron is low but iron-binding capacity is high. Serum ferritin is one-tenth of normal. Bone marrow iron stores are depleted. Oral replacement, which is safer than parenteral administration and more acceptable to patients, should raise the hemoglobin level by 0.2 g/dL/day. A reticulocyte response should be seen in a week to 10 days unless factors such as a concomitant folic acid deficiency prevent a full response to therapy.

You have recently begun caring for a 25-year-old white female who has multiple complaints. You have seen her 3 times for walk-in office visits over the past month. She has shown appreciation for your work during the encounters, but has been critical of your care when talking to the office staff. At times she has been kind and charming, and at other times she has been rude and verbally abusive to your staff. She has a string of multiple relationships in the past, none of which has lasted very long. During times of intense stress, she has sometimes engaged in self-mutilation. She frequently changes jobs and living arrangements. Which one of the following strategies would be most appropriate in the care of this patient? (check one) A. Strive to develop a close relationship with the patient B. Ignore verbal attacks on staff members C. Prescribe lorazepam (Ativan) D. Schedule frequent office visits for follow-up E. Provide detailed, technical explanations for any therapies provided

D. Schedule frequent office visits for follow-up. This patient demonstrates features of borderline personality disorder. These patients often demonstrate instability in interpersonal relationships and self-image, and may be impulsive. They can present with a wide range of symptoms, including depression, anger, paranoia, extreme dependency, self-mutilation, and alternating idealization and devaluation of their physicians. Their lives are often chaotic. Treatment strategies include maintaining a caring but somewhat detached professional stance. A close personal relationship is typically not therapeutic for these patients. Angry outbursts will often have to be tolerated, but limit-setting is necessary with respect to appropriate behaviors. SSRIs, atypical antipsychotics, and mood stabilizers may be of help at times, but anxiolytics are often abused and may be associated with self-mutilating behaviors. These patients tend to respond best to clear, simple, non-technical explanations related to their medical care.

A 35-year-old female sees you because she has lost her voice. She has had no recent upper respiratory infection symptoms, cough, or heartburn, and she has not done anything that would strain her voice. Findings are normal on examination of the head and neck. A review of her chart shows this has happened before, but an ear, nose, and throat evaluation found no abnormalities. She also has been seen numerous times in the past few years for headaches, chest pains, abdominal pains, rectal pressure, and vaginal symptoms. Despite several workups and referrals, no definite cause has been found and the symptoms persist. Which one of the following would be the most reasonable plan of action? (check one) A. Test for food allergies B. Begin low-dose lorazepam (Ativan) C. Begin a 6-week trial of a proton pump inhibitor D. Schedule frequent office visits

D. Schedule frequent office visits. Somatization disorders should be considered in patients who have a history of various complaints over a several-year period that involve multiple organ systems. There is no test to confirm this diagnosis. It is often intertwined in other psychiatric problems, including anxiety disorder, personality disorder, and depression. Treatment includes testing to make sure that there is nothing physically wrong, while building a trusting relationship with the patient. Once this is accomplished, it is reasonable to discuss the disorder with the patient. Cognitive therapy has been shown to be of value, as well as regularly scheduled office visits for monitoring and support. Medicines for coexisting psychiatric problems also are of benefit. In addition, referral for psychiatric consultation may be worthwhile. Food allergies can cause a variety of symptoms, but usually not to the extent seen with this patient, and testing for this might confuse the issue. Lorazepam may help the symptoms if there is a coexisting anxiety disorder, but it will not address the underlying problem. Laryngeal esophageal reflux can cause hoarseness and will respond to proton pump inhibitors, but given the repetitive nature of her symptoms and the previous negative workups, it is not consistent with the whole picture.

A patient at 40 weeks' gestation has had a fundal height 3-4 cm greater than expected relative to dates for the last several visits. Ultrasonography 2 days ago showed a fetus in the vertex position with an estimated fetal weight of 4200 g (9 lb 4oz). On examination today the patient's cervix is closed, long, posterior, and firm, with the vertex at -2 station. Her pregnancy has been otherwise uncomplicated. Appropriate management at this point would be: (check one) A. Cesarean section B. Induction of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin) C. Cervical ripening with prostaglandins D. Scheduling a routine prenatal visit in 1 week

D. Scheduling a routine prenatal visit in 1 week. Fetal macrosomia at term is defined by various authorities as birth weight above 4000-4500 g. Ultrasonography, unfortunately, does not provide a particularly accurate estimate of fetal weight for large fetuses. The risk of difficult vaginal delivery and shoulder dystocia does increase with birth weight above 4000-4500 g. This has led to attempts to prevent shoulder dystocia and possible birth injury by either performing an elective cesarean section or inducing labor when the fetus is estimated to be macrosomic. However, no studies have shown a benefit to either intervention in otherwise uncomplicated pregnancies. Suspected macrosomia on its own is no longer considered an indication for induction or cesarean section. However, should this patient not spontaneously go into labor she will soon need to be managed as a post-dates pregnancy and thus a return visit should be scheduled in a week.

Which one of the following seafood poisonings requires more than just supportive treatment? (check one) A. Ciguatera B. Neurotoxic shellfish C. Paralytic shellfish D. Scombroid fish

D. Scombroid fish. Only symptomatic treatment is indicated for ciguatera poisoning, as there is no specific treatment. The same is true for shellfish poisoning, although potential respiratory distress or failure must be kept in mind. Scombroid poisoning is a pseudoallergic condition resulting from consumption of improperly stored scombroid fish such as tuna, mackerel, wahoo, and bonito. Nonscombroid varieties such as mahi-mahi, amberjack, sardines, and herring can also cause this problem. The poisoning is due to high levels of histamine and saurine resulting from bacterial catabolism of histidine. Symptoms occur within minutes to hours, and include flushing of the skin, oral paresthesias, pruritus, urticaria, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, vertigo, headache, bronchospasm, dysphagia, tachycardia, and hypotension. Therapy should be the same as for allergic reactions and anaphylaxis, and will usually lead to resolution of symptoms within several hours.

Medicare pays for which one of the following? (check one) A. Routine dental care B. Custodial nursing-home care C. Hearing aids D. Screening mammography

D. Screening mammography. Medicare pays for some preventive measures, including pneumococcal vaccine, influenza vaccine, annual mammography, and a Papanicolaou test every 3 years. Medicare does not pay for custodial care, nursing-home care (except limited skilled nursing care), dentures, routine dental care, eyeglasses, hearing aids, routine physical checkups and related tests, or prescription drugs.

A 42-year-old white female presents to your office as a new patient. She states that she has an 8-year history of abdominal cramps and diarrhea. Her symptoms have not responded to the usual treatments for irritable bowel syndrome. She has no rectal bleeding, anemia, weight loss, or fever, and no family history of colon cancer. Her medical history and a review of symptoms is otherwise negative, and a physical examination is normal. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step in evaluating this patient? (check one) A. A CBC B. A TSH level C. A complete metabolic panel D. Serologic testing for celiac sprue E. Stool testing for ova and parasites

D. Serologic testing for celiac sprue. In patients who have symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), the differential diagnosis includes celiac sprue, microscopic and collagenous colitis, atypical Crohn's disease for patients with diarrhea-predominant IBS, and chronic constipation (without pain) for those with constipation-predominant IBS. If there are no warning signs, laboratory testing is warranted only if indicated by the history.

An 82-year-old male resident of a nursing home has developed symptoms of depression including withdrawal and sadness. The staff also reports that he doesn't want to leave his room, and often expresses a desire to stay in bed all day. After performing an appropriate evaluation and recommending nonpharmacologic interventions, you also decide that pharmacologic treatment is indicated. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate antidepressant for this patient? (check one) A. Amitriptyline (Elavil) B. Doxepin (Sinequan) C. Trazodone (Desyrel) D. Sertraline (Zoloft) E. Olanzapine (Zyprexa)

D. Sertraline (Zoloft). Amitriptyline, doxepin, MAO inhibitors, and clomipramine should be avoided in nursing-home patients. SSRIs are the most appropriate first-line pharmacologic treatment for depression in nursing-home residents. Other classes of non-tricyclic antidepressants may be effective and appropriate, but the evidence for this is not as good as the evidence for SSRIs.

Which one of the following is the most appropriate adjunct medication for treating patients with post-traumatic stress disorder? (check one) A. Alprazolam (Xanax) B. Haloperidol (Haldol) C. Methylphenidate (Ritalin) D. Sertraline (Zoloft) E. Temazepam (Restoril)

D. Sertraline (Zoloft). Results of randomized clinical trials demonstrate that medications such as SSRIs, tricyclic antidepressants, and monoamine oxidase inhibitors alleviate the symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and are associated with improvements in overall functioning. SSRIs are a first-line medication because they are safer and better tolerated than other types of psychotropic medications. Sertraline and paroxetine are the only agents that have been approved by the FDA for the treatment of PTSD.

Which one of the following statements is true about celiac disease (gluten-sensitive enteropathy) in adults? (check one) A. It is more common among African-Americans B. Symptoms are limited to gastrointestinal complaints C. Type 2 diabetics are at increased risk for the disease D. Serum antibody tests are sensitive and specific E. Colonoscopy with mucosal biopsy is required to make the diagnosis

D. Serum antibody tests are sensitive and specific. Celiac disease is thought to be greatly underdiagnosed in the United States. Antibody tests indicate that the prevalence is approximately 1:250 among adult Americans of European ancestry. Approximately 7% of type 1 diabetics have celiac disease. A number of other autoimmune syndromes have been associated with celiac disease, including thyroid disease and rheumatoid arthritis. There is no reported association with type 2 diabetes. Gastrointestinal involvement may manifest as diarrhea, constipation, or other symptoms of malabsorption, such as bloating, flatus, or belching. Fatigue, depression, fibromyalgia-like symptoms, aphthous stomatitis, bone pain, dyspepsia, gastroesophageal reflux, and other nonspecific symptoms may be present and can make the diagnosis quite challenging. Dermatitis herpetiformis is seen in 10% of patients with celiac disease. Serum antibody testing, especially IgA antiendomysial antibody, is highly sensitive and specific and readily available at a cost of about $100 to $200. Definitive diagnosis generally requires esophagogastroduodenoscopy with a biopsy of the distal duodenum to detect characteristic villous flattening.

A 35-year-old male with a previous history of kidney stones presents with symptoms consistent with a recurrence of this problem. The initial workup reveals elevated serum calcium. Which one of the following tests would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. Serum calcitonin B. 24-hour urine for calcium and phosphate C. Serum phosphate and magnesium D. Serum parathyroid hormone E. Spot urine for microalbumin

D. Serum parathyroid hormone. A patient with a recurrent kidney stone and an elevated serum calcium level most likely has hyperparathyroidism, and a parathyroid hormone (PTH) level would be appropriate. Elevated PTH is caused by a single parathyroid adenoma in approximately 80% of cases. The resultant hypercalcemia is often discovered in asymptomatic persons having laboratory work for other reasons. An elevated PTH by immunoassay confirms the diagnosis. In the past, tests based on renal responses to elevated PTH were used to make the diagnosis. These included blood phosphate, chloride, and magnesium, as well as urinary or nephrogenous cyclic adenosine monophosphate. These tests are not specific for this problem, however, and are therefore not cost-effective. Serum calcitonin levels have no practical clinical use.

A 68-year-old Mexican American female is brought to your office by her son with a complaint of headaches. The patient speaks English adequately, but diverts her eyes to look at her son when answering your questions. Which one of the following is the most likely reason for this patient not making eye contact? (check one) A. Her son is overly controlling B. She is a victim of abuse C. She is being untruthful D. She is showing respect to you E. She is depressed

D. She is showing respect to you. Nonverbal communication is important for identifying issues that a patient may be hiding or be unwilling to divulge. Some nonverbal clues, however, are culturally biased. Many older or less-educated Mexican-Americans consider direct eye contact to be disrespectful. Because a physician is held in high regard, these patients will often either look down or look at another, more equal person in the room while being interviewed. Many Americans, on the other hand, may consider a lack of eye contact to be negative, implying that a patient is unsure of the information they are providing, has poor self-esteem, or is hiding something.

A 36-year-old female makes an appointment because her husband of 12 years was just diagnosed with hepatitis C when he tried to become a blood donor for the first time. He recalls multiple blood transfusions following a motorcycle crash in 1988. His wife denies past liver disease, blood transfusions, and intravenous drug use. She has had no other sexual partners. The couple has three children. Which one of the following is the best advice about testing the wife and their three children? (check one) A. No testing is required in the absence of jaundice or gastrointestinal symptoms B. No testing is required if her husband has normal liver enzyme levels C. No testing is required because tests have low sensitivity D. She should be offered testing because sexual transmission is possible E. All family members should be tested because of possible household fecal-oral spread

D. She should be offered testing because sexual transmission is possible. Key risk factors for hepatitis C infection are long-term hemodialysis, intravenous drug use, blood transfusion or organ transplantation prior to 1992, and receipt of clotting factors before 1987. Sexual transmission is very low but possible, and the likelihood increases with multiple partners. The lifetime transmission risk of hepatitis C in a monogamous relationship is less than 1%, but the patient should be offered testing because she may choose to confirm that her test is negative. If the mother is seronegative, the children are at no risk. Maternal-fetal transmission is rare except in the setting of co-infection with HIV. Hepatitis C is insidious, and symptoms do not correlate with the extent of the disease. Normal liver enzyme levels do not indicate lack of infectivity. There is no risk to household contacts. Current HCV antibody tests are more than 99% sensitive and specific and are recommended for screening at-risk populations.

======================================================= Respiratory Board Review Questions 01 ======================================================= Which one of the following is an indication for a second dose of pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (Pneumovax 23) in children? (check one) A. Cerebrospinal fluid leak B. Cyanotic congenital heart disease C. Type 1 diabetes mellitus D. Sickle cell disease E. Chronic bronchopulmonary dysplasia

D. Sickle cell disease. Patients with chronic illness, diabetes mellitus, cerebrospinal fluid leaks, chronic bronchopulmonary dysplasia, cyanotic congenital heart disease, or cochlear implants should receive one dose of pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine after 2 years of age, and at least 2 months after the last dose of pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (Prevnar 13). Revaccination with polysaccharide vaccine is not recommended for these patients. Individuals with sickle cell disease, those with anatomic or functional asplenia, immunocompromised persons with renal failure or leukemia, and HIV-infected persons should receive polysaccharide vaccine on this schedule and should be revaccinated at least 5 years after the first dose.

A 12-year-old male presents with left hip pain. He is overweight and recently started playing tennis to lose weight. He says the pain started gradually after his last tennis game, but he does not recall any injury. He is walking with a limp. On examination he is afebrile and has limited internal rotation of the left hip. What is the most likely cause of the hip pain? (check one) A. Septic arthritis B. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis C. Transient synovitis D. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis E. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease

D. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis is the most common hip disorder in this patient's age group. It usually occurs between the ages of 8 and 15 and is more common in boys and overweight or obese children. It presents with limping and pain, and limited internal rotation of the hip is noted on physical examination. Septic arthritis would typically present with a fever. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, transient synovitis, and Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease are more common in younger children.

Which one of the following best describes the condition seen in the radiograph in Figure 6? (check one) A. Osgood-Schlatter disease B. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease C. Blount's disease D. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis E. A normal hip

D. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis. The radiograph shows a typical slipped capital femoral epiphysis, with the epiphysis displaced posteriorly and medially. The problem usually occurs in late childhood or adolescence. Osgood-Schlatter disease involves the anterior tibial tubercle. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease is avascular necrosis of the femoral head. Blount's disease involves the medial portion of the proximal tibia. All of these conditions cause leg pain in children.

A rural community college has requested your guidance in offering a preventive health program to its students. The most appropriate plan would include which one of the following? (check one) A. Mammograms for female students B. Lead poisoning screening for all students C. Stool occult blood kits for students D. Smoking cessation programs E. An annual routine physical examination for all students

D. Smoking cessation programs. The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force recommends a routine physical examination every 3-5 years for young adults until the age of 40. Mammograms are not recommended until age 40. Lead screening is recommended for at-risk individuals between 6 months and 6 years of age. Colorectal cancer screening for average-risk individuals is recommended at age 50. Counseling on tobacco use and other substance abuse is recommended as part of all routine preventive care.

A 58-year-old white male comes to your office for follow-up after a recent bout of acute bronchitis. He reports having a productive cough for several months. He gets breathless with exertion and notes that every time he gets a cold it "goes into my chest and lingers for months." He has been smoking for 30 years. A physical examination is negative except for scattered rhonchi. A chest radiograph done 4 months ago at an urgent care visit was negative except for hyperinflation and flattened diaphragms. Which one of the following would be best for making the diagnosis? (check one) A. A chest radiograph B. CT of the chest C. Peak flow measurement D. Spirometry E. A BNP level

D. Spirometry. It is important to distinguish between COPD and asthma because of the differences in treatment. Patients with COPD are usually in their sixties when the diagnosis is made. Symptoms of chronic cough (sometimes for months or years), dyspnea, or sputum production are often not reported because the patient may attribute them to smoking, aging, or poor physical condition. Spirometry is the best test for the diagnosis of COPD. The pressure of outflow obstruction that is not fully reversible is demonstrated by postbronchodilator spirometry showing an FEV /FVC ratio of 70% or less.

======================================================= Cardiovascular Board Review Questions 02 ======================================================= An asymptomatic 3-year-old male presents for a routine check-up. On examination you notice a systolic heart murmur. It is heard best in the lower precordium and has a low, short tone similar to a plucked string or kazoo. It does not radiate to the axillae or the back and seems to decrease with inspiration. The remainder of the examination is normal. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Eisenmenger's syndrome B. Mitral stenosis C. Peripheral pulmonic stenosis D. Still's murmur E. Venous hum

D. Still's murmur. There are several benign murmurs of childhood that have no association with physiologic or anatomic abnormalities. Of these, Still's murmur best fits the murmur described. The cause of Still's murmur is unknown, but it may be due to vibrations in the chordae tendinae, semilunar valves, or ventricular wall. A venous hum consists of a continuous low-pitched murmur caused by the collapse of the jugular veins and their subsequent fluttering, and it worsens with inspiration or diastole. The murmur of physiologic peripheral pulmonic stenosis (PPPS) is caused by physiologic changes in the newborns pulmonary vessels. PPPS is a systolic murmur heard loudest in the axillae bilaterally that usually disappears by 9 months of age. Mitral stenosis causes a diastolic murmur, and Eisenmenger's syndrome involves multiple abnormalities of the heart that cause significant signs and symptoms, including shortness of breath, cyanosis, and organomegaly, which should become apparent from a routine history and examination.

A nursing-home resident is hospitalized, and shortly before she is to be discharged she develops a skin ulcer, which proves to be infected with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which one of the following is most important in terms of infection control when she returns to the nursing home? (check one) A. Surveillance cultures of nursing-home residents living near the patient B. Aggressive housekeeping in the patient's room C. Masks, gowns, and gloves for all those entering the patient's room D. Strict handwashing practices by all staff, visitors, and residents E. Isolation of the patient in a room by herself

D. Strict handwashing practices by all staff, visitors, and residents. All staff, visitors, and nursing-home residents should observe strict handwashing practices in this situation. Barrier precautions for wounds and medical devices should also be initiated. Surveillance cultures are not warranted. Aggressive housekeeping practices play little, if any, role in preventing the spread of MRSA. Isolating the patient is not practical or cost-effective.

An asymptomatic 35-year-old female asks about having a thyroid test performed because hypothyroidism runs in her family. You order the tests, which show a TSH level of 7.6μU/mL (N 0.4-5.1) and a free T4 level within the normal range. Which one of the following is most likely in this patient? (check one) A. A euthyroid state B. Primary hyperthyroidism C. Secondary hyperthyroidism D. Subclinical hypothyroidism E. Overt hypothyroidism

D. Subclinical hypothyroidism. Subclinical hypothyroidism is defined as slightly elevated TSH (approximately 5-10 mIU/L) and normal levels of thyroid hormone (free T4 or free T3 ) in an asymptomatic patient. There is a low rate of progression to overt hypothyroidism manifested by symptoms, TSH levels >10 mIU/L, or reduced levels of thyroid hormone. Recent studies have shown that there is an increased risk for cardiovascular morbidity and mortality in those with subclinical hypothyroidism. However, treatment with thyroid replacement hormone did not seem to affect this risk. The decision about whether to recommend thyroid replacement therapy to patients like the one described here should be individualized. An alternative to treating the patient with medication at this time would be to retest her TSH annually, or sooner if she becomes symptomatic.

Which one of the following classes of diabetes medications acts primarily by stimulating pancreatic insulin secretion? (check one) A. Biguanides, such as metformin (Glucophage) B. Thiazolidinediones, such as pioglitazone (Actos) C. DPP-4 inhibitors, such as sitagliptin (Januvia) D. Sulfonylureas, such as glipizide (Glucotrol) E. Amylin analogs, such as pramlintide (Symlin)

D. Sulfonylureas, such as glipizide (Glucotrol). Biguanides and thiazolidinediones are insulin sensitizers that decrease hepatic glucose production and increase insulin sensitivity. Sulfonylureas and meglitinides stimulate pancreatic insulin secretion, while DPP-4 inhibitors prevent GLP-1 breakdown and slow the breakdown of some sugars. GLP-1 mimetics stimulate insulin secretion, suppress glucagon secretion, and promote β-cell production. Amylin analogs act with insulin to delay gastric emptying and they also inhibit glucagon release.

An 84-year-old white female presents to your office with symptoms of an upper respiratory infection and a hacking cough. She admits to smoking one pack of cigarettes daily since she was 21 years of age. Which one of the following is true with regard to her tobacco use? (check one) A. If she is unable to quit smoking she should switch to a low-tar, low-nicotine cigarette B. Individuals this age do not benefit from smoking cessation C. Nicotine patches should not be used if she has coexisting coronary artery disease D. Sustained-release bupropion (Wellbutrin SR) has been shown to reduce the relapse rate for up to 12 months

D. Sustained-release bupropion (Wellbutrin SR) has been shown to reduce the relapse rate for up to 12 months. Sustained-release bupropion has been shown to reduce the relapse rate for smoking cessation and blunt weight gain for 12 months. Beneficial effects of smoking cessation are seen even among older smokers. Evidence has now shown that smokers who switch to low-tar or low-nicotine cigarettes do not significantly decrease their health risks. The approved Food and Drug Administration medications for smoking cessation (sustained-release bupropion, nicotine patch, nicotine gum, nicotine inhaler, and nicotine nasal spray) have been shown to be safe and should be recommended for all patients without contraindications who are trying to quit smoking. The nicotine patch in particular is safe, and has been shown not to cause adverse cardiovascular effects.

A 72-year-old male with COPD presents to the emergency department with an acute exacerbation marked by increased sputum production and shortness of breath. His oxygen saturation is 88% on room air and he has diffuse inspiratory and expiratory wheezes bilaterally. In addition to oxygen and bronchodilators, which one of the following is most appropriate for this patient? (check one) A. No additional treatments B. Systemic corticosteroids only C. Inhaled corticosteroids only D. Systemic corticosteroids and antibiotics E. Inhaled corticosteroids and antibiotics

D. Systemic corticosteroids and antibiotics. Acute exacerbations of COPD are very common, with most caused by superimposed infections. Supplemental oxygen, antibiotics, and bronchodilators are used for management. Systemic corticosteroids, either oral or parenteral, have been shown to significantly reduce treatment failures and improve lung function and dyspnea over the first 72 hours, although there is an increased risk of adverse drug reactions.

======================================================= Neurologic Board Review Questions 02 ======================================================= You evaluate an 80-year-old white male who is a heavily medicated chronic schizophrenic. You note constant, involuntary chewing motions and repetitive movements of his legs. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome B. Acute dystonia C. Huntington's disease D. Tardive dyskinesia E. Oculogyric crisis

D. Tardive dyskinesia. The patient has classic signs of tardive dyskinesia. Repetitive movement of the mouth and legs is caused by antipsychotic agents such as phenothiazines and haloperidol. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome consists of fever, autonomic dysfunction, and movement disorder. Acute dystonia involves twisting of the neck, trunk, and limbs into uncomfortable positions. Huntington's disease causes choreic movements, which are flowing, not repetitive. Oculogyric crisis involves the eyes.

You treat a 65-year-old white female for a clean minor laceration. Her chart reveals that she has received two previous doses of tetanus toxoid. The last dose was 12 years ago. Which one of the following is the preferred treatment? (check one) A. Reassurance that her tetanus immune status is adequate B. Tetanus immune globulin (TIG) and tetanus toxoid (TT) C. Tetanus toxoid only D. Tdap E. DTaP

D. Tdap. Tetanus vaccine is indicated for adults with clean minor wounds who have received fewer than three previous doses of tetanus toxoid, or whose immune status is unknown. Tetanus immune globulin is not recommended if the wound is clean. The CDC recommends that adults aged 65 years and older who have not received Tdap and are likely to have close contact with an infant less than 12 months of age (e.g., grandparents, child-care providers, and health-care practitioners) should receive a single dose to protect against pertussis and reduce the likelihood of transmission. For other adults aged 65 years and older, a single dose of Tdap vaccine should be given instead of a scheduled dose of Td vaccine if they have not previously received Tdap. Tdap can be administered regardless of the interval since the last vaccine containing tetanus or diphtheria toxoid, and either Tdap vaccine product may be used. After receiving Tdap, persons should continue to receive Td for routine booster immunizations against tetanus and diphtheria, according to previously published guidelines.

An otherwise healthy 40-year-old male comes to your office for follow-up of elevated liver enzymes on an insurance examination. He is 173 cm (68 in) tall and weighs 113 kg (250 lb) (BMI 37.7 kg/m2). He says he drinks about two beers per week. Findings are normal on a physical examination, except for a slightly enlarged liver. AST and ALT levels are twice the upper limits of normal. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step? (check one) A. A liver biopsy B. Ultrasonography of the liver C. Colonoscopy D. Testing for viral hepatitis E. Repeat AST and ALT levels in 3 months

D. Testing for viral hepatitis. Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease is the most likely diagnosis in this patient, but hepatitis B and C should be ruled out. The patient's alcohol consumption of less than two drinks per week makes alcoholic fatty liver disease unlikely. A liver biopsy would not be appropriate at this time. Liver ultrasonography should be considered after hepatitis B and C are ruled out. The patient is younger than the recommended screening age for colonoscopy.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 45 ======================================================= A 26-month-old child presents with a 2-day history of 6-8 loose stools per day and a low-grade fever. When evaluating the child to determine whether he is dehydrated, which one of the following would NOT be useful? (check one) A. Skin turgor B. Capillary refill time C. Respiratory rate and pattern D. The BUN/creatinine ratio E. The serum bicarbonate level

D. The BUN/creatinine ratio. The most useful findings for identifying dehydration are prolonged capillary refill time, abnormal skin turgor, and abnormal respiratory pattern (SOR C). Capillary refill time is not affected by fever and should be less than 2 seconds. Skin recoil is normally instantaneous, but recoil time increases linearly with the degree of dehydration. The respiratory pattern should be compared with age-specific normal values, but will be increased and sometimes labored, depending on the degree of dehydration. Unlike in adults, calculation of the BUN/creatinine ratio is not useful in children. Although the normal BUN level is the same for children and adults, the normal serum creatinine level changes with age in children. In combination with other clinical indicators, a low serum bicarbonate level (<17 mmol/L) is helpful in identifying children who are dehydrated, and a level <13 mmol/L is associated with an increased risk of failure of outpatient rehydration efforts.

A 60-year-old female has been on conjugated equine estrogens/medroxyprogesterone (Prempro) since she went through menopause at age 52. She still has her uterus and ovaries. She is having no side effects that she is aware of and is experiencing no vaginal bleeding. She is worried about the health effects of her hormone replacement therapy and asks your advice about risks versus benefits. Which one of the following would be accurate advice regarding these risks and benefits? (check one) A. The incidence of stroke is decreased B. The incidence of myocardial infarction is decreased C. The incidence of pulmonary embolus is decreased D. The incidence of breast cancer is increased E. The incidence of colorectal cancer is increased

D. The incidence of breast cancer is increased. The Women's Health Initiative Randomized Controlled Trial concluded that the health risks of hormone replacement therapy with combined estrogen plus progestin exceeded the benefits. Absolute risk reductions per 10,000 person-years attributable to estrogen plus progestin were 6 fewer colorectal cancers and 5 fewer hip fractures. However, absolute excess risks per 10,000 person-years included 7 more coronary heart disease events, 8 more strokes, 8 more pulmonary emboli, and 8 more invasive breast cancers.

A 4-year-old white female is brought to your office by her mother, who reports that the child recently developed a foul-smelling vaginal discharge. After an appropriate history and general examination, you determine that a genital examination is necessary. Which one of the following positions is most likely to allow for visualization of the child's vagina and cervix without instrumentation? (check one) A. Supine in the mother's lap B. The left lateral decubitus position on an examination table C. Trendelenburg's position on an examination table D. The knee-chest position on an examination table E. Supine with the knees spread apart on an examination table

D. The knee-chest position on an examination table. The knee-chest position has been found to allow for visualization of the vagina and cervix of a prepubertal child after 2 years of age without instrumentation. The vagina is filled with air when the child is in the knee-chest position, facilitating inspection. An assistant holds the child's buttocks apart and the child is asked to relax her abdominal muscles and take a few deep breaths. With these preliminary steps, the vaginal orifice opens and the short vaginal canal fills with air. A bright light will help to illuminate the prepubertal child's vagina and cervix. Inspection of genitalia (where examination of the vaginal canal and cervix are not indicated) during a general physical examination need not be in the knee-chest position. In the young child (usually less than 2 years of age), examination is best done with the child lying supine in the mother's lap. For the older prepubertal child, examination is best done with the child lying supine with the knees spread apart on the examination table. The other positions listed are not helpful or recommended when examining the genital area of a prepubertal child.

Which one of the following is true regarding temporomandibular joint disorder? (check one) A. Dental splints are the treatment of choice B. Mandibular clicking is an essential diagnostic element C. Ultrasonic phonophoresis with cortisone is the treatment of choice D. The majority of cases resolve without treatment E. MRI is preferred over CT to confirm the diagnosis

D. The majority of cases resolve without treatment. Temporomandibular joint (TMJ) disorders occur in a large number of adults. The etiology is varied, but includes dental malocclusion, bruxism (teeth grinding), anxiety, stress disorders, and, rarely, rheumatoid arthritis. Dental occlusion problems, once thought to be the primary etiology, are not more common in persons with TMJ disorder. While dental splints have been commonly recommended, the evidence for and against their use is insufficient to make a recommendation either way. Physical therapy modalities such as iontophoresis or phonophoresis may benefit some patients, but there is no clearly preferred treatment. Radiologic imaging is unnecessary in the vast majority of patients, and should therefore be reserved for chronic or severe cases. In fact, the majority of patients with TMJ disorders have spontaneous resolution of symptoms, so noninvasive symptomatic treatments and tincture of time are the best approach for most.

Which one of the following is a contraindication to immunization with MMR? (check one) A. The patient had a tuberculosis skin test (PPD) within the previous 2 days B. A household member of the patient has an immunodeficiency C. The mother of the patient is pregnant D. The patient is pregnant E. The patient is breastfeeding her newborn infant

D. The patient is pregnant. The failure to provide immunizations because of perceived contraindications is one of the most common reasons for an inadequately protected population. A PPD may be falsely negative if administered 2-30 days after MMR administration, not the reverse. If the patient is immunodeficient or pregnant, rather than a household contact, then MMR is contraindicated. Breastfeeding is not a contraindication.

Over the past year, a 27-year-old female has had marked feelings of anxiety, tension, and irritability during the week preceding most menstrual cycles, accompanied by extreme fatigue and insomnia. She has regularly missed several days of work each month because of fatigue. She has no previous history of any health or mental problems, and within a few days of the onset of her period she is back to normal. Which one of the following is true concerning this condition? (check one) A. Neither biologic nor psychological factors play a part in this condition B. This condition is a variation of a depressive disorder C. Oral contraceptive pills are consistently effective in the treatment of this condition D. This problem can be effectively treated with serotonergic antidepressants E. Alprazolam (Xanax) is an effective first-line agent for treatment of this condition

D. This problem can be effectively treated with serotonergic antidepressants. Women with premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) experience a cluster of mood, cognitive, and physical symptoms that recur in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle and remit in the follicular phase. Multiple rigorously conducted, placebo-controlled, randomized trials have consistently shown the value of SSRIs, especially if administered during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle. Among women whose mothers have been affected by PMS, 70% have PMS themselves, compared with 37% of women whose mothers have not been affected. Because many patients with PMDD do not have depressive symptoms, this disorder should not be considered as simply a depressive variant. Some studies have shown that symptoms actually worsen with the administration of oral contraceptive pills. Because of the potential for drug dependence, high-potency benzodiazepines such as alprazolam should be used only as second-line drug therapy if an optimal response is not achieved with an SSRI.

Which one of the following is true regarding treatment of pressure ulcers? (check one) A. Multiple controlled trials have shown that nutritional supplements hasten ulcer healing B. Keeping the head of the bed elevated to 45° during the day promotes healing by minimizing shearing forces C. Systemic antibiotics are most helpful when used intermittently to reduce bacterial counts D. Topical antibiotics should not be used for more than 2 weeks at a time

D. Topical antibiotics should not be used for more than 2 weeks at a time. Trials have not definitively shown that nutritional supplements speed ulcer healing. The head of the bed should be elevated only as necessary, and should be kept to less than 30° to reduce shearing forces.Systemic antibiotics should only be used for cellulitis, osteomyelitis, and bacteremia. Topical antibiotics may be used for periods of up to 2 weeks (SOR C).

You see a 16-year-old white female for a preparticipation evaluation for sports, and she asks for advice about the treatment of acne. She has a few inflammatory papules on her face. No nodules are noted. She says she has not tried any over-the-counter acne treatments. Which one of the following would be considered first-line therapy for this condition? (check one) A. Oral tetracycline B. Oral isotretinoin (Accutane) C. Topical sulfacetamide (Sulamyd) D. Topical benzoyl peroxide

D. Topical benzoyl peroxide. The American Academy of Dermatology grades acne as mild, moderate, and severe. Mild acne is limited to a few to several papules and pustules without any nodules. Patients with moderate acne have several to many papules and pustules with a few to several nodules. Patients with severe acne have many or extensive papules, pustules, and nodules. The patient has mild acne according to the American Academy of Dermatology classification scheme. Topical treatments including benzoyl peroxide, retinoids, and topical antibiotics are useful first-line agents in mild acne. Topical sulfacetamide is not considered first-line therapy for mild acne. Oral antibiotics are used in mild acne when there is inadequate response to topical agents and as first-line therapy in more severe acne. Caution must be used to avoid tetracycline in pregnant females. Oral isotretinoin is used in severe nodular acne, but also must be used with extreme caution in females who may become pregnant. Special registration is required by physicians who use isotretinoin, because of its teratogenicity.

A 4-year-old male presents with a 3-day history of sores on his right leg. The sores began as small red papules but have progressed in size and now are crusting and weeping. Otherwise he is in good health and is up to date with immunizations. On examination he has three lesions on the right anterior lower leg that are 0.5-1.5 cm in diameter, with red bases and honey-colored crusts. There is no regional lymphangitis or lymphadenitis. Which one of the following is the preferred first-line therapy? (check one) A. Oral erythromycin (Erythrocin) B. Oral penicillin V C. Topical hexachlorophene (pHisoHex) D. Topical mupirocin (Bactroban)

D. Topical mupirocin (Bactroban). The lesions described are nonbullous impetigo, due to either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Topical antibiotics, such as mupirocin, but not compounds containing neomycin, are the preferred first-line therapy for impetigo involving a limited area. Oral antibiotics are widely used, based on expert opinion and traditional practice, but are usually reserved for patients with more extensive impetigo or with systemic symptoms or signs. Penicillin V and hexachlorophene have both been shown to be no more effective than placebo. Topical antibiotics have been shown to be as effective as erythromycin, which has a common adverse effect of nausea.

======================================================= Cardiovascular Board Review Questions 05 ======================================================= A 35-year-old white male with known long QT syndrome has a brief episode of syncope requiring cardiopulmonary resuscitation. Which one of the following is most likely responsible for this episode? (check one) A. Sinus tachycardia B. Atrial flutter with third degree block C. Asystole D. Torsades de pointes

D. Torsades de pointes. Patients with long QT syndrome that have sudden arrhythmia death syndrome usually have either torsades de pointes or ventricular fibrillation. Sinus tachycardia would not explain the syncope, and atrial flutter and asystole are not usual in long QT syndrome.

Which cardiac arrhythmia has been reported with high-dose methadone use? (check one) A. Atrial fibrillation B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C. Third degree heart block D. Torsades de pointes E. Multifocal atrial tachycardia

D. Torsades de pointes. The cardiac toxicity of methadone is primarily related to QT prolongation and torsades de pointes.

Which one of the pharmacologic effects of transdermal medications changes the LEAST with aging? (check one) A. Liver metabolism of the drugs B. Renal excretion of the drugs C. Distribution within the body D. Transdermal absorption of the drugs

D. Transdermal absorption of the drugs. Transdermal absorption of medications changes very little with age. Due to an increase in the ratio of fat to lean body weight, the volume of distribution changes with aging, especially for fat-soluble drugs. Both liver metabolism and renal excretion of drugs decrease with aging, increasing serum concentrations.

A 74-year-old white male complains of pain in the right calf that recurs on a regular basis. He smokes 1 pack of cigarettes per day and is hypertensive. He has a history of a previous heart attack but is otherwise in fair health. Which one of the following findings would support a diagnostic impression of peripheral vascular disease? (check one) A. Pain during rest and exercise and the presence of swelling and soreness behind the knee and in the calf B. Pain that begins immediately upon walking and is unrelieved by rest C. Doppler waveform analysis showing accentuated waveforms at a point of decreased blood flow D. Treadmill arterial flow studies showing a 20-mm Hg decrease in ankle systolic blood pressure immediately following exercise E. An ankle-brachial index of 1.15

D. Treadmill arterial flow studies showing a 20-mm Hg decrease in ankle systolic blood pressure immediately following exercise. Peripheral vascular disease (PVD) is a clinical manifestation of atherosclerotic disease and is caused by occlusion of the arteries to the legs. Patients with significant arterial occlusive disease will have a prominent decrease in the ankle-brachial index from baseline following exercise, and usually a 20-mm Hg or greater decrease in systolic blood pressure. Pain during rest and exercise and the presence of swelling and soreness behind the knee and in the calf is found in those with Baker's cysts. Peripheral nerve pain commonly begins immediately upon walking and is unrelieved by rest. Doppler waveform analysis is useful in the diagnosis of PVD and will reveal attenuated waveforms at a point of decreased blood flow. Employment of the ankle-brachial index is encouraged in daily practice as a simple means to diagnose the presence of PVD. Generally, ankle-brachial indices in the range of 0.91-1.30 are thought to be normal.

A 6-month-old white male is brought to your office because he has "blisters" in his diaper area. On examination, you find large bullae filled with cloudy yellow fluid. Some of the blisters have ruptured and the bases are covered with a thin crust. Which one of the following is most appropriate in the management of this condition? (check one) A. Rinsing diapers with a vinegar solution B. A topical antifungal agent C. Penicillin D. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra)

D. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra). Bullous impetigo is a localized skin infection characterized by large bullae; it is caused by phage group II Staphylococcus aureus. Cultures of fluid from an intact blister will reveal the causative agent. The lesions are caused by exfolatin, a local toxin produced by the S. aureus, and develop on intact skin. Complications are rare, but cellulitis occurs in <10% of cases. Strains of Staphylococcus associated with impetigo in the U.S. have little or no nephritogenic potential. Systemic therapy should be used in patients with widespread lesions. With the emergence of MRSA, trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole and clindamycin are options for outpatient therapy. Intravenous vancomycin can be used to treat hospitalized patients with more severe infections.

An 8-year-old female is brought to your office because she has begun to limp. She has had a fever of 38.8°C (101.8°F) and says that it hurts to bear weight on her right leg. She has no history of trauma. On examination, she walks with an antalgic gait and hesitates to bear weight on the leg. Range of motion of the right hip is limited in all directions and is painful. Her sacroiliac joint is not tender, and the psoas sign is negative. Laboratory testing reveals an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 55 mm/hr (N 0-10), a WBC count of 15,500/mm 3 (N 4500-13,500), and a C-reactiveprotein level of 2.5 mg/dL (N 0.5-1.0). Which one of the following will provide the most useful diagnostic information to further evaluate this patient's problem? (check one) A. MRI B. CT C. A bone scan D. Ultrasonography E. Plain-film radiography

D. Ultrasonography. This child meets the criteria for possible septic arthritis. In this case ultrasonography is recommended over other imaging procedures. It is highly sensitive for detecting effusion of the hip joint. If an effusion is present, urgent ultrasound-guided aspiration should be performed. Bone scintigraphy is excellent for evaluating a limping child when the history, physical examination, and radiographic and sonographic findings fail to localize the pathology. CT is indicated when cortical bone must be visualized. MRI provides excellent visualization of joints, soft tissues, cartilage, and medullary bone. It is especially useful for confirming osteomyelitis, delineating the extent of malignancies, identifying stress fractures, and diagnosing early Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease. Plain film radiography is often obtained as an initial imaging modality in any child with a limp. However, films may be normal in patients with septic arthritis, providing a false-negative result.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 34 ======================================================= Which one of the following should be used first for ventricular fibrillation when an initial defibrillation attempt fails? (check one) A. Amiodarone (Cordarone) B. Lidocaine (Xylocaine) C. Adenosine (Adenocard) D. Vasopressin (Pitressin) E. Magnesium

D. Vasopressin (Pitressin). For persistent ventricular fibrillation (VF), in addition to electrical defibrillation and CPR, patients should be given a vasopressor, which can be either epinephrine or vasopressin. Vasopressin may be substituted for the first or second dose of epinephrine. Amiodarone should be considered for treatment of VF unresponsive to shock delivery, CPR, and a vasopressor. Lidocaine is an alternative antiarrhythmic agent, but should be used only when amiodarone is not available. Magnesium may terminate or prevent torsades de pointes in patients who have a prolonged QT interval during normal sinus rhythm. Adenosine is used for the treatment of narrow complex, regular tachycardias and is not used in the treatment of ventricular fibrillation.

A 52-year-old patient is concerned about a biopsy result from a recent screening colonoscopy. Which one of the following types of colon polyp is most likely to become malignant? (check one) A. Hyperplastic polyp B. Hamartomatous polyp C. Tubular adenoma D. Villous adenoma E. Tubulovillous adenoma

D. Villous adenoma. Hamartomatous (or juvenile) polyps and hyperplastic polyps are benign lesions and are not considered to be premalignant. Adenomas, on the other hand, have the potential to become malignant. Sessile adenomas and lesions >1.0 cm have a higher risk for becoming malignant. Of the three types of adenomas (tubular, tubulovillous, and villous), villous adenomas are the most likely to develop into an adenocarcinoma.

A 24-year-old female presents to your clinic with a 5-day history of fever to 103°F. She has no localizing symptoms or overt physical findings. Initial testing shows an elevated WBC count with a disproportionate number of reactive lymphocytes. Which one of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these findings? (check one) A. Bacterial infection B. Connective tissue disease C. Lymphoma D. Viral infection

D. Viral infection. The conditions that result in an absolute increase in lymphocytes are divided into primary causes (usually neoplastic hyperproliferation) and secondary or reactive causes. The presence of reactive lymphocytes will often be reported on a manual differential, since they have a distinctive appearance. The most common conditions that produce a reactive lymphocytosis are viral infections. Most notable are Epstein-Barr virus, infectious mononucleosis, and cytomegalovirus. Other viral infections known to cause this finding include herpes simplex, herpes zoster, HIV, hepatitis, and adenovirus. Connective tissue disease can infrequently cause a reactive lymphocytosis, but other signs or symptoms are usually present. Bacterial infections more commonly result in an increase in neutrophils. One exception to this is Bordetella pertussis, which has been known to cause absolute lymphocyte counts of up to 70,000/μL. This infection is associated with classic symptoms that this patient does not have.

A 17-year-old white female at 20 weeks gestation presents with a 2-day history of painful vesicular lesions on her labia. This is the first time she has ever had this problem. Her last sexual contact was 10 days ago. She has also had a low-grade fever, malaise, headache, and mild, diffuse abdominal pain. On examination she has vesicles and erythematous papules on the labia bilaterally. A few firm, tender inguinal nodes are also noted. Which one of the following tests is most sensitive for confirming the diagnosis? (check one) A. A Papanicolaou smear of the lesions B. Amniocentesis C. Serologic studies D. Viral polymerase chain reaction (PCR) testing E. A Tzanck test

D. Viral polymerase chain reaction (PCR) testing. Diagnosis and appropriate treatment of genital herpes during pregnancy is particularly important because of the high mortality in neonates who contract herpes during delivery and then develop disseminated infection. In those who survive, there is a very high risk of serious neurologic sequelae. HSV is acquired by deposition of the virus on a break in the skin or mucous membranes during close physical contact with an infected person. Neonatal infection most commonly results from transmission via the birth canal, although transplacental transmission can occur. The risk of HSV infection in the neonate is higher during an episode of primary genital herpes than during a recurrent episode. DNA polymerase chain reaction testing is 95% sensitive as long as an ulcer is present, and has a specificity of 90%. The diagnosis is established by culturing the virus from an infected lesion. A Tzanck prep and Papanicolaou smear can detect cellular changes, but both have low sensitivity. Serologic diagnosis is mainly an epidemiologic tool and has limited clinical usefulness. Cultures of the virus by amniocentesis have shown both false-positive and false-negative results.

Which one of the following is considered first-line therapy for nausea and vomiting of pregnancy? (check one) A. Ginger B. Blue cohosh C. Cranberry D. Vitamin B6 E. Fenugreek

D. Vitamin B6. A number of alternative therapies have been used for problems related to pregnancy, although vigorous studies are not always possible. For nausea and vomiting, however, vitamin B6 is considered first-line therapy, sometimes combined with doxylamine. Other measures that have been found to be somewhat useful include ginger and acupressure. Cranberry products can be useful for preventing urinary tract infections, and could be recommended for patients if this is a concern. Blue cohosh is used by many midwives as a partus preparator, but there are concerns about its safety. Fenugreek has been used to increase milk production in breastfeeding mothers, but no rigorous trials have been performed.

Which one of the following would be most appropriate for stroke prevention in a patient with hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and atrial fibrillation? (check one) A. Clopidogrel (Plavix) B. Aspirin C. Dipyridamole (Persantine) D. Warfarin (Coumadin) E. Enoxaparin (Lovenox)

D. Warfarin (Coumadin). The CHADS2 score is a validated clinical prediction rule for determining the risk of stroke and who should be anticoagulated. Points are assigned based on the patient's comorbidities. One point is given for each of the following: history of congestive heart failure (C), hypertension (H), age≥75 (A), and diabetes mellitus (D). Two points are assigned for a previous stroke or TIA (S2 ). For patients with a score of 0 or 1, the risk of stroke is low and warfarin would not be recommended. Warfarin is the agent of choice for the prevention of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation and a score ≥2. In these patients, the risk of stroke is higher than the risks associated with taking warfarin. Enoxaparin is an expensive injectable anticoagulant and is not indicated for the long-term prevention of stroke.

A 60-year-old male indicates that he occasionally brings up what appears to be undigested food long after his meal. He also admits that he sometimes chokes on food, and that his wife says he has bad breath. The most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. Achalasia B. Esophageal reflux C. Cancer of the esophagus D. Zenker's diverticulum E. Large cervical bone spur

D. Zenker's diverticulum. The combination of halitosis, late regurgitation of undigested food, and choking suggests Zenker's diverticulum. Patients may also have dysphagia and weight loss. The diagnosis is usually made with a barium swallow. The treatment is surgical.

A 42-year-old African-American male recently traveled to the Caribbean for a scuba diving trip. Since his return he has noted brief intermittent episodes of vertigo not associated with nausea or vomiting. He is concerned, however, because these episodes occurred after sneezing or coughing and then a couple of times after straining while lifting something. He has had no hearing loss, and no vertigo with positional changes such as bending over or turning over in bed. The most likely cause of this patients vertigo is (check one) A. vestibular neuronitis B. Menieres disease C. benign paroxysmal positional vertigo D. a perilymphatic fistula E. multiple sclerosis triggered by a rapid change in climate

D. a perilymphatic fistula. A perilymphatic fistula between the middle and inner ear may be caused by barotrauma from scuba diving, as well as by direct blows, heavy weight bearing, and excessive straining (e.g., with sneezing or bowel movements.) This patients recent trip involved two of these potential factors. Vestibular neuronitis is a more sudden, unremitting syndrome. Menieres disease is manifested by episodes of vertigo, associated with hearing loss and often with nausea and vomiting. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is more likely in older individuals, and is associated with postural change. Multiple sclerosis requires symptoms in multiple areas and is not thought to be provoked by climate change. Reference: Labuguen RH: Initial evaluation of vertigo. Am Fam Physician 2006;73(2):244-251, 254.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 32 ======================================================= While playing tennis, a 55-year-old male tripped and fell, landing on his outstretched hand with his elbow in slight flexion at impact. Pronation and supination of the forearm are painful on examination, as are attempts to flex the elbow. There is tenderness of the radial head without significant swelling. A radiograph of the elbow shows no fracture, but a positive fat pad sign is noted. Appropriate management would include: (check one) A. a long arm cast for 2 weeks, followed by use of a brace B. mobilization of the elbow beginning 3 weeks after the injury C. a posterior splint for 6 weeks D. a posterior splint and a repeat radiograph in 1-2 weeks

D. a posterior splint and a repeat radiograph in 1-2 weeks. Nondisplaced radial head fractures can be treated by the primary care physician and do not require referral. Conservative therapy includes placing the elbow in a posterior splint for 5-7 days, followed by early mobilization and a sling for comfort. Sometimes the joint effusion may be aspirated for pain relief and to increase mobility. One study compared immediate mobilization with mobilization beginning in 5 days and found no differences at 1 and 3 months, but early mobilization was associated with better function and less pain 1 week after the injury. Radiographs should be repeated in 1-2 weeks to make sure that alignment is appropriate.

A 12-year-old female is brought to your office with an 8-day history of sore throat and fever, along with migratory aching joint pain. She is otherwise healthy and has no history of travel, tick exposure, or prior systemic illness. A physical examination is notable for exudative pharyngitis; a blanching, sharply demarcated macular rash over her trunk; and a III/VI systolic ejection murmur. Joint and neurologic examinations are normal. A rapid strep test is positive and her C-reactive protein level is elevated. Of the following, the most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. juvenile rheumatoid arthritis B. infective endocarditis C. Kawasaki syndrome D. acute rheumatic fever E. Lyme disease

D. acute rheumatic fever. Acute rheumatic fever is very common in developing nations. It was previously rare in the U.S., but had a resurgence in the mid-1980s. It is most common in children ages 5-15 years. The diagnosis is based on the Jones criteria. Two major criteria, or one major criterion and two minor criteria, plus evidence of a preceding streptococcal infection, indicate a high probability of the disease. Major criteria include carditis, migratory polyarthritis, erythema marginatum, chorea, and subcutaneous nodules. Minor criteria include fever, arthralgia, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate or C-reactive protein (CRP) level, and a prolonged pulse rate interval on EKG. The differential diagnosis is extensive and there is no single laboratory test to confirm the diagnosis. This patient meets one major criterion (erythema marginatum rash) and three minor criteria (fever, elevated CRP levels, and arthralgia). Echocardiography should be performed if the patient has cardiac symptoms or an abnormal cardiac examination, to rule out rheumatic carditis.

A 50-year-old female presents with right eye pain. On examination, you find no redness, but when you test her extraocular muscles she reports marked pain with eye movement. This finding suggests that her eye pain is caused by: (check one) A. an intracranial process B. an ocular condition C. a retinal problem D. an orbital problem E. an optic nerve problem

D. an orbital problem. Pain with eye movement suggests an orbital condition. Orbital inflammation, infection, or tumor invasion can lead to such eye pain. Other findings suggestive of an orbital cause of eye pain include diplopia or proptosis. If an orbital lesion is suspected, imaging studies should be performed.

In the elderly, the risk of heat wave-related death is highest in those who: (check one) A. have COPD B. have diabetes and are insulin dependent C. have a functioning fan, but not air conditioning D. are homebound

D. are homebound. Factors associated with a higher risk of heat-related death include being confined to bed, not leaving home daily, and being unable to care for oneself. Living alone during a heat wave is associated with an increased risk of death, but this increase is not statistically significant. Among medical conditions, the highest risk is associated with preexisting psychiatric illnesses, followed by cardiovascular disease, use of psychotropic medications, and pulmonary disease. A lower risk of heat-related death has been noted in those who have working air conditioning, visit air-conditioned sites, or participate in social activities. Those who take extra showers or baths and who use fans have a lower risk, but this difference is not statistically significant.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 73 ======================================================= In the elderly, the risk of heat wave-related death is highest in those who (check one) A. have COPD B. have diabetes and are insulin-dependent C. have a functioning fan, but not air conditioning D. are homebound

D. are homebound. Factors associated with a higher risk of heat-related deaths include being confined to bed, not leaving home daily, and being unable to care for oneself. Living alone during a heat wave is associated with an increased risk of death, but this increase is not statistically significant. Among medical conditions, the highest risk is associated with preexisting psychiatric illnesses, followed by cardiovascular disease, use of psychotropic medications, and pulmonary disease. A lower risk of heat-related deaths has been noted in those who have working air conditioning, visit air-conditioned sites, or participate in social activities. Those who take extra showers or baths and who use fans have a lower risk, but this difference is not statistically significant.

A 67-year-old Hispanic male comes to your office with severe periumbilical abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea, which began suddenly several hours ago. His temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 110/76 mm Hg, and respirations 28/min. His abdomen is slightly distended, soft, and diffusely tender; bowel sounds are normal. Other findings include clear lungs, a rapid and irregularly irregular heartbeat, and a pale left forearm and hand with no palpable left brachial pulse. Right arm and lower extremity pulses are normal. Testing reveals the presence of blood in both his stool and his urine. His hemoglobin level is 16.4 g/dL (N 13.0-18.0) and his WBC count is 25,300/mm3 (N 4300-10,800). The diagnostic imaging procedure most likely to produce a specific diagnosis of the abdominal pain is: (check one) A. intravenous pyelography (IVP) B. sonography of the abdominal aorta C. a barium enema D. celiac and mesenteric arteriography E. contrast venography

D. celiac and mesenteric arteriography. The sudden onset of severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea in a patient with a cardiac source of emboli and evidence of a separate embolic event makes superior mesenteric artery embolization likely. In this case, evidence of a brachial artery embolus and a cardiac rhythm indicating atrial fibrillation suggest the diagnosis. Some patients may have a surprisingly normal abdominal examination in spite of severe pain. Microscopic hematuria and blood in the stool may both occur with embolization, and severe leukocytosis is present in more than two-thirds of patients with this problem. Diagnostic confirmation by angiography is recommended. Immediate embolectomy with removal of the propagated clot can then be accomplished and a decision made regarding whether or not the intestine should be resected. A second procedure may be scheduled to reevaluate intestinal viability.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 01 ======================================================= A 30-year-old previously healthy male comes to your office with a 1-year history of frequent abdominal pain, nonbloody diarrhea, and a 20-lb weight loss. He has no history of travel outside the United States, antibiotic use, or consumption of well water. His review of systems is notable for a chronic, intensely pruritic rash that is vesicular in nature. His review of systems is otherwise negative and he is on no medications. The most likely cause of his symptoms is: (check one) A. lactose intolerance B. irritable bowel syndrome C. collagenous colitis D. celiac sprue E. Crohn's disease

D. celiac sprue. Celiac sprue is an autoimmune disorder characterized by inflammation of the small bowel wall, blunting of the villi, and resultant malabsorption. Symptoms commonly include diarrhea, fatigue, weight loss, abdominal pain, and borborygmus; treatment consists of elimination of gluten proteins from the diet. Extraintestinal manifestations are less common but may include elevated transaminases, osteopenia, and iron deficiency anemia. Serum IgA tissue transglutaminase (TTG) antibodies are highly sensitive and specific for celiac sprue, and a small bowel biopsy showing villous atrophy is the gold standard for diagnosis. This patient's rash is consistent with dermatitis herpetiformis, which is pathognomonic for celiac sprue and responds well to a strict gluten-free diet. Lactose intolerance, irritable bowel syndrome, collagenous colitis, and Crohn's disease are in the differential diagnosis for celiac sprue. However, significant weight loss is not characteristic of irritable bowel syndrome or lactose intolerance. The diarrhea associated with Crohn's disease is typically bloody. Collagenous colitis does cause symptoms similar to those experienced by this patient, but it is not associated with dermatitis herpetiformis.

A 14-year-old female is brought to your office by her mother because of a 3-month history of irritability, hypersomnia, decline in school performance, and lack of interest in her previous extracurricular activities. The mother is also your patient, and you know that she has a history of depression and has recently separated from her husband. After an appropriate workup, you diagnose depression in the daughter. For initial therapy you recommend: (check one) A. amitriptyline B. methylphenidate (Ritalin) C. divalproex sodium (Depakote) D. cognitive-behavioral therapy

D. cognitive-behavioral therapy. This patient has multiple risk factors for depression: the hormonal changes of puberty, a family history of depression, and psychosocial stressors. Cognitive-behavioral therapy is effective in treating mild to moderate depression in children and adolescents (SOR A). SSRIs are an adjunctive treatment reserved for treatment of severe depression, and have limited evidence for effectiveness in children and adolescents. Amitriptyline should not be used because of its limited effectiveness and adverse effects (SOR A). Methylphenidate is used for treating attention deficit disorder, not depression. Divalproex sodium is used to treat bipolar disorder.

A cement plant worker presents to your office with the recurrent acute skin eruption on his legs shown in Figure 7. It extends proximally from the dorsum of the feet to just below the knees. This is the third eruption in 2 years.This patient most likely has: (check one) A. tinea with a secondary id reaction B. rhus dermatitis C. methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) cellulitis D. contact dermatitis related to his occupation

D. contact dermatitis related to his occupation. Because this dermatitis is recurrent and symmetric, contact dermatitis should be suspected. Rhus dermatitis is a contact dermatitis, but it is more acute and presents with bullae and vesicles that are more linear than those seen in this patient. MRSA usually presents as a unilateral cellulitis, or more commonly as inflammatory nodules or pustules. This dermatitis is not scaling and does not have a distinct border that would suggest tinea.

Early palliative care in patients with a terminal disease, including symptom management, psychosocial support, and assistance with decision making, has been shown to: (check one) A. shorten the time to death B. increase aggressive end-of-life care C. increase health care costs D. decrease depressive symptoms E. reduce the need for hospice

D. decrease depressive symptoms. It has been shown that palliative care offered early in the course of a terminal disease has many benefits. Palliative care leads to improvement in a patient's quality of life and mood, and patients who receive palliative care often have fewer symptoms of depression than those who do not receive palliative care. In addition, palliative care reduces aggressive end-of-life care and thus reduces health care costs. Palliative care does not reduce the need for hospice, but in fact enables patients to enter hospice care earlier and perhaps for longer. Palliative care has been shown to extend survival times in terminal patients (SOR B).

You are treating a 53-year-old female for a deep-vein thrombosis in her left leg. The use of compression stockings for this problem has been shown to: (check one) A. increase the risk of pulmonary embolism B. increase the level of pain C. increase complications if used prior to completion of a course of anticoagulation therapy D. decrease the risk of post-thrombotic syndrome

D. decrease the risk of post-thrombotic syndrome. Post-thrombotic syndrome (PTS) is a complication of acute deep-vein thrombosis (DVT), and is characterized by chronic pain, swelling, and skin changes in the affected limb. Within 5 years of experiencing a DVT, one in three patients will develop PTS. A Cochrane review identified three randomized, controlled trials examining the use of compression therapy in patients diagnosed with a new DVT. The use of elastic compression stockings was associated with a highly statistically significant reduction in the incidence of PTS, with an odds ratio of 0.31 (confidence interval of 0.20-0.48). A separate trial cited in the Cochrane review documented no increased incidence of pulmonary embolism, and a reduction in pain and swelling in the treatment group. Compression stockings should be applied when anticoagulation therapy is started, not when it has been completed. The studies did not examine the rates of recurrent DVT.

A previously healthy 73-year-old male is admitted to the intensive-care unit after an emergency appendectomy. He does well until the evening, when he suddenly appears confused. His speech is rambling and incoherent, and he is disoriented to person, place, and time. His wife says he was sleepy but otherwise acting normal 2 hours ago. On examination he has normal vital signs and no fever. Other than the cognitive changes and some mild peri-incisional tenderness the examination is normal. Serum electrolytes, a CBC, arterial blood gases, and a routine chemistry panel are normal. The most likely cause for his altered sensorium is (check one) A. sepsis B. acute psychosis C. dementia with Lewy bodies D. delirium E. ischemic stroke

D. delirium. The syndrome of delirium is common in the postoperative setting. It is characterized by disorganized thinking; rambling, incoherent speech; and a reduced ability to maintain and shift attention. In addition, at least two of the following are typically present: a reduced level of consciousness with perceptual disturbances or hallucinations; sleep disturbances or changes in psychomotor activity; disorientation to time, place, or person; and memory impairment. This syndrome typically begins abruptly and may fluctuate hourly. There is usually a specific etiologic factor identified, such as surgery in this case. A patient with normal vital signs, no fever, and normal laboratory studies is unlikely to be septic. Patients with psychosis typically maintain orientation to person and place, as well as attention. Dementia with Lewy bodies has a more chronic onset, and the absence of focal neurologic findings makes stroke unlikely. Alcohol withdrawal is also a consideration in the differential diagnosis.

A 69-year-old male presents with a 2-week history of fever, fatigue, weight loss, and mild diarrhea. He is found to have a mildly tender mass in the left lower quadrant of the abdomen. The most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. Crohn's disease B. ulcerative colitis C. celiac disease D. diverticulitis E. lymphoma

D. diverticulitis. Diverticulitis commonly affects the left lower quadrant in the elderly and may present as an abscess. Crohn's disease primarily affects the distal small intestine (regional enteritis), most typically in a young person, and usually in the second or third decade of life. Ulcerative colitis usually presents with a longer history and does not typically present with a mass. A 2-week history of a palpable mass is not a typical presentation for lymphoma. Celiac disease does not cause a palpable left lower quadrant mass.

A 75-year-old African-American male with no previous history of cardiac problems complains of shortness of breath and a feeling of general weakness. His symptoms have developed over the past 24 hours. On physical examination you find a regular pulse with a rate of 160 beats/min. You note rales to the base of the scapula bilaterally, moderate jugular venous distention, and hepatojugular reflux. His blood pressure is 90/55 mm Hg; when he sits up he becomes weak and diaphoretic and complains of precordial pressure. An EKG reveals atrial flutter with 2:1 block. Management at this time should include: (check one) A. intravenous digoxin B. intravenous verapamil (Calan, Isoptin) C. amiodarone (Cordarone) D. electrical cardioversion E. insertion of a pacemaker

D. electrical cardioversion. Atrial flutter is not ordinarily a serious arrhythmia, but this patient has heart failure manifested by rales, jugular venous distention, hepatojugular reflux, hypotension, and angina. Electrical cardioversion should be performed immediately. This is generally a very easy rhythm to convert. Digoxin and verapamil are appropriate in hemodynamically stable patients. A pacemaker for rapid atrial pacing may be beneficial if digitalis intoxication is the cause of atrial flutter, but this is unlikely in a patient with no previous history of cardiac problems. Amiodarone is not indicated in this clinical situation.

Of the following, the greatest risk for developing colon cancer is associated with a personal history of: (check one) A. tobacco use B. ulcerative colitis C. villous adenoma D. familial adenomatous polyposis E. colon cancer in a first degree relative

D. familial adenomatous polyposis. People with familial adenomatous polyposis typically develop hundreds or thousands of polyps in their colon and rectum, usually in their teens or early adulthood. Cancer usually develops in one or more of these polyps as early as age 20. By age 40, almost all people with this disorder will have developed cancer if preventive colectomy is not performed. The approximate lifetime risk of colon cancer in the general population of the United States is 6%. Most case-control studies of cigarette exposure and adenomas have found an elevated risk for smokers. Tobacco use raises the risk of colon cancer by approximately 50%. Patients with ulcerative colitis are at increased risk for colon cancer. The anatomic extent and duration of the disease correlate with the degree of risk. In one meta-analysis, investigators found that the risk of colon cancer was 2% in the first 10 years after ulcerative colitis develops, 8% during the first 20 years, and 18% during the first 30 years. The evidence is still evolving regarding the level of future risk of colon cancer associated with having had an adenomatous polyp removed in the past, but it may approach a doubling of the baseline risk of colon cancer. Studies suggest a clear association with a history of multiple polyps or a single large (>1 cm) polyp. The data is less clear for single small adenomas. Of the three types of adenomas (tubular, tubulovillous, and villous), villous adenomas are most likely to develop into adenocarcinomas. Having a family history of a first degree relative with colon cancer raises the risk approximately two-to threefold. If that relative was younger than age 50 at the time of diagnosis the risk is three-to fourfold higher.

A white male adolescent is concerned because he is the shortest boy in his class. His age is 14.3 years and his parents are of normal height. He has a negative past medical history and no symptoms. On physical examination you note that he is 151 cm (59 in) tall. The average height for his age is 165 cm. His weight is 43 kg (95 lb). His sexual maturity rating is 3 for genitalia and 2 for pubic hair. A wrist radiograph shows a bone age of 12.2 years (the average height is 152 cm for this bone age). On the basis of this evaluation you can tell the patient and his parents that (check one) A. he should have a growth hormone stimulation test B. his adult height will be below average C. his sexual development is about average for his age D. he will begin to grow taller within a year or so E. an underlying nutritional deficiency may be the cause of his short stature

D. he will begin to grow taller within a year or so. Constitutional growth delay, defined as delayed but eventually normal growth in an adolescent, is usually genetic. If evaluation of the short adolescent male reveals no evidence of chronic disease, if his sexual maturity rating is 2 or 3, and if his height is appropriate for skeletal age he can be told without endocrinologic testing that he will begin to grow taller within a year or so. Adult height may be below average, but cannot be predicted reliably. Average sexual maturity ratings for a male of 14.3 years are 4 for genitalia and 3 to 4 for pubic hair. The history and physical examination would have given clues to any illnesses or nutritional problems.

A 70-year-old white female comes to your office for an initial visit. She has taken levothyroxine (Synthroid), 0.3 mg/day, for the last 20 years. Although a recent screening TSH was fully suppressed at <0.1 μU/mL, she claims that she has felt "awful" when previous physicians have attempted to lower her levothyroxine dosage. You explain that a serious potential complication of her current thyroid medication is: (check one) A. adrenal insufficiency B. carcinoma of the ovary C. carcinoma of the thyroid D. hip fracture E. renal failure

D. hip fracture. Women older than 65 years of age who have low serum TSH levels, indicating physiologic hyperthyroidism, are at increased risk for new hip and vertebral fractures. Use of thyroid hormone itself does not increase the risk of fracture if TSH levels are normal.

A 36-year-old female sees you for a 6-week postpartum visit. Her pregnancy was complicated by gestational diabetes mellitus. Her BMI at this visit is 33.0 kg/m2 and she has a family historyof diabetes mellitus. This patient's greatest risk factor for developing type 2 diabetes mellitus is her: (check one) A. age B. obesity C. history of a completed pregnancy D. history of gestational diabetes E. family history of diabetes

D. history of gestational diabetes. A history of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) is the greatest risk factor for future development of diabetes mellitus. It is thought that GDM unmasks an underlying propensity to diabetes. While a healthy pregnancy is a diabetogenic state, it is not thought to lead to future diabetes. This patient's age is not a risk factor. Obesity and family history are risk factors for the development of diabetes, but having GDM leads to a fourfold greater risk of developing diabetes, independent of other risk factors (SOR C). It is thought that 5%-10% of women who have GDM will be diagnosed with type 2 diabetes within 6 months of delivery. About 50% of women with a history of GDM will develop type 2 diabetes within 10 years of the affected pregnancy.

You examine an 11-month-old male who has had several paroxysms of abdominal pain in the last 2 hours. The episodes last 1-2 minutes; the infant screams, turns pale, and doubles up. Afterward, he seems normal. A physical examination is normal except for a possible fullness in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. The most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. pyloric stenosis B. choledochal cyst C. Meckel's diverticulum D. intussusception E. intestinal malrotation

D. intussusception. This is a classic presentation for intussusception, which usually occurs in children under the age of 2 years and is characterized by paroxysms of colicky abdominal pain. A mass is palpable in about two-thirds of patients. Pyloric stenosis presents with a palpable mass, but usually develops between 4 and 6 weeks of age. A choledochal cyst presents with the classic triad of right upper quadrant pain, jaundice, and a palpable mass. Meckel's diverticulum usually presents in this age group with painless lower gastrointestinal bleeding. Intestinal malrotation usually presents within the first 4 weeks of life and is characterized by bilious vomiting.

A 12-year-old Hispanic female develops fever, knee pain with swelling, diffuse abdominal pain, and a palpable purpuric rash. A CBC and platelet count are normal. Her long-term prognosis depends on the severity of involvement of the: (check one) A. gastrointestinal tract B. heart C. liver D. kidneys E. lungs

D. kidneys. This patient has Henoch-Schönlein purpura. This condition is associated with a palpable purpuric rash, without thrombocytopenia. Other diagnostic criteria include bowel angina (diffuse abdominal pain or bowel ischemia), age ≤20, renal involvement, and a biopsy showing predominant immunoglobulin A deposition. The long-term prognosis depends on the severity of renal involvement. Almost all children with Henoch-Schönlein purpura have a spontaneous resolution, but 5% may develop end-stage renal disease. Therefore, patients with renal involvement require careful monitoring (SOR A).

The most common identifiable cause of skin and soft-tissue infections presenting to metropolitan emergency departments is: (check one) A. Staphylococcus epidermidis B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) E. Bacillus cereus

D. methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Recent clinical experience has shown that methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is the most common identifiable cause of skin and soft-tissue infections among patients presenting to emergency departments in 11 U.S. cities. The other responses should be considered in evaluating these infections, but they are not as common as MRSA infections.

Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome results from exposure to the excreta of: (check one) A. migratory fowl B. bats C. parrots D. mice E. turtles

D. mice. Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome results from exposure to rodent droppings, mainly the deer mouse in the southwestern U.S. About 10% of deer mice are estimated to be infected with hantavirus. In other parts of the country the virus is carried by the white-footed mouse. While other rodents are carriers of the virus, they are less likely to live near dwellings, and populations are less dense.

A 24-year-old gravida 1 para 1 who is 2 weeks post partum complains of double vision, shortness of breath, and almost dropping her baby while trying to hold her. She says her symptoms worsen as the day progresses. She has no family history of neurologic or muscular illness. A physical examination is normal except for unilateral ptosis and 4/5 proximal weakness of both arms. Breath sounds are generally decreased. Routine blood tests, including TSH and creatine kinase levels, are normal. A chest radiograph and an MRI of the brain and cervical spine are also normal. Of the following, this presentation is most consistent with (check one) A. fibromyalgia syndrome B. Sheehan's syndrome (postpartum hypopituitarism) C. polymyositis D. myasthenia gravis E. stroke

D. myasthenia gravis. Common neurologic disorders in young women include multiple sclerosis, Guillain-Barré syndrome, and myasthenia gravis. Myasthenia gravis is part of the differential diagnosis for sudden neurologic weakness, and Guillain-Barré syndrome must also be considered in this patient. Multiple sclerosis would not result in respiratory compromise. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune neuromuscular disease characterized by varying degrees of skeletal muscle weakness. Symptoms, which vary in type and severity, may include ptosis of one or both eyelids; blurred vision; diplopia; unstable gait; weakness in the arms, hands, fingers, legs, and neck; difficulty swallowing; shortness of breath; and impaired speech (dysarthria). In most cases, the first noticeable symptom is weakness of the eye muscles. Muscles that control respiration and neck and limb movements may also be affected. Symptoms typically worsen through the day or as the muscles are repetitively used, and improve with rest. Fibromyalgia does not produce objective neurologic findings, and Sheehan's syndrome would not cause a localized neurologic deficit. In addition, the TSH level would be low or zero, and the MRI of the brain would be abnormal. An MRI of the brain would also be abnormal if stroke symptoms had been present for 2 weeks. The patient is unlikely to have unilateral symptoms with polymyositis, and creatine kinase would be elevated.

A 63-year-old white male sees you for an initial visit and is accompanied by his daughter, who is a patient of yours and scheduled the visit. The father recently relocated to be near the daughter after his wife died. He has well-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, but is otherwise healthy. Referring to the copy of the medical records they brought with them, the daughter notes that her father has received influenza vaccine in 3 of the past 5 years, but she can find no documentation that he ever had "the pneumonia vaccine." She asks if he should receive it at this visit. You advise them that he should receive pneumococcal vaccine: (check one) A. annually, along with influenza vaccine B. now and a repeat dose every 5 years C. every 5 years starting at age 65 D. now and a repeat dose once at age 68 E. only once, at age 65

D. now and a repeat dose once at age 68. Both the CDC and the American Academy of Family Physicians recommend that all adults over the age of 65 receive a single dose of pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine. Immunization before the age of 65 is recommended for certain subgroups of adults, including institutionalized individuals over the age of 50; those with chronic cardiac or pulmonary disease, diabetes mellitus, anatomic asplenia, chronic liver disease, or kidney failure; and health-care workers. It is recommended that those receiving the vaccine before the age of 65 receive an additional dose at age 65 or 5 years after the first dose, whichever is later.

The parents of a 7-year-old male ask you to evaluate him because of increasing concerns about his temper tantrums over the past 9 months. He often becomes angry and hostile, argues with them constantly, and refuses to follow rules or directions. A major source of difficulty is his refusal to quit playing with his toys when he is asked to come to the dinner table. After the child ignored repeated attempts to get him to come to the table a few nights ago, the father became frustrated and told him he had lost his television privileges. In response, the child became aggressive and destructive, breaking his toys and sweeping his dinner plate and glass of milk onto the floor. The parents describe many similar scenarios at bedtime, bath time, and when he is getting dressed. They believe that their son is deliberately behaving this way to annoy them. This history is most consistent with: (check one) A. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder B. bipolar disorder C. conduct disorder D. oppositional defiant disorder E. normal childhood individualization

D. oppositional defiant disorder. This child meets the DSM-IV criteria for oppositional defiant disorder, defined as a pattern of negativistic, hostile, and defiant behavior lasting at least 6 months. The child will often lose his or her temper, argue with adults, actively defy or refuse to comply with adults' requests or rules, deliberately annoy people, blame others for his or her mistakes or misbehavior, be easily annoyed by others, appear angry and resentful, or be spiteful or vindictive. At least four of these behaviors must be present to meet the criteria for diagnosis. The disturbance in behavior must also cause clinically significant impairment in social, academic, or occupational functioning, and the behaviors must not occur exclusively during the course of a psychotic or mood disorder. Meeting the criteria for conduct disorder excludes the diagnosis of oppositional defiant disorder. If the individual is 18 years of age or older and meets the criteria for antisocial personality disorder, then oppositional defiant disorder is excluded.

The most common initial symptom of Hodgkin lymphoma is: (check one) A. unexplained fever B. night sweats C. weight loss D. painless lymphadenopathy E. cough

D. painless lymphadenopathy. The most common presenting symptom of Hodgkin lymphoma is painless lymphadenopathy. Approximately one-third of patients with Hodgkin lymphoma present with unexplained fever, night sweats, and recent weight loss, collectively known as "B symptoms." Other common symptoms include cough, chest pain, dyspnea, and superior vena cava obstruction caused by adenopathy in the chest and mediastinum.

A 19-year-old college student comes to your office with significant pain in his right great toe that is making it difficult for him to walk. He has never had this problem before. When you examine him you find increased swelling with marked erythema and seropurulent drainage and ulceration of the medial nail fold. The toe is very tender to touch, particularly when pressure is applied to the tip of the toe. The most appropriate initial management would be: (check one) A. oral antibiotics that cover common skin flora, for 5-7 days B. soaking the toe in warm, soapy water for 10-20 minutes twice daily, followed by application of a topical antibiotic, with a return visit in 3-5 days C. elevation of the nail with a wisp of cotton D. partial avulsion of the medial nail plate and phenolization of the matrix at this visit E. partial avulsion of both the medial and lateral nail plates at this visit

D. partial avulsion of the medial nail plate and phenolization of the matrix at this visit. This ingrown nail meets the criteria for moderate severity: increased swelling, seropurulent drainage, infection, and ulceration of the nail fold. In these cases, antibiotics before or after phenolization of the matrix do not decrease healing time, postoperative morbidity, or recurrence rates (SOR B). A conservative approach, elevating the nail edge with a wisp of cotton or a gutter splint, is reasonable in patients with a mild to moderate ingrown toenail who do not have significant pain, substantial erythema, or purulent drainage. Either immediate partial nail avulsion followed by phenolization, or direct surgical excision of the nail matrix is effective for the treatment of ingrown nails (SOR B). Pretreatment with soaking and antibiotics has not been demonstrated to add therapeutic benefit or to speed resolution. Several studies demonstrate that once the ingrown portion of the nail is removed and matricectomy is performed, the localized infection will resolve without the need for antibiotic therapy. Bilateral partial matricectomy maintains the functional role of the nail plate (although it narrows the nail plate) and should be considered in patients with a severe ingrown toenail or to manage recurrences.

A chest radiograph of the driver of an automobile involved in a head-on collision shows a widened mediastinum. This suggests: (check one) A. myocardial contusion B. spontaneous rupture of the esophagus C. rupture of a bronchus D. partial rupture of the thoracic aorta E. acute heart failure

D. partial rupture of the thoracic aorta. Deceleration-type blows to the chest can produce partial or complete transection of the aorta. A chest radiograph shows an acutely widened mediastinum and/or a pleural effusion when the condition is severe. The other conditions listed would produce mediastinal emphysema (esophageal or bronchial rupture), a widened heart, or pulmonary edema (acute heart failure, myocardial contusion).

A 42-year-old male with a history of intravenous drug use asks to be tested for hepatitis C. The hepatitis C virus (HCV) antibody enzyme immunoassay and recombinant immunoblot assay are both reported as positive. The quantitative HCV RNA polymerase chain reaction test is negative. These test results are most consistent with: (check one) A. very early HCV infection B. current active HCV infection C. a false-positive antibody test D. past infection with HCV that is now resolved

D. past infection with HCV that is now resolved. The most widely used initial assay for detecting hepatitis C virus (HCV) antibody is the enzyme immunoassay. A positive enzyme immunoassay should be followed by a confirmatory test such as the recombinant immunoblot assay. If negative, it indicates a false-positive antibody test. If positive, the quantitative HCV RNA polymerase chain reaction is used to measure the amount of virus in the blood to distinguish active from resolved HCV infection. In this case, the results of the test indicate that the patient had a past infection with HCV that is now resolved.

A 32-year-old farmer comes to your office because of an upper respiratory infection. While he is there he points out a lesion on his forearm that he first noted approximately 1 year ago. It is a 1-cm asymmetric nodule with an irregular border and variations in color from black to blue. The patient says that it itches and has been enlarging for the past 2 months. He says he is so busy that he is not sure when he can return to have it taken care of. In such cases the best approach would be to (check one) A. perform a punch biopsy and have the patient return if the biopsy indicates pathology B. perform a shave biopsy and recheck in 2 months for signs of recurrence C. use electrocautery to destroy the lesion and the surrounding tissue D. perform an elliptical excision as soon as possible E. freeze the site with liquid nitrogen

D. perform an elliptical excision as soon as possible. Despite this individual's busy schedule, he has a potentially life-threatening problem that needs proper diagnosis and treatment. Though an excisional biopsy takes longer, it is the procedure of choice when melanoma is suspected. After removal and diagnosis, prompt referral is essential for further evaluation and therapy. A shave biopsy should never be done for suspected melanoma, as this is likely to transect the lesion and destroy evidence concerning its depth, thus making it difficult to assess the prognosis. A punch biopsy should be used only with discretion when the lesion is too large for complete excision, or if substantial disfigurement would occur. Since this may not actually retrieve cancerous tissue from an unsampled area of a large lesion that might be malignant, it would be safest to refer such patients. Neither cryotherapy nor electrocautery should be used for a suspected melanoma.

A 12-month-old white female whom you have seen regularly for all of her scheduled well child care is found to have a hemoglobin level of 9.0 g/dL (N for age 10.5-13.5). She started whole milk at 9 months of age. She appears healthy otherwise and has no family history of anemia. A CBC reveals a mild microcytic, hypochromic anemia with RBC poikilocytosis, but is otherwise normal. The RBC distribution width is also elevated. Of the following, the most appropriate next step would be to: (check one) A. order tests for serum iron and total iron-binding capacity B. order a serum ferritin level C. order hemoglobin electrophoresis D. prescribe oral iron E. perform stool guaiac testing

D. prescribe oral iron. Iron deficiency is almost certainly the diagnosis in this child. The patient's response to a therapeutic trial of iron would be most helpful in establishing the diagnosis. Additional tests might be necessary if there is no response.

A 36-year-old white male complains of episodic pain in the rectum over the past several years. The pain occurs every 3-6 weeks and is sharp, cramp-like, and severe. It lasts from 1 to 15 minutes. He has no other gastrointestinal complaints. A physical examination, including a digital rectal examination and anoscopy, is normal. The most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. fecal impaction B. coccygodynia C. anal fissure D. proctalgia fugax E. sacral nerve neuralgia

D. proctalgia fugax. Symptoms consistent with proctalgia fugax occur in 13%-19% of the general population. These consist of episodic, sudden, sharp pains in the anorectal area lasting several seconds to minutes. The diagnosis is based on a history that fits the classic picture in a patient with a normal examination. All the other diagnoses listed would be evident from the physical examination, except for sacral nerve neuralgia, which would not be intermittent for years and would be longer lasting.

A 54-year-old female has pain and swelling of the right knee. Examination of the synovial fluid reveals a leukocyte count of 5000/mm3 , and crystals that appear as short, blunt rods, rhomboids, and cuboids when viewed under polarized light. The most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. gonococcal arthritis B. tuberculous arthritis C. rheumatoid arthritis D. pseudogout E. gout

D. pseudogout. Microscopic examination of synovial fluid in a patient suffering an acute attack of pseudogout shows large numbers of polymorphonuclear leukocytes. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are frequently found extracellularly and in polymorphonuclear leukocytes. When viewed with polarized light, the crystals appear as short, blunt rods, rhomboids, and cuboids. The diagnosis is made by finding typical crystals under compensated polarized light and is supported by radiographic evidence of chondrocalcinosis.

The best management for his condition is: (check one) A. chest radiography and frequent vital sign observation B. internal fixation under general anesthesia C. Steinmann's pin fixation under local anesthesia D. sending the patient home in a sling and swathe E. a modified shoulder spica cast

D. sending the patient home in a sling and swathe. Fractures of the medial third of the clavicle in pediatric patients are common and are best treated by a figure-of-8 apparatus. Open surgical reduction with intramedullary fixation will minimize angular deformity at the fracture site but leaves a scar and may result in nonunion. With the rare exception of neurovascular injury accompanying the fracture, there are no indications for open reduction of a clavicular fracture in a child.

The sensitivity of a test is defined as: (check one) A. the probability of disease before a test is performed B. the probability of disease after a test is performed C. the percentage of patients with a positive test result who are confirmed to have the disease D. the percentage of patients with the disease who have a positive test result E. the percentage of patients without the disease who have a negative test result

D. the percentage of patients with the disease who have a positive test result. Sensitivity is the percentage of patients with a disease who have a positive test result. Specificity is the percentage of patients without the disease who have a negative test result. Pretest probability is the probability of disease before a test is performed. Posttest probability is the probability of disease after a test is performed. Positive predictive value is the percentage of patients with a positive test result who are confirmed to have the disease.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 10 ======================================================= A painful thrombosed external hemorrhoid diagnosed within the first 24 hours after occurrence is ideally treated by: (check one) A. appropriate antibiotics B. office banding C. office cryotherapy D. thrombectomy under local anesthesia E. total hemorrhoidectomy

D. thrombectomy under local anesthesia. A thrombosed external hemorrhoid is manifested by the sudden development of a painful, tender, perirectal lump. Because there is somatic innervation, the pain is intense, and increases with edema. Treatment involves excision of the acutely thrombosed tissue under local anesthesia, mild pain medication, and sitz baths. It is inappropriate to use procedures that would increase the pain, such as banding or cryotherapy. Total hemorrhoidectomy is inappropriate and unnecessary.

This rhythm is best described as: (check one) A. ventricular flutter B. ventricular fibrillation C. ventricular tachycardia D. torsades de pointes

D. torsades de pointes. The EKG shown represents torsades de pointes. This special form of ventricular tachyarrhythmia is often regarded as an intermediary between ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. Morphologically it is characterized by wide QRS complexes with apices that are sometimes positive and sometimes negative. It is generally restricted to polymorphous tachycardias associated with QT prolongation. Anything that produces or is associated with a prolonged QT interval can cause torsades de pointes, including drugs (quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide, phenothiazines), electrolyte disturbances, insecticide poisoning, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and congenital QT prolongation. Its great clinical importance lies in the fact that the usual anti-arrhythmic drugs are not only useless but contraindicated, because they can make matters worse. Ventricular flutter is the term used by some authorities to describe a rapid ventricular tachycardia producing a regular zigzag on EKG, without clearly formed QRS complexes. Ventricular tachycardia consists of at least three consecutive ectopic QRS complexes recurring at a rapid rate. They are usually regular. Ventricular fibrillation is characterized by the complete absence of properly formed ventricular complexes; the baseline wavers unevenly, with no clear-cut QRS deflections.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 27 ======================================================= The preferred method for diagnosing psychogenic nonepileptic seizures is: (check one) A. inducing seizures by suggestion B. postictal prolactin levels C. EEG monitoring D. video-electroencephalography (vEEG) monitoring E. brain MRI

D. video-electroencephalography (vEEG) monitoring. Inpatient video-electroencephalography (vEEG) monitoring is the preferred test for the diagnosis of psychogenic nonepileptic seizures (PNES), and is considered the gold standard (SOR B). Video-EEG monitoring combines extended EEG monitoring with time-locked video acquisition that allows for analysis of clinical and electrographic features during a captured event. Many other types of evidence have been used, including the presence or absence of self-injury and incontinence, the ability to induce seizures by suggestion, psychologic tests, and ambulatory EEG. While useful in some cases, these alternatives have been found to be insufficient for the diagnosis of PNES. Elevated postictal prolactin levels (at least two times the upper limit of normal) have been used to differentiate generalized and complex partial seizures from PNES, but are not reliable (SOR B). While prolactin levels are often elevated after an epileptic seizure, they do not always rise, and the timing of measurement is crucial, making this a less sensitive test than was previously believed. Other serum markers have also been used to help distinguish PNES from epileptic seizures, including creatine phosphokinase, cortisol, WBC counts, lactate dehydrogenase, pCO2 , and neuron-specific enolase. These also are not reliable, as threshold levels for abnormality, sensitivity, and specificity have not been determined. MRI is not reliable because abnormal brain MRIs have been documented in as many as one-third of patients with PNES. In addition, patients with epileptic seizures often have normal brain MRIs.

Which one of the following is the recommended duration of dual antiplatelet therapy after placement of a drug-eluting coronary artery stent? (check one) A. 1 week B. 1 month C. 2 months D. 3 months E. 1 year

E. 1 year. The recommended duration of dual antiplatelet therapy following placement of a drug-eluting coronary artery stent is 1 year (SOR C). The recommended dosages of dual antiplatelet therapy are aspirin, 162-325 mg, and clopidogrel, 75 mg, or prasugrel, 10 mg. Ticlopidine is an option for patients who do not tolerate clopidogrel or prasugrel. The minimum recommended duration of dual antiplatelet therapy is 1 month with bare-metal stents, 3 months with sirolimus-eluting stents, and 6 months with other drug-eluting stents.

A 53-year-old male presents for follow-up after a routine screening colonoscopy. He is healthy and takes no medications, and his family history is negative for colon cancer. During a thorough, relatively easy colonoscopy to the cecum, two rectal polyps measuring 0.7 mm were removed, both of which were found to be hyperplastic on pathologic analysis. His next surveillance colonoscopy should be in (check one) A. 1 year B. 3 years C. 5 years D. 7 years E. 10 years

E. 10 years. Risk factors for proximal neoplasia include high-grade dysplasia, three or more adenomas, adenomas with villous features, and an adenoma ≥1 cm in size. For patients with one or more of these findings, follow-up colonoscopy in 3 years is recommended. The clinical benefit of follow-up surveillance colonoscopy in patients with one or two small adenomas has never been demonstrated. Distal hyperplastic polyps are not markers for proximal or advanced neoplasia. Patients with this finding on colonoscopy should be considered to have a normal colonoscopy and the interval until the next colonoscopy should be 10 years.

According to JNC 7, the risk of cardiovascular disease begins to increase when the systolic blood pressure exceeds a threshold of : (check one) A. 150 mm Hg B. 140 mm Hg C. 130 mm Hg D. 125 mm Hg E. 115 mm Hg

E. 115 mm Hg. According to JNC 7, the risk of both ischemic heart disease and stroke increases progressively when systolic blood pressure exceeds 115 mm Hg and diastolic blood pressure exceeds 75 mm Hg.

On examination a 2-year-old child is found to have otalgia, a temperature of 39.0°C (102.2°F), and a bulging, red tympanic membrane. She weighs 17 kg (35 lb). Which one of the following would be the appropriate dosage of amoxicillin (Amoxil) for this child? (check one) A. 375 mg/day B. 500 mg/day C. 750 mg/day D. 1000 mg/day E. 1500 mg/day

E. 1500 mg/day. For treating acute otitis media in this patient, the current recommended dosage of amoxicillin is 80-90 mg/kg/day.

Which one of the following is the best diagnostic test for vitamin D deficiency? (check one) A. Ionized calcium B. Serum phosphorus C. 24-hour urine for calcium D. 1,25-hydroxyvitamin D E. 25-hydroxyvitamin D

E. 25-hydroxyvitamin D. Undiagnosed vitamin D deficiency is not uncommon, and 25-hydroxyvitamin D is the barometer for vitamin D status. Although there is no consensus on optimal levels of 25-hydroxyvitamin D as measured in serum, vitamin D deficiency is defined by most experts as a 25-hydroxyvitamin D level of <20 ng/mL (50 nmol/L).

What is the recommended compression-to-breath ratio for basic life support with a single rescuer for a 2-year-old child? (check one) A. 10:2 B. 15:2 C. 20:2 D. 25:2 E. 30:2

E. 30:2. For a single rescuer performing CPR on a 2-year-old, the ratio is 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. The compression rate should be approximately 100 beats/min, and the chest should be compressed one-third to one-half its depth with each compression. Compressions can be accomplished with one hand, the heel of one or both hands, or the heel of one hand with the second hand on top.

Which one of the following Mantoux tuberculin skin test results should be read as NEGATIVE for latent tuberculosis infection? (check one) A. 7 mm induration on an individual having recent household contact with a tuberculosis patient B. 8 mm induration on an HIV-positive individual who has no documented previous test result C. 10 mm induration on a nursing-home resident D. 12 mm induration on a homeless individual E. 9 mm induration on a hospital-based nurse who had a test with 2 mm induration 1 year ago

E. 9 mm induration on a hospital-based nurse who had a test with 2 mm induration 1 year ago. Three different cutoff levels defining a positive reaction on a tuberculin skin test are recommended by the CDC, each based on the level of risk and consideration of immunocompetence. For those who are at highest risk and/or immunocompromised, including HIV-positive patients, transplant patients, and household contacts of a tuberculosis patient, an induration ≥5 mm is considered positive. For those at low risk of exposure, a screening test is not recommended, but if one is performed, induration ≥15 mm is considered positive. For those who have an increased probability of exposure or risk, an induration ≥10 mm should be read as positive. This group includes children; employees or residents of nursing homes, correctional facilities, or homeless shelters; recent immigrants; intravenous drug users; hospital workers; and those with chronic illnesses. For individuals who are subject to repeated testing, such as health-care workers, an increase in induration of 10 mm or more within a 2-year period would be considered positive and an indication of a recent infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A nurse with a 9-mm induration would be considered to have a negative PPD.

In which one of the following scenarios would additional consent from a child's parent or guardian be necessary prior to treatment? (check one) A. A 6-year-old female with divorced parents who lives primarily with her mother is brought to the clinic by her father to discuss his concerns of possible abuse B. An 8-year-old unconscious male is brought to the emergency department by a neighbor after falling out of a tree and striking his head C. A 13-year-old male is brought to the clinic by a babysitter with a note giving permission to treat signed by a parent D. A 15-year-old female who is considered emancipated under state law comes to your office to discuss family planning E. A 16-year-old female who has driven herself to her clinic appointment reports a 2-day history of ear pain; she says her mother made this appointment for her

E. A 16-year-old female who has driven herself to her clinic appointment reports a 2-day history of ear pain; she says her mother made this appointment for her. Informed consent to treat is considered an important ethical and legal part of caring for children and adolescents. Some situations can become confusing when trying to balance the need for treatment, a child's assent, and a parent or guardian's permission. In most states, 18 is the age when legal decisions can be made; however, in some states it is 21. Children under the age of majority must have proof of permission to treat from a parent or guardian for non-emergent care. This does not apply to emergency situations in which a delay in care could result in serious harm. Another exception to parental consent is when a child is considered emancipated under state law. This can happen with a court order, or (in some states) if the child is married, is a parent, is in the military, or is living independently. Either biologic parent can consent to treatment unless one of them is explicitly denied guardianship. If a child presents with a non-emergent condition and does not have evidence of permission from a parent or guardian, permission should be sought before the physician interaction takes place.

Which one of the following patients is unlikely to benefit from vaccination against hepatitis A? (check one) A. A missionary traveling to Mexico B. A man who has sex with men C. A methamphetamine addict D. A patient with chronic hepatitis E. A 40-year old recent immigrant from India

E. A 40-year old recent immigrant from India. Each of the individuals listed is at increased risk for hepatitis A infection or its complications, except for the Indian immigrant. Hepatitis A is so prevalent in developing countries such as India that virtually everyone is infected by the end of childhood, and therefore immune. Infection with hepatitis A confers lifelong immunity, so an adult from a highly endemic area such as India has little to gain from vaccination.

Surgical management for an acute midshaft clavicle fracture would be appropriate in which one of the following? (check one) A. An 11-year-old male with a comminuted fracture B. A 15-year-old female with a ½-cm displaced fracture C. A 30-year-old male with a ½-cm displaced fracture D. A 40-year-old male with a nondisplaced fracture E. A 50-year-old female with a comminuted fracture

E. A 50-year-old female with a comminuted fracture. Midshaft clavicle fractures are usually treated nonoperatively, but have a higher risk of nonunion. Risk factors for nonunion include female gender, fracture comminution or displacement, clavicle shortening, advanced age, and greater extent of initial trauma. These fractures in children heal extremely well, even if displaced or comminuted, because of periosteal regenerative potential.

Which one of the following hospitalized patients is the most appropriate candidate for thromboembolism prophylaxis with enoxaparin (Lovenox)? (check one) A. An ambulatory 22-year-old obese male admitted for an appendectomy B. A 48-year-old male with atrial fibrillation on chronic therapeutic anticoagulation, admitted for cellulitis C. A 48-year-old male with end-stage liver disease and coagulopathy D. A 52-year-old female on chronic estrogen therapy, admitted with severe thrombocytopenia E. A 67-year-old female with hemiparesis, admitted for community-acquired pneumonia

E. A 67-year-old female with hemiparesis, admitted for community-acquired pneumonia. Venous thromboembolism is a frequent cause of preventable death and illness in hospitalized patients. Approximately 10%-15% of high-risk patients who do not receive prophylaxis develop venous thrombosis. Pulmonary embolism is thought to be associated with 5%-10% of deaths in hospitalized patients. Anticoagulant prophylaxis significantly reduces the risk of pulmonary embolism and should be used in all high-risk patients. Prophylaxis is generally recommended for patients over the age of 40 who have limited mobility for 3 days or more and have at least one of the following risk factors: acute infectious disease, New York Heart Association class III or IV heart failure, acute myocardial infarction, acute respiratory disease, stroke, rheumatic disease, inflammatory bowel disease, previous venous thromboembolism, older age (especially >75 years), recent surgery or trauma, immobility or paresis, obesity (BMI >30 kg/m2), central venouscatheterization, inherited or acquired thrombophilic disorders, varicose veins, or estrogen therapy. Pharmacologic therapy with an anticoagulant such as enoxaparin is clearly indicated in the 67-year-old who has limited mobility secondary to hemiparesis and is being admitted for an acute infectious disease. The patient on chronic anticoagulation, the patient with severe thrombocytopenia, and the patient with coagulopathy are at high risk for bleeding if given anticoagulants, and are better candidates for nonpharmacologic therapies such as foot extension exercises, graduated compression stockings, or pneumatic compression devices. Although the 22-year-old is obese and recently had surgery, his young age and ambulatory status make anticoagulant prophylaxis less necessary.

The daily intake of vitamins and minerals recommended by the Food and Nutrition Board varies according to sex, age, and condition. The recommended daily allowance of vitamin D is greatest for which one of the following? (check one) A. A 15-year-old nonpregnant female B. A 25-year-old pregnant female C. A 35-year-old lactating female D. A 55-year-old female E. A 75-year-old female

E. A 75-year-old female. The current Dietary Reference Intake (DRI - which has replaced RDA's) recommendation for vitamin D is 200 IU/day for all women between the ages of 9 and 50 years; pregnancy or lactation does not affect the recommendation. The DRI doubles to 400 IU daily for women age 51-70 and triples to 600 IU daily for women over the age of 70. The maximum daily oral intake of vitamin D thought to be safe is 2000 IU/day for all females over the age of 12 months.

The mother of a 16-year-old male brings him to your office stating that she wants to find out if he has Crohn's disease. She says that both she and the child's aunt were diagnosed with this condition by another physician with "blood tests." The son tells you that for the past several years his stool is intermittently loose and he has up to three bowel movements in a day. He says he does not have fever, pain, hematochezia, weight loss, or any extraintestinal symptoms. A physical examination is normal. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate preliminary testing? (check one) A. A plain radiograph of the abdomen B. CT of the abdomen and pelvis C. An inflammatory bowel disease serologic panel D. Colonoscopy with a biopsy E. A CBC, serum chemistry panel, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate

E. A CBC, serum chemistry panel, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate. The diagnosis of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) can be elusive but relies primarily on the patient history, laboratory findings, and endoscopy (or double-contrast radiographs if endoscopy is not available). Endoscopy is usually reserved for patients with more severe symptoms or in whom preliminary testing shows the potential for significant inflammation. It is recommended that this preliminary evaluation include a WBC count, platelet count, potassium level, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Patients who have minimal symptoms and normal preliminary testing likely do not have a significant case of IBD. Plain radiographs and CT of the abdomen may help rule out other etiologies but are not considered adequate to diagnose or exclude IBD. Panels of serologic blood tests have recently been developed and are being assessed as to their place in evaluating patients who may have IBD. However, this testing is expensive, lacks sufficient predictive value, and has yet to prove its utility compared to standard testing.

A 6-month-old Hispanic female has had itching and irritability for 4-5 weeks. There is a family history of atopy and asthma. Physical examination reveals an excoriated dry rash bilaterally over the antecubital and popliteal fossae, as well as some involvement of the face. In addition to maintenance therapy with an emollient, which one of the following topical medications would be appropriate first-line treatment for flare-ups in this patient? (check one) A. A calcineurin inhibitor such as pimecrolimus (Elidel) B. An anesthetic C. An antihistamine D. An antibiotic E. A corticosteroid

E. A corticosteroid. This child has atopic dermatitis (eczema). It is manifested by a pruritic rash on the face and/or extensor surfaces of the arms and/or legs, especially in children. There often is a family history of atopy or allergies. In addition to the regular use of emollients, the mainstay of maintenance therapy, topical corticosteroids have been shown to be the best first-line treatment for flare-ups of atopic dermatitis. Topical calcineurin inhibitors should be second-line treatment for flare-ups, but are not recommended for use in children under 2 years of age. Antibiotics should be reserved for the treatment of acutely infected lesions. There is no evidence to support the use of topical anesthetics or analgesics in the treatment of this disorder.

Which one of the following, when confirmed with a repeat test, meets the diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus? (check one) A. A fasting blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL B. A 2-hour value of 180 mg/dL on an oral glucose tolerance test C. A random glucose level of 180 mg/dL in a patient with symptoms of diabetes mellitus D. A positive urine dipstick for glucose E. A hemoglobin A1c of 7.0%

E. A hemoglobin A1c of 7.0%. An international expert committee issued a report in 2009 recommending that a hemoglobin A1c level ≥6.5% be used to diagnose diabetes mellitus. Other criteria include a fasting plasma glucose level ≥126 mg/dL, a random glucose leve l≥200 mg/dL in a patient with symptoms of diabetes, or a 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test value ≥200 mg/dL. While a urine dipstick may be used to screen for diabetes, it is not a diagnostic test.

A 17-year-old female sees you for a preparticipation evaluation. She has run 5 miles a day for the last 6 months, and has lost 6 lb over the past 2 months. Her last menstrual period was 3 months ago. Other than the fact that she appears to be slightly underweight, her examination is normal. To fit the criteria for the female athlete triad, she must have which one of the following? (check one) A. A formal diagnosis of an eating disorder B. Amenorrhea for 1 year C. A Z-score on bone-density testing of -2.5 or less D. Withdrawal bleeding after progesterone administration E. A history of a stress fracture resulting from minimal trauma

E. A history of a stress fracture resulting from minimal trauma. The initial definition of the female athlete triad was amenorrhea, osteoporosis, and disordered eating. The American College of Sports Medicine modified this in 2007, emphasizing that the triad components occur on a continuum rather than as individual pathologic conditions. The definitions have therefore expanded. Disordered eating is no longer defined as the formal diagnosis of an eating disorder. Energy availability,defined as dietary energy intake minus exercise energy expenditures, is now considered a risk factor for the triad, as dietary restrictions and substantial energy expenditures disrupt pituitary and ovarian function. Primary amenorrhea is defined as lack of menstruation by age 15 in females with secondary sex characteristics. Secondary amenorrhea is the absence of three or more menstrual cycles in a young woman previously experiencing menses. For those with secondary amenorrhea, a pregnancy test should be performed. If this is not conclusive, a progesterone challenge test may be performed. If there is withdrawal bleeding, the cause would be anovulation. Those who do not experience withdrawal bleeding have hypothalamic amenorrhea, and fit one criterion for the triad. Athletes who have amenorrhea for 6 months, disordered eating, and/or a history of a stress fracture resulting from minimal trauma should have a bone density test. Low bone mineral density for age is the term used to describe at-risk female athletes with a Z-score of -1 to -2. Osteoporosis is defined as having clinical risk factors for experiencing a fracture, along with a Z-score <-2.

A 55-year-old female presents to an urgent-care facility with a complaint of weakness of several weeks' duration. She has no other symptoms. She has been healthy except for a history of hypertension that has been difficult to control despite the use of hydrochlorothiazide, 25 mg daily; lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril), 40 mg daily; amlodipine (Norvasc), 10 mg daily; and doxazosin (Cardura), 8 mg daily. On examination her blood pressure is 164/102 mm Hg, with the optic fundi showing grade 2 changes. She has normal pulses, a normal cardiac examination, and no abdominal bruits. A CBC is normal and a blood chemistry panel is also normal except for a serum potassium level of 3.1 mmol/L (N 3.5-5.5). Which one of the following would be best for confirming the most likely diagnosis in this patient? (check one) A. Magnetic resonance angiography of the renal arteries B. A renal biopsy C. 24-hour urine for metanephrines D. Early morning fasting cortisol E. A plasma aldosterone/renin ratio

E. A plasma aldosterone/renin ratio. Difficult-to-control hypertension has many possible causes, including nonadherence or the use of alcohol, NSAIDs, certain antidepressants, or sympathomimetics. Secondary hypertension can be caused by relatively common problems such as chronic kidney disease, obstructive sleep apnea, or primary hyperaldosteronism, as in the case described here. As many as 20% of patients referred to specialists for poorly controlled hypertension have primary hyperaldosteronism. It is more common in women and often is asymptomatic. A significant number of these individuals will not be hypokalemic. Screening can be done with a morning plasma aldosterone/renin ratio. If the ratio is 20 or more and the aldosterone level is >15 ng/dL, then primary hyperaldosteronism is likely and referral for confirmatory testing should be considered.

A full-term newborn, born 72 hours ago, is noted to be jaundiced. The pregnancy was uneventful and the delivery uncomplicated. The mother has type A-positive blood and the child has type O-positive. The child is breastfed and has lost 9 ounces from a birth weight of 8 lb. He is feeding for 20 minutes every 4 hours, and except for being icteric, has a normal examination. Laboratory evaluation reveals a total serum bilirubin level of 16 mg/dL (N 1.4-8.7), with a conjugated bilirubin level of 1.0 mg/dL. His hemoglobin level is 17.8 g/dL (N 13.4-19.8), his hematocrit is 55% (N 41-65), and his reticulocyte count is 3% (N 3-7). Appropriate management would include: (check one) A. Phototherapy B. Exchange transfusion C. Blood cultures and antibiotic therapy D. Dextrose and water supplementation E. A recommendation to increase feedings to 10 times a day

E. A recommendation to increase feedings to 10 times a day. Hyperbilirubinemia can occur in up to 60% of term newborns during the first week of life. Early guidelines on management of elevated bilirubin were based on studies of bilirubin toxicity in infants who had hemolytic disease. Current recommendations now support the use of less intensive therapy in term newborns with jaundice who are otherwise healthy. Phototherapy should be initiated when the bilirubin level is above 15 mg/dL for infants at age 29-48 hours old, at 18 mg/dL for infants 49-72 hours old, and at 20 mg/dL in infants older than 72 hours. Generally, this problem is not considered pathologic unless it presents during the first hours after birth and the total serum bilirubin rises by more than 5 mg/dL/day or is higher than 17 mg/dL, or if the infant has signs or symptoms suggestive of a serious underlying illness such as sepsis. Fortunately, very few term newborns with jaundice have serious underlying pathology. Physiologic jaundice follows a pattern, with the bilirubin level peaking on the third or fourth day of life and then declining over the first week after birth. Infants with multiple risk factors may develop an exaggerated form of physiologic jaundice, with the total bilirubin level rising as high as 17 mg/dL. Breastfed infants are at increased risk for exaggerated physiologic jaundice because of relative caloric deprivation in the first few days of life. Compared with formula-fed infants, those who are breastfed are six times more likely to experience moderate jaundice, with the bilirubin rising above 12 mg/dL. For breastfed newborns who have an early onset of hyperbilirubinemia, the frequency of feeding should be increased to more than 10 times per day. If the newborn has a decrease in weight gain, delayed stooling, and continued poor intake, then formula supplementation may be necessary. Breastfeeding should be continued to maintain breast milk production. Supplemental water or dextrose and water should not be given, as this can decrease breast milk production and may place the infant at risk for iatrogenic hyponatremia.

Which one of the following is true regarding medication dosage adjustments for patients with chronic kidney disease? (check one) A. Loading doses should usually be adjusted B. Adjustments typically are not necessary until the glomerular filtration rate is <20 mL/min/1.73m2> C. A normal serum creatinine value indicates that no adjustment is necessary D. Serum drug levels are usually required for making adjustments E. A reduction of dose, an increase in dosing interval, or both may be necessary

E. A reduction of dose, an increase in dosing interval, or both may be necessary. Many medications require dosage adjustments in patients with chronic kidney disease. Medications are adjusted based on the estimated glomerular filtration rate (GFR) or creatinine clearance. Most medication adjustments require a reduction in the dose, lengthening of the dosing interval, or both. Loading doses of medications usually do not need to be adjusted. Medication adjustments are divided into three groups, based on whether the GFR is >50 mL/min/1.73m2, 10-50 mL/min/1.73m2, or <10 mL/min/1.73m2. The production and excretion of creatinine decreases in older patients, so a normal serum creatinine level does not always correlate with normal kidney function. Serum drug levels typically are not required for adjusting medications in patients with chronic kidney disease.

A 46-year-old female presents to your office for follow-up of elevated blood pressure on a pre-employment examination. She is asymptomatic, and her physical examination is normal with the exception of a blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg. Screening blood work reveals a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L (N 3.7-5.2). You consider screening for primary hyperaldosteronism. (check one) A. 24-hour urine aldosterone levels B. An ACTH infusion test C. Adrenal venous sampling D. CT of the abdomen E. A serum aldosterone-to-renin ratio

E. A serum aldosterone-to-renin ratio. Primary hyperaldosteronism is relatively common in patients with stage 2 hypertension (160/100 mm Hg or higher) or treatment-resistant hypertension. It has been estimated that 20% of patients referred to a hypertension specialist suffer from this condition. Experts recommend screening for this condition using a ratio of morning plasma aldosterone to plasma renin. A ratio >20:1 with an aldosterone level >15 ng/dL suggests the diagnosis. The level of these two values is affected by several factors, including medications (especially most blood pressure medicines), time of day, position of the patient, and age. Patients who are identified as possibly having this condition should be referred to an endocrinologist for further confirmatory testing.

A 56-year-old male with a history of nephrolithiasis presents with a complaint of right flank pain. Further evaluation reveals a right ureteral calculus 4 mm in diameter. Laboratory tests reveal a serum calcium level of 12.1 mg/dL (N 8.5-10.5), a normal albumin level, and normal kidney and liver function tests. The patient takes no chronic medications. Which one of the following is most likely to reveal the cause of this patient's elevated calcium? (check one) A. A 24-hour urine calcium level B. A repeat serum calcium level in 4-6 weeks C. A serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D level D. A serum calcitonin level E. A serum intact parathyroid hormone level

E. A serum intact parathyroid hormone level. Primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy are the most common causes of hypercalcemia, accounting for about 90% of cases. An intact parathyroid hormone (PTH) level should be obtained initially, as the results will indicate what kind of additional evaluation is needed. Vitamin D and urine calcium studies are useful in evaluating hypercalcemia, but a PTH level should be obtained first. It would not be appropriate to wait for a repeat calcium level in 4-6 weeks, because this patient has nephrolithiasis and a calcium level 12 mg/dL, indicating a possible need for surgery or perhaps a malignancy. Calcitonin levels generally are not necessary in the evaluation of hypercalcemia.

A 7-year-old male with recurrent sinusitis has difficulty breathing through his nose. He has had chronic diarrhea and his weight is at the 5th percentile. Nasal polyps are noted on examination, in the form of grayish pale masses in both nares. No nasal purulence or odor is present. Which one of the following tests should you order? (check one) A. A serum angiotensin-converting enzyme level B. A serum alpha1-antitrypsin level C. A serum ceruloplasmin level D. An erythrocyte sedimentation rate E. A sweat chloride test

E. A sweat chloride test. This child has chronic diarrhea, recurrent sinusitis, and nasal polyps, and is underweight. Nasal polyps tend to occur more often in adult males, with the prevalence increasing in both sexes after age 50. Any child 12 years or younger who presents with nasal polyps should be suspected of having cystic fibrosis until proven otherwise. A sweat chloride test, along with a history and clinical examination, is necessary to evaluate this possibility. Nasal polyps are found in 1% of the normal population, but a full 18% of those with cystic fibrosis are afflicted. There is no association of polyps with Wilson's disease, sarcoidosis, or emphysema, so serum ceruloplasmin, angiotensin-converting enzyme, and alpha1-antitrypsin levels would not be useful. An erythrocyte sedimentation rate likewise would yield limited information.

An 83-year-old female presents to your office as a new patient. She recently moved to the area to be closer to her family. A history reveals that she has been in excellent health, has no complaints, and is on no medications except occasional acetaminophen for knee pain. She has never been in the hospital and has not had any operations. She says that she feels well. The examination is normal, with expected age-related changes, except that her blood pressure on three different readings averages 175/70 mm Hg. These readings are confirmed on a subsequent follow-up visit. In addition to lifestyle changes, which one of the following would be most appropriate for the initial management of this patient's hypertension? (check one) A. An alpha-blocker B. An ACE inhibitor C. A beta-blocker D. An angiotensin receptor blocker E. A thiazide diuretic

E. A thiazide diuretic. Clinical trials support the treatment of systolic hypertension in the older person with a systolic blood pressure of at least 160 mm Hg. (Systolic hypertension is defined as systolic blood pressure of at least 140 mm Hg and a diastolic blood pressure of less than 90 mm Hg.) The studies most strongly support the use of thiazide diuretics and long-acting calcium channel blockers as first-line therapy. Alpha-blockers are not recommended. ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and angiotensin receptor blockers are used when certain compelling indications are present, e.g., in a patient with diabetes or who has had a myocardial infarction.

A 28-year-old white male comes to your office complaining of pain in the right wrist since falling 2 weeks ago. On examination, he is tender in the anatomic snuffbox. A radiograph reveals a nondisplaced fracture of the distal one-third of the carpal navicular bone (scaphoid). Which one of the following is the most appropriate management at this time? (check one) A. A bone scan B. Physical therapy referral C. A Velcro wrist splint D. A short arm cast E. A thumb spica cast

E. A thumb spica cast. Fracture of the scaphoid should be suspected in every "sprained wrist" presenting with tenderness in the anatomic snuffbox. Radiographs may be negative initially. The scaphoid circulation enters the bone for the most part through the distal half. Fractures through the proximal third tend to cause loss of circulation and are slower to heal, and should be referred to an orthopedist because of the risk of nonunion and avascular necrosis. Fractures through the middle or distal one-third can be handled by the family physician in consultation with an orthopedist. The fracture is treated with a thumb spica cast for 10-12 weeks. A wrist splint does not provide adequate immobilization. A bone scan is unnecessary, and physical therapy is inappropriate. If there is still no evidence of union after 10 weeks of immobilization, the patient should be referred to an orthopedist for further care.

Which one of the following statements regarding varicoceles is true? (check one) A. Repair of varicoceles usually results in infertility B. The incidence of varicoceles in adult males is <5% C. Most varicoceles are bilateral D. Varicoceles usually begin between 5 and 8 years of age E. A unilateral varicocele on the right side should be referred for further evaluation

E. A unilateral varicocele on the right side should be referred for further evaluation. Most varicoceles appear in adolescence, occur on the left side, and are asymptomatic. About 10% are bilateral. Surgical repair of large varicoceles can reverse testicular growth arrest, with catch-up growth occurring within 1-2 years. Varicoceles are the most common surgically correctable cause of subfertility in men and the goal of surgery is to maximize chances for fertility. Varicoceles in men are common, with an incidence of approximately 15%. The appearance of a varicocele on the right side only, or in a child less than 10 years of age, is abnormal and may indicate an abdominal or retroperitoneal mass.

A 25-year-old female presents with abdominal pain localized to the right lower quadrant. Which one of the following would be most helpful in diagnosing acute appendicitis? (check one) A. A CBC B. Urinalysis C. Plain abdominal films D. Abdominal/pelvic ultrasonography E. Abdominal/pelvic CT

E. Abdominal/pelvic CT. Seventy to ninety percent of patients with acute appendicitis have leukocytosis, but this is also a characteristic of other conditions, and thus has poor specificity for acute appendicitis. The urinalysis may exhibit microscopic pyuria or hematuria in a patient with acute appendicitis, but these findings may also be present with urinary tract disease. Plain radiographs of the abdomen are of limited value in diagnosing acute appendicitis. Ultrasonography can be useful, especially in ruling out gynecologic problems, but is technician-dependent and is not as specific nor sensitive as CT scanning, which has a sensitivity, specificity, and overall accuracy in excess of 90%. In cases where the CT scan is indeterminate, patients should be admitted to the hospital for close observation with repeated physical examinations to monitor clinical status.

A 62-year-old diabetic with stage 2 renal dysfunction is evaluated for knee pain that has mildly interfered with his usual activities over the past 3 months. On examination he is mildly tender over the medial joint line. A knee radiograph shows moderate medial joint space narrowing. In addition to low-impact exercise, which one of the following would you recommend initially? (check one) A. Intra-articular hyaluronic acid B. Intra-articular corticosteroids C. Celecoxib (Celebrex) D. Naproxen E. Acetaminophen

E. Acetaminophen. Intra-articular injections should not be considered first-line treatment for symptomatic osteoarthritis of the knee. They are recommended for short-term pain control, with the evidence for hyaluronic acid being somewhat weak. Renal dysfunction is a contraindication to the use of NSAIDs. Acetaminophen is the first-line treatment in this case.

A newborn male has a skin eruption on his forehead, nose, and cheeks. The lesions are mostly closed comedones with a few open comedones, papules, and pustules. No significant erythema is seen. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Erythema toxicum neonatorum B. Localized superficial Candida infection C. Herpes simplex D. Milia E. Acne neonatorum

E. Acne neonatorum. Acne neonatorum occurs in up to 20% of newborns. It typically consists of closed comedones on the forehead, nose, and cheeks, and is thought to result from stimulation of sebaceous glands by maternal and infant androgens. Parents should be counseled that lesions usually resolve spontaneously within 4 months without scarring. Findings in erythema toxicum neonatorum include papules, pustules, and erythema. Candida and herpes lesions usually present with vesiculopustular lesions in the neonatal period. Milia consists of 1- to 2-mm pearly keratin plugs without erythema, and may occur on the trunk and limbs.

A 45-year-old male presents with a 4-month history of low back pain that he says is not alleviated with either ibuprofen or acetaminophen. On examination he has no evidence of weakness or focal tenderness. Laboratory studies, including a CBC, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, C-reactive protein, and complete metabolic profile, are all normal. MRI of the lumbosacral region shows mild bulging of the L4-L5 disc without impingement on the thecal sac. Which one of the following has been shown to be beneficial in this situation? (check one) A. Traction B. Ultrasound C. Epidural corticosteroid injection D. A back brace E. Acupuncture

E. Acupuncture. Most chronic back pain (up to 70%) is nonspecific or idiopathic in origin. Treatment options that have the best evidence for effectiveness include analgesics (acetaminophen, tramadol, NSAIDs), multidisciplinary rehabilitation, and acupuncture (all SOR A). Other treatments likely to be beneficial include herbal medications, tricyclics, antidepressants, exercise therapy, behavior therapy, massage, spinal therapy, opioids, and short-term muscle relaxants (all SOR B). There is conflicting data regarding the effectiveness of back school, low-level laser therapy, lumbar supports, viniyoga, antiepileptic medications, prolotherapy, short-wave diathermy, traction, transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation, ultrasound, and epidural corticosteroid injections (all SOR C).

Which one of the following decreases pain from infiltration of local anesthetics? (check one) A. Cooling the anesthetic solution B. Using a 22-gauge needle rather than a 30-gauge needle C. Infiltrating quickly D. Infiltrating through surrounding intact skin E. Adding sodium bicarbonate to the mixture

E. Adding sodium bicarbonate to the mixture. The pain from infiltration of local anesthetics can be decreased by using a warm solution, using small needles, and performing the infiltration slowly.It is also helpful to add sodium bicarbonate to neutralize the anesthetic since they are shipped at an acidic pH to prolong shelf life. An exception to this tip is bupivicaine (Marciane, Sensorcaine) as it will precipitate in the presence of sodium bicarbonate. It also helps to inject the agent through the edges of the wound (assuming the wound is not contaminated) and to pretreat the wound with topical anesthetics.

Which one of the following medications is most effective for treating the arrhythmia shown in Figure 3? (check one) A. Atropine B. Bretylium tosylate (Bretylol) C. Lidocaine (Xylocaine) D. Procainamide (Pronestyl) E. Adenosine (Adenocard)

E. Adenosine (Adenocard). Adenosine, an expensive intravenous drug, is highly effective in terminating many resultant supraventricular arrhythmias. Although it can cause hypotension or transient atrial fibrillation, adenosine is probably safer than verapamil because it disappears from the circulation within seconds. Because of its safety, many cardiologists now prefer adenosine over verapamil for treatment of hypotensive supraventricular tachycardia. Bretylium tosylate, procainamide, and lidocaine are used to treat ventricular arrhythmias. Atropine is indicated in the treatment of sinus bradycardia.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 65 ======================================================= A patient in the first trimester of pregnancy has just learned that her husband has acute hepatitis B. She feels well, and her screening test for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) was negative last month. She has not been immunized against hepatitis B. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management of this patient? (check one) A. No further workup or immunization at this time, a repeat HBsAg test near term, and treatment of the newborn if the test is positive B. Use of condoms for the remainder of the pregnancy, and administration of immunization after delivery C. Testing for hepatitis B immunity (anti-HBs), and immunization if needed D. Administration of hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) now and hepatitis B vaccine after the first trimester E. Administration of both HBIG and hepatitis B vaccine now

E. Administration of both HBIG and hepatitis B vaccine now. Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) should be administered as soon as possible to patients with known exposure to hepatitis B. Hepatitis B vaccine is a killed-virus vaccine and can be used safely in pregnancy, with no need to wait until after organogenesis. This patient has been exposed to sexual transmission for at least 6 weeks, given that the incubation period is at least that long, so it is too late to use condoms to prevent infection. The patient is unlikely to be previously immune to hepatitis B, given that she has no history of hepatitis B infection, immunization, or carriage. Because the patient's HBsAg is negative, she is not the source of her husband's infection. Full treatment for this patient has an efficacy of only 75% so follow-up testing is still needed.

You are initiating treatment for a patient being admitted to the hospital with a new diagnosis of pulmonary embolus. Low molecular weight heparin and warfarin (Coumadin) are started immediately. When can the low molecular weight heparin be stopped? (check one) A. When the INR is ≥2.0 B. When the INR is ≥2.0 for 24 hours C. After 4 days, if the INR is ≥³2.0 D. After 4 days, if the INR has been ≥2.0 for 24 hours E. After 5 days, if the INR has been ≥2.0 for 24 hours

E. After 5 days, if the INR has been ≥2.0 for 24 hours. For patients with a pulmonary embolus, American College of Chest Physicians guidelines recommend initial treatment with low molecular weight heparin (LMWH), unfractionated heparin, or fondaparinux for at least 5 days, and then can be stopped if the INR has been ≥2.0 for at least 24 hours (SOR C). Warfarin reduces the activity of coagulation factors II, VII, IX, and X produced in the liver. Coagulation factors produced prior to initiating warfarin remain active for their usual several-day lifespan, which is why LMWH and warfarin must be given concomitantly for at least 5 days. The INR may reach levels >2.0 before coagulation factors II and X have reached their new plateau levels, accounting for the need for an additional 24 hours of combined therapy before stopping LMWH.

Which one of the following medications has the best evidence for preventing hip fracture? (check one) A. Ibandronate (Boniva) B. Raloxifene (Evista) C. Denosumab (Prolia) D. Etidronate (Didronel) E. Alendronate (Fosamax)

E. Alendronate (Fosamax). Ibandronate, raloxifene, denosumab, and etidronate have been shown to reduce new vertebral fractures, but are not proven to prevent hip fracture. Only zoledronic acid, risedronate, and alendronate have been confirmed in sufficiently powered studies to prevent hip fracture, and these are the anti-osteoporosis drugs of choice.

Which one of the following is most appropriate for the treatment of fibromyalgia syndrome? (check one) A. Metaxalone (Skelaxin) B. Hydrocodone C. Naproxen D. Tizanidine (Zanaflex) E. Amitriptyline

E. Amitriptyline. A meta-analysis of antidepressant medications for the treatment of fibromyalgia syndrome concluded that short-term use of amitriptyline and duloxetine can be considered for the treatment of pain and sleep disturbance in patients with fibromyalgia. In addition, a 2008 evidence-based review for the management of fibromyalgia syndrome performed for the European League Against Rheumatism recommends heated pool treatment with or without exercise, tramadol for the management of pain, and certain antidepressants,including amitriptyline. Evidence for long-term effectiveness of antidepressants in fibromyalgia syndrome is lacking, however.

A 50-year-old male is brought to the emergency department because of a syncopal episode.Prior to the episode, he felt bad for 30 minutes, then developed nausea followed by vomiting. During a second bout of vomiting he blacked out and fell to the floor. His wife did not observe any seizure activity, and he was unconscious only for a few seconds. His history is otherwise negative, his past medical history is unremarkable, and he currently takes no medications. A physical examination is normal. Which one of the following would be the most helpful next step? (check one) A. CT of the head B. Carotid ultrasonography C. A CBC and complete metabolic profile D. Echocardiography E. An EKG

E. An EKG. The workup of patients with syncope begins with a history and a physical examination to identify those at risk for a poor outcome. Patients who have a prodrome of 5 seconds or less may have a cardiac arrhythmia. Patients with longer prodromes, nausea, or vomiting are likely to have vasovagal syncope, which is a benign process. Patients who pass out after standing for 2 minutes are likely to have orthostatic hypotension. In most cases, the recommended test is an EKG. If the EKG is normal, dysrhythmias are not a likely cause of the syncopal episode. Laboratory testing and advanced studies such as CT or echocardiography are not necessary unless there are specific findings in either the history or the physical examination.

Which one of the following is associated with ulcerative colitis rather than Crohn's disease? (check one) A. The absence of rectal involvement B. Transmural involvement of the colon C. Segmental noncontinuous distribution of inflammation D. Fistula formation E. An increased risk of carcinoma of the colon

E. An increased risk of carcinoma of the colon. Long-standing ulcerative colitis (UC) is associated with an increased risk of colon cancer. The greater the duration and anatomic extent of involvement, the greater the risk. Initial colonoscopy for patients with pancolitis of 8-10 years duration (regardless of the patient's age) should be followed up with surveillance examinations every 1-2 years, even if the disease is in remission. All of the other options listed are features typically associated with Crohn's disease. Virtually all patients with UC have rectal involvement, even if that is the only area affected. In Crohn's disease, rectal involvement is variable. Noncontinuous and transmural inflammation are also more common with Crohn's disease. Transmural inflammation can lead to eventual fistula formation, which is not seen in UC.

A 3-year-old female is brought to your office with a 3-hour history of skin lesions that are prominent, warm, papular, and serpiginous (see Figure 3). Which one of the following is the most likely cause of these lesions? (check one) A. Heredity B. Physical abuse C. Infection D. A topical agent E. An oral medication

E. An oral medication. Acute urticaria occurs when an allergen activates mast cells in the skin, and is commonly caused by oral and parenteral drugs, food, and, less frequently, infections. Topical agents and physical abuse are unlikely to present in this manner, and hereditary angioedema is more a systemic illness than a skin disorder.

According to the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA), in which situation would a physician be allowed to disclose personal information without the patient's written authorization? (check one) A. The patient makes a verbal request to release information B. The patient's spouse requests information C. The adult children of the patient request written information D. A lawyer who claims to represent the patient requests information E. Another physician involved in the patient's care requests information

E. Another physician involved in the patient's care requests information. HIPAA legislation states that a patient's personal medical and financial information cannot be released unless the patient authorizes such a release in writing. The exceptions to this standard are the following: (1) coordination of care between providers and those involved in the patient's case (i.e., caretakers, nurses, consulting physicians); (2) arranging payment for medical services rendered; and (3) health-care operations such as evaluating a provider or system's competency or quality. The privacy rule allows some discretion to a physician in "coordinating care," even allowing a physician to speak with family members if that physician "in his or her professional judgment" feels it is in the patient's best interest. In such situations it is advisable to ask the patient's permission to do so if possible, and the information should be related on a need-to-know basis.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 40 ======================================================= Which one of the following is true regarding hospice? (check one) A. Hospice benefits end if the patient lives beyond the estimated 6-month life expectancy B. A do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order is required for a patient receiving Medicare hospice benefits C. Patients in hospice cannot receive chemotherapy, blood transfusions, or radiation treatments D. Patients must be referred to hospice by their physician E. Any terminal patient with a life expectancy <6 months is eligible

E. Any terminal patient with a life expectancy <6 months is eligible. Any patient with a life expectancy of less than 6 months who chooses a palliative care approach is an appropriate candidate for hospice. There is no penalty if patients do not die within 6 months, as long as the disease is allowed to run its natural course. Medicare does not require a DNR order to enroll in hospice, but it does require that patients seek only palliative, not curative, treatment. Patients may receive chemotherapy, blood transfusions, or radiation if the goal of the treatment is to provide symptom relief. Patients can be referred to hospice by anyone, including nurses, social workers, family members, or friends.

A 75-year-old otherwise healthy white female states that she has passed out three times in the last month while walking briskly during her daily walk with the local senior citizens mall walkers' club. This history would suggest which one of the following as the etiology of her syncope? (check one) A. Vasovagal syncope B. Transient ischemic attack C. Orthostatic hypotension D. Atrial myxoma E. Aortic stenosis

E. Aortic stenosis. Syncope with exercise is a manifestation of organic heart disease in which cardiac output is fixed and does not rise (or even fall) with exertion. Syncope, commonly on exertion, is reported in up to 42% of patients with severe aortic stenosis. Vasovagal syncope is associated with unpleasant stimuli or physiologic conditions, including sights, sounds, smells, sudden pain, sustained upright posture, heat, hunger, and acute blood loss. Transient ischemic attacks are not related to exertion. Orthostatic hypotension is associated with changing from a sitting or lying position to an upright position. Atrial myxoma is associated with syncope related to changes in position, such as bending, lying down from a seated position, or turning over in bed.

A 25-year-old white female with heavy menstrual periods is noted to have a hemoglobin level of 9.8 g/dL (N 12.0-16.0). The red cell distribution width is 16.0% (N 11.5-14.5) and the mean corpuscular volume is 75 µm3 (N 78-102). The appropriate treatment for this condition can be enhanced by the use of: (check one) A. Antacids B. Soy milk C. Iced tea D. Bran E. Ascorbic acid

E. Ascorbic acid. This patient has iron deficiency anemia. There are several substances that decrease the absorption of iron, including antacids, soy protein, calcium, tannin (which is in tea), and phytate (which is found in bran). Since an acidic environment increases iron absorption, ascorbic acid (vitamin C) can enhance absorption of an iron supplement.

A 58-year-old male who works with heavy machinery at a local factory presents to your office for evaluation of hearing loss of several years' progression. He notes that the loss is mainly in the left ear and he also has mild tinnitus. He has had no trauma to his head, and he has no history of ear infections. Examination of the ears reveals normal tympanic membranes and a neurologic examination is negative. When a tuning fork is placed in the center of his forehead, he says the sound is much louder on the right side (Weber test). Comparing sound in front of the ear to the sound when the tuning fork is placed on the mastoid (the Rinne test) reveals that air conduction is better than bone conduction in the left ear. Which one of the following is true regarding further evaluation and management? (check one) A. No treatment or further diagnostic studies are indicated B. A hearing aid plus better hearing protection is all that is needed C. Carotid ultrasonography should be ordered D. A tympanogram is indicated E. Audiometry is the best initial screening test

E. Audiometry is the best initial screening test. Acoustic neuroma symptoms are due to cranial nerve involvement and progression of tumor size. Hearing loss is present 95% of the time and tinnitus is very common. The loss is usually chronic (over 3 years) and as many as one-third of patients are unaware it has occurred. Vestibular nerve involvement most often causes mild unsteadiness and rarely has accompanying true vertigo. Trigeminal involvement can cause pain, paresthesias, or numbness of the face. Facial paresis occurs 6% of the time. The diagnosis of acoustic neuroma is based on asymmetric sensorineural hearing loss or another cranial nerve deficit, with confirmation based on MRI with gadolinium contrast or a CT scan. The best initial screening laboratory test is audiometry, as only 5% of patients with acoustic neuroma will have a normal test. Sensorineural loss is usually in the higher frequencies. Brainstem-evoked response audiometry may be used as a further screening measure when there are unexplained symmetrics and standard audiometric testing.

A 72-year-old female with longstanding diabetes mellitus presents to your office. During the review of systems, she complains of difficulty voiding and frequent "dribbling." A urinalysis is negative for infection and her post-void residual volume is 250 mL. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's urinary incontinence? (check one) A. Excess urine output due to hyperglycemia B. Atrophic vaginitis C. A grade II cystocele D. Asymptomatic bacteriuria E. Autonomic neuropathy

E. Autonomic neuropathy. Dribbling and increased post-void residual volume (>100 mL) are signs of overflow incontinence. Overflow incontinence can be caused by outflow obstruction (e.g., prostate hypertrophy, urethral constriction, fecal impaction) or, as in this case, by detrusor muscle denervation caused by diabetic or other neuropathies. Excess urine output from hyperglycemia would result in frequent urination, but not urinary retention. Atrophic vaginitis and cystoceles are usually associated with stress incontinence. Asymptomatic bacteriuria is unlikely because the patient does not have any evidence of infection.

An 18-year-old male presents with a sore throat, adenopathy, and fatigue. He has no evidence of airway compromise. A heterophil antibody test is positive for infectious mononucleosis. Appropriate management includes which one of the following? (check one) A. A corticosteroid B. An antihistamine C. An antiviral agent D. Strict bed rest E. Avoidance of contact sports

E. Avoidance of contact sports. Infectious mononucleosis presents most commonly with a sore throat, fatigue, myalgias, and lymphadenopathy, and is most prevalent between 10 and 30 years of age. Both an atypical lymphocytosis and a positive heterophil antibody test support the diagnosis, although false-negative heterophil testing is common early in the disease course. The cornerstone of treatment for mononucleosis is supportive, including hydration, NSAIDs, and throat sprays or lozenges. In general, corticosteroids do not have a significant effect on the clinical course of infectious mononucleosis, and they should not be used routinely unless the patient has evidence of acute airway obstruction. Antihistamines are also not recommended as routine treatment for mononucleosis. The use of acyclovir has shown no consistent or significant benefit, and antiviral drugs are not recommended. There is also no evidence to support bed rest as an effective management strategy for mononucleosis. Given the evidence from other disease states, bed rest may actually be harmful. Although most patients will not have a palpably enlarged spleen on examination, it is likely that all, or nearly all, patients with mononucleosis have splenomegaly. This was demonstrated in a small study in which 100% of patients hospitalized for mononucleosis had an enlarged spleen by ultrasound examination, whereas only 17% of patients with splenomegaly have a palpable spleen. Patients should be advised to avoid contact- or collision-type activities for 3-4 weeks because of the increased risk of rupture.

The most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in a sexually active 19-year-old female is (check one) A. Candida albicans B. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Staphylococcus D. Group B Streptococcus E. Bacterial vaginosis

E. Bacterial vaginosis. Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is the most common cause of acute vaginitis, accounting for up to 50% of cases in some populations. It is usually caused by a shift in normal vaginal flora. BV is considerably more common as a cause of vaginal discharge than C. albicans and T. vaginalis.

Which one of the following is necessary to make a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica? (check one) A. Joint swelling B. Early morning stiffness C. Reduction of symptoms with high-dose NSAID therapy D. An erythrocyte sedimentation rate ≥60 mm/hr E. Bilateral shoulder or hip stiffness and aching

E. Bilateral shoulder or hip stiffness and aching. There must be bilateral shoulder or hip stiffness and aching for at least one month in order to make the diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica. Joint swelling occurs occasionally, but neither swelling nor early morning stiffness is necessary to make the diagnosis. Polymyalgia rheumatica does not respond to NSAIDs. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate should be ≥40 mm/hr.

A previously healthy gravida 1 para 1 who is 3 weeks post partum complains of bilateral nipple pain with breastfeeding. When she first started breastfeeding she had some soreness that went away after repositioning with feeding. The current pain began gradually 3 days ago. It has been worsening, inhibiting feeding, and is present between feedings. Examination of the breast is notable for erythema and cracking of the areola. The most likely cause is: (check one) A. engorgement B. mastitis C. improper latch-on D. eczema flare E. Candida infection

E. Candida infection. In breastfeeding women, bilateral nipple pain with and between feedings after initial soreness has resolved is usually due to Candida. Pain from engorgement typically resolves after feeding. Mastitis is usually unilateral and is associated with systemic symptoms and wedge-shaped erythema of the breast tissue. Improper latch-on is painful only during feedings. Eczema isolated to the nipple, while a reasonable part of the differential, would be much more unusual.

A 75-year-old male has not seen a physician in 25 years and presents with advanced Parkinson's disease. The best initial treatment would be: (check one) A. Referral to a neurosurgeon for thalamotomy B. Amantadine (Symmetrel) C. Benztropine (Cogentin) D. Pramipexole (Mirapex) E. Carbidopa/levodopa (Sinemet)

E. Carbidopa/levodopa (Sinemet). While anticholinergics such as benztropine and amantadine may provide some improvement of symptoms, these effects wane within a few months. Such medications are not a good option in this patient with advanced disease. Dopamine agonists provide some improvement in motor complications, but are mainly used to delay the introduction of levodopa in younger patients, to avoid levodopa-related adverse reactions. Carbidopa/levodopa is better for initial therapy in older patients, and those who present with more severe symptoms. Slow-release versions of this combination may decrease motor fluctuations. Stereotactic thalamotomy is used to ameliorate tremors that have become disabling. This procedure has been replaced by other surgical options such as pallidotomy and high-frequency, deep-brain stimulation of specific nuclei.

Which one of the following is the leading cause of death in women? (check one) A. Breast cancer B. Lung cancer C. Ovarian cancer D. Osteoporosis E. Cardiovascular disease

E. Cardiovascular disease. Cardiovascular disease is the leading cause of death among women. According to the CDC, 29.3% of deaths in females in the U.S. in 2001 were due to cardiovascular disease and 21.6% were due to cancer, with most resulting from lung cancer. Breast cancer is the third most common cause of cancer death in women, and ovarian cancer is the fifth most common.

A 28-year-old male is seen for follow-up of acute low back pain. He has a past history of substance abuse. Ibuprofen and acetaminophen have helped some, but he is experiencing muscle spasms. It is best to avoid which one of the following when treating this patient's problem? (check one) A. Chlorzoxazone (Parafon Forte DSC) B. Metaxalone (Skelaxin) C. Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) D. Methocarbamol (Robaxin) E. Carisoprodol (Soma)

E. Carisoprodol (Soma). There is limited data regarding the effectiveness of muscle relaxants in musculoskeletal conditions, but strong evidence regarding their toxicity. Because the evidence for comparable effectiveness is weak, drug selection should be based on patient preference, side-effect profile, drug interactions, and abuse potential. Carisoprodol is metabolized to meprobamate, which is a class III controlled substance. It has been shown to produce both physical and psychologic dependence.

An 80-year-old male nursing-home resident is brought to the emergency department because of a severe, productive cough associated with a high fever, hypoxia, and hypotension. The patient is found to have a left lower lobe pneumonia, and admission to the intensive-care unit is advised. Which one of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic therapy for this patient? (check one) A. Moxifloxacin (Avelox) B. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) and azithromycin (Zithromax) C. Doxycycline D. Ceftriaxone and metronidazole (Flagyl) E. Ceftazidime (Fortaz), imipenem/cilastatin (Primaxin), and vancomycin (Vancocin)

E. Ceftazidime (Fortaz), imipenem/cilastatin (Primaxin), and vancomycin (Vancocin). Empiric coverage for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus and double coverage for pseudomonal pneumonia should be prescribed in patients with nursing home-acquired pneumonia requiring intensive-care unit admission (SOR B).

An 82-year-old resident of a local nursing home is brought to your clinic with fever, difficulty breathing, and a cough productive of purulent sputum. The patient is found to have an oxygen saturation of 86% on room air and a chest radiograph shows a new infiltrate. A decision is made to hospitalize the patient. Which one of the following intravenous antibiotic regimens would be most appropriate for this patient? (check one) A. Levofloxacin (Levaquin) B. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) and azithromycin (Zithromax) C. Ceftazidime (Fortaz, Tazicef) and levofloxacin D. Ceftazidime and vancomycin E. Ceftazidime, levofloxacin, and vancomycin

E. Ceftazidime, levofloxacin, and vancomycin. Nursing home-acquired pneumonia should be suspected in patients with a new infiltrate on a chest radiograph if it is associated with a fever, leukocytosis, purulent sputum, or hypoxia. Nursing-home patients who are hospitalized for pneumonia should be started on intravenous antimicrobial therapy, with empiric coverage for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. The 2005 American Thoracic Society/Infectious Diseases Society of America guideline recommends combination therapy consisting of an antipseudomonal cephalosporin such as cefepime or ceftazidime, an antipseudomonal carbapenem such as imipenem or meropenem, or an extended-spectrum β-lactam/β-lactamase inhibitor such as piperacillin/tazobactam, PLUS an antipseudomonal fluoroquinolone such as levofloxacin or ciprofloxacin, or an aminoglycoside such as gentamicin, tobramycin, or amikacin, PLUS an anti-MRSA agent (vancomycin or linezolid). Ceftriaxone and azithromycin or levofloxacin alone would be reasonable treatment options for a patient with nursing home-acquired pneumonia who does not require hospitalization.

A 50-year-old female with significant findings of rheumatoid arthritis presents for a preoperative evaluation for planned replacement of the metacarpophalangeal joints of her right hand under general anesthesia. She generally enjoys good health and has had ongoing medical care for her illness. Of the following, which one would be most important for preoperative assessment of this patient's surgical risk? (check one) A. Resting pulse rate B. Resting oxygen saturation C. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate D. Rheumatoid factor titer E. Cervical spine imaging

E. Cervical spine imaging. While all of the options listed may have some value in evaluating the preoperative status of a patient with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis, imaging of the patient's cervical spine to detect atlantoaxial subluxation would be most important for preventing a catastrophic spinal cord injury during intubation. In many cases, cervical fusion must be performed before other elective procedures can be contemplated. Although rheumatoid arthritis may influence oxygen saturation and the erythrocyte sedimentation rate, these tests would not alert the surgical team to the possibility of significant operative morbidity and mortality. Resting pulse rate and rheumatoid factor are unlikely to be significant factors in this preoperative scenario.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 79 ======================================================= Which one of the following would be the most effective monotherapy for alcohol withdrawal syndrome? (check one) A. Clonidine (Catapres) B. Phenytoin (Dilantin) C. Atenolol (Tenormin) D. Phenobarbital E. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)

E. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium). Alcohol withdrawal syndrome encompasses a wide range of symptoms involving primarily the central nervous, cardiovascular, and gastrointestinal systems, and is mediated by the abrupt removal of alcohol-enhanced GABA inhibition of excitatory glutamate receptors in the central nervous system. It generally is divided into three stages, based on severity and timeline; seizures may occur during any of these stages and may be the first sign of withdrawal. The ideal pharmacologic agent should provide not only safe sedation but also protection from seizures. Long-acting benzodiazepines such as chlordiazepoxide have been shown to be superior to the other choices in numerous studies. Clonidine and atenolol have been found to be useful in symptom reduction but not in seizure prevention. Phenytoin would seem to offer protection from seizures, but studies have not consistently shown this to be the case. Phenobarbital, while effective, has a very narrow therapeutic window, making its use problematic.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 24 ======================================================= Which one of the following organisms is NOT killed by alcohol-based hand disinfectants? (check one) A. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) B. Methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Klebsiella pneumoniae E. Clostridium difficile

E. Clostridium difficile. Sporulating organisms such as Clostridium difficile are not killed by alcohol products. Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Klebsiella pneumoniae are killed by alcohol products (SOR A).

A 50-year-old male with a history of methamphetamine abuse requests medication to treat this problem. According to evidence-based studies, which one of the following would be most likely to help this patient overcome methamphetamine dependence? (check one) A. Fluoxetine (Prozac) B. Amlodipine (Norvasc) C. Imipramine D. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) E. Cognitive therapy

E. Cognitive therapy. Methamphetamine dependence is very difficult to treat. No medications have been approved by the FDA for the treatment of this problem, nor have any studies shown consistent benefit to date. The standard therapy for methamphetamine dependence is outpatient behavioral therapies, especially with case management included. Therapy must be individualized. Support groups and 12-step drug-treatment programs may be helpful.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 80 ======================================================= A 70-year-old female with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the hospital with a 4-week history of fever, anorexia, and weight loss. Two blood cultures are positive for Streptococcus bovis. In addition to being treated for the infection, she should be evaluated for which one of the following? (check one) A. B-cell lymphoma B. T-cell lymphoma C. Multiple myeloma D. Lung cancer E. Colorectal cancer

E. Colorectal cancer. For unknown reasons, Streptococcus bovis bacteremia or endocarditis is associated with a high incidence of occult colorectal malignancies. It may also occur with upper gastrointestinal cancers. Radiography or endoscopy is indicated.

A 45-year-old male with chronic nonmalignant back pain is on a chronic narcotic regimen. Which one of the following behaviors is LEAST likely to be associated with pseudoaddiction, as opposed to true addiction? (check one) A. Requesting a specific drug B. Aggressive complaining about needing more medication C. Hoarding drugs during periods of reduced symptoms D. Requesting medication exactly at prescribed times when hospitalized E. Concurrent abuse of alcohol or illicit drugs

E. Concurrent abuse of alcohol or illicit drugs. The use of narcotics for chronic nonmalignant pain is becoming more commonplace. Guidelines have been developed to help direct the use of these medications when clinically appropriate. However, even when given appropriately, the use of opioid medications for pain relief can cause both the physician and the patient to be concerned about the possibility of addiction. Addiction is a neurobiologic, multifactorial disease characterized by impaired control, compulsive drug use, and continued use despite harm. Pseudoaddiction is a term used to describe patient behaviors that may occur when pain is undertreated. Patients with unrelieved pain may become focused on obtaining specific medications, seem to watch the clock, or engage in other behaviors that appear to be due to inappropriate drug seeking. Pseudoaddiction can be distinguished from true addiction because the behaviors will resolve when the pain is effectively treated. The concurrent use of alcohol and/or illicit drugs complicates the management of chronic pain in patients. If these are known problems, patients should be referred for psychiatric or pain specialty evaluation before the decision is made to use opioids. Agreements for use of chronic opioids should include the expectation that alcohol and illicit drugs will not be used concurrently, and doing so suggests addiction rather than pseudoaddiction.

You have been asked to see a 75-year-old female who has just had hip surgery to correct a fractured femoral neck. She has a 2-year history of diabetes mellitus treated with pioglitazone (Actos), 30 mg daily, and metformin (Glucophage), 1000 mg twice daily. She is now fully alert and has been able to eat her evening meal. A physical examination is normal except for her being mildly overweight and having a bandage on her left hip. A CBC and chemistry profile done earlier today were normal except for a serum glucose level of 200 mg/dL. Her hemoglobin A1c at an office visit 2 weeks ago was 6.8%. Which one of the following would be the best management of this patient's diabetes at this time? (check one) A. Stop her usual medications and begin a sliding-scale insulin regimen B. Stop the metformin only C. Initiate an insulin drip to maintain glucose levels of 80-120 mg/dL D. Decrease the dosage of pioglitazone E. Continue with her usual medication regimen

E. Continue with her usual medication regimen. Current evidence indicates that traditional sliding-scale insulin as the only means of controlling glucose in hospitalized patients is inadequate. For patients in a surgical intensive-care unit, using an insulin drip to maintain tight glucose control decreases the risk of sepsis but has no mortality benefit. Metformin should be stopped if the serum creatinine level is ≥1.5 mg/dL in men or ≥1.4 mg/dL in women, or if an imaging procedure requiring contrast is needed. In patients who have not had their hemoglobin A 1c measured in the past 30 days, this could be done to provide a better indication of glucose control. If adequate control has been demonstrated and no contraindications are noted, the patient's usual medication regimen should be continued (SOR B).

A 44-year-old female who suffers from obstructive sleep apnea complains of gradual swelling in her legs over the last several weeks. Her vital signs include a BMI of 44.1 kg/m2 , a respiratory rate of 12/min, a blood pressure of 120/78 mm Hg, and an O 2 saturation of 86% on room air. An EKG and a chest radiograph are normal. Pulmonary function testing shows a restrictive pattern with no signs of abnormal diffusion. Abnormal blood tests include only a significantly elevated bicarbonate level. Which one of the following treatments is most likely to reduce this patient's mortality rate? (check one) A. ACE inhibitors B. Routine use of nebulized albuterol (AccuNeb) C. High-dose diuretic therapy D. Continuous oxygen therapy E. Continuous or bilevel positive airway pressure (CPAP or Bi-PAP)

E. Continuous or bilevel positive airway pressure (CPAP or Bi-PAP). This patient has obesity-hypoventilation syndrome, often referred to as Pickwickian syndrome. These patients are obese (BMI >30 kg/m 2 ), have sleep apnea, and suffer from chronic daytime hypoxia andcarbon dioxide retention. They are at increased risk for significant respiratory failure and death compared to patients with otherwise similar demographics. Treatment consists of nighttime positive airway pressure in the form of continuous (CPAP) or bi-level (BiPAP) devices, as indicated by sleep testing. The more hours per day that patients can use this therapy, the less carbon dioxide retention and less daytime hypoxia will ensue. Several small studies suggest that the increased mortality risk from obesity-hypoventilation syndrome can be decreased by adhering to this therapy. The use of daytime oxygen can improve oxygenation, but is not considered adequate to restore the chronic low respiratory drive that is characteristic of this condition.

A 31-year-old female who is a successful professional photographer complains of hoarseness that started suddenly 3 weeks ago. She says she can remember exactly what day it was, because her divorce became final the next day. The day the problem began, she was only able to whisper from the time she woke up, and she is able to speak only in a weak whisper while relating her history. She does not appear to strain while speaking. She does not smoke, has had no symptoms of an upper respiratory infection, and has no pain, cough, or wheezing. She is on a proton pump inhibitor prescribed by an urgent care provider 2 weeks ago. This has not changed her symptoms. She takes no other medications and has no known allergies. A head and neck examination, including indirect laryngoscopy, is within normal limits. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Muscle tension aphonia B. Laryngopharyngeal reflux C. Spasmodic dysphonia D. Vocal abuse E. Conversion aphonia

E. Conversion aphonia. This patient has conversion aphonia. In this condition, the patient loses his or her spoken voice, but the whispered voice is maintained. The vocal cords appear normal, but if observed closely by an otolaryngologist, there is a loss of vocal cord adduction during phonation, but normal adduction with coughing or throat clearing. This often occurs after a traumatic event (in this case a divorce) (SOR C). Muscle tension aphonia presents with strained, effortful phonation, vocal fatigue, and normal vocal cords. It is caused by excessive laryngeal or extralaryngeal tension associated with a variety of factors, including poor breath control and stress, for example. The patient with laryngopharyngeal reflux presents with a raspy or harsh voice. The hoarseness is usually worse early in the day and improves as the day goes by. There is usually associated heartburn, dysphagia, and/or throat clearing. The patient with spasmodic dysphonia (also known as laryngeal dystonia) has a halting, strangled vocal quality. It is a distinct neuromuscular disorder of unknown cause. Uncontrolled contractions of the laryngeal muscles cause focal laryngeal spasm. The hoarseness of vocal abuse is usually worse later in the day after effortful singing or talking. The history usually reveals vocal cord abuse, such as with an untrained singer or some other situation that increases demands on the voice. Nodules or cysts may be seen on the vocal cords with this condition.

A 40-year-old male with HIV infection presents to the emergency department with a 5-day history of progressive cough and dyspnea on exertion. A chest radiograph shows bilateral diffuse interstitial infiltrates. Arterial blood gas levels show an increased alveolar-arterial gradient and a pO2 of 60 mm Hg. His CBC is normal but his CD4 count is 150/mm3 . In addition to trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra), which one of the following medications should be prescribed? (check one) A. Pentamidine (Pentam) B. Dapsone C. Atovaquone (Mepron) D. Clindamycin (Cleocin) and primaquine E. Corticosteroids

E. Corticosteroids. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole is the treatment of choice for acute Pneumocystis pneumonia. Adjunctive corticosteroids should also be started in any patient whose initial pO2 on room air is <70 mm Hg. Three prospective trials have shown that there is a decrease in mortality and frequency of respiratory failure when corticosteroids are used in addition to antibiotics. All of the other medications listed are effective therapy for Pneumocystis pneumonia, but they do not need to be given with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole.

A 4-year-old Hispanic female has been discovered to have a congenital hearing loss. Her mother is an 18-year-old migrant farm worker who is currently at 8 weeks' gestation with her second pregnancy. The mother has been found to have cervical dysplasia on her current Papanicolaou (Pap) smear and has also tested positive for Chlamydia. The most likely cause of this child's hearing loss is: (check one) A. Human parvovirus B19 B. Varicella zoster virus C. Herpes simplex virus D. Toxoplasmosis E. Cytomegalovirus

E. Cytomegalovirus. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the most common congenital infection and occurs in up to 2.2% of newborns. It is the leading cause of congenital hearing loss. The virus is transmitted by contact with infected blood, urine, or saliva, or by sexual contact. Risk factors for CMV include low socioeconomic status, birth outside North America, first pregnancy prior to age 15, a history of cervical dysplasia, and a history of sexually transmitted diseases. Infection can be primary or a reactivation of a previous infection. While the greatest risk of infection is during the third trimester, those occurring in the first trimester are the most dangerous to the fetus.

Patients with which rheumatologic condition have the highest relative risk of internal malignancy compared to the general population? (check one) A. Systemic scleroderma B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Sjögren's syndrome D. Rheumatoid arthritis E. Dermatomyositis

E. Dermatomyositis. In one study, 32% of patients with dermatomyositis had cancer. The risk of cancer was highest at the time of diagnosis, but remained high into the third year after diagnosis. The cancer types most commonly found were ovarian, pulmonary, pancreatic, gastric, and colorectal, as well as non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.Among patients with polymyositis, 15% developed cancer. Cancer rates in patients with rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and scleroderma were above those of the general population, but much lower than for patients with dermatomyositis. In Sjögren's syndrome, the risk of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is 44 times higher than in the general population, with an individual lifetime risk of 6%-10%.

A 60-year-old African-American female has a history of hypertension that has been well controlled with hydrochlorothiazide. However, she has developed an allergy to the medication. Successful monotherapy for her hypertension would be most likely with which one of the following? (check one) A. Lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril) B. Hydralazine (Apresoline) C. Clonidine (Catapres) D. Atenolol (Tenormin) E. Diltiazem (Cardizem)

E. Diltiazem (Cardizem). Monotherapy for hypertension in African-American patients is more likely to consist of diuretics or calcium channel blockers than β-blockers or ACE inhibitors. It has been suggested that hypertension in African-Americans is not as angiotensin II-dependent as it appears to be in Caucasians.

A 32-year-old primipara is ready to be discharged after a full-term vaginal delivery that was complicated by a prolonged second stage of labor. She required a second-degree posterior vaginal repair, but had no periurethral trauma. A transurethral catheter was removed a few hours after delivery, but 48 hours later she complained of abdominal pain and a persistent need to urinate. The catheter was replaced and yielded approximately 2000 cc of straw-colored urine. Urinary symptoms quickly resolved, but the patient continues to be unable to void on her own. A perineal examination is normal, as is a urinalysis. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management at this time? (check one) A. Oxybutynin (Ditropan), 10 mg daily B. Prednisone, starting with 60 mg/day and tapering quickly over 7 days C. Urgent vaginal ultrasonography D. Urology consultation for cystoscopy E. Discharge with a catheter in place and close follow-up

E. Discharge with a catheter in place and close follow-up. This patient suffers from postpartum urinary retention (PUR). PUR is often defined as a post-void bladder residual of at least 150 cc that is present 6 hours or more after delivery. This condition is more likely to occur in patients who are primiparous, have a prolonged first or second stage of labor, have instrumented vaginal deliveries, or require a cesarean section for failure to progress. The question of whether epidural anesthesia promotes the condition is still debated. Most cases of PUR will resolve 2-6 days after delivery, but some can take up to several weeks. The use of intermittent self-catheterization or a transurethral catheter is recommended until the patient's ability to spontaneously micturate returns. Imaging studies and referrals to a specialist are rarely necessary, and no medication has been proven helpful.

Which one of the following is contraindicated in the second and third trimesters of pregnancy? (check one) A. Amoxicillin B. Azithromycin (Zithromax) C. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) D. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) E. Doxycycline

E. Doxycycline. Doxycycline is contraindicated in the second and third trimesters of pregnancy due to the risk of permanent discoloration of tooth enamel in the fetus. Cephalosporins such as ceftriaxone are usually considered safe to use during pregnancy. The use of ciprofloxacin during pregnancy does not appear to increase the risk of major congenital malformation, nor does the use of amoxicillin. Animal studies using rats and mice treated with daily doses of azithromycin up to maternally toxic levels revealed no impairment of fertility or harm to the fetus.

Which one of the following is effective for single-dose prophylaxis against Lyme disease after an Ixodes scapularis tick bite? (check one) A. Azithromycin (Zithromax) B. Amoxicillin C. Cefuroxime (Ceftin) D. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra) E. Doxycycline

E. Doxycycline. In controlled studies, it has been shown that a single 200-mg dose of doxycycline given within 72 hours after an Ixodes scapularis tick bite can prevent the development of Lyme disease.

A 24-year-old primigravida has nausea and vomiting associated with pregnancy. Which one of the following is recommended by the American Congress of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG) as first-line therapy? (check one) A. Droperidol (Inapsine) B. Ondansetron (Zofran) C. Prochlorperazine D. Metoclopramide (Reglan) E. Doxylamine (Unisom) and vitamin B6

E. Doxylamine (Unisom) and vitamin B6. Approximately 10% of women with nausea and vomiting during pregnancy require medication. Pharmacologic therapies that have been used include vitamin B6 , antihistamines, and prokinetic agents, as well as other medications. Randomized, placebo-controlled trials have shown that vitamin B6 is effective for this problem. The combination of vitamin B 6 and doxylamine was studied in more than 6000 patients and was associated with a 70% reduction in nausea and vomiting, with no evidence of teratogenicity. It is recommended by the American Congress of Obstetricians and Gynecologists as first-line therapy for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy. A combination pill was removed from the U.S. market in 1983 because of unjustified concerns about teratogenicity, but the medications can be bought separately over the counter. In rare cases, metoclopramide has been associated with tardive dyskinesia, and the FDA has issued a black-box warning concerning the use of this drug in general. The 5-HT3 -receptor antagonists, such as ondansetron, are being used for hyperemesis in pregnancy, but information is limited. Droperidol has been used for this problem in the past, but it is now used infrequently because of its risks, particularly heart arrhythmias.

A 70-year-old female becomes psychotic and risperidone (Risperdal) is prescribed. Which one of the following should be used to monitor the patient for adverse cardiac effects of this drug? (check one) A. Serum sodium levels B. Echocardiography C. Nuclear stress testing D. Lower-extremity venous duplex ultrasonography E. Electrocardiography

E. Electrocardiography. Both typical and atypical antipsychotics can cause prolongation of the QTc interval, resulting in torsades de pointes, ventricular tachycardia, and sudden death. The best way of monitoring the QTc interval is electrocardiography.

A 59-year-old white male is being evaluated for hypertension. His blood pressure is 150/95 mm Hg. His medical history includes impotence, asthma, gout, first degree heart block, diet-controlled diabetes mellitus, and depression, but he is currently taking no medications. He has a past history of alcohol abuse, but quit drinking 10 years ago. Which one of the following would be the best choice for INITIAL therapy of his hypertension? (check one) A. Propranolol (Inderal) B. Verapamil (Calan, Isoptin) C. Clonidine (Catapres) D. Hydrochlorothiazide/triamterene (Dyazide) E. Enalapril (Vasotec)

E. Enalapril (Vasotec). Because of their favorable side-effect profile, ACE inhibitors (e.g., enalapril) may be the drugs of first choice for the majority of unselected hypertensive patients. ACE inhibitors are not associated with depression or sedation, and they are safe to use in patients with diabetes mellitus. Centrally-acting α-blockers can be associated with depression. Calcium-channel blockers, β-blockers, and other sympatholytic drugs affect cardiac conductivity.β-Blockers are contraindicated in patients with asthma, and are also associated with impotence. Thiazide diuretics raise uric acid and blood glucose levels.

A 72-year-old white female is scheduled to undergo a total knee replacement for symptomatic osteoarthritis. She is otherwise healthy, with no history of vascular disease or deep vein thrombosis. She takes no routine medications. Which one of the following is most appropriate for prophylaxis against deep vein thrombosis? (check one) A. No prophylaxis if there are no surgical complications B. Aspirin, 325 mg daily C. Unfractionated heparin, 5000 U subcutaneously every 12 hours D. Thigh-high compression stockings E. Enoxaparin (Lovenox), 30 mg subcutaneously every 12 hours

E. Enoxaparin (Lovenox), 30 mg subcutaneously every 12 hours. Prophylaxis is indicated with total knee or hip replacements. The two regimens recommended are low-molecular-weight heparin and adjusted-dose warfarin. These may be augmented by intermittent pneumatic compression.

The treatment of choice for a 4-month-old infant with suspected pertussis is: (check one) A. Supportive care (respiratory, fluids) only B. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) C. Ampicillin D. Gentamicin (Garamycin) E. Erythromycin

E. Erythromycin. In spite of widespread vaccination of infants, pertussis occurs endemically in 3- to 5-year cycles in the U.S. It appears to be more common within populations not routinely immunized, such as Mennonite communities, but can occur widely. Infants younger than 6 months are affected most severely, although pertussis occurs in all age groups. The diagnosis is made by nasopharyngeal culture, but because the disease is uncommon and the organism is fastidious, laboratory personnel should be advised of the physician's suspicion of pertussis. Treatment includes respiratory and nutritional supportive care, particularly for infants younger than 6 months. Antibiotic therapy is most effective in shortening the illness when given early, during the upper respiratory phase, but is indicated at any stage to reduce the spread of disease to others. The drug of choice is erythromycin, 40-50 mg/kg/day divided into four doses, for 14 days. Also effective are azithromycin and clarithromycin, which may be better tolerated with improved compliance. Resistance to these agents is rare. Penicillins and cephalosporins are ineffective. Gentamicin is potentially very toxic, and is not indicated.

A 25-year-old female at 31 weeks gestation presents to the labor wing with painful uterine contractions every 3 minutes. On examination her cervix is 3 cm dilated and 50% effaced. Her membranes are intact and fetal heart monitoring is reassuring. She is treated with tocolysis,betamethasone, antibiotics, and intravenous hydration, and cultured for group B Streptococcus. The neonatal intensive care unit is notified, but the contractions ease and eventually stop. After 2 days of observation, her cervix is unchanged and she is discharged home. One week later, the patient presents with contractions for the last 8 hours. Her cervical findings are unchanged. Her group B Streptococcus culture was negative. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient? (check one) A. Repeat tocolysis, betamethasone, antibiotics, and intravenous hydration B. Betamethasone, antibiotics, and intravenous hydration only C. Antibiotics and intravenous hydration only D. Tocolysis only E. Expectant management

E. Expectant management. The purpose of obstetric management of preterm labor before 34 weeks gestation is to allow time to administer corticosteroids. Treatment does not substantially delay delivery beyond 1 week. Repeated administration of corticosteroids does not confer more benefit than a single course. Antibiotics are administered for prophylaxis of group B Streptococcus and are useful for delaying delivery if membranes are ruptured. They do not add any benefit otherwise, even though subclinical amnionitis may be a causative factor in many cases of preterm labor. Prolonged and repeated tocolysis is believed to be harmful. Tocolysis would not be indicated in this patient because she has had no cervical change and is therefore having preterm contractions, not preterm labor. Careful monitoring for fetal compromise, consultation with obstetric colleagues, and neonatal intensive-care unit involvement should be part of expectant management of preterm labor cases.

The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) has stated that the potential cardiovascular benefits of daily aspirin use outweigh the potential harms of gastrointestinal hemorrhage in certain populations. The USPSTF currently recommends daily aspirin use for which one of the following populations? (check one) A. Males 25-44 years of age B. Males over 80 years of age C. Females 25-44 years of age D. Females over 45 years of age E. Females 55-79 years of age

E. Females 55-79 years of age. The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) recommends daily aspirin use for males 45-79 years of age when the potential benefit of a reduction in myocardial infarction outweighs the potential harm of an increase in gastrointestinal hemorrhage, and for females 55-79 years of age when the potential benefit of a reduction in ischemic strokes outweighs the potential harm of an increase in gastrointestinal hemorrhage (SOR A, USPSTF A Recomendation). The USPSTF has concluded that the current evidence is insufficient to assess the balance of benefits and harms of aspirin for cardiovascular disease prevention in men and women 80 years of age or older (USPSTF I Recommendation). It recommends against the use of aspirin for stroke prevention in women younger than 55, and for myocardial infarction prevention in men younger than 45 (USPSTF D Recommendation).

A 34-year-old white female comes to the office for a Papanicolaou (Pap) test. On a review-of-system checklist, she checks "yes" to depressive symptoms, insomnia, and anxiety. On questioning, she admits to feeling depressed for about 4 months, after a recent job change. She is not suicidal. With probing, she admits that she repeatedly checks her locks and constantly worries about cleanliness; she has been this way "all of her life," but finds it very time-consuming. Which one of the following drugs is the best choice for this patient? (check one) A. Risperidone (Risperdal) B. Clorazepate (Tranxene) C. Clonazepam (Klonopin) D. Imipramine (Tofranil) E. Fluoxetine (Prozac)

E. Fluoxetine (Prozac). The patient most likely has obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) with a depressive episode. SSRIs are most frequently used. Risperidone and clonazepam are considered second-line drugs and are used as augmentation drugs when there is a partial response to an SSRI. There is no evidence that clorazepate or imipramine is effective in OCD.

A 27-year-old white female has a 10-year history of significant premenstrual dysphoria. Her condition has significantly worsened in the past 3 years, to the point that it is endangering her marriage of 5 years. Her symptoms are worse for the 10 days prior to her menstrual period and are gone by day 2 of her period. She has tried several measures without success, including birth control pills, various herbal preparations, and counseling at a woman's health center. Which one of the following is most likely to improve her symptoms? (check one) A. Reduction of caffeine and refined sugar intake B. Alprazolam (Xanax) C. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) D. Progesterone for 2 weeks starting at about the time of ovulation E. Fluoxetine (Prozac, Serafem) for the last 2 weeks of the menstrual cycle

E. Fluoxetine (Prozac, Serafem) for the last 2 weeks of the menstrual cycle. Several randomized trials have shown that they are superior to placebo for this condition. Fluoxetine and sertraline have been studied the most. There have been no controlled trials to support anecdotal reports of benefit from the reduction of caffeine or refined sugar. Studies using alprazolam have shown it to be effective for premenstrual anxiety only. Progesterone has not been proven more effective than placebo in clinical trials, and bupropion is less effective than agents that primarily boost serotonergic activity. Treatment during the luteal phase alone has been shown to be more effective than continuous treatment for this condition.

Which one of the following would most likely be found in a patient with giardiasis? (check one) A. Fecal leukocytosis B. Mucus in the stool C. Eosinophilia D. Hematochezia E. Foul-smelling flatus

E. Foul-smelling flatus. The diagnosis of giardiasis is suggested by its most characteristic symptoms: foul-smelling, soft, or loose stools; foul-smelling flatus; belching; marked abdominal distention; and the virtual absence of mucus or blood in the stool. Stools are usually mushy between exacerbations, though constipation may occur. If eosinophilia occurs, it is more likely to be related to some other concomitant cause rather than to giardiasis.

You are asked to see a mentally challenged 45-year-old male from a nearby group home who has groin pain. On examination you notice that he has large ears, a prominent jaw, and large symmetric testicles. These findings are consistent with: (check one) A. a variant form of Down syndrome B. Asperger's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. homocystinuria E. Fragile X syndrome

E. Fragile X syndrome. Fragile X syndrome accounts for more cases of mental retardation in males than any other genetic disorder except Down syndrome; about one in 4000-6000 males is affected. Down syndrome, Klinefelter's syndrome, and homocystinuria do not present with the described findings. Asperger's syndrome is a variant of autism in people of normal to high intelligence. Patients with Klinefelter's syndrome usually have small testicles.

======================================================= Cardiovascular Board Review Questions 04 ======================================================= A 73-year-old male with COPD presents to the emergency department with increasing dyspnea. Examination reveals no sign of jugular venous distention. A chest examination reveals decreased breath sounds and scattered rhonchi, and the heart sounds are very distant but no gallop or murmur is noted. There is +1 edema of the lower extremities. Chest radiographs reveal cardiomegaly but no pleural effusion. The patient's B-type natriuretic peptide level is 850 pg/mL (N <100) and his serum creatinine level is 0.8 mg/dL (N 0.6-1.5). Which one of the following would be the most appropriate initial management? (check one) A. Intravenous heparin B. Tiotropium (Spiriva) C. Levalbuterol (Xopenex) via nebulizer D. Prednisone, 20 mg twice daily for 1 week E. Furosemide (Lasix), 40 mg intravenously

E. Furosemide (Lasix), 40 mg intravenously. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is secreted in the ventricles and is sensitive to changes in left ventricular function. Concentrations correlate with end-diastolic pressure, which in turn correlates with dyspnea and congestive heart failure. BNP levels can be useful when trying to determine whether dyspnea is due to cardiac, pulmonary, or deconditioning etiologies. A value of less than 100 pg/mL excludes congestive heart failure as the cause for dyspnea. If it is greater than 400 pg/mL, the likelihood of congestive heart failure is 95%. Patients with values of 100-400 pg/mL need further investigation. There are some pulmonary problems that may elevate BNP, such as lung cancer, cor pulmonale, and pulmonary embolus. However, these patients do not have the same extent of elevation that those with acute left ventricular dysfunction will have. If these problems can be ruled out, then individuals with levels between 100-400 pg/mL most likely have congestive heart failure. Initial therapy should be a loop diuretic. It should be noted that BNP is partially excreted by the kidneys, so levels are inversely proportional to creatinine clearance.

Which one of the following is a risk factor for acute pancreatitis? (check one) A. Gastroesophageal reflux disease B. Intravenous drug abuse C. Angiotensin receptor blocker use D. Pyelonephritis E. Gallstones

E. Gallstones. Pancreatitis is most closely associated with gallstones, extreme hypertrigliceridemia, and excessive alcohol use. Gastroesophageal reflux disease, pyelonephritis, drug abuse (other than alcohol), and angiotensin receptor blocker use are not risk factors for the development of pancreatitis.

An elderly male patient takes aspirin, 81 mg daily, for prevention of a heart attack. He also takes herbal supplements. Which one of the following supplements can have a negative interaction with aspirin? (check one) A. Kava B. Yohimbine C. Saw palmetto D. Echinacea E. Ginkgo biloba

E. Ginkgo biloba. Herbal and dietary supplements can affect the absorption, metabolism, and disposition of other drugs. Ginkgo biloba has been associated with serious intracerebral bleeding. In most of these patients, concurrent anticoagulant drugs were being used. Ginkgo has been shown in vitro to inhibit platelet aggregation and has been associated with case reports of spontaneous bleeding. Caution is recommended when using this supplement with aspirin or other anticoagulants. Kava is associated with gastrointestinal side effects and skin rashes. Yohimbine is associated with hypertension. Saw palmetto and echinacea are not associated with bleeding.

In a patient with symptoms of thyrotoxicosis and elevated free thyroxine (T4 ), the presence of thyroid TSH receptor site antibodies would indicate which one of the following as the cause of thyroid gland enlargement? (check one) A. Toxic multinodular goiter B. Toxic adenoma C. Hashimoto's (lymphadenoid) thyroiditis D. Subacute (giant cell) thyroiditis E. Graves' disease

E. Graves' disease. When there is a question about the etiology of goiter and thyrotoxicosis, the presence of thyroid TSH receptor immunoglobulins would indicate the presence of Graves' disease, which is considered an autoimmune disease. The prevalence of specific forms of TSH receptor site antibodies can distinguish Graves' disease from Hashimoto's disease. Both are autoimmune diseases, but in Graves' disease there is a predominance of TSH receptor antibodies. In Hashimoto's disease TSH receptor-blocking antibodies are more predominant. These immunoglobulins tend to disappear during therapy.

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention currently recommends that all patients between the ages of 13 and 64 years be screened for: (check one) A. tuberculosis B. hepatitis B C. human papillomavirus infection D. elevated serum cholesterol levels E. HIV infection

E. HIV infection. The focus of screening for HIV has been shifted from testing only high-risk individuals to routine testing of all individuals in health-care settings. There are an estimated 1.1 million people in the United States with HIV, and 25% are undiagnosed. Only 36.6% of adults have had an HIV test. Screening for hepatitis B and for tuberculosis is recommended only for certain at-risk populations. There is no generally used test for human papillomavirus. The CDC has not made any recommendations regarding screening for high cholesterol.

The condition shown in Figure 4 occurred in a 31-year-old sexually active male. Which one of the following is true regarding this problem? (check one) A. Diagnosis by biopsy and viral typing is recommended B. Acetowhite staining is indicated to accurately map margins prior to treatment C. Treatment with 5% fluorouracil cream (Efudex) is effective and safe D. Treatment has a favorable impact on the incidence of cervical and genital cancer E. HPV testing is indicated for this patient's sexual partners

E. HPV testing is indicated for this patient's sexual partners. Genital warts are typically caused by human papillomavirus (HPV) types 5 and 11, which are rarely associated with invasive squamous cell carcinoma. In general, chemical treatments are more effective on soft, moist, nonkeratinized genital lesions, while physical ablative treatments are more effective for keratinized lesions. Diagnosis by biopsy and viral typing is no longer recommended. Acetowhite staining has not been shown to favorably affect the course or treatment of HPV-associated genital warts. Topical 5% fluorouracil cream has been associated with severe local reactions and teratogenicity, and is no longer recommended. Treatment of genital warts has not been shown to reduce the incidence of cervical or genital cancer.

A 72-year-old Hispanic female with moderately severe Alzheimer's disease is hospitalized for treatment of a fracture of the left humerus. The first night after admission she becomes confused and agitated. The most appropriate management at this point is which one of the following? (check one) A. Physical restraints B. Benzodiazepines for agitation C. Meperidol (Demerol) for pain control D. Moving the patient to the intensive-care unit for better monitoring E. Having a bedsitter or family member stay in the room to reassure and orient the patient

E. Having a bedsitter or family member stay in the room to reassure and orient the patient. Delirium is a frequent complication of hospital admission in older patients, especially those with preexisting dementia. Orientation and reassurance in a quiet environment will usually be effective in treating the confusion and agitation, once serious causes of the delirium have been ruled out. Benzodiazepines and meperidol have been reported to cause delirium. Physical restraints and restrictive environments (e.g., intensive-care units) can predispose to delirium and are best avoided if possible.

The presence of nonthrombocytopenic palpable purpura, colicky abdominal pain, and arthritis is most consistent with which one of the following? (check one) A. Kawasaki disease B. Takayasu arteritis C. Wegener granulomatosis D. Polyarteritis nodosa E. Henoch-Schonlein purpura

E. Henoch-Schonlein purpura. The most common pediatric vasculitis is Henoch-Schonlein purpura. It is an IgA-mediated small-vessel vasculitis that classically presents with the triad of nonthrombocytopenic palpable purpura, colicky abdominal pain, and arthritis. Kawasaki disease is manifested by conjunctival injection, mucosal erythema, rash, and lymphadenopathy. Takayasu arteritis has numerous manifestations, including night sweats, fatigue, weight loss, myalgia, and arthritis. Later findings may include hypertension, skin lesions, and cardiac disorders. Wegener granulomatosis causes constitutional symptoms also, including weight loss and fatigue, with later findings including respiratory problems, ophthalmologic lesions, neuropathies, glomerulonephritis, and skin lesions. Polyarteritis nodosa is another disease that causes constitutional symptoms such as fatigue, fever, and myalgias. It also causes skin lesions, gastrointestinal symptoms such as postprandial abdominal pain, and cardiac lesions. References: 1) Behrman RE, Kliegman RM, Jenson HB (eds): Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics, ed 17. Saunders, 2004, pp 823-831. 2) Goldman L, Ausiello D (eds): Cecil Textbook of Medicine, ed 22. Saunders, 2004, pp 1684-1693. 3) Dedeoglu F, Sundel RP: Vasculitis in children. Pediatr Clin North Am 2005;52(2):547-575.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 92 ======================================================= You have hospitalized a 67-year-old obese white female for urosepsis. She has completed a course of intravenous antibiotics. She has hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and congestive heart failure. In addition, she has renal failure which has worsened, and she has been on hemodialysis for 1 week. The chart lists her medications as enalapril (Vasotec), furosemide (Lasix), labetalol (Trandate, Normodyne), insulin, and heparin for flushing intravenous lines. For the past 2 days she has had nosebleeds. A CBC is normal except for mild anemia and marked thrombocytopenia of 28,000/mL. Which one of the following is most likely the cause of her thrombocytopenia? (check one) A. Enalapril B. Furosemide C. Labetalol D. Insulin E. Heparin

E. Heparin. A number of medications can cause thrombocytopenia, but heparin is a more likely cause than enalapril, furosemide, labetalol, or insulin. Even the small doses of heparin used to flush intravenous lines can be a source of thrombocytopenia.

A 13-year-old male is found to have hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. His father also had hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, and died suddenly at age 38 following a game of tennis. The boy's mother asks you for advice regarding his condition. What advice should you give her? (check one) A. He may participate in noncontact sports B. He should receive lifelong treatment with beta-blockers C. His condition usually decreases lifespan D. His hypertrophy will regress with age E. His siblings should undergo echocardiography

E. His siblings should undergo echocardiography. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is an autosomal dominant condition and close relatives of affected individuals should be screened. The hypertrophy usually stays the same or worsens with age. This patient should not participate in strenuous sports, even those considered noncontact. Beta-blockers have not been shown to alter the progress of the disease. The mortality rate is believed to be about 1%, with some series estimating 5%. Thus, in most cases lifespan is normal.

An 83-year-old male has a long history of COPD. His resting oxygen saturation is 86% on room air. Treatment includes oral bronchodilators, inhaled corticosteroids, inhaled beta-agonists, inhaled cholinergics, and home oxygen. Which one of his treatments has been shown to prolong survival in cases such as this? (check one) A. Oral bronchodilators B. Inhaled corticosteroids C. Inhaled beta-agonists D. Inhaled cholinergics E. Home oxygen

E. Home oxygen. Treatment of hypoxemia is critical in the management of COPD and trials have shown a reduction in mortality with the use of oxygen for 15 or more hours daily. Inhaled beta-adrenergic agonists and cholinergic agents, either alone or in combination, provide symptomatic relief but do not prolong survival. Theophylline can be used for symptoms inadequately relieved by bronchodilators. Inhaled corticosteroids do not appear to alter the rate of decline in lung function in COPD. However, some evidence shows that these agents alleviate symptoms and reduce disease exacerbation. Pulmonary rehabilitation improves quality of life and reduces hospitalizations.

Which one of the following drugs used to treat rheumatoid arthritis can delay the progression of the disease? (check one) A. Aspirin B. Ibuprofen C. Indomethacin (Indocin) D. Capsaicin (Zostrix) E. Hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil)

E. Hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil). Hydroxychloroquine, originally developed as an antimalarial drug, is a well-known disease-modifying agent that can slow the progression of rheumatoid arthritis. Aspirin, indomethacin, and ibuprofen are anti-inflammatory agents. They relieve pain and improve mobility, but do not alter the progression of the disease. Capsaicin, a topical substance-P depleter, can relieve pain symptoms.

A 20-year-old female is seen for follow-up 6 weeks after delivery. Her pregnancy was complicated by preeclampsia. Her examination is unremarkable. This patient will be at increased risk for which one of the following in midlife? (check one) A. Breast cancer B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hypothyroidism D. Kidney disease E. Hypertension

E. Hypertension. Preeclampsia affects as many as 5% of first pregnancies and is manifested as hypertension, proteinuria, edema, and rapid weight gain after 20 weeks gestation. Very young mothers and those over age 35 have a higher risk. Patients who have had preeclampsia have a fourfold increased risk of hypertension and a twofold increased risk of ischemic heart disease, stroke, and venous thromboembolism. There does not appear to be an association between preeclampsia and cancer, breast cancer in particular.

Osmotic demyelination can result when which one of the following is corrected too rapidly? (check one) A. Hypocalcemia B. Hypoglycemia C. Hypomagnesemia D. Hypokalemia E. Hyponatremia

E. Hyponatremia. The adaptation that permits survival in chronic hyponatremia also makes the brain vulnerable to injury from overzealous therapy. When hyponatremia is corrected too rapidly, outpacing the brains ability to recapture lost organic osmolytes, osmotic demyelination can result. Osmotic demyelination syndrome can usually be avoided by limiting correction of chronic hyponatremia to <10-12 mmol/L in 24 hours and to <18 mmol/L in 48 hours.

A 14-year-old female is brought to your office by her parents because of concerns regarding her low food intake, excessive exercise, and weight loss. Her weight is less than 75% of ideal for her height. Which one of the following sets of additional findings would indicate that the patient suffers from severe anorexia nervosa? (check one) A. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperthermia B. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hypothermia C. Hypotension, tachycardia, and hypothermia D. Hypotension, bradycardia, and hyperthermia E. Hypotension, bradycardia, and hypothermia

E. Hypotension, bradycardia, and hypothermia. Characteristic vital signs in patients with severe anorexia nervosa include hypotension, bradycardia, and hypothermia. Criteria for hospital admission include a heart rate <40 beats/min, blood pressure <80/50 mm Hg, and temperature <36°C (97°F). Increased cardiac vagal hyperactivity is thought to cause the bradycardia.

A 51-year-old immigrant from Vietnam presents with a 3-week history of nocturnal fever, sweats, cough, and weight loss. A chest radiograph reveals a right upper lobe cavitary infiltrate. A PPD produces 17 mm of induration, and acid-fast bacilli are present on a smear of induced sputum. While awaiting formal laboratory identification of the bacterium, which one of the following would be most appropriate? (check one) A. Observation only B. INH only C. INH and ethambutol (Myambutol) D. INH, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide E. INH, ethambutol, rifampin (Rifadin), and pyrazinamide

E. INH, ethambutol, rifampin (Rifadin), and pyrazinamide. Leading authorities, including experts from the American Thoracic Society, CDC, and Infectious Diseases Society of America, mandate aggressive initial four-drug treatment when tuberculosis is suspected. Delays in diagnosis and treatment not only increase the possibility of disease transmission, but also lead to higher morbidity and mortality. Standard regimens including INH, ethambutol, rifampin, and pyrazinamide are recommended, although one regimen does not include pyrazinamide but extends coverage with the other antibiotics. Treatment regimens can be modified once culture results are available.

A 52-year-old Hispanic female with diabetes mellitus and stage 3 chronic kidney disease sees you for follow-up after tests show an estimated glomerular filtration rate of 56 mL/min. Which one of the following medications should she avoid to prevent further deterioration in renal function? (check one) A. Lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril) B. Folic acid C. Low-dose aspirin D. Candesartan (Atacand) E. Ibuprofen

E. Ibuprofen. Patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) and those at risk for CKD because of conditions such as hypertension and diabetes have an increased risk of deterioration in renal function from NSAID use. NSAIDs induce renal injury by acutely reducing renal blood flow and, in some patients, by causing interstitial nephritis. Because many of these drugs are available over the counter, patients often assume they are safe for anyone. Physicians should counsel all patients with CKD, as well as those at increased risk for CKD, to avoid NSAIDs. ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers are renoprotective and their use is recommended in all diabetics. The use of low-dose aspirin and folic acid is recommended in all patients with diabetes, due to the vasculoprotective properties of these drugs. High-dose aspirin should be avoided because it acts as an NSAID.

A 45-year-old female presents to your office with a 1-month history of pain and swelling posterior to the medial malleolus. She does not recall any injury, but reports that the pain is worse with weight bearing and with inversion of the foot. Plantar flexion against resistance elicits pain, and the patient is unable to perform a single-leg heel raise. Which one of the following is true regarding this problem? (check one) A. The patient most likely has a medial ankle sprain B. NSAIDs will improve the long-term outcome C. Injecting a corticosteroid into the tendon sheath of the involved tendon is recommended D. A lateral heel wedge should be prescribed E. Immobilization in a cast boot for 3 weeks is indicated

E. Immobilization in a cast boot for 3 weeks is indicated. The diagnosis of tendinopathy of the posterior tibial tendon is important, in that the tendon's function is to perform plantar flexion of the foot, invert the foot, and stabilize the medial longitudinal arch. An injury can, over time, elongate the midfoot and hindfoot ligaments, causing a painful flatfoot deformity. The patient usually recalls no trauma, although the injury may occur from twisting the foot by stepping in a hole. This is most commonly seen in women over the age of 40. Without proper treatment, progressive degeneration of the tendon can occur, ultimately leading to tendon rupture. Pain and swelling of the tendon is often noted, and is misdiagnosed as a medial ankle sprain. With the patient standing on tiptoe, the heel should deviate in a varus alignment, but this does not occur on the involved side. A single-leg toe raise should reproduce the pain, and if the process has progressed, this maneuver indicates progression of the problem. While treatment with acetaminophen or NSAIDs provides short-term pain relief, neither affects long-term outcome. Corticosteroid injection into the synovial sheath of the posterior tibial tendon is associated with a high rate of tendon rupture and is not recommended. The best initial treatment is immobilization in a cast boot or short leg cast for 2-3 weeks.

A frail 83-year-old male with a 10-year history of diabetes mellitus is admitted to a nursing home. His blood glucose level, which he rarely checks, is typically over 200 mg/dL. His serum creatinine level is 1.9 mg/dL. He also has had several episodes of heart failure. His current medications include glipizide (Glucotrol), lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril), and furosemide (Lasix). Which one of the following would be most appropriate to add to this patients regimen to treat his diabetes mellitus? (check one) A. The American Diabetes Association 1800-calorie/day diet B. Metformin (Glucophage) C. Pioglitazone (Actos) D. Exenatide (Byetta) E. Insulin glargine (Lantus)

E. Insulin glargine (Lantus). For geriatric patients in long-term care facilities, the predictable glucose control of glargine is the best approach to consider initially. The American Diabetes Association does not recommend a strict diet for frail diabetic patients in nursing homes. Exenatide is not recommended for the frail elderly because of concerns about weight loss and nausea. Heart failure precludes the use of pioglitazone, and renal failure precludes the use of metformin.

A 75-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a several-hour history of back pain in the interscapular region. His medical history includes a previous myocardial infarction (MI) several years ago, a history of cigarette smoking until the time of the MI, and hypertension that is well controlled with hydrochlorothiazide and lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril). The patient appears anxious, but all pulses are intact. His blood pressure is 170/110 mm Hg and his pulse rate is 110 beats/min. An EKG shows evidence of an old inferior wall MI but no acute changes. A chest radiograph shows a widened mediastinum and a normal aortic arch, and CT of the chest shows a dissecting aneurysm of the descending aorta that is distal to the proximal abdominal aorta but does not involve the renal arteries. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient? (check one) A. Immediate surgical intervention B. Arteriography of the aorta C. Intravenous nitroprusside (Nipride) D. A nitroglycerin drip E. Intravenous labetalol (Normodyne, Trandate)

E. Intravenous labetalol (Normodyne, Trandate). Patients with thoracic aneurysms often present without symptoms. With dissecting aneurysms, however, the presenting symptom depends on the location of the aneurysm. Aneurysms can compress or distort nearby structures, resulting in branch vessel compression or embolization of peripheral arteries from a thrombus within the aneurysm. Leakage of the aneurysm will cause pain, and rupture can occur with catastrophic results, including severe pain, hypotension, shock, and death. Aneurysms in the ascending aorta may present with acute heart failure brought about by aortic regurgitation from aortic root dilatation and distortion of the annulus. Other presenting findings may include hoarseness, myocardial ischemia, paralysis of a hemidiaphragm, wheezing, coughing, hemoptysis, dyspnea, dysphagia, or superior vena cava syndrome. This diagnosis should be suspected in individuals in their sixties and seventies with the same risk factors as those for coronary artery disease, particularly smokers. A chest radiograph may show widening of the mediastinum, enlargement of the aortic knob, or tracheal displacement. Transesophageal echocardiography can be very useful when dissection is suspected. CT with intravenous contrast is very accurate for showing the size, extent of disease, pressure of leakage, and nearby pathology. Angiography is the preferred method for evaluation and is best for evaluation of branch vessel pathology. MR angiography provides noninvasive multiplanar image reconstruction, but does have limited availability and lower resolution than traditional contrast angiography. Acute dissection of the ascending aorta is a surgical emergency, but dissections confined to the descending aorta are managed medically unless the patient demonstrates progression or continued hemorrhage into the retroperitoneal space or pleura. Initial management should reduce the systolic blood pressure to 100-120 mm Hg or to the lowest level tolerated. The use of a β-blocker such as propranolol or labetalol to get the heart rate below 60 beats/min should be first-line therapy. If the systolic blood pressure remains over 100 mm Hg, intravenous nitroprusside should be added. Without prior beta-blocade, vasodilation from the nitroprusside will induce reflex activation of the sympathetic nervous system, causing increased ventricular contraction and increased shear stress on the aorta. For descending dissections, surgery is indicated only for complications such as occlusion of a major aortic branch, continued extension or expansion of the dissection, or rupture (which may be manifested by persistent or recurrent pain).

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 57 ======================================================= A 68-year-old African-American male with a history of hypertension and heart failure continues to have shortness of breath and fatigue after walking only one block. He has normal breath sounds, no murmur, and no edema on examination. His current medications include furosemide (Lasix), 20 mg/day, and metoprolol extended-release (Toprol-XL), 50 mg/day. He previously took lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril), but it was discontinued because of angioedema. A recent echocardiogram showed an ejection fraction of 35%. Which one of the following would be most likely to improve both symptoms and survival in this patient? (check one) A. Valsartan (Diovan) B. Metolazone (Zaroxolyn) C. Digoxin D. Verapamil (Calan, Isoptin) E. Isosorbide/hydralazine (BiDil)

E. Isosorbide/hydralazine (BiDil). In patients with systolic heart failure, the usual management includes an ACE inhibitor and a ß-blocker. Since this patient had angioedema with an ACE inhibitor, an angiotensin receptor blocker may cause this side effect as well. Adding metolazone is generally not necessary unless the patient has volume overload that does not respond to increased doses of furosemide. Digoxin may improve symptoms, but has not been shown to increase survival. For patients who cannot tolerate an ACE inhibitor, especially African-Americans, a combination of direct-acting vasodilators such as isorbide and hydralazine is preferred.Verapamil has a negative inotropic effect and should not be used.

A 67-year-old male sees you for knee pain from osteoarthritis. It has not responded to his usual treatment, and you treat him with an intra-articular corticosteroid injection. It is mid-November, and he tells you that he has not received the influenza vaccine this year. He has also never received pneumococcal vaccine. He has a history of allergic rhinitis, treated with intranasal corticosteroids. Which one of the following is true regarding pneumococcal vaccine and influenza vaccine for this patient? (check one) A. The immunizations should be administered at least 4 weeks apart B. Administration of both immunizations should be delayed 4 weeks because of immunosuppression C. Administration of influenza vaccine should be delayed for 4 weeks because it is a live attenuated vaccine D. Administration of pneumococcal vaccine should be delayed for 4 weeks because it is contraindicated with simultaneous intra-articular corticosteroids E. It is acceptable to administer both immunizations at this visit

E. It is acceptable to administer both immunizations at this visit. Low-dose topical, oral, nasal, and intra-articular corticosteroids are not immunosuppressive and do not contraindicate administration of any vaccine. Influenza vaccine and pneumococcal vaccine can be given together. Neither is a live vaccine.

A healthy 48-year-old female consults you about continuing the use of her estrogen/progestin oral contraceptives. She has regular menstrual periods, is not hypertensive or diabetic, and does not smoke. What advice would you give her? (check one) A. She should stop the oral contraceptives B. She should switch to a progestin-only pill C. She should discontinue the contraceptive for 1 month, and if FSH is then elevated to postmenopausal levels, the pills should be stopped D. She can safely continue to take the contraceptive if screening for thrombophilic conditions is negative E. It is safe to continue the oral contraceptives

E. It is safe to continue the oral contraceptives. Healthy women may continue combination birth control pills into their fifties, and this patient has no contraindications. Screening for thrombophilic conditions is not indicated due to the low yield. FSH levels are not specific enough to evaluate the effect of stopping the contraceptive.

Which one of the following drugs would be the most appropriate empiric therapy for nursing home-acquired pneumonia in a patient with no other underlying disease? (check one) A. Cefazolin B. Erythromycin C. Ampicillin D. Tobramycin (Nebcin) E. Levofloxacin (Levaquin)

E. Levofloxacin (Levaquin). The major concern with regard to pneumonia in the nursing-home setting is the increased frequency of oropharyngeal colonization by gram-negative organisms. In the absence of collectible or diagnostic sputum Gram's stains or cultures, empiric therapy must cover Streptococcus pneumoniae, Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, and gram-negative bacteria. Levofloxacin is the best single agent for providing coverage against this spectrum of organisms.

A 72-year-old male with a history of hypertension and a previous myocardial infarction is diagnosed with heart failure. Echocardiography reveals systolic dysfunction, and recent laboratory tests indicated normal renal function, with a serum creatinine level of 1.1 mg/dL (N <1.5), a sodium level of 139 mEq/L (N 136-145), and a potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L (N 3.5-5.0). He is currently asymptomatic. Which one of the following medications would be the best choice for initial management in this patient? (check one) A. Furosemide (Lasix) B. Isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil) C. Spironolactone (Aldactone) D. Digoxin E. Lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril)

E. Lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril). ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril are indicated for all patients with heart failure due to systolic dysfunction, regardless of severity. ACE inhibitors have been shown to reduce both morbidity and mortality, in both asymptomatic and symptomatic patients, in randomized, controlled trials. Unless absolutely contraindicated, ACE inhibitors should be used in all heart failure patients. No ACE inhibitor has been shown to be superior to another, and no study has failed to show benefit from an ACE inhibitor (SOR A). Direct-acting vasodilators such as isosorbide dinitrate also could be used in this patient, but ACE inhibitors have been shown to be superior in randomized, controlled trials (SOR B). β-Blockers are also recommended in heart failure patients with systolic dysfunction (SOR A), except those who have dyspnea at rest or who are hemodynamically unstable. These agents have been shown to reduce mortality from heart failure. A diuretic such as furosemide may be indicated to relieve congestion in symptomatic patients. Aldosterone antagonists such as spironolactone are also indicated in patients with symptomatic heart failure. In addition, they can be used in patients with a recent myocardial infarction who develop symptomatic systolic dysfunction and in those with diabetes mellitus (SOR B). Digoxin currently is recommended for patients with heart failure and atrial fibrillation, and can be considered in patients who continue to have symptoms despite maximal therapy with other agents.

======================================================= Psychogenic Board Review Questions 02 ======================================================= A 34-year-old white male presents with a history and findings that satisfy DSM-IV criteria for bipolar disorder. Which one of the following treatment options is the most effective for long-term management of the majority of patients with this disorder? (check one) A. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) B. Tricyclic antidepressants C. SSRIs D. Monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors E. Lithium

E. Lithium. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is as effective as medication for the acute treatment of the severe depression and/or mania of bipolar disorder. However, ECT should be reserved for patients with severe mood syndromes who may be unable to wait for mood-stabilizing drugs to take effect. Neuroleptic (antipsychotic) drugs are effective in acute mania, but are not recommended for long-term use because of side effects. Bipolar depression generally responds to tricyclic antidepressants, SSRIs, and MAO inhibitors, but when used as long-term therapy these drugs may induce episodes of mania. Anticonvulsants, such as carbamazepine, valproic acid, and benzodiazepines, have been useful adjuncts combined with lithium in patients with breakthrough episodes of mania and/or depression. Lithium is the classic mood stabilizer. It has been shown to have antimanic efficacy, prophylactic efficacy in bipolar disorder, and some efficacy in prophylaxis against bipolar depression. Lithium remains the drug of choice for long-term treatment of the majority of patients with bipolar illness.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 78 ======================================================= A 26-year-old female presents with a 1-year history of recurring abdominal pain associated with intermittent diarrhea, 5-7 days per month. Her pain improves with defecation. There has been no blood in her stool and no weight loss. Laboratory findings are normal, including a CBC, chemistry profile, TSH level, and antibodies for celiac disease. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. Colonoscopy B. An upper GI series with small-bowel follow-through C. Abdominal CT with contrast D. A gluten-free diet E. Loperamide (Imodium)

E. Loperamide (Imodium). This patient has classic symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and meets the Rome criteria by having 3 days per month of abdominal pain for the past 3 months, a change in the frequency of stool, and improvement with defecation. According to current clinical guidelines IBS can be diagnosed by history, physical examination, and routine laboratory testing, as long as there are no warning signs. Warning signs include rectal bleeding, anemia, weight loss, fever, a family history of colon cancer, onset of symptoms after age 50, and a major change in symptoms. Colonoscopy, CT, and GI contrast studies are not indicated. A gluten-free diet would not be indicated since the antibody tests for celiac disease are negative. Antidiarrheal agents such as loperamide are generally safe and effective in the management of diarrheal symptoms in IBS.

A young woman in labor at term develops frank eclampsia. What is the best choice of anticonvulsant to treat her condition? (check one) A. Phenytoin (Dilantin) B. Diazepam (Valium) C. Topiramate (Topamax) D. Lamotrigine (Lamictal) E. Magnesium sulfate

E. Magnesium sulfate. Intravenous magnesium sulfate reduces the risk of subsequent seizures in women with eclampsia compared with placebo, and with fewer adverse effects for the mother and baby compared with phenytoin or diazepam. The newer oral agents have no role in this emergency.

Promoting good sleep hygiene is basic in the treatment of insomnia. Which one of the following measures will aid in promoting healthy sleep habits? (check one) A. Vigorous evening exercise B. Taking an enjoyable book or magazine to bed to read C. Drinking a glass of wine as a sedative before retiring D. Eating the heaviest meal of the day close to bedtime E. Maintaining a regular sleep/wake schedule

E. Maintaining a regular sleep/wake schedule. Maintaining a regular sleep/wake schedule helps prevent insomnia. While a light snack before bed may be sleep inducing, heavy meals close to bedtime may be counterproductive. Alcohol should be avoided as a sedative, to prevent midsleep awakenings. Hours spent reading or watching television in bed can lead to long awakenings in the middle of the night.

A 70-year-old female had a lumbar vertebral fracture 3 years ago. At that time she had a dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan, with a T score of -2.6, and was placed on alendronate (Fosamax), calcium, and vitamin D. She recently quit smoking. Her BMI is 21. A DEXA scan today shows her bone mineral density to be -2.1. Which one of the following would be most appropriate in the management of this patient? (check one) A. Replace alendronate with raloxifene (Evista) B. Stop alendronate, but continue calcium and vitamin D C. Add raloxifene to her regimen D. Add teriparatide (Forteo) to her regimen E. Make no change to her regimen

E. Make no change to her regimen. Even though the patient's DEXA has improved and she is technically osteopenic, she still has risk factors for osteoporosis, including recent smoking, low BMI, and a prior fragility fracture. She should continue her current regimen.

Which one of the following is the most effective initial treatment of head lice in an 8-year-old child? (check one) A. Lindane (Kwell) B. Wet combing every 4 days, to continue for 2 weeks after any louse is found C. Head shaving D. Nightly application of petrolatum to the scalp, covered by a shower cap E. Malathion (Ovide)

E. Malathion (Ovide). Malathion is currently the most effective treatment for head lice and is less toxic than lindane. Permethrin and pyrethrins are less effective than malathion, although they are acceptable alternatives. These insecticides, as well as lindane, are not recommended in children 2 years of age or younger. Wet combing may be effective, but is less than half as effective as malathion. Head shaving is only temporarily effective and is traumatic. Petrolatum is not proven to be effective.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 19 ======================================================= A 55-year-old male sees you for a follow-up visit for hypercholesterolemia and hypertension. He is in good health, does not smoke, and drinks alcohol infrequently. His medications include a multiple vitamin daily; aspirin, 81 mg daily; lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril), 10 mg daily; and lovastatin (Mevacor), 20 mg daily. His vital signs are within normal limits except for a BMI of 33.4 kg/m2 . At today's visit his ALT (SGPT) level is 55 IU/L (N 10-45) and his AST (SGOT) level is 44 IU/L (N 10-37). The remainder of the liver panel is normal. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of the elevation in liver enzymes? (check one) A. A side effect of lovastatin B. Gallbladder disease C. Hepatitis A D. Alcoholic liver disease E. Metabolic syndrome

E. Metabolic syndrome. Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is the most common cause of abnormal liver tests in the developed world. Its prevalence increases with age, body mass index, and triglyceride concentrations, and in patients with diabetes mellitus, hypertension, or insulin resistance. There is a significant overlap between metabolic syndrome and diabetes mellitus, and NAFLD is regarded as the liver manifestation of insulin resistance. Statin therapy is considered safe in such individuals and can improve liver enzyme levels and reduce cardiovascular morbidity in patients with mild to moderately abnormal liver tests that are potentially attributable to NAFLD.

======================================================= Psychogenic Board Review Questions 04 ======================================================= An 85-year-old white male with terminal pancreatic cancer is expected to survive for another 2 weeks. His pain has been satisfactorily controlled with sustained-release morphine. He has now developed a disturbed self-image, hopelessness, and anhedonia, and has told family members that he has thought about suicide. Psychomotor retardation is also noted. His family is supportive. His daughter feels he is depressed, while his son feels this is more of a grieving process. Which one of the following would be most appropriate for managing this problem? (check one) A. Reassurance B. Alprazolam (Xanax) C. Trazodone (Desyrel) D. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) E. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)

E. Methylphenidate (Ritalin). Distinguishing between preparatory grief and depression in a dying patient is not always simple. Initially one should evaluate for unresolved physical symptoms and treat any that are present. If the patient remains in distress, mood should be evaluated. If it waxes and wanes with time and if self-esteem is normal, this is likely preparatory grief. The patient may have fleeting thoughts of suicide and likely will express worry about separation from loved ones. This usually responds to counseling. In patients with anhedonia, persistent dysphoria, disturbed self-image, hopelessness, poor sense of self-worth, rumination about death and suicide, or an active desire for early death, depression is the problem. For patients who are expected to live only a few days, psychostimulants such as methylphenidate should be used. For those who are expected to survive longer, SSRIs are a good choice.

A 45-year-old female presents with a rash on the central portion of her face. She states that she has intermittent flushing and intense erythema that feels as if her face is stinging. She has noticed that her symptoms can be worsened by sun exposure, emotional stress, alcohol, or eating spicy foods. She has been in good health and has taken conjugated estrogens (Premarin), 0.625 mg daily, since a hysterectomy for benign reasons. A general examination is normal except for erythema of the cheeks and chin. No pustules or comedone formation is noted around her eyes, but telangiectasias are present. Which one of the following would be appropriate in the management of this problem? (check one) A. Increasing her estrogen dosage B. Referral to a rheumatologist C. Low-potency non-fluorinated topical corticosteroids D. Oral prednisone E. Metronidazole gel (MetroGel)

E. Metronidazole gel (MetroGel). Rosacea is a relatively common condition seen most often in women between the ages of 30 and 60. Central facial erythema and telangiectasias are prominent early features that may progress to a chronic infiltrate with papules and sometimes sterile pustules. Facial edema also may occur. Some patients develop rhinophyma due to hypertrophy of the subcutaneous glands of the nose. The usual presenting symptoms are central facial erythema and flushing that many patients find socially embarrassing. Flushing can be triggered by food, environmental, chemical, or emotional triggers. Ocular problems occur in half of patients with rosacea, often in the form of an intermittent inflammatory conjunctivitis with or without blepharitis. Management includes avoidance of precipitating factors and use of sunscreen. Oral metronidazole, doxycycline, or tetracycline also can be used, especially if there are ocular symptoms. These are often ineffective for the flushing, so low-dose clonidine or a nonselective β-blocker may be added. Topical treatments such as metronidazole and benzoyl peroxide may also be effective, particularly for mild cases. Other illnesses to consider include acne, photodermatitis, systemic lupus erythematosus, seborrheic dermatitis, carcinoid syndrome, and mastocytosis.

A 3-week-old male is brought to your office because of a sudden onset of bilious vomiting of several hours duration. He is irritable and refuses to breastfeed, but stools have been normal. He was delivered at term after a normal pregnancy, and has had no health problems to date. A physical examination shows a fussy child with a distended abdomen. Radiography of the abdomen shows a double bubble sign. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Infantile colic B. Necrotizing enterocolitis C. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis D. Intussusception E. Midgut volvulus

E. Midgut volvulus. Volvulus may present in one of three ways: as a sudden onset of bilious vomiting and abdominal pain in a neonate; as a history of feeding problems with bilious vomiting that appears to be a bowel obstruction; or less commonly, as failure to thrive with severe feeding intolerance. The classic finding on abdominal plain films is the double bubble sign, which shows a paucity of gas (airless abdomen) with two air bubbles, one in the stomach and one in the duodenum. However, the plain film can be entirely normal. The upper gastrointestinal contrast study is considered the gold standard for diagnosing volvulus. Infantile colic usually begins during the second week of life and typically occurs in the evening. It is characterized by screaming episodes and a distended or tight abdomen. Its etiology has yet to be determined. There are no abnormalities on physical examination and ancillary studies, and symptoms usually resolve spontaneously around 12 weeks of age. Necrotizing enterocolitis is typically seen in the distressed neonate in the intensive-care nursery, but it may occasionally be seen in the healthy neonate within the first 2 weeks of life. The child will appear ill, with symptoms including irritability, poor feeding, a distended abdomen, and bloody stools. Abdominal plain films will show pneumatosis intestinalis, caused by gas in the intestinal wall, which is diagnostic of the condition. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is a narrowing of the pyloric canal caused by hypertrophy of the musculature. It usually presents during the third to fifth weeks of life. Projectile vomiting after feeding, weight loss, and dehydration are common. The vomitus is always nonbilious, because the obstruction is proximal to the duodenum. If a small olive-size mass cannot be felt in the right upper or middle quadrant, ultrasonography will confirm the diagnosis. Intussusception is seen most frequently between the ages of 3 months and 5 years, with 60% of cases occurring in the first year and a peak incidence at 6-11 months of age. The disorder occurs predominantly in males. The classic triad of intermittent colicky abdominal pain, vomiting, and bloody, mucous stools is encountered in only 20%-40% of cases. At least two of these findings will be present in approximately 60% of patients. The abdomen may be distended and tender, and there may be an elongated mass in the right upper or lower quadrants. Rectal examination may reveal either occult blood or frankly bloody, foul-smelling stool, classically described as currant jelly. An air enema using fluoroscopic guidance is useful for both diagnosis and treatment.

Which one of the following is true about end-of-life care? (check one) A. Physicians underestimate life expectancies B. Most physicians are comfortable with their level of education in palliative care and pain control C. Most patients who qualify for hospice care receive services early in the course of their illness D. Most terminal patients want their lives prolonged as much as possible E. Most terminal patients express a desire for a sense of control

E. Most terminal patients express a desire for a sense of control. End-of-life issues are a challenge to primary care physicians because of concerns about a lack of education in pain control and palliative care. Trying to determine the prognosis of patients is difficult, and even with established criteria, the estimated prognosis is right only 50% of the time. There is a tendency for most physicians to overestimate life expectancy in a terminal patient. Most patients who are appropriate candidates for hospice care do not receive referrals until late in their illness, if at all. Patients at the end of life have five main areas of concern: control of pain and other symptoms; avoiding a prolongation of the dying process; having a sense of control; relieving burdens on family and loved ones; and strengthening relationships with family and friends.

An obese, hypertensive 53-year-old physician suffers a cardiac arrest while making rounds. He is resuscitated after 15 minutes of CPR, but remains comatose. Which one of the following is associated with the lowest likelihood of neurologic recovery in this situation? (check one) A. Duration of CPR >10 minutes B. No pupillary light reflex at 30 minutes C. No corneal reflex at 2 hours D. No motor response to pain at 6 hours E. Myoclonic status epilepticus at 24 hours

E. Myoclonic status epilepticus at 24 hours. It is difficult to establish a prognosis in a comatose patient after a cardiac arrest. The duration of CPR is not a factor, and the absence of pupillary and corneal reflexes, as well as motor responses to pain, are not reliable predictors before 72 hours. Myoclonic status epilepticus at 24 hours suggests no possibility of a recovery.

Which one of the following is the most effective drug for the treatment of alcohol dependence? (check one) A. Disulfiram (Antabuse) B. Diazepam (Valium) C. Amitriptyline (Elavil) D. Fluoxetine (Prozac) E. Naltrexone (ReVia)

E. Naltrexone (ReVia). Drug therapy should be considered for all patients with alcohol dependence who do not have medical contraindications to the use of the drug and who are willing to take it. Of the several drugs studied for the treatment of dependence, the evidence of efficacy is strongest for naltrexone and acamprosate. Naltrexone is currently available in the U.S.; acamprosate and tiapride are currently available in Europe but not in the U.S.

A 17-year-old white female visits you for a physical examination prior to entering college. During the review of systems her only complaint is cyclic lower abdominal cramps around the onset of menstruation. She reports that pain has been present to some degree with most of her periods since about 6 months after menarche. The pain is often severe enough for her to miss school. Each episode lasts 24-48 hours and is somewhat relieved by rest and acetaminophen. Her menstrual history is otherwise normal. She denies ever being sexually active and tells you that she has received little empathy from her mother, who had similar symptoms as an adolescent that improved after her first pregnancy. Pelvic and rectal examinations are within normal limits. Which one of the following management choices would be appropriate at this time? (check one) A. Referral for hysterosalpingography B. Referral for psychological counseling C. Danazol (Danocrine) D. Acetaminophen/hydrocodone (Vicodin HP) E. Naproxen sodium (Anaprox)

E. Naproxen sodium (Anaprox). The patient's history is typical of primary dysmenorrhea, defined as severe cramping pain in the lower abdomen that occurs during menses; it may also occur prior to the onset of menses in the absence of associated pelvic pathology. Although many women complain of pain beginning with the first cycle, symptoms usually begin at the onset of ovulation around 6-12 months after menarche. Symptoms typically last 48 hours or less, but sometimes may last up to 72 hours. It is common to find daughters with dysmenorrhea whose mothers had the same symptoms. Additionally, the symptoms of primary dysmenorrhea often resolve after the first pregnancy. In this patient, who has no history suggesting an emotional disorder, there is no need for psychological counseling at this time. Further evaluation could include ultrasonography to rule out causes of dysmenorrhea such as uterine leiomyomata, adnexal masses, and endometrial polyps. However, a trial of symptomatic therapy is most reasonable before other invasive studies, such as a laparoscopic examination or a hysterosalpingogram, are ordered. It is not reasonable to begin danazol without a diagnosis of endometriosis, which is by definition secondary dysmenorrhea. Since neither inhibits prostaglandin synthetase, acetaminophen (which she had already tried without complete relief) combined with a narcotic is not an appropriate management strategy. Multiple placebo-controlled studies have shown that NSAIDs such as naproxen, at the onset of symptoms, provide significant relief of primary dysmenorrhea compared to placebo.

A positive spot urine test for homovanillic acid (HMA) and vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) is a marker for which one of the following? (check one) A. Hepatoblastoma B. Wilms' tumor C. Lymphoma D. Malignant teratoma E. Neuroblastoma

E. Neuroblastoma. Tumor markers are useful in determining the diagnosis and sometimes the prognosis of certain tumors. They can aid in assessing response to therapy and detecting tumor recurrence. Serum neuron-specific enolase (NSE) testing, as well as spot urine testing for homovanillic acid (HVA) and vanillylmandelic acid (VMA), should be obtained if neuroblastoma or pheochromocytoma is suspected; both should be collected before surgical intervention. Quantitative beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels can be elevated in liver tumors and germ cells tumors. Alpha-fetoprotein is excreted by many malignant teratomas and by liver and germ cell tumors.

Which one of the following is true concerning the treatment of tobacco use? (check one) A. Tobacco withdrawal symptoms abate in 3 days B. Physicians' advice to patients to stop smoking is ineffectual C. Of all the products available for smoking cessation, only bupropion (Wellbutrin) is consistently effective D. Nicotine replacement therapy is dangerous for patients with stable angina E. Nicotine causes physical dependence

E. Nicotine causes physical dependence. Nicotine causes both physical dependence and tolerance. Withdrawal from nicotine can last several weeks or months. Physicians' advice to stop smoking increases the rate of stopping smoking by about 30%. Bupropion is no more or less effective than other products for smoking cessation. Nicotine replacement therapy is safe in patients with stable angina.

A 7-year-old female with a history of asthma is brought to your office for a routine follow-up visit. She has a history of exercise-induced asthma, but also has had exacerbations in the past that were unrelated to exercise. In the past month, she has premedicated herself with albuterol (Proventil, Ventolin) with a spacer before recess 5 days/week as usual. She has also needed her albuterol to treat symptoms (wheezing and/or shortness of breath) once or twice per week and had one exacerbation requiring medical treatment in the past year. She has had no nighttime symptoms. Albuterol as needed is her only medication. After reinforcing asthma education, which one of the following would be most appropriate? (check one) A. Referral to an asthma specialist B. Addition of a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid C. Addition of a long-acting β-agonist D. Elimination of premedication with albuterol, restricting use to an as-needed basis E. No changes to her regimen

E. No changes to her regimen. This patient's asthma is well-controlled according to the 2007 NHLBI asthma guidelines. The "rule of twos" is useful in assessing asthma control: in children under the age of 12, asthma is NOT well-controlled if they have had symptoms or used a β-agonist for symptom relief more than twice per week, had two or more nocturnal awakenings due to asthma symptoms in the past month, or had two or more exacerbations requiring systemic corticosteroids in the past year. For individuals over 12 years of age, there must be more than two nocturnal awakenings per month to classify their asthma as not well controlled. Exercise-induced asthma is considered separately. A β-agonist used as premedication before exercise is not a factor when assessing asthma control. Since this patient does not exceed the rule of twos, her asthma is categorized as well-controlled and no changes to her therapy are indicated. Asthma education should be reinforced at every visit.

You see a 20-month-old male approximately 1 hour after he had a generalized seizure that lasted 2-3 minutes according to his mother. His past medical history is unremarkable except for two episodes of otitis media. On examination his temperature is 38.9°C (102.0°F), and he is awake, interactive, and consolable, with obvious otitis media of the left ear. A neurologic examination is unremarkable, and there are no meningeal signs. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. Lumbar puncture B. Electroencephalography C. Neuroimaging studies D. Serum levels of electrolytes, calcium, phosphate, and magnesium, plus a blood glucose level and a CBC E. No diagnostic studies at this time

E. No diagnostic studies at this time. This patient had a classic simple febrile seizure and no additional diagnostic studies are recommended. A lumbar puncture following a seizure is not routinely recommended in a child over 18 months of age, since by that age a patient with meningitis would be expected to demonstrate meningeal signs and symptoms or clinical findings suggesting an intracranial infection. There is no evidence to suggest that routine blood tests or neuroimaging studies are useful in a patient following a first simple febrile seizure, and it has not been shown that electroencephalography performed either at the time of presentation or within the following month will predict the likelihood of recurrence.

A patient with end-stage metastatic cancer is having continued significant pain despite regular use of 60 mg of long-acting morphine sulfate every 12 hours. What is the maximum 24-hour dose of morphine sulfate that you may safely titrate up to in order to relieve this patient's pain? (check one) A. 240 mg B. 360 mg C. 480 mg D. 600 mg E. No limit

E. No limit. Because there is no therapeutic ceiling for morphine, extremely large dosages can be used safely and effectively if the drug is titrated properly.

A 65-year-old asymptomatic female is found to have extensive sigmoid diverticulosis on screening colonoscopy. She asks whether there are any dietary changes she should make. In addition to increasing fiber intake, which one of the following would you recommend? (check one) A. Limiting intake of dairy products B. Limiting intake of spicy foods C. Limiting intake of wheat flour D. Limiting intake of nuts E. No limitations on other intake

E. No limitations on other intake. Patients with diverticulosis should increase dietary fiber intake or take fiber supplements to reduce progression of the diverticular disease. Avoidance of nuts, corn, popcorn, and small seeds has not been shown to prevent complications of diverticular disease.

The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force recommends which one of the following regarding general screening for COPD? (check one) A. A routine chest radiograph for screening patients over 50 with a history of tobacco use B. Spirometry for screening patients over 50 with a history of tobacco use C. Arterial blood gas analysis for patients over 60 with a history of tobacco use D. Peak flow measurement for office screening for COPD E. No routine screening for COPD with spirometry

E. No routine screening for COPD with spirometry. The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force recommends against screening adults for COPD with spirometry. Spirometry is indicated for patients who have symptoms suggestive of COPD, but not for healthy adults. While tobacco use is a risk factor for COPD, routine spirometry, chest radiographs, or arterial blood gas analysis is not recommended to screen for COPD in patients with a history of tobacco use. Peak flow measurement is not recommended for screening for COPD.

A 25-year-old male who came to your office for a pre-employment physical examination is found to have 2+ protein on a dipstick urine test. You repeat the examination three times within the next month and results are still positive. Results of a 24-hour urine collection show protein excretion of <2 g/day and normal creatinine clearance. As part of his further evaluation you obtain split urine collections with a 16-hour daytime specimen containing an increased concentration of protein, and an 8-hour overnight specimen that is normal. Additional appropriate evaluation for this man's problem at this time includes which one of the following? (check one) A. Serum and urine protein electrophoresis B. Antinuclear antibody C. Serum albumin and lipid levels D. Renal ultrasonography E. No specific additional testing

E. No specific additional testing. Persons younger than 30 years of age who excrete less than 2 g of protein per day and who have a normal creatinine clearance should be tested for orthostatic proteinuria. This benign condition occurs in about 3%-5% of adolescents and young adults. It is characterized by increased protein excretion in the upright position, but normal protein excretion when the patient is supine. It is diagnosed using split urine collections as described in the question. The daytime specimen has an increased concentration of protein, while the nighttime specimen contains a normal concentration. Since this is a benign condition with normal renal function, no further evaluation is necessary.

A 72-year-old female sees you for preoperative evaluation prior to cataract surgery. Her history and physical examination are unremarkable, and she has no medical problems other than bilateral cataracts. Which one of the following is recommended prior to surgery in this patient? (check one) A. An EKG only B. An EKG and chest radiography C. A CBC only D. A CBC and serum electrolytes E. No testing

E. No testing. According to a recent Cochrane review, routine preoperative testing prior to cataract surgery does not decrease intraoperative or postoperative complications (SOR A). The American Heart Association recommends against routine preoperative testing in asymptomatic patients undergoing low-risk procedures, since the cardiac risk associated with such procedures is less than 1%.

A 72-year-old Asian female is found to have asymptomatic gallstones on abdominal ultrasonography performed to evaluate an abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management for the gallstones? (check one) A. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy B. Open cholecystectomy C. Lithotripsy D. Treatment with ursodeoxycholic acid (Actigall) E. Observation

E. Observation. Gallstones are frequently discovered on a diagnostic workup for an unrelated problem. Only 1%-2% of persons with asymptomatic gallstones will require cholecystectomy in a given year, and two-thirds of patients with asymptomatic gallstones will remain symptom free over a 20-year period. The longer the patient remains asymptomatic, the more likely that no symptoms will develop in the future. This patient may have had gallstones for several years, and the best management would be to do nothing unless symptoms develop.

A 42-year-old asymptomatic female presents for a routine evaluation. On examination her uterus is irregularly enlarged to the size seen at approximately 8 weeks gestation. Pelvic ultrasonography shows several uterine fibroid tumors measuring <5 cm. The patient does not desire future fertility. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate treatment option? (check one) A. Laparoscopic myomectomy B. Hysterectomy C. A gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonist D. An oral contraceptive E. Observation

E. Observation. Uterine fibroid tumors (leiomyomas) are the most common female reproductive tract tumors, with some evidence suggesting that the cumulative incidence in women ages 25-45 is approximately 30%. Symptoms related to fibroids can include menorrhagia, pelvic pain, obstructive symptoms, infertility, or pregnancy loss. However, many fibroids are asymptomatic and are discovered incidentally, with expectant management being the treatment of choice in this situation (SOR B). The risk of malignant leiomyosarcoma is exceedingly small (0.23% in one study) and there is a risk of side effects or complications from other treatment modalities. For women who are symptomatic, the data is insufficient to allow conclusions to be made about the most appropriate therapy. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysterectomy, uterine artery embolization, and myolysis, but data to allow direct comparison is lacking. With the exception of trials of GnRH-agonist therapy as an adjunct to surgery, there is not enough randomized trial data to support the use of medical therapies (oral contraceptives, NSAIDs, progestins) in the treatment of women with symptomatic fibroids.

A 52-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a complaint of chest pain. The symptoms began 2 hours ago while she was shopping. She describes the pain as a tightness on the left side of her chest that radiates to her left shoulder. She has some shortness of breath with the pain, but no nausea or diaphoresis. Her past medical history is significant for panic disorder.Her vital signs and a physical examination are within normal limits.Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient? (check one) A. Admit to a monitored bed for further evaluation B. Obtain a CBC, a blood chemistry profile, liver function tests, and an EKG C. Administer a short-acting benzodiazepine and observe for 60 minutes D. Consult with a cardiologist for immediate heart catheterization E. Obtain a troponin I measurement and an EKG

E. Obtain a troponin I measurement and an EKG. This patient has symptoms that suggest acute coronary syndrome, which includes chest pain with activity that radiates to the shoulder. An EKG is essential early in the evaluation of a patient with chest pain, and the initial evaluation should also include a troponin I measurement. The patient should neither be admitted nor given a benzodiazepine until the EKG is performed. The diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome should be established prior to heart catheterization. Other laboratory tests may be appropriate, but they are not the most important initial tests.

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends antenatal screening for group B streptococcal disease by: (check one) A. Culturing the urine at 20 weeks' gestation B. Obtaining cultures from the rectum and vaginal introitus at 20 weeks' gestation C. Obtaining a culture from the cervix at 35-37 weeks' gestation D. Obtaining cultures from the cervix and rectum at 35-37 weeks' gestation E. Obtaining cultures from the rectum and vaginal introitus at 35-37 weeks' gestation

E. Obtaining cultures from the rectum and vaginal introitus at 35-37 weeks' gestation. The gastrointestinal tract is the most likely reservoir of group B Streptococcus with secondary spread to the genital tract. Cultures from the vaginal introitus and the rectum are the most sensitive for detecting colonization. No speculum examination is necessary. The closest time to delivery that cultures can be performed and allow time for results to be available is 35-37 weeks' gestation. Culture-positive women are then treated during labor. Other criteria for the use of chemoprophylaxis during delivery continue to apply.

A 24-year-old female had been healthy with no significant medical illnesses until about 3 months ago, when she was diagnosed with schizophrenia and treatment was initiated. She is now concerned because she has gained 10 lb since beginning treatment. A comprehensive metabolic panel is normal, with the exception of a fasting blood glucose level of 156 mg/dL. Which one of the following medications would be most likely to cause these findings? (check one) A. Clonazepam (Klonopin) B. Thioridazine C. Chlorpromazine D. Aripiprazole (Abilify) E. Olanzapine (Zyprexa)

E. Olanzapine (Zyprexa). Second-generation, or "atypical," antipsychotics are associated with weight gain, elevated triglycerides, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Olanzapine and clozapine are associated with the highest risk. Clonazepam, a benzodiazepine, does not share these risks. Thioridazine and chlorpromazine are first-generation antipsychotics, and carry less risk of these side effects. Aripiprazole, although it is a second-generation antipsychotic, has been found to cause weight gain and metabolic changes similar to those seen with placebo.

A 15-month-old male is brought to your office 3 hours after the onset of an increased respiratory rate and wheezing. He has an occasional cough and no rhinorrhea. His immunizations are up to date and he attends day care regularly. His temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F), respiratory rate 42/min, and pulse rate 118 beats/min. The child is sitting quietly on his mother's lap. His oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. On examination you note inspiratory crackles in the left lower lung field. The child appears to be well hydrated and the remainder of the examination, including an HEENT examination, is normal. Nebulized albuterol (AccuNeb) is administered and no improvement is noted. Which one of the following would be most appropriate in the management of this patient? (check one) A. Laboratory evaluation B. Inpatient monitoring, with no antibiotics at this time C. Hospitalization and intravenous ceftriaxone (Rocephin) D. Close outpatient follow-up, with no antibiotics at this time E. Oral high-dose amoxicillin (90 mg/kg/day), with close outpatient follow-up

E. Oral high-dose amoxicillin (90 mg/kg/day), with close outpatient follow-up. The diagnosis of community-acquired pneumonia is mostly based on the history and physical examination. Pneumonia should be suspected in any child with fever, cyanosis, and any abnormal respiratory finding in the history or physical examination. Children under 2 years of age who are in day care are at higher risk for developing community-acquired pneumonia. Laboratory tests are rarely helpful in differentiating viral versus bacterial etiologies and should not be routinely performed. Outpatient antibiotics are appropriate if the child does not have a toxic appearance, hypoxemia, signs of respiratory distress, or dehydration. Streptococcus pneumoniae is one of the most common etiologies in this age group, and high-dose amoxicillin is the drug of choice.

An 86-year-old mildly demented male nursing-home resident rarely leaves the facility. He has frequent fecal incontinence that is disturbing to both him and his family. He has diet-controlled diabetes mellitus and hypertension, and a history of transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) for benign prostatic hypertrophy. An examination is remarkable only for an empty rectum and no focal neurologic findings. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's fecal incontinence? (check one) A. Decreased rectal sensation secondary to diabetes mellitus B. Decreased rectal storage capacity C. Internal sphincter weakness D. Puborectalis weakness E. Overflow

E. Overflow. Overflow incontinence is common in the institutionalized elderly, and is often due to constipating medications. Reduced storage capacity is usually seen with inflammatory bowel disease. Mild diabetes mellitus does not cause decreased rectal sensation, and puborectalis and internal sphincter weakness are uncommon in males, as they usually result from vaginal delivery.

A 44-year-old female is distressed because of incontinence. She reports frequent episodes of an immediate need to urinate, which cannot always be deferred. She admits to urinating more than 10 times a day, but denies any urine leakage with coughing, laughing, or straining. Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient? (check one) A. Solifenacin (Vesicare) B. Oxybutynin (Ditropan XL) C. Tamsulosin (Flomax) D. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) E. Pelvic floor muscle training and bladder training

E. Pelvic floor muscle training and bladder training. Nonpharmacologic therapy is recommended for all patients with an overactive bladder. Pelvic floor muscle training (e.g., Kegel exercises) and bladder training are proven effective in urge incontinence or overactive bladder, as well as in stress and mixed incontinence. In motivated patients, training may be more effective than medications such as oxybutynin and newer muscarinic receptor antagonists such as solifenacin. Tamsulosin is used in benign prostatic hypertrophy and phenazopyridine is a urinary tract anesthetic that has not been recommended for treating overactive bladder.

A 40-year-old businessman has recently been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome after extensive testing by his gastroenterologist. His predominant symptoms are diarrhea and pain. Which one of the following has been shown to be helpful in controlled trials? (check one) A. Probiotics such as yogurt and buttermilk B. Insoluble fiber such as wheat bran, corn bran, and defatted flaxseed C. Soluble fiber such as psyllium (ispaghula) D. Turmeric E. Peppermint oil

E. Peppermint oil. Studies suggest that in 25% of patients, irritable bowel syndrome may be caused or aggravated by one or more dietary components. Restriction of fermentable, poorly absorbed carbohydrates is beneficial, including fructan (found in wheat and onions), sorbitol, and other such alcohols. Further studies are needed, however. Despite its popularity, fiber is marginally beneficial and insoluble fiber may worsen symptoms in patients with diarrhea. Probiotics in the form of foods such as buttermilk and live-culture yogurt have thus far not been established as useful. Daily use of peppermint oil has been shown to relieve symptoms.

Many of the changes that occur as part of aging affect pharmacokinetics. Which one of the following is INCREASED in geriatric patients? (check one) A. Drug absorption B. Glomerular filtration rate C. Lean body mass D. Volume of distribution of water-soluble compounds such as digoxin E. Percentage of body fat

E. Percentage of body fat. The physiologic changes that accompany aging result in altered pharmacokinetics. Drug distribution is one important factor. In older persons, there is a relative increase in body fat and a relative decrease in lean body mass, which causes increased distribution of fat-soluble drugs such as diazepam. This also increases the elimination half-life of such medications. The volume of distribution of water-soluble compounds such as digoxin is decreased in older patients, which means a smaller dose is required to reach a given target plasma concentration. There is a predictable reduction in glomerular filtration rate and tubular secretion with aging, which causes decreased clearance of medications in the geriatric population. The absorption of drugs changes little with advancing age. All of these changes are important factors in choosing dosages of medications in the elderly population.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 17 ======================================================= A 53-year-old female presents to the emergency department following a fall. She is found to have an ankle fracture and a blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg. She tells the emergency department physician that she is not aware of any previous medical problems. A focused cardiovascular examination is otherwise normal. You are the patient's regular physician, and the emergency physician calls your office for further information about the blood pressure elevation. You confirm that this is a new problem. Which one of the following would you ask the emergency physician to do? (check one) A. Administer a dose of intravenous labetalol (Trandate) and ask the patient to follow up in your office within the week B. Administer nifedipine (Adalat, Procardia), 10 mg; discharge the patient once the blood pressure falls to 140/90 mm Hg; and ask the patient to follow up with you tomorrow C. Prescribe an appropriate antihypertensive agent and have the patient follow up with you in a month D. Order an EKG and chest radiograph, and ask the patient to see you in a week if the results are normal E. Perform no further evaluation of the hypertension, but ask the patient to follow up with you within a month

E. Perform no further evaluation of the hypertension, but ask the patient to follow up with you within a month. Uncomplicated hypertension is frequently detected in the emergency department. Many times this is a chronic condition, but it also may result from an acutely painful situation. Hypertensive emergencies, defined as severe blood pressure elevations to >180/120 mm Hg complicated by evidence of impending or worsening target organ dysfunction, warrant emergent treatment. There is no evidence, however, to suggest that treatment of an isolated blood pressure elevation in the emergency department is linked to a reduction in overall risk. In fact, the aggressive reduction of blood pressure with either intravenous or oral agents is not without potential risk. The appropriate management for the patient in this scenario is simply to discharge her and ask her to follow up with you in the near future.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 81 ======================================================= An obviously intoxicated 50-year-old white male is brought to the emergency department after the car he was driving hit a telephone pole. He has a fracture of the femur, and is confused and uncooperative. His pulse rate is 120 beats/min, his blood pressure is 80/40 mm Hg, and his skin is clammy. Initial physical examination of his abdomen does not indicate significant intra-abdominal injury. Which one of the following would be best for determining whether laparotomy is needed? (check one) A. CT of the abdomen B. MRI of the abdomen C. Upright and lateral decubitus radiographs of the abdomen D. Contrast duodenography E. Peritoneal lavage

E. Peritoneal lavage. Physical examination of the abdomen is often unreliable for detecting significant intra-abdominal injury, especially in the head-injured or intoxicated patient. In a hemodynamically unstable patient with a high-risk mechanism of injury and altered mental status, peritoneal lavage is the quickest, most reliable modality to determine whether there is a concomitant intra-abdominal injury requiring laparotomy. CT of the abdomen and contrast duodenography may complement lavage in stable patients with negative or equivocal lavage results, but in an unstable or uncooperative patient these studies are too time-consuming or require ill-advised sedation. Ultrasonography may also complement lavage in selected patients, but its usefulness is limited in the acute situation. MRI is extremely accurate for the anatomic definition of structural injury, but logistics limit its practical application in acute abdominal trauma.

A 30-year-old male complains of the gradual onset of anterior right knee pain on climbing the stairs. On examination there is no effusion, but there is tenderness over the medial retinaculum. There is good ligament strength, and range of motion is normal. When the knee is extended from 90° flexion to full extension, the patella deviates laterally. Which one of the following would be the best initial treatment for this condition? (check one) A. Bracing B. Taping C. NSAIDs D. Arthroscopic surgery E. Physical therapy

E. Physical therapy. This patient has patellofemoral stress syndrome. It is often called runner's knee or anterior knee pain. The patellofemoral joint comprises the patella and femoral trochlea. The best initial treatment is physical therapy. Bracing, taping, and medications are unlikely to have better outcomes. Arthroscopic surgery is not indicated.

A 12-year-old Hispanic female is brought to your office because of the recent onset of a white vaginal discharge. She is otherwise asymptomatic and has never menstruated. She denies sexual activity and a general examination reveals no abnormalities. You note the presence of breast buds and scant pubic hair. Microscopic examination of the vaginal discharge shows sheets of vaginal epithelial cells. Which one of the following is most likely in this setting? (check one) A. Pinworm (Enterobius vermicularis) infestation B. Sexual abuse C. Vaginal foreign body D. Trichomoniasis E. Physiologic secretions

E. Physiologic secretions. This child is entering puberty. In the 6- to 12-month period before menarche, girls often develop a physiologic vaginal discharge secondary to the increase in circulating estrogens. The gray-white discharge is non-irritating. When physiologic discharge is examined with the microscope, sheets of vaginal epithelial cells are seen. The only treatment necessary is reassurance of both parents and child that this is a normal process that will subside with time. The other conditions listed are pathologic and have other associated symptoms and findings not seen in this case. Pinworms normally cause perianal and vulvar pruritus and irritation. The findings in sexual abuse range from an inflamed vulvovaginal area, to evidence of sexually transmitted diseases, to evidence of local trauma. Trichomoniasis would cause vulvovaginal irritation and microscopic examination of the discharge would show Trichomonas organisms. A vaginal foreign body would usually present with a foul and/or bloody vaginal discharge.

Which one of the following treatments for diabetes mellitus reduces insulin resistance? (check one) A. Acarbose (Precose) B. Sitagliptin (Januvia) C. Repaglinide (Prandin) D. Exenatide (Byetta) E. Pioglitazone (Actos)

E. Pioglitazone (Actos). Repaglinide and nateglinide are nonsulfonylureas that act on a portion of the sulfonylurea receptor to stimulate insulin secretion. Pioglitazone is a thiazolidinedione, which reduces insulin resistance. It is believed that the mechanism for this is activation of PPAR-Y, a receptor that affects several insulin-responsive genes. Acarbose is a competitive inhibitor of α-glucosidases, enzymes that break down complex carbohydrates into monosaccharides. This delays the absorption of carbohydrates such as starch, sucrose, and maltose, but does not affect the absorption of glucose. Sitagliptin is a DPP-IV inhibitor, and this class of drugs inhibits the enzyme responsible for the breakdown of the incretins GLP-1 and GIP. Exenatide is an incretin mimetic that stimulates insulin secretion in a glucose-dependent fashion, slows gastric emptying, and may promote satiety.

A 40-year-old female presents with a complaint of fatigue. She says she is also concerned because she has gained about 10 lb over the last several months. Physical examination reveals no enlargement or other abnormalities of the thyroid gland. Laboratory testing reveals a TSH level of 0.03 μU/mL (N 0.4-4.0) and a free T4 level of 1.0 μg/dL (N 1.5-5.5). Which one of the following is the most likely cause of her problem? (check one) A. Malnutrition B. Graves' disease C. Goiter D. Hashimoto's thyroiditis E. Pituitary failure

E. Pituitary failure. This patient's symptoms and laboratory findings suggest a significant lack of TSH despite low levels of circulating thyroid hormone. This is diagnostic of secondary hypothyroidism. Such findings should prompt a workup for a pituitary or hypothalamic deficiency that is causing a lack of TSH production. Primary hypothyroidism, such as Hashimoto's thyroiditis, would be evidenced by an elevated TSH and low (or normal) T4 . Graves' disease is a cause of hyperthyroidism, which would be expected to increase T4 levels, although low TSH with a normal T4 level may be present. Some nonthyroid conditions such as malnutrition may suppress T4 . In such cases the TSH would be elevated or normal. This patient has gained weight, which does not coincide with malnutrition. The patient does not have the thyroid gland enlargement seen with goiter.

Of the following, which one is most consistent with this patient's history and examination? (check one) A. Guttate psoriasis B. Tinea versicolor C. Radiation dermatitis D. Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma E. Pityriasis rosea

E. Pityriasis rosea. This presentation is typical of pityriasis rosea. There was a mild prodrome, thought to be jet lag by this patient, followed by the development of an ovoid salmon-colored, slightly raised herald patch, most commonly seen on the trunk. This was followed by an outbreak of multiple smaller, similar lesions that trend along Langer's lines. In this case, clear evidence of the herald patch remains visible in the left interscapular region, which is helpful in confirming the diagnosis. Guttate psoriasis shares some features with pityriasis rosea in that it can appear suddenly and often follows a triggering incident such as a streptococcal infection, which could be confused with a prodromal phase; however, the absence of a herald patch and the smaller but thicker erythematous lesions differentiate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea. Tinea versicolor often involves the upper trunk and may appear as a lightly erythematous, scaling rash, but the onset is more gradual than in this case. Although this patient may be exposed to low levels of radiation in her job, radiation dermatitis requires doses such as those administered in cancer treatment protocols and would generally be limited to the field of exposure. Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma usually presents as a nonspecific dermatitis, most commonly in men over the age of 50. An infectious etiology for pityriasis rosea is strongly suspected, although none has been identified. There is some evidence that the agent may be human herpesvirus 6. The illness generally resolves within 2 months, leaving no residual signs other than postinflammatory hyperpigmentation.

A 32-year-old gravida 3 para 2 is in labor at term following an uncomplicated prenatal course. As you deliver the fetal head it retracts against the perineum. Downward traction fails to free the anterior shoulder. The most appropriate course of action would be to: (check one) A. Apply increasingly strong downward traction to the fetal head B. Have an assistant apply fundal pressure C. Deliberately fracture the clavicle of the fetus D. Begin an intravenous nitroglycerin drip E. Place the mother's thighs on her abdomen

E. Place the mother's thighs on her abdomen. While there are several risk factors for shoulder dystocia, most cases occur in fetuses of normal birth weight and are not anticipated. Once it does occur, excessive force should not be applied to the fetal head or neck and fundal pressure should be avoided, as these manuevers are unlikely to free the fetus and can injure both mother and infant. Up to 40% of shoulder dystocia cases can be successfully treated with the McRoberts maneuver, in which the maternal hips are flexed and abducted, placing the thighs up on the abdomen. Adding suprapubic pressure can resolve about half of all shoulder dystocias. Additional maneuvers include internal rotation, removal of the posterior arm, and rolling the patient over into the all-fours position. As a last resort, one can deliberately fracture the fetal clavicle, perform a cesarean section with the vertex being pushed back into the birth canal, or have the surgeon rotate the infant transabdominally with vaginal extraction performed by another physician. General anesthesia or nitroglycerin, orally or intravenously, may be used to achieve musculoskeletal or uterine relaxation. Intentional division of the cartilage of the symphysis under local anesthesia has been used in developing countries, but should be used only if all other maneuvers have failed and a cesarean delivery is not feasible.

A 44-year-old African-American female reports diffuse aching, especially in her upper legs and shoulders. The aching has increased, and she now has trouble going up and down stairs because of weakness. She has no visual symptoms, and a neurologic examination is normal except for proximal muscle weakness. Laboratory tests reveal elevated levels of serum creatine kinase and aldolase. Her symptoms improve significantly when she is treated with corticosteroids. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Duchenne's muscular dystrophy B. Myasthenia gravis C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Aseptic necrosis of the femoral head E. Polymyositis

E. Polymyositis. The patient described has an inflammatory myopathy of the polymyositis/dermatomyositis group. Proximal muscle involvement and elevation of serum muscle enzymes such as creatine kinase and aldolase are characteristic. Corticosteroids are the accepted treatment of choice. It is extremely unlikely that Duchenne's muscular dystrophy would present after age 30. In amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, an abnormal neurologic examination with findings of upper motor neuron dysfunction is characteristic. Patients with myasthenia gravis characteristically have optic involvement, often presenting as diplopia. The predominant symptom of aseptic necrosis of the femoral head is pain rather than proximal muscle weakness.

A case of meningococcal meningitis has just been confirmed at a day-care center. The susceptibility of the microorganism is not yet known. At this point, you should do which one of the following for the day-care center contacts? (check one) A. Culture their nasopharyngeal secretions B. Administer meningococcal vaccine C. Prescribe sulfadiazine D. Prescribe chloramphenicol (Chloromycetin) E. Prescribe rifampin (Rifadin)

E. Prescribe rifampin (Rifadin). Rifampin, in the absence of major contraindications, is the drug of choice for preventing the spread of meningococcal disease when the susceptibility of the organism is not known. In this situation, meningococcal vaccines are of no value because their protective effects take a few days to develop, and because they do not protect against group B meningococci, the most prevalent strain for meningococcal disease. Sulfadiazine is the drug of choice if the meningococcus is known to be susceptible to it. Chloramphenicol and penicillin, which are effective in treating the disease, are ineffective in eliminating nasopharyngeal carriers of meningococci, possibly because they do not appear in high concentrations in saliva. Culturing contacts for meningococcal carriage in the nasopharynx has no value for identifying those at risk for meningococcal disease.

A 9-month-old male is brought to your office by his mother because of concerns about his eating. She states that he throws tantrums while sitting in his high chair, dumps food on the floor, and refuses to eat. She has resorted to feeding him cookies, crackers, and juice, which are all he will eat. A complete physical examination, including a growth chart of weight, length, and head circumference, is normal. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate recommendation? (check one) A. Use disciplinary measures to force the child to eat a healthy breakfast, lunch, and dinner B. Leave the child in the high chair until he has eaten all of the healthy meal presented C. Play feeding games to encourage consumption of healthy meals or snacks D. Skip the next meal if the child refuses to eat E. Provide healthy foods for all meals and snacks, and end the meal if the child refuses to eat

E. Provide healthy foods for all meals and snacks, and end the meal if the child refuses to eat. It is estimated that 3%-10% of infants and toddlers refuse to eat according to their caregivers. Unlike other feeding problems such as colic, this problem tends to persist without intervention. It is recommended that caregivers establish food rules, such as healthy scheduled meals and snacks, and apply them consistently. Parents should control what, when, and where children are being fed, whereas children should control how much they eat at any given time in accordance with physiologic signals of hunger and fullness. No food or drinks other than water should be offered between meals or snacks. Food should not be offered as a reward or present. Parents can be reassured that a normal child will learn to eat enough to prevent starvation. If malnutrition does occur, a search for a physical or mental abnormality should be sought.

A 19-year-old female high-school student is brought to your office by a friend who is concerned about the patient having cut her wrists. The patient denies that she was trying to kill herself, and states that she did this because she "just got so angry" at her boyfriend when she caught him sending a text message to another woman. She denies having a depressed mood or anhedonia, and blames her fluctuating mood on everyone who "keeps abandoning her," making her feel like she's "nothing." She admits that she has difficulty controlling her anger. Her sleep quality and pattern appear normal, as does her appetite. She denies hallucinations or delusions. The wounds on her wrists appear superficial and there is evidence of previous cutting behavior on her forearms. Her vital signs are stable. Which one of the following would be most beneficial for this patient? (check one) A. Clonazepam (Klonopin) B. Fluoxetine (Prozac) C. Quetiapine (Seroquel) D. Inpatient psychiatric admission E. Psychotherapy

E. Psychotherapy. This patient displays most of the criteria for borderline personality disorder. This is a maladaptive personality type that is present from a young age, with a strong genetic predisposition. It is estimated to be present in 1% of the general population and involves equal numbers of men and women; women seek care more often, however, leading to a disproportionate number of women being identified by medical providers. Borderline personality disorder is defined by high emotional lability, intense anger, unstable relationships, frantic efforts to avoid a feeling of abandonment, and an internal sense of emptiness. Nearly every patient with this disorder engages in self-injurious behavior (cutting, suicidal gestures and attempts), and about 1 in 10 patients eventually succeeds in committing suicide. However, 90% of patients improve despite having made numerous suicide threats. Suicidal gestures and attempts peak when patients are in their early 20s, but completed suicide is most common after age 30 and usually occurs in patients who fail to recover after many attempts at treatment. In contrast, suicidal actions such as impulsive overdoses or superficial cutting, most often seen in younger patients, do not usually carry a high short-term risk, and serve to communicate distress. Inpatient hospitalization may be an appropriate treatment option if the person is experiencing extreme difficulties in living and daily functioning, and pharmacotherapy may offer a mild degree of symptom relief. While these modalities have a role in certain patients, psychotherapy is considered the mainstay of therapy, especially in a relatively stable patient such as the one described.

Patients with which one of the following conditions are at increased risk for complications from electroconvulsive therapy for depression? (check one) A. Pregnancy B. Seizure disorder C. Cardiac pacemaker implantation D. Depression unresponsive to oral medications E. Recent cerebral hemorrhage

E. Recent cerebral hemorrhage. There are no absolute contraindications to electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), but more complications are seen in patients with a history of recent cerebral hemorrhage, stroke, or increased intracranial pressure. The efficacy of ECT may be reduced in patients who have not responded to oral antidepressants.

Which one of the following is true concerning falls in the elderly? (check one) A. Treating depression with SSRIs reduces the risk of falling B. Patients tend to fall less often immediately after coming home from the hospital C. Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring should be ordered for all patients who fall D. Arthritis and vision impairment are not associated with an increased risk of falling E. Reducing the number of medications a patient takes reduces the risk of falling

E. Reducing the number of medications a patient takes reduces the risk of falling. Falling is one of the most common adverse events associated with drugs. The elderly frequently take many medications; reducing these medications also reduces the risk of falling. SSRIs, tricyclic antidepressants, benzodiazepines, and anticonvulsants have the strongest association with falls in the elderly. The highest risk for falling occurs immediately after hospital stays and lasts for about a month. Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring is associated with so many false-negative and false-positive results that it cannot be recommended for all patients who fall. Arthritis and vision problems are both strongly associated with an increased risk of falls.

A 72-year-old African-American male with New York Heart Association Class III heart failure sees you for follow-up. He has shortness of breath with minimal exertion. The patient is adherent to his medication regimen. His current medications include lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril), 40 mg twice daily; carvedilol (Coreg), 25 mg twice daily; and furosemide (Lasix), 80 mg daily. His blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, and his pulse rate is 68 beats/min and regular. Findings include a few scattered bibasilar rales on examination of the lungs, an S3 gallop on examination of the heart, and no edema on examination of the legs. An EKG reveals a left bundle branch block, and echocardiography reveals an ejection fraction of 25%, but no other abnormalities. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this time? (check one) A. Increase the lisinopril dosage to 80 mg twice daily B. Increase the carvedilol dosage to 50 mg twice daily C. Increase the furosemide dosage to 160 mg daily D. Refer for coronary angiography E. Refer for cardiac resynchronization therapy

E. Refer for cardiac resynchronization therapy. This patient is already receiving maximal medical therapy. The 2002 joint guidelines of the American College of Cardiology, the American Heart Association (AHA), and the North American Society of Pacing and Electrophysiology endorse the use of cardiac resynchronization therapy (CRT) in patients with medically refractory, symptomatic, New York Heart Association (NYHA) class III or IV disease with a QRS interval of at least 130 msec, a left ventricular end-diastolic diameter of at least 55 mm, and a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) ≤30%. Using a pacemaker-like device, CRT aims to get both ventricles contracting simultaneously, overcoming the delayed contraction of the left ventricle caused by the left bundle-branch block. These guidelines were refined by an April 2005 AHA Science Advisory, which stated that optimal candidates for CRT have a dilated cardiomyopathy on an ischemic or nonischemic basis, an LVEF ≤0.35, a QRS complex ≥120 msec, and sinus rhythm, and are NYHA functional class III or IV despite maximal medical therapy for heart failure.

Which one of the following is most predictive of increased perioperative cardiovascular events associated with noncardiac surgery in the elderly? (check one) A. An age of 80 years B. Left bundle-branch block C. Atrial fibrillation with a rate of 80 beats/min D. A history of previous stroke E. Renal insufficiency (creatinine 2.0 mg/dL)

E. Renal insufficiency (creatinine 2.0 mg/dL). Clinical predictors of increased perioperative cardiovascular risk for elderly patients include major risk factors such as unstable coronary syndrome (acute or recent myocardial infarction, unstable angina), decompensated congestive heart failure, significant arrhythmia (high-grade AV block, symptomatic ventricular arrhythmia, supraventricular arrhythmias with uncontrolled ventricular rate), and severe valvular disease. Intermediate predictors are mild angina, previous myocardial infarction, compensated congestive heart failure, diabetes mellitus, and renal insufficiency. Minor predictors are advanced age, an abnormal EKG, left ventricular hypertrophy, left bundle-branch block, ST and T-wave abnormalities, rhythm other than sinus, low functional capacity, history of stroke, and uncontrolled hypertension.

A 3-year-old female presents with urinary frequency, dysuria, and fever to 39.0 degrees C (102.2 degrees F). She denies nausea, vomiting, fever, and flank pain. There is no prior history of urinary infection and no family history of urinary tract abnormalities. Urethral catheterization reveals bacteriuria and a urine culture reveals >100,000 colony-forming units of Escherichia coli. She is started on appropriate antibiotic therapy. Evaluation to rule out anatomic abnormalities should include: (check one) A. Renal ultrasonography only if she has recurrent infections B. Renal ultrasonography and voiding cystourethrography (VCUG) only if she has recurrent infections C. Renal ultrasonography and cystoscopy only if she has recurrent infections D. Renal ultrasonography for this primary episode of infection E. Renal ultrasonography and VCUG for this primary episode of infection

E. Renal ultrasonography and VCUG for this primary episode of infection. In the first few months of life, the incidence of urinary tract infection (UTI) in boys is higher than that of girls. However, after that time period, UTIs are much more common in females, with the peak incidence in the 2- to 3-year age range. The clinical presentation of UTI in children is similar to that of adults, including dysuria, hematuria, frequency, incontinence, suprapubic tenderness, and low-grade fever. Upper tract infection is suggested by high fever, nausea, vomiting, flank pain, and lethargy. All children who have a culture-documented UTI should undergo evaluation of the anatomy of the urinary tract. This is due to the fact that children who are at most risk for renal parenchymal damage are those with an anatomic defect. In general, studies to evaluate both the upper and lower tract are recommended. Children under the age of 5 years with a UTI, any child with a UTI and a fever, school-aged girls who have had two or more UTIs, and any boy with a UTI should have a voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG) to evaluate for vesiculoureteral reflux and renal ultrasonography to evaluate the kidneys. Cystoscopy and retrograde pyelography are rarely indicated in the workup.

Ultrasonography shows a complete placenta previa in a 23-year-old primigravida at 20 weeks gestation. She has not experienced any vaginal bleeding. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management for this patient? (check one) A. Schedule a cesarean section at 38 weeks gestation B. Perform a digital examination to assess for cervical dilation C. Administer corticosteroids to promote fetal lung maturity D. Order MRI to rule out placenta accreta E. Repeat the ultrasonography at 28 weeks gestation

E. Repeat the ultrasonography at 28 weeks gestation. Placenta previa is a relatively common incidental finding on second trimester ultrasonography. Approximately 4% of ultrasound studies at 20-24 weeks gestation show a placenta previa, but it occurs in only 0.4% of pregnancies at term, because of migration of the placenta away from the lower uterine segment. Therefore, in the absence of bleeding, the most appropriate management is to repeat the ultrasonography in the third trimester (SOR A). Because many placenta previas resolve close to term, a decision regarding mode of delivery should not be made until after ultrasonography is performed at 36 weeks gestation. Digital cervical examinations should not be performed in patients with known placenta previa because of the risk of precipitating bleeding. Corticosteroids are indicated at 24-34 weeks gestation if the patient has bleeding, given the higher risk of premature birth. In patients with a history of previous cesarean delivery who have a placenta previa at the site of the previous incision, a color-flow Doppler study should be performed to evaluate for a potential placenta accreta. In such cases, MRI may be helpful to confirm the diagnosis.

In early February, you receive a call from your office nurse. Her 5-month-old daughter has been ill for several days. What started as a mild upper respiratory infection has progressed and she now has profuse rhinorrhea, a temperature of 100.2° F (37.9° C), and audible wheezing. In spite of an almost nonstop cough, she does not appear acutely ill. The organism responsible for this child's illness is most likely to be: (check one) A. Group B Streptococcus B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae C. Bordetella pertussis D. Parainfluenza virus 3 E. Respiratory syncytial virus

E. Respiratory syncytial virus. The most common cause of pneumonia in children age 4 months to 4 years is respiratory syncytial virus. Other viruses may cause pneumonia as well. The peak incidence of respiratory syncytial virus is between 2 and 7 months of age. Wheezing and profuse rhinorrhea are characteristic and the disease typically occurs in mid-winter or early spring epidemics. Parainfluenza 3 typically affects older infants and is not common in winter. Mycoplasma tends to affect older children and children with bacterial illnesses; those infected with this organism generally appear more acutely ill.

A 47-year-old gravida 3 para 3 is seen for a physical examination. She has had a total abdominal hysterectomy for benign uterine fibroids. Which one of the following is the recommended interval for Papanicolaou (Pap) screening in this patient? (check one) A. Every 5 years B. Every 3 years C. Every 2 years D. Annually E. Routine screening is not necessary

E. Routine screening is not necessary. Most American women who have undergone hysterectomy are not at risk of cervical cancer, as they underwent the procedure for benign disease and no longer have a cervix. U.S. Preventive Services Task Force recommendations issued in 1996 stated that routine Papanicolaou (Pap) screening is unnecessary for these women. Nevertheless, data from the Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System (1992-2002) indicated that in the previous 3 years, some 69% of women with a previous history of hysterectomy for benign causes had undergone screening.

A 25-year-old white female comes to your office complaining of abdominal pain. She requests that you hospitalize her and do whatever is necessary to get rid of the pain that has been present for a number of years. She has difficulty describing the pain. She is a single parent, and becomes defensive when asked about her previous marriage, stating only that her former husband is an alcoholic, "just like my father." Her previous medical history includes an appendectomy, a cholecystectomy, and a hysterectomy. On physical examination she appears healthy and a CBC, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, serum amylase level, serum electrolyte levels, and multiple chemical profile are all normal. Management of this patient should include which one of the following? (check one) A. Long-term use of antidepressants B. Referral to a surgeon for exploratory laparotomy C. Informing her that her problems are psychogenic and that there is nothing to worry about D. Hospitalization as requested, then consultation with a psychiatrist E. Scheduling frequent, regular office visits

E. Scheduling frequent, regular office visits. Somatoform disorder is often encountered in family practice. Studies have documented that 5% of patients meet the criteria for somatization disorder, while another 4% have borderline somatization disorder. Most of these patients are female and have a low socioeconomic status. They have a high utilization of medical services, usually reflected by a thick medical chart, and are often single parents. As a rule, physicians tend to be less satisfied with the care rendered to these patients as opposed to those without the disorder. Patients with multiple unexplained physical complaints have been described as functionally disabled, spending an average of one week per month in bed. Many of these patients seek and are ultimately granted surgical procedures, and it is not uncommon for them to have multiple procedures, especially involving the pelvic area. Often there are associated psychiatric symptoms such as anxiety, depression, suicidal threats, alcohol or drug abuse, interpersonal or occupational difficulties, and antisocial behavior. A background of a dysfunctional family unit in which one or both parents abused alcohol or drugs or were somatically preoccupied is also quite common. Unfortunately, these individuals tend to marry alcohol abusers, and thus continue the pattern of dysfunctional family life. Treatment of somatoform disorder should be by one primary physician where an established relationship and regular visits can curtail the dramatic symptoms that many times lead to hospitalization. The family physician is in a position to monitor family dynamics and provide direction on such issues as alcoholism and child abuse. Each office visit should be accompanied by a physical examination, and the temptation to tell the patient that the problem is not physical should be avoided. Knowing the patient well helps to avoid unnecessary hospitalization, diagnostic procedures, surgery, and laboratory tests. These should be done only if clearly indicated. Psychotropic medications should be avoided except when clearly indicated, as medications reinforce the sick role, may be abused, and may be used for suicidal gestures. Following these recommendations significantly decreases the cost of care for the patient.

A 9-month-old male is seen for a routine well-baby examination. There have been no health problems and developmental milestones are normal. Review of the growth chart shows that length, weight, and head circumference have continued to remain at the 75th percentile. The examination is normal with the exception of the anterior fontanelle being closed. Proper management at this time would include: (check one) A. A CT scan of the head B. MRI of the head C. A CBC, a metabolic profile, and thyroid studies D. Referral to a neurologist E. Serial measurement of head circumference

E. Serial measurement of head circumference. The anterior fontanelle in the newborn is normally 0.6-3.6 cm, with the mean size being 2.1 cm. It may actually enlarge the first few months, but the medial age of closure is 13.8 months. The anterior fontanelle closes at 3 months in 1% of cases, and by 1 year, 38% are closed. While early closure of the anterior fontanelle may be normal, the head circumference must be carefully monitored. The patient needs to be monitored for craniosynostosis (premature closure of one or more sutures) and for abnormal brain development. When craniosynostosis is suspected, a skull radiograph is useful for initial evaluation. If craniosynostosis is seen on the film, a CT scan should be obtained.

Which one of the following is recommended in the treatment of all four stages of COPD, from mild through very severe? (check one) A. Scheduled oral mucolytics B. Scheduled inhaled corticosteroids such as fluticasone (Flovent HFA) C. Scheduled long-acting inhaled bronchodilators such as salmeterol (Serevent) D. Scheduled long-acting anticholinergics such as tiotropium (Spiriva) E. Short-acting inhaled ß2 -agonists such as albuterol (Ventolin HFA), as needed for dyspnea

E. Short-acting inhaled ß2 -agonists such as albuterol (Ventolin HFA), as needed for dyspnea. Short-acting bronchodilators such as albuterol and ipratropium are recommended on an as-needed basis for treatment of breathlessness in stage I (mild) COPD. They are also recommended for as-needed use in stage II (moderate), stage III (severe), and stage IV (very severe) COPD. Long-acting bronchodilators such as salmeterol or tiotropium are recommended for stages II, III, and IV. Inhaled corticosteroids are recommended for stages III and IV. Mucolytics can be considered for stages III and IV.

======================================================= Musculoskeletal Board Review Questions 02 ======================================================= An overweight 13-year-old male presents with a 3-week history of right lower thigh pain. He first noticed the pain when jumping while playing basketball, but now it is present even when he is just walking. On examination he can bear his full weight without an obvious limp. There is no localized tenderness, and the patella tracks normally without subluxation. Internal rotation of the hip is limited on the right side compared to the left. Based on the examination alone, which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head (Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease) B. Osteosarcoma C. Meralgia paresthetica D. Pauciarticular juvenile rheumatoid arthritis E. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

E. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis. This is a classic presentation for slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) in an adolescent male who has probably had a recent growth spurt. Pain with activity is the most common presenting symptom, as opposed to the nighttime pain that is typical of malignancy. Obese males are affected more often. The pain is typically in the anterior thigh, but in a high percentage of patients the pain may be referred to the knee, lower leg, or foot. Limited internal rotation of the hip, especially with the hip in 90°; flexion, is a reliable and specific finding for SCFE and should be looked for in all adolescents with hip, thigh, or knee pain. Meralgia paresthetica is pain in the thigh related to entrapment of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, often attributed to excessively tight clothing. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease (avascular or aseptic necrosis of the femoral head) is more likely to occur between the ages of 4 and 8 years. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis typically is associated with other constitutional symptoms including stiffness, fever, and pain in at least one other joint, with the pain not necessarily associated with activity.

Which one of the following is a physiologic difference between males and females that can affect the pharmacokinetics of medications with a narrow therapeutic index? (check one) A. A consistently higher glomerular filtration rate in women B. The typically higher BMI in women C. Smaller fat stores in women D. Greater gastric acid secretion in women E. Slower gastrointestinal transit times in women

E. Slower gastrointestinal transit times in women. There are key physiologic differences between women and men that can have important implications for drug activity. Gastrointestinal transit times are slower in women than in men, which can diminish the absorption of medications such as metoprolol, theophylline, and verapamil. In addition, women should wait longer after eating before taking medications that should be administered on an empty stomach, such as ampicillin, captopril, levothyroxine, loratadine, and tetracycline. Women also secrete less gastric acid than men, so they may need to drink an acidic beverage to aid in absorption of medications that require an acidic environment, such as ketoconazole. Women usually have lower BMIs than men, and may need smaller loading or bolus dosages of medications to avoid unnecessary adverse reactions. Women typically have higher fat stores than men, so lipophilic drugs such as benzodiazepines and neuromuscular blockers have a longer duration of action. Women also have lower glomerular filtration rates than men, resulting in slower clearance of medications that are eliminated renally, such as digoxin and methotrexate.

Risk factors for venous thromboembolism include which one of the following? (check one) A. Anemia B. The use of oral hypoglycemic agents C. Being underweight D. Young age E. Spinal cord injury

E. Spinal cord injury. There are many risk factors for thromboembolism, including polycythemia vera, oral contraceptive use, obesity, advanced age, and spinal cord injury. Spinal cord injury induces immobility, as do obesity and advanced age. Oral contraceptives make blood more coagulable, particularly in patients with clotting factor abnormalities such as factor V Leiden. Polycythemia vera increases sludging of blood cells and increases the risk of forming clots. Clot risk is not increased by oral hypoglycemic agents, low BMI, youth, or anemia.

An 11-year-old female has been diagnosed with "functional abdominal pain" by a pediatric gastroenterologist. Her mother brings her to see you because of concerns that another diagnosis may have been overlooked despite a very thorough and completely normal evaluation for organic causes. Which one of the following would you recommend? (check one) A. A trial of inpatient hospital admission B. Increased testing and levels of referral until a true diagnosis is reached C. Removing the child from school and activities whenever symptoms occur D. Medications to eradicate symptoms E. Stress reduction and participation in usual activities as much as possible

E. Stress reduction and participation in usual activities as much as possible. The diagnosis of functional abdominal pain is made when no structural, infectious, inflammatory, or biochemical cause for the pain can be found. It is the most common cause of recurrent abdominal pain in children 4-16 years of age. The use of medications may be helpful in reducing (but rarely eradicating) functional symptoms, and remaining open to the possibility of a previously unrecognized organic disorder is appropriate. However, continuing to focus on organic causes, invasive tests, or physician visits can actually perpetuate a child's complaints and distress. It is estimated that approximately 30%-50% of children with functional abdominal pain will have resolution of their symptoms within 2 weeks of diagnosis. Recommendations for managing this problem include focusing on participation in normal age-appropriate activities, reducing stress and addressing emotional distress, and teaching the family to cope with the symptoms in a way that prevents secondary gain on the part of the child.

A 55-year-old male presents for an evaluation of heel pain. He has a relatively sedentary office job, but exercises daily by jogging 3 miles. He has pain in the right heel at the medial aspect of the calcaneus and is tender on examination. The pain is worse with the first few steps of the morning. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient? (check one) A. Corticosteroid injection B. Extracorporeal shockwave therapy C. Surgical referral for bone spur removal D. Non-weight bearing for 1 month E. Stretching exercises for the Achilles tendon

E. Stretching exercises for the Achilles tendon. Plantar fasciitis is an overuse injury due to microtrauma of the plantar fascia where it attaches at the medial calcaneal tubercle. The patient experiences heel or arch pain, which often is worse upon arising and taking the first few steps of the morning. Examination reveals tenderness at the site and pain with dorsiflexion of the toes. Stress fractures often cause pain at rest that intensifies with weight bearing. Treatment strategies include relative rest, ice, NSAIDs, and prefabricated shoe inserts that provide arch support, as well as heel cord and plantar fascia stretching. Currently, there is evidence against the use of extracorporeal shockwave therapy. If conservative therapy fails, a corticosteroid injection may be useful. Surgery is reserved for patients refractory to 6-12 months of uninterrupted conservative therapy.

Which one of the following treatments is most appropriate for a patient with uncomplicated acute bronchitis? (check one) A. Amoxicillin B. Amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) C. Azithromycin (Zithromax) D. Doxycycline E. Supportive care only

E. Supportive care only. Respiratory viruses appear to be the most common cause of acute bronchitis; however, the organism responsible is rarely identified in clinical practice because viral cultures and serologic assays are not routinely performed. Fewer than 10% of patients will have a bacterial infection diagnosed as the cause of bronchitis. For this reason, for patients with a putative diagnosis of acute bronchitis, routine treatment with antibiotics is not justified and should not be offered. Antitussive agents are occasionally useful and can be offered as therapy for short-term symptomatic relief of coughing.

A 23-month-old child is brought to your office with a 2-day history of a fever to 102°F (39°C), cough, wheezing, and mildly labored breathing. He has no prior history of similar episodes and there is no improvement with administration of an aerosolized bronchodilator. Which one of the following is now indicated? (check one) A. Bronchodilator aerosol treatment every 6 hours B. Corticosteroids C. An antibiotic D. A decongestant E. Supportive care only

E. Supportive care only. This child has typical findings of bronchiolitis. The initial infection usually occurs by the age of 2 years. It is caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Bronchodilator treatment may be tried once and discontinued if there is no improvement. Treatment usually consists of supportive care only, including oxygen and intravenous fluids if indicated (SOR B). Corticosteroids, antibiotics, and decongestants are of no benefit. RSV infection may recur, since an infection does not provide immunity. Up to 10% of infected children will have wheezing past age 5, and bronchiolitis may predispose them to asthma.

Lymphadenopathy of the head and neck at which one of the following sites is most likely to be malignant? (check one) A. Anterior cervical B. Posterior cervical C. Preauricular D. Submandibular E. Supraclavicular

E. Supraclavicular. In patients with head and neck lymphadenopathy, supraclavicular nodes are the most likely to be malignant. Lymphadenopathy of these nodes should always be investigated, even in children. Overall, the prevalence of malignancy with this presentation is unknown, but rates of 54%-85% have been seen in biopsy series reports.

A 22-year-old male with no previous history of shoulder problems is injured in a fall. He has immediate pain and is unable to abduct his arm. You examine him and order an MRI, which reveals an acute tear of the rotator cuff. Which one of the following is the best initial treatment for this injury? (check one) A. Observation without treatment for 1 month B. Immobilization for 1 month C. Physical therapy for 1 month D. Corticosteroid injection E. Surgical repair

E. Surgical repair. An acute rupture of any major tendon should be repaired as soon as possible. Acute tears of the rotator cuff should be repaired within 6 weeks of the injury if possible (SOR C). Nonsurgical management is not recommended for active persons. Observing for an extended period will likely lead to retraction of the detached tendon, possible resorption of tissue, and muscle atrophy.

Pay-for-performance (P4P) programs provide financial incentives for meeting predetermined quality targets. Contracts with major payors often include these programs. When considering P4P programs in such contracts, physicians should negotiate for which one of the following? (check one) A. Guidelines developed by academic medicine researchers B. Guidelines based on consensus opinions C. Mandatory physician participation D. Reporting of negative performance results to licensure boards E. Taking patient compliance into account when performing the evaluation

E. Taking patient compliance into account when performing the evaluation. Pay-for-performance programs are becoming a critical part of the health care reform debate, and when the discussion began in 2005, over 100 such programs were in existence. The objective is to reward physicians for achieving goals that should lead to improved patient outcomes. In addition to evaluating clinical performance, many programs now also evaluate efficiency and information technology. However, many programs are not based on outcomes data, and have less desirable aspects such as inadequate incentive levels, withholding of payment, limited clinical focus, or unequal or unfair distribution of incentives. Plans that exclude patient compliance as a factor can lead to withholding of physician incentives because of patient nonadherence, or to physicians selectively removing such patients from their panels. As the exact process is still being defined, all family physicians should be actively engaged in learning more about these programs, and in negotiating for appropriate measures to be included. The AAFP has seven main principles in its support for pay-for-performance programs: (1) the focus should be on improved quality of care; (2) physician-patient relationships should be supported; (3) evidence-based clinical guidelines should be utilized; (4) practicing physicians should be involved with the program design; (5) reliable, accurate, and scientifically valid data should be used; (6) physicians should be provided with positive incentives; and (7) physician participation should be voluntary. Ensuring that patient adherence is included helps prevent conflicts between patients and their physicians. A pay-for-performance program should not result in a reduction of fees paid to the physician as a result of implementing a program. Negative results should not penalize the physician with regard to health plan credentialing, verification, or licensure.

A 16-year-old female cross-country runner has pain around both ankles. On examination, pain is elicited on foot inversion and there is decreased motion of the hind foot and peroneal tightness. A rigid flat foot also is observed. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (check one) A. Non-ossification of the os trigonum B. Sever's apophysitis C. Plantar fasciitis D. Navicular stress fracture E. Tarsal coalition

E. Tarsal coalition. Tarsal coalition is the fusion of two or more tarsal bones. It occurs in mid-to late adolescence and is bilateral in 50% of those affected. Pain occurs around the ankle, and there is decreased range of motion of the hindfoot and pain on foot inversion on examination. Os trigonum results from non-ossification of cartilage. It usually is unilateral and causes palpable tenderness of the heel. Sever's apophysitis is inflammation of the calcaneal apophysis, and causes pain in the heel. Plantar fasciitis causes tenderness over the anteromedial heel. Navicular stress fractures are tender over the dorsomedial navicular.

With regard to the cardiovascular system, activation of the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system will cause a decrease in which one of the following? (check one) A. Heart rate B. Coronary flow rate C. Metabolic demand D. Contractility of cardiac myocytes E. The P-R interval

E. The P-R interval. The sympathetic nervous system acts as a positive chronotropic (increases heart rate) and inotropic (increases contractility) agent. This additional work by the heart will increase metabolic demand and coronary flow rate. The increased heart rate will decrease the time intervals between electrical events shown on an EKG.

Which one of the following is most accurate regarding somatization disorder? (check one) A. Onset before age 40 is atypical B. It is a form of malingering C. Symptoms tend to resolve spontaneously within weeks of onset D. Symptoms are limited to one organ system or bodily function E. The incidence is increased among female first degree relatives of patients with the disorder

E. The incidence is increased among female first degree relatives of patients with the disorder. Somatization disorder is a psychological disorder characterized by the chronic presence of several unexplained symptoms beginning before the age of 30 years. It is diagnostically grouped with conversion disorder, hypochondriasis, and body dysmorphic disorder. By definition, the symptom complex must include a minimum of two symptoms relating to the gastrointestinal system, one neurologic complaint, one sexual complaint, and four pain complaints. The condition is more common in women than in men, and the incidence is increased as much as tenfold in female first degree relatives of affected patients.

Which one of the following is true concerning the use of short-acting inhaled β-agonists for asthma? (check one) A. They should be given before any inhaled corticosteroid to facilitate lung delivery B. They are ineffective in patients taking β-blockers C. They are less effective than oral β-agonists D. They are less effective than anticholinergic bronchodilators when given with inhaled corticosteroids E. Their effects begin within 5 minutes and last 4-6 hours

E. Their effects begin within 5 minutes and last 4-6 hours. The effects of short-acting inhaled β-agonists begin within 5 minutes and last 4-6 hours. In the past, giving inhaled β-agonists just before inhaled corticosteroids was felt to improve the delivery and effectiveness of the corticosteroids. However, this has been proven to be ineffective and is no longer recommended. β-Blockers do diminish the effectiveness of inhaled β-agonists, but this effect is not severe enough to contraindicate using these drugs together. Oral β-agonists are less potent than inhaled forms. Similarly, anticholinergic drugs cause less bronchodilation than inhaled β-agonists and are not recommended as first-line therapy.

Which one of the following is an absolute contraindication to electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)? (check one) A. Age >80 years B. A cardiac pacemaker C. An implantable cardioverter-defibrillator D. Pregnancy E. There are no absolute contraindications to ECT

E. There are no absolute contraindications to ECT. There are no absolute contraindications to electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), but factors that have been associated with reduced efficacy include a prolonged episode, lack of response to medication, and coexisting psychiatric diagnoses such as a personality disorder. Persons who may be at increased risk for complications include those with unstable cardiac disease such as ischemia or arrhythmias, cerebrovascular disease such as recent cerebral hemorrhage or stroke, or increased intracranial pressure. ECT can be used safely in elderly patients and in persons with cardiac pacemakers or implantable cardioverter-defibrillators. ECT also can be used safely during pregnancy, with proper precautions and in consultation with an obstetrician.

A 59-year-old male who is morbidly obese suffers a cardiac arrest. Intravenous access cannot be obtained. Which one of the following is true regarding intraosseous drug administration in this patient? (check one) A. The patient's age and size are a contraindication to intraosseous administration B. The time needed to establish intraosseous access is too great C. Many drugs cannot be administered intraosseously D. Endotracheal administration is preferred E. There are no contraindications to intraosseous administration in this patient

E. There are no contraindications to intraosseous administration in this patient. The current American Heart Association ACLS guidelines state that intraosseous access can be obtained in almost all age groups rapidly, and is preferred over the endotracheal route. Any drug that can be administered intravenously can be administered intraosseously. Many drugs administered via an endotracheal tube are poorly absorbed, and drug levels vary widely.

======================================================= Neurologic Board Review Questions 01 ======================================================= A 16-year-old white female is brought to your office because she has been "passing out." She tells you that on several occasions while playing in the high-school band at the end of the half-time show she has "blacked out." She describes feeling lightheaded with spots before her eyes and tunnel vision just prior to falling. Friends in the band have told her that she appears to be pale and sweaty when these episodes occur. No seizure activity has ever been observed. In each instance she regains consciousness almost immediately; there is no postictal state. She has been seen in the emergency department for this on two occasions with normal vital signs, physical findings, and neurologic findings. A CBC, a metabolic profile, and an EKG are also normal. Which one of the following tests is most likely to yield the correct diagnosis? (check one) A. A sleep-deprived EEG B. 24-hour Holter monitoring C. A pulmonary/cardiac stress test D. An echocardiogram E. Tilt table testing

E. Tilt table testing. Reflex syncope is a strong diagnostic consideration for episodes of syncope associated with a characteristic precipitating factor. The major categories of syncope include carotid sinus hypersensitivity, and neurally mediated and situational syncopes. The most common and benign forms of syncope are neurally mediated or vasovagal types with sudden hypotension, frequently accompanied by bradycardia. Other terms for this include neurocardiogenic, vasomotor, neurovascular, or vasodepressive syncope. Most patients are young and otherwise healthy. The mechanism of the syncope seems to be a period of high sympathetic tone (often induced by pain or fear), followed by sudden sympathetic withdrawal, which then triggers a paradoxical vasodilatation and hypotension. Attacks occur with upright posture, often accompanied by a feeling of warmth or cold sweating, lightheadedness, yawning, or dimming of vision. If the patient does not lie down quickly he or she will fall, with the horizontal position allowing a rapid restoration of central profusion. Recovery is rapid, with no focal neurologic sense of confusion or headache. The event can be duplicated with tilt testing, demonstrating hypotension and bradycardia.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 38 ======================================================= A 60-year-old female receiving home hospice care was taking oral morphine, 15 mg every 2 hours, to control pain. When this was no longer effective, she was transferred to an inpatient facility for pain control. She required 105 mg of morphine in a 24-hour period, so she was started on intravenous morphine, 2 mg/hr with a bolus of 2 mg, and was well controlled for 5 days. However, her pain has worsened over the past 2 days. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's increased pain? (check one) A. An inadequate initial morphine dose B. Addiction to morphine C. Pseudoaddiction to morphine D. Physical dependence on morphine E. Tolerance to morphine

E. Tolerance to morphine. This patient has become tolerant to morphine. The intravenous dose should be a third of the oral dose, so the starting intravenous dose was adequate. Addiction is compulsive narcotic use. Pseudoaddiction is inadequate narcotic dosing that mimics addiction because of unrelieved pain. Physical dependence is seen with abrupt narcotic withdrawal.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 74 ======================================================= A 5-year-old female presents with a lesion on her forearm. It began as a red macule, turned into a small vesicle that easily ruptured, then dried into a 1-cm honey-colored, crusted lesion seen now. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate therapy? (check one) A. Oral penicillin V B. Oral erythromycin C. Topical disinfectant (e.g., hydrogen peroxide) D. Topical bacitracin E. Topical mupirocin (Bactroban)

E. Topical mupirocin (Bactroban). Topical mupirocin is as effective as cephalexin or amoxicillin/clavulanate in the treatment of impetigo, which is most often caused by Staphlococcal species. Oral penicillin V, oral erythromycin, and topical bacitracin are less effective than mupirocin. Topical treatment is well suited to this localized lesion. Topical disinfectants such as hydrogen peroxide are no more effective than placebo.

Which one of the following procedures carries the highest risk for postoperative deep venous thrombosis? (check one) A. Abdominal hysterectomy B. Coronary artery bypass graft C. Transurethral prostatectomy D. Lumbar laminectomy E. Total knee replacement

E. Total knee replacement. Neurosurgical procedures, particularly those with penetration of the brain or meninges, and orthopedic surgeries, especially those of the hip, have been linked with the highest incidence of venous thromboembolic events. The risk is due to immobilization, venous injury and stasis, and impairment of natural anticoagulants. For total knee replacement, hip fracture surgery, and total hip replacement, the prevalence of DVT is 40%-80%, and the prevalence of pulmonary embolism is 2%-30%. Other orthopedic procedures, such as elective spine procedures, have a much lower rate, approximately 5%. The prevalence of DVT after a coronary artery bypass graft is approximately 5%, after transurethral prostatectomy <5%, and after abdominal hysterectomy approximately 16%.

A 74-year-old African-American female has moderately severe pain due to osteoarthritis. However, she is also on medication for a seizure disorder. When choosing medications to manage her chronic pain, which one of the following should be used with caution because of her history of seizures? (check one) A. Salsalate (Disalcid) B. Celecoxib (Celebrex) C. Hydrocodone (Lortab) D. Oxycodone (OxyContin) E. Tramadol (Ultram)

E. Tramadol (Ultram). According to the American Geriatrics Society 2002 clinical practice guidelines for management of persistent pain in older persons, tramadol has efficacy and safety similar to those of equianalgesic doses of codeine and hydrocodone. However, because of the threat of seizures (rare but potential), tramadol should be used with caution in patients with a history of seizure disorder or those taking other medications that lower seizure thresholds.

A mother calls for advice regarding her 2-year-old son. She found an open container of immediate-release diltiazem (Cardizem) on the floor, with some spilled and partially chewed tablets, and estimates that her son opened the container about 90 minutes ago. He does not appear to be in any distress. Which one of the following would you advise her to do? (check one) A. Administer syrup of ipecac at home and observe B. Transport the child to the emergency department for gastric lavage C. Transport the child to the emergency department for administration of activated charcoal D. Transport the child to the emergency department for administration of activated charcoal and a cathartic E. Transport the child to the hospital for admission to the pediatric intensive-care unit for observation

E. Transport the child to the hospital for admission to the pediatric intensive-care unit for observation. More than 9500 cases of calcium channel blocker intoxication were reported to U.S. poison control centers in 2005. Substantial toxicity can occur with one or two tablets, and all children suspected of ingesting a calcium channel blocker should be admitted to a pediatric intensive-care unit for monitoring and management. The use of gastric emptying, cathartics, or adsorptive agents is unlikely to be helpful and should be considered only in patients presenting within 1 hour of ingestion, if then. The American Academy of Pediatrics has advised that syrup of ipecac not be kept in the home because of toxicity and dubious benefit.

Amiodarone (Cordarone) is most useful for which one of the following? (check one) A. Prophylactic perioperative use for emergency surgery B. Primary prevention of nonischemic cardiomyopathy C. Treatment of atrial flutter D. Treatment of multi-focal premature ventricular contractions following acute myocardial infarction E. Treatment of sustained ventricular tachyarrhythmias in patients with poor hemodynamic stability

E. Treatment of sustained ventricular tachyarrhythmias in patients with poor hemodynamic stability. Amiodarone is one of the most frequently prescribed antiarrhythmic medications in the U.S. It is useful in the acute management of sustained ventricular tachyarrhythmias, regardless of hemodynamic stability. Amiodarone is appropriate first-line treatment for atrial fibrillation only in symptomatic patients with left ventricular dysfunction and heart failure. It has a very limited role in the treatment of atrial flutter. The only role for prophylactic amiodarone is in the perioperative period of cardiac surgery. The use of prophylactic antiarrhythmic agents in the face of "warning dysrhythmias" or after myocardial infarction is no longer recommended. Prophylactic amiodarone is not indicated for primary prevention in patients with nonischemic cardiomyopathy.

A 45-year-old male sees you for follow-up after a pre-employment physical examination reveals blood in his urine. He brings a copy of a urinalysis report that shows 3-5 RBCs/hpf. He has not seen any gross blood himself. He is asymptomatic, is on no medications, and does not smoke. You perform a physical examination, with normal findings. A repeat urinalysis confirms the presence of red blood cells but is otherwise normal. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. Observation and reassurance B. A repeat urinalysis in 6 months C. Urine cytology only D. Ultrasonography of the kidneys and urine cytology only E. Ultrasonography of the kidneys, urine cytology, and cystoscopy

E. Ultrasonography of the kidneys, urine cytology, and cystoscopy. The American Urological Association (AUA) defines clinically significant microscopic hematuria as ≥3 RBCs/hpf. Microscopic hematuria is frequently an incidental finding, but may be associated with urologic malignancy in up to 10% of adults. The upper urinary tract should be evaluated in this patient. There are no clear evidence-based imaging guidelines for upper tract evaluation; therefore, intravenous urography, ultrasonography, or CT can be considered. Ultrasonography is the least expensive and safest choice because it does not expose the patient to intravenous radiographic contrast media. Urine cytology and cystoscopy are used routinely to evaluate the lower urinary tract. The AUA recommends that patients with microscopic hematuria have radiographic assessment of the upper urinary tract, followed by urine cytology studies. The AUA also recommends that all patients older than 40 and those who are younger but have risk factors for bladder cancer undergo cystoscopy to complete the evaluation. Cystoscopy is the only reliable method of detecting transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder and urethra.

When an interpreter is needed for a patient with limited English proficiency, which one of the following should be AVOIDED when possible? (check one) A. Using mostly short sentences, with frequent pauses B. Using diagrams and pictures C. Addressing the patient in the second person (i.e., "you") D. Maintaining eye contact with the patient when speaking E. Using an educated adult family member who is bilingual

E. Using an educated adult family member who is bilingual. Using trained, qualified interpreters for patients with limited English proficiency leads to fewer hospitalizations, less reliance on testing, a higher likelihood of making the correct diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment, and better patient understanding of conditions and therapies. Although the patient may request that a family member interpret, there are many pitfalls in using untrained interpreters: a lack of understanding of medical terminology, concerns about confidentiality, and unconscious editing by the interpreter of what the patient has said. Additionally, the patient may be reluctant to divulge sensitive or potentially embarrassing information to a friend or family member. The other principles listed are important practices when working with interpreters. Pictures and diagrams can help strengthen the patient's understanding of his or her health care.

Late decelerations on fetal monitoring are thought to indicate which one of the following? (check one) A. Fetal head compression B. Umbilical cord compression C. Fetal sleep D. Uterine hypotonus E. Uteroplacental insufficiency

E. Uteroplacental insufficiency. Late decelerations are thought to be associated with uteroplacental insufficiency and fetal hypoxia due to decreased blood flow in the placenta. This pattern is a warning sign and is associated with increasing fetal compromise, worsening fetal acidosis, fetal central nervous system depression, and/or direct myocardial hypoxia. Early decelerations are thought to result from vagus nerve response to fetal head compression, and are not associated with increased fetal mortality or morbidity. Variable decelerations are thought to be due to acute, intermittent compression of the umbilical cord between fetal parts and the contracting uterus.

An 18-year-old single white female at 30 weeks' gestation presents to the hospital with uterine contractions 10 minutes apart. Her previous pregnancy 18 months ago resulted in a preterm birth at 29 weeks' gestation. The most accurate test to determine whether this patient will need hospitalization and tocolysis would be: (check one) A. Serum corticotropin-releasing hormone B. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein C. Serum human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) D. Salivary estriol concentration E. Vaginal fetal fibronectin

E. Vaginal fetal fibronectin. Of the biochemical markers listed, the most clinically useful test to differentiate women who are at high risk for impending preterm delivery from those who are not is the fetal fibronectin in cervical or vaginal secretions. In symptomatic women, this is most accurate in predicting spontaneous preterm delivery within 7-10 days. It is less accurate in those who are asymptomatic. If the fetal fibronectin is negative, it may be possible to avoid interventions such as hospitalization, tocolysis, and corticosteroid administration.

A 72-year-old male presents to your clinic in atrial fibrillation with a rate of 132 beats/min. He has hypertension, but no history of congestive heart failure or structural heart disease. He is otherwise healthy and active. The best INITIAL approach to his atrial fibrillation would be: (check one) A. Rhythm control with antiarrythmics and warfarin (Coumadin) only if he cannot be consistently maintained in sinus rhythm B. Rhythm control with antiarrythmics and warfarin regardless of maintenance of sinus rhythm C. Ventricular rate control with digoxin, and warfarin for anticoagulation D. Ventricular rate control with digoxin, and aspirin for anticoagulation E. Ventricular rate control with a calcium channel blocker or beta-blocker, and warfarin for anticoagulation

E. Ventricular rate control with a calcium channel blocker or beta-blocker, and warfarin for anticoagulation. Five recent randomized, controlled trials have indicated that in most patients with atrial fibrillation, an initial approach of rate control is best. Patients who were stratified to the rhythm control arm of the trials did NOT have a morbidity or mortality benefit and were more likely to suffer from adverse drug effects and increased hospitalizations. The most efficacious drugs for rate control are calcium channel blockers and beta-blockers. Digoxin is less effective for rate control and should be reserved as an add-on option for those not controlled with a beta-blocker or calcium channel blocker, or for patients with significant left ventricular systolic dysfunction. In patients 65 years of age or older or with one or more risk factors for stroke, the best choice for anticoagulation to prevent thromboembolic disease is warfarin. Of note, in patients who are successfully rhythm controlled and maintained in sinus rhythm, the thromboembolic rate is equivalent to those managed with a rate control strategy. Thus, the data suggest that patients who choose a rhythm control strategy should be maintained on anticoagulation regardless of whether they are consistently in sinus rhythm.

Intravenous magnesium is used to correct which one of the following arrhythmias? (check one) A. Wenckebach second-degree heart block B. Complete heart block C. Idioventricular rhythm D. Reentrant supraventricular tachycardia E. Ventricular tachycardia of torsades de pointes

E. Ventricular tachycardia of torsades de pointes. A well-known use of intravenous magnesium is for correcting the uncommon ventricular tachycardia of torsades de pointes. Results of a meta-analysis suggest that 1.2-10.0 g of intravenous magnesium sulfate also is a safe and effective strategy for the acute management of rapid atrial fibrillation.

A previously healthy 67-year-old male sees you for a routine health maintenance visit. During the physical examination you discover a harsh systolic murmur that is loudest over the second right intercostal space and radiates to the carotid arteries. The patient denies any symptoms of dyspnea, angina, syncope, or decreased exertional tolerance. An echocardiogram shows severe aortic stenosis, with an aortic valve area of <1 cm 2, a mean gradiant >40 mm Hg, and an ejection fraction of 60%. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point? (check one) A. Coronary angiography B. Exercise stress testing C. Treatment with prazosin (Minipress) D. Referral for aortic valve replacement E. Watchful waiting

E. Watchful waiting. Watchful waiting is recommended for most patients with asymptomatic aortic stenosis, including those with severe disease (SOR B). This is because the surgical risk of aortic valve replacement outweighs the approximately 1% annual risk of sudden death in asymptomatic patients with aortic stenosis. Peripheral α-blockers, such as prazosin, should be avoided because of the risk of hypotension or syncope. Coronary angiography should be reserved for symptomatic patients who do not have evidence of severe aortic stenosis on echocardiography performed to evaluate their symptoms, or for preoperative evaluation prior to aortic valve replacement. Exercise stress testing is not safe with severe aortic stenosis because of the risk of death during the test.

Which one of the following has been shown to benefit from screening for asymptomatic bacteriuria? (check one) A. Women with diabetes mellitus B. Men with prostatic enlargement on examination C. All adults with newly diagnosed hypertension D. Nursing-home residents with an indwelling Foley catheter E. Women who are pregnant

E. Women who are pregnant. Clinical guidelines published by the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force in 2008 reaffirmed the 2004 recommendations regarding screening for asymptomatic bacteriuria in adults. The only group in which screening is recommended is asymptomatic pregnant women at 12-16 weeks gestation, or at the first prenatal visit if it occurs later (SOR A).

A 24-year-old white female presents to the office with a 6-month history of abdominal pain. A physical examination, including pelvic and rectal examinations, is normal. Which one of the following would indicate a need for further evaluation? (check one) A. Relief of symptoms with defecation B. Changes in stool consistency from loose and watery to constipation C. Passage of mucus with bowel movements D. Abdominal bloating E. Worsening of symptoms at night

E. Worsening of symptoms at night. Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a benign, chronic symptom complex of altered bowel habits and abdominal pain. It is the most common functional disorder of the gastrointestinal tract. The presence of nocturnal symptoms is a red flag which should alert the physician to an alternate diagnosis and may require further evaluation. The other symptoms listed are Rome I and II criteria for diagnosing irritable bowel syndrome.

A 55-year-old female sees you because of a constant leakage of small amounts of urine. Her obstetric/gynecologic history includes two pregnancies, with vaginal deliveries. Her current medications include hydrochlorothiazide, metformin (Glucophage), and glyburide (DiaBeta). On examination she has mild diabetic retinopathy, decreased sensation to monofilament testing on her feet, and suprapubic fullness. The most appropriate initial treatment for this problem would be: (check one) A. tolterodine (Detrol LA) B. duloxetine (Cymbalta) C. estrogen replacement therapy D. bladder neck needle suspension E. a set schedule for urination

E. a set schedule for urination. There are four types of urinary incontinence in women: functional incontinence, which occurs when the patient's inability to ambulate or transfer results in loss of urine; urinary stress incontinence, which is a result of pelvic relaxation and is manifested as involuntary loss of urine with increases in abdominal pressure such as that which occurs with laughing, sneezing, or coughing; detrusor instability or overactive bladder, which is when the urge to urinate is quickly followed by loss of urine, usually a large volume; and neurogenic bladder, which is marked by constant leakage of small amounts of urine. Neurogenic bladder can be caused by diabetes mellitus, multiple sclerosis, or spinal cord injury, and is usually initially treated with a strict voluntary urination schedule, which may be coupled with Crede's maneuver. It can be treated further by adding bethanechol to the regimen. Many patients have to be taught intermittent self-catheterization of the bladder. Ultimately, the patient may require resection of the internal sphincter of the bladder neck.

A previously healthy 18-month-old male is brought to your office with a 2-day history of cough and fever. On examination the child has a temperature of 38.3°C (100.9°F), a respiratory rate of 30/min, and mild retractions and mild wheezes bilaterally. Oxygen saturation is 90%. The most appropriate initial management would be: (check one) A. azithromycin (Zithromax) B. a short course of corticosteroids C. aerosolized racemic epinephrine every 4 hours D. postural drainage E. a single treatment with aerosolized albuterol, continued only if there is a positive response

E. a single treatment with aerosolized albuterol, continued only if there is a positive response. For patients with bronchiolitis, evidence supports a trial of an inhaled bronchodilator, albuterol, or epinephrine, with treatment continued only if the initial dose proves beneficial. There is no evidence to support the use of antibiotics unless another associated infection is present (e.g., otitis media). Neither corticosteroids nor postural drainage has been found to be helpful.

A 36-year-old female presents with a several-week history of polyuria and intense thirst. She currently takes no medications. On examination her blood pressure and pulse rate are normal, and she is clinically euvolemic. Laboratory tests, including serum electrolyte levels, renal function tests, and plasma glucose, are all normal. A urinalysis is significant only for low specific gravity. Her 24-hour urine output is >5 L with low urine osmolality. The most likely cause of this patient's condition is a deficiency of: (check one) A. angiotensin II B. aldosterone C. renin D. insulin E. arginine vasopressin

E. arginine vasopressin. This patient has diabetes insipidus, which is caused by a deficiency in the secretion or renal action of arginine vasopressin (AVP). AVP, also known as antidiuretic hormone, is produced in the posterior pituitary gland and the route of secretion is generally regulated by the osmolality of body fluid stores, including intravascular volume. Its chief action is the concentration of urine in the distal tubules of the kidney. Both low secretion of AVP from the pituitary and reduced antidiuretic action on the kidney can be primary or secondary, and the causes are numerous. Patients with diabetes insipidus present with profound urinary volume, frequency of urination, and thirst.The urine is very dilute, with osmolality <300 mOsm/L. Further workup will help determine the specific type of diabetes insipidus and its cause, which is necessary in order to implement appropriate treatment. Low levels of aldosterone, plasma renin activity, or angiotensin would cause abnormal blood pressure, electrolyte levels, and/or renal function. Insulin deficiency results in diabetes mellitus.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 22 ======================================================= Actinic keratosis is a precursor lesion to: (check one) A. keratoacanthoma B. nodular melanoma C. superficial spreading melanoma D. basal cell carcinoma E. cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma

E. cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma. Actinic keratoses are precursor lesions for cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma. The conversion rate of actinic keratoses into squamous cell carcinoma has been estimated to be 1 in 1000 per year. Thicker lesions, cutaneous horns, and lesions that show ulceration have a higher malignant potential. Although sun exposure is a risk factor for both melanoma and basal cell carcinoma, there are no recognized precursor lesions for either. Actinic keratosis is not a precursor lesion to keratoacanthoma.

A 28-year-old white female consults you with a complaint of irregular heavy menstrual periods. A general physical examination, pelvic examination, and Papanicolaou test are normal and a pregnancy test is negative. A CBC and chemistry profile are also normal. The next step in her workup should be: (check one) A. endometrial aspiration B. dilatation and curettage C. LH and FSH assays D. administration of estrogen E. cyclic administration of progesterone for 3 months

E. cyclic administration of progesterone for 3 months. Abnormal uterine bleeding is a relatively common disorder that may be due to functional disorders of the hypothalamus, pituitary, or ovary, as well as uterine lesions. However, the patient who is younger than 30 years of age will rarely be found to have a structural uterine defect. Once pregnancy, hematologic disease, and renal impairment are excluded, administration of intramuscular or oral progesterone will usually produce definitive flow and control the bleeding. No further evaluation should be necessary unless the bleeding recurs. Endometrial aspiration, dilatation and curettage, and other diagnostic procedures are appropriate for recurrent problems or for older women. Estrogen would only increase the problem, which is usually due to anovulation with prolonged estrogen secretion, producing a hypertrophic endometrium.

The only antidepressant approved by the Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of depression in children 8-17 years of age is (check one) A. venlafaxine (Effexor) B. amitriptyline C. lithium D. paroxetine (Paxil) E. fluoxetine (Prozac)

E. fluoxetine (Prozac). Fluoxetine is the only SSRI approved by the FDA for the treatment of depression in children 8-17 years of age, although all of the antidepressants may be used off-label . The FDA has warned against the use of paroxetine in this age range because of a possible increased risk of suicidal thinking and suicide attempts associated with the drug. Tricyclic antidepressants have more side effects and can be lethal in overdose. In children and adolescents, there is limited or no evidence evaluating the use of lithium, monoamine oxidase inhibitors, St. Johns wort, or venlafaxine.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 14 ======================================================= A 3-year-old toilet-trained female is brought to your office by her mother, who has noted a red rash on the child's perineum for the last 5 days. The rash is pruritic and has been spreading. The mother has treated the area for 3 days with nystatin cream with no obvious improvement. The child has not used any other recent medications and has no significant past medical history. Your examination reveals a homogeneous, beefy red rash surrounding the vulva and anus. The most likely etiologic agent is: (check one) A. Malassezia furfur B. Escherichia coli C. Haemophilus influenzae D. Staphylococcus aureus E. group A Streptococcus pyogenes

E. group A Streptococcus pyogenes. The epidemiology of group A streptococcal disease of the perineum is similar to that of group A streptococcal pharyngitis, and the two often coexist. It is theorized that either auto-inoculation from mouth to hand to perineum occurs, or that the bacteria is transmitted through the gastrointestinal tract. In one study, the average age of patients with this disease varied from 1 to 11 years, with a mean of 5 years. Girls and boys were almost equally affected. The incidence is estimated to be about 1 in 200 pediatric visits and peaks in March, April, and May in North America. The condition usually presents with itching and a beefy redness around the anus and/or vulva and will not clear with medications used to treat candidal infections.

A 68-year-old female has an average blood pressure of 150/70 mm Hg despite appropriate lifestyle modification efforts. Her only other medical problems are osteoporosis and mild depression. The most appropriate treatment at this time would be (check one) A. lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril) B. clonidine (Catapres) C. propranolol (Inderal) D. amlodipine (Norvasc) E. hydrochlorothiazide

E. hydrochlorothiazide. Randomized, placebo-controlled trials have shown that isolated systolic hypertension in the elderly responds best to diuretics and to a lesser extent, β-blockers. Diuretics are preferred, although long-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers may also be used. In the case described, β-blockers or clonidine may worsen the depression. Thiazide diuretics may also improve osteoporosis, and would be the most cost-effective and useful agent in this instance.

The most common cause of acute interstitial nephritis is: (check one) A. hypertension B. pyelonephritis C. collagen vascular disease D. dehydration E. hypersensitivity to medications

E. hypersensitivity to medications. Approximately 85% of cases of acute interstitial nephritis result from a drug-related hypersensitivity reaction; other cases are due to mechanisms such as an immunologic response to infection or an idiopathic immune syndrome. Hypertension and dehydration do not cause interstitial nephritis. Medications that most commonly cause acute interstitial nephritis through hypersensitivity reactions include penicillins, sulfa drugs, and NSAIDs. Urinalysis typically reveals moderate to minimal proteinuria, except in NSAID-induced acute interstitial nephritis, in which proteinuria may reach the nephrotic range. Other typical findings include sterile pyuria, the absence of red blood cell casts, and frequently eosinophiluria, but none of these findings is pathognomonic. Withdrawal of the causative agent leads to resolution of the problem within 7-10 days in the majority of cases, and most patients have a good recovery.

Regular breast self-examinations to screen for breast cancer: (check one) A. are performed by most American women B. reduce mortality due to breast cancer C. reduce all-cause mortality in women D. are recommended by the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force E. increase the number of breast biopsies performed

E. increase the number of breast biopsies performed. Most women do not regularly perform breast self-examinations (BSE). Evidence from large, well- designed, randomized trials of adequate duration has shown that the performance of regular BSE by trained women does not reduce breast cancer-specific mortality or all-cause mortality. The 2009 update to the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force breast cancer screening recommendations recommended against teaching BSE (D recommendation). The rationale for this recommendation is that there is moderate certainty that the harms outweigh the benefits. The two available trials indicated that more additional imaging procedures and biopsies were done for women who performed BSE than for control participants, with no gains in breast cancer detection or reduction in breast-cancer related mortality.

Regular breast self-examinations to screen for breast cancer (check one) A. are performed by most women in the United States B. reduce mortality due to breast cancer C. reduce all-cause mortality in women D. are recommended by the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force E. increase the number of breast biopsies performed

E. increase the number of breast biopsies performed. Most women do not regularly perform breast self-examinations, even though it allows motivated women to be in control of this aspect of their health care. Evidence from large, well-designed, randomized trials of adequate duration has shown that the performance of regular breast self-examinations by trained women does not reduce breast cancer-specific mortality or all-cause mortality. The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force found insufficient evidence (an I rating) to recommend breast self-examinations. A Cochrane review concluded that breast self-examinations have no beneficial effect and increase the number of biopsies performed.

A 39-year-old African-American multigravida at 36 weeks gestation presents with a temperature of 40.0°C (104.0°F), chills, backache, and vomiting. On physical examination, the uterus is noted to be nontender, but there is slight bilateral costovertebral angle tenderness. A urinalysis reveals many leukocytes, some in clumps, as well as numerous bacteria. Of the following, the most appropriate therapy at this time would be: (check one) A. oral trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra) B. oral nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) C. oral levofloxacin (Levaquin) D. intravenous doxycycline E. intravenous ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

E. intravenous ceftriaxone (Rocephin). Pyelonephritis is the most common medical complication of pregnancy. The diagnosis is usually straightforward, as in this case. Since the patient is quite ill, treatment is best undertaken in the hospital with parenteral agents, at least until the patient is stabilized and cultures are available. Ampicillin plus gentamicin or a cephalosporin is typically used. Sulfonamides are contraindicated late in pregnancy because they may increase the incidence of kernicterus. Tetracyclines are contraindicated because administration late in pregnancy may lead to discoloration of the child's deciduous teeth. Nitrofurantoin may induce hemolysis in patients who are deficient in G-6-PD, which includes approximately 2% of African-American women. The safety of levofloxacin in pregnancy has not been established, and it should not be used unless the potential benefit outweighs the risk.

A 45-year-old female presents with a 3-month history of hoarseness that is not improving. She works as a high-school teacher. The most appropriate management at this time would be: (check one) A. voice therapy B. azithromycin (Zithromax) C. a trial of inhaled corticosteroids D. a trial of a proton pump inhibitor E. laryngoscopy

E. laryngoscopy. Hoarseness most commonly affects teachers and older adults. The cause is usually benign, but extended symptoms or certain risk factors should prompt evaluation; specifically, laryngoscopy is recommended when hoarseness does not resolve within 3 months or when a serious underlying cause is suspected (SOR C). The American Academy of Otolaryngology/Head and Neck Surgery Foundation guidelines state that antireflux medications should not be prescribed for patients with hoarseness without reflux symptoms (SOR C). Antibiotics should not be used, as the condition is usually caused by acute laryngitis or an upper respiratory infection, and these are most likely to be viral. Inhaled corticosteroids are a common cause of hoarseness. Voice therapy should be reserved for patients who have undergone laryngoscopy first (SOR A).

A 28-year-old female consults you because of fatigue, arthralgias that are worse in the morning, and painful, swollen finger joints. She is a high-school teacher. Her erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 60 mm/hr and a test for rheumatoid factor is strongly positive. The best choice for initial therapy would be: (check one) A. prednisone B. aspirin C. naproxen (Naprosyn) D. rituximab (Rituxan) E. methotrexate (Rheumatrex)

E. methotrexate (Rheumatrex). Aspirin was once the best initial therapy for rheumatoid arthritis and then NSAIDs became the preferred treatment. Now, however, disease-modifying drugs such as methotrexate are the best choice for initial therapy. Aspirin and NSAIDs are no longer considered first-line treatment because of concerns about their limited effectiveness, inability to modify the long-term course of the disease, and gastrointestinal and cardiotoxic effects. Glucocorticoids such as prednisone are often useful, but have significant side effects. Biologic agents such as rituximab are expensive and have significantly more side effects than methotrexate.

A 35-year-old white female complains of unilateral frontotemporal headaches. During these episodes, which occur every 2-3 weeks, she becomes nauseated, sometimes to the point of vomiting. The headaches are throbbing in character and last for 1-3 hours, often causing her to leave work early. Relief is sometimes obtained with simple analgesics, but more often with sleep or the passage of time. On the basis of this history alone, the most likely diagnosis is (check one) A. sinusitis B. a brain tumor C. muscle tension headache D. cluster headache E. migraine headache

E. migraine headache. Migraine is the most likely diagnosis in this scenario, because the patient is young and female; the headaches are unilateral, infrequent, and throbbing; the headaches are associated with nausea and vomiting; and sleep offers relief. Symptoms of sinusitis usually include fever, facial pain, and a purulent nasal discharge. The pain of cerebral tumor tends to occur daily and becomes more frequent and severe with time. Furthermore, the prevalence of brain tumor is far less than that of migraine. The pain of muscle tension headache is described as a pressure or band-like tightening, often in a circumferential or cap distribution. This headache also has a pattern of daily persistence, often continuing day and night for long periods of time. Cluster headache is more common in males, and presents as a very severe, constant, agonizing orbital pain, usually beginning within 2 or 3 hours after falling asleep.

The manager of a local chicken processing plant asks about arranging screening tests for his 100 employees. Several are smokers, and one individual was recently found to have lung cancer. He asks what the best and most cost-effective way to screen for this would be. Based on randomized, controlled trials and recommendations by the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, you would advise (check one) A. annual chest radiographs B. annual sputum cytology C. both sputum cytology and chest radiographs annually D. annual spiral CT E. no screening for asymptomatic individuals

E. no screening for asymptomatic individuals. The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force states that there is insufficient evidence to recommend either for or against screening for cancer of the lung. To date, screening has not been shown to decrease the number of deaths from lung cancer. Case control studies done in Japan suggest improved mortality with annual chest radiographs, and a large randomized, controlled trial is now under way. While screening CT in high-risk groups would identify a high percentage of stage 1 lung cancers, there is no data available at this time from randomized studies to show that this is worthwhile. Studies of this issue are also currently under way, however.

A 75-year-old white female presents with severe pain of the carpometacarpal joint at the base of her thumb. Examination of her hands also reveals hypertrophic changes of the distal interphalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints of her fingers. These findings are most consistent with (check one) A. rheumatoid arthritis B. gout C. systemic lupus erythematosus D. scleroderma E. osteoarthritis

E. osteoarthritis. Osteoarthritis causes changes predominantly in the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) and distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints of the hands known as Bouchard's and Heberden's nodes respectively, and the carpometacarpal joints of the thumbs. While rheumatoid arthritis commonly causes subluxations in the metacarpophalangeal joints, this patient's hypertrophic changes are most likely due to osteoarthritis. The other choices are less likely to cause this presentation.

Women who use low-dose estrogen oral contraceptives have a 50% lower risk of cancer of the: (check one) A. breast B. cervix C. head and neck D. lung E. ovary

E. ovary. Women who use low-dose estrogen oral contraceptives have at least a 50% lower risk of subsequent epithelial ovarian cancer than women who have never used them. Epidemiologic data also suggests other potential long-term benefits of oral contraceptives, including a reduced risk of postmenopausal fractures, as well as reductions in the risk of endometrial and colorectal cancers. Oral contraceptives do not reduce the risk of carcinoma of the breast, cervix, lung, or head and neck.

An 18-year-old male comes to your office because of the recent onset of recurrent, unpredictable episodes of palpitations, sweating, dyspnea, gastrointestinal distress, dizziness, and paresthesias. His physical examination is unremarkable except for moderate obesity. Laboratory findings, including a CBC, blood chemistry profile, and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level, reveal no abnormalities. The most likely diagnosis is: (check one) A. mitral valve prolapse B. paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C. pheochromocytoma D. generalized anxiety disorder E. panic disorder

E. panic disorder. Panic disorder typically presents with the symptoms described, in late adolescence or early adulthood. The attacks are sporadic and last 10-60 minutes. Generalized anxiety disorder is more common, and common symptoms include restlessness, fatigue, muscle tension, irritability, difficulty concentrating, and sleep disturbance. Patients with mitral valve prolapse usually have an abnormal cardiac examination. Pheochromocytoma is associated with headache and hypertension, and usually occurs in thin patients. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is usually not associated with gastrointestinal distress or paresthesias.

======================================================= Integumentary Board Review Questions 01 ======================================================= A 45-year-old white male consults you because of a painless, circular, 1-cm white spot inside his mouth, which he noticed 3 days ago. You are treating him with propranolol (Inderal) for hypertension, and you know him to be a heavy alcohol user. After a careful physical examination, your tentative diagnosis is leukoplakia of the buccal mucosa. You elect to observe the lesion for 2 weeks. On the patients return, the lesion is still present and unchanged in appearance. The best course of management at this time is to (check one) A. reassure the patient and continue to observe B. discontinue propranolol C. treat with oral nystatin D. order a fluorescent antinuclear antibody test E. perform a biopsy of the lesion

E. perform a biopsy of the lesion. Leukoplakia is a white keratotic lesion seen on mucous membranes. Irritation from various mechanical and chemical stimuli, including alcohol, favors development of the lesion. Leukoplakia can occur in any area of the mouth and usually exhibits benign hyperkeratosis on biopsy. On long-term follow-up, 2%-6% of these lesions will have undergone malignant transformation into squamous cell carcinoma. Oral nystatin would not be appropriate treatment, as this lesion is not typical of oral candidiasis. Candidal lesions are usually multiple and spread quickly when left untreated. A fluorescent antinuclear antibody test is also not indicated, as the oral lesions of lupus erythematosus are typically irregular, erosive, and necrotic. An idiosyncratic reaction to propranolol is unlikely in this patient.

======================================================= Random Board Review Questions 12 ======================================================= The most appropriate advice for a 50-year-old female who has passed six calcium oxalate stones over the past 4 years is to: (check one) A. restrict her calcium intake B. restrict her intake of yellow vegetables C. increase her sodium intake D. increase her dietary protein intake E. take potassium citrate with meals

E. take potassium citrate with meals. Calcium oxalate stones are the most common of all renal calculi. A low-sodium, restricted-protein diet with increased fluid intake reduces stone formation. A low-calcium diet has been shown to be ineffective. Oxalate restriction also reduces stone formation. Oxalate-containing foods include spinach, chocolate, tea, and nuts, but not yellow vegetables. Potassium citrate should be taken at mealtime to increase urinary pH and urinary citrate (SOR B).

A 56-year-old African-American male has pain and tingling in the medial aspect of his ankle and the plantar aspect of his foot. He jogs 3 miles daily and has no history of any injury. The symptoms are aggravated by activity, and sometimes keep him awake at night. The only findings on examination are paresthesias when a reflex hammer is used to tap just inferior to the medial malleolus. This patient probably has (check one) A. a stress fracture B. a herniated nucleus pulposus at L5 or S1 C. plantar fasciitis D. diabetic neuropathy E. tarsal tunnel syndrome

E. tarsal tunnel syndrome. Entrapment of the posterior tibial nerve or its branches as the nerve courses behind the medial malleolus results in a neuritis known as tarsal tunnel syndrome. Causes of compression within the tarsal tunnel include varices of the posterior tibial vein, tenosynovitis of the flexor tendon, structural alteration of the tunnel secondary to trauma, and direct compression of the nerve. Pronation of the foot causes pain and paresthesias in the medial aspect of the ankle and heel, and sometimes the plantar surface of the foot. The usual site for a stress fracture is the shaft of the second, third, or fourth metatarsals. A herniated nucleus pulposus would produce reflex and sensory changes. Plantar fasciitis is the most common cause of heel pain in runners and often presents with pain at the beginning of the workout. The pain decreases during running only to recur afterward. Diabetic neuropathy is usually bilateral and often produces paresthesias and burning at night, with absent or decreased deep tendon reflexes.

A 21-year-old primigravida at 28 weeks gestation complains of the recent onset of itching. On examination she has no obvious rash. The pruritus started on her palms and soles and spread to the rest of her body. Laboratory evaluation reveals elevated serum bile acids and mildly elevated bilirubin and liver enzymes. The most effective treatment for this condition is: (check one) A. triamcinolone (Kenalog) cream B. cholestyramine (Questran) C. diphenhydramine (Benadryl) D. doxylamine succinate E. ursodiol (Actigall)

E. ursodiol (Actigall). This patient's symptoms and laboratory values are most consistent with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy. Ursodiol has been shown to be highly effective in controlling the pruritus and decreased liver function (SOR A) and is safe for mother and fetus. Topical antipruritics and oral antihistamines are not very effective. Cholestyramine may be effective in mild or moderate intrahepatic cholestasis, but is less effective and safe than ursodiol.

A 55-year-old hospitalized white male with a history of rheumatic aortic and mitral valve disease has a 3-day history of fever, back pain, and myalgias. No definite focus of infection is found on your initial examination. His WBC count is 24,000/mm3(N 4300-10,800) with 40% polymorphonuclear leukocytes and 40% band forms. The following day, two blood cultures have grown gram-positive cocci in clusters. Until the specific organism sensitivity is known, the most appropriate antibiotic treatment would be: (check one) A. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) B. nafcillin C. streptomycin and penicillin D. ceftriaxone (Rocephin) E. vancomycin and gentamicin

E. vancomycin and gentamicin. This patient has endocarditis caused by a gram-positive coccus. Until sensitivities of the organism are known, treatment should include intravenous antibiotic coverage for Enterococcus, Streptococcus, and methicillin-sensitive and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus. A patient who does not have a prosthetic valve should be started on vancomycin and gentamicin, with monitoring of serum levels. Enterococcus and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus are often resistant to cephalosporins. If the organism proves to be Staphylococcus sensitive to nafcillin, the patient can be switched to a regimen of nafcillin and gentamicin.

A 72-year-old male presents to your clinic in atrial fibrillation with a rate of 132 beats/min. He has hypertension, but no history of heart failure or structural heart disease. He is otherwise healthy and active. The best INITIAL approach to his atrial fibrillation would be: (check one) A. rhythm control with antiarrythmics and warfarin (Coumadin) only if he cannot be consistently maintained in sinus rhythm B. rhythm control with antiarrythmics and warfarin regardless of maintenance of sinus rhythm C. ventricular rate control with digoxin, and warfarin for anticoagulation D. ventricular rate control with digoxin, and aspirin for anticoagulation E. ventricular rate control with a calcium channel blocker or β-blocker, and warfarin for anticoagulation

E. ventricular rate control with a calcium channel blocker or β-blocker, and warfarin for anticoagulation. Randomized, controlled trials have indicated that in most patients with atrial fibrillation, rate control is the best initial management. Patients who were stratified to the rhythm control arm of these trials did not have lower morbidity or mortality and were more likely to suffer from adverse drug effects and increased hospitalizations. The most efficacious drugs for rate control are calcium channel blockers and ß-blockers. Digoxin is less effective for rate control and its role should be limited to a possible additional drug for those not controlled with a ß-blocker or calcium channel blocker, or for patients with significant left ventricular systolic dysfunction. In patients 65 years of age or older or with one or more risk factors for stroke, the best choice for anticoagulation to prevent thromboembolic disease is warfarin. If rhythm control is successful and sinus rhythm is maintained, the thromboembolic rate is equivalent to that seen with a rate control strategy. Thus, the data suggests that patients managed with a rhythm control strategy should be maintained on anticoagulation regardless of whether they are consistently in sinus rhythm.

A 36-year-old white female presents to the emergency department with palpitations. Her pulse rate is 180 beats/min. An EKG reveals a regular tachycardia with a narrow complex QRS and no apparent P waves. The patient fails to respond to carotid massage or to two doses of intravenous adenosine (Adenocard), 6 mg and 12 mg. The most appropriate next step would be to administer intravenous (check one) A. amiodarone (Cordarone) B. digoxin (Lanoxin) C. flecainide (Tambocor) D. propafenone (Rhythmol) E. verapamil (Calan)

E. verapamil (Calan). If supraventricular tachycardia is refractory to adenosine or rapidly recurs, the tachycardia can usually be terminated by the administration of intravenous verapamil or a β-blocker. If that fails, intravenous propafenone or flecainide may be necessary. It is also important to look for and treat possible contributing causes such as hypovolemia, hypoxia, or electrolyte disturbances. Electrical cardioversion may be necessary if these measures fail to terminate the tachyarrhythmia.

The advance directive specifications contained in an individual's living will become effective: (check one) A. at the time it is signed and witnessed B. when it is confirmed by the individual's health care surrogate C. at the time of admission to a health care facility such as a hospital D. when the patient develops a terminal illness E. when the individual becomes unable to communicate health care wishes

E. when the individual becomes unable to communicate health care wishes. The living will, a written advance directive, allows a competent person to indicate his or her health care references while cognitively and physically healthy. A living will may list medical interventions the patient would prefer to have withheld or withdrawn when he or she becomes unable to communicate.