P/S

Which observation best demonstrates the proposition that gender is socially constructed? A On average, females begin pubertal development at an earlier age than males. B On average, adult males have higher levels of testosterone than adult females. C On average, females have a higher prevalence of osteoporosis than males. D On average, males have a higher rate of unintentional injury than females.

Of the options, the correct answer is most directly related to the presumption that social and cultural factors affect differential health outcomes between males and females. Unintentional injury often occurs from behaviors that are patterned according to gender norms. For example, males are more likely than females to engage in risk-taking activities that can lead to injuries. This difference is rooted in social and cultural factors more so than in purely biological causes. The remaining options, although having a social element, are each more strongly based in biological differences between males and females.

Interpretation of intelligence test scores is based on the assumption that the scores are normally distributed within a population such that: A more than two-thirds of children will score between 85 and 115. B a quarter of all children will perform poorly on least one component of the exam. C significantly more children will score at the extremes of the scoring distribution than in the middle. D only exceptionally gifted children would have IQ scores above 85 by age 6; perfect test scores are rare during early childhood.

The answer to this question is A because, based on the standardization system used to score IQ, the Wechsler Scales of Intelligence (WISC) scores are "normalized" to a mean of 100 (avg IQ) and a standard deviation of 15. So 68% of the scores will be between 85 and 115.

Research on cognitive aging has demonstrated that, in general, aging does NOT diminish a person's: A capacity for acquiring new declarative information. B capacity for controlling his or her memory processes. C ability to cope with Alzheimer's Disease. D ability to retrieve general information.

The answer to this question is D because the capacity for retrieving general information (i.e., semantic memory, crystallized intelligence) is unaffected by aging.

Social stigma is most commonly associated with: A an unrecognized prejudice. B a failure to cope with stress. C an attribute that is devalued. D a discriminatory reaction.

The answer to this question is option C. Social stigma is derived from the symbolic interactionist perspective in sociology and calls attention to how certain individuals or groups face social disapproval. Often, the social disapproval is associated with a behavior, identity, or other attribute that is considered deviant by others.

Which potential finding best supports the hypothesis that greater social capital will be associated with better health? A Economic development is associated with increases in life expectancy. B Intergenerational social mobility is associated with higher social status. C Cultural diversity in an organization is associated with fewer employee sick days. D Large social network size is associated with a lower risk of chronic inflammation.

The answer to this question is option D because the finding corresponds most directly to the concept of social capital, which suggests that social networks provide valuable resources. Social capital is believed to result in various health benefits for the individual, including reductions in the health risks of chronic inflammation. Partly related to social support, social capital emphasizes the tangible resources provided by network members (whereas social support tends to focus on emotional resources). Both social support and social capital suggest that social contacts will be beneficial to individual health and well-being. The other options are incorrect because they do not provide direct support for the relationship between social networks and health.

"Research using animal models indicates that cocaine exposure during pregnancy: (1)reduces oxygen levels and blood flow to the uterus, (2) interferes with neural proliferation and synaptogenesis, (3) alters functioning of three neurotransmitters (dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine) in the offspring during gestation, and thereafter, (4) impairs post-weaning discrimination learning and attention skills." In mammals, which brain area is LEAST involved in the abilities mentioned in the first paragraph? A Frontal lobe B Hippocampus C Hypothalamus D Thalamus

A- wrong because the frontal lobe has a lot to do with learning and attention B- hippocampus is memory which has a lot to do with learning so this is wrong C- hypothalamus --> usually involved with food, drink, sex, etc. primary drives, nothing here screams primary; basic, innate needs and things like hormones etc -- four Fs: fighting, fleeing, feeding, and fornication (sexual) D- thalumus is a relay center --> guides stimuli to different parts of the brain so it would help with learning and attention --> if you're paying attention to something while reading, hearing something etc. -- goes through thalamus The answer to this question is C because the hypothalamus is concerned largely with the maintenance of homeostatic equilibrium. Damage restricted to the hypothalamus would be unlikely to interfere with discrimination learning or attention skills. -i guess since the Q stem is asking about the abilities, then it is referring to the skills: learning and attention

A study uses the receipt of government assistance to indicate socioeconomic status. Which of the following reflects the main methodological issue that is raised by using this measure? A Validity B Reliability C Generalizability D Reproducibility

Answer Key: A Socioeconomic status is typically defined as consisting of income (or wealth), educational attainment, and/or occupational status. Validity refers to the extent to which a measure reflects the phenomenon being studied. Although receiving government assistance (such as unemployment benefits or other forms of social welfare) could be a possible proxy indicator for income, it does not provide a direct measure of income. Thus, government assistance as a measure of socioeconomic status raises the issue of validity, since there are other available measures that would more directly assess the construct. validity- bc this is not the best way to see if this represents the population well B and D are too similar so we can eliminate C- applying to all populations isn't what is being analyzed

A public health video designed to promote flu shots shows a physician from a prestigious institution delivering facts about how viruses spread. The video also features data on how viruses can expose the body to serious illnesses. The video uses all of the following variables to manipulate attitudes EXCEPT: A the peripheral route to persuasion. B the central route to persuasion. C source characteristics. D audience characteristics.

Answer is D because the characteristics of the audience are not addressed in the stem. The video combines the central route to persuasion (disease- facts about it- focuses on the message itself) with the peripheral route (the prestige of the physician- like if someone says their from Harvard, superficial things may persuade us). The mention of the physician's affiliation with a prestigious institution is a manipulation of source characteristics.

"Preliminary studies suggest that tobacco cessation is more successful when individuals are motivated by culturally consistent values that support their efforts to quit smoking. Culture plays a role in smoking prevention as well. Norms against tobacco use can become established in a community when children and adolescents regularly observe health behaviors that are inconsistent with smoking." Which psychological theory best explains the role of community values in the preliminary studies of tobacco cessation? A Drive theory B Humanistic theory C Incentive theory D Psychoanalytic theory

As described in the passage, the preliminary studies suggest that smoking cessation can be successful when individuals are motivated by culturally consistent values that support quitting. The incentive theory of motivation calls attention to how factors outside of individuals, including community values and other aspects of culture, can motivate behavior. The other options would be more likely to look for motivational factors within the individual. Thus, option C is the best answer. -motivation due to external factors/rewards like norms of culture and acceptance, which go hand in hand with incentive theory The mention of community values uses the word "motivated" to describe how the values help individuals to stop smoking which very strongly points to the community values being an incentive. They mention community values being motivation, thus "incentive theory" is a much better fit than "humanistic theory" where there is no mention of the community values helping them reach self actualization or the best version of themselves-- humanistic theory fills basic needs first then goes up and up --> final: self-actualization

Which concept refers to feelings of social disconnection that result from weak communal bonds and rapidly changing norms? A Anomie B Obedience C Out-group D Role exit

Associated with the functionalist theoretical paradigm in sociology, the concept of anomie describes the alienation that individuals feel when social norms and social bonds are weak. Without attachment to society, people will experience purposelessness and aimlessness. Periods of rapid social change are often associated with anomie.

The technical term for the type of stimulus registered by the sensory receptors, mentioned in the first paragraph, is: A incentive stimulus. B sensory stimulus. C distal stimulus. D proximal stimulus.

B-wrong because the sensory stimulus elicits a response in an individual -- more connected with behavior The answer to this question is D because the proximal stimulus is the stimulus registered by the sensory receptors (e.g., the pattern of light falling on the retina), which is referred to in the first paragraph. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it requires you to understand the distinction between the distal stimulus and the proximal stimulus.

What is counter conditioning?

Counter-conditioning is a classical conditioning procedure for weakening a CR by associating the CS (fear-producing stimulus) with a new response incompatible with the fear

A theory based on which concept would best explain how economic development leads to changes in a society's fertility and mortality rates? A Social reproduction B Demographic transition C Cultural diffusion D Social stratification

Demographic transition refers to a theory of economic development and population change. The theory suggests that economic changes, specifically industrialization, affect the relationship between the fertility and mortality rates in a society. Population growth occurs rapidly because the mortality rate falls before the fertility rate does. Over time, the fertility rate also falls, thus stabilizing a lower rate of population growth.

Where is dopamine produced?

Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that is produced in the substantia nigra, ventral tegmental area, and hypothalamus of the brain.

hemispheric lateralization

Functional differences between left and right hemispheres Each cerebral hemisphere performs certain functions that are not ordinarily performed by the opposite hemisphere If one hemisphere is more heavily involved in a specific function, it is often referred to as being dominant

hidden curriculum vs manifest function

Manifest function of school would be something like learning history, math, etc. The hidden curriculum is things like learning normative cultural values, socialization, etc. This isn't typically explicitly expressed and therefore is latent.

What are context effects?

Memory is aided by being in the same physical location where encoding took place. Ex: People do better on exam if they take it in the same room where they learned the info OR For example, the introduction of other stimuli around the perimeter of two central dots, as shown in Panel A, can lead to the misperception of the central dot in the left half of the figure as being smaller than the central dot in the right half of the figure -- due to context

Drive vs need

Need: food, water, sleep, sex, etc. Drive: for example, need water, drive will be the thirst, drink water to reduce the drive.

The following population pyramid best supports which projected demographic outcome? (flip for pic) A The overall size of the population is likely to decrease. B The mortality rate of the population is unlikely to change. C The median age of the population is unlikely to change. D The birth rate of the population is likely to increase.

Option A is the correct answer. Population pyramids illustrate the age and sex distribution of a population. The population pyramid in the question shows an aging population, as the size of the population increases with age (until the age groups at the top of the figure, where mortality rates are highest). Because of the "inverse" pyramid shape represented in the figure, with the older age groups being larger than the younger age groups, the overall size of the population is likely to decrease over time.

What are practice effects?

Practice effects occur in repeated measures designs / when participants carry over an improvement to the second experimental condition / as a result of having done the first condition. / (In this case, practice becomes a confounding variable.) Type of testing threat that occurs when exposure to pretest allows individuals to perform better on posttest the more practice you do, the better you are at something

What is the rational choice theory?

Rational choice theory states that individuals rely on rational calculations to make rational choices that result in outcomes aligned with their own best interests. Rational choice theory can apply to a variety of areas, including economics, psychology and philosophy. This theory states that individuals use their self-interests to make choices that will provide them with the greatest benefit. People weigh their options and make the choicethey think will serve them best.

Critical period vs sensitive period

Sensitive period is best represented as something that can be most easily acquired during this time, but it can still be acquired in the future. i.e: language Critical period is the period of time where something must be acquired during that time or it cannot be acquired at all. I think an example of this was something related to vision.

A researcher finds a +0.38 correlation between a test of verbal intelligence and a test of spatial intelligence. Speculating about a common factor, "g," the researcher concludes that: A performance on both tests is partly determined by "g." B the two tests measure different things, which does not include a "g" component. C both of the tests are excellent measures of "g." D that "g" is a statistical artifact with no real-world validity.

The answer to this question is A because a correlation of +0.38 shows a potential common factor, but with a significant degree of potential error. If you do well on tests 1 and 2, then it could be a general intelligence factor driving performance, not that you got tested on 2 of your strengths. Since they correlation is positive, you could say results from test 1 are kind of predictive for test 2. This means there's probably a common base/factor (general intelligence) for the things measured (specific categories of intelligence). D-wrong bc g factor does have real world application to it To put it in different terms, the researcher has found that verbal intelligence and spatial intelligence are 38% correlated (1 is 100%). So, they are definitely related, but not in a very strong sense. Factor g (an actual thing, like a process or an enzyme) is then theorized to account for this 38% correlation. This makes B and D wrong, though you already came to that conclusion. C would be incorrect because either test could only account for at most 38% of g (the 0.38 in common), which is okay but isn't that much - it could still be up to 62% stronger! So A fits this rationale much better than C does, and should be the correct answer.

Participants who reported personal memories about particular songs were retrieving which type of information? A Episodic B Semantic C Implicit D Sensory

The answer to this question is A because episodic information consists of the declarative information people have of specific experiences.

Which statement best explains why continuous reinforcement is best for the beginning of the acquisition phase of operant conditioning? A The schedule unambiguously informs the subject which behavior is correct. B The schedule is best matched for the motivational state of the subject. C This leads to the greatest accumulation of reinforcements, hence the greatest pleasure. D It gives subjects little time for incorrect responses.

The answer to this question is A because first the correct response must be unambiguously made known to the subject, generally through a shaping procedure. Thereafter, if every correct response is reinforced, other (incorrect) responses are infrequent and the behavior gains strength and learning results. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it requires you to make a prediction about the effect of continuous reinforcement during the earliest portion of an operant conditioning study. -key word in stem is ACQUISITION --> learning stage of behavior

A person has left his shopping list in the car, but decides not to go back for it because he is confident that he has the list memorized. Upon returning home, he realizes that he remembered most of the items from the beginning and end of the list, but forgot many items from the middle of the list. This outcome illustrates: A the serial-position effect. B hindsight bias. C chunking. D decay.

The answer to this question is A because items from the primacy and recency portions of the list have been recalled, but not the middle items. Together, the primacy and recency effects comprise the serial position effect.

Negative priming requires which type of memory process? A Implicit memory B Declarative memory C Iconic memory D Explicit memory

The answer to this question is A because negative priming requires the use of implicit memory

"The results showed that the 3-month-old infants demonstrated recognition for own-race and all three other-race faces, the 6-month-old infants were able to recognize own-race and one of the other-race faces, and the 9-month-old infants' recognition was restricted to own-race faces." Which major developmental milestone best explains the difference between the results seen for the 6- versus 9-month olds in Study 1? A Stranger anxiety B Critical period C Object permanence D Autonomy

The answer to this question is A because stranger anxiety is the fear of strangers (or other-race faces in the case of this passage) that infants commonly begin to express around 8 months of age. C-is during this time period but isn't really relevant in this study D-autonomy --> relates to preoperational -- focus on the self (self-centered) --egocentric

A patient with Korsakoff syndrome is very guarded toward the therapist and is reluctant to answer the therapist's questions. At subsequent appointments, the patient indicates not recognizing the therapist but is less guarded and more willing to answer questions. This suggests that the patient: A has no explicit memory of meeting the therapist but does have an implicit memory of the meeting. B has no episodic memory of meeting the therapist but does have a semantic memory of the meeting. C has no short-term memory of meeting the therapist but does have a long-term memory of the meeting. D has no sensory memory of meeting the therapist but does have a procedural memory of the meeting.

The answer to this question is A because the patient does not remember the therapist explicitly, but the change in his behavior indicates that he has an implicit memory of therapist, which likely results in him becoming less guarded. The patient doesn't explicitly remember meeting the therapist yet they're becoming more comfortable around them with each visit. This implies that the patient must have some prior memory that's guiding their behavior but they're not consciously thinking of it. This is a kind of implicit memory. You can also come to the correct answer by elimination. Answer (B) is incorrect because although the patient might not have an episodic memory of meeting the therapist, semantic memory refers to general world knowledge which doesn't quite fit within the context of the question. Answer (C) is incorrect because the passage doesn't indicate that the patient has an inability to form short-term memories—and even if they did—being able to recognize the therapist from previous visits should still fall under long-term memory. answer (D) is incorrect because sensory memory is only temporary and procedural memory falls more in line with how to do things rather than general learned behavioral responses (e.g., acting more open towards someone who you remember was helpful to you in the past).

If the researchers were focused on an evolutionary perspective of human motivation, what aspect of the study results would be of most interest to them? A Hunger ratings for images of food B Fasting plasma glucose concentrations C Activity in the anterior cingulate cortex D Negative and positive affects (emotions)

The answer to this question is A because, from an evolutionary standpoint, humans have developed a preference for high caloric foods because they are a good source of fuel in the form of fat. Fat can sustain bodily functions through periods of time when food is scarce (a common problem throughout evolution). tricky question B and C --> more biologically focused D--> emotions -- least affect on motivation in this context A--> best answer because evolutionary -- role of instincts on motivation -- hunger is like an instinctual drive -- most to do with our motivation, behavior, and attitudes to do things

Under certain circumstances, such as having received news about something traumatic on a particular day, many people claim that they remember every detail of what they were doing when they received the news. Psychologists use which term to describe this unusual phenomenon? A Repression B Flashbulb memory C Recency effect D Spacing effect

The answer to this question is B because Brown and Kulik (1977) coined the term "flashbulb memory" when they found that people claimed to remember detail of what they were doing when they received news about an emotionally arousing event.

A rat receives food for pressing a lever on a variable ratio schedule. Which pattern of responding is most likely to be observed? A Relatively high response rate with predictable pauses after reinforcement B Relatively high response rate with no predictable pauses C Relatively low response rate with a predictable increase in responding right before reinforcement D Fluctuating response rate with a predictable increase in responding right after reinforcement

The answer to this question is B because a variable ratio schedule leads to high response rates with no predictable pauses.

Based on Piaget's theory of cognitive development, an 8-year-old child's cognition is likely to be characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: A symbolic thinking. B hypothetical reasoning. C egocentrism. D conservation of mass.

The answer to this question is B because according to Piaget, an 8-year-old is in the concrete operational stage and cannot engage in hypothetical reasoning, which is not mastered until the formal operational stage. All of the other options describe skills that are mastered by the concrete operational stage.

In which situation is neurotransmitter release from a presynaptic cell most likely to stimulate an action potential in a postsynaptic cell? A In any excitable cell, if neurotransmitter binding opens ligand-gated channels at the synapse B In a postsynaptic neuron where a depolarizing change in membrane potential exceeds threshold C In a postsynaptic neuron that expresses a high density of neurotransmitter receptors D In any excitable cell, if the neurotransmitter released into the synaptic cleft is acetylcholine

The answer to this question is B because action potentials are only generated in postsynaptic neurons when the depolarization stimulus exceeds threshold.

Which technique was most likely used to measure increased neural activation of specific brain regions when viewing the images of food? A. MRI B. fMRI C. CT D. PET

The answer to this question is B because an fMRI is an imaging technique that measures brain activity by detecting associated changes in blood flow. fMRI and PET both measure blood flow as a measure of specific areas, but fMRI is usual used more for neural activity. PET uses radioactive isotopes so you can get more information about metabolism in specific regions (e.g. tumor). To add some more nuance, fMRI is generally used more in research because it is far less risky and/or invasive than PET, and generally goes off the hemodynamic response of local neuron populations to establish differential activity. Now, PET uses radioactive glucose to assay activity by measuring differential metabolic activity (e.g. uptake) of the glucose by active neurons. This question was pretty tricky, because blood flow wasn't really implied in the passage, but I used my experience with cognitive neuroscience to answer this, because most studies use fMRI. -- PET has poorer spatial resolution than fMRI. Since you usually inject [18-F]-glucose into a patient and monitor where it goes, it's also a more invasive technique than fMRI and so it's much less likely to be used PET usually paired with CT scan to get more details as to where exactly the dye is located

A researcher compares the brain sizes of two groups of rats. Group 1 has been raised in impoverished cages with minimal access to socialization and exercise. Group 2 has been raised in enriched cages with regular access to socialization and exercise. This is best described as a study of: A long-term potentiation. B neural plasticity. C hemispheric lateralization. D synaptic reuptake.

The answer to this question is B because changes in brain size as a function of environmental influences is an example of neural plasticity. There are two main types of neuroplasticity: 1. Functional plasticity: The brain's ability to move functions from a damaged area of the brain to other undamaged areas. 2. Structural plasticity: The brain's ability to actually change its physical structure as a result of learning.

Which phenomenon will an animal trainer most likely try to avoid when training a rabbit for a television commercial? A Operant extinction B Instinctual drift C Stimulus generalization D Partial reinforcement

The answer to this question is B because instinctual drift is the phenomenon whereby established habits, learned using operant techniques, eventually are replaced by innate food-related behaviors. So the learned behavior "drifts" to the organism's species-specific (instinctual) behavior. A-when you are training an animal, it is impossible for it to go into extinction because you are constantly reinforcing the animal B-- correct bc the animal may go back to instinctual behavior and u have no control over it C- this isn't an issue bc the rabbit will still be able to be responsive to a stimuli that is similar to the original D-only giving rewards some of the time like continuous reinforcement isn't going to be a huge issue and in some cases it may be a really good thing

**Which statement best distinguishes ethnocentrism from cultural relativism? A Ethnocentrism refers to in-group favoritism, whereas cultural relativism recognizes an out-group bias. B Ethnocentrism assumes universal norms, whereas cultural relativism describes awareness of diversity. C Ethnocentrism emphasizes social interaction, whereas cultural relativism focuses on social institutions. D Ethnocentrism addresses discriminatory actions, whereas cultural relativism targets prejudicial beliefs.

The answer to this question is B because it most closely aligns with the distinction between ethnocentrism and cultural relativism. Ethnocentrism refers to using one's own cultural standards, such as norms and values, to make judgments about another culture. Cultural relativism, on the other hand, refers to an awareness of differences across cultures in norms, values, and other elements of culture. **universal norms (universality) is literally the opposite of cultural relativism --> the belief that regardless of people's cultures, the exact same norms apply to everyone cultural relativism accepts people for who they are- aware that different cultures have different norms A- is wrong because in cultural relativism there is no out-group bias because that is negative C- way off D- first part makes no sense and ethnocentrism leads to prejudice**

The study in the passage best supports identifying popular culture as: A a subset of counterculture. B an agent of socialization. C a subset of material culture. D an agent of social reproduction.

The answer to this question is B because music is an important part of popular culture, which is an agent of socialization. Besides popular culture, other agents of socialization include schools, family, and religion. Sociologists use the term agents of socialization to refer to parts of society that are important for socialization (the process of learning the norms and values in a society).

An individual experiences shortness of breath and panic in confined spaces. To overcome this reaction, the individual decides to spend time in a confined space until the shortness of breath and panic response are eliminated. The patient is using which method to eliminate the symptoms? A Extinction of an operantly conditioned response B Extinction of a classically conditioned response C Counter conditioning D Aversive conditioning

The answer to this question is B because phobic responses are usually acquired through classical conditioning. Exposing oneself to the conditioned stimulus (in this case, the confined space) until the conditioned phobia is no longer elicited is consistent with the extinction of a classically conditioned response. phobia brought on by classical conditioning so to eliminate something is extinction

Which of the following is a binocular depth cue? A Motion parallax B Retinal disparity C Relative height D Relative size

The answer to this question is B because retinal disparity requires input from both retinas.

Which term is used to describe a memory report that is inaccurate, but expressed with extreme confidence? A Autobiographical memory B False memory C Amnesia D Recovered memory

The answer to this question is B because so-called false memories can be observed both in real-world and laboratory settings, and they are generally given with high confidence. A- simply mems about urself C- inability to recall memories D- get mem back after pushing it away-- after traumatic event (which isn't mentioned in Q stem)-- isn't always inaccurate -- and if the recovered mem is false then it can technically be called a false memory -- that is why B is a better answer

stage of sleep characterized by sleep spindles. This observation indicates that they were in which stage of sleep? A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

The answer to this question is B because stage 2 of sleep is characterized by sleep spindles.

"There was a strong negative correlation between the number of errors in Phase 2 and the successful completion of pilot training. Redirecting attention from the left ear to the right ear was easier than vice versa. The number of errors in Phase 2 had low correlations with all other tests used for pilot selection." The observed correlations mentioned in the passage suggest all of the following EXCEPT: A the study's measure of attention capabilities enhances the predictive validity of the pilot selection test battery. B the study's measure of attention capabilities reduces the predictive validity of the pilot selection test battery. C flight cadets who perform better on the task are more likely to complete training on more advanced equipment than those whose performance is poorer. D flight cadets who make more errors in Phase 2 are less likely to complete training on more advanced equipment.

The answer to this question is B because the flight candidates who had successfully completed two years of training (and had thus reached the point where they were flying more advanced aircraft) have attention deployment capabilities that predict their success in meeting with increasingly complex information processing requirements. Thus, the negative correlation means that the cadets with fewer errors in the selective listening task scored higher on all the other selection criteria. Any type of correlation can be used to make a prediction. However, a correlation does not tell us about the underlying cause of a relationship. --> correlation = predictions BUT NO CAUSATION

A researcher is interested in assessing the size of a patient's brain ventricles. Which method(s) is(are) appropriate for this purpose? I. An EEGII. A CAT scanIII. A PET scan A I only B II only C I and III only D II and III only

The answer to this question is B because the researcher is interested in the structure of the brain, which can be studied through a CAT scan. the reason it is not PET is because PET tells us metabolic activity of the brain by injecting radioactive glucose into an individual... tells us more about activity then the size of things ALSO a bunch of regions in the brain would light up, not just the ventricles of the brain so it would not clearly tell us the size -just the structure so CAT

Two male children with different biological parents are adopted in infancy and raised together. Which observation best supports the idea that heredity is an important determiner of intelligence? The two boys' IQs: A are more similar to each other than to their own biological siblings. B are less similar to each other than to their own biological siblings. C are more similar to their adoptive parents than to their biological parents. D are less similar to each other than to their adoptive siblings.

The answer to this question is B because the situation describes an outcome that disconfirms a strong environmental influence.

A rat in a shuttle box is presented with a tone followed by an electric shock. It can jump over the barrier to the other side of the shuttle box where no shock is delivered. This procedure is repeated over a number of trials. The rat will be conditioned through which type of reinforcement? A Positive reinforcement B Negative reinforcement C Positive punishment D Negative punishment

The answer to this question is B because when a response results in escape from an aversive stimulus, it is an example of negative reinforcement.

"interferes with neural proliferation and synaptogenesis, (3) alters functioning of three neurotransmitters (dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine) in the offspring during gestation, and thereafter, (4) impairs post-weaning discrimination learning and attention skills" Which characteristic collectively best describes the three molecules that are functionally altered in offspring as a result of fetal exposure to cocaine? Each molecule: A is only manufactured in endocrine glands throughout the body. B binds to a receptor on a postsynaptic membrane within the CNS. C is distributed to target neurons within the cerebrospinal fluid. D transmits signals between two neurons at a faster speed than through gap junctions.

The answer to this question is B, because this is the mechanism by which neurotransmitters function. A is incorrect because neurotransmitters are manufactured in neurons. C is incorrect because neurotransmitters are exocytosed from presynaptic neurons into a synaptic cleft. The receptors for the neurotransmitters are located on the postsynaptic neuron; therefore they are not distributed within the cerebrospinal fluid. D is incorrect because electrical synapses, which have gap junctions, do not involve neurotransmitters. This is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it examines a foundational concept of neurotransmitter function. A- Neurotransmitters are made in the cell body of the neuron and then transported down the axon to the axon terminal. Molecules of neurotransmitters are stored in small "packages" called vesicles (see the picture on the right) -- I think what threw me off is that I know dopamine is made my hypothal, serotoin made by ralphe nuclei, and norepinephrine is made by the adrenal medulla -- I was like yes adrenal glands but they can also be made in other places D- gap junctions = electrical transmission which is much faster than chemical signals

Role conflict is best illustrated in which of the following scenarios? A A child is teased by peers after playing with toys and games associated with the other gender. B After caring for a sick child at home, an employee falls behind with responsibilities at work. C Parents are unable to select a treatment for their child after doctors disagree on a diagnosis. D After being hospitalized with an illness, a doctor struggles to pay for all of the medical bills.

The answer to this question is B. Role conflict is defined as the stress that people feel when they are confronted with incompatible role expectations across different social statuses they occupy. A common source of role conflict is the need to balance the statuses of employee and caregiver. As illustrated in the correct answer, a full-time employee may face difficulties taking time away from work when a child is ill.

According to the psychodynamic theory, conflict between the superego and the id leads to unconscious conflict. The ego attempts to reduce this conflict through the use of defense mechanisms. Based on this description, the unconscious conflict functions as: A a need. B negative reinforcement. C a drive. D negative punishment

The answer to this question is C because a drive is an internal state that the individual acts to reduce, which is consistent with the definition of unconscious conflict in the stem.

A member of a youth sports league evaluates his or her own behaviors by comparing them to those of professional athletes. For this young athlete, professional athletes represent a(n): A primary group. B in-group. C reference group. D social network.

The answer to this question is C because a reference group refers to any group that an individual compares himself or herself to for self-evaluation. A person does not have to be included in a reference group for the group to be relevant.

According to Piaget's theory, in what stage of cognitive development are the children who are targeted by advertisements for high caloric foods? (5 to 7 years) A Formal operational B Sensorimotor C Preoperational D Concrete operational

The answer to this question is C because children in Piaget's preoperational stage are typically between the ages of 2-6 or 7.

The independent variable of a memory study that tests the encoding specificity effect is most likely to be: A the depth of processing. B the amount of time allowed for encoding. C the location of encoding and retrieval. D the time interval between encoding and retrieval.

The answer to this question is C because encoding specificity refers to enhanced memory when testing takes place under the same conditions as learning.

A student neglects her studies and spends most of her time engaging in extracurricular activities. When her parents confront her, the student says that all her peers behave the same way. Which explanation for the student's actions is most likely from a proponent of the humanistic perspective? A The student is positively reinforced for extracurricular activities and presents her behavior as average to avoid punishment from her parents. B The student uses projection as a defense to reduce the subconscious conflict that arises from neglecting school work. C The student is attempting to reduce the incongruence between the ideal self and the actual self by normalizing her behavior. D The student uses rationalization to reduce the cognitive dissonance that arises from the discrepancy between her behavior and her parents' expectations.

The answer to this question is C because explaining behavior through self-concept and incongruence is consistent with the humanistic perspective.

The brain imaging technique used in Study 2: (fMRI) A measures increased levels of glucose. B records increases in electrical activity. C reveals areas of increased blood flow. D measures increases in neurotransmitter levels.

The answer to this question is C because it accurately describes functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI), which uses magnetic fields and radio waves to look at brain function and measures blood flow and not glucose.

In operant conditioning studies, the subject's motivational state is most typically operationally defined by: A observing the subject's behavior over a long period of time. B using a type of reinforcement that the experimenter knows the subject usually likes. C depriving the subject of some desirable stimulus item for a period of time. D using a novel stimulus that the subject is sure to like.

The answer to this question is C because it states the method that is usually used, in operant conditioning studies, to operationally define the subject's motivational state. novel stimulus is like the original stimulus A-wrong not operant B and D --> are pretty similar and using something the subject "usually" likes wouldn't make sense C-correct-- like if you deprive a mouse of something it wants like food for a long period of time and present it then it is more likely to be motivated to get that food --> like negative punishment -- if you remove something the individual likes then that will motivate them not to do it again

The researchers in Study 1 restricted the emotions on the faces presented to the infants to those found to be universally expressed emotions; therefore, they did NOT present faces expressing: A fear. B surprise. C pain. D disgust.

The answer to this question is C because pain is not one of the emotions that have been shown to be a universally expressed emotion. The universal emotions include fear, anger, surprise, happiness, disgust, and sadness.

According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, a person giving which reason for moral behavior is at the highest level? A To gain acceptance B To follow rules C To promote social welfare D To avoid disapproval

The answer to this question is C because promoting social welfare indicates moral reasoning at the postconventional level, according to Kohlberg's theory. --social welfare --> benefits all of society -can easily eliminate ABD

Regular breathing and regular, slow brain waves are most consistent with which stage of sleep? A NREM1 B NREM2 C NREM3 D REM

The answer to this question is C because regular breathing and heart rate and slow brain waves are most consistent with deep sleep, NREM3.

A group of students takes the same test of visual perception at the same time on two consecutive days. The students' scores are very different each time. This suggests that the test is not: . A valid. B standardized. C reliable. D generalizable.

The answer to this question is C because reliability is the degree to which an assessment tool produces stable and consistent results

"This observation suggests that an increased sensitivity of the reward system to food in sleep-deprived individuals may contribute to obesity. Research on food addiction and obesity has shown that the same brain regions become active as those seen during studies of drug addiction." Similar activation levels in which brain region were LEAST likely in S and TSD participants when they were viewing the images presented in the study? A Nucleus accumbens B Hypothalamus C Cerebellum D Amgydala

The answer to this question is C because the cerebellum is not a primary structure of the reward system. DOP VAN HP

he sociological concept of medicalization refers to the process in which: A health care costs consume a growing percentage of a nation's overall economic output. B the medical profession reaches a consensus and establishes norms of professional conduct. C a problem becomes described in medical terminology and treated by medical professionals. D a society's population increases after improved medical treatments become more common.

The answer to this question is C because the concept of medicalization refers to the process in which something, usually a behavioral problem (such as, for example, alcoholism), becomes described and treated as a medical condition when it was not previously conceived in that way.

A researcher presents a rat with a food pellet for looking at a lever. When the rat looks at the lever consistently, the researcher stops presenting food for the response and begins to present food if the rat approaches the lever. Eventually the rat is presented with food only after pressing the lever. This method of training exemplifies all of the following EXCEPT: A shaping. B positive reinforcement. C habituation. D operant conditioni

The answer to this question is C because the example does not involve habituation, which refers to loss of response to a repeating stimulus. The procedure of reinforcing successive approximations to the lever press response exemplifies shaping through operant conditioning. Food is used to positively reinforce the responses.

A person looking at the night sky notices she no longer sees a dim star when her gaze remains fixated on it, but the dim star reappears when she shifts her gaze to one side of the star. What is the most likely cause of the reappearance of the dim star in her vision? Shifting her gaze moved the image of the dim star: A away from the blind spot where no photoreceptors are present. B to a region of the retina where photoreceptors have a higher threshold for light detection. C away from the fovea toward the periphery of the retina. D to a region of the eye where photoreceptors contain more than one type of retinal pigment.

The answer to this question is C because the fovea is the part of the retina that contains a high density of cones for daytime vision, whereas, the periphery of the retina contains a high density of rods which are more photosensitive and can detect dim light. When she focuses on the stars, she is looking at them from her cones, or the center of the eye. Cones are less sensitive to light so when she focuses on them the stars disappear. When she does not focus on them, she uses the rods (periphery) which are more sensitive to light so she can detect the stars Rods are really great in low light situations however they're concentrated in the periphery. As a result, the viewer is able to see the light better when they are not looking directly at the object.

The graph shows the results of a study in which participants are asked to recall a list of fifteen words. Which statement is supported by the graph? https://s3.amazonaws.com/wmx-api-production/courses/3176/images/psych.JPG A There is no primacy effect. B There is no recency effect. C Retrieval took place immediately after list presentation. D Retrieval took place 20 minutes after encoding.

The answer to this question is C because the graph shows both a primacy effect and a recency effect as exemplified by enhanced free recall performance for items that are at the beginning and end of the list. Primacy effect refers to the improved memory for items that appear earlier in the list and have been encoded into long-term memory. Recency effect refers to the recall of items that are still in short-term memory. For this to occur, recall needs to take place immediately after encoding, when the final items are still held in short-term memory. If retrieval had taken place 20 minutes after encoding, then the recency effect would not have been possible.

Based on the study results, how is the relationship between inadequate sleep and hunger best described? A There is a direct cause and effect relationship between sleep and increased feelings of hunger. B There is a positive correlation between hunger and inadequate sleep. C There is evidence that inadequate sleep causes hunger. D There is a negative correlation between hunger and inadequate sleep.

The answer to this question is C because those in the TSD group (who were sleep deprived) expressed higher ratings of hunger compared to those in the S group (normal amounts of sleep). The one you chose leaves open the option that either sleep deprivation causes hunger, or vice versa. The correct answer specifies that only the first one can be correct given the passage. This is reasonable because of the way the experiment was set up. They deprived individuals of sleep and then asked how hungry they were. Their results indicated that the people deprived of sleep were hungrier. That's evidence that sleep deprivation causes hunger. Since sleep deprivation was the independent variable and hunger the dependent, you know this was an experimental study. Those can produce results which imply causality in one direction. Since you had enough information to be more specific, your answer was too general to be correct. ***Your instinct about psych studies is not misplaced. Many of them are observational, which can only yield correlation data. But that heuristic won't always work. You have to look and see if a study is experimental (ie manipulated an independent variable and looked for changes in the dependent variable). A-wrong because sleep causes decreased hunger and direct cause/effect relations are usually very rare -- direct relationships --> very strong wording; almost like an absolute answer

Which experimental procedure is most likely to result in learned helplessness? A Giving a participant a very intense electric shock that the participant can escape by pressing a button B Placing a participant in a situation where reinforcement is delivered independently of the participant's responses C Giving a participant a moderate electric shock that the participant cannot escape D Placing a participant in a situation where a response that previously resulted in positive reinforcement no longer does

The answer to this question is C because uncontrollable exposure to an aversive stimulus results in learned helplessness, independently of the intensity of the punishment.

Which statement, if assumed to be true, is most likely to indicate a health disparity? A The risk of Type 2 diabetes is lower in younger adults than in older adults. B Rates of malaria infection decrease with greater distance from the equator. C Across the life course, men are less likely to get breast cancer than women. D Higher socioeconomic status is associated with a lower incidence of stroke.

The answer to this question is D because a health disparity refers to a difference in health outcomes that is closely related to social or economic factors. For the other options, plausible biological mechanisms can explain why disease frequencies would vary across groups. However, an association between a factor like socioeconomic status and a disease outcome indicates the potential influence of social inequality.

Which statement best reflects how sociologists differentiate the concepts of ethnicity and race? A Ethnicity is both dynamic and self-chosen, whereas race is immutable. B Ethnicity addresses shared attitudes, whereas race addresses collective norms. C Ethnicity is tied to a geographic region, whereas race is tied to an identity. D Ethnicity classifies by culture, whereas race classifies by physical characteristics.

The answer to this question is D because it best reflects the sociological distinction between race and ethnicity. Sociologists consider ethnicity to be categorizations of people based on culture and ancestry. Sociologists consider race to be categorizations of people based on perceived physical characteristics. Both concepts are understood in sociology as complex, social categories that change over time, rather than simply biological features of human beings.

Which of the following experiences is NOT related to any of the principles of perceptual organization that are described in the passage? A Seeing a portion of food served on a large plate as being smaller than the same portion of food served on a small plate B Seeing birds flying in the same direction as being part of an integrated flock C Seeing cars lined up in a parking lot as being in long rows, rather than in pairs facing each other with a gap between each pair D Seeing a word with a missing letter and being able to identify the word, based on the sentence in which it is contained

The answer to this question is D because it is the only option that describes a perceptual experience that results from a form of top down processing (i.e., context effects), but is neither a perceptual illusion nor the result of one of the Gestalt principles of perceptual grouping.

Which observation disconfirms the theory that the hunger drive is based on a person's interpretation of stomach contractions, while satiety is based on stomach distension? A Stomach contractions do not correlate with the experience of hunger. B Stomach distension does not correlate with satiety. C Rats without stomachs cannot learn mazes when rewarded with food. D People whose stomachs have been removed still experience hunger.

The answer to this question is D because such patients, who are incapable of interpreting any signals from a nonexistent stomach, do experience hunger (Janowitz & Grossman, 1950). C -- too specific and weird My guess is that A and B are not correct because correlation doesn't prove causation, so no correlation doesn't prove that there is no causation... Removing the stomach altogether would disallow causation, making D the best answer.

A patient experiences a debilitating depressive episode after the loss of a job. A psychologist suggests that the patient had a genetic predisposition to depression and that unemployment acted as a trigger. The psychologist is using which approach to explain the patient's depression? A Rogers's humanistic theory B Beck's cognitive theory C The opponent process model D The diathesis-stress model

The answer to this question is D because the diathesis-stress model integrates the influence of biological predispositions and the environment.

A researcher repeatedly presents 1-month-old infants with a color patch. When an infant stops looking at the color patch, the researcher changes the hue of the color patch presented on the next trial. The researcher is using which paradigm to study color perception in infants? A Classical conditioning B Operant conditioning C Latent learning D Habituation

The answer to this question is D because the researcher changes the hue after the infant stops responding to the original stimulus. This is an example of habituation. so we know there is no type of conditioning involved so eliminate A and B C- there is no incentive for the children

A patient diagnosed with depression blames all professional failure on personal incompetence. The therapist tries to change the patient's thinking by suggesting that the perceived failures may be due to a lack of effort. The therapist is most likely attempting to change the patient's: A self-serving bias. B belief perseverance. C hindsight bias. D locus of control.

The answer to this question is D because the therapist is attempting to encourage the patient to attribute his/her problems to internal controllable factors rather than an uncontrollable internal factor.

A study is conducted in which researchers observe how physicians deal with role strain when treating patients with terminal illnesses. This study is best described as following which type of research design? A. Ethnographic B. Comparative C. Experimental D. Cross-sectional

The answer to this question is option A. The question describes the observation of role strain (stress experienced from contradictory demands of the same social role) in physicians treating patients with terminal illnesses. This scenario refers to ethnographic research, which involves observing social interactions in real social settings. Studying the experience of role strain through observation can increase our understanding of how physicians cope with the challenging demands of extending life with interventions while accepting the reality of death. -also key word is "observe", which is a part of ethnographic -- looking at real interactions in social settings B- is wrong because with comparative studies compare two or more things with a view to discovering something about one or all of the things being compared -- not what is happening C- no experiment is happening where IV --> DV D- looks at different groups at one time so that can't be right

A public health agency seeks to improve population health by motivating people to modify their health behaviors. If the agency followed the rational choice perspective, which of the following strategies would they most likely use? A Reduce the cost of fruits and vegetables while increasing the cost of processed foods. B Mandate a reduction in the sugar, salt, and fat content found in public school lunches. C Design public spaces that encourage people to increase their level of physical activity. D Offer exercise ideas to parents who want to encourage physical activity in their children.

The answer to this question is option A. The rational choice perspective assumes that individual behavior will be based on an implicit analysis of the costs and benefits of actions. The correct answer presents a strategy in which the cost of healthier food decreases while the cost of unhealthy food increases. From a rational choice perspective, individuals should then be more inclined to select the healthier foods. Although the other options present potentially valuable public health programs or interventions, only the correct answer is consistent with a strategy from the perspective of rational choice theory.

Despite knowing the health risks of tobacco smoking, some long-term cigarette smokers may not attempt to quit. Which statement best explains this observation from the sociological perspective of symbolic interactionism? A Cigarette manufacturers have targeted certain groups, in order to exploit and profit from those who become addicted. B Smoking signifies membership within a group, which can maintain a social identity along with social connections. C Because people have choices in a democratic society, tobacco regulation only partially protects public health. D As the number of smokers steadily declines, smoking no longer serves the social function that it once did.

The answer to this question is option B because it provides an explanation that is consistent with the sociological theory of symbolic interactionism. As a theory that focuses on micro-level social relationships, symbolic interactionism explains social phenomena in terms of the meaning that they hold when people interact with one another. The observation that people continue to smoke cigarettes, despite knowing the health risks of tobacco smoking, can be explained by symbolic interactionism's reference to group membership. For some people, smoking might signify social connection and social identity with a group. As a result, smoking may persist, even knowing that the behavior is harmful. The other response options correspond to other sociological theories: conflict theory (option A), rational choice theory (option C), and functionalist theory (option D). .

Which hypothesis is LEAST compatible with the life course approach to health? A Interventions that improve childhood health will have effects that last into adulthood. B Occupational status will be correlated with income and cultural capital in adulthood. C Children will imitate parents' behavior, forming patterns that persist into adulthood. D Exposure to chronic stressors in adolescence will predict disease risk in adulthood.

The answer to this question is option B because the life course approach refers to a research perspective that considers how experiences from earlier in life affect outcomes later in life. Indicators of a life course approach are apparent in all of the options, except for the correct answer. The other response options suggest analysis across different stages of live (over the life course), and some options also suggest unique attributes of specific life stages. However, the correct answer is narrower in comparison, as it only addresses the association between occupation, income, and cultural capital during adulthood. There is no clear influence across life stages in the correct answer.

A survey finds that immigrants report fewer symptoms of depression and anxiety than individuals from the same racial/ethnic group who were born in the United States. Which correlation best describes this finding? A. A positive correlation between socioeconomic status and assimilation B. A negative correlation between assimilation and health status C. A positive correlation between culture shock and socioeconomic status D. A negative correlation between health status and culture shock

The answer to this question is option B because the question suggests that assimilation is influencing health status. In particular, assimilation was found to result in worse health outcomes, as represented in the hypothetical survey comparison in the question. Because greater levels of assimilation are associated with worse mental health, it represents a negative correlation. Immigrants are less assimilated than those from the same ethnic/racial group who were born in the US! The latter are more integrated into American culture(because they were born into it), so they're more assimilated than immigrants -- assimilation does not only apply to immigrants

Which statement best explains why income distributions are usually reported using the median rather than with other measures of central tendency? A For data on high income levels, the median is easier to calculate than the mean or the mode. B As a measure of income, the median is more valid and reliable than the mean or the mode. C Income data often includes outliers, and the median can summarize skewed distributions. D Income data often has missing values, and the median does not require every data point.

The answer to this question is option C. Income is often reported using the median to reduce the influence of outliers (most often, this is due to high income data points that would skew the mean and thus not provide the best representation of the income distribution). The other response options make reference to income data, but do not provide a more direct or justifiable reason that explains why income data is most often summarized using the median.

A researcher designs a study that involves interviewing cancer survivors about their experiences with support groups, along with other forms of social support, during treatment. In order for the study to be considered ethical, the researcher needs to: A explain the study's research contribution to all of the participants. B provide ample financial compensation for the participants' time. C ensure that each participant is asked the exact same questions. D allow the participants to withdraw from the study at any time.

The answer to this question is option D because ethical research requires that all participants voluntarily participate in the study. At any point, participants should be able to freely withdraw their participation, and their data can then no longer be used. Although the other options are sometimes part of a research protocol, none but the correct option identifies a requirement for ethical research.

The socioeconomic gradient in health is best demonstrated by a negative correlation between which variables? A Age at arrival as an immigrant and exposure to chronic stressors B The level of economic development and life expectancy at birth C The percentage of people living in urban areas and the obesity rate D Educational attainment and risk factors for cardiovascular disease

The answer to this question is option D because it presents a relationship between variables that exemplifies the socioeconomic gradient in health. The socioeconomic gradient refers to the negative correlation between socioeconomic status and health risks (or a positive correlation between socioeconomic status and positive health outcomes, such as life expectancy). The correct answer refers to a situation in which greater educational attainment would be associated with fewer risk factors for disease (and lower educational attainment would be associated with more risk factors).

A researcher taking the perspective of social epidemiology is most likely to focus on: A impression management during social interactions. B the most common pathologies of social institutions. C medicalization as a feature of modern societies. D the social determinants of health and disease.

The answer to this question is option D. Social epidemiology emphasizes how social factors, such as class or race/ethnicity, affect the distribution of health and disease. As a subfield of epidemiology, social epidemiology has significant overlap with sociological perspectives on health and disease. Both types of research call attention to the ways in which health and disease are conditioned by the social context.

Which of the following figures best illustrates demographic transition theory?

The correct answer is option A. Demographic transition theory addresses changes in the birth rate and the death rate that are associated with economic development (specifically, related to industrialization). The typical pattern begins with a drop in the death rate, leading to population growth, followed by a drop in the birth rate, leading to population stabilization. This demographic pattern was seen in the United States and several European countries during the 19th century, with many other countries following this pattern during the 20th century.

Based on the concept of the looking-glass self, which reaction is most likely for a person who acquires a stigmatized illness? A The person will seek out other people with the same stigmatized illness. B The person will internalize the perceived stigmatization against him or her. C The person will redirect feelings of stigmatization toward out-group members. D The person will become stigmatized by his or her secondary group members.

The correct answer is option B. The looking-glass self suggests that the self-concept is influenced by how we perceive that others are viewing us. Based on the looking-glass self, a person who acquires a stigmatized illness is likely to internalize the stigmatization directed against him or her. -what YOU THINK someone thinks about you -- may or not be what they actually think

"The knowledge, skills, and education required to practice medicine are associated with high social status in the United States. Patient-provider interactions are partially structured by status differences that are also based in culture. To deliver culturally competent care, providers need to be aware of their own cultural standards and biases while understanding that patients may have different cultural standards and biases. These differences can have major implications during cancer treatment. For example, family members may enact cultural preferences when asking a provider to withhold aspects of a cancer diagnosis from a patient. If the provider fulfills this request, he or she may struggle to reconcile that action with norms favoring disclosure." Which sociological concept is suggested by the passage's discussion of the knowledge, skills, and education required for practicing medicine? A The social capital of physicians B The hidden curriculum of medicine C The cultural capital of physicians D The ascribed status of medicine

The correct answer is option C, cultural capital, which is covered by the content category "Social inequality." Cultural capital refers to knowledge, skills, education, and similar characteristics that are used to make social distinctions and that are associated with differences in social status. This description is referenced in the passage, which suggests that status differences based in cultural capital are involved in structuring patient-provider interactions. B-wrong because hidden curriculum is referring more to things that can be learned

An example of intersectionality is the relationship between: A micro and macro levels of analysis. B symbolic and material culture. C race/ethnicity and social class. D cultural values and social norms.

The correct answer is option C. Intersectionality calls attention to how identity categories intersect in systems of social stratification. For example, an individual's position within a social hierarchy is determined not only by his or her social class, but also by his or her race/ethnicity. Intersectionality can also refer to intersections involving other identity categories such as age, gender, or sexual orientation. The concepts in the other options, although relevant to the sociological analysis of inequality, do not specifically identify an example of intersectionality.

Researchers design a study to explore how healthcare providers establish rapport, show empathy, and navigate disagreements with their patients. Based on this description, the researchers are most likely taking a theoretical approach that is consistent with which sociological paradigm? A Functionalism B Exchange-rational choice C Conflict theory D Symbolic interactionism

The correct answer is option D. Symbolic interactionism examines small scale (or micro level) social interactions, focusing attention on how shared meaning is established among individuals or small groups. Clinical encounters involving patient-provider communication are consistent with the analysis of social interaction at the micro level. In addition, the study of rapport, empathy, and disagreements involves the interpretation of meaning among social actors. Overall, the scenario suggests that the theory of symbolic interactionism is consistent with the researchers' approach. -small scale social interactions between people --> looking at HOW people interact so D is the best answer -this example is on a micro scale... not macro so we can eliminate A and C -B would not make sense in this case because you are not trying to maximize benefits and minimize costs

Sensory coding

The process through which the nervous system represents the qualities of the incoming stimulus—whether auditory or visual, for example, or whether a red light or a green one, a sour taste or a sweet taste. Sensory receptors translate the physical properties of stimuli into patterns of neural impulses

"SB residence during childhood predicted excess risk of first stroke, regardless of current state of residence. The excess risk remained after statistical adjustment for demographic characteristics, socioeconomic status, and cardiovascular risk factors. The researchers concluded these findings were consistent with other studies that suggest a link between early development and physiological or behavioral changes that increase the risk of stroke decades later." The researchers' conclusion in Study 1 draws most directly on which developmental concept? A Insecure attachment B Sensitive period C Assimilation D Modeling

The question refers to the conclusion in Study 1, which suggests a link between early development (prenatal, infancy, or childhood) and physiological or behavioral changes that increase stroke risk decades later. This conclusion in the passage is most directly relevant to the concept of sensitive period (also referred to as a critical period), which identifies a point in early development that can have a significant influence on physiological or behavioral functioning in later life. -- talking about a specific period of time --> critical period aka sensitive period

What is aversive conditioning?

a type of counterconditioning that associates an unpleasant state with an unwanted behavior like if you stacey to stop smoking then you shock her everytime she smokes so that she associates the shock with that

Ascribed vs. Achieved Status

a. Ascribed status: status one is born with. b. Achieved status: status(es) one obtains over the life course, such as education.

What is a critical period?

an optimal period early in the life of an organism when exposure to certain stimuli or experiences produces normal development-- critical physiologically and behaviorally to later developmental patterns -- must be acquired during that time period birth to about puberty (9-12ish) --language can go up to 18

Explain source, message and audience characteristics. Explain why each of these factors is needed for attitude change

audience characteristics- characteristics of those who receive a persuasive message, including need for cognition, Ex; depends on who you are giving the message to. mood, age, and audience size and diversity. message characteristics- aspects, or content, of a persuasive message, including the quality of the evidence and the explicitness of its conclusions. Ex; quality, vividness more on facts on the characteristics of the message. commercial showing the smoking with the voice being changed. Source characteristics: characteristics of a person who delivers a persuasive message such as attractiveness, credibility, and certainty ex: a famous person trying to sell something

Divided vs selective attention

divided attention --> is almost like multitasking where you're focused on multiple things at once selective attention --> you're focused on one thing -- ignoring background (or other things)

What is the diathesis-stress model?

integrates biological predispositions with environment a psychological theory that attempts to explain a disorder as the result of an interaction between a predispositional vulnerability and a stress caused by life experiences --- so suggests that a person may be predisposed for a psychological disorder that remains unexpressed until triggered by stress

What is latent learning?

learning that occurs but is not apparent until there is an incentive to demonstrate it ex. rats want to escape a maze once they smell food on the outside

What are feature detectors?

nerve cells (neurons) in the brain that respond to specific features of the stimulus, such as shape, angle, or movement -- more detailed = more features can be differentiated how we differentiate foreground and background

Where is serotonin produced?

raphe nuclei-- neurons originating in the raphe nuclei located in the midline of the brainstem

what is shaping in operant conditioning?

rewarding increasingly specific behaviors learning to do something reinforcing successively closer and closer approximations to a desired terminal behavior OPERANT CONDITIONING