PsychPrep Exam C

The most frequent type of hallucination experienced by persons with schizophrenia is: • 1. auditory. • 2. visual. • 3. tactile. • 4. olfactory.

Answer 1! Approximately 75% of individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia will experience auditory hallucinations, usually voices (Response 1). Visual and tactile hallucinations are sometimes present, but much less common (ruling out Responses 2 and 3). Olfactory hallucinations are more often indicative of an organic brain disorder such as a tumor (ruling out Response 4).

Which of the following demographics are most highly correlated with suicide? • 1. White, male, middle SES. • 2. Minority, male, low SES. • 3. White, male, low SES. • 4. White, female, low SES.

Answer 1! Individuals with middle to high socioeconomic status (SES) are more likely to commit suicide than those who are low SES. Also, white males are more likely to commit suicide than minorities or females.

According to the DSM-5, which of the following is true about autism spectrum disorder? • 1. Its onset is in the early developmental period, prognosis is best with functional language before age 5, and it is two times more common in males. • 2. Its onset is in the early developmental period, prognosis is best with absence of intellectual impairment, and it is four times more common in males. • 3. Its onset is prior to age 3, prognosis is best with functional language before age 5, and it is two times more common in males. • 4. Its onset is prior to age 3, prognosis is best with absence of intellectual impairment, and it is four times more common in males.

Answer 2! Autism spectrum disorder is a new disorder in the DSM-5 that encompasses autistic disorder, Asperger's disorder, and childhood disintegrative disorder. The essential features of autism spectrum disorder include: a) persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction across multiple contexts; and b) restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior, interests, or activities. The DSM-5 notes that symptoms must be present in the early developmental period (no age is specified), prognosis is best with an absence of intellectual impairment and functional language by age 5, and that the male to female ratio is 4:1 (Response 2, correct answer).

A 5th grader obtains a full scale IQ of 142 on the WISC-IV. If she is tested three years later, one would expect her IQ to be: • 1. higher. • 2. lower. • 3. either slightly higher or lower because of measurement error. • 4. the same.

Answer 2! One would expect her score to be lower because of statistical regression: the tendency for extreme scores (scores very much above or below the mean) to become less extreme (closer to the mean) on retesting. An IQ score of 142 is an extremely high score, therefore, upon retesting, one would expect this student to obtain a lower score, i.e., a score closer to the mean.

Licensure for psychologists at the state level is best thought of as a means to: • 1. protect the public. • 2. ensure minimum levels of competence. • 3. provide for accurate reporting of training. • 4. provide for appropriate discipline for psychologists.

Answer 2! Requirements for licensure are a means to ensure minimum levels of competence for practicing psychologists. To some extent, these requirements do protect the public from receiving services from incompetent clinicians (Response 1), but protecting the public is not the immediate aim of licensure. While psychologists must accurately report their training to the board before licensure (Response 3), such reporting is not the purpose of licensure. Disciplining psychologists (Response 4) is not the main function of licensure or of state licensing boards. Licensing boards also discipline individuals who are not yet licensed.

The greatest benefit to the company from implementing flextime is: • 1. improved physical and mental health of employees. • 2. decreased tardiness and absenteeism. • 3. increased morale and quality of work. • 4. increased morale and quantity of work.

Answer 2! The findings on the benefits of flextime are mixed. While some say it increases morale and productivity, it has most consistently been associated with decreased tardiness and absenteeism.

Which of the following statements is most accurate about brain development? • 1. The brain at birth is 50% of its adult size. • 2. The brain at birth has almost as many neurons as an adult brain. • 3. By age two the brain is almost fully developed. • 4. The brain at birth has almost as many axons and dendrites as an adult brain.

Answer 2! The infant's brain at birth contains the majority of neurons it will ever have. Brain development occurs as the neurons grow in size, develop more axons and dendrites (Response 4), and increase their connections. At birth, the brain is 1/4 to 1/3 its adult size (Response 1). It grows to be about 90% of its adult size by age five (Response 3).

The overjustification hypothesis is most closely related to: • 1. internal and external locus of control. • 2. intrinsic and extrinsic motivation. • 3. ratio of inputs and outputs. • 4. Gain-Loss Theory.

Answer 2! The overjustification hypothesis is based on research that found that if external rewards or incentives are offered for activities that had previously been intrinsically motivated, there is subsequently a decrease in interest in the rewarded activity. For example, if children who enjoy reading receive rewards for reading, their interest in reading will actually decrease. Internal and external locus of control (Response 1) is a critical component in several attribution theories. Ratio of inputs and outputs (Response 3) specifically relates to Equity Theory, a cognitive theory of motivation. Gain-Loss Theory (Response 4) proposes that the people we like most are those who initially don't like us and then change their perspective to come to like us. This phenomenon ostensibly results from the feeling that we have gained something.

A father and daughter are shopping in a crowded department store. The child tantrums when her father refuses to buy her a toy. The father finally buys her a toy, and she stops crying. The contingency affecting the father's behavior is: • 1. positive reinforcement. • 2. negative reinforcement. • 3. positive punishment. • 4. negative punishment.

Answer 2! To answer this question you must first clearly distinguish between the father's behavior (buying the toy) and the girl's behavior (having a tantrum). In negative reinforcement, a behavior increases as a result of the removal of an undesirable stimulus. In this scenario, the undesirable stimulus (tantrum) was removed after the behavior was emitted (father buying the toy). In the future, the father will be more likely to buy toys to stop the girl's tantrum since his behavior was negatively reinforced. Positive reinforcement (Response 1) entails adding something (e.g., a reward) after a behavior is emitted. The girl is being positively reinforced for having a tantrum; when she tantrums, she receives a toy. Positive punishment (Response 3) involves the application of an aversive stimulus in order to decrease behavior (e.g., spanking). Negative punishment involves the removal of a stimulus to decrease behavior (e.g., loss of privileges).

A traditional neuroleptic would best treat: • 1. avolition. • 2. bizarre delusions. • 3. thought disorder. • 4. poverty of speech.

Answer 2! Traditional neuroleptics (antipsychotics), such as Haldol and Thorazine, are especially good at treating the positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as delusions, hallucinations, and disorganized thinking. They are not very good at treating the negative symptoms, such as flat affect, avolition (Response 1), also known as lack of motivation, and poverty of speech (Response 4), also known as alogia. The atypical antipsychotics, such as Risperdal, were originally viewed as a breakthrough in the treatment of negative symptoms; however, recent large-scale research studies indicate this is not the case. Thought disorder (Response 3) is a term sometimes applied to psychotic disorders, and is too broad to be a good answer for this question. HINT: One way to approach this question is to recognize that Responses 1 and 4 are both negative symptoms; it's unlikely that a drug would be good at treating one but not the other. You could therefore eliminate both responses.

A researcher looks at several variables (study time, graduate school GPA, anxiety level) in an attempt to predict who is likely to pass the EPPP. The researcher will analyze her results using a: • 1. multiple regression. • 2. multiple cutoff. • 3. discriminant analysis. • 4. path analysis.

Answer 3! A discriminant analysis is required when several independent variables are used to predict group membership. Group membership is another way of saying discrete categories. In this case, three continuous variables are being used to predict whether subjects belong in the "pass exam" or "fail exam" category. Multiple regression (Response 1) is appropriate when several independent variables are used to predict one continuous dependent variable (e.g., EPPP score). In a test with multiple cutoff (Response 2), a subject can only pass the overall test if he meets the cutoff on each subtest. Path analysis (Response 4) applies multiple regression techniques to test a theoretical model that specifies causal links among variables.

The procedure of protocol analysis involves: • 1. looking at differences obtained in contrasting research protocols. • 2. having people focus on their self-statements in an attempt to modify their typical protocols. • 3. having people verbalize their thought process as they perform a task. • 4. a type of multiple baseline single subject design in which responses to multiple protocols are analyzed.

Answer 3! A protocol analysis involves subjects verbalizing their thought process as they perform a task. The goal is to better understand the person's cognitive process, especially concerning problem-solving, although it is understood that the process of verbalizing may actually alter the cognitive process. The other responses do not apply to protocol analysis.

According to APA's 2007 Record Keeping Guidelines, in the absence of superseding requirements, psychologists may: • 1. retain a full set of records for three years, and a partial set of records for an additional 12 years. • 2. retain a full set of records on all patients for seven years after the last date of service delivery. • 3. retain a full set of records for adults for seven years after the last date of service delivery, and for minors retain a full set of records for either seven years after the last date of service or three years after the minor reaches the age of majority whichever is later. • 4. retain a full set of records for adults for seven years after the last date of service delivery, and for minors retain a full set of records for seven years after the minor reaches the age of majority.

Answer 3! APA's 2007 Record Keeping Guidelines note that in the absence of superseding guidelines (e.g., state law) psychologists may retain a full set of records for adults for seven years after the last date of service delivery, and for minors psychologist may retain a full set of records for either seven years or three years after the minor reaches the age of majority whichever is later.

Your supervisor assigns you a project in which you have very little interest. Cognitive Dissonance Theory predicts that you would be most likely to change your opinion of this project if: • 1. you are given a bonus in exchange for doing this project. • 2. the project greatly benefits your colleagues. • 3. you complete the project on your own time at home. • 4. you have expertise with this type of project.

Answer 3! According to Cognitive Dissonance Theory, if a person holds a belief that is inconsistent with his or her other actions or other views, the person will experience dissonance, or discomfort. The person will then attempt to resolve the dissonance by changing the problematic belief. In this scenario, you believe that you are disinterested in the project. You are most likely to change this belief if you do something that is inconsistent with the belief. Out of the choices given, doing the project on your own time would be most inconsistent with disinterest in the project.

The latent trait model or item response theory is an alternative to classical test theory. Item response theory is based on the premise that: • 1. total variability in test takers' scores can be explained by a combination of the test's reliability and error variability. • 2. differences between two persons in terms of percentage correct obtained on the same exam reflect differences in underlying latent traits. • 3. when test content is of varying difficulty, uniform scales of measurement can be applied to persons of different ability levels. • 4. the test taker's response to a given item will indicate the extent of the latent trait possessed.

Answer 3! According to item response theory (latent trait model), it is assumed that item performance is related to the amount of the respondent's latent trait, e.g., statistics ability. Latent trait models are used to establish a uniform scale of measurement that can be applied to individuals of varying ability and to test content of varying difficulty. Response 1 accurately describes the premise of classical test theory. Response 2 is more in line with classical test theory than item response theory. The determination as to how much of a latent trait is possessed requires analyzing the responses to all items, not just one (Response 4).

According to the American Psychological Association's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct, when should fees be established? • 1. By the end of the first session. • 2. Within the first few sessions. • 3. As soon as possible. • 4. Fees are not specifically discussed in the Ethics Code.

Answer 3! According to the APA Ethics Code, psychologists discuss fees with patients "as early as is feasible in the therapeutic relationship."

According to the DSM-5, the rate of major depressive disorder in men and women is: • 1. about equal • 2. 1.5 - 3:1 • 3. 1:1.5 - 3 • 4. about equal, but the presentation is different

Answer 3! According to the DSM-5, the rate of major depressive disorder is equal in prepubertal girls and boys; it is 1.5 to 3 times higher in females than in males beginning in early adolescence. To answer this question correctly you not only needed to know that rates of major depressive disorder are higher in women than men, but you needed to carefully read the question (the question was looking at the ratio of men to women) and to understand how to interpret the ratios. The correct ratio is 1:1.5 - 3 (Response 3). Said another way, for every one man, from 1.5 to 3 women develop major depressive disorder.

What does current research show about smokers? • 1. Only highly addicted smokers should undergo pharmacological treatment. • 2. Smokers who quit after 30 years of addiction improve their health but not their longevity. • 3. Most smokers, even on pharmacological and psychological treatments, relapse within six months. • 4. After three failed attempts to quit the chances of long-term success are very small.

Answer 3! Sadly, relapse rates are extremely high, even when smokers use pharmacological and psychological treatments. Programs that enable 15% - 20% of participants to quit are generally considered successful. Pharmacological treatments include Zyban (the antidepressant bupropion) and the nicotine patch. They are appropriate for many smokers, not only the most highly addicted (Response 1). Many smokers require multiple attempts at quitting before they are ultimately successful (Response 4). Fortunately, quitting smoking does improve longevity, regardless of how long the person has been smoking (ruling out Response 2).

As opposed to homogeneous groups, heterogeneous groups: • 1. experience more stress. • 2. make faster decisions. • 3. are better for simple tasks. • 4. can suffer from groupthink.

Answer 1! A heterogeneous group includes members who have different interests, beliefs, skills, or abilities. As a result, heterogeneous groups tend to experience more dissension and disagreement, and may not make decisions as easily and quickly as homogenous groups would (Response 2). Homogeneous groups are also more efficient for simple tasks (Response 3). Heterogeneous groups are usually better for complex tasks since such tasks benefit from diverse viewpoints. Groupthink (Response 4), which is more likely to occur in homogeneous groups, refers to the tendency of group members to think alike and lose their critical evaluative capacities.

According to Nigresence models, the deracinated person is most likely to be in which of the following stages? • 1. Preencounter. • 2. Encounter. • 3. Immersion-emersion. • 4. Internalization.

Answer 1! A person is thought to be deracinated (without race) when he views being Black as an obstacle, and strongly prefers the dominant culture's values. These characteristics are most closely associated with the first stage of Cross's model, preencounter (called conformity in other models). Encounter (also known as dissonance) is the second stage and involves conflict between old self-deprecating attitudes and newly emerging appreciating attitudes (Response 2). In immersion-emersion, (also called resistance and immersion), there is generally a strong identification with the minority group, and rejection of the values of the dominant culture (Response 3). In the final stage of internalization (also called integrative awareness), there is an acceptance and valuing of the self as well as the dominant culture (Response 4).

Children with autism spectrum disorder show relative strength on: • 1. the Embedded Figures Test. • 2. the TONI-3 test. • 3. Raven's Progressive Matrices. • 4. the Stanford-Binet.

Answer 1! A significant body of research has found that children with autism spectrum disorder perform better in relation to their general mental age on the Embedded Figures Test (EFT). The EFT measures cognitive functioning by having the examinee try to locate simple geometrical shapes that are hidden in more complex diagrams. The TONI-3 (Response 2) or Test of Nonverbal Intelligence measures intelligence, aptitude, abstract reasoning, and problem solving completely free of the use of language. It is particularly well suited for individuals who are known or believed to have disorders of communication or thinking that may result from intellectual disability, deafness, developmental disabilities, autism spectrum disorder, cerebral palsy, stroke, disease, head injury, or other neurological impairment. Raven's Progressive Matrices (Response 3) is generally thought to be one of the best non-verbal tests of intelligence. It is also suited for individuals with severe motor impairments and speech limitations. Spearman himself considered Raven's Progressive Matrices to be the best non-verbal measure of the "g factor." The Stanford-Binet (Response 4) is a widely used test of intelligence requiring verbal skills with a low floor (e.g., IQ scores can be obtained in the teens) and high ceiling (e.g., IQ score of 180+ can be obtained), making it the test of choice for assessing both giftedness and intellectual disability.

In extreme cases, abrupt cessation of benzodiazepines (e.g., Xanax, Valium) can be life threatening. More commonly, signs of acute withdrawal include: • 1. rebound anxiety. • 2. slurred speech and incoordination. • 3. fever and diarrhea. • 4. dysphoric mood.

Answer 1! Abrupt cessation of a benzodiazepine can lead to some of the characteristic symptoms of sedative, hypnotic and anxiolytic withdrawal. One of these symptoms is anxiety. Additional symptoms include autonomic hyperactivity, hand tremor, insomnia, nausea or vomiting, psychomotor agitation, and grand mal seizures. Slurred speech and incoordination (Response 2) is included among the diagnostic criteria for sedative, hypnotic and anxiolytic intoxication. Fever and diarrhea can occur with opioid withdrawal (Response 3). Dysphoric mood is a hallmark of cocaine and/or amphetamine withdrawal, although it can occur with other syndromes, such as opioid withdrawal (Response 4).

You are treating a 30-year-old single woman and her ten-year-old son. The son is severely depressed and moderately suicidal. It becomes clear that your client is abusing her son, however, she threatens to pull her son out of treatment if you report this abuse. Your most ethical course of action would be to: • 1. make a report immediately to the appropriate authorities. • 2. maintain confidentiality because of the potentially life-threatening nature of ending treatment with the son. • 3. further discuss the issue with your client, and base your decision to report or not report on what transpires. • 4. seek consultation.

Answer 1! Abuse is a mandated child abuse reporting situation regardless of the circumstances or issues surrounding the case. Discussing the situation further with your client would be appropriate, however, you could not base your decision to report on the outcome of the discussion (Response 3).

According to the DSM-5, bipolar I disorder includes, at minimum: • 1. a manic episode. • 2. a manic or hypomanic episode. • 3. a manic and major depressive episode. • 4. a manic or mixed episode.

Answer 1! According to the DSM-5, the essential feature of bipolar I disorder is the occurrence of at least one manic episode (Response 1, correct answer). The manic episode may be preceded or followed by hypomanic or major depressive episodes, but other mood episodes are not necessary for the diagnosis. The DSM-5 eliminated the concept of the mixed episode. The DSM-5 has added the specifier "with mixed features" that can be applied to a manic, hypomanic, or depressive episode; however, a depressive or hypomanic episode alone with mixed features does not qualify the individual for bipolar I disorder. The diagnosis of bipolar II disorder is made when there has been at least one major depressive episode and at least one hypomanic episode, and there has never been a manic episode.

A patient with a lesion in the left inferior frontal area is most likely to exhibit impairments in: • 1. speech fluency. • 2. speech comprehension. • 3. proprioception. • 4. memory.

Answer 1! Broca's area is located in the left frontal lobe, which controls the muscles that produce speech. Broca's aphasia, which results from damage to this area, includes difficulties with speech production and fluency. Difficulties in speech comprehension (Response 2) would result from damage to Wernicke's area, located in the temporal lobes. Impairment in proprioception (Response 3) would result from damage to the parietal lobes. Memory problems (Response 4) would result from damage to several areas, including the frontal lobes, as well as the hippocampus, and the temporal lobes.

An employee is referred to you through an EAP program by his supervisor. Two weeks later the supervisor asks you whether that employee has made an appointment with you, and if so, what was discussed. You should: • 1. answer the question about attendance but not about session content. • 2. answer the question about attendance and session content. • 3. not answer any questions because the employee is entitled to a confidential relationship. • 4. answer questions only if the employee's job is dependent on attending the sessions.

Answer 1! Employees are often under the false impression that EAP therapy relationships are fully confidential. A supervisor who may have even casually suggested an employee contact an EAP program is entitled to know what visits were made. The supervisor, however, is not entitled to know the content of such visits.

A group of students apply for entrance to a high school for performing arts. As part of the admission process they are required to take a multiple-choice exam designed to assess creativity. After taking the exam the students complain that the exam does not actually measure their talents in the performing arts. These students are complaining about the exam's: • 1. face validity. • 2. content validity. • 3. construct validity. • 4. criterion-related validity.

Answer 1! Face validity is not validity in the technical sense. Face validity refers to what the test appears superficially to measure. Face validity specifically pertains to whether the test "looks valid" to the examinees who take it, to technically untrained observers, etc. These students are complaining that to them the test lacks validity. By contrast, assessment of content validity is determined through such tasks as a job analysis, and with the input of a panel of experts (Response 2). Construct validity looks at how well a test measures an underlying construct (e.g., creativity) using such methods as factor analysis or the multi-trait, multi-method matrix (Response 3). Criterion-related validity looks at how well a test predicts criterion outcome, by correlating scores on the predictor test with a measure of outcome (Response 4).

A therapist of which of the following orientations would be most likely to self-disclose? • 1. A feminist psychotherapist. • 2. A classical psychoanalyst. • 3. A cognitive-behavioral therapist. • 4. A community psychologist.

Answer 1! Feminist psychotherapists use self-disclosure as one means to discourage the client from adopting the typical dependent patient role. Although a cognitive-behaviorist and community psychologist might self-disclose, self-disclosure is not specifically associated with these approaches. A classical psychoanalyst would be least likely to self-disclose, preferring to be a "blank screen."

Which of the following statements is true regarding Fiedler's Contingency Theory? • 1. Low LPC leaders perform best in highly favorable situations and are task oriented. • 2. High LPC leaders perform best in highly unfavorable situations and are relationship oriented. • 3. Low LPC leaders perform best in moderately favorable situations and are relationship oriented. • 4. High LPC leaders perform best in moderately favorable situations and are task oriented.

Answer 1! Fiedler's Contingency Theory looks at how a leader rates a least preferred coworker (LPC). A low LPC leader is someone who assigns low ratings to a least preferred coworker. Low LPC leaders perform best in highly favorable or highly unfavorable situations and are task oriented. A high LPC leader is someone who rates a least preferred coworker highly. High LPC leaders work best under moderately favorable situations, and are relationship oriented.

A woman brings in her 92-year-old mother, concerned that she may have Alzheimer's disease. She states that her mother takes longer to respond when the phone rings, is "painfully slow" when cooking, has trouble remembering names, and speaks in a more verbose and repetitious manner. The mother simply says, "I'm fine. She's just a worry wart." At this point, your most likely assessment would be that: • 1. these symptoms are probably normal changes associated with aging. • 2. these symptoms are probably signs of early Alzheimer's disease. • 3. these symptoms are probably signs of a neurocognitive disorder due to vascular disease. • 4. these symptoms are probably signs of pseudodementia.

Answer 1! For a woman of 92 years of age, all of the symptoms listed are normal changes associated with aging (Response 1, correct answer) and shouldn't raise suspicion of a neurocognitive disorder either due to Alzheimer's disease (Response 2) or due to vascular disease (Response 3). Pseudodementia (Response 4) occurs when the associated features of a depression mimic symptoms of a dementia. Typically, individuals with pseudodementia present as somewhat depressed, complain of memory problems and may even have an exaggerated fear of cognitive decline.

Which of the following most accurately describes Bayes' Theorem? • 1. The relation among various conditional probabilities. • 2. A theorem of cultural identity development. • 3. A theorem of sexual identity development. • 4. A biopsychosocial model relating stress to biological and psychological functioning.

Answer 1! From some distant galaxy, Bayes' Theorem is a statistical probability theorem, which describes the likelihood of certain occurrences given the likelihood of other occurrences.

A patient who experiences agraphia, acalculia, right-left disorientation, and finger agnosia is most likely suffering from: • 1. Gerstmann's syndrome. • 2. Ganser syndrome. • 3. Kluver-Bucy syndrome. • 4. Munchausen syndrome.

Answer 1! Gerstmann's syndrome (Response 1, correct answer) results from damage to the dominant parietal lobe in the region of the angular gyrus. It is characterized by four primary symptoms: agraphia (writing disability), acalculia (problems with math), inability to distinguish right from left, and finger agnosia (the inability to recognize one's own fingers as part of one's body). Munchausen syndrome (Response 4) refers to the most severe and dramatic presentation of factitious disorder. Ganser syndrome (Response 2) is also a type of factitious disorder that involves the individual mimicking behavior that is typical of a mental illness, such as schizophrenia. Kluver-Bucy syndrome (Response 3) is a rare behavioral impairment that is associated with damage to both of the anterior temporal lobes of the brain. It is associated with hyperorality (e.g., putting objects in one's mouth), and hypersexuality. Other symptoms may include visual agnosia (inability to visually recognize objects), placidity due to loss of normal fear and anger responses, memory loss, distractibility, seizures, and dementia.

A psychologist devises a test to detect eating disorders among adolescents. She is concerned that the test is not able to detect less severe cases of the disorder. What can the psychologist do to increase the sensitivity of this test? • 1. Lower the predictor cutoff. • 2. Raise the predictor cutoff. • 3. Raise the criterion cutoff. • 4. Lower the predictor cutoff and raise the criterion cutoff.

Answer 1! Here, the psychologist is concerned about the test's ability to accurately diagnose eating disorders. The sensitivity of a test is defined as a test's ability to detect true positives. A test that is not sensitive enough may incorrectly classify those with less severe eating disorders as not having the disorder, resulting in too many false negatives. In order to remedy this situation, the psychologist can lower the predictor cutoff or the cutoff score on the test (Response 1, correct answer). Raising the predictor cutoff (Response 2) would actually increase the number of false negatives, making it harder to detect eating disorders. Although increasing the criterion cutoff (Responses 3 and 4) could theoretically reduce the number of false negatives, the criterion cutoff cannot in fact be changed; that is, the researcher cannot change the criterion outcome, which is whether someone has an eating disorder or not.

A woman presents at an emergency clinic. Her balance is quite impaired. Most likely, she is experiencing damage to her: • 1. cerebellum. • 2. right hemisphere. • 3. basal ganglia. • 4. parietal lobe.

Answer 1! Impaired balance commonly results from damage to the cerebellum. The right hemisphere is involved in perceptual and visuospatial activities, as well as in art, music, and intuition (Response 2). The basal ganglia are involved in the initiation and control of movement (Response 3). The parietal lobes process somatosensory information, including sensations of pain, light touch, temperature, and proprioception (Response 4).

Biofeedback involves which of the following? • 1. Operant conditioning and the sympathetic nervous system. • 2. Operant conditioning and the parasympathetic nervous system. • 3. Classical conditioning and the sympathetic nervous system. • 4. Classical conditioning and the parasympathetic nervous system.

Answer 1! In biofeedback, the patient is given feedback about the status of certain biological functions, and is taught to regulate them through either visual or auditory reinforcement. In this sense, biofeedback involves operant conditioning of biological functions. Furthermore, in biofeedback, the patient regulates involuntary functions of the sympathetic branch of the ANS, with the goal of decreasing sympathetic arousal.

Which of the following situations does not constitute an exception to confidentiality? • 1. Court-ordered treatment. • 2. Court-appointed evaluation. • 3. Reporting child abuse. • 4. Involuntarily hospitalizing a suicidal patient.

Answer 1! In court-ordered treatment, the patient is entitled to a confidential relationship, even though referred by the court. The therapist must obtain a signed release of information in order to inform the court of any aspects of the patient's treatment. All three other responses involve exceptions to confidentiality. The results of a court-appointed evaluation (Response 2) are disclosed to the court without a release of information from the patient. Although the patient doesn't have to consent to the release of information, he must be informed that the results will be shared. Confidentiality may be breached in order to make a child abuse report (Response 3), and it is also frequently breached in order to initiate an involuntary hospitalization.

You have been conducting family therapy and the husband and wife are now seeking a divorce. Under what circumstances could you testify, assuming both the husband and wife want you to give testimony in the divorce hearing? • 1. As a fact witness. • 2. By giving a custody recommendation. • 3. As an expert witness. • 4. Under a court order.

Answer 1! In this scenario you could definitely testify as a fact witness (Response 1). A fact witness reports on what has been heard, told, or observed during the course of treatment. It would be unethical to conduct a custody evaluation and then make recommendations (Response 2) on a family that has been in treatment. An expert witness (Response 3) is someone who is considered an expert in a certain field (e.g., child custody) and is asked to give testimony on an issue in the case. Even if you are a child custody expert, giving evidence as an expert witness for one party or the other, would constitute a harmful multiple relationship. While you would be required to give testimony under a court order (Response 4), a court order is usually required in cases in which the patient has not given the therapist permission to testify. In this case, both of your patients want you to testify.

A teaching assistant is asked to observe a hyperactive student's on-task behavior. She would most likely be using: • 1. interval recording. • 2. content sampling. • 3. event recording. • 4. purposive sampling.

Answer 1! Interval recording is used when a behavior is not discrete and has no clear beginning or end, because in such instances it is not possible to measure the number of times a child is on-task. Instead, the time period of observation is divided into smaller intervals, for example an hour is divided into twelve five-minute intervals. There are two methods of interval sampling: either the observer notes whether the behavior was present at the moment the interval ends (momentary time sampling), or the observer notes whether the behavior was present for the entire duration of the interval (whole-interval sampling). Event recording (Response 3), also called frequency recording, is used for discrete, easily measured behaviors such as a child making her bed. In event recording, the observer simply records the number of times the target behavior occurs. Content sampling (Response 2) is a source of error when assessing the reliability of a test, in particular, alternate forms reliability and split-half reliability. Purposive sampling (Response 4) is a sampling procedure for selecting subjects. It involves selecting a particular sample because it is believed to be representative of the population (e.g., test marketing a new product in Los Angeles because it is believed that how Angelinos view the product will be similar to how people in the rest of the country will view the product).

A researcher would use LISREL, a form of structural equation modeling, in an attempt to: • 1. test a causal model of relationships among variables. • 2. derive a causal model of relationships among variables. • 3. determine whether underlying variables are latent or manifest. • 4. determine the non-linear relationship between multiple IVs and multiple DVs.

Answer 1! LISREL, which stands for LInear Structural RELations, is a computer program that can determine whether a given causal model of relationships among variables is correct. It does not generate a causal model (Response 2). Although LISREL does make distinctions between latent (unobserved) and manifest (observed) variables, it is not used to determine whether a specific variable is latent or manifest. The experimenter must make this determination as part of the causal model. As the name implies, LISREL only analyzes linear relationships (Response 4). It is able, however, to look at direct and indirect effects, as well as both unidirectional and bi-directional paths.

According to Peter Lewinsohn, depression results from: • 1. low rates of behavior. • 2. too much punishment. • 3. cognitive distortions. • 4. deficits in serotonin.

Answer 1! Lewinsohn is a behaviorist who argues that depression is essentially caused by a low rate of behavior. All other symptoms of depression are thought to result from this initial low rate of behavior which in itself is the result of a lack of reinforcement from the environment. Lewinsohn and his colleagues were the first to develop behavioral activation as a treatment for depression, an evidenced-based treatment for depression that increases pleasant activities. Lewinsohn's therapy is based on the principle of teaching depressed patients how to elicit higher rates of reinforcement from the environment, which thereby increases rates of behavior, and reduces depression.

One area of emphasis in Maslow's theory is on needs that are: • 1. social. • 2. psychological. • 3. emotional. • 4. motivators.

Answer 1! Maslow's need hierarchy has five levels of needs: physiological, safety, belonging and love, esteem, and self-actualization. Maslow specifically described needs for belonging and love as social needs.

What is the general consensus about confidentiality following the death of the client? • 1. Confidentiality survives the death of the client. • 2. Confidentiality does not survive the death of the client. • 3. The patient's next of kin has the right to waive confidentiality. • 4. The therapist has the right to waive confidentiality.

Answer 1! Most professional groups, including the APA, consider that confidentiality continues even after the person is deceased.

Which of the following medications is least likely to cause problems in concentration, attention, and memory? • 1. Prozac (fluoxetine). • 2. Elavil (amitryptyline). • 3. Chlorpromazine (thorazine). • 4. Xanax (alprazolam).

Answer 1! Of all the medications listed here, Prozac (fluoxetine), a Selective-Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant, is least likely to affect concentration, attention, and memory. Elavil (amitryptyline), a tricyclic antidepressant (Response 2), and Chlorpromazine (thorazine), an antipsychotic (Response 3), both have high levels of anticholinergic side effects, including dry mouth, blurry vision, confusion, and decreased memory. Xanax (alprazolam) is a benzodiazepine (Response 4). It commonly causes drowsiness, and occasionally causes mild cognitive deficits and some amnesia.

The parents of an 11-month-old baby complain to the pediatrician that their son wakes up every three hours and cries until they go in to comfort him. The pediatrician tells them that the baby will start sleeping through the night if they do not go in when he cries. The next day the mother calls the doctor and complains that the baby now wakes up every two hours, crying more loudly than ever. The concept that provides the best explanation for the change in the baby's behavior is: • 1. extinction burst. • 2. spontaneous recovery. • 3. behavioral contrast. • 4. operant extinction.

Answer 1! Operant extinction frequently results in an initial extinction burst, or response burst. An extinction burst is a temporary increase in the target behavior following the withholding of reinforcement. Over time, the unreinforced behavior decreases. In this question, the parents' comforting of the baby was serving as reinforcement. Once they stopped reinforcing the baby's crying, he initially responded by increasing his crying behavior. While this question is describing operant extinction (Response 4), it is specifically asking what best explains the change in the baby's behavior; therefore, Response 1 is a better answer. Spontaneous recovery (Response 2) occurs in classical conditioning and involves the reappearance of the conditioned response (CR) during extinction trials. Behavioral contrast (Response 3) occurs when there have been two behaviors that were previously reinforced, and now only one behavior is being reinforced. The one that is reinforced increases, while the one that is no longer reinforced decreases.

Which substance mimics the effects of morphine in the brain? • 1. Opioid peptides. • 2. Opioid antagonists. • 3. Cathecholamines. • 4. Adrenaline.

Answer 1! Opioid peptides (e.g., enkephalins, endorphins) are amino acids that mimic the effects of opiates (e.g., morphine) in the brain, resulting in feelings of euphoria and decreased sensations of pain. Opioid antagonists (Response 2) act on opiate receptors to block the effects of opiates on the brain. Opioid antagonists (e.g., naloxone, naltrexone) are used at times to treat opiate addiction. The catecholamines (Response 3) include dopamine, norepinephine/noradrenaline, and epinephrine/adrenaline (Response 4). The catecholamines cause general physiological changes that prepare the body for physical activity (e.g., fight or flight). Dysregulation of dopamine and norepinephrine levels have also been implicated in a number of disorders (e.g., depression, Parkinson's, schizophrenia).

You note that a patient relies heavily on the defense mechanism of projection. She would most likely also exhibit: • 1. paranoid symptoms. • 2. depressive symptoms. • 3. anxiety symptoms. • 4. la belle indifference.

Answer 1! Projection is the defense mechanism believed to underlie paranoid symptoms (Response 1, correct answer). In projection, the patient takes his own angry and aggressive feelings, projects them onto others, and then feels that others are out to get him or her. La belle indifference (Response 4) is a description of the unconcerned attitude toward symptoms that has been noted in some patients with conversion disorder.

Research on altruism in children has found that all of the following child-rearing practices contribute to the development of altruism in children except: • 1. encouragement of autonomy. • 2. assignment of responsibility. • 3. modeling of positive behaviors. • 4. inductive discipline.

Answer 1! Research on altruism in children has found that parental child-rearing practices that include assignment of responsibility, modeling of positive behaviors, and inductive discipline (Responses 2, 3, and 4), contribute to the development of altruism. Inductive discipline involves the parent calling the child's attention to the negative consequences for others of the child's bad behavior, mobilizing in the child both empathy for others as well as recognition of responsibility for his/her own actions. Encouragement of autonomy (Response 1) has not been found to contribute to the development of altruism.

A mother who is breast-feeding her newborn could take advantage of which of the following neonatal reflexes? • 1. The rooting reflex. • 2. The Moro reflex. • 3. The Babinski reflex. • 4. The grasp reflex.

Answer 1! Rooting refers to reflexively turning the cheek toward where it has been touched. Mothers will frequently use this reflex to facilitate the process of nursing. The Moro reflex (Response 2) refers to digital extension and arching of the back when startled (e.g., by a loud noise, or by the sensation of loss of support). The Babinski or plantar reflex (Response 3) refers to the toes spreading when the sole of the foot is touched. The grasp reflex (Response 4) is the tendency to automatically grasp an object that is placed in the infant's hand, for example, a finger.

What is the basis of Edgar Schein's career model? • 1. Career Anchors. • 2. Career Rainbow. • 3. Technical/Functional Competence. • 4. Personality-Job Fit.

Answer 1! Schein developed a theory of Career Anchors according to which a person's self-concept acts as an anchor, or stabilizing force, determining what future occupational decisions will be made. His research showed that people's self-concepts or "career anchors" revolved around one of eight categories: autonomy/independence, security/stability, technical/functional competence (Response 3), general managerial competence, entrepreneurial creativity, service/dedication to a cause, pure challenge, and lifestyle. Donald Super's theory revolves around the Career Rainbow (Response 2). John Holland developed a theory of Personality-Job Fit (Response 4).

Which of the following approaches is indicated when treating African American clients? • 1. Multi-systems. • 2. Object relations. • 3. Cognitive-behavioral. • 4. Structural family therapy.

Answer 1! Some theorists recommend a multi-systems approach when treating African Americans. This approach takes into consideration that there are many intersecting systems that affect the lives of African Americans (e.g., family, political process, social services, etc.). In particular, it ensures an appreciation for political and sociocultural variables.

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory of intelligence? • 1. It is a three strata model, with general intelligence at the top level, broad cognitive abilities in the middle, and narrow cognitive abilities at the bottom. • 2. It is a triarchic theory that focuses on the process of intelligence, not the product. • 3. It proposes that intelligence is a single factor. • 4. It posits four basic underlying factors to the construct of intelligence.

Answer 1! The Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory is considered by many to be the most empirically validated theory of human intelligence. It is the foundation for the Woodcock-Johnson III (WJ-III) battery, a popular test of general aptitude and school achievement, and has been used to guide the development of the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children-IV (WISC-IV), the most established test of children's intelligence. According to this theory, intelligence can be understood in three levels: general intelligence or "g" (stratum III); about ten broad cognitive abilities, such as fluid reasoning, short-term memory, visual processing, reading and writing (stratum II); and finally, about 70 narrow cognitive abilities (stratum I). This theory, based on the original work of Cattell, has gone through much development and there is some variance in the way it can be presented. For example, Horn and Carroll disagree over the validity of the general intelligence factor. Sternberg's Triarchic Theory of intelligence focuses on process rather than product (Response 2). Spearman proposed that intelligence is a single factor "g" (Response 3). The WISC-IV has eliminated Verbal IQ (VIQ) and Performance IQ (PIQ), and instead Full Scale IQ (FSIQ) is comprised of four indices or factors: Verbal Comprehension Index (VCI), Perceptual Reasoning Index (PCI), Working Memory Index (WMI) and Processing Speed Index (PSI) (Response 4).

The substance most implicated in major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern is: • 1. melatonin. • 2. acetylcholine. • 3. norepinephrine. • 4. dopamine.

Answer 1! The DSM-5 describes the specifier "with seasonal pattern" that may be applied to episodes of mania, hypomania, or depression. The essential feature is the onset and remission of mood episodes at characteristic times of year. In most cases the episodes begin in fall or winter, and remit in spring. Sometimes referred to as seasonal affective disorder (SAD), although not in the DSM-5, there is still debate as to whether SAD is a distinct mental disorder from major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern. Factors that are thought to contribute to major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern include an imbalance of the natural hormone melatonin (Response 1).

According to Gestalt therapy, introjection results in: • 1. unexamined values and beliefs. • 2. suspiciousness. • 3. lack of awareness of conflicts. • 4. possible self-harming behaviors.

Answer 1! The Gestalt therapists Polster and Polster have delineated several boundary disturbances. Introjection involves taking in what others say whole, without one's own critical analysis. It results in naiveté, and unexamined values and beliefs. Projection results in suspiciousness (Response 2). Confluence results in lack of awareness of conflicts (Response 3), and retroflection involves turning on oneself the behavior and emotions one wants to inflict on others, which can include self-harm (Response 4).

The Kappa coefficient would be used to express: • 1. interrater reliability. • 2. test-retest reliability. • 3. parallel forms reliability. • 4. internal consistency reliability.

Answer 1! The Kappa coefficient is a measure of interrater reliability, or the degree of agreement between raters on an instrument that is subjectively scored. Other measures of interrater reliability include percent agreement between raters, Pearson r between scores given by the raters, and Yule's Y. Test-retest reliability (Response 2) is typically expressed by the coefficient of stability. Parallel forms reliability (Response 3) is typically expressed by the coefficient of equivalence. Kuder-Richardson and Cronbach's coefficient alpha are measures of internal consistency reliability (Response 4).

What is the most common anticholinergic side effect? • 1. Dry mouth. • 2. Blurred vision. • 3. Akathisia. • 4. Urinary retention.

Answer 1! The most common anticholinergic side effect is dry mouth (Response 1). Blurred vision (Response 2) and urinary retention (Response 4) are also anticholinergic side effects, but they are less common than dry mouth. Akathisia (Response 3) is a common side effect of traditional antipsychotic medications and involves a feeling of intense restlessness accompanied by anxiety and dysphoria.

Which of the following is not true about Intermittent Explosive Disorder? • 1. The disorder requires several discrete episodes or failure to resist aggressive impulses that result in serious assaultive acts or destruction of property. • 2. The aggressive acts are impulsive and typically not premeditated. • 3. This disorder may be associated with neurological/neurobiological abnormalities. • 4. The individual may exhibit aggressiveness between explosive episodes.

Answer 1! The question is asking for the incorrect statement. The diagnostic criteria for intermittent explosive disorder changed somewhat in the DSM-5. According to the DSM-5, intermittent explosive disorder is characterized by recurrent outbursts resulting from a failure to control aggressive impulses, as manifest by either of the following: verbal aggression (e.g., tirades, verbal arguments) or physical aggression toward property, animals, or people, occurring twice weekly for a period of 3 months, in which the physical aggression does not cause property damage or physical injury; or three behavioral outbursts involving damage or physical injury within a 12-month period. Thus, an individual may be diagnosed with intermittent explosive disorder when there is only verbal aggression or physical aggression that does not cause damage or physical injury; the disorder does not require serious assaultive acts or destruction of property (Response 1, correct answer). The aggressive outbursts are impulsive are not premeditated (Response 2). Some signs of neurological abnormalities may be associated with this disorder (Response 3). Signs of generalized aggressiveness or impulsivity may be present between explosive episodes (Response 4).

A woman who was in treatment with a psychology intern becomes involved in a legal proceeding. The woman's treatment records are subpoenaed. Who exercises privilege in this situation? • 1. The client. • 2. The psychology intern. • 3. The supervisor. • 4. The court.

Answer 1! The term privilege refers to the client's right to keep confidential information from being released in legal proceedings. In most cases, the client is the holder of the privilege, except when the client is a minor or under legal conservatorship. The client, as the holder of the privilege, exercises privilege, meaning she decides whether confidential information should be released. Since the psychology intern (Response 2) does not hold the privilege, the intern cannot exercise privilege. Nevertheless, the intern can "assert" privilege on the client's behalf, which means that the intern can ask to be released from the subpoena on the basis of the client's right of privilege. When privilege is asserted, the court (Response 4) holds a hearing to determine if privilege should be upheld. Ultimately, the court has the authority to overrule the client's privilege rights. If the court issues a court order for the release of the records, the psychology intern has to comply. In this situation, the supervisor's (Response 3) only role would be to provide supervision to the psychology intern.

You are working on developing a new test. To optimize your reliability you should: • 1. utilize a heterogeneous sample. • 2. utilize a homogeneous sample. • 3. measure subjects on the same test at two different points in time. • 4. measure subjects on two similar versions of the test at two different points in time.

Answer 1! There are several factors that specifically increase reliability: more items on a test, homogeneity of the items, an unrestricted range of scores that results from a more heterogeneous sample, and difficulty of guessing. Measuring subjects on the same test at two points in time simply describes test-retest reliability (Response 3). Measuring subjects on two similar versions of the test at two different points in time describes alternate-forms reliability (Response 4).

Researchers have found that when an earthworm is exposed to air puffs directed at its head, the earthworm initially responds by backing away from the source of the air puffs. After several trials, the earthworm no longer backs away. This change in behavior is most likely a result of: • 1. habituation. • 2. latent learning. • 3. avoidance learning. • 4. satiation.

Answer 1! This scenario describes habituation: the subject (earthworm) becomes so accustomed to an unconditioned stimulus (the air puff) that the US no longer elicits the unconditioned response (withdrawal). Latent learning (Response 2) involves learning a behavior in the absence of reinforcement and only emitting the behavior when reinforcement is given. Avoidance conditioning (Response 3) refers to learning to emit a response so as to avoid a punisher. Satiation (Response 4) involves receiving so much of a reinforcer (e.g., candy) that the reinforcer loses some of its reinforcing value.

According to psychoanalytic theory, mania: • 1. is a defense against depression. • 2. involves an eruption of id impulses into the ego. • 3. involves a collapse of the superego. • 4. is a regression from the paranoid-schizoid position to the depressive position.

Answer 1! To answer this question correctly, you would either need to be familiar with psychoanalytic theory, or you might be able to guess by thinking about your own clinical experience. Manic or hypomanic behavior can mask an underlying depression. An eruption of id impulses into the ego (Response 2) would result in anxiety and an attempt at bolstering defense mechanisms. Response 4 refers to Melanie Klein's work but actually reverses the sequence of positions. Klein posited that the paranoid-schizoid position comes first and is followed by the depressive position.

Cuento therapy involves incorporation of: • 1. Spanish language folktales. • 2. anatomically correct dolls with children who are incest survivors. • 3. curanderos (folk healers). • 4. music and movement into therapy.

Answer 1! What?! You haven't heard of Cuento therapy? You may have been able to narrow down the Responses to 1 and 3 because "Cuento" sounds Spanish. Developed by Malgady, Rogler and Costantino (1990), and originally studied with Puerto Rican clients, Cuento therapy use Spanish-language folktales in which positive models are presented to children and adolescents to help them address problem areas such as anxiety, low self-esteem, acculturative stress, and acting out.

A child is most likely to take her first step at about: • 1. 9 months. • 2. 12 months. • 3. 14 months. • 4. 17 months.

Answer 2! A child is most likely to take her first step on her own at about the age of 12.1 months. The phrase "at one they walk, at two they talk" can help you remember this milestone. Other developmental milestones include: rolling over at 2.8 months; sitting alone at 5.5 months; standing holding furniture at 5.8 months; walking while holding on at 9.2 months (Response 1); standing alone at 11.5 months; and walking up steps at 17.1 months (Response 4). Keep in mind, however, that no two children are exactly alike.

Which of the following is a criterion-based score? • 1. Percentile. • 2. Percentage. • 3. Standard score. • 4. IQ score.

Answer 2! A criterion-based or criterion-referenced score describes how a person did in relationship to some external criterion. Percentage correct tells us exactly how well the person did on the test, or how much of the criterion was mastered. By contrast, norm-referenced scores only give us information on how a person did relative to other test takers; they say nothing about how much of the criterion was mastered. Percentile ranks (Response 1), standard scores (Response 3) and IQ scores (Response 4) are all norm-referenced scores.

In which of the following circumstances would someone be most likely to conduct a functional analysis of behavior? • 1. A psychologist has committed an ethics violation. • 2. A child is brought to treatment because he is disruptive at home but not in school. • 3. A consultant is brought in to help reduce the high dropout rate of a treatment program for substance use disorders. • 4. A researcher is enlisted to design an early detection program for substance use disorders.

Answer 2! A functional analysis of behavior involves looking at a specific behavior, its antecedents and consequences, as well as the contingencies (e.g., reinforcers) that serve to maintain the behavior. By conducting a functional assessment, a psychologist can determine what precedes a problematic behavior and what is reinforcing it, in order to devise and implement a behavior modification program. Response 1 would warrant an investigation by the ethics board. Response 3 describes consultation. Response 4 describes secondary prevention.

Jane believes that her car accident was the other driver's fault, but blames David's car accident on his driving style. This is an example of: • 1. a self-serving bias. • 2. an actor-observer bias. • 3. the fundamental attribution error. • 4. self-perception theory.

Answer 2! According to the actor-observer bias, when faced with a negative outcome, people attribute their own actions to situational factors but attribute the behavior of others to dispositional factors. In this question, Jane attributes her car accident to a situational factor (the other driver hitting her), but attributes David's accident to a dispositional factor (David's own driving style). The self-serving bias (Response 1) occurs when one attributes one's own successes to dispositional factors, while attributing one's own failures to situational factors. The fundamental attribution error (Response 3) refers to a bias toward attributing the behavior of others to dispositional causes, while underestimating the role of situational variables. This bias does not address attributions made about the self. Self-perception theory (Response 4) is a theory about attitudes, and states that people infer their attitudes from watching their own behavior.

Which combination of interventions is best suited for treating conduct disorder? • 1. Individual and group therapy. • 2. Individual and family therapy. • 3. Residential placement with behavior modification. • 4. Individual therapy and medication.

Answer 2! All the responses include interventions that have some place in the treatment of conduct disorder. Conduct disorder is usually best approached multimodally, and family involvement in the treatment of this disorder is almost always advisable (Response 2, correct answer). Parent management training, a form of behavior therapy, has the most well-established success in treating conduct disorder. Other types of behavior and cognitive behavior therapies have also shown promise, as has multisystemic therapy, a form of family therapy. Severe cases of conduct disorder may warrant residential or inpatient treatment.

A key principle underlying Montessori schools is that: • 1. cognitive development is enhanced by social learning and development. • 2. cognitive development is enhanced by exposure to sensory-motor stimuli. • 3. children should not be pushed to excel, that they will perform best without pressure. • 4. learning will be optimized if children are grouped with others of varying age and ability levels.

Answer 2! Although all of the responses to this question describe elements of Montessori schooling, the key principle underlying Montessori schools is that maximum learning comes from manipulation of materials (sensory-motor stimuli), rather than through traditional classroom instruction and rote learning. Children in Montessori schools are grouped with peers of different ages and abilities (e.g., 3 to 5 year-olds, 6 to 9 year-olds, and 10 and up), because it is believed that the older children can facilitate learning in the younger ones. Thus, over the years of their schooling children have the experience of being the youngest and later of being the oldest. Children are not pushed to excel, but rather are encouraged to perform at their potential, with learning goals that are individually tailored.

During hypnosis, a patient remembers an incident from childhood of which he previously had no knowledge. Your best course of action would be to: • 1. consider the memory an actual memory and treat it as you would any other memory discussed in therapy. • 2. consider the memory therapeutically useful but possibly a distortion of actual history. • 3. discontinue hypnosis because the patient is too suggestible. • 4. ignore the memory because research has shown that hypnotically-recovered memories are unreliable.

Answer 2! Although controversy rages on the issue of recovered or repressed memories, the prevailing opinion seems to be that they are, at the least, very prone to distortion and should not be considered actual fact (thus eliminating Response 1). Still, like any memory, fantasy, thought, or feeling discussed in therapy, such memories can be of very important clinical value. It would be poor clinical work to disregard the memory when the patient may have a lot of emotion associated with it and the experience of recalling it (thus eliminating Response 4). Insufficient information is provided to require discontinuing hypnosis and the term too suggestible might be somewhat offensive (thus eliminating Response 3). An approach to such questions is to choose a response that is most balanced and clinically thoughtful.

Which of the following terms is applied to the view that in order to understand a person, one must understand his environment and cultural background? • 1. Etic. • 2. Emic. • 3. Nomothetic. • 4. Idiographic.

Answer 2! An emic perspective is one that focuses on understanding a person within the context of his specific cultural background. An etic view (Response 1) assumes that there are universal principles underlying personality, psychopathology, and psychotherapy. A nomothetic approach (Response 3) involves observations of groups. An idiographic approach (Response 4), by contrast, involves closely observing one or a few individuals (e.g., Piaget's developed his theories on relatively few children).

In the above question, the child's response is characteristic of which stage in Piaget's theory? • 1. Concrete operational. • 2. Preoperational. • 3. Sensorimotor. • 4. Formal operational.

Answer 2! Animism is characteristic of the preoperational stage of development (ages 2 to 7), in which the child thinks and reasons intuitively and employs magical thinking. In the concrete operational stage (Response 1), the child uses logical thought processes and operates on the real and perceivable world of objects (ages 7 to 11). The sensorimotor stage (Response 3) involves sensory observation, as well as the exploration and manipulation of the environment (birth to 2). The formal operational stage (Response 4) is characterized by the ability to think abstractly and reason deductively (11 years and beyond).

On-going use of Valium is associated with symptoms of tolerance. A patient who has developed tolerance to Valium will likely have a cross-tolerance for: • 1. marijuana. • 2. alcohol. • 3. LSD. • 4. cocaine.

Answer 2! Benzodiazepines (e.g., Valium) and alcohol are cross-tolerant, which means that someone who develops a tolerance for Valium would also experience tolerance for alcohol. If you did not know the answer, you might have guessed correctly by remembering that alcohol and the category of sedatives, hypnotics and anxiolytics are similar (e.g., similar intoxication effects and withdrawal effects)

The brain wave that is most prominent as you are taking this practice test is: • 1. alpha. • 2. beta. • 3. delta. • 4. theta.

Answer 2! Beta waves are present during alert activity (and we hope you're alert as you take this practice test!). Alpha waves (Response 1) occur when a person closes his eyes and relaxes. Delta waves (Response 3) occur during deep sleep (stages 3 and 4). As the individual drifts into Stage 1 sleep, there is a predominance of theta waves (Response 4).

A patient of yours is a college student. She receives an 'A' on her final in an honors calculus class. When she reports this to you, she shrugs and says, "I'm okay at Math, I guess." Her behavior is an example of which of the following cognitive distortions? • 1. Tunnel vision. • 2. Magnification. • 3. Labeling. • 4. Fortune telling.

Answer 2! Cognitive therapists have identified numerous common cognitive distortions. The distortion of magnification/minimization is often, as here, abbreviated to magnification. It refers to magnifying one's problems or perceiving something as more important than it is. It also refers to minimizing one's positive qualities or seeing something as less important than it is. Here, the patient is clearly minimizing her mathematics ability. Tunnel vision (Response 1) refers to seeing only the negative aspects of a situation. For example, this student receives all A's except for one B+, and she becomes very upset about the one B+. In labeling (Response 3), a person's entire character is labeled based on one incident, for example, someone who forgets something one time is "an idiot." Fortune telling (Response 4) refers to anticipating that events will turn out badly.

Crisis intervention is most commonly associated with: • 1. primary prevention. • 2. secondary prevention. • 3. tertiary prevention. • 4. consultation.

Answer 2! Crisis intervention involves early identification and treatment of individuals experiencing problems, will the goal of resolving the problems. This is the focus of secondary prevention. Primary prevention attempts to prevent problems from occurring in the first place (Response 1). Tertiary prevention aims to reduce the recurrence or residual effects of chronic problems (Response 3).

Which of the following is an example of diagnostic overshadowing? • 1. A psychologist diagnoses a patient with major depressive disorder because his wife notes he is "very depressed." • 2. A psychologist does not diagnose a person with Down syndrome with a phobia, when the patient exhibits the diagnostic criteria for a specific phobia. • 3. A psychologist has difficulty determining which symptoms are due to a patient's substance use disorder and which are due to schizophrenia. • 4. A psychologist has the tendency to diagnose most patients with the same disorder (e.g., major depressive disorder, borderline personality disorder).

Answer 2! Diagnostic overshadowing is a bias that negatively affects clinicians' diagnostic accuracy when diagnosing persons with intellectual disability or other severe developmental disabilities (Response 2) that have comorbid mental disorders. In essence, the more obvious and severe deficits are so prominent that any accompanying more minor psychiatric disturbance tends to be overshadowed and therefore not diagnosed.

A husband and wife have decided to use mediation to help end their marriage. At the end of the mediation process, both people are satisfied with the terms of the divorce settlement. This is an example of: • 1. informational justice. • 2. distributive justice. • 3. procedural justice. • 4. interpersonal justice.

Answer 2! Distributive or outcome justice has its roots in social equity theory and refers to the satisfaction of participants in a process (e.g., mediation) when they believe that the outcome of the process is both fair and favorable. In this question the outcome (terms of the divorce settlement) determined the participants' satisfaction. Procedural justice (Response 3) refers to participants' satisfaction based on the perceived fairness of the process used to come to a decision. For example, if the couple was satisfied with the mediation because they felt the mediator was successfully impartial or that they had equal opportunity to be heard, this would be an example of procedural justice. A more recent development of research is the theory of interactional justice. Interactional justice is defined as the quality of interpersonal treatment received during the process, and reflects concerns about the fairness of non-procedural aspects of interaction. The two components of interactional justice are informational justice and interpersonal justice. Informational justice (Response 1) refers to the appropriateness of the explanation given for the procedures used, while interpersonal justice (Response 4) refers to the manner in which people are treated by authority figures in the decision making process (e.g., whether they are treated with politeness, dignity, and respect).

In Donald Kirkpatrick's training evaluation model there are four levels of evaluation. Which of the following is not one of these levels? • 1. Reaction of the student. • 2. Instructor effectiveness. • 3. Behavior. • 4. Results.

Answer 2! Donald Kirkpatrick has developed a four-level model to assess effectiveness of training. The first level of evaluation measures participant reactions (Response 1) in terms of what the student thought and felt about the training received. The second level measures learning, or the increase in skills and knowledge. The third level measures behavior/transfer (Response 3), the extent to which the skills and knowledge are being used in the everyday environment. Results (Response 4) is the final level, evaluated based on the effects on the business (e.g., business income) as a result of the training. Instructor effectiveness (Response 2) is not one of the levels of Kirkpatrick's training evaluation model.

A parent tells his child, "Clean up your toys," to which she responds, "Clean up your toys." This is an example of: • 1. echopraxia. • 2. echolalia. • 3. echokinesis. • 4. palilalia.

Answer 2! Echolalia is defined as the parrot-like repetition of words or phrases spoken by others. It occurs as part of language development in normal children but it can also be a symptom of autism. Palilalia (Response 4) refers to the repetition of one's own words, sounds, or phrases. Echopraxia (Response 1) and echokinesis (Response 3) are both defined as imitating or repeating the movements of another person.

Two people work in the customer service department at a telephone company. On a daily basis, one handles about twice as many customer complaints as the other. According to predictions of Equity Theory, the one who handles more complaints is most likely to: • 1. increase performance further. • 2. ask for a raise. • 3. leave the field of customer service. • 4. transfer to another telephone company.

Answer 2! Equity Theory looks at the ratio of one's inputs/outcomes vs. others' inputs/outcomes. Inequity is believed to be a motivating state that causes people to adjust their performance until the ratios appear fair. Here, the employee who works harder is likely to attempt to increase her outcomes (salary) to match her inputs (amount of work that she does). Alternatively, she may reduce her inputs (amount of work) to match her outcomes (salary).

The effects of fetal alcohol syndrome tend to: • 1. be most visible in the first three years of life and may gradually decline thereafter. • 2. be permanent. • 3. be most visible in infancy and early childhood, but diminish in adolescence and adulthood. • 4. emerge most dramatically at puberty.

Answer 2! Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) results from maternal consumption of alcohol during pregnancy. Its permanent effects include facial abnormalities, including wide-set and narrow eyes, growth problems, central nervous system abnormalities, and decreased intelligence. Individuals with FAS frequently have problems with learning, memory, attention span, communication, vision, or hearing.

Which of the following theories is an expansion of Maslow's work? • 1. ERG theory. • 2. Two-Factor theory. • 3. Acquired needs theory. • 4. VIE theory.

Answer 2! Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory is an extension of Maslow's work, and divides Maslow's five needs into upper level needs (motivators) and lower level needs (hygiene factors). Although ERG theory (Response 1) is also based on Maslow's theory, it is not really an expansion, but rather a modification. For example, ERG theory includes three needs (existence, relatedness and growth), which are not arranged hierarchically. The theory includes the notion of frustration-regression, and also posits that satisfying a need can make the need even stronger. Acquired needs theory (Response 3) is based on McClelland's experiments with the TAT, and includes three work-related needs: nAch, nAff, and nPow. Vroom's VIE theory (Response 4) asserts that people will behave in ways that are based on their perceived expectancy of success and rewards.

Hypnogogic hallucinations: • 1. occur in substance-induced psychosis. • 2. occur as a person falls asleep. • 3. occur as a person awakens. • 4. are iatrogenically produced.

Answer 2! If you did not know the answer to this question, you might have narrowed it down to Responses 2 or 3 by analyzing the word hypnogogic. "Hypno" means sleep and occurs in common psychological terms such as hypnosis and sedative-hypnotic. Hypnogogic hallucinations occur as a person falls asleep. Hallucinations that occur upon awakening are termed hypnopompic (Response 3). Iatrogenically produced symptoms (Response 4) are symptoms caused by medical or psychological treatment; a rash due to a penicillin allergy would be iatrogenic.

Which of the following is an example of a client-centered case consultation? • 1. Working with a coordinator of a program for emotionally disturbed children to improve her skills in managing acting out and violent behavior. • 2. Educating a clinician working in a public clinic on how to intervene with an adolescent at risk for becoming involved in gangs. • 3. Helping a clinic director to explore ways for creating an outreach program for pregnant teens in order to provide them with perinatal care. • 4. Working with clinic administrators on ways to enhance their expertise and efforts for increasing outreach to runaway youth.

Answer 2! In a client-centered case consultation, the consultant makes an expert assessment of one client's problems and suggests ways for handling the case (Response 2). Response 1 describes a consultee-centered case consultation, in which a consultant helps a consultee to improve skills in working with a group of patients. In consultee-centered administrative consultation, the consultant focuses on the consultee's program-related work, such as how his or her attitude or knowledge is influencing the way a program is run (Response 4). Response 3 describes program-centered administrative consultation, in which the consultant's focus is on program development.

When an individual is not legally capable of giving informed consent, and governmental regulations prohibit securing consent from a legally authorized person, a psychologist should: • 1. refrain from providing therapy or assessment services. • 2. take reasonable steps to protect the individual's rights and welfare. • 3. substitute the individual's assent for consent. • 4. secure consent from the institution in which the therapy or assessment services are to be provided.

Answer 2! In general, when an individual lacks the legal capacity to give consent, psychologists should still provide the individual with an explanation, seek assent (Response 3), consider the individual's best interests, and obtain permission from a legally authorized individual. According to the 2002 APA Ethics Code, when obtaining permission from a legally authorized person is prohibited, psychologists should "take reasonable steps to protect the individual's rights and welfare." Psychologists do not have to refrain from providing services (Response 1). Institutions (Response 4) often give approval or authorization for services, but they cannot give "consent."

The M'Naghten Rule is most directly related to • 1. incompetence to stand trial. • 2. the insanity defense. • 3. abuse of minors. • 4. involuntary hospitalization.

Answer 2! In re M'Naghten (1843), the insanity defense was used successfully. M'Naghten, who had schizophrenia, believed there was a plot against him. He shot and fatally wounded the secretary of England's Prime Minister, under the belief that he was actually shooting the Prime Minister. When M'Naghten reached trial, his attorneys pleaded that he should be acquitted because he was obviously insane and did not understand what he was doing. This ruling still provides the basis for the insanity defense in most states in the U.S.

Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding the ethical use of the media in promoting a psychologist? • 1. It is acceptable to have a press employee write an article about a psychologist, but it is not acceptable to pay for any kind of publicity. • 2. It is acceptable to pay for publicity, as long as any paid publicity or advertisement is identified as such. • 3. It is acceptable to compensate a press employee for writing an article about a psychologist. • 4. A psychologist retains the responsibility to ensure that any media reporting does not provide any favorable bias toward the psychologist.

Answer 2! It is ethically permitted for psychologists to pay for publicity (Response 1) as long as the promotional material is accurate, not misleading, and is identified as paid advertisement. For example, there are ads in papers that look like regular news articles but at the top, the words "paid advertisement" are printed. It is never ethical to pay a media employee to write an article (Response 3). Although psychologists have the responsibility to ensure the accuracy of all information in an article published about them, they do not have to make sure there is no favorable bias (Response 4).

The case of Larry P. v. Riles most directly dealt with: • 1. racial and cultural biases in IQ testing for job candidates. • 2. racial and cultural biases in IQ testing for school children. • 3. equal educational opportunities for all children. • 4. hospital privileges for psychologists.

Answer 2! Larry P. v. Riles argued that use of IQ tests resulted in the placement of a disproportionate amount of minority students in classes for the educable mentally retarded (EMR). Griggs v. Duke Power Company (1971) dealt with biases in testing in industry (Response 1). Equal educational opportunities (Response 3) were the focus of Brown v. Board of Education (1954). Hospital privileges for psychologists in California resulted from CAPP v. Rank (1990).

Which stage of the sexual response cycle is the technique of sensate focus designed to affect? • 1. Orgasm. • 2. Excitement. • 3. Plateau. • 4. Resolution.

Answer 2! Masters and Johnson divide the sexual response cycle into four stages: excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution. In the excitement phase, arousal is initiated either through physical factors (e.g., touching) or psychological factors (e.g., fantasy). It is this stage that sensate focus is designed to affect. Based on counter-conditioning, sensate focus techniques replace performance anxiety with pleasure. The plateau phase (Response 3) involves further increases in stimulation and physiological functions (e.g., heart rate, respiration). During the orgasm phase (Response 1), the person experiences an intense and pleasurable release of tension, and ejaculation occurs in the male. The resolution stage (Response 4) involves a gradual return to preexcitement levels.

Which statement about McClelland's Acquired Needs theory is most accurate? • 1. People's work-related needs are generally stable throughout the life span. • 2. Exposure to different experiences can result in changes in people's work-related needs. • 3. Work-related needs develop early in life and are usually not modified. • 4. Research results have generally been inconsistent regarding whether work-related needs are stable or modifiable.

Answer 2! McClelland's Acquired Needs theory describes three work-related needs: nAch (need for achievement), nAff (need for affiliation), and nPow (need for power). According to this theory needs are acquired over time. Research has confirmed that people can be trained to think more like those high in nAch, a characteristic that has been shown to correlate highly with work success.

A woman who is normally calm and even-tempered suffers a brain injury after which she becomes disinhibited and displays episodic aggression. What is the most probable location of her brain injury? • 1. Temporal lobe. • 2. Prefrontal cortex. • 3. Premotor area. • 4. Right hemisphere.

Answer 2! People who have suffered damage to the prefrontal cortex commonly experience changes in their personality, including disinhibition and increased aggression. The temporal lobes (Response 1) contain the auditory cortex and are also involved in emotional behavior and memory. Although changes in level of aggressiveness can result from temporal lobe damage, disinhibition usually results from damage to the prefrontal area. The premotor area (Response 3) is involved in instigating voluntary movement. The right hemisphere (Response 4) is involved with perceptual, visuospatial, artistic, musical, and intuitive activities, as well as with emotions in general.

With regard to the United States going to war, which of the following statements represents Kohlberg's highest stage of moral development? • 1. War is killing and killing is against the law. • 2. Evil is on the march, and it would be wrong to allow it to continue. • 3. We don't want the world to see us as weak. • 4. War could hurt our economy.

Answer 2! Response 2 represents a type of postconventional morality, specifically the morality of individual principles of conscience (Stage 6). In this stage, which Kohlberg considers the highest level of morality, decisions are based on universal principles of equity, justice, and respect for life. The conventional level of morality includes stage 3, the good boy/good girl orientation (Response 3), as well as stage 4, the law and order orientation (Response 1). Response 4 is based on the punishment-obedience orientation (Stage 1) of pre-conventional morality.

You attend a workshop in preparation for the licensing exam. When you complete the program evaluation you indicate that you found the workshop helpful. You then have dinner with several friends who took the workshop with you, and conclude that the workshop was extremely helpful. Your shift in attitude can best be explained by: • 1. risky shift. • 2. response polarization. • 3. groupthink. • 4. conformity.

Answer 2! Response polarization (group polarization) is the tendency for people in groups to become more extreme in their views. Risky shift refers to the tendency for people in groups to make riskier decisions than they would if they were deciding alone (Response 1). Groupthink occurs when group members are seeking concurrence, consensus and unanimity. Groupthink involves suspending critical evaluative capacities in decision making which is not the case here, as no decision requiring critical thinking is being made (Response 3). Conformity involves changing one's views of behavior as a result of social or group pressure (Response 4), also not the case here.

In which of the following situations would a researcher most likely decide to use an ANCOVA (Analysis of Covariance)? • 1. When in designing a study an extraneous variable is anticipated. • 2. When unexpected differences are uncovered among treatment groups with regard to an extraneous variable. • 3. To remove the effects of an extraneous variable in the correlation of two continuous variables. • 4. To transform a moderator variable into another IV.

Answer 2! The ANCOVA is similar to the analysis of variance (ANOVA), with an additional element of co-varying out an extraneous variable, a variable that correlates with the outcome measure. An ANCOVA is typically most appropriate only when the extraneous variable is unanticipated. If the variable is anticipated (Response 1), it should be accounted for directly in the research design, usually through a randomized block ANOVA. A randomized block ANOVA transforms an extraneous variable, one that moderates the relationship between the IV and DV, into another IV to be studied (Response 4). In this way, interaction effects can also be studied and more information is yielded than in an ANCOVA. You might have been able to eliminate Response 3 by recognizing that the correlation of two continuous variables deals with correlation coefficients, not variations of the ANOVA, which are tests of difference. Removing the effects of an extraneous variable in a correlation (Response 3) is the definition of partial correlation.

In the DSM-5, personality disorders: • 1. are coded on Axis II, while other mental disorders are coded on Axis I. • 2. are diagnosed based on a categorical model. • 3. are diagnosed based on a dimensional model. • 4. are not diagnosed in children.

Answer 2! The DSM-5 moved to a nonaxial documentation of diagnosis, eliminating Axis I - Axis V (ruling out Response 1). The diagnostic approach of the DSM-5 represents a categorical perspective (Response 2, correct answer); as applied to personality disorders that would imply that personality disorders are qualitatively distinct clinical syndromes. In Section III of the DSM-5, emerging measures and models, an alternative DSM-5 model for personality disorders based on a dimensional model is described (Response 3). The DSM-5 notes that personality disorders may be diagnosed in children and adolescents (Response 4), with the exception of antisocial personality disorder which cannot be diagnosed in individuals younger than age 18.

Which of the following disorders has the highest rates of comorbidity with Tourette's disorder? • 1. Specific learning disorder. • 2. ADHD. • 3. Autism spectrum disorder. • 4. Oppositional defiant disorder.

Answer 2! The DSM-5 notes that ADHD (Response 2) and obsessive-compulsive and related disorders commonly co-occur with tic disorders. Children who do have comorbid ADHD may demonstrate disruptive behavior, social immaturity, and learning difficulties that may interfere both academically and interpersonally.

The Solomon Four-Group design is used: • 1. to control for carryover effects when repeated measures are used. • 2. to control for the effects of testing. • 3. to control for the effects of history and failure to return to baseline in single-subject designs. • 4. to control for the effects of experimenter expectancies and demand characteristics.

Answer 2! The Solomon Four-Group is a type of research design that controls for the effects of testing (also called practice effects). Subjects are divided into four groups: the first group is tested before and after treatment (pretest/intervention/posttest); the second group is tested twice without any treatment (pretest/no intervention/posttest); the third group is treated and measured afterwards (intervention/posttest); and the fourth is only tested once (posttest). The design accounts for all possible effects of testing. The Latin Square is the most sophisticated counterbalancing design and controls for carryover effects when repeated measures are used (Response 1). Multiple baseline designs eliminate the threat of history and failure to return to baselines (as well as ethical concerns) in single-subject designs (Response 3). Experiment expectances and demand characteristics (Response 4) are controlled by making experiments double-blind.

A lesion to which of the following structures might result in disturbances of sleep? • 1. Thalamus. • 2. Hypothalamus. • 3. Hippocampus. • 4. Amygdala.

Answer 2! The brain structure significantly involved in the sleep-wake cycle is the hypothalamus. The hypothalamus regulates many homeostatic functions in addition to the sleep-wake cycle, including temperature, hunger, and aggression. The thalamus (Response 1) is a sensory relay center, receiving input from all our senses except smell. The hippocampus (Response 3) primarily functions to consolidate experiences into long-term memories. The amygdala (Response 4) attaches emotional significant to sensory input; it is strongly implicated in the startle response, aggression, and emotional memory.

The presence of daytime sleepiness, episodes of loss of muscle tone associated with intense emotion, and hypnogogic hallucinations suggest a diagnosis of: • 1. sleep apnea. • 2. narcolepsy. • 3. insomnia disorder. • 4. sleep terror disorder.

Answer 2! The hallmarks of narcolepsy is recurrent periods of an irresistible need to sleep, lapsing into sleep, or napping along with cataplexy (sudden bilateral loss of muscle tone) frequently triggered by intense emotion, hypocretin deficiency, or REM indicators (e.g., REM sleep latency less than or equal to 15 minutes). Individuals with narcolepsy commonly experience intrusions of REM sleep into the transition between sleep and wakefulness resulting in hypnogogic or hypnopompic hallucinations or sleep paralysis. Daytime sleepiness is typically one of the first symptoms of narcolepsy. Both sleep apnea (breathing related sleep disorder) and insomnia disorder result in sleep disruption that leads to excessive sleepiness, however cataplexy and hallucinations are absent (ruling out Responses 1 & 3). NREM sleep arousal disorder, sleep terror type (Response 4) is characterized by abrupt awakening from sleep, intense fear and autonomic arousal, relative unresponsiveness to comfort by others, and amnesia for the episode.

Which of the following examples best illustrates the halo effect? • 1. An employer gives an employee an outstanding six-month evaluation because she has been performing exceptionally well in the past month. • 2. A job applicant who is perceived negatively on one dimension is given low ratings in her interview. • 3. A mediocre job applicant who is interviewed after an unqualified applicant is given high ratings. • 4. An employer gives moderate to high rating to all employees.

Answer 2! The halo effect occurs when an employer's rating of an employee on one dimension influences ratings on other dimensions of the employee's performance, whether in a positive or negative direction. Here, the employer gives the applicant overall low ratings based on one dimension that was perceived negatively. Response 1 describes the recency effect, which occurs when ratings are based on the employee's most recent performance rather than on performance during the entire rating period. Response 3 describes the contrast effect, which occurs when an employer's rating of an applicant is influenced by prior applicants. Response 4 describes a leniency bias, which occurs when a rater uniformly evaluates candidates favorably.

Freud's phallic stage corresponds to which of Erikson's stages? • 1. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt. • 2. Initiative vs. guilt. • 3. Trust vs. mistrust. • 4. Industry vs. inferiority.

Answer 2! The phallic stage, which occurs between the ages of 3 and 6, corresponds to Erikson's stage of initiative versus guilt. Autonomy versus shame and doubt (Response 1) corresponds to the anal stage (ages 1 to 3). Trust versus mistrust (Response 3) corresponds to the oral stage (first year of life), and industry versus inferiority (Response 4) corresponds to the latency stage (ages 6 to 12).

In a hierarchy of activities that are reinforced, a particular activity is reinforced by any activity above it in the hierarchy, and would also reinforce an activity below it. This model was developed by: • 1. Skinner. • 2. Premack. • 3. Tolman. • 4. Wolpe.

Answer 2! This question is addressing the Premack principle, which states that a frequently occurring activity (i.e., one that is high on the hierarchy) can be used to reinforced a low frequency activity (one that is lower on the hierarchy). This is an operant concept, and while Skinner (Response 1) is a proponent of operant conditioning, this particular model was developed by Premack. Tolman (Response 3) is associated with latent learning. Wolpe (Response 4) developed systematic desensitization, which is a technique based on classical conditioning.

For many people, mid-life is characterized by: • 1. an increasing preoccupation with death. • 2. a shift in perspective from "time since birth" to "time until death." • 3. a crisis in identity and values. • 4. no significant changes for people who are generally happy.

Answer 2! This question refers to Levinson's theory expressed in his book Seasons of a Man's Life. According to this theory, mid-life is characterized by an awareness of one's mortality, and the time that one has left to live. This is different from a preoccupation with death itself (Response 1), which a person of any age could experience. A crisis in identity and values may occur in mid-life, though this could also occur at another age as well (e.g., a crisis over one's sexual identity). Response 4 is incorrect; even happy people typically have concerns about getting older.

A fear is classically conditioned to a previously neutral stimulus. When the conditioned stimulus is paired with a second neutral stimulus, the person will experience: • 1. more fear as compared with both the unconditioned stimulus and the first neutral stimulus. • 2. less fear as compared with both the unconditioned stimulus and the first neutral stimulus. • 3. less fear as compared with the unconditioned stimulus and more fear as compared with the first neutral stimulus. • 4. no fear, since this is backward conditioning.

Answer 2! This scenario describes higher-order conditioning. In general, a conditioned response is of less intensity and magnitude than an unconditioned response. Furthermore, a higher-order conditioned response is of even less magnitude than the original conditioned response. This scenario does not describe backward conditioning, which involves presenting a US first, followed by the neutral stimulus (Response 4).

You have trouble learning Spanish in college because the French you learned in high school keeps coming to your mind. This phenomenon is known as: • 1. retroactive inhibition. • 2. proactive inhibition. • 3. memory decay. • 4. memory retrieval failure.

Answer 2! With proactive inhibition, prior learning interferes with new learning. With retroactive inhibition, recent learning interferes with older learning. Proactive inhibition is occurring because what you learned previously (French) is inhibiting your current learning (Spanish). Retroactive inhibition would be present if what you were learning now (Spanish) was interfering with what you had previously learned (French).

According to Herzberg's theory, which of the following factors is most likely to cause dissatisfaction? • 1. Lack of challenge on the job. • 2. Lack of satisfactory working relationships. • 3. Lack of recognition. • 4. Too much responsibility on the job.

Answer 2. According to Herzberg's Two Factor Theory, satisfactory working relationships would constitute a lower level need, which, if not met, would produce dissatisfaction. This theory proposes that there are different sources of satisfaction and dissatisfaction, and divides needs into upper and lower level needs. Lower level needs (job context factors) cause dissatisfaction if they are not met, and include such factors as pay, working conditions, or supervision. However, they do not lead to satisfaction if they are met. Responses 1, 3, and 4 all describe upper level needs (job content factors). Upper level needs include need for achievement, responsibility, and opportunity. When upper level needs are met, they result in satisfaction, but if they are not met, they do not cause dissatisfaction.

A female fetus that is exposed to large amounts of androgens is likely to experience: • 1. birth defects. • 2. mental retardation. • 3. exaggerated male characteristics. • 4. exaggerated female characteristics.

Answer 3! Androgens are male sex hormones (e.g., testosterone). A female fetus that is exposed to large amounts of androgens can be expected to end up with exaggerated male characteristics.

According to attribution theory, learned helplessness is most likely to result from attributions that are: • 1. specific, stable, external. • 2. specific, stable, internal. • 3. global, stable, internal. • 4. global, unstable, internal.

Answer 3! Attributional theory has contributed to our understanding of depression and learned helplessness. In learned helplessness, the individual experiences a pervasive sense of ineffectiveness in bringing about desired results. Research has demonstrated that the attribution of negative events to internal, stable, and global causes increases the likelihood of experiencing depression, helplessness, and hopelessness. An example of a global, stable, internal attribution would be telling oneself, "I'm always going to be a stupid loser" after having been rejected by a medical school.

The prevalence of obsessive-compulsive disorder in girls is: • 1. roughly equivalent to that of boys. • 2. slightly lower than that of boys. • 3. much lower than that of boys. • 4. slightly higher than that of boys.

Answer 3! Because OCD is almost equally common in men and women (in adulthood, females are slightly more commonly affected), most of us would guess that the prevalence rates would be equal in boys and girls (Response 1). As it turns out, males have an earlier age of onset of OCD than females, with nearly 25% of males having an onset before age 10. As a result, males are more commonly affected in childhood (Response 3, correct answer).

Child development literature supports the idea that most children are ready to begin toilet training by: • 1. 12 months. • 2. 18 months. • 3. 24 months. • 4. 30 months.

Answer 3! By age two, less than 1/3 of all children have completed toilet training. Most children are at least ready to begin toilet training at this age. According to some developmentalists, no attempt should be made to train children much younger than 24 months, because they usually do not have the muscle development necessary for bladder and bowel control.

In terms of suicide rates for adolescents: • 1. African American adolescents have higher rates of suicide than their Caucasians peers, and rates in both groups are on the rise. • 2. African American adolescents have higher rates of suicide than their Caucasians peers, and rates in both groups are on the decline. • 3. Caucasian adolescents have higher rates of suicide than their African American peers, and rates in both groups are on the rise. • 4. Caucasian adolescents have higher rates of suicide than their African American peers, and rates in both groups are on the decline.

Answer 3! Caucasians, at all age levels, have higher rates of suicide than African Americans. Unfortunately, suicide rates for adolescents have been steadily increasing in recent years.

A person's sleep is repeatedly interrupted at the onset of dream activity. This is likely to result in: • 1. an absence of dreaming on subsequent nights. • 2. resumption of normal dream activity on subsequent nights. • 3. an increase in dream activity on subsequent nights. • 4. a further reduction of dream activity on subsequent nights.

Answer 3! Following dream deprivation there is a rebound effect. On subsequent nights the person will have an increase in time spent dreaming.

Frame-of-reference (FOR) training is used to: • 1. reduce ratee-based sources of error. • 2. reduce the halo effect. • 3. improve the accuracy of performance ratings. • 4. eliminate unfair discrimination.

Answer 3! Frame-of-reference (FOR) training is used to improve the accuracy of performance ratings. FOR training provides raters with common performance standards (references) to help raters become clear on what constitutes "good" and "bad" behavior. This type of training also tends to improve agreement among raters. Such training may in fact reduce ratee-based sources of error (Response 1), such as personal biases and the halo effect (Response 2); it may also decrease the effect of biases that lead to unfair discrimination (Response 4), but the goal of FOR training is broader than the elimination of any one specific source of error.

Which of the following statements best represents George Kelly's Personal Construct Theory? • 1. People experience the world as unified meaningful wholes, not as affective or cognitive fragments. • 2. People tend to make dispositional explanations for the behavior of others, while they make situational explanations for their own behavior. • 3. People experience the world based on their anticipation of future events, which in turn is based on their past experience. • 4. People are motivated to change their thinking when they experience awareness of inconsistency among their constructs.

Answer 3! George Kelly is known for describing ordinary people as scientists, who are constantly forming, testing, and revising hypotheses about the world around them. His Personal Construct Theory is based on the fundamental postulate that "a person's processes are psychologically channelized by the ways in which he anticipates events," meaning that we perceive the world according to what we expect to see. According to Kelly, these expectations are based on our past experiences. As our experiences change, we revise our expectations. Gestalt theory posited that people experience the world in whole, not affective or cognitive fragments (Response 1). The tendency to attribute negative outcomes to dispositional factors in others, while attributing these same negative outcomes to situational factors in ourselves, defines the actor-observer bias (Response 2). Cognitive Dissonance theory posits that people change their attitudes to match their behavior because they experience dissonance when they become aware of inconsistencies among their cognitions (Response 4).

Which of the following disorders is autosomal dominant? • 1. Multiple sclerosis. • 2. Parkinson's disease. • 3. Huntington's disease. • 4. Tourette's disorder.

Answer 3! Huntington's disease (Response 3) is inherited as an autosomal dominant condition, resulting from a single, abnormal gene on one of the autosomal chromosomes (one of the first 22 "non-sex" chromosomes). When one parent has Huntington's disease, there is a 50% chance that each of the offspring will inherit the disorder. There is some evidence that both Tourette's disorder (Response 4) and Parkinson's disease (Response 2) have a genetic component, but further research needs to be done to determine the specific mechanisms of heredity. Multiple sclerosis (MS) is not a hereditary disease (ruling out Response 1), however, increasing scientific evidence suggests that genetics may play a role in determining a person's susceptibility to MS.

Research has demonstrated that cooperative learning classes: • 1. have generally not been found to be effective, and any gains tend to be short-lived. • 2. are effective for high ability students, and may or may not be effective for low ability students. • 3. are effective for low ability students, and may or may not be effective for high ability students. • 4. are effective for high ability students, but not for low ability students.

Answer 3! In cooperative learning classes, students of different ability levels and cultural backgrounds work together on completing assignments and projects. Research has demonstrated that these classes help low ability students improve their academic functioning, but it remains unclear whether these classes benefit high ability students. Cooperative learning programs have been found to be very effective in terms of reducing cultural biases and stereotypes.

Which of the following characterizes negative reinforcement? • 1. An aversive stimulus is applied after a behavior is emitted. • 2. An aversive stimulus is removed before the behavior is emitted. • 3. An aversive stimulus is removed after the behavior is emitted. • 4. A desirable stimulus is taken away after a behavior is emitted.

Answer 3! In negative reinforcement, a behavior increases as a result of the removal of an undesirable stimulus. In other words, the undesirable stimulus is removed only after the behavior is emitted, e.g., you nag your spouse until he takes out the trash and then you stop nagging. Response 1 describes positive punishment, or the application of an aversive stimulus in order to decrease behavior (e.g., spanking). Response 4 describes negative punishment, or the removal of a stimulus to decrease behavior (e.g., loss of privileges). Response 2 is incorrect because contingencies are always applied after the behavior is emitted, not before.

A therapist who is treating a client of a different cultural background should address the role of folk healers by: • 1. referring the client out to a folk healer. • 2. seeking consultation. • 3. involving the folk healer in treatment, as needed. • 4. focusing on research-based interventions.

Answer 3! In treating patients from a different cultural background, it is always important to understand the patient's world view, view of therapy, and what the patient believes is going to help him. If the person has experience with and believes in folk healers, it would be important to work with the folk healer, incorporating his role into the treatment plan. Referring the client out (Response 1) negates the importance of collaboration, and might deprive the patient of needed psychological services. Seeking consultation (Response 2) is frequently appropriate when dealing with clients from a different cultural background, however, this question is specifically asking about the role of folk healers. Focusing only on research-based interventions (Response 4) would have the effect of minimizing the role of the folk healer since there is not a large body of empirical literature regarding folk healing.

Indifference and euphoria suggest damage to: • 1. the frontal lobes. • 2. the temporal lobes. • 3. the right hemisphere. • 4. the left hemisphere.

Answer 3! Indifference and euphoria suggest right hemisphere damage. Other affective abnormalities that may result from right hemisphere damage include depression, hysteria, florid manic excitement, and impulsivity. The right hemisphere is also involved with perceptual, visuospatial, artistic, musical, and intuitive activities. The left hemisphere (Response 4) is responsible for language in most people. Damage to the left hemisphere typically results in difficulty with speech (comprehension or expression). The left hemisphere is also responsible for rational, logical, analytical and abstract thinking. The frontal lobes (Response 1) play a critical role in inhibition, planning and initiative, judgment, and higher mental functions (e.g., cognitive flexibility). The temporal lobes (Response 2) contain the primary auditory cortex. Along with several other attached brain structures (e.g., amygdala and hippocampus), the temporal lobes are involved in emotional behavior and memory.

Research on job enrichment has indicated that: • 1. it is preferred by all employees. • 2. it is preferred by managerial level employees only. • 3. it is preferred by employees high in growth need. • 4. results have been mixed regarding individual preferences.

Answer 3! Job enrichment, which involves increasing a worker's responsibilities, is not preferred by all employees. Those in favor of job enrichment tend to be high in growth-need, as well as knowledge and skill of their job. Job enrichment tends to result in increased satisfaction and performance, as well as decreased turnover and absenteeism.

A person with Klinefelter's syndrome: • 1. is a woman with an extra X chromosome. • 2. is a woman missing an X chromosome. • 3. is a man with an extra X chromosome. • 4. is a man with an extra Y chromosome.

Answer 3! Klinefelter's syndrome is a condition in which a mutation in the cell division process of one of the parent's gametes results in a male infant who has an extra X chromosome (XXY). The most common symptom of Klinefelter's syndrome is infertility. There may also be abnormal development of secondary sex characteristics such as less body hair, less muscle development or partial breast development. Response 1 describes a woman with Triple X Syndrome (XXX), which may result in infertility. Response 2 describes a woman with Turner's syndrome (XO), a chromosomal abnormality that may result in abnormal development of secondary sexual characteristics (e.g., no menstruation, no ovulation) and infertility. Response 4 describes a male with XYY syndrome, a rare abnormality that results in men that may be taller and may have behavioral problems or learning disabilities.

You are treating a patient who has insurance. There is a $25.00 co-payment per session. Your patient states it's difficult for her to afford the co-payment. Your most ethical course of action would be to: • 1. waive the co-payment. • 2. bill the insurance company for $25.00 less than your usual rate, and waive the co-payment. • 3. bill the insurance company your usual rate, and charge your patient the co-payment. • 4. terminate treatment.

Answer 3! None of these responses may be ideal, but Response 3 is the best of the choices given. You are not allowed to waive co-payments (Responses 1 and 2) because such a practice is equivalent to misrepresenting your fee and/or breaking your agreement with the insurance company. Terminating treatment (Response 4), without providing an appropriate referral, would constitute patient abandonment. It is sometimes acceptable to write off a patient's co-payments, but only if it is discussed beforehand with the insurance company and the insurance company agrees to your practice.

Which of the following statements regarding Organizational Development (OD) is not true? • 1. OD interventions are based on systems theory. • 2. OD interventions focus on relationships. • 3. OD interventions are designed to help employees adapt to unanticipated organizational changes. • 4. A goal of OD is increased performance.

Answer 3! Organizational development (OD) focuses on systematic ways to bring about planned change; its purpose is not to help employees adapt to unanticipated changes. OD uses a systems approach to organizational problems, and its interventions focus on total organizational change (Response 1). OD looks at such factors as communication, interaction, and team building, which address relationships among employees (Response 2). One goal of OD is increased task performance (Response 4). Other goals include improved decision-making, communication, and interactions among employees.

Studies on the nature of teachers' interactions with students have shown that: • 1. the teacher's gender has an impact on the nature of his or her interactions with students. • 2. the gender of both the teacher and the students influence their interactions. • 3. the gender of the students, but not that of the teacher, has an impact on the teacher's interactions with students. • 4. the impact of gender on teacher and student interactions is modified by age, with the gender of students having greater impact on interactions with younger children, and less impact on interactions with adolescents.

Answer 3! Overall, teacher gender has not been found to have a substantial impact on teachers' interaction with students (Responses 1 and 2). Instead, the gender of the students has been found to affect the interactions. Specifically, both male and female teachers generally interact more with male students than with female students. Much of these interactions, however, are negative or critical in tone.

The earliest age of operations is: • 1. 2 years. • 2. 4 years. • 3. 7 years. • 4. 11 years.

Answer 3! Piaget described four stages leading up to the capacity for adult thought: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational and formal operational. The concrete operational stage involves the beginning of organized and logical thought. The child acquires the ability to comprehend the principle of conservation and is able to order events in a logical sequence. However, the child can only think about actual physical (concrete) objects; they have not yet developed the capacity for abstract reasoning. The concrete operational stage typically occurs between the ages of 7 and 11 years (Response 3). The preoperational stage begins at about age 2 (Response 1), and the formal operational stage may begin at age 11 (Response 4).

Whenever a cat scratches the sofa, her owner claps her hands, and the cat then stops scratching the sofa. In this situation, the hand clapping is an example of: • 1. negative reinforcement. • 2. negative punishment. • 3. positive punishment. • 4. a discriminative stimulus.

Answer 3! Positive punishment occurs when an aversive stimulus is applied following the target behavior, which decreases the behavior. In this situation, hand clapping (an aversive stimulus) is applied, which stops the cat's scratching. In negative reinforcement, behavior increases as the result of the removal of an aversive stimulus (Response 1). In negative punishment, behavior decreases due to the removal of a desirable stimulus (Response 2). A discriminative stimulus signals whether reinforcement will occur (Response 4).

In weighting variables in a multiple regression equation, the researcher uses: • 1. factor analysis. • 2. covariance. • 3. line of best fit. • 4. multiple cutoff.

Answer 3! Regression or prediction equations are calculated based on the line of best fit. A scatter plot is graphed and then a straight line is made which best matches or fits the data, using a process called the least squares criterion. The equation for this line is then the regression equation. Factor analysis (Response 1) is not involved in multiple regression; it is the statistical analysis of the structure of a construct or test. Covariance (Response 2) means that two variables are correlated: they "covary" or vary together. Multiple cutoff (Response 4) describes a testing situation in which a subject must meet the cutoff on each subtest in order to pass the overall test.

When asked to attribute women's and men's performance on traditionally masculine and feminine tasks: • 1. women attributed females' performance to ability regardless of the type of task, while men attributed males' performance to ability regardless of the type of task. • 2. both women and men attributed males' performance on masculine tasks and females' performance on feminine tasks to ability, while attributing males' performance on feminine tasks and females' performance on masculine tasks to luck. • 3. women and men attributed males' success to ability regardless of the type of task, while they attributed females' success to ability on feminine tasks, and to luck on masculine tasks. • 4. women attributed females' success to ability regardless of the type of task, while men attributed males' success to ability on masculine tasks, and to luck on feminine tasks.

Answer 3! Research on sex role stereotypes has found that men are seen as more competent by both women and men. A study that looked at attributions found that the success of males was consistently attributed to ability regardless of the type of task, while the success of females was attributed to ability only on the traditionally female task, and to luck on the traditionally male task.

All of the following are sources of resilience, the ability to overcome adversity and lead a positive life, except: • 1. Sociability. • 2. Internal locus of control. • 3. A large immediate family. • 4. Support outside the family.

Answer 3! Resilience is defined as the ability to avoid negative outcomes despite being at risk for psychopathology (e.g., growing up in poverty). Research has found that resilience is largely linked to the resources and strengths of the individual, the family, the school and community. Resources of the individual include sociability (Response 1), good reasoning ability, autonomy, internal locus of control (Response 2). Familial factors contributing to resilience include structure, clear rules, and routine, as well as smaller family size and at least two years between siblings. Support outside the family (Response 4), such as a supportive neighbor, elder, relative, teacher, or clergy, is also a key contributing factor to resilience.

Group decision-making is most likely to be adversely affected by: • 1. social loafing and social inhibition. • 2. social comparison and deindividuation. • 3. response polarization and groupthink. • 4. risky shift and diffusion of responsibility.

Answer 3! Response polarization and groupthink are two factors that can negatively impact group decision-making. Response polarization, also known as group polarization, describes the tendency for people in groups to become more extreme in their views. As a result, group members tend to make decisions that are more extreme than they would if they were on their own. Groupthink occurs in highly cohesive groups when group members seek unanimity, ignoring important information and suspending individual critical thinking. Response 4 is incorrect because while risky shift is relevant to group decision-making, diffusion of responsibility is not. Risky shift describes the process whereby a group makes riskier decisions in comparison with decisions made by the individual members. Diffusion of responsibility is the tendency to assume that someone else will respond to a situation and take action. Responses 1 and 2 are incorrect because they contain concepts that do not apply to group decision-making. Social loafing refers to the tendency to work less hard on a task when one is in a group, and occurs when people perceive that their individual efforts will not be subject to individual evaluation. Social inhibition occurs when task performance is compromised by the presence of others. Social comparison describes the tendency of people to evaluate their own actions or beliefs by comparing them with the actions and beliefs of others. Deindividuation refers to the process of suspending one's private self-identity and adopting the identity of a group, resulting in decreased self-awareness and self-regulation.

Which of the following statements best summarizes a psychologist's responsibility when using animals in research? • 1. Psychologists ensure the humane treatment of animals and not subject them to pain or death. • 2. Psychologists may only use animals in research when alternative methods are unavailable and it is justified by the prospective value of the research. • 3. Psychologists must ensure the humane treatment of animals and only subject them to pain or death if alternative methods are unavailable and it is justified by the prospective value of the research. • 4. Psychologists must make reasonable efforts to minimize the pain and discomfort of animals.

Answer 3! Section 8.09 of the APA's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct (2002) describes several responsibilities of psychologists when using animals in research. Psychologists must ensure than animals are treated humanely. Animals may be subjected to pain, stress and even death (ruling out Response 1) but only under two conditions: 1) alternative methods are not available; and 2) the pain is justified by the prospective value of the research. These conditions are not the requirements for using animals in general (ruling out Response 2). It is true that reasonable efforts must be made to minimize the pain and discomfort of animals (Response 4), however, this requirement is not the best summary of a psychologist's overall responsibilities.

Solution-focused family therapy emphasizes: • 1. ratio of costs and benefits. • 2. re-storying and unique outcomes. • 3. the miracle question, the exception question, and the scaling question. • 4. positive connotation and circular questioning.

Answer 3! Solution-focused family therapy is a "post-modern" family therapy developed by Steve de Shazer and his colleagues. A strength-based approach, it encourages patients to recognize solutions that have worked in the past or are likely to work. It is noted for its use of the miracle question ("Suppose one night, while you were asleep, there was a miracle and this problem was solved. How would you know? What would be different?"), the exception question (i.e., focusing attention on times the patient did not have the problem), and the scaling question ("On a scale of zero to ten, with zero being how depressed you felt when you called me, and ten being how you will feel the day after the miracle, how do you feel right now?"). Richard Stuart, one of the pioneers of marital behavior therapy, developed an approach that combines operant learning principles with social exchange theory. According to the social exchange model, behavior in relationships is maintained by its ratio of costs and benefits (Response 1). Narrative therapy, developed by Michael White, makes use of re-storying and unique outcomes (Response 2). Positive connotation and circular questioning (Response 4) are most characteristic of the Milan group.

In a research study, low power is most directly associated with: • 1. low alpha. • 2. low beta. • 3. less likelihood of significance. • 4. less reliability.

Answer 3! Statistical power is the ability to find significance in research. When research lacks power, there is less likelihood of finding significance. Factors that increase power include increasing sample size, increasing the magnitude of the intervention (e.g., treating subject for six months rather than six days), minimizing error, and using a parametric (e.g., t-test, ANOVA) and one-tailed test. Power is also affected by alpha level and reliability; lower alpha (Response 1) results in less power, and less reliability of the measurement instruments (Response 4) results in increased error and decreased power. Nevertheless, power has the clearest link with likelihood of finding significance (Response 3). Beta (Response 2) has an inverse relationship with power; thus low power is associated with high beta error.

The 2002 APA Ethics Code defines a multiple relationship as occurring when a psychologist is in a professional role with a person and: • 1. enters into a conflicting role with the same person. • 2. enters into another role with the same person that may impair the psychologist's objectivity or risks exploitation. • 3. is in another role with the same person. • 4. enters into a social relationship with the same person.

Answer 3! The 2002 APA Ethics Code defines a multiple relationship as follows: "A multiple relationship occurs when a psychologist is in a professional role with a person and (1) at the same is in another role with the same person..." (The Code goes on to include entering into a relationship with someone closely related to the patient or promising to enter into a future relationship with the patient or someone closely associated.) Not only social relationships constitute multiple relationships (Response 4); a business relationship with a patient would also be a multiple relationship. The Code explicitly states that multiple relationships are not inherently unethical. Unethical multiple relationships are defined as those that impair objectivity (as well as competence and effectiveness) or that risk exploitation or harm (Response 2). The issue of conflicting roles (e.g., a family therapist and a witness for one party in a divorce proceeding) is different from the issue of multiple relationships (Response 1).

You are treating a woman, who, subsequent to a divorce is feeling suicidal, yet she can no longer afford therapy. Your best course of action would be to: • 1. continue treatment, and terminate in one to two months. • 2. continue treatment at no charge with the understanding that she will pay for all unpaid sessions when she can afford to do so. • 3. continue treatment until an appropriate referral can be made. • 4. continue treatment pro bono for as long as is needed.

Answer 3! The APA Ethics Code states that psychologists may not abandon patients. Continuing for one to two months and then terminating without taking steps to ensure further treatment if necessary (Response 1), would constitute patient abandonment. It is generally not in the best interests of a patient to run up a very large unpaid bill (Response 2), nor are psychologists obligated to see patients who cannot pay pro bono (Response 4). The best course of action would be to continue treatment and make an appropriate referral as soon as possible.

You have been asked to administer an MMPI-2 to a client. The validity results include a high L, low F, and high K. The client is most likely: • 1. a claimant in a malpractice suit. • 2. a patient with schizophrenia. • 3. a job applicant. • 4. a professional (e.g., lawyer, doctor).

Answer 3! The MMPI-2 validity scales reflect test-taking approach. An elevation on Scale L indicates a naïve attempt to look good. An elevation on Scale K reflects guardedness or defensiveness, also an attempt to look good. A low score on Scale F suggests a lack of distress or pathology. This combination of validity scales is sometimes referred to as "faking good." This validity profile might occur in the case of a job applicant (Response 3) who wants to make a good impression on a prospective employer by overemphasizing positive traits and denying negative ones. Elevations of Scale F reflect pathology or an attempt to present in a negative light. Thus, a claimant in a malpractice suit (Response 1), or a patient with schizophrenia (Response 2) would likely present with high scores on scale F, and low scores on scales L and K. There is no prototypical validity profile for professionals (Response 4).

A problem with the WISC-IV for assessing giftedness in children is its: • 1. high ceiling. • 2. high floor. • 3. low ceiling. • 4. low floor.

Answer 3! The WISC-IV has a low ceiling, with a maximum possible IQ score of about 150 (about 3 standard deviations above the mean), thus limiting its effectiveness in assessing giftedness in children. In assessing giftedness, one would use the Stanford-Binet, which has a high ceiling of about 180. The WISC-IV also has a high floor, or a minimum possible score of about 50 (about 3 standard deviations below the mean). As a result, this test cannot provide an accurate assessment of the level of Mental Retardation in someone with this disorder. As with giftedness, the Stanford-Binet would be used to assess mental retardation, because its floor is much lower.

Which of the following is most likely to be the correlation of the IQ scores of two sisters? • 1. .10. • 2. .25. • 3. .50. • 4. .75.

Answer 3! The correlation of IQ scores for siblings reared together is about .50. For siblings reared apart, the correlation drops to approximately .25 (Response 2). The correlation for identical twins is about .75 (Response 4). The correlation of IQ scores of parent and child is between .40 and .45.

What is most essential in Beck's Cognitive Behavioral Therapy? • 1. Hypothesis testing. • 2. Modifying behavioral contingencies. • 3. Collaborative empiricism. • 4. The ABC model.

Answer 3! The fundamental process underlying Beck's Cognitive Behavioral Therapy is collaborative empiricism. In collaborative empiricism (Response 3), the therapist encourages the patient to maintain an open mind and take a rational approach to thoughts and beliefs using principles of logic and the scientific method. One belief-testing strategy is hypothesis testing (Response 1), in which the patient tries to see if a belief (the hypothesis) is true by testing its validity in the real world; however, this is only part of collaborative empiricism. Other collaborative strategies include: guided discovery, supporting through evidence, and looking for alternative theories. The process of modifying behavioral contingencies (Response 2) is a cornerstone of operant conditioning. The ABC model (Response 4) is a key component of Albert Ellis's theory (Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy) of how behaviors are related to cognitions. According to Ellis first there is the activating event (A), then there is the belief (B) or interpretation of the event, and finally there is a consequence (C) in terms of an emotional or behavioral reaction to the belief.

A man exhibits shallow emotionality, dysphoria when not the focus of attention, dramatic speech, and eccentric appearance. In addition, he has many acquaintances but few close friends. These symptoms are most suggestive of: • 1. borderline personality disorder. • 2. narcissistic personality disorder. • 3. histrionic personality disorder. • 4. schizotypal personality disorder.

Answer 3! The hallmark of histrionic personality disorder is excessive emotionality and attention-seeking, involving discomfort when not the center of attention, sexually seductive/provocative behavior, rapidly shifting and shallow expressions of emotion, use of physical appearance to draw attention, speaking dramatically but without substance, and exaggerating emotion (Response 3). Borderline personality disorder (Response 1) is characterized by instability in the areas of mood, interpersonal relationships, and self-image, as well as significant impulsivity. Although this disorder can also involve attention seeking, its hallmarks are instability and impulsivity, neither of which is prominent in this scenario. Narcissistic personality disorder (Response 2) is characterized by a pattern of grandiosity, need for admiration, and lack of empathy. Persons with narcissistic personality disorder seek admiration, whereas persons with histrionic personality disorder seek attention, even attention based on their weaknesses. Schizotypal personality disorder (Response 4) involves deficits in interpersonal functioning marked by discomfort with and reduced capacity for close relationships, as well as by peculiarities in cognition, ideation, appearance, and behavior.

The most common cause of intellectual disability is: • 1. problems in the fetal period. • 2. heredity. • 3. problems in embryonic period. • 4. perinatal and birth problems.

Answer 3! The most common cause of intellectual disability is alterations during the embryonic stage of development, which corresponds to the period from 3 weeks to 8 weeks after conception (Response 3, correct answer). Problems during the embryonic stage include chromosomal abnormalities (e.g., Down syndrome) or damage due to toxins (e.g., maternal alcohol consumption or infections). The fetal period (Response 1) is from the 9th week after conception until birth. The perinatal period, which overlaps somewhat with the fetal period, is from 22 weeks of competed gestation to 7 days after birth. Problems of pregnancy and the perinatal period (Response 4) include fetal malnutrition, hypoxia, infection, trauma, or prematurity. Heredity (Response 2) accounts for a small percentage of cases of intellectual disability.

Damage to the parietal lobe would most likely result in problems with: • 1. vision. • 2. hearing. • 3. touch. • 4. executive functions.

Answer 3! The parietal lobes are involved with somatosensory processing, including light touch, pain, temperature, and proprioception. The primary visual cortex (Response 1) is in the occipital lobe. The primary auditory cortex (Response 2) is in the temporal lobe. Executive functions (Response 4) such as judgment and planning are associated with the frontal lobes.

In studies looking at children who have witnessed domestic violence (yet were not themselves abused) and children who were abused, researchers have found that: • 1. children who witnessed domestic violence but were not abused were less likely to be depressed. • 2. children who witnessed domestic violence but were not abused were more likely to be anxious. • 3. children who witnessed domestic violence but were not abused were equally likely to exhibit aggressive or delinquent behavior. • 4. children who were abused were more likely to become victims of violence later in life.

Answer 3! The preponderance of research has found that either witnessing domestic abuse or being the victim of abuse has similar negative impact on children. Either experience results in higher rates of aggressive and delinquent behavior (Response 3) when compared with children in nonviolent homes, predisposes children to developing depression and/or anxiety (ruling out Responses 1 and 2), and predisposes children to being victimized later in life (ruling out Response 4).

A CEO is confronted by the need to reduce his company's budget deficit. He is following the rational-economic model, also known as classical decision theory, if he: • 1. adopts a "satisficing" style. • 2. implements the first proposal that is adequate. • 3. examines all possible solutions before choosing one. • 4. relies on the principles of scientific management.

Answer 3! The rational-economic model, also known as classical decision theory, involves exhaustively compiling all relevant information, investigating all possible solutions, and choosing the very best one. Not surprisingly, it is rarely implemented because of practical limitations of time and information-gathering. Responses 1 and 2 characterize the administrative model of decision making, also known as behavioral decision theory, which was developed by Herbert Simon. This model is based on a recognition of real-life limits. Response 4 does not apply here. Scientific management was an approach used in the early 1900s to increase workers' productivity and efficiency.

When a worker enjoys the type of work that he does, one would most likely expect to see: • 1. increased work quantity. • 2. improved work quality. • 3. decreased tardiness and missed days. • 4. improved working relationships.

Answer 3! The research has shown that there is a moderate negative relationship between satisfaction and absenteeism and turnover (-.40); that is, when satisfaction is high, absenteeism is low. In this question, the worker enjoys his work, or is satisfied with it, therefore, you can expect that he will be absent or late less often. Work quantity and quality (Responses 1 and 2) are measures of work performance. The relationship between satisfaction and performance is weak (.17) and smaller than that between satisfaction and absenteeism and tardiness. Even though a worker who is happy with his job may indeed have good peer relationships (Response 4), improved peer relationships is not the variable most strongly correlated with job satisfaction.

The research on Gay and Lesbian parents has found that their children have: • 1. slight but significant increases in adjustment difficulties and lower rates of homosexual identity. • 2. no significant differences in adjustment level and higher rates of homosexual identity. • 3. no significant differences in adjustment level and equivalent rates of heterosexual identity. • 4. fewer adjustment problems and lower rates of homosexual identity.

Answer 3! The research on Gay and Lesbian parents has found that their children are as well adjusted as children raised by heterosexual parents. The children have rates of homosexuality equivalent to that of the general population (some say 5% - 10%).

Which of the following is an illustration of the self-serving bias? • 1. Mike believes that he failed the biology exam because the test was hard, but Mary failed the exam because she has never been good at biology. • 2. Mike believes that he passed the algebra exam because he is good at algebra, but Mary failed the exam because she does not know much about algebra. • 3. Mike believes that he failed the biology exam because the test was hard, but he passed the algebra exam because he is good at algebra. • 4. Mike believes that he failed the biology exam because he has never been good at biology, but passed the algebra exam because the test was easy.

Answer 3! The self-serving bias proposes that we attribute our successes to internal factors, while we attribute our failures to external or situational factors. In Response 3, Mike attributes his success on the algebra test to his knowledge of algebra, an internal factor, meanwhile attributing his failure on the biology test to the test's difficulty, an external or situational factor. Response 4 is the opposite of the self-serving bias: Mike attributes his failure to internal factors and his success to situational factors. The self-serving bias only deals with the attributions a person makes about himself; Response 1 and 2 involve attributions for the actions of others.

The parents of your nine-year-old client report that their daughter has a major illness, one which is not known to her pediatrician but which could affect her treatment with you. What would be the most appropriate course of action? • 1. Tell the parents that they must inform the pediatrician about her illness. • 2. Notify the pediatrician. • 3. Obtain a release of information and talk to the pediatrician. • 4. Tell the parents you cannot provide any further treatment unless the girl gets treatment for her condition.

Answer 3! The very best course of action would be to explore with the parents why they have not told the pediatrician about their daughter's illness, and to discuss with them why it would be beneficial to inform the pediatrician about her condition. Unfortunately, this answer is not one of the responses provided. Of the responses provided, the best is Response 3, obtaining the parents' permission to talk to the pediatrician. It is generally inadvisable to tell clients or parents of clients what they must do (Response 1). Notifying the pediatrician (Response 2) without a release of information would be a breach of confidentiality. Since there is no indication of an immediate danger (e.g., child abuse or suicidality), such a breach of confidentiality would not be warranted. Refusing to provide further treatment (Response 4) would constitute abandonment, and would not be in the best interest of the child.

You are asked by the court to conduct a custody evaluation for a nine-year-old child. The mother agrees to participate but the father declines. Your best course of action would be to: • 1. conduct an evaluation with custody recommendations, based on the data of the participating parent only. • 2. conduct an evaluation and report on the information gathered, but do not make any custody recommendations. • 3. conduct an evaluation with custody recommendations, stating the limitations of the data. • 4. refuse to conduct a custody evaluation if all parties cannot be evaluated.

Answer 3! There is still some controversy about whether psychologists should ever make custody recommendations or whether they should simply report findings. Current APA guidelines permit making recommendations, if "they are derived from sound psychological data" and are "based on the best interests of the child in the particular case." A custody evaluation can be conducted even if one parent refuses or is unavailable (ruling out Response 4). Data about that parent can be included, for example that he has been convicted of murder or that the child cries and asks not to see him. However, no conclusions about that parent's psychological functioning may be made if that parent has not been personally evaluated. Recommendations can still be made (ruling out Response 2), for example, that the mother should receive custody because she is a fit mother, the child is scared of being with the father, and the child needs a stable environment. The data of one participating parent (Response 1) is never sufficient for a custody evaluation. Multiple methods of data gathering are required, typically including evaluations of the parent, the child, observation of their interactions, and record review.

Which of the following would most likely reduce subsequent hospitalizations for patients with schizophrenia? • 1. Removal of the patient from the family and placement in a structured environment. • 2. Employment for the patient. • 3. Improvement in communication within the family. • 4. Ongoing support for family members.

Answer 3! This question is referring to the phenomenon of expressed emotion (EE) and its relationship to mental illness. Research has found that a high level of EE in families tends to result in greater incidence of relapse in cases of schizophrenia. EE is manifested by a critical, hostile and emotionally over-involved communication style between family members. While it may seem that removal from such a family (Response 1) might be helpful, it would be better to help family members develop a more supportive communication style so the patient can benefit from the positive aspects of family involvement. While ongoing support for family members (Response 4) is generally recommended when patients suffer from chronic mental illness, family support, in and of itself does not reduce relapse rate. Employment (Response 2) is a very good predictor of prognosis (outcome), yet employment does not reduce further hospitalizations.

A graduate student is conducting intelligence testing on ten subjects. Prior to the testing, the graduate student chooses five subjects at random, and tells each of them she believes he or she is gifted. These examinees perform significantly better overall than examinees who are not given this information. This is an example of: • 1. the Zeigarnik effect. • 2. the Hawthorne effect. • 3. the Rosenthal effect. • 4. the halo effect.

Answer 3! This scenario describes the Rosenthal effect, otherwise known as the self-fulfilling prophecy. It is analogous to experimenter expectancy, in that expectations are communicated to subjects about how they should perform, and these expectations do, in fact, influence the examinees' performance. The Zeigarnik effect (Response 1) refers to the tendency for people to return to unfinished activities, striving for closure to obtain a sense of completion. The Hawthorne effect (Response 2) refers to the tendency for people to improve their performance when they are aware they are being studied or observed. The halo effect (Response 4) is a bias that occurs when a person generalizes from one aspect of a person (e.g., the person is attractive) to other aspects (e.g., the person is smart).

In a 4 x 2 Chi Square with a sample size of 120, the expected frequency in each cell would be: • 1. 8. • 2. 10. • 3. 15. • 4. 20.

Answer 3! To determine the expected frequency in each cell in a Chi Square, you must first calculate the total number of cells. This can be done easily by multiplying the number of rows and columns (4 x 2 = 8). You then divide the total number in the sample by the number of cells (120/8 = 15).

A psychologist would like to conduct a case study on a woman who is institutionalized and has a conservator. Before conducting the study, the psychologist must: • 1. get the consent of the conservator and explain the nature of the research to the patient. • 2. get the consent of the conservator and assent from the institution. • 3. get the consent of the conservator and the patient's assent. • 4. get consent from the patient and the conservator's assent.

Answer 3! When a person does not have the legal capacity to give informed consent, as is the case with someone on conservatorship, the psychologist must obtain consent from the legal guardian and assent from the patient. Response 4 is inaccurate because the patient lacks the legal capacity necessary for informed consent. Responses 1 and 2 are incomplete since they do not include obtaining the patient's assent. Response 2 is also incorrect because the researcher would not obtain assent from the institution but rather permission. "Assent" is a specific term used when people who lack legal capacity agree to therapy or participation in research.

The ability to hold onto small amounts of information while performing various cognitive tasks is a function of: • 1. explicit memory. • 2. implicit memory. • 3. working memory. • 4. episodic memory.

Answer 3! Working memory, a form of short-term memory, is involved with the temporary storage of information in the context of performing a goal-directed task. The digits backward portion of the Digit Span subtest of the WAIS-IV requires working memory. Explicit memory (Response 1), also known as declarative memory, involves conscious recollection of information or knowledge. Implicit memory (Response 2), or procedural memory, describes the recollection of skills and physical operations that can be remembered without conscious effort. Episodic memory (Response 4) refers to the capacity to recall autobiographical events.

A hypothetical research study has demonstrated that smoking behavior is correlated with socioeconomic status, lower SES being linked to higher levels of smoking. However, this relationship depends on age: the link between SES and smoking is highest among older persons and much less strong among young persons. When education is factored in, the correlation between smoking and SES goes down to close to 0.0. In this hypothetical example, education acts as: • 1. an independent variable. • 2. a dependent variable. • 3. a moderator variable. • 4. a mediator variable.

Answer 4! A basic correlation is between a predictor variable and a criterion variable (this type of correlation is termed zero-order correlation). Here, the predictor is SES (sometimes termed independent variable, Response 1). The criterion is smoking (sometimes termed dependent variable, Response 2). Now it gets tricky. If this correlation between SES and smoking is weak when people are young and stronger when people are older, clearly "age" is a variable that affects the strength of the correlation. This type of variable is termed "moderator" (Response 3) and is defined as a variable that influences the strength of the relationship between two other variables (here, SES and smoking). A mediator variable (Response 4) explains why there is a relationship between the predictor and the criterion. For example, education explains the link between SES and smoking. The way to identify a mediator is that when you control for the effect of the mediator (in this case education) the relationship between the IV and the DV (in this case SES and smoking) goes down to close to 0.0.

A Jacksonian Seizure is: • 1. a petit mal seizure. • 2. a complex partial seizure. • 3. a tonic/clonic seizure. • 4. a simple partial seizure.

Answer 4! A simple partial seizure begins focally in one hemisphere and does not impair the level of consciousness. This type of seizure may involve virtually any brain function (e.g., jerking of an extremity, abnormal sensation in one part of the body, a feeling of deja-vu, etc.). A Jacksonian Seizure is a type of simple partial seizure (Response 4) where there is a brief alteration in movement, sensation or nerve function that starts in one part of the body, then spreads to another, oftentimes beginning in an extremity and "marching" up the limb. A simple partial seizure is differentiated from a complex partial seizure (Response 2) in that the latter involves either a pronounced change in consciousness or outright loss of consciousness in addition to the other disruptions described. A tonic/clonic or grand mal seizure (Response 3), a type of generalized seizure, involves a tonic stage, which is characterized by continuous tension or contraction, followed by a clonic stage of rapid, involuntary, alternating muscular contractions, and relaxation. A petit mal seizure (Response 1), also considered to be a generalized seizure, is characterized by a brief change in the level of consciousness, a transitional period of twitching or eye-rolling and a return to normal functioning.

According to classical conditioning an attitude could be considered: • 1. an unconditioned stimulus. • 2. an unconditioned response. • 3. a conditioned stimulus. • 4. a conditioned response.

Answer 4! An attitude, such as prejudice toward Gays and Lesbians, is a response that is conditioned over time. It is not automatic and unconditioned. Nor is it universal as most unconditioned responses are (i.e., everyone experiences pain when shocked but everyone doesn't have the same attitude toward Gays and Lesbians).

A child's guardian contacts you and requests an evaluation for the child. In this situation, you can evaluate the child: • 1. after you have obtained permission from the court. • 2. only if the guardian has full custody of the child. • 3. only after you have obtained permission from one or both biological parents. • 4. after having obtained the guardian's consent.

Answer 4! Appointed by the court, a guardian is given custody of a child and assumes responsibility for the child's welfare. Here, the psychologist can evaluate the child based on the guardian's request, provided that the psychologist obtains the guardian's informed consent and the child's assent. There is no need to obtain permission from the court (Response 1) or from the biological parents (Response 3). The guardian, by definition, has custody of the child (Response 2).

After two weeks of seeing a new client, a psychologist realizes that they are both taking the same exercise class at a health club. What would be the psychologist's wisest course of action? • 1. Provide an appropriate referral and terminate therapy. • 2. Continue in the exercise class as long as she discusses the situation with the patient. • 3. Discuss the situation with the patient and make a decision based on the outcome of the discussion. • 4. Stop attending the exercise class.

Answer 4! Attending the same exercise class as a patient constitutes a multiple relationship. The APA Ethics Code permits multiple relationships as long as they are not "harmful multiple relationships," that is, as long as they don't impair effectiveness or risk exploitation. It could be argued that this situation does not present a harmful multiple relationship, and that from a strictly ethical point of view, the psychologist would be permitted to remain in the class. Nevertheless, most psychologists would consider that there is no pressing reason to be in the same exercise class and risk potential clinical complications. Terminating therapy (Response 1) is incorrect because it is clearly not in the best interest of the patient.

A client who works for the U.S. Postal Service reports significant conflict at work. He says, "I'm fed up with being mistreated, and plan to kill my boss at work." You should: • 1. attempt to deescalate the situation, and uphold confidentiality since the client-therapist relationship will otherwise be violated. • 2. report this threat to the police. • 3. report this threat to the police and his boss. • 4. report this threat to the police, his boss, and the postmaster.

Answer 4! Based on the Tarasoff ruling, the therapist has the duty to warn when the therapist hears a threat made directly by the therapist's client toward a reasonably identifiable victim. The therapist is required not only to notify the police (Response 2), but the intended victim as well (Response 3). In this scenario, however, an additional requirement applies. Whenever it is foreseeable that other people may be harmed in the course of the client's action, the other people must also be warned. Here, because the person is threatening to kill someone at the post office, the postmaster must be notified. The ethical obligation and legal requirement to prevent harm takes priority over confidentiality in such a situation (Response 1).

A physician would be likely to take the greatest care in prescribing a tricyclic antidepressant to someone with: • 1. schizophrenia. • 2. panic disorder. • 3. chronic pain. • 4. bipolar disorder.

Answer 4! Both panic disorder (Response 2) and chronic pain problems (Response 3) may be treated prophylactically with tricyclic antidepressants. There is little concern in prescribing a tricyclic antidepressant to someone who has schizophrenia (Response 1) and is depressed. The most significant concern in prescribing a tricyclic antidepressant is for someone who has bipolar disorder, because a tricyclic can potentially trigger a manic episode. There is need for caution with the SSRIs and MAOIs as well; these antidepressants can also potentially trigger a manic episode in someone with bipolar disorder.

Bradycardia is to tachycardia as: • 1. anterior is to posterior. • 2. posterior is to anterior. • 3. fast is to slow. • 4. slow is to fast.

Answer 4! Bradycardia refers to slow heart beat, whereas tachycardia refers to rapid heart beat. The prefix "brady" is also seen in the word bradykinesia, which means slowed movements.

The current trend in organizations is toward: • 1. hierarchical organizational structure and increasing centralization. • 2. multidimensional organizational structure and increasing centralization. • 3. hierarchical organizational structure and decreasing centralization. • 4. multidimensional organizational structure and decreasing centralization.

Answer 4! Centralized communication networks (Responses 1 and 2) are like a wheel or a chain, with one person in the middle who gets all the information. In decentralized communication networks, all members communicate with one another. Overall, the management trend is toward more decentralization. There are four common organizational structures: 1) traditional, also known as hierarchical, is the typical bureaucracy; 2) project, is centered on specific products or services; 3) team, is centered on work teams or groups that report to upper level managers; and 4) multidimensional, which involves more than one type of structure (e.g., both traditional and team). Overall, the trend is away from traditional organizational structure and toward broadly sharing authority and decision-making power.

In the course of an interview, a 45-year-old woman reports a history of alcohol use disorder beginning in her early adolescence. She then coherently describes in elaborate detail having met you in the past, an event that never occurred. The most likely explanation for her behavior is: • 1. malingering. • 2. retrograde amnesia. • 3. delusional beliefs. • 4. confabulation.

Answer 4! Confabulation, or recitation of fabricated or imagined information, occurs when a person attempts to fill in memory gaps. It is believed that the amnesia common in Korsakoff's syndrome leads to confabulation. The person with Korsakoff's is typically unaware of the memory defect, and shows no concern when it is pointed out. A delusion (Response 4) is a false belief that is firmly held despite evidence to the contrary. Malingering (Response 1) is the feigning of symptoms in order to obtain an external reward. There is no indication of malingering here. Retrograde amnesia (Response 2) involves forgetting information that occurred before a particular event or point in time. If the woman had known you in the past and forgotten, that would suggest retrograde amnesia.

The distinction between episodic and semantic memory involves the difference between memory for: • 1. recent and remote events. • 2. personally meaningful and non-meaningful events. • 3. implicit and explicit memory. • 4. temporally distinct events and knowledge of the world in general.

Answer 4! Episodic memory refers to the capacity to recall autobiographical events, or the time and place that a specific, temporally distinct event occurred. By contrast, semantic memory is memory for facts, and how facts relate to each other. Implicit memory (or procedural memory) is memory for skills and physical operations that don't require conscious awareness; explicit memory involves consciously recollecting information (Response 3).

A psychologist administers an MMPI to a patient, then sends the MMPI to a test scoring and interpretation service. Her patient complains about the report, and it is later revealed that the report was actually based on another person's MMPI results. Primary responsibility for the inaccurate interpretations and evaluations made in the report falls with: • 1. the publishing company. • 2. the test scoring and interpretation service. • 3. the employee at the scoring and interpretation service who mixed up the two patients' MMPI data. • 4. the psychologist who wrote up the report.

Answer 4! Ethics guidelines state that psychologists retain ultimate responsibility for the use and interpretation of assessment instruments, regardless of whether they score and interpret the tests themselves or whether they use interpretation services (Response 4). Therefore, neither the company who scores the report (Response 2) nor its employees (Response 3) are primarily responsible for the inaccurate assessment report. The company that publishes the MMPI (Response 1) would have no responsibility whatsoever in this situation.

What differentiates higher-order conditioning from stimulus generalization? • 1. Stimulus generalization involves generalizing from the US to other similar stimuli. • 2. Higher-order conditioning involves pairing the US with a neutral stimulus. • 3. Stimulus generalization involves making different responses to the same stimulus. • 4. Higher-order conditioning involves pairing the CS with a neutral stimulus.

Answer 4! Higher-order conditioning involves the deliberate pairing of a conditioned stimulus (CS) with a new neutral stimulus, one that is typically unrelated. Stimulus generalization involves generalizing from the CS to other neutral stimuli that are similar. Response 1 is incorrect, because stimulus generalization involves generalizing to other stimuli from the CS, not the US. Response 2 is incorrect, since higher-order conditioning does not involve the US; rather, the pairing involves the CS. Response 3 describes response generalization (an operant concept), not stimulus generalization.

A psychologist in private practice is sued for negligence by the spouse of a patient who committed suicide two weeks after being released from an involuntary hospitalization. Hindsight bias by jury members would likely result in a decision that the psychologist: • 1. is not guilty of negligence as the psychologist took reasonable steps to protect the patient by having the patient involuntarily hospitalized. • 2. is not guilty of negligence because releasing the patient was not the psychologist's decision. • 3. is guilty of negligence because the patient did commit suicide. • 4. is guilty of negligence because the psychologist did not do enough to prevent the patient from committing suicide.

Answer 4! Hindsight bias is the tendency to see events that occurred as having been more predictable than they in fact were before they occurred. In other words, given that the patient did commit suicide, hindsight bias would lead a jury to conclude that the psychologist should have known, and thus did not do enough to prevent the patient from committing suicide.

The key aspect in constructing a test to be used for aid in diagnosis is: • 1. standardization. • 2. reliability. • 3. generalizability. • 4. validity.

Answer 4! If a test is created to aid in diagnosis (e.g., the MCMI), the most critical aspect would be whether the test is valid; whether it is measuring what it is supposed to be measuring. Of course, the test would have to be reliable (Response 2), but that would not be sufficient. Standardization (Response 1) and generalizability (Response 3) are also important, but neither one is as critical as validity.

Which of the following experiments could not be repeated today because of ethical concerns? • 1. Sherif's study of the autokinetic effect. • 2. Festinger and Carlsmith's experiment on the cognitive consequences of forced compliance. • 3. Schacter and Singer's epinephrine study. • 4. The Stanford Prison Experiment.

Answer 4! In Zimbardo's Stanford Prison Experiment, college students took on the roles of prisoners and prison guards. The experiment had to be stopped mid-way because the "prisoners" were becoming depressed and the "prison guards" were exhibiting sadistic behavior. Because the experiment caused significant distress and harm, it could not be repeated today. Indeed, had the standards of today's human subject committees been applied to this experiment, it would not have been approved in the first place. Lesser known aspects of this study include the fact that, without being informed or consenting ahead of time, the college students who were to be prisoners were arrested at their homes in view of their neighbors who did not know that the arrest was just part of a role play. Sherif's study of the autokinetic effect (Response 1) investigated conformity behavior. Festinger and Carlsmith studied cognitive dissonance (Response 2); this experiment is one of the most-cited in social psychology research. Subjects participated in a very boring task, received either $1 or $20, and were asked to tell subsequent participants (actually experimental confederates) that the task was interesting. In Schacter and Singer's epinephrine study (Response 3) they looked at the cognitive, social, and physiological determinants of emotional state. In this study subjects received injections of epinephrine and were either informed accurately, inaccurately, or given no information about the effects of the epinephrine.

Which of the following accurately describes the difference between bipolar I disorder with psychotic features and schizoaffective disorder? • 1. Bipolar I disorder with psychotic features is characterized by mood and psychotic symptoms that occur simultaneously, whereas in schizoaffective disorder, mood symptoms alternate with psychotic symptoms. • 2. Bipolar I disorder with psychotic features involves manic episodes with psychotic symptoms, while schizoaffective disorder involves either manic or depressive episodes with psychotic symptoms. • 3. Bipolar I disorder with psychotic features involves psychotic symptoms superimposed on mood symptoms, while schizoaffective disorder involves a distinct period of mood symptoms without psychotic symptoms. • 4. Bipolar I disorder with psychotic features involves psychotic symptoms superimposed on mood symptoms, while schizoaffective disorder involves a distinct period of psychotic symptoms without mood symptoms.

Answer 4! In bipolar I disorder with psychotic features, psychotic symptoms occur in the presence of a manic or major depressive episode. When the mood episode remits, the person does not experience any psychotic symptoms. Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed in the presence of a major depressive episode, or manic episode concurrent with the symptoms of schizophrenia. Additionally, during the course of schizoaffective disorder, delusions or hallucinations occur for at least 2 weeks without prominent mood symptoms (Response 4, correct answer). As Response 3 describes the opposite, a distinct period of mood symptoms without psychotic symptoms, it can be ruled out. In schizoaffective disorder, mood and psychotic symptoms do not alternate (ruling out Response 1); rather, they are concurrent except for the at least 2-week period when there are psychotic symptoms without mood symptoms. Bipolar I disorder with psychotic features may involve not only manic episodes with psychotic features but major depressive episodes with psychotic features as well (ruling out Response 2).

A new client of yours reports that her previous psychologist made repeated sexual advances toward her. After working with her for several months, you determine that your client has been significantly traumatized by this experience. She does not want to report the behavior and asks you not to do so. Given the severity of the damage to this client, you should: • 1. report the psychologist to an ethics committee or licensing board. • 2. insist that the client make a report to an ethics committee or licensing board. • 3. recommend that she write a letter to the previous therapist. • 4. maintain confidentiality.

Answer 4! In the case of sexual exploitation by therapists, confidentiality always takes precedence over reporting offenses. Psychologists may never report sexual exploitation by therapists without the consent of the client (ruling out Response 1). It is almost always ill-advised to "insist" or "urge" clients to take action, especially when they are clearly uncomfortable doing so (Response 2). Having the client write a letter to the therapist (Response 3) does not adequately address the ethical issues here, nor is it clear that such action would be clinically beneficial.

Incompetence to stand trial: • 1. means that the defendant could not tell right from wrong at the time he committed the crime. • 2. means that the defendant does not have to be tried due to a mental illness. • 3. refers to the insanity defense. • 4. means that the defendant is unable to understand or participate in the legal proceedings.

Answer 4! Incompetence to stand trial means that the person accused of a crime cannot understand the nature of the legal proceedings and therefore cannot participate intelligently in his or her own defense. Incompetence to stand trial refers to the accused person's mental state at the time of the trial, and not at the time of the crime (Response 1). Incompetence to stand trial is different from the insanity defense (Response 3), which again addresses the defendant's mental state when the crime occurred. Mental illness alone does not deem someone incompetent to stand trial (Response 2). A person with a mental illness can still have sufficient ability to participate in a trial.

Taylor-Russell tables demonstrate that to optimize your incremental validity you would want: • 1. both a base rate and a selection ratio of about .5. • 2. both a base rate and a selection ratio of about .1. • 3. a base rate of .1 and a selection ratio of .5. • 4. a base rate of .5 and a selection ratio of .1.

Answer 4! Incremental validity is the proportion of improvement in the success rate achieved by adding a predictor test (over and above the starting base rate). The base rate is the rate of selecting successful employees without a predictor test. The selection ratio is the ratio of the number of openings to the number of applicants (e.g., one opening for every 10 applicants is 1:10 or .1). So, incremental validity refers to how much using a predictor test improves our ability to select successful employees. According to the Taylor-Russell tables, incremental validity is optimized when the base rate is moderate (about .5) and the selection rate is low (close to .1). In other words, a good predictor test will make the biggest difference when there has been moderate success at choosing successful employees without the predictor test, and there is a large pool of applicants with relatively few openings.

Infant tests of intelligence are: • 1. good predictors of intelligence in later years. • 2. poor predictors of intelligence in later years. • 3. good predictors of intelligence in later years for high scorers. • 4. good predictors of intelligence in later years for low scorers.

Answer 4! Infant intelligence tests are generally not reliable predictors of intelligence in later years, primarily due to the fact that they assess areas (e.g. sensorimotor functioning) that are not covered in child or adult intelligence tests. However, they are good predictors of intelligence in later years for those who are low scorers. This finding makes intuitive sense, in that if an infant has not mastered tasks and functions appropriate for his age, it is unlikely that he or she will perform well in intelligence tests in later years.

The key elements of Self-Instructional Therapy are: • 1. graded practice, coping statements, reinforcement. • 2. coping statements, skill development, self-reinforcement. • 3. problem-solving, graded practice, cognitive restructuring. • 4. repetition, graded practice, cognitive restructuring.

Answer 4! Meichenbaum's Self-Instructional Therapy combines graduated practice with elements of Rational-Emotive Theory, and involves repeated practice of a targeted task. The five-step procedure begins with the therapist modeling a task and verbalizing the steps out loud, and ends with the client performing the task while thinking the task through. Self-Instructional Therapy helps a person who lacks adaptive cognitions in performing tasks to develop such cognitions, hence, it is a form of cognitive restructuring. Self-Instructional Training involves helping the client learn to think about how to perform a task, rather than problem-solving (Response 3). Coping statements and skill development are key elements of Meichenbaum's Stress Inoculation Training (Responses 1 and 2).

Dr. Kay, a psychologist, conducts a seminar on treatment for Agoraphobia. A woman who attended the seminar approaches Dr. Kay and asks for clinic referrals for her daughter who suffers from Agoraphobia. Dr. Kay gives the woman the name of a clinic that provides treatment for this disorder. Three months later, Dr. Kay receives a letter from the woman, stating that she is going to file a lawsuit against him for negligence. The letter alleges that after receiving treatment from the clinic recommended by Dr. Kay, her daughter's condition has deteriorated. In this situation, Dr. Kay's actions are: • 1. unethical, because he referred the daughter to the clinic. • 2. unethical, because the daughter has suffered emotional damage. • 3. ethical, because the clinic is responsible for the daughter's condition. • 4. ethical, because there was no professional relationship with the daughter.

Answer 4! One of the conditions that must be present to demonstrate negligent treatment is a professional relationship between the therapist and client. In this situation, the psychologist never had any contact with the daughter, nor did he have a therapeutic relationship with either the daughter or mother.

When taking an MAO inhibitor, such as Nardil, a patient is advised to avoid all of the following foods except: • 1. Chianti. • 2. fava beans. • 3. smoked meats. • 4. cream cheese.

Answer 4! Patients receiving Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (a type of antidepressant) must avoid foods high in Tyramine, because eating such foods can cause a life-threatening hypertensive crisis, possibly even a stroke. Foods that must be avoided altogether include alcohol (Response 1), fava or broad beans (Response 2), aged cheese (cream and cottage cheeses are okay), liver, orange pulp, pickled or smoked meats (Response 3), packaged soups, yeast supplements, meat extracts, and summer sausage. Although there is no easy way to remember all this, it does help to recognize that aged and fermented foods are prominent on the list of prohibited foods.

The husband of a client begins threatening Dr. A's life. Dr. A obtains a restraining order on the husband and terminates with the client on the telephone. Dr. A: • 1. has abandoned the client in an unethical manner. • 2. should have continued to treat the client because the client may now be at risk of harm. • 3. behaved ethically, because psychologists have the right to terminate professional relationships at their discretion. • 4. behaved ethically, because he is endangered by a person in a close relationship with his client.

Answer 4! Prior to the 2002 APA Ethics Code, at times psychologists continued to treat clients even when the psychologists were being endangered, out of a fear that to terminate the clients would constitute patient abandonment. Explicit language was added to the 2002 Ethics Code, therefore, so that psychologists would clearly understand that they are ethically permitted to terminate when they are endangered (ruling out Responses 1 & 2). Specifically, the Ethics Code states, "Psychologists may terminate therapy when threatened or otherwise endangered by the client/patient or another person with whom the client/patient has a relationship." Psychologists may not simply terminate professional relationships at their discretion (Response 3). Consideration must be given to factors such as treatment emergencies and pretermination counseling.

Quality Assurance in a hospital setting would most likely be interested in: • 1. theoretical orientation. • 2. necessity of procedures done. • 3. cost. • 4. access.

Answer 4! Quality Assurance (QA) is distinguished from Utilization Review (UR). UR focuses on costs and conserving resources. QA focuses on availability, adequacy and appropriateness of services. Theoretical orientation (Response 1) is not a major focus of QA. Necessity of procedures (Response 2) typically falls under UR (in terms of conserving resources). Cost (Response 3) most directly relates to UR. Response 4, access, best describes the broad thrust of QA.

What are the benefits of a realistic job preview? • 1. It reduces misconceptions about the job. • 2. It is helpful for selecting managers. • 3. It exposes managers to different aspects of the organization. • 4. It increases longevity of employment.

Answer 4! Realistic job previews have been found to reduce turnover by up to 20% by providing applicants with an accurate picture of a specific job (Response 4). While realistic job previews are designed to help overly optimistic or unrealistic employees see things more realistically, thus reducing misconceptions about the job, the ultimate goal of the preview is to increase longevity of employment. A realistic job preview can be given to any type of employee; it is not exclusive to managers (ruling out Responses 2 and 3).

Which of the following is true regarding leadership in organizations? • 1. Higher rates of productivity and satisfaction are consistently associated with authoritarian leaders. • 2. Higher rates of productivity are consistently associated with democratic leaders. • 3. Satisfaction tends to be highest under democratic leaders, whereas higher rates of productivity have been consistently associated with authoritarian leaders. • 4. Satisfaction tends to be highest under democratic leaders, and high levels of productivity have been associated with authoritarian and democratic leaders.

Answer 4! Research has shown that greater satisfaction is associated with democratic leaders. The findings on the effects of the type of leadership on productivity have been inconsistent, though it appears that productivity is higher under authoritarian and democratic leaders than under laissez-faire leaders.

Regarding the negative effects of divorce, research has shown that: • 1. it may not appear to affect younger children but its effects show themselves during adolescence. • 2. there is no difference between its effects on younger and older children. • 3. negative effects are minimized if parents are open about conflicts between them. • 4. most children and adolescents tend not to suffer long-lasting negative effects.

Answer 4! Research into the impact of divorce indicates that initial recovery may take children from three to five years. Ultimately, about 2/3 of these children do not suffer long-lasting negative effects. Negative effects are more likely to occur if the parents argue openly in front of the children (Response 3). The short-term and long-term effects differ depending on the age of the children at the time of the divorce. Younger children initially demonstrate poorer adjustment than adolescents, however, children who are older at the time of divorce appear to have more significant problems later in life (Responses 1 & 2).

Credibility and giving are processes that are important for which of the following? • 1. The development of altruism in children. • 2. Effective leadership. • 3. Persuasion. • 4. Working with ethnic minority clients.

Answer 4! Stanley Sue and Nolan Zane describe credibility and giving as the two basic processes that are important to consider when working with ethnic minority clients. Credibility has to do with the client perceiving the therapist as trustworthy and effective, which is strongly related to the degree to which the therapist is able to intervene in a culturally consistent manner. Giving is the client's perception that something was received from the therapy session; the client feels like he received a gift or some direct benefit from the therapist.

After having been chased by a neighbor's dog, a child cries and runs away whenever she sees any dog. This child now also begins to cry and run away whenever she sees a cat. This scenario illustrates: • 1. avoidance conditioning. • 2. escape conditioning. • 3. response generalization. • 4. stimulus generalization.

Answer 4! Stimulus generalization involves generalizing from the conditioned stimulus (CS) to other similar neutral stimuli. In this scenario, the child's fear is generalizing from the dog to cats: she is responding with the same response (fear) to different stimuli. Response generalization, an operant conditioning term, occurs when a person emits a behavior that is similar to another behavior that was previously reinforced (Response 3). In avoidance conditioning, the organism avoids an aversive stimulus (e.g., shock) by emitting the desired behavior in time (Response 1). In escape conditioning (Response 2), the aversive stimulus cannot be avoided, however, one can get the aversive stimulus to stop by emitting the desired behavior.

A psychologist's contract with a managed care company is abruptly terminated by the company. Which of the following statements best describes the psychologist's ethical obligation according to APA's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct (2002)? • 1. Patients should not be terminated until they have been provided with pre-termination counseling. • 2. The psychologist must continue to see those patients who are in crisis. • 3. The psychologist may terminate the patients immediately or as soon as is practically feasible, provided that the limits of their care through the managed care company were made clear at the time of informed consent. • 4. The psychologist does not have to provide pretermination counseling if the actions of the managed care company preclude pretermination counseling.

Answer 4! The 2002 APA Ethics Code addresses the issue of termination and managed care contracts in two places. On the topic of "interruption of services," the Ethics Code states that psychologists should make plans for continuation of care "unless otherwise covered by contract." This provision is intended to clarify that psychologists are not abandoning clients and do not have further ethical responsibilities when a managed care company restricts the number of sessions or requires termination. On the topic of "terminating therapy," the Ethics Code states that there are exceptions to the requirement for pretermination counseling. One exception occurs when the actions of third-party payors (e.g., managed care company) preclude such counseling (ruling out Response 1). The responsibility for patients who are in crisis (Response 2) falls to the managed care company. Although any known limits to care should be disclosed at the time of informed consent (Response 3), that disclosure is not necessary in order for the psychologist to comply with the managed care company's termination of services.

A medication effect that involves a sense of restlessness accompanied by excessive movements (e.g., fidgeting, rocking, pacing, inability to sit still), is called: • 1. medication-induced acute dystonia. • 2. medication-induced parkinsonism. • 3. antidepressant discontinuation syndrome. • 4. medication-induced acute akathisia.

Answer 4! The DSM-5 includes a category for medication-induced movement disorders and other adverse effects of medication. Conditions found in this category are not considered mental disorders. Medication-induced acute akathisia (Response 4, correct answer) is a common extrapyramidal side effect of traditional antipsychotic medications, and involves restlessness accompanied by excessive movements. Medication-induced acute dystonia (Response 1) is characterized by abnormal and prolonged contraction (spasms) of the muscle of the eyes (oculogyric crisis), head, neck, limbs, or trunk. Medication-induced parkinsonism (Response 2) is characterized by tremor, muscular rigidity, akinesia (difficulty initiating movement), or bradykinesia (slowed movements). Antidepressant discontinuation syndrome (Response 3) is characterized by a set of symptoms that can occur after abrupt cessation of antidepressants, which may include sensory and somatic symptoms (e.g., flashes of light, nausea), as well as nonspecific anxiety and feelings of dread.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the cognitive changes associated with aging? • 1. Crystallized intelligence peaks in the fifth or sixth decade and thereafter declines. • 2. Fluid intelligence peaks in the fourth or fifth decade and thereafter declines. • 3. Psychomotor speed declines with aging, while attention and concentration remain relatively unimpaired. • 4. The ability to reason and use logic in ecologically-valid assessments does not appear to be greatly affected by aging.

Answer 4! The ability to reason and use logic appears to remain intact among aging adults, especially when evaluated in day-to-day, practically relevant or ecologically valid situations. In laboratory-based evaluations, this ability does appear to decline with aging. Crystallized intelligence (knowledge gained through experience) actually improves with age (Response 1). Fluid intelligence (novel problem-solving) peaks in adolescence, and shows the greatest decline with aging (Response 2). Attention and concentration, especially on complex tasks, show signs of decline with aging, as does psychomotor speed (Response 3).

In a chi-square test, measuring subjects twice (pre-intervention and post-intervention) results in a violation of: • 1. homoscedasticity. • 2. normality. • 3. random assignment. • 4. independence.

Answer 4! The chi-square test requires independence of observations, thus you cannot measure subjects twice or use any kind of repeated measures. Because the chi square test is non-parametric, it does not require normality (Response 2) or homoscedasticity (Response 1). Random assignment (Response 3) is not a concern here. Random assignment is the hallmark of true experimental research; the lack of random assignment in a quasi-experimental design can pose a threat to internal validity.

A child is playing with toy dinosaurs. One of the dinosaurs falls off the table, and the child asks if the dinosaur is hurt and in pain. The child's reaction is an example of: • 1. phenomenalistic causality. • 2. animation. • 3. egocentricity. • 4. animism.

Answer 4! The child's response is an example of animism, or endowing inanimate objects with human attributes. Phenomenalistic causality (Response 1) is a type of magical thinking in which events that occur together are thought to cause one another. Egocentricity (Response 3) involves the child's inability to take the perspective of another person. Animation (Response 2) is not a concept in Piaget's theory, and describes the process of making cartoons.

The focus of aversive counterconditioning is on modifying the: • 1. unconditioned stimulus. • 2. unconditioned response. • 3. conditioned stimulus. • 4. conditioned response.

Answer 4! The focus in aversive counterconditioning is on weakening the conditioned response (CR), typically a maladaptive response, by strengthening an incompatible response, which then becomes the new CR. For example, lighting a cigarette (the CS) is paired with a strong US (nausea), which automatically elicits a negative response (disgust) that is incompatible with the old CR of pleasure. Over several conditioning trials, lighting the cigarette triggers the new CR of disgust.

A sales representative has been receiving bonuses for conducting seminars and selling products. Her employer stops giving her bonuses for conducting seminars. It is quite possible that: • 1. the number of seminars conducted and the number of products sold will both decrease. • 2. the number of seminars conducted and the number of products sold will both increase. • 3. the number of products sold will decrease, and the number of seminars conducted will increase. • 4. the number of products sold will increase, and the number of seminars conducted will decrease.

Answer 4! The principle of behavioral contrast predicts what will occur in a situation like this when two behaviors are initially reinforced (conducting seminars and selling product) and then reinforcement is stopped for one behavior (conducting seminars). The behavior that is still being reinforced increases in frequency (product sales), while the behavior that is no longer being reinforced decreases in frequency (conducting seminars).

According to Theory Y: • 1. workers function best under an autocratic leader. • 2. workers can demonstrate responsibility on the job if they are given incentives. • 3. group decision making is critical to successful work performance. • 4. workers can be expected to seek challenges on the job.

Answer 4! Theory Y states that workers are industrious, creative, and seek challenge and responsibility. Response 1 describes Theory X, which proposes that workers are lazy and have no ambition, and must therefore be controlled and directed. Response 2 is also more characteristic of Theory X, since it states that workers need incentives, or external reinforcement, in order to show responsibility. Response 3 is an element of Theory Z, which considers lifelong employment, slow promotion, and group decision making to be critical in organizational management.

With regard to predicting violent behavior in forensic testimony: • 1. psychologists can accurately predict violent behavior based on instruments designed for this purpose. • 2. it is unethical to make predictions regarding future violent behavior. • 3. psychologists can accurately predict violent behavior based on clinical judgment. • 4. there is widespread disagreement about psychologists' ability to make predictions about future violent behavior.

Answer 4! There is widespread disagreement in the field regarding clinicians' abilities to predict violent behavior using either instruments (Response 1) or clinical judgment (Response 3). It is not unethical to predict violent behavior (Response 2), however, it is crucial that a psychologist use caution when making such predictions, and discuss the likelihood of error involved in the predictions.

Behavior occurs in a random fashion. If a behavior is followed by a pleasurable consequence, it is strengthened. If a behavior is followed by a negative consequence, it is less likely to occur in the future. This theory was proposed by: • 1. Tolman. • 2. Watson. • 3. Skinner. • 4. Thorndike.

Answer 4! These statements describe Thorndike's Law of Effect. Thorndike later revised this law by dropping the last part regarding negative consequences. Tolman (Response 1) proposed that behavior is purposive and can occur without reinforcement. He also stated that learning can occur without being manifest in outward behavior (latent learning). Watson (Response 2) proposed that all human behavior stems from classical conditioning. He is famous for his work with Little Albert. Skinner (Response 3) believed that all behavior is shaped, caused, and maintained by consequences. His theory followed Thorndike's Law of Effect.

A swimmer views herself as competent and successful, and usually places in the top three in swim meets. However, she placed 8th and 10th in recent meets. This athlete would most likely attribute her recent performance to: • 1. internal, stable, specific factors. • 2. external, stable, global factors. • 3. external, unstable, global factors. • 4. external, unstable, specific factors.

Answer 4! This athlete views herself as competent, therefore, she would most likely attribute her recent performance to external, unstable factors that are specific to the recent swim meets (e.g., poor swimming conditions or bad weather).

In order to gain admittance to Elite Prep, an applicant must score high on all five sections of the entrance exam. This type of scoring is termed: • 1. additive. • 2. compensatory. • 3. nomothetic. • 4. conjunctive.

Answer 4! This is a difficult question, that can be approached using a process of elimination. In additive scoring (Response 1), each score contributes to a final score, and higher scores serve to offset lower scores. Such scoring does not apply to this scenario because each score is looked at individually and must be above the passing cutoff. Additive scoring is compensatory (Response 2), in that higher scores compensate for the lower scores. Nomothetic (Response 3) is a term that refers to studying groups as opposed to individuals; it's not a concept relevant to scoring. In conjunctive scoring, each score is looked at individually, and in this scenario, must be above a certain cutoff. Put another way, if this person obtains one low score, the entrance exam will be failed. This method of scoring is also known as a multiple cutoff procedure.

Family therapy based in part on social learning theory is most likely to focus on: • 1. hierarchy and boundaries. • 2. circular questioning and hypothesis formation. • 3. differentiation and lack of differentiation in the family structure. • 4. communication problems and deficient reward exchanges.

Answer 4! This question is challenging because it requires knowledge that behavioral marital therapy is rooted in both social learning theory and behavioral analysis. This theory contends that normal family functioning results when adaptive behavior is rewarded, maladaptive behavior is not reinforced, and benefits of being a member of the family outweigh costs. Pathology results from maladaptive behavior that is reinforced by family attention and reward, from deficient reward exchanges, and from communication deficits. If you weren't familiar with this information, you might have been able to arrive at the correct answer through process of elimination. Structural family therapists, such as Minuchin, focus on hierarchies, boundaries, and subsystems (Response 1). Circular questioning and hypothesis formation (Response 2) are techniques in Systemic Family Therapy (Milan group). Differentiation issues are the critical focus of Bowen's Family Systems therapy (Response 3).

A client is a defendant in a legal proceeding. Her psychologist receives a subpoena to release the woman's treatment records, however, the woman refuses to have her records released. What should the psychologist do? • 1. Talk to the plaintiff's attorney. • 2. Ignore the subpoena. • 3. Release the records. • 4. Appear in court.

Answer 4! When a psychologist receives a subpoena but the patient does not want the records released, the psychologist needs to appear in court and assert privilege. If the court does not believe that privilege should be maintained, a court order is issued to disclose the records. The psychologist must then comply with the court order and release the records; otherwise, he will be held in contempt of the court and will face legal action. It is never acceptable to ignore a subpoena (Response 2). In most cases, it is considered risky and poor judgment to contact the plaintiff's attorney (Response 1). Unless there is a court order, releasing the records against the patient's wishes would constitute an unacceptable breach of confidentiality.

After a period of delay, a subject who has heard a story is given a list of sentences and asked which were from the story. The subject is most likely to select the sentences that are: • 1. acoustically similar and grammatically different. • 2. acoustically similar and semantically different. • 3. grammatically similar and acoustically different. • 4. semantically similar and grammatically different.

Answer 4! When it comes to long-term memory, we remember things based on meaning (semantics) rather than sound (acoustics) or grammatical pattern.

After dating a man for a month, you learn that his brother is your patient. What would be your most ethical course of action? • 1. Discuss the situation with your patient. • 2. Discuss the situation with your boyfriend. • 3. Continue treating your patient, as long as you can establish that your objectivity is not impaired and that there is no risk of exploitation to your patient. • 4. Discontinue the relationship with your patient's brother.

Answer 4! You can think of this as the "Prince of Tides" question. According to APA's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct (2002), standard 10.06, psychologists may not have sexual relations with persons who are near to clients, including close relatives and significant others. In addition, psychologists may not terminate therapy with a client in order to engage in such a relationship. Thus, Response 4 is clearly the correct response in this situation. You could not discuss the situation with your boyfriend (Response 2), because to do so would be a breach of confidentiality. The language of Response 3 applies to the issue of multiple relationships. The Ethics Code explicitly addresses sexual relations with relatives of patients; thus, the issue of multiple relationships is secondary here. Discussing the situation with your patient (Response 1), although necessary, does not address your fundamental ethical obligation.