PT 2 Final Exam Prep
111. PRICE (protect, brace, rest, ice, compression, elevation) A. Maximum Protection Phase B. Moderate Protection Phase C. Minimum Protection Phase
A- maximum protection
132. Rectus Femoris development A. Open Chain B. Closed Chain
A- open
113. Closed Chain Strengthening A. Maximum Protection Phase B. Moderate Protection Phase C. Minimum Protection Phase
B-mode
152. Posteriorly, the erector spinae and quadratus lumborum pull superiorly and the hamstrings pull inferiorly. A. True B. False
A-True
25. A disadvantage of isokinetic exercise is that it: A. provides decreased joint compressive forces at high speeds. B. provides maximal resistance throughout the velocity spectrum. C. does not allow the patient to isokinetically exercise at home. D. allows a patient to work quads and hamstrings in the same exercise.
C- not at home
23. After surgery, all patients have the potential to develop an acute, potentially life-threatening inflammatory condition which involves a blood clot which can occlude a deep lower extremity vein. This condition is called: A. venous thrombosis. B. arterial embolism. C. arterial thrombosis. D. pulmonary embolism.
A- venous thrombosis
54. A PTA is working on quadriceps strengthening with a patient who has softening of cartilage on the underside of the patella. The medical term for this condition is called: A. condylarcentesis. B. chondrocentesis. C. chondromalacia. D. costomalacia.
C- chondromalacia
146. Circular movement of the lower extremity into increased abduction. A. Antalgic Gait B. Trendelenburg Gait C. Circumduction Gait D. Scissoring Gait
C- circumduction
162. T1-T2 should be the level of the superior angle of the scapula; scapulae should be approximately 3 inches from the midline (spine) and lay flat. A. True B. False
True
189. Do Not to exceed 20 lbs. for 20 minutes for a home cervical traction unit A True B False
True (not over 20lb/20 min)
75. The PTA is treating a patient with a shoulder strain. The muscles that need to be strong for optimal shoulder function are the: A. scapular stabilizers. B. lumbar extensors so patient can keep posture erect during shoulder exercise. C. anterior shoulder muscles. D. lateral shoulder muscles.
A- scapular stabilizers
3. All of the following would be an indication for the use of mechanical traction except for: A. To increase integumentary length B. To decrease pain secondary to nerve root impingement C. To treat spinal facet joint hypomobility D. To decrease paraspinal muscle spasm
A- to increase integumentary length
129. Full Elevation of the arm above the head in the prone-lying position A. All 3 points of the trapezius and serratus anterior B. Lower Traps and Latissmus Dorsi C. Quadratus Lumborum and Rectus Abdominals D. Deltoid, Triceps, Biceps
A- trapezius (all) + serratus
154. Posterior pelvic tilt is accompanied by flexion of the lumbar spine. A. True B. False
A- true
164. Pubic symphysis and ASIS should be on the same plane (coronal). A. True B. False
T
Cervical Decrease Muscle Spasm #
10-15
182. What percentage of LBP is resolved in 6 weeks? a. 20% b. 40% c. 60% d 90%
D- 90%
183. Cervical Extension Injuries will affect what muscles? A. Anterior B. Lateral C. Anterior/Lateral D Posterior
A- anterior
134. Hamstrings A. Open Chain B. Closed Chain
B- ckc
160. Commonly seen: Hip on dominant side is slightly higher than non-dominant hip. This results in adduction of hip on dominant side and abduction of hip on non-dominant side. This in turn results in an apparent leg length discrepancy with dominant leg appearing to be longer than non-dominant leg, and pronation of the non-dominant foot. A. True B. False
A. True
159. Commonly seen: shoulder on dominant side is slightly lower than non-dominant side. A. True B. False
A. true
153. Anterior pelvic tilt is accompanied by flexion of the lumbar spine. A. True B. False
B. False (posterior pelvic tilt)
158. Lengthened pectoralis major may allow adduction and/or downward tilt of the scapula because of the unopposed pull of the shorter rhomboids. A. True B. False
B. False (serratus)
117. Progress running program; full speed, sprints, figure 8 A. Maximum Protection Phase B. Moderate Protection Phase C. Minimum Protection Phase
C- MINIMUM
38. A patient diagnosed with a partial tear of the supraspinatus muscle will show what muscle action to be the most affected? A. medial rotation. B. lateral rotation. C. adduction. D. abduction.
D- abduction
181. What percentage of LBP is resolved in 1 week? a. 20% b. 40% c. 60% d 90%
C- 60%
85. Which progressive resistive exercise (PRE) would best strengthen the infraspinatus and teres minor muscles? A. Extension of the shoulder with dumbbells. B. Flexion of the shoulder with dumbbells. C. External rotation of the shoulder with thera-tubing. D. Internal rotation of the shoulder with thera-tubing.
C- ER
151. Hamstrings work to prevent hyperflexion of the knee. A. True B. False
B. false (hyperextension)
176. The PTA has just finished giving a patient the 3rd out of 6 approved mechanical cervical traction treatments. After the post-treatment data collection is done, the PTA determines that the traction appears to be providing good results for this patient. The PTA should: a. recommend to the patient to continue the traction treatments. b. recommend to the patient to discontinue the traction treatments. c. recommend to the PT to continue the traction treatments. d. recommend to the PT to discontinue the traction treatments.
C- recommend to PT continue
179. Your patient presents with a chief complaint of headaches with unknown etiology, beginning last week. During the course of the initial assessment you determine that the source of the headache most probably is not musculoskeletal (a cervical headache). Which of the following indicates that a referral to the patient's physician is appropriate? A. Pain or altered sensation in the face or TMJ region B. Unilateral headaches or bilateral headaches with one side predominant C. Report of sharp pain or spikes in intensity D. Pain in the neck or sub occipital region that spreads in the head
C- sharp pain
53. All of the following are precautions or contraindications for the use of any type of lumbar traction with the exception of: A. Pregnancy in the third trimester. B. Osteoporosis C. Spinal stenosis. D. morbid obesity.
C- stenosis
37. A PTA performs strengthening on a patient's hip abductors. The PTA attempts to complete the strengthening with the patient in sidelying, but the patient shows difficulty holding the limb in position against gravity. What is the next best alternate position to strengthen the patient's hip abductors in? A. Prone B. Sitting C. Supine D. Standing
C- supine
97. Cool down exercises are critically important to incorporate in an aerobic exercise program to primarily reduce the risk of: A. Shin Splints B. Muscle Sprains and Tears C. Extension Lag and Cramping D. Arrhythmias
D- arrhythmias
165. A PTA utilizes intermittent mechanical traction with a patient. Half way into the session, the PTA notices that the traction machine stays stuck into a static pull rather than the intermittent pull indicated in the POC. The most appropriate action for the PTA is to: a. Decrease the minutes left in the treatment by 50% and continue with the static pull. b. Decreased the poundage and allow the patient to finish with the treatment in a static pull. c. Discontinue the treatment and then unplug the machine and label "defective, do not use" d. Finish the treatment and then unplug the machine and label "defective, do not use".
C. discontinue, defective
118. As a PTA in an orthopedic setting your patient presents with a RTC repair for a massive tear. According to your Kisner Colby text, page 579 table 17.4, what is the typical type and duration of immobilization for a massive tear? A. Sling for 1-2 weeks; remove for exercise the day of surgery or 1day post op B. Sling or abduction orthosis/pillow for 3-6 weeks; remove for exercises 1-2 days' post op C. Sling or abduction orthosis/pillow for 6-9 weeks; remove for exercises 1-3 days' post op D. Sling or abduction orthosis/pillow for 4-8 weeks; remove for exercises 1-3 days' post op
D- sling 4-8 weeks
200. The Pain Pathway is known as ________________ tract a. Pathology b. Spinomesencephalic c. Spinoreticular d. Spinothalamic
D- spinothalamic
17. To best stretch the piriformis muscle, the patient should be positioned: A. supine with the hip flexed to 70 degrees and the knee extended. B. side-lying with hip extended and medially rotated. C. side-lying with the hip abducted and laterally rotated. D. supine with the hip flexed and laterally rotated.
D- supine + hip flexed & ER
133. VMO development A. Open Chain B. Closed Chain
B- closed
Cervical Reduction of Disc Protrusion #
10-15
128. Shoulder Shrugs A. Upper Traps B. Middle Traps C. Deltiods D. Lower Traps
A- UT
100. INCREASE STRENGTH A. Maximum Protection Phase B. Moderate Protection Phase C. Minimum Protection Phase
C- min
Cervical Soft Tissue Stretch #
10-15
Cervical Joint Distraction #
20-25
Lumbar Decrease Muscle Spasm #
25%
Lumbar Reduction of Disc Protrusion #
25-50%
Lumbar Joint Distraction #
50% or 50 lbs
185. Emotional Stress increases tension in what regions? A. Posterior cervical and Lumbar region B. Anterior cervical and Transverse Abdominal region C. Posterior Cervical, TMJ, and Stress Headaches D. Upper Traps, Pect Major, SCM
A
12. A PTA prepares to instruct bed mobility exercises to a patient rehabilitating from a stroke. The initial step when designing a functional exercise program for a patient is to first: A. assess the patient's cognitive status. B. utilize a variety of teaching methods. C. avoid using medical jargon. D. speak loudly and directly to the patient.
A- assess cognitive status
94. As a PTA prescribing level 1 deep segmental muscle activation you know the order of LOWEST intensity to GREATER intensity is as follows: A. Draw in and hold 10 seconds, Opposite LE is on table, Hold Opposite LE at 90° B. Hold Opposite LE at 90° Opposite LE is on table, Draw in and hold 10 seconds, C. Bilateral LE Movement, Hold Opposite LE at 90°, Opposite LE on mat bent leg falls out D. Draw in and hold 10 seconds, Bilateral LE movement, Hold opposite LE at 90° of hip flexion with UE movement
A- draw in, opp LE on table, hold opp LE
99. To develop strength of hip and knee extensor muscles and to prepare the LE for squatting activities and training in safe body mechanics you educate your patient to perform progressive wall slide. You will educate your patient to start in neutral spine position with back to the wall and to develop coordination the progressive sequence is as follows: A. Have the patient slide their back down wall into a partial squat, Bilateral Arm Movements, Rolling back on a gym ball down the wall. B. Use hand held weights, Single leg movements such as marching or alternate knee, Isometric hold of partial squat with back against wall. C. Have the patient slide their back down wall into a partial squat, Rolling back on a gym ball down the wall, Bilateral Arm Movements with back against wall D. Have patient slide their back down wall into a partial squat, Single UE/LE movements, alternating l UE and LE Movements simultaneously, Toe raises with back against wall
A- ...
188. If no parameters have already been decided AND this is the patient's first time with a home set-up Cervical Traction unit then start at: A. 10 lbs. for 10-15 minutes at 1-2x/day B. 10 lbs. for 20-25 minutes at 1-2x/day C. 15-20 lbs. for 10-15 minutes at 1-2x/day D. 15-20 lbs. for 20-25 minutes at 1-2x/day
A- 10 lbs 10-15 min
13. Your patient informs you that his (R) LE is ¼" shorter than his (L) and that this is what his chiropractor recently told him. To measure for this patient's true leg length for both legs, what landmarks are typically recommended to be used? A. ASIS to medial malleolus B. umbilicus to medial malleolus C. ASIS to lateral malleolus D. umbilicus to lateral malleolus
A- ASIS to medial malleolus
72. A 21 year old male is rehabilitating from a fractured femur sustained in a motorcycle accident. He asks the PTA about his expected functional level following his course of rehabilitation. Assuming an uncomplicated recovery, the most accurate predictor of this person's future expected functional level would be: A. his functional level prior to the accident B. his previous medical history C. the frequency and compliance to his physical therapy sessions D. his compliance with a HEP
A- PLOF
157. Short rectus abdominus produces a posterior pelvic tilt and a depressed ribcage with an excessively flexed thoracic spine (this all depends on the influence of the extensors). A. True B. False
A- TRUE
155. Lateral tilting of the head is accompanied by side bend and rotation to the same side (and this is the same in the spine). A. True B. False
A- True
156. Short rectus femoris pulls ASIS forward into anterior pelvic tilt if the hamstrings are not tight. A. True B. False
A- True
76. The PTA notices that his patient exhibits a shortened tensor fasciae latae and iliotibial tract. What are the motions the PTA can use to stretch this area? A. Adduction, hip extension and lateral rotation B. Hip extension, abduction and lateral rotation C. Hip abduction, flexion and lateral rotation D. Hip medial rotation, abduction and hip flexion
A- add + extension + ER
145. Difficulty or decrease in weight bearing on a limb during stance phase due to the presence of pain. A. Antalgic Gait B. Trendelenburg Gait C. Circumduction Gait D. Ataxic Gait
A- antalgic
61. During resistance exercise, substitute motions can occur due to: A. application of excessive resistance. B. too slow of a speed for the exercise. C. increased muscle strength. D. too little resistance applied.
A- application of excessive resistance
19. The PTA is treating a patient s/p (L) TKA who has P.T. goals of "general conditioning and independence with household mobility". Which component of the patient's treatment program would be appropriate for the PTA to delegate to a P.T. Aide? A. Application of an ice pack after exercises. B. Instruction in progressive endurance training with a straight cane. C. Patient education in regards to the TKA surgery specifics, prognosis and exercise protocol. D. Stairs training.
A- apply ice
174. The PTA is treating a patient with mechanical cervical traction. After 8 minutes of traction, the patient reports increased paresthesia radiating down her right arm to her fingers on the dorsal side of the hand. The most appropriate immediate action for the PTA to take is: a. End the treatment for this session and carefully document the patient's symptoms. b. End the treatment for this session, carefully document the patient's symptoms, and then notify the PT that traction can no longer be used as a modality. c. Pause the treatment for 5 minutes, then restart the traction to see if the patient tolerates it. If the patient then tolerates the traction, document the pause time in the SOAP note. d. Pause the treatment to recheck the patient's position and possibly change the poundage lower, then restart the traction to see if the patient tolerates the lower poundage. If the patient tolerates the lower poundage, then document the modified pounds of force and relay this change to the PT.
A- end + document
84. When instructing a patient in proper breathing techniques during resistive exercise, it is important for the patient to: A. exhale with exertion. B. inhale with exertion. C. inhale rapid puffs during exertion. D. hold the breath only during exertion.
A- exhale on exertion
71. To apply stretches safely, a PTA needs to know normal and abnormal end-feels. Depending upon the joint, all of the following are considered abnormal end-feels with the exception of: A. firm B. spasm C. spongy D. empty
A- firm
36. A PT and PTA are both employed per diem at an outpatient [OP] facility. Which of the following is within the scope of practice for the PTA to do in the OP setting? A. Fitting of an assistive device. B. Development of the plan of care. C. Re-examination of a pt. D. Establishment of a discharge plan.
A- fitting device
65. A PTA is preparing to enter a patient's room. The patient is on precautions and the PTA will need to use personal protective equipment. The proper sequence to don PPE using CDC recommendations are: A. gown, mask, goggles, gloves B. gloves, goggles, mask, gown C. gown, goggles, mask, gloves D. gloves, gown, mask, goggles
A- gown, mask
7. Why are PROM exercises initially indicated for patients with recent partial thickness burns over 20% of their body? A. To help maintain joint and soft tissue mobility. B. To help maintain muscle strength of the affected areas. C. To help keep pain under control in the affected burned areas. D. To help keep the edema in the affected area under control.
A- help maintain joint and soft tissue mobility
68. In order for the PTA to help a patient increase his muscular strength, the parameters used will most likely include: A. a high load with low repetitions. B. a low load with high repetitions. C. a high load with high repetitions. D. a low load with low repetitions.
A- high load, low reps
32. The most common type of contracture in a patient with a transfemoral amputation is a hip flexion contracture. What would need stretching if this type of contracture is present? A. hip flexors. B. hip flexors and knee flexors. C. hip extensors. D. hip extensors and knee extensors.
A- hip flexors
98. An appropriate progression of trunk stabilization exercises would include: A. Begin with patient hook lying, Bridge, add alternate arm motions, add alternate lifting or feet B. Begin with Bridge, then hook lying, add alternate arm motions, add alternate lifting or feet C. Begin with alternating lifting feet, then bridge in hook lying, add alternate arm motions D. Begin with patient hook lying, Bridge, add alternate arm motions, add alternate lifting or feet
A- hook-lying, bridge
45. Common in patients with low back pain, the posture most often associated with weak abdominals and hip extensors is: A. an increased lordosis B. an increased posterior pelvic tilt C. a decreased lordosis D. a decreased kyphosis
A- inc lordosis
171. The PTA has a patient on mechanical lumbar traction who had a pre-traction pain scale of 5/10 and who was in obvious discomfort. After 5 minutes on the traction, the patient reports 0/10 pain with slight numbness of the previously painful area. The patient's complete resolution of pain with slight numbness may be indicative of: a. increased compression of a lumbar nerve root. b. a previously undiagnosed lumbar fracture. c. the lumbar erector spinae going into spasm. d. a herniated disc.
A- increased compression
91. Circumduction in the gait of a person who has a prosthetic device may be a result of: A. a leg length difference. B. an adduction contracture. C. tight hamstrings. D. weak hip abductors on the involved side.
A- leg length difference
102. DECREASE JOINT EFFUSION A. Maximum Protection Phase B. Moderate Protection Phase C. Minimum Protection Phase
A- max
114. Muscle setting, QS, GS A. Maximum Protection Phase B. Moderate Protection Phase C. Minimum Protection Phase
A- maxi
103. ESTABLISH HEP A. Maximum Protection Phase B. Moderate Protection Phase C. Minimum Protection Phase
A- maximum
110. PROTECT HEALING TISSUE A. Maximum Protection Phase B. Moderate Protection Phase C. Minimum Protection Phase
A- maximum protect
177. Extreme caution should be used when manipulating the spine of patients with rheumatoid arthritis. There is high potential for subluxation of the vertebrae and damage to the spinal cord secondary to: A. Ligamentous necrosis. B. Joint effusion. C. Synovial hypertrophy. D. Pain.
A- necrosis
4. A PTA has completed a treatment session in which gait training was provided. Descriptions of the gait intervention provided which include patient education, distance walked, assist level and assistive device used will be documented in what section of the SOAP note? A. Objective B. Subjective C. Plan D. Assessment
A- objective
22. In rotator cuff impingement syndrome, the tendon of the rotator cuff muscle located inferior to the acromial arch is most often impinged. The name of this muscle is the: A. supraspinatus. B. infraspinatus. C. teres minor. D. subscapularis.
A- supra
31. A patient states to the PTA that he exclusively performs "eccentric muscle training". Eccentric muscle training is best defined as: A. the muscle develops tension and increases in length. B. the muscle develops tension and decreases in length. C. the muscle length remains shortened as tension develops. D. purposeful voluntary motion with a weight or load.
A- tension + increase in length
64. The PTA gets an order from the PT to initiate intermittent pneumatic compression on a patient's right upper extremity secondary to axillary lymph node removal. To maintain a safe compression pressure on the limb, the pressure should be: A. no higher than the diastolic reading. B. 10 mmHg higher than the diastolic reading. C. 10 mmHg higher than the systolic reading. D. higher than the systolic and diastolic readings.
A-no higher than diastolic
107. NORMALIZE ADL FUNCTION A. Maximum Protection Phase B. Moderate Protection Phase C. Minimum Protection Phase
B- moderate protect
109. RESTORE MUSCULAR STRENGTH A. Maximum Protection Phase B. Moderate Protection Phase C. Minimum Protection Phase
B- moderate protection
89. The Golgi tendon organ's [GTO] function is important to understand in applying stretching techniques. One function of the GTO is to: A. help the muscle stay shortened. B. monitor the tension in each muscle segment. C. keep the muscle from lengthening. D. help the skin and soft tissue from tearing.
B- monitor tension
100. ____OBERS 101. ____THOMAS TEST 102. ____FABERS TEST 103. ____HAWKINS KENNEDY 104. ____NEERS SIGN 105. _____PHALENS 106. ______YERGANSON'S 107. ______DROP ARM TEST A. Supraspinatus Impingement B. IT BAND, TFLTightness C. HIP PATHOLOGY E. RECTUS FEMORIS, ILIOPSOAS, IT BAND F. Impingement - forced GH Flexion in pronation G. Full RTC Tear H. BICEPS TENDON I. CARPAL TUNNEL
B E C A F I H G
96. The target therapeutic heart rate is between what percentage of the maximum heart rate? A. 50%-80% B. 60%-80% C. 75%-85% D. 50%-60%
B- 60-80%
115. ENDURANCE TRAINING A. Maximum Protection Phase B. Moderate Protection Phase C. Minimum Protection Phase
B- MOD
180. An example of a cervical extension injury would be: a. MVA, air bag deploys causing the head to extend, head is rapidly stopped by head rest b. MVA, head rapidly accelerates into extension with nothing to stop it c. Bungee jumping off bridge, acceleration and rapid deceleration of bungee cord d. Emotional stress and shoulder hiking
B- MVA, nothing to stop
79. When performing a lateral posture scan, the PTA knows that the plumb line should fall: A. posterior to the lumbar vertebrae. B. through the acromion. C. anterior to the patella. D. through the ankle joint.
B- acromion
21. A PTA wants to determine a patient's ability and general willingness to move an affected body part. What data collection technique would best provide the PTA the information needed here? A. Bony palpation. B. Active movement. C. Passive movement. D. Sensory testing.
B- active movement
78. The PTA finds that his patient has short hip flexors bilaterally and tight erector spinae. These findings suggest that the patient's pelvic position will be in: A. a posterior pelvic tilt B. an anterior pelvic tilt C. a neutral or normal pelvic position D. a rotated pelvic position
B- anterior pelvic tilt
143. A positive Popeye Sign is indicative of: A. A lack of green leafy vegetables in a diet B. A biceps brachii tear C. A biceps femoris tear D. Impingement syndrome
B- biceps tear
The PTA is reviewing the patient's medical chart and finds that the patient has radicular symptoms of the left lower extremity. The PTA knows that radicular symptoms can be caused by all of the following problems with the exception of: a. Compression of a nerve root by a bulging nucleus pulpous b. Complete compression of the spinal cord in the spinal canal c. Bone spurs encroaching upon the spinal foramen d. Spondylolisthesis
B- complete compression
41. A 7 year old patient sustained a deep laceration to the left antecubital fossa which is now healed in a contracted and tightened position. When teaching this patient a stretching program, the PTA should emphasize stretching in the direction of: A. elbow flexion B. elbow extension C. knee flexion D. knee extension
B- extension
150. UE PNF D2 Flexion has an ending position of the UE in: A. Shoulder Flexion, Abduction, IR B. Shoulder Flexion, Abduction, ER C. Shoulder Extension, Adduction, IR D. Shoulder Extension, Adduction, ER
B- flex + abd + ER
42. The PTA wants to strengthen the primary hip abductor on a patient's left leg. The muscle to strengthen would be the: A. piriformis. B. gluteus medius. C. sartorius. D. gluteus maximus.
B- glut med
69. A PTA is treating a patient who has a MRSA infection which appears to be nosocomial. Which of the following is the definition of "nosocomial infection"? A. A progressive viral infection. B. A health care facility-acquired infection. C. An isolation-necessitating infection. D. An infection in the nasal cavity.
B- hospital-acquired
20. A patient presents with neck pain and spasm of the left sternocleidomastoid muscle. To apply a gentle stretch, what motions should the PTA perform with the cervical spine? A. Lateral flexion to the right. B. Lateral flexion to the right and rotation to the left. C. Lateral flexion and rotation to the right. D. Lateral flexion to the left and rotation to the right.
B- lateral flexion to R + rotation to left
59. Which activity would not be appropriate for a PT Aide to do? A. Assist a patient to dress fully after a treatment was given. B. Make entries in the patient's medical record under A and P sections. C. Assist patients in basic exercises as supervised by the PTA or PT. D. Perform parts of the treatment as delegated directly by the PT or PTA.
B- make entries in medical record in A & P
101. ADHERENCE TO HEP A. Maximum Protection Phase B. Moderate Protection Phase C. Minimum Protection Phase
B- mod
104. NORMALIZE GAIT WITHOUT AD A. Maximum Protection Phase B. Moderate Protection Phase C. Minimum Protection Phase
B- moderate
5. The PTA will be starting lumbar traction on a patient. Which of the following would not be a "Red Flag" occurrence? A. An immediate reduction of all pain within the first 5-10 minutes of the traction treatment. B. A progressive reduction of pain with each treatment. C. Increasing numbness in one leg. D. Increasing weakness in one leg.
B- progressive reduction in pain with each treatment
39. An attorney contacts a PTA directly by phone and requests specific information on a patient he claims to represent. Questions asked include the extent of the patient's disability and ability to return to work. The most appropriate response for the PTA would be to: A. answer all the questions asked by the attorney. B. refer the attorney to the PTA's supervising PT. C. hang up on the attorney. D. tell the attorney that a copy of the patient's PT records will be mailed to him and ask for a valid mailing address.
B- refer attorney to PT
147. A gait pattern characterized by excessive hip adduction A. Antalgic Gait B. Scissoring Gait C. Circumduction Gait D. Ataxic Gait
B- scissoring
70. Suboccipital flexion stretches are used in part to treat: A. a swayback posture. B. a scoliotic curve. C. a forward head posture. D. weak abdominals.
B- scoliosis
130. Push-Ups with a plus A. Pect Minor, Pect Major B. Serratus Anterior C. Multifidis D. Urine sphincter
B- serratus
131. Diagonal Exercises and Scaption above 120 degrees A. Traps and Rectus Abdominals B. Serratus Anterior and Traps C. Biceps Femoris and Serratus Anterior D. Infraspinatus, Teres Minor, Subscapularis
B- serratus + traps
. The PTA is instructing the patient in a right shoulder self-stretching exercise called a "towel stretch". The PTA instructs the patient to hold a towel at both ends behind the patient's lower back. The right arm is positioned at the patient's belt level and the left arm is positioned at the patient's head. If the patient pulls the towel up with the left arm, what motion will the right shoulder be stretching into? A. shoulder external rotation B. shoulder internal rotation C. shoulder extension D. shoulder flexion
B- shoulder IR
56. The PTA is performing AAROM exercises with a patient in the supine position. Which motion cannot be fully completed in this supine position? A. Hip abduction. B. Shoulder hyperextension. C. Elbow extension. D. Hip flexion.
B- shoulder hyperextension
49. "Overuse syndromes" also called "repetitive use syndromes" will include all of the following diagnoses with the exception of: A. bursitis. B. sprains. C. epicondylitis. D. tendinitis.
B- sprains
199. Chemical released when a pt. is injured secondary to inflammation is called: a. edema b. Substance P c. oxytocin d. myotomes
B- substance P
144. Lateral inclination of the trunk during stance phase secondary to weak hip abductors. A. Antalgic Gait B. Trendelenburg Gait C. Circumduction Gait D. Ataxic Gait
B- trendelenburg
33. A PTA helps a patient find their appropriate BMI number for assistance to the patient in a weight loss program. The PTA knows that a BMI number is a gross measurement of ideal weight for a person based upon their: A. weight. B. weight and height. C. weight, height and age. D. weight, height, age and sex.
B- weight + height
60. Patients are commonly referred to PT with spinal problems such as having an abnormal posture involving the thoracic spine. When the upper and middle back posture causes an abnormally flexed thoracic spine, this is called a: A. scoliosis. B. kyphosis. C. lordosis. D. sacrokyphosis.
B-kyphosis
66. The PTA is researching treatment techniques for a patient with cerebellar ataxia. The PTA reviews approximately 12 peer-reviewed research articles all written within the last 5-8 years. In searching for relevant research, the PTA has demonstrated: A. reliability of findings by collecting this many research articles. B. a literary review of current findings. C. the formulation of a research problem. D. the formulation of a hypothesis.
B-literary review
124. _____ If the Supraspinatus was repaired initially avoid end-range stretching into GH internal rotation.
T
125. _____ No Weight bearing exercises until 6 weeks unless protocol otherwise specifies
T
24. In which part of the SOAP note would be documented "Pt. is still not functional in ADL's secondary to the presence of continued muscle weakness as evidenced by decreased tolerance to the exercises provided at today's session"? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan
C- assessment
55. A PTA prepares a presentation on proper body mechanics to a group of 10 nurses. Which of the following would be the most effective in maximizing the nurses' learning during this presentation? A. lecture and handouts B. lecture, charts and statistics C. lecture, handouts and demonstration D. lecture and statistics
C
80. The PTA is working with a patient on a strengthening program. The clues that a PTA looks for to make sure the resistance is at an optimal level would be all of the following with the exception of: A. the patient has a look of concentration on his face as he performs the repetitions. B. the patient's respiration is increasing. C. the patient is able to do more than the 8-12 repetitions easily. D. the patient begins to perspire.
C (8-12 ideal)
95. As a PTA you know that the basic lumbar stabilization with progressive limb loading exercises from GREATEST INSTENITY and SPINAL COMPRESSION to LOWEST INTENSITY with emphasis on the trunk extensors (patient in PRONE) would be as follows: A. Flex one UE and extend contralateral LE, Extend one LE by sliding it along the exercise mat, Extend 1 LE and lift 6-8", Extend 1 LE, Extend both LE, Lift head- arms- and LE. B. Lift head- arms- and LE, Flex 1 UE, Extend one LE by sliding it along the exercise mat, Extend 1LE and lift 6-8" off exercise mat, Extend both LE Extend 1 LE, C. Lift head- arms- and LE, Extend both LE, Extend 1 LE, Flex 1 UE and extend contralateral LE, Extend one LE and lift 6-8", Extend one LE by sliding it along the exercise mat, Flex 1 UE D. Extend one LE by sliding it along the exercise mat, Extend both LE, Flex 1 UE, Extend 1 LE and lift 6-8" off exercise mat, Extend 1 LE, , Lift head- arms- and LE.
C- ...
175. The PTA questions the patient on how and when she injured her neck to determine if the modality of traction that the PT recommended is not contraindicated. How soon can intermittent mechanical cervical traction be safely started? a. The same day after the cervical injury b. Within 1 day after the injury c. 2 weeks after the injury d. 4 weeks after the injury
C- 2 weeks
149. Heel strike is a traditional term referring to the moment of contact with the supporting surface at the beginning of the gait cycle. What percentage of the gait cycle is the stance phase? A. 20% B. 80% C. 60% D. 40%
C- 60%
172. Use of intermittent mechanical traction decreases muscle tension and increases muscle relaxation most likely through the stimulation of the: a. annulus fibrosis b. muscle belly c. Golgi Tendon Organs d. nerve Root
C- GTO
116. Implement drills specific to sport or work A. Maximum Protection Phase B. Moderate Protection Phase C. Minimum Protection Phase
C- MIN
83. What is an absolute contraindication for the use of a continuous passive motion (CPM) device? A. Use post TKA surgery B. Use for stimulation of healing and ligaments. C. Use with post-surgical ORIF of the patella D. Use to maintain or increase range of motion
C- ORIF
1. The PTA knows that acute inflammation is a contraindication for stretching. Which of the following would not be a sign that acute inflammation is present? A. Pain B. Erythema C. Blanching D. Warmth
C- blanching
58. A PTA completes documentation in the medical record. Which of the following documentation activities would be inappropriate for a PTA to do? A. Writing a patient's response to the treatment provided. B. Writing a patient's compliance with the treatment provided. C. Writing a patient's discharge plan of care from physical therapy. D. Writing a patient's data results taken during the course of care given.
C- discharge
29. The PTA is designing an exercise program for a patient who is rehabilitating from a lower extremity injury. The most important component of an exercise program designed to optimally increase endurance in the lower extremity is the: A. recovery time between each of the sets. B. number of repetitions and sets. C. duration of the individual exercise session. D. isometric hold time of each exercise.
C- duration
48. The PTA uses a D1 diagonal with a patient. For a (R) shoulder D1 diagonal the motions would be: A. Flexion, abduction and extension, adduction. B. Flexion, abduction, IR and extension, adduction, and ER. C. Flexion, adduction, ER and extension, abduction, and IR. D. Flexion and extension
C- flex+add+ ER and/or ext+abd+IR
51. In a lateral view posture scan, if the plumb line falls through the hip landmark but posterior to the shoulder landmark, you would document that the person has: A. normal posture. B. an extended trunk. C. a flexed trunk. D. genu recurvatum.
C- flexed trunk
27. The PTA has a patient with the diagnosis of "avulsion fracture of the right ischial tuberosity". The PTA knows that this injury involves the forceful tearing away of the hamstrings origin from the ischium and can be caused by the kicking activity of: A. forceful extension of the hip with an extended knee. B. forceful extension of the hip with a flexed knee. C. forceful flexion of the hip with an extended knee. D. forceful flexion of the hip with a flexed knee.
C- forceful flexion of hip + extended knee
44. Your patient has a deep burn on the entire volar surface of the right forearm. Prevention of a contracture forming at the elbow and wrist would be best accomplished through the use of: A. compression wrapping. B. surgical intervention. C. gentle ROM and stretching. D. splinted restriction of motion
C- gentle ROM + stretch
43. The PTA reads in a chart that her patient ambulates with a Trendelenburg gait. To improve this gait pattern the PTA would work primarily on strengthening the: A. gluteus maximus. B. gluteus minimus. C. gluteus medius. D. piriformis.
C- glut med
16. The single most important means of preventing the spread of infection in a healthcare facility is for healthcare providers and patients to use: A. clean techniques. B. sterile precautions. C. frequent hand washing. D. frequent disinfection.
C- hand washing
63. During resistance exercise you caution your patient to avoid the Valsalva maneuver. Which of the following is the potentially dangerous effect of the Valsalva maneuver? A. A decrease in intra-abdominal pressure causing increased blood pressure. B. A decrease in intra-venous pressure causing decreased blood pressure. C. An increase in intra-thoracic pressure causing increased blood pressure. D. An increase in intra-venous pressure causing increased blood pressure.
C- increase intra-thoracic, increase BP
2. Which of the following should not occur with the use of mechanical cervical or lumbar traction? A. Distraction of joint surfaces B. Stretching of soft tissue C. Increased protrusion of discal material D. Relaxation of muscles which are in spasm
C- increased protrusion of discal material
50. A commonly used type of exercise called a "glute set" or "gluteal setting exercise" (abbreviated GS) is considered to be what type of exercise? A. Eccentric B. Concentric C. Isometric D. Isotonic
C- isometric
178. Your patient has signs of an acute lumbar intervertebral disk protrusion. On testing, he experiences decreased symptoms when applying manual traction. To use mechanical traction effectively as part of the treatment plan during the early stages: A. Use sustained traction for 20 minutes with a dosage of at least 50% of the body weight. B. Use intermittent traction for 20 minutes with a dosage of at least 50% of the body weight. C. Use sustained traction for less than 10 minutes with a dosage of at least 50% of the body weight. D. Use intermittent traction for less than 15 minutes with a dosage of less than 50% of the body weight.
C- less than 10 min
40. A goal for the use of AROM exercises in PT treatment could be to: A. decrease muscle hypertrophy. B. preserve bone demineralization. C. maintain joint mobility and range of motion. D. increase flexibility
C- maintain mobility + ROM
73. Which treatment would be the most inappropriate for management of an edematous elbow? A. Use of a compression garment. B. Use of a cool whirlpool. C. Use of massage. D. Use of an elastic wrap.
C- massage
35. In a hospital's emergency room, a PT evaluates and establishes a plan of care for a recently burned and injured patient. The PT's plan of care directs the PTA to begin working on this newly admitted patient. What would be within the PTA's scope of practice to provide in the care of this patient? A. Evaluation of the patient's injured areas to determine the wound care needed. B. Fabrication of customized splints for the patient's burned legs. C. Measurement of joint ROM of the involved joints with a goniometer. D. Sharp scissor cleaning of the burned areas.
C- measure joint ROM
112. Continue LE flexibility A. Maximum Protection Phase B. Moderate Protection Phase C. Minimum Protection Phase
C- mini
105. TRANSITION TO MAINTENCE PROGRAM A. Maximum Protection Phase B. Moderate Protection Phase C. Minimum Protection Phase
C- minimum
108. INCREASE POWER A. Maximum Protection Phase B. Moderate Protection Phase C. Minimum Protection Phase
C- minimum protect
106. IMPROVE DYNAMIC STABILITY A. Maximum Protection Phase B. Moderate Protection Phase C. Minimum Protection Phase
C- minimum protection
10. The PTA is performing PROM of a patient's dorsiflexion while the patient is in prone. This motion may be limited by ____________________ if the PTA keeps the patient's knee in extension with a towel roll placed superior to the patella. A. active insufficiency of the ankle dorsiflexors. B. active insufficiency of the ankle plantarflexors. C. passive insufficiency of the ankle plantarflexors. D. passive insufficiency of the ankle dorsiflexors.
C- passive insufficiency of the ankle plantarflexors
30. The PTA stretches a patient's tight hamstrings with a static progressive stretch technique using a 60 second hold. The 60 second hold the PTA uses will get the patient's tight tissues into the: A. collagen phase of the hamstrings. B. strain phase of the hamstring's musculotendinous junctions. C. plastic range of the hamstring's fibers. D. elastic range of the hamstring's fibers.
C- plastic
90. A scoliotic spinal curve is a lateral curve in the spine that is often revealed in a postural exam. The view to best see evidence of a scoliotic curve would be: A. lateral view in standing. B. anterior view in standing and sitting. C. posterior view in standing. D. posterior view in sitting
C- post stand
88. In instructing your patient to stretch the hamstrings you can position the patient in: A. supine. B. either supine or sitting. C. either supine, sitting or standing. D. prone.
C- supine/ sitting/ standing
8. In designing a home exercise program, it is important for the PTA to first take into account: A. the patient's nutritional status. B. the patient's age. C. the patient's functional goals. D. the patient's family assistance available at home.
C- the patients functional goals
67. The Rate of Perceived Exertion [RPE] scale is often used in PT. The RPE scale is indicated for use primarily with the intervention of: A. instruction in relaxation breathing. B. gait training. C. therapeutic exercise. D. massage.
C- therapeutic exercise
186. Deep segmental activation and muscle training is an essential element to work on with patients presenting with LBP. What muscles are you training? A. Abdominals B. Glutes, Deep Lumbar, and Deep Abdominal Muscles C. TrA and Mf in the lumbar spine and longus colli in cervical spine D. Glutes, Abdominals, Multifidis, Urine control with sphincter (Stop/go)
C- transverse abdominus + multifidus
87. In instructing your patient with "tennis elbow" (lateral epicondylitis) to stretch the wrist extensors, you will need to position the patient's arm in: A. full wrist extension, with supination and elbow extension. B. full wrist extension, with pronation and elbow extension. C. full wrist flexion, with pronation and elbow extension. D. full wrist flexion, with pronation and elbow flexion.
C- wrist flexion + pronation, elbow extension
26. An indication for the use of mechanical or manual cervical traction would be: A. acute inflammation in the area to be treated B. joint hypermobility with muscle spasms in the area to be treated C. TMJ problems D. joint hypomobilty with muscle spasms in the area to be treated
D- hypomobility + muscle spasm
52. The PTA is working with a patient for lower extremity strengthening. If the patient's strengthening exercises are too easy, the first parameter the PTA should change for the most optimal strengthening effect is: A. increase the frequency. B. decrease the rest intervals. C. increase the repetitions. D. increase the intensity or load.
D- increase intensity/load
161. When lifting a heavy weight on one side, the body will normally shift towards it. A. True B. False
False (away)
57. To optimally stretch the pectoralis major the patient should be positioned: A. quadruped, sitting on heels, forward trunk flexion, with upper extremities in 180 degrees of shoulder flexion. B. supine with the shoulder abducted to 45 degrees and medially rotated. C. supine with the shoulder flexed and abducted to approximately 45 degrees. D. with hands clasped together behind the low back with trunk extended.
D- hands behind low back, trunk extended
77. What would most likely be included in a physical therapy plan of care for a patient referred with functional lower extremity weakness? A. Ambulation and gait training B. Functional activities C. Pelvic and leg strengthening exercises D. All of the above
D
166. In order to achieve a therapeutic effect from mechanical traction to the thoracic and lumbar spine, what is the lowest percentage of body weight that will be needed? a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 25%
D- 25%
148. An uncoordinated pattern of gait that can be characterized by difficulty with stability of the trunk or achieving a smooth trajectory with the limb during swing. Often secondary to CNS dysfunction or ETOH abuse. A. Antalgic Gait B. Trendelenburg Gait C. Circumduction Gait D. Ataxic Gait
D- ataxic
36. As a PTA you instruct your patient through basic lumbar stabilization with progressive limb loading with emphasis on abdominals. The correct sequence for progressive limb loading would be: A. Lift bent leg to 90° hip flexion, Lift straight leg to 45°, Slide heel to extend leg B. Lift straight leg to 45°, Lift bent leg to 90° hip flexion, Slide heel to extend leg C. Glute Sets, Quad sets, Bridging, ITBand stretch D. Lift bent leg to 90° hip flexion, Slide heel to extend leg, Lift straight leg to 45°
D- bent, slide, SL
28. A problem which could occur with some patients during the use of mechanical cervical traction is: A. a decreased foraminal impingement. B. an increase in spinal joint mobility. C. a decrease in cervicalgia. D. claustrophobia.
D- claustrophobia
15. Which of the following is an outcome of using a compression wrap? A. An increase of tissue ischemia for improved nutrition to the edematous area. B. A decrease of fluid volume in the arteries and veins. C. A decrease of fluid around the heart and lungs. D. Compression of extracellular fluid back into the vascular system.
D- compression of extracellular fluid back into vascular system
62. A patient is one week S/P (R) TKA and now complains of deep (R) calf pain. The right calf is warm to the touch and the pain increases with ambulation. Quick dorsiflexion of the right ankle by the PTA elicits pain at the patient's calf. The most appropriate immediate response for the PTA to do would be to: A. tell the patient that this is normal post-op pain and that massage and ice is needed. B. continue with ambulation training only to the patient's tolerance. C. initiate active and active-assist calf stretches. D. discuss with the PT to rule out the possibility of a deep venous thrombosis
D- discuss with PT to rule out DVT
201. TENS works by evoking responses in the Dorsal Horn and inhibiting nociceptive fibers. Stimulation of large diameter afferents is called: a. Pulse Width b. Intensity c. Accupuncture d. Gate Theory of Pain
D- gate theory
18. A PTA treats a 19-year-old male with a spinal cord injury. During the treatment the patient makes a culturally insensitive remark that the PTA feels is offensive. The most appropriate immediate action for the PTA to take would be to: A. document the incident carefully and clearly in the "S" part of the medical note. B. transfer the patient to another therapist's schedule. C. discharge the patient from PT services. D. inform the patient that the remark was offensive and continue with the treatment.
D- inform the patient
187. What exercises should be avoided in the acute stages of LBP? A. Eccentric B. Concentric C. Isokinetic D. Isometric
D- iso
86. The plan of care for a patient s/p ACL reconstruction employs closed-chain rehabilitation. Which of the following is not considered to be a closed-chain exercise? A. Exercise on a stair machine. B. Wall squats limited to 45° of knee flexion. C. Sitting on a physioball rolling forwards and backwards using the feet. D. Isokinetic knee flexion/extension movements.
D- isokinectic
14. A PTA employed in an acute care hospital works with a patient on bed mobility. The PTA would like to incorporate a strengthening activity for the hip extensors that will improve the patient's ability to independently reposition in bed, however, the patient does not have adequate strength to perform bridging. The most appropriate exercise activity would then be: A. anterior pelvic tilts. B. heel slides. C. straight leg raises. D. isometric gluteal sets.
D- isometric glut sets
92. Peripheral joint mobilization is an intervention primarily used to work on: A. promoting earlier ambulation for a patient. B. promoting better wound healing and edema control. C. improving muscle range and flexibility. D. improving ligamentous or joint capsule range and flexibility.
D- ligament + capsule ROM
47. PTAs use gloves to prevent the transmission of infection to patients and/or themselves. When is it appropriate for a PTA to reuse gloves? A. When the gloves have been used to treat one patient. B. When the gloves have been used by the patient. C. When the gloves have not come in contact with any infectious material. D. Gloves that PTAs use on patients are never reused.
D- never
6. What is the most optimal way for a PTA to stretch a patient's right hip flexion contracture to gain the most lengthening? A. Patient is in left sidelying, then PTA passively flexes the patient's right hip, knee, and ankle. B. Patient is in supine, then PTA facilitates the patient to bridge the pelvis which actively stimulates the hip flexors. C. Patient is supine with right leg over the table's edge, then the PTA passively flexes the patient's right hip. D. Patient is prone, then the PTA stabilizes the patient's pelvis and extends the patient's right hip.
D- patient prone, stabilize pelvis + extend right hip
9. The PTA is asked to apply a compression wrap to a patient's recently sprained knee. The PTA must: A. use a spiral wrapping technique starting proximal to the sprain and moving distally. B. use a circumferential wrapping technique starting proximal to the sprain and moving distally. C. perform a figure-8 compression wrap starting proximal to the sprain and moving distally. D. perform a figure-8 compression wrap starting distal to the sprain and moving proximally.
D- perform figure 8 compression wrap starting DISTAL to sprain
82. The statement "Will continue next session with green resistance band for strengthening of lateral rotation of the left shoulder, progressing to 10 reps, with re-assessment by PT x 1 week" will be noted in what part of the SOAP note? A. subjective. B. objective. C. assessment. D. plan.
D- plan
184. Cervical flexion Injuries will affect what muscles? A. Anterior B. Lateral C. Anterior/Lateral D Posterior
D- post
46. All of the following are indications for the use of gentle stretching with the exception of: A. Reduction of muscle spasms. B. Reduction of myofascial pain. C. Reduction of trigger points. D. Reduction of inflammation.
D- reduce inflammation
74. All of the following are important components of stretching with the exception of: A. duration. B. stabilization. C. alignment. D. rest intervals.
D- rest intervals
34. During gait training, a patient demonstrates an obvious left leg length discrepancy. The measurement best used to determine leg length discrepancy is a: A. figure-8 measurement. B. dynametric measurement. C. bioelectric measurement. D. segmental length measurement.
D- segmental length measurement
81. The PTA is treating a patient s/p spinal surgery for stabilization of a T8 fracture. The PTA notes in the medical chart that the patient had spinal traction for stabilization of the fracture. In regards to PT treatment, the PTA knows that: A. lumbar traction will be started at 25% of the patient's body weight. B. lumbar traction should be in the 90/90 position to reach the thoracic spine. C. lumbar traction will be started on this patient in the subacute stage. D. lumbar traction for this patient will be contraindicated.
D- traction contra
122. _____ Use High Loads, pain is expected, and resisted motions should cause pain.
F
126. _____ To prevent an avulsion of the repaired deltoid Active ROM should be initiated 1-2 weeks post op
F
127. _____ To ensure optimal body mechanics you should educate you patient to PULL a cart NOT push.
F
163. Gastrocnemius and soleus work to prevent lateral motion of the tibia when standing. A. True B. False
F (forward motion)
191. Patient should feel more pull at the chin rather than at the occiput A True B False
F (occiput)
190. Positioned in 10-15 degrees of neck flexion is the most common set-up A True B False
T (10-15 flex)
119. _____ Perform PASSIVE or AAROM within safe and pain free ranges based on the surgeon's intraoperative observation of the mobility and strength of the repair.
T
120. _____ To ensure adequate humeral depression and avoid superior translation of the humeral head you must restore the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles before dynamically strengthening the shoulder flexors and abductors
T
121. _____ If the deltoid was detached and repaired, initially avoid end-range range shoulder extension, adduction and horizontal adduction.
T
123. _____ While at rest in supine, support the distal humerus on a folded towel.
T
Rule of 9s: everything not 9 or 4.5
genitals 1; toddler head 18 (whole head front & back)
Rule of 9s: 4.5's
head & arms
