Project+ PK0-005

A project manager tracks tasks and realizes that two tasks are not set to run properly. One task is to run only after another begins. The other task is to finish only after another begins. The project manager has to remedy which two task types? (Select all that apply.) A. Finish-to-Finish B. Start-to-Start C. Start-to-Finish D. Finish-to-Start

B & C A Start-to-Start (SS) dependency means that Activity 2 starts after Activity 1 begins. A Start-to-Finish (SF) dependency is the rarest type. An SF dependency means that Activity 2 finishes only after Activity 1 has started. A Finish-to-Finish (FF) dependency means that Activity 2 finishes after Activity 1 finishes. Note that start time is not relevant in an FF dependency. Finish-to-Start (FS) is the most common dependency type. An FS dependency means that Activity 2 starts after Activity 1 finishes. Assume Activity 1 is the predecessor, and Activity 2 is the successor.

A new project requires the purchase of several specialized servers. A project manager uses an approach of checking with other client experiences and the vendor's ability to meet demands. Which vendor evaluation techniques does the project manager utilize in project planning? (Select all that apply.) A. Value B. Capacity C. Reference D. Cost-benefit

B & C. A capacity evaluation considers if a vendor is likely to meet the demands of the contract. Physical capacity refers to the volume of work a vendor can produce. A project manager or procurement analyst may ask other vendor clients how they interact, which technology they use, and why they work with the vendor. They also inquire about the vendor's performance. The best-value evaluation considers cost and additional performance factors in selecting the vendor that will provide the most value at a reasonable cost. Cost-benefit analysis (CBA) is a project analysis technique. It compares the cost of a project against the expected financial benefits it will deliver.

A project activity starts later than anticipated. The project manager performs a critical path exercise to view the project timeline and determines that the late start does not have a negative impact. What concepts influence this output? (Select all that apply.) A. Critical path B. Total float C. Slack D. Weighted average

B & C. The total float is the amount of time an activity can wait to start without impacting the total project timeline. Total float (TF) is calculated for every activity when determining the critical path. Total float is also slack because it measures the available slack in the schedule. There are two formulas that are useful in calculating slack. The critical path method analyzes a project schedule to identify the dependent activity sequence with the longest duration. This sequence represents the shortest total project duration. A Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) chart documents a duration estimate for each activity in a project, known as the PERT estimate. The PERT estimate is a weighted average duration.

A project team meets to discuss documenting functional and non-functional requirements for a new software application deliverable. Which nonfunctional requirements does the team document as requirements? (Select all that apply.) A. Implementation B. Usability C. Features D. Compliance

B & D. Usability is a nonfunctional requirement that refers to how user-friendly the solution is. While the actual interface may be a functional requirement, ease of use is not. Compliance refers to the need for the solution to comply with applicable regulations. That may include operational regulations or regulations related to the end deliverable. Functional requirements are the features that the business requests, such as product features, user interfaces, administration processes, and implementation support or training. Features are a functional requirement. A feature of a software application may be the ability to search data or print that data.

A project manager looks at a resource management plan and realizes that the project manager can do some phases of the resource lifecycle in parallel. Which phases does the project manager review and take action on simultaneously? (Select all that apply.) A. Retirement B. Maintenance C. Improvement D. Acquisition

B&C: The improvement and maintenance phases run simultaneously for a single product. Between acquiring and retiring a resource, the project manager cares for and improves it. Improvement of the performance and effectiveness of resources is continuous. The equipment is to adjust and reconfigure, train people, and enhance the software. Nothing lasts forever, and so all resources will reach the end of their time at the company. Ideally, the retirement phase begins long before the product ends at the company. Advance notice allows the business time to prepare for how to operate after the resource is gone. The company brings resources into the company in the acquisition phase. Procurement of goods and recruitment and hiring of employees takes place.

A project manager (PM) completes a project closeout report. If the PM summarizes reserves, which report area is the focus? A. Performance analysis B. Financial summary C. Transition summary D. Lessons learned summary

B. A financial summary summarizes the project's final performance against the cost baseline and summarizes reserves usage. It is best to attach a copy of the final reconciled budget to the report. A performance analysis summarizes the project's scope, schedule, and budget performance. This summary indicates how well the project performed. A transition summary summarizes how the project affected ongoing operations and who the operation owners are. Lessons learned summary summarizes the lessons learned from every phase, retrospective, and project closure meeting. The lessons learned report is the best resource for improving future projects.

A project manager completes a contract for services that places a vendor at risk. The vendor agrees to which contract type? A. Cost-plus B. Fixed-price C. Time and materials D. Unit price

B. A fixed-price contract agrees to a set price for a fixed scope of work. It places most of the contract risk on the vendor. For example, if materials cost increases, the vendor does not earn more. A cost-plus contract pays for all resource costs needed to complete the work and a vendor fee. The cost-plus contract places most of the risk on the buyer. A time and materials contract is a hybrid of fixed and cost-plus contracts. The buyer pays materials and labor costs up to the maximum price listed in the contract. A unit price contract works well when purchasing definable, same-sized bundles of work. A unit price contract is also called a measurement or re-measurement contract.

A new project manager performs a needs assessment for an upcoming project. How does the project performance improve if the manager addresses any documented unknowns? A. Resource smoothing B. On-time performance C. Resource leveling D. Gap differences

B. A project needs assessment improves on-time performance. This assessment reduces the number of unknowns that appear later in the project and reduces delays. Resource smoothing is an optimization technique that attempts to reduce the variation of resource usage from one time period to the next. This process moves tasks to create a more even usage. Resource leveling is an optimization technique that reduces variation and allows the project timeline to extend. A gap analysis compares the current state and future state and describes the differences. The manager plans to move from the current state to the future state.

A company posts an internal memo inviting team members to join a project. The post states that participants will receive an additional 2% pay for any eligible project hours. The project manager calculates the pay with which value while building a resource worksheet? A. Resource cost rate B. Unit of measure C. Cost aggregation D. Reserves

B. A resource cost rate matches with some unit of measure (UOM). The UOM will vary by resource type. Hourly is an example of a UOM. Any resource incurs an expense, including labor, materials, and equipment. Every resource has a resource cost rate, which measures the resource cost in total. Cost aggregation requires a resource cost rate. In a bottom-up estimation model, the resource cost rates apply to estimate costs at the work package or user story level. Project budgets include financial reserves that protect the project from some setbacks. There are two reserve types, and each reserve is a sum of time or money added to the project's cost estimate.

A project manager decides to manage a project using a framework based on the concept of improving during the project's progress. Which team member role does the project manager introduce that is specific to this framework? A. Project manager B. Product owner C. Product manager D. Project stakeholder

B. Agile frameworks introduced the product owner role. They identify how to improve a product and are accountable for creating the most valuable product possible. Project managers lead projects in any framework. They form a team for a short duration to achieve a specific objective. Product managers exist in any framework. Product managers serve a more strategic function than other roles. Product managers oversee products and exist for a product's entire life cycle. A project stakeholder is anybody with a vested interest in a project. As a result, the stakeholder list could include many individuals. The agile framework did not introduce the stakeholder role.

A project manager assigns tasks to project team members. In a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), where would a project manager place a high-level deliverable? A. Level B. Element C. Work Package D. Leg

B. An element is considered the deliverables within a workbook sheet (WBS). The WBS element is short, at just two or three words. A level is the layer of the WBS where the element resides. The levels are numbered sequentially, usually starting at level 1, which has only one element, the project. A work package is the lowest element in each branch or leg; an element without a child element is a work package. It is also known as a "terminal element." A leg is a group of elements with a shared ancestor. The lowest elements in a leg will roll up to equal everything in the highest level of the leg.

An organization kicks off the start of a new project. A group of individuals who need to be kept up-to-date with the project's progress fill which role in the project's matrix? A. Consulted B. Informed C. Accountable D. Responsible

B. An informed person receives updates but does not interact with the tasks. An informed person may be an executive or external stakeholder. A consulted person is a subject matter expert (SME) who can provide advice or direction. They may also review and quality check work for the responsible group. The accountable person is ultimately accountable for the work and approves all work assigned. It is best to have only one accountable person for each activity because it creates clarity of authority. A responsible team member is one that performs the work on the intended deliverable.

A project manager creates a communications plan for a large project. The objective is to share as many visuals as possible with the non-technical stakeholders. To accomplish this, what part of the plan does the project manager focus on for the upcoming project? A. Channels B. Artifacts C. Recipients D. Goals

B. Communication artifacts include presentations, pictures, documents, and more. Identify the various communication artifacts that require the address of the needs of the stakeholders and team members. Communication channels are important. Select the best communication channel for each artifact. Keep in mind that each artifact can use a different channel. For each communication artifact and channel, identify who will receive the communication. It is also helpful to note each communication artifact's formality and artifact. The communication plan should have goals. Define the purpose of communication first. Creating clarity early in the process allows the project manager to design the appropriate amount of communication.

An in-progress project experiences severe delays. Upon review, middle management finds that upper management has been misreporting project progress and expenses. As a result, the organization places the project on hold and addresses which operational issue? A. Environmental B. Governance C. Social D. Identity

B. Governance factors describe how the company operates, including its policies, transparency, and structure. Governance could change with new policies, oversight committees, and replacement executives for issues such as mismanagement of waste. Environmental factors are how the organization impacts the natural world. Environmental considerations include landfill consumption, waste generation, and disposal methods. Social factors include how the company develops relationships and treats people, including employees, people in the community, and groups impacted by the company's products and services. Social factors include waste disposal. A company's identity includes its vision, mission statement, values, and brand. In addition, the company identity may incorporate its position on multiple factors. Identity would suffer from issues with factors.

During a project meeting at an organization, a visitor states that they represent a group that will interact with the project's final output. What role does the visitor play? A. Senior manager B. End-user C. Sponsor D. Customer

B. In project management, the end-user is the person who will interact with the project's final output. Sometimes the end-user and customer are the same, but this is not always the case. Senior management refers to the highest level of leadership in an organization. Their influential role in the organization can affect project success, even when they are not directly involved in a project. The sponsor is accountable for a project. Often, the sponsor is a single senior management member. In project management, the customer is the party who receives the benefits from a project. A customer may not be the end-user.

An organization initiates a new software project. A project manager prepares the paperwork and establishes performance measures for milestone activities. The project manager records leading indicators by utilizing which metric reporting approach? A. Ensuring goals are realistic B. Taking predictive measures C. Taking reflective measures D. Using reasonable estimation

B. Leading indicators are predictive measures. There is an assumption that if these measures perform well, the truly desired outcomes will improve. SMART (specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound) goals are realistic. With achievability, the goal is realistic and within the realm of possibility. Lagging indicators are reflective measures. After the work is complete, taking these measures is the only way to capture them. They are not timely, but they are essential. Key performance indicators (KPIs) can give a reasonable estimation of the overall health of a system. They are proxy measures that can tell if the desired outcome is achievable.

A new project manager takes inventory of project management tools. Of interest is a tool that will utilize workflow automation for resource allocation. Which type of software does the manager utilize to accomplish this goal? A. Diagramming B. Scheduling C. Surveying D. Conferencing

B. Project management scheduling software allows project managers to create comprehensive project schedules. These applications include many features, such as task planning, workflow automation, and resource allocation. Diagramming tools such as those that create flowcharts help to visualize a process and translate complicated work instructions into easy-to-comprehend instructions. Survey and polling tools allow project managers to gather different types of information quickly from a large group of people. Conferencing software allows teams to conduct videoconference meetings. They are feature-rich applications that enable multiple people to communicate via voice and video.

A project manager assigns a team member to perform quality control duties. What action does the team member take? A. Addresses all processes and procedures. B. Inspects finished work. C. Documents any industry or regulatory standards. D. Creates a list of measurable quality targets.

B. Quality control is a portion of quality assurance that involves inspecting finished work before it reaches the customers. Quality assurance includes all processes and procedures and aims to prevent quality issues. It encompasses quality control. Quality standards are within a quality assurance plan. These identify industry or regulatory standards that apply to the project, such as health codes. Quality objectives are within a quality assurance plan by creating a list of measurable quality targets. The project will have multiple quality targets. Examples of targets include on-time delivery and the number of defects.

An organization's project team meets to discuss current project risks. The team members determine that verifiable data will be useful in calculating risk for certain tasks. What risk tool do the team members utilize in calculating the risk? A. Qualitative B. Quantitative C. Interconnectivity D. Detectability

B. Quantitative risk analysis is objective; it uses verifiable data to assign scores to project risks. Quantitative analysis is reliable if the source data is accurate. Qualitative risk analysis is subjective; it is based on how people perceive and interpret the risk. Qualitative analysis is easy to learn and quick to use. Interconnectivity describes how risk will affect more than a single event. Nothing exists in isolation, so every risk could create a ripple effect if it were to occur. Detectability evaluates how quickly detectability would identify a risk if it were to occur. High detectability risks offer clear signals when a risk event occurs or will occur soon.

A project manager discovers that a team member has been discussing project details in an online public chat room. While the intent is not malicious, the team member's mistake is cause for concern. The project manager discusses the issue with the team member and educates the entire team on the potential impact of which operational issue? A. Governance B. Social C. Environmental D. Identity

B. Social factors include how the company develops relationships and treats people, including employees, people in the community, and groups impacted by the company's products and services. Governance factors describe how the company operates, including its policies, transparency, and structure. Governance could change with new policies, oversight committees, and replacement executives for issues such as mismanagement. Environmental factors are how the organization impacts the natural world. Environmental considerations include landfill consumption, waste generation, and disposal methods. A company's identity includes its vision, mission statement, values, and brand. In addition, the company identity may incorporate its position on multiple factors. Identity would suffer from issues with factors.

A project manager looks to resolve project timeline issues using the 80/20 rule. How does the project manager analyze the issues? A. Scatter diagram B. Pareto chart C. Run chart D. Five-why

B. The Pareto principle asserts to resolve most problems by fixing a small portion of the root causes. The 80/20 rule is a simple way to describe the principle; 80% of issues are created by 20% of the causes. A scatter diagram or scatter plot graphically demonstrates the relationship between two variables - one on the x-axis and one on the y-axis. Then, a dot represents the occurrence of each (x,y) variable. A run chart is a time-based line graph called a time series plot. It shows time or sequence on the x-axis and measures corresponding data on the y-axis. A five-why analysis is a simple root cause analysis tool that looks beyond the surface issue to uncover hidden root causes.

An organization asks a project manager to create a communications plan for an upcoming project. The objective is to avoid jargon or unnecessary verbiage in the communication plan. To accomplish this, what part of the plan does the project manager focus on for the upcoming project? A. Recipients B. Goals C. Artifacts D. Channels

B. The communication plan should have goals. Define the purpose of communication first. Creating clarity early in the process allows the project manager to design the appropriate amount of communication. For each communication artifact and channel, identify who will receive the communication. It is also helpful to note each communication artifact's formality and artifact. Communication artifacts include presentations, pictures, documents, and more. Identify the various communication artifacts that are required to address the needs of the stakeholders and team members. Communication channels are important. Select the best communication channel for each artifact. Keep in mind that each artifact can use a different channel.

A project nears an important milestone date. As a result, the project manager closely monitors daily task progress. Which tool does the project manager utilize daily to display the number of items completed per iteration? A. Burndown chart B. Throughput chart C. Burnup chart D. Velocity chart

B. A throughput chart measures the number of items completed per iteration. The chart contains several previous iterations and usually plots an average for the iterations shown. A burndown chart measures how much work is remaining each day. A line represents the target for the day. A burnup chart measures the total amount of work that is completed each day. A line represents the target for work that is complete. It starts at zero on the first day of the project and the last day has all the project work. A velocity chart measures how many story points are completed per iteration. The chart contains several previous iterations and usually plots an average for the iterations shown.

Which project framework has extremely high costs when changes are implemented later in the project? A. Agile B. Extreme programming (XP) C. Waterfall D. DevOps

C A waterfall project has high change costs later in the project, so a project manager thoroughly designs the project early in the process. It is better to avoid redesigns as they are costly. Agile is flexible and delivers value early and often. Waterfall uses a big design up front (BDUF) approach, while agile uses iterative and incremental design. Extreme programming (XP) embraces change and customization. XP operates on five values: communication, simplicity, feedback, respect, and courage. DevOps offers superior operational support, reducing team friction and improving cross-functional collaboration. Continuous integration/continuous delivery (CI/CD) is a core DevOps practice that drives all other improvements.

An organization instructs a project manager to conduct a cost performance exercise on a project. The project manager calculates the cost variance of the project by referencing what other input? (Select all that apply.) A. Planned value B. Contingency reserve C. Earned value D. Actual cost

C & D. Earned value (EV) is the actual schedule and is a point in time value. To calculate a cost variance, actual cost is subtracted from earned value. Actual cost (AC) is the actual cost and is a point in time value. The cost variance is earned value less the actual cost. Planned value (PV) is the cost allocated to a specific amount of work. For example, PV estimates that 10% of the project's work should use 10% of the project budget. Contingency reserves are used for unexpected costs. A project cost baseline does not change when contingency reserves are used. Instead, the funds are transferred to the project estimate.

A project manager uses a backward pass approach to evaluate a project timeline. What values will the project manager calculate while implementing this method? (Select all that apply.) A. Early start B. Early finish C. Late start D. Late finish

C & D. Late start (LS) is the latest an activity can start and allow the project to finish on time. Late start calculates by using a backward pass of the timeline. Late finish (LF) is the latest an activity can finish, allowing the project to finish on time. Late finish calculates by using a backward pass of the timeline. Early start (ES) is the soonest an activity can start because of how long it will take to complete predecessor activities. Early start calculates by using a forward pass of the timeline. Early finish (EF) is the earliest an activity can finish because of how long it takes to complete it. Early finish calculates by using a forward pass of the timeline.

A project manager operates under a directive project management office (PMO). What level of authority does the project management office exercise? A. Upon request B. Partial C. Full D. None

C. A directive PMO is the most controlling type, and it sets the rules for the company. This PMO has full authority over projects, standards, and procedures. A supportive PMO provides support when it is requested. In this model, the PMO is essentially a library of project information. A controlling PMO is more involved than a supportive PMO. It actively monitors project performance. However, this PMO does not have full authority. Organizations that favor decentralization may opt for a supportive PMO. In this model, there is no strict authority. They only request administrative support and occasional assistance from the PMO.

An organization holds a formal meeting to discuss an upcoming product release. Management decides that a focus group will review an early project deliverable so designers can obtain feedback. All members vote for a dual-moderator approach. How will the team conduct the focus group? A. Include two moderators who take opposite views. B. Include two groups who will observe each other. C. Include a lead moderator and a second as a quality check. D. Include participants who may act as moderators.

C. A dual-moderator focus group employs two moderators. One is the lead facilitator and keeps the interactions flowing. The other serves as a quality check; they track the topics and ensure the group covers all the content. A dueling-moderator focus group also uses two moderators. However, both moderators are actively engaged in facilitation and take opposite views. A two-way focus group allows one group to observe another focus group's session. This technique gives the focus group more perspective and can create more complex responses. A respondent-moderator focus group uses participants as moderators, creating dynamic energy with many new ideas.

The project team has identified a change that needs to be made to the final deliverable. However, the change will not be implemented in the current project iteration and will be deferred to a later version. A change order has been created to document this change and is awaiting approval. Which type of change order is being used in this scenario? A. Plan update B. Team improvement C. Product change D. Strategic change

C. A product change is a change order that affects the final deliverable of a project. The change order being described recommends a change that will not be implemented in the current project iteration but will impact the final deliverable later. A plan or scope change can bring it back into alignment when a project delivers more or less work than originally intended. With a team improvement, the project team inspects and improves systems at every retrospective, phase gate, and lessons learned event. An organization's strategic direction may switch in the middle of a project. Often, these changes redirect a project to protect it from cancellation.

A project manager looks to resolve project timeline issues by keeping track of two distinct variables. How does the project manager analyze the issues? A. Run chart B. Pareto chart C. Scatter diagram D. Five-why

C. A scatter diagram or scatter plot graphically demonstrates the relationship between two variables - one on the x-axis and one on the y-axis. Then, a dot represents the occurrence of each (x,y) variable. A run chart is a time-based line graph called a time series plot. It shows time or sequence on the x-axis and measures corresponding data on the y-axis. The Pareto principle asserts to resolve most problems by fixing a small portion of the root causes. The 80/20 rule is a simple way to describe the principle; 80% of issues are created by 20% of the causes. A five-why analysis is a simple root cause analysis tool that looks beyond the surface issue to uncover hidden root causes.

A project manager builds an escalation plan for an in-progress software development project. The manager can map solutions to possible issues by escalation level using a matrix. With six months left on the project, what issue does the manager deem as an issue for the highest level of escalation? A. An error in a code module function B. A team member's temporary scheduling conflict C. An exhausted overall budget D. The desire to upgrade development tools

C. An exhausted budget would require the highest level of escalation to remedy. This may involve having stakeholders and management review the project. With no budget, the project cannot move forward. A code error would not need the highest level of escalation. With plenty of time left in the project, a code error would be easy to fix. A team member scheduling conflict may cause a slight delay in a project if the conflict does not resolve. However, as the conflict is temporary, the highest level of escalation is likely not necessary. The desire to upgrade development tools does not require the highest level of escalation. If there was a specific requirement or absolute need, then escalation is likely.

An employee at a software development company looks to join a project team. Responsibilities will ensure that requirements stay aligned with project scope and business needs. What role does the employee pursue? A. Quality assurance B. Developer C. Business analyst D. Architect

C. Business analysts hold a unique role between business and technical teams and operate as a translator between business and IT. Core responsibility is ensuring that project requirements stay aligned with project scope and business needs. Quality assurance specialists help ensure code quality. They work closely with developers throughout to build quality and help prevent errors from escaping into production. Developers represent a role that creates the final product. Each developer possesses specialized expertise in their field. For example, software developers write the code and create the products. The architect is an umbrella term for many designer roles in an organization. For example, there are enterprise architects, software architects, and solution architects.

A project manager provides project deliverable process content for a group of non-technical users. What approach does the project manager use to present this information? A. Mind mapping B. Quadrant diagramming C. Data flow diagramming D. Flowcharting

C. Data flow diagramming is the best approach for presenting project deliverable processes to technical and non-technical audiences. A data flow diagram shows how information flows through a process or system and can be used to represent complex processes in a simple and easy-to-understand format. A mind map is a visual tool that helps to organize and present ideas or information around a central theme. It is useful for brainstorming activities, thinking through problems, or consolidating information. Quadrant diagramming involves creating a four-quadrant grid where each quadrant represents a high-low combination of two factors. This can be used to analyze and compare data but may not be as effective for presenting project deliverable processes. Flowcharting involves creating a visual representation of a process using symbols to show the steps and how they relate to each other. While it can be useful for illustrating a process, it may not be as effective for presenting complex project deliverable processes.

A project manager performs a gap analysis on a project and finds that outside resources have difficulty accessing a data storage drive. The project manager records this gap as which type? A. Allocation B. Utilization C. Function D. Skills

C. Features and functions include the capabilities and tasks that physical resources need to perform. It is how the project manager needs frameworks to operate and software to run. Allocation refers to a resource assignment, such as assigning resources to the task. Proper allocation works with data that indicates the time the resource has available. Resource utilization is a project key performance indicator (KPI) that measures the effectiveness of project resources. Utilization expresses as a percentage, where 100% represents a fully utilized resource. A skill gap analysis systematically identifies all the required skills that are unavailable on the team. Project managers measure skill requirements across two criteria: type and expertise.

A project manager reviews project risk for a deliverable and discovers that several related issues exist that will delay the project. The project manager documents the risk using which area of knowledge? A. Detectability evaluation B. Quantitative analysis C. Interconnectivity evaluation D. Qualitative analysis

C. Interconnectivity describes how risk will affect more than a single event. Nothing exists in isolation, so every risk could create a ripple effect if it were to occur. Detectability evaluates how quickly detectability would identify a risk if it were to occur. High detectability risks offer clear signals when a risk event occurs or will occur soon. Quantitative risk analysis is objective; it uses verifiable data to assign scores to project risks. Quantitative analysis is reliable if the source data is accurate. Qualitative risk analysis is subjective; it is based on how people perceive and interpret the risk. Qualitative analysis is easy to learn and quick to use.

An organization takes on an IT implementation project. The goal for the development team is to use a modular approach where components will exist on different servers for a single solution. Which computing service does the development team design and construct? A. Networking and connectivity B. Data warehousing C. Multitiered architecture D. Storage plan

C. Multitiered architecture is a modular software design, which divides software into layers, or tiers. The team builds and implements each tier separately. The modules are logically separated from an abstract design perspective and physically located on different servers. Networking and connectivity refer to how the various users and components within a system connect. A data warehouse is an extensive database used for reporting and analytics. For example, companies use data warehouses to create dashboards for monitoring company performance. Physical technology needs a storage plan, including a physical location, temperature control, and humidity control. Additionally, hardware requires varying levels of security and traceability.

A project's software deliverable is to have a significant defect. When software product users use a keyboard command rather than the mouse to select a menu item, the software crashes. Documentation shows that the project team did not test the keyboard command to the same capacity as the mouse action. Failure to find this defect is an example of what risk analysis concept? A. Quality escape B. Quality audit C. Risk detectability D. Risk interconnectivity

C. Risk detectability evaluates how quickly the user would identify a risk if it were to occur. Low detectability risks will move through an entire process and reach end-users before finding the risk. A quality escape is a deliverable containing an unacceptable deviation or defect that the producer or quality team did not detect. In this case, the escape is the result of the defect. A quality audit is a process in which a project deliverable will test for functionality and document defects. Risk interconnectivity describes how risk will affect more than a single event. Nothing exists in isolation, and therefore, every risk could create a ripple effect if it were to occur.

A developer working on a software project submits a change order request. The developer explains that a new software tool has become available and will improve development processes. What change order type does the developer submit? A. Strategic change B. Product change C. Team improvement D. Scope

C. With a team improvement, the project team inspects and improves systems at every retrospective, phase gate, and lessons learned event. An organization's strategic direction may switch in the middle of a project. Often, these changes redirect a project to protect it from cancellation. Projects often start with nearly unattainable goals, known as stretch goals. At some point in the project, a goal may be deemed too aggressive. The project can change goals to reflect the most likely project outcomes. When a project delivers more or less work than originally intended, a scope change can bring it back into alignment.

A new project requires specialized tools for the development of a software product. Several vendors provide a solution, so the project manager focuses on functionality at a reasonable price. Which vendor evaluation technique does the project manager utilize in project planning? A. Capacity B. Reference C. Value D. Cost-benefit

C. The best-value evaluation considers cost and additional performance factors in selecting the vendor that will provide the most value at a reasonable cost. A capacity evaluation considers if a vendor is likely to meet the demands of the contract. Physical capacity refers to the volume of work a vendor can produce. A project manager or procurement analyst may ask other vendor clients how they interact, which technology they use, and why they work with the vendor. They also inquire about the vendor's performance. Cost-benefit analysis (CBA) is a project analysis technique. It compares the cost of a project against the expected financial benefits it will deliver.

A high-profile project experiences numerous difficulties and the client questions the team's ability in maintaining its reported vision, values, and mission statement. The project manager places the project on hold and coordinates efforts with management and HR to remediate the concerns vented by the client. What is the client questioning in this scenario? A. Social B. Governance C. Environmental D. Identity

D. A company's identity includes its vision, mission statement, values, and brand. In addition, the company identity may incorporate its position on multiple factors. Identity would suffer from issues with factors. Social factors include how the company develops relationships and treats people, including employees, people in the community, and groups impacted by the company's products and services. Governance factors describe how the company operates, including its policies, transparency, and structure. Governance could change with new policies, oversight committees, and replacement executives for issues such as mismanagement. Environmental factors are how the organization impacts the natural world. Environmental considerations include landfill consumption, waste generation, and disposal methods.

A project manager looks to brainstorm ideas with a user-friendly tool. What approach does the project manager use while thinking through problems? A. Data flow diagramming B. Quadrant diagramming C. Flowcharting D. Mind mapping

D. A mind map visualizes categories of information around a single theme. Mind maps are excellent for facilitating brainstorming activities, thinking through problems, or consolidating information. A data flow diagram (DFD) shows how information flows through a process or system. This diagram type works particularly well for audiences, including people with technical and non-technical expertise. A quadrant diagram includes many implementations that use the same concept. This diagram creates a four-quadrant grid. One factor is on each axis, and each quadrant represents a high-low combination of the two factors. A flowchart could be a "process flow" or "process diagram." This chart visualizes a process and can compress complicated work instructions into a few charts.

A project manager (PM) builds a team project dashboard. What information does the PM find valuable and add to the dashboard? A. Risks B. Return on investment (ROI) C. Scope D. Deadlines

D. A team-level dashboard is tactical and centers around the work. A team dashboard answers questions such as current team member utilization and task deadlines. A project manager monitors the project to ensure it is running as expected. A dashboard might list issues, change requests, and risks with upcoming deadlines. An executive-level dashboard will have extremely compressed information. The dashboard should display a relevant business value measure, such as the revenue generated and return on investment. The project manager may review executive dashboards monthly or less, so it does not need day-to-day information. The dashboard will have simple graphics showing the schedule, budget, and scope snapshots.

A project team falls behind on scheduled tasks. As a result, the project manager pushes for an increase in productivity. While doing so, the project manager uses which measurement tool to check story points in previous iterations to calculate an average of iterations? A. Throughput chart B. Burnup chart C. Burndown chart D. Velocity chart

D. A velocity chart measures how many story points are completed per iteration. The chart contains several previous iterations and usually plots an average for the iterations shown. A throughput chart measures the number of items completed per iteration. The chart contains several previous iterations and usually plots an average for the iterations shown. A burnup chart measures the total amount of work completed each day. A line represents the target for completed work. It starts at zero on the first day of the project and the last day has all the project work. A burndown chart measures how much work is remaining each day. A line represents the target for the day.

A project team member submits a change order request. The team member explains that the service in use for software development is no longer available, and they need to research a new solution. What change order type does the team member submit? A. Scope B. Product change C. Team improvement D. Strategic change

D. An organization's strategic direction may switch in the middle of a project. Often, these changes redirect a project to protect it from cancellation. When a project delivers more or less work than originally intended, a scope change can bring it back into alignment. Projects often start with nearly unattainable goals, known as stretch goals. At some point in the project, a goal may be deemed too aggressive. The project can change goals to reflect the most likely project outcomes. With a team improvement, the project team inspects and improves systems at every retrospective, phase gate, and lessons learned event.

A project requires that team members have the proper background clearance and access to appropriate parts of the project. The project does not require the highest level of access defined in the organization. The project manager assigns access to sensitive materials on a case-by-case basis for what type of clearance? A. Restricted B. Public C. Internal D. Confidential

D. Confidential data is sensitive data with limited access. The information is only available to authorized users either on a role or case-by-case basis. Restricted data is the most sensitive data. Access is severely restricted and is on a need-to-know basis with strict business justification. Public data is the least sensitive. It has no restrictions and is publicly available. Press releases, the content of a company website, and job postings are all examples of public data. Internal data is available to anybody within the company and therefore is minimally sensitive. It is not public facing, but exposing this data would not violate laws or consumer trust.

A project manager needs to utilize extra funds for documented risks. What fund type does the project manager use? A. Management reserve B. Resource cost C. Expected monetary value D. Contingency reserve

D. Contingency reserve is a calculated buffer of time and cost that covers documented risks. These risks are called "known unknowns," which means they are known but may or may not happen. Management reserve is an additional sum of time or money that covers "unknown unknowns." Unknown unknowns are the setbacks that are not forecasted. Any resource incurs an expense, including labor, materials, and equipment. Every resource has a resource cost rate, which measures the resource cost per some unit of measure (UOM). Expected monetary value (EMV) requires each risk's probability and impact assessment. EMV is helpful for large, expensive projects with many risks.

A project team member suggests that some deliverables in a software project are developed with paired programming iteratively. The project manager agrees and initiates what project framework? A. Agile B. Waterfall C. PRojects IN Controlled Environments (PRINCE2) D. Extreme programming (XP)

D. Extreme programming (XP) is an agile software development framework. It stands out as a framework with a heavy emphasis on software engineering practices. It is an iterative framework that features paired programming as an approach. Agile uses iterative and incremental design. Waterfall operates best with no unknowns, but agile is adaptable to change and designed to work with uncertainty. The waterfall is a linear, sequential project management framework. All work gets completed in one phase before another phase starts. Work only flows one way in the waterfall. PRojects IN Controlled Environments (PRINCE2) is a process-based project management methodology. It aims to create clear project phases, clearly define roles and responsibilities, and predefine tasks to manage the project life cycle.

A project manager reviews resources that will participate in a large software deployment project. Resources that utilize soft skills are very important to the project's success. What resource type does this characterize? A. Procured B. Capital C. Physical D. Human

D. Human resources are the people working on a project. Internal human resources are called labor, and external human resources are services. Soft skills are as important as core skills. Procured refers to a procurement plan. It is the business case for using external resources and a strategy for finding and managing vendors to ensure acceptable performance levels. Capital resources are money. Capital represents the financing needed for a project; capital includes team and project budgets and long-term investment options. Physical resources are the goods needed in a project, including equipment, software, office supplies, workspaces, buildings, vehicles, and other assets.

A project manager implements key performance indicators (KPIs) for several project processes. Which metrics does the manager record after finishing the deliverable? A. Leading indicators B. SMART objectives C. Objectives and key results D. Lagging indicators

D. Lagging indicators are reflective measures, which describe the actual success of a project or process. The project manager captures these measures after completing the work. Leading indicators are predictive measures. There is an assumption that if these measures perform well, the truly desired outcomes will improve. The SMART format is a quick and simple way to create goals. SMART is an acronym that stands for specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound. Objectives and key results (OKRs) are put in place to achieve tremendous results quickly. OKRs are meant to be aspirational and slightly out of reach, which in turn drives teams forward.

A project manager assigns a team member to create a list of measurable quality targets. Which quality-related function does the team member perform? A. Quality assurance B. Quality control C. Quality standards D. Quality objectives

D. Quality objectives are within a quality assurance plan by creating a list of measurable quality targets. The project will have multiple quality targets. Examples of targets include on-time delivery and the number of defects. Quality assurance includes all processes and procedures and aims to prevent quality issues. It encompasses quality control. Quality control is a portion of quality assurance that involves inspecting finished work before it reaches the customers. Quality standards are within a quality assurance plan. These identify industry or regulatory standards that apply to the project, such as health codes.

A project manager presents stakeholders with a risk management plan. In the plan, a third party handles the risk. What risk management strategy does the project manager initiate for these risks? A. Avoid B. Accept C. Mitigate D. Transfer

D. Risk transference assigns the risk to a third party. Transferring the risk moves financial responsibility for a risk to somebody else, but the risk might still happen. Risk avoidance attempts to prevent a risk from ever happening. Risk avoidance detours around anything that could cause the event. Risk acceptance is a do nothing approach. The consequences of risk are accepted if it were to happen. Sometimes risk acceptance makes the most logical and financial sense. Risk mitigation reduces the impact or probability of a risk. It includes improving processes and creating backup plans. Risk mitigation is the most common risk response.

A project manager needs to provide historical cost and budget data for several closed projects. Which productivity tool does the project manager utilize to accomplish this goal? A. Text document B. Presentation C. Word processor D. Spreadsheet

D. Spreadsheet software works with data in tables. Project managers can use spreadsheets to organize and modify data, complete mathematical calculations, and create graphs. Text editors offer minimal functionality and features; they allow the editing of the text in a file. Text editors can add or remove text but cannot apply it to format. Presentation software creates slide decks, which are a series of visual pages that combine to tell a story. Each page in the presentation is a "slide." Slides are highly customizable and work well when presenting more visuals than text. Word processing software provides more functionality than a text editor, primarily for creating and editing enhanced text documents.

The deliverable for a software project maintains some personal data for customers located in Virginia in the United States. Project team members focus on security features during development. A European team member suggests what regulation is similar to the state's Consumer Data Protection Act? A. Personally identifiable information (PII) B. Protected health information (PHI) C. Intellectual property (IP) D. General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)

D. The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a data privacy and security law in the European Union (EU). It includes 11 chapters of regulations and is widely considered the strictest privacy law. Personally identifiable information (PII) includes data that could reveal a person's identity. PII is strongly protected data as somebody could use it for impersonation purposes. The United States federal law protects protected health information (PHI). The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) requires organizations to protect against unauthorized access and disclosure of sensitive health information. Intellectual property (IP) is an asset type that refers to creations of the mind. In business, it comprises the inventions and creative assets that a company owns.

A development team completes a project. The project manager receives product validation. The project can move to the next steps. Which of the following has just taken place in the project lifecycle? A. The project closes. B. New work takes place. C. Change request processes occur. D. Deliverables transference occurs.

D. The transition plan outlines how the deliverables will transition to the permanent owners. Validation occurs when the transference of the deliverable occurs and is approved. When deliverables are approved and validated, the project is approved to close. This step does not close the project. Instead, the stakeholder agrees that the project manager should begin closing the project. All stakeholders need to validate that the project has met all deliverables. After doing so, the project team is not delivering new work. A stakeholder's approval confirms that they agree that the project has met the deliverables. At this point, the team cannot accept new change requests.

A project manager pilots a project for a new customer. The project has a strict budget. Which project management framework does the project manager practice? A. Kanban B. Scrum C. Agile D. Waterfall

D. Waterfall projects have a strict budget as the customer negotiates features and costs at the start of the project. To manage cost, the customer should not request changes. Kanban is an agile development methodology and is flexible with a budget. Kanban controls work in progress (WIP) levels and manages workflows in software and other business processes. Scrum is a lightweight, customer-centric agile framework with a flexible budget. It delivers iterative and adaptive value while intentionally covering only the barest requirements. Projects with a flexible budget work well with an agile approach. The project defines cost inputs and parameters at the start. The team and customer then plan features and estimate cost at every iteration.

A project manager deals with risk on a current project. When creating a risk register, what does the project manager document? A. Communication information B. Notable timely and high-impact risks C. Scope impacts as a result of realized risks D. Impact, priority, or other scoring criteria

D. Any information the project manager gathers during a risk management process is collected in a risk register. This register includes many details such as impact, priority, or other scoring criteria, risk priority or ranking, and the risk owner. As part of risk treatment, a project manager creates a contingency plan. This plan would include communication information, such as primary contacts, whom to inform, and escalations. The project manager prepares a risk report and shares it throughout the project. It includes information such as notable timely and high-impact risks. A risk report shares relevant information about a project's risk management process. Such a report summarizes scope impacts as a result of realized risks.

A project manager realizes that some risks exist in a few project tasks. As the impact is low, the project manager does not act upon the problems. What risk management strategy does the project manager initiate for these risks? A. Transfer B. Mitigate C. Avoid D. Accept

D. Risk acceptance is a do-nothing approach. The consequences of risk are accepted if it were to happen. Sometimes risk acceptance makes the most logical and financial sense. Risk transference assigns the risk to a third party. Transferring the risk moves financial responsibility for a risk to somebody else, but the risk might still happen. Risk mitigation reduces the impact or probability of a risk. It includes improving processes and creating backup plans. Risk mitigation is the most common risk response. Risk avoidance attempts to prevent a risk from ever happening. Risk avoidance detours around anything that could cause the event.

A project manager is advised by leadership that the team's project deadline for the new project is decreased by two weeks. While planning for the project, the PM evaluates the variances between estimation techniques. What statements are true of Parametric Model Estimating? (Select all that Apply.) A. It augments either Bottom-Up or Top-Down estimates with historical data. B. It uses known variables to create a custom estimate for a project. C. It creates an estimate of the entire project or key deliverables. D. It creates estimates at the lowest-level activities, work packages, and user stories.

A & B Parametric model estimating does augment either bottom-up or top-down estimates with historical data. In addition to either augmenting Bottom-Up or Top-Down Estimating, Parametric model estimating uses known variables to create a custom estimate for a project. Top-Down Estimating, and not Parametric Model Estimating, creates an estimate of the entire project or key deliverables. Top-down estimating is less accurate than other techniques. Bottom-Up Estimating, and not Parametric Model Estimating, create estimates at the lowest-level activities, work packages, and user stories. Then, the individual estimates are added together to create a project estimate.

A project manager works on a work breakdown structure (WBS). The goal is to create a clear and easy-to-navigate design. Which guidelines does the project manager follow when stopping to break a work element down to maintain level responsibility? (Select all that apply.) A. The element produces a measurable deliverable. B. The team can confidently estimate the time, cost, and resources. C. The element will span multiple reporting periods. D. The element will last for more than 4 and less than 40 hours.

A & B. A work breakdown structure (WBS) should not have so many details that it is overwhelming. When a team can estimate the time, cost, and resources, an element no longer needs to be broken down. The work breakdown structure (WBS) should break down into enough levels to provide a clear project plan. A measurable deliverable is one good way to stop an element from further breakdown. The element will fit in a reporting period. The reporting period is how often you report on the project's status. So if you report on the status every month, each element needs to last for one month or less. A work breakdown structure (WBS) can have as many levels as required; a good practice is to have only helpful levels. An element typically does not have less than 8 and no more than 80 hours.

An organization looks to move its computing services to the cloud. A project team documents the requirements. Moving Windows servers to the cloud is part of what project initiative? (Select all that apply.) A. Anything as a service (XaaS) B. Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) C. Software as a service (SaaS) D. Platform as a service (PaaS)

A & B. Anything as a service (XaaS), with "X" as a placeholder, is a general term for any cloud computing service. Cloud computing itself is XaaS. Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) refers to basic computing resources, such as servers, networks, and storage. For example, cloud storage is an IaaS product. Software as a service (SaaS) is a complete software stack. It is the infrastructure, environments, and actual product that an end-user would use. Platform as a service (PaaS) delivers development tools, such as software environments, over an internet connection. PaaS includes infrastructure from IaaS and the middleware and tools developers need to create a finished product.

A project manager prepares a new project's work breakdown structure (WBS). The project manager creates a branch for certain tasks and then ends the branch with a final outcome. When drafting the WBS, what terminology does the project manager assign to the outcome? (Select all that apply.) A. Element B. Level C. Work package D. Leg

A & C. Elements are the deliverables in a work breakdown structure (WBS). It is each box in a chart and each row in a table. The WBS element is short, at just two or three words. The work package element is the lowest in each branch or leg; an element without a child element is a work package. Known as a "terminal element," a work package estimates costs, resources, and timing. The level is the layer of the WBS where an element resides. Usually, there is only one element on each level. A leg is a group of elements with a shared ancestor. The lowest elements in a leg will roll up to equal everything in the highest level of the leg.

An organization assigns a solution architect to a large cloud-based implementation project. The architect is currently working on an initial solution for the deliverable. What project phase and which document is the architect currently creating? (Select all that apply.) A. Analysis B. Low-level C. Design D. High-level

A & D. The architect creates the high-level design (HLD) in the software development life cycle (SDLC) analysis phase. The project sponsor, solution architect, and technical staff collaborate to develop the solution design. The high-level design (HLD) is a conceptual design that describes how the solution will need to work and integrate. It defines nonfunctional requirements and non-negotiable parameters. The architect would create the low-level design (LLD) in the software development life cycle (SDLC) design phase. The solution architect and SMEs develop the LLD. The LLD is a technical decision-making document. The low-level design (LLD) breaks the project into components and begins defining the detailed specifications. This file is the reference document for creating work later, using a work breakdown structure or user stories.

When compiling a project closeout report, a project manager documents which content? (Select all that apply.) A. Closure approval B. ESG factors C. Change order requests D. Transition summary

A & D. The project manager includes the closure approval request in the report. When the project manager, project sponsor, and stakeholders sign off, the project is formally closed. A transition summary will summarize how the project affected ongoing operations and who the operation owners are. Environmental, social, and governance factors should be considered throughout a project but are most often at the core of the design phase of a project. A change is a modification to a project's scope, budget, or timeline via an adjustment in project activities or resources. A change occurs during project execution.

A development team completes a project. The project manager presents the deliverables to stakeholders. Upon validation of the product, what conditions exist for the project manager to take the next steps? (Select all that apply.) A. Change requests are not allowed. B. No new work is performed. C. Deliverables are transferred. D. The project can be closed.

A B D A stakeholder's approval confirms the stakeholder agrees that the project has met the deliverables. At this point, the team cannot accept new change requests. All stakeholders need to validate that the project has met all deliverables. After doing so, the project team is not delivering new work. When deliverables are approved, the project is approved to close. This step does not close the project. Instead, the stakeholder agrees that the project manager should begin closing the project. The transition plan outlines how the deliverables will transition to permanent owners. The project team likely completed this activity in the execution phase. This step has already taken place due to the validation of the deliverables.

A project manager creates a requirements traceability matrix (RTM) for an in-progress project. What does the project manager use the matrix for in the in-progress project? (Select all that apply.) A. Perform impact analysis. B. Test results. C. Understand requirements. D. Establish a budget.

A, B & C A requirements traceability matrix (RTM) is helpful for impact analysis. Because it centralizes all the requirements information, the project manager can quickly assess the impacts of problems or changes. A requirements traceability matrix (RTM) has forward and backward traceability. Forward traceability traces work from the requirements originally written forward to the tests created as a result. A requirements traceability matrix (RTM) should have bidirectional traceability. Backward traceability starts at the tests and traces back to the requirements that prompted them.

A project manager reviews the notes from a previous project and discovers issues with community interactions. The project manager learns that the project improperly disposed of waste. What factors did the past project fail to impose? (Select all that apply.) A. Environmental B. Social C. Governance D. Current state

A, B & C Environmental factors are how the organization impacts the natural world. Environmental considerations include landfill consumption, waste generation, and disposal methods. Social factors include how the company develops relationships and treats people, including employees, people in the community, and groups impacted by the company's products and services. Social factors include waste disposal. Governance factors describe how the company operates, including its policies, transparency, and structure. Governance could change with new policies, oversight committees, and replacement executives for issues such as mismanagement of waste. The current state refers to a business case and describes what is happening now. The business case template describes the current state in the problem statement and analysis sections.

A team member suggests the use of a task board for keeping track of progress. The project manager agrees and implements which components to track work? (Select all that apply.) A. Card B. Matrix C. Board D. Lane

A, C & D. Activity owners move cards across a tracking board, from a "to do" state to a "finished" state as they finish work. A task board is also easy to update; users drag and drop cards to update the status. A task board is a visual task tracking tool. The Kanban board is a popular methodology that uses a task board. However, a team member can use a task board with any methodology. Work item cards are organized into lanes by their work states. Activity owners move the cards across the board, from a "to do" state to a "finished" state state as they finish work. A requirements traceability matrix (RTM) creates a path between a project's requirements and the artifacts that resolve it. The document contains at least the deliverables, tests, test results, and issues.

A seasoned project manager requires all team members to be available for a weekly meeting. Participants are required to be present as the meeting occurs in real-time. Following the meeting, a staff member will use a designated communication channel to distribute meeting minutes. What communication methods are used in this scenario? (Select all that apply.) A. Synchronous B. Informal C. Formal D. Written

A, C & D. Synchronous communication is also called real-time communication. The participants in this communication type interact and share information at the same time. Formal communication represents official communication channels. These are the intentional, procedural channels where information flows and documents decisions. Written communication includes anything where exchanges occur through handwritten or typed messages. Examples of written communication include letters through the mail, chat messages, emails, and Braille. Informal communication describes all the unofficial information flows in an organization. It includes a casual conversation between coworkers, group chatter before a meeting starts, and nonverbal communication.

A project manager kicks off a new project with a meeting. During the meeting, the project manager formalizes assignments and shares the responsibility matrix with the team. What role does a team of subject matter experts, who provide advice during the project, fill in the project's matrix? A. Consulted B. Accountable C. Informed D. Responsible

A. A consulted person is a subject matter expert (SME) who can provide advice or direction. They may also review and quality check work for the responsible group. The accountable person is ultimately accountable for the work and approves all work assigned. It is best to have only one accountable person for each activity because it creates clarity of authority. An informed person receives updates but does not interact with the tasks. An informed person may be an executive or external stakeholder. A responsible team member is one that performs the work on the intended deliverable.

Project stakeholders meet and decide that a focus group session will help keep a project deliverable on track. The stakeholders propose a dueling-moderator approach for the session. How does the session present itself to attendees? A. Two moderators take opposite views. B. Participants may act as moderators. C. Two groups will observe each other. D. There is a lead moderator and a second as a quality check.

A. A dueling-moderator focus group also uses two moderators. However, both moderators are actively engaged in facilitation and take opposite views. A respondent-moderator focus group uses participants as moderators, creating dynamic energy with many new ideas. A two-way focus group allows one group to observe another focus group's session. This technique gives the focus group more perspective and can create more complex responses. A dual-moderator focus group employs two moderators. One is the lead facilitator and keeps the interactions flowing. The other serves as a quality check; they track the topics and ensure the group covers all the content.

A vendor provides examples of product offerings while communicating with a project manager of a large software project. Which document do the parties utilize for this process? A. Request for information (RFI) B. Request for proposal (RFP) C. Request for bid (RFB) D. Request for quote (RFQ)

A. A project manager (PM) uses a request for information (RFI) to learn more about solutions before initiating the solicitation process. A vendor responds to an RFI with more information about their products or services. A PM uses a request for proposal (RFP) to solicit multiple vendor proposals for a solution. An RFP is incredibly detailed, formal, and structured. A PM uses a request for bid (RFB) to solicit proposals while vendors compete on price. This tool works best for straightforward work and commodity items. A request for quote (RFQ) is an exclusively financial proposal. It is a formal document requesting pricing information for specific requirements, such as supplies or labor.

Vendors compete for a contract on a new project by submitting proposed solutions. To which document do vendors respond? A. Request for proposal (RFP) B. Request for information (RFI) C. Request for quote (RFQ) D. Request for bid (RFB)

A. A request for proposal (RFP) solicits multiple vendor proposals for a solution. An RFP is incredibly detailed, formal, and structured. A project manager (PM) uses a request for information (RFI) to learn more about solutions before initiating the solicitation process. A vendor responds to an RFI with more information about their products or services. A request for quote (RFQ) is an exclusively financial proposal. It is a formal document requesting pricing information for specific requirements, such as supplies or labor. A request for bid (RFB) solicits proposals while vendors compete on price. This tool works best for straightforward work and commodity items.

A project manager (PM) conducts a needs assessment to realize the skills needed for a new project. The PM should include which data in the skills matrix to determine the needed skills? A. Areas for development B. Cause and effect C. Total allocation D. Skills gap

A. A skills matrix helps to identify development areas. People work on projects to develop their skills and further their careers. A fishbone diagram is called an "Ishikawa diagram" or "cause and effect diagram." This diagram displays how various factors impact an outcome. Total allocation refers to resource assignments and how a resource allocates to a task in terms of availability. A skills gap analysis systematically identifies all the required skills that are unavailable on the team. A skills gap is part of a gap analysis, not a skills matrix.

A project manager (PM) builds a compressed view for a dashboard. This approach allows for a quick and easy view for executives. What information does the PM find valuable and add to the dashboard? A. Return on investment (ROI) B. Scope C. Risks D. Deadlines

A. An executive-level dashboard will have extremely compressed information. The dashboard should display a relevant business value measure, such as the revenue generated and return on investment. A project manager uses a dashboard to view vital day-to-day project information. This information includes any change requests. A project manager monitors the project to ensure it is running as expected. A dashboard might list issues with upcoming deadlines. A team-level dashboard is tactical and centers around the work. A team dashboard answers questions such as current team member utilization and task deadlines.

A project manager procures a resource through a coworker that creates a script to automate a process. Which resource procurement method takes place? A. Build B. Buy C. Lease D. Subscribe

A. Building a resource involves using a resource to create it. It includes the effort of designing, building, and implementing a product, including the cost of securing resources. A third party can purchase a resource and ownership transfers from the seller. Leasing is a procurement method. A lease is a fixed-term contract where an initial fee occurs along with regular recurring payments for the duration of the lease. A subscription is an all-inclusive rental model where a project manager sets a flat fee for access to a resource for a set duration.

Which project framework has a focus on continuous integration/continuous delivery (CI/CD)? A. DevOps B. Extreme programming (XP) C. Agile D. Waterfall

A. DevOps offers superior operational support, reducing team friction and improving cross-functional collaboration. Continuous integration/continuous delivery (CI/CD) is a core DevOps practice that drives all other improvements. Extreme programming (XP) embraces change and customization. XP operates on five values: communication, simplicity, feedback, respect, and courage. Agile is flexible and delivers value early and often. Waterfall uses a big design up front (BDUF) approach, while agile uses iterative and incremental design. A waterfall project has high change costs later in the project, so a project manager thoroughly designs the project early in the process. It is better to avoid redesigns as they are costly.

A project team meets with project stakeholders on a software application project. Stakeholders request that the application have a very complex data searching option. Which requirement does the project manager note for inclusion in the project? A. Features B. Usability C. Compatibility D. Compliance

A. Features are a functional requirement. A feature of a software application may be the ability to search data or print that data. Usability is a nonfunctional requirement that refers to how user-friendly the solution is. While the actual interface may be a functional requirement, ease of use is not. Compatibility evaluates how well the solution can work within the existing environment. This may be required due to integration with dissimilar systems. Compliance refers to the need for the solution to comply with applicable regulations. That may include operational regulations or regulations related to the end deliverable.

When practicing a waterfall project methodology, in which phase is a project team member responsible for valid quality specifications? A. Testing B. Design C. Requirements D. Maintenance

A. In the waterfall testing phase, project team members verify that any work completed meets the requirements and quality specifications. In the waterfall design phase, team members convert the project requirements into design specifications. The requirements of a waterfall project define why a project is being undertaken, the functionality that a project is designed to accommodate, or how the functionality will be achieved and satisfied by the solution. During the waterfall project maintenance phase, project team members solve issues as they arise. This may include such solutions as creating software updates for a software development project.

An organization's new project focuses on moving technology to the cloud. During the initiation phase, the project manager evaluates the need for storage services. Which specific cloud model does the project manager push to implement? A. Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) B. Platform as a service (PaaS) C. Software as a service (SaaS) D. Anything as a service (XaaS)

A. Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) refers to basic computing resources, such as servers, networks, and storage. For example, cloud storage is an IaaS product where a company purchases information storage space from a third party. Platform as a service (PaaS) delivers development tools, such as software environments, over an internet connection. Software as a service (SaaS) is a complete software stack. It is the infrastructure, environments, and actual product that an end-user would use. SaaS is incredibly user-friendly because it is usually available via an internet browser. Anything as a service (XaaS), with X as a placeholder, is a general term for any cloud computing service. Cloud computing itself is XaaS, and PaaS is a XaaS option.

A project manager needs to visualize a project concept for stakeholders. Which productivity tool does the project manager utilize to accomplish this goal? A. Presentation B. Spreadsheet C. Word processor D. Text document

A. Presentation software creates slide decks, which are a series of visual pages that combine to tell a story. Each page in the presentation is called a "slide." Slides are highly customizable and work well when presenting more visuals than text. Spreadsheet software works with data in tables. Project managers can use spreadsheets to organize and modify data, complete mathematical calculations, and create graphs. Word processing software provides more functionality than a text editor; it is used primarily for creating and editing enhanced text documents. Text editors offer minimal functionality and features; they allow the editing of the text in a file. Text editors can add or remove text, but formatting cannot be applied.

A software development team develops a data storage system for a customer that uses various levels of security. Which level does the team design so digital press releases can be available? A. Public B. Restricted C. Confidential D. Internal

A. Public data is the least sensitive. It has no restrictions and is publicly available. Press releases, the content of a company website, and job postings are all examples of public data. Restricted data is the most sensitive data. Access is severely restricted and is on a need-to-know basis with strict business justification. Confidential data is sensitive data with limited access. The information is only available to authorized users either on a role or case-by-case basis. Internal data is available to anybody within the company and therefore is minimally sensitive. It is not public facing, but exposing this data would not violate laws or consumer trust.

An organization instructs a project manager to utilize contingency reserves for training on a new development tool that will benefit the project. How does the project manager allocate the reserves? A. Decrease the reserve balance and increase the project estimate. B. Reduce the reserve balance and increase the project cost. C. Reduce the reserve balance and decrease the project cost. D. Increase the reserve balance and increase the project estimate.

A. The project manager reduces the balance of the contingency reserves. The funds transfer from the contingency reserve to the project estimate. If a risk occurs, the risk owner will respond by activating a response plan and using a contingency reserve. The reserve decreases, but the project cost stays the same. To use contingency reserves, the project manager reduces the balance of the contingency reserves. However, the project cost baseline does not change when using contingency reserves. The project manager reduces the balance of the contingency reserve and does not increase it. The project estimate, however, would increase.

A seasoned project manager prefers to manage projects in a linear and sequential fashion. Which framework does the project manager use? A. Waterfall B. Agile C. Kanban D. Scrum

A. The waterfall is a linear, sequential project management framework. All work gets completed in one phase before another phase starts. Work only flows one way in the waterfall. Agile uses iterative and incremental design. Waterfall operates best with no unknowns, but agile is adaptable to change and designed to work with uncertainty. Kanban is an agile development methodology. It was originally used in lean manufacturing. Kanban controls work in progress (WIP) levels and manages workflows in software and other business processes. Scrum is a lightweight, customer-centric agile framework. It delivers iterative and adaptive value while intentionally covering only the barest requirements.

A project team is preparing for an upcoming project and is completing a project estimate to forecast time, resources, and costs. What estimating technique creates an estimate of the entire project or key deliverables? A. Top-Down estimating B. Bottom-Up estimating C. Three-Point estimating D. Parametric model estimating

A. Top-down estimating creates an estimate of the entire project or key deliverables. Then estimates are cascaded down to the activities. Top-down estimating is less accurate than other techniques. Bottom-up estimating creates estimates at the lowest-level activities, work packages, and user stories. A PM can use three-point estimating in combination with any other estimating technique. It factors in multiple scenarios and creates an average estimate. Parametric estimating augments either bottom-up or top-down estimates with historical data. It uses known variables, such as cost per hour and the number of hours, to create a custom estimate for a project.