Quiz 3- Hospice, AKI, urinary

A patient in the oliguric phase after an acute kidney injury has had a 250-mL urine output and an emesis of 100 mL in the past 24 hours. What is the patient's fluid restriction for the next 24 hours?

950 mL The general rule for calculating fluid restrictions is to add all fluid losses for the previous 24 hours, plus 600 mL for insensible losses: (250 + 100 + 600 = 950 mL).

A patient will need vascular access for hemodialysis. Which statement by the nurse accurately describes an advantage of a fistula over a graft? a. A fistula is much less likely to clot. b. A fistula increases patient mobility. c. A fistula can accommodate larger needles. d. A fistula can be used sooner after surgery.

A Arteriovenous (AV) fistulas are much less likely to clot than grafts, although it takes longer for them to mature to the point where they can be used for dialysis. The choice of an AV fistula or a graft does not have an impact on needle size or patient mobility.

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is ordered for a patient with hyperkalemia. Before administering the medication, the nurse should assess the a. bowel sounds. b. blood glucose. c. blood urea nitrogen (BUN). d. level of consciousness (LOC).

A Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) should not be given to a patient with a paralytic ileus (as indicated by absent bowel sounds) because bowel necrosis can occur. The BUN and creatinine, blood glucose, and LOC would not affect the nurse's decision to give the medication.

A 72-yr-old patient with a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is admitted with acute urinary retention and elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. Which prescribed therapy should the nurse implement first? a. Insert urethral catheter. b. Obtain renal ultrasound. c. Draw a complete blood count. d. Infuse normal saline at 50 mL/hour.

A The patient's elevation in BUN is most likely associated with hydronephrosis caused by the acute urinary retention, so the insertion of a retention catheter is the first action to prevent ongoing postrenal failure for this patient. The other actions also are appropriate but should be implemented after the retention catheter.

When caring for a patient with a left arm arteriovenous fistula, which action will the nurse include in the plan of care to maintain the patency of the fistula? a. Auscultate for a bruit at the fistula site. b. Assess the quality of the left radial pulse. c. Compare blood pressures in the left and right arms. d. Irrigate the fistula site with saline every 8 to 12 hours.

A The presence of a thrill and bruit indicates adequate blood flow through the fistula. Pulse rate and quality are not good indicators of fistula patency. Blood pressures should never be obtained on the arm with a fistula. Irrigation of the fistula might damage the fistula, and typically only dialysis staff would access the fistula.

Which information will be included when the nurse is teaching self-management to a patient who is receiving peritoneal dialysis (select all that apply)? a. Avoid commercial salt substitutes. b. Restrict fluid intake to 1000 mL daily. c. Take phosphate binders with each meal. d. Choose high-protein foods for most meals. e. Have several servings of dairy products daily.

A, C, D Patients who are receiving peritoneal dialysis should have a high-protein diet. Phosphate binders are taken with meals to help control serum phosphate and calcium levels. Commercial salt substitutes are high in potassium and should be avoided. Fluid intake is not limited unless weight and blood pressure are notmcontrolled. Dairy products are high in phosphate and usually are limited.

Which medication taken at home by a patient with decreased renal function will be of most concern to the nurse? a. ibuprofen (Motrin) c. folic acid (vitamin B9) b. warfarin (Coumadin) d. penicillin (Bicillin C-R)

ANS: A The nonsteroidal antiinflammatory medications (NSAIDs) are nephrotoxic and should be avoided in patients with impaired renal function. The nurse should also ask about reasons the patient is taking the other medications, but the medication of most concern is the ibuprofen. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1020 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which nursing action is of highest priority for a 68-year-old patient with renal calculi who is being admitted to the hospital with gross hematuria and severe colicky left flank pain? a. Administer prescribed analgesics. b. Monitor temperature every 4 hours. c. Encourage increased oral fluid intake. d. Give antiemetics as needed for nausea.

ANS: A Although all of the nursing actions may be used for patients with renal lithiasis, the patient's presentation indicates that management of pain is the highest priority action. If the patient has urinary obstruction, increasing oral fluids may increase the symptoms. There is no evidence of infection or nausea.

A patient is admitted to the emergency department with possible renal trauma after an automobile accident. Which prescribed intervention will the nurse implement first? a. Check blood pressure and heart rate. b. Administer morphine sulfate 4 mg IV. c. Transport to radiology for an intravenous pyelogram. d. Insert a urethral catheter and obtain a urine specimen.

ANS: A Because the kidney is very vascular, the initial action with renal trauma will be assessment for bleeding and shock. The other actions are also important once the patient's cardiovascular status has been determined and stabilized.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has had an ileal conduit for several years. Which nursing action could be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Change the ostomy appliance. b. Choose the appropriate ostomy bag. c. Monitor the appearance of the stoma. d. Assess for possible urinary tract infection (UTI).

ANS: A Changing the ostomy appliance for a stable patient could be done by UAP. Assessments of the site, choosing the appropriate ostomy bag, and assessing for (UTI) symptoms require more education and scope of practice and should be done by the registered nurse (RN).

A patient in the urology clinic is diagnosed with monilial urethritis. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Teach the patient about the use of antifungal medications. b. Tell the patient to avoid tub baths until the symptoms resolve. c. Instruct the patient to refer recent sexual partners for treatment. d. Teach the patient to avoid nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

ANS: A Monilial urethritis is caused by a fungus and antifungal medications such as nystatin (Mycostatin) or fluconazole (Diflucan) are usually used as treatment. Because monilial urethritis is not sexually transmitted, there is no need to refer sexual partners. Warm baths and NSAIDS may be used to treat symptoms.

A 44-year-old patient is unable to void after having an open loop resection and fulguration of the bladder. Which nursing action should be implemented first? a. Assist the patient to soak in a 15-minute sitz bath. b. Insert a straight urethral catheter and drain the bladder. c. Encourage the patient to drink several glasses of water. d. Teach the patient how to do isometric perineal exercises.

ANS: A Sitz baths will relax the perineal muscles and promote voiding. Although the patient should be encouraged to drink fluids and Kegel exercises are helpful in the prevention of incontinence, these activities would not be helpful for a patient experiencing retention. Catheter insertion increases the risk for urinary tract infection (UTI) and should be avoided when possible

After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient with a urethral stricture who has not voided for 12 hours b. Patient who has cloudy urine after orthotopic bladder reconstruction c. Patient with polycystic kidney disease whose blood pressure is 186/98 mm Hg d. Patient who voided bright red urine immediately after returning from lithotripsy

ANS: A The patient information suggests acute urinary retention, a medical emergency. The nurse will need to assess the patient and consider whether to insert a retention catheter. The other patients will also be assessed, but their findings are consistent with their diagnoses and do not require immediate assessment or possible intervention.

A 76-year-old with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is agitated and confused, with a markedly distended bladder. Which intervention prescribed by the health care provider should the nurse implement first? a. Insert a urinary retention catheter. b. Schedule an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). c. Draw blood for a serum creatinine level. d. Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 0.5 mg PO.

ANS: A The patient's history and clinical manifestations are consistent with acute urinary retention, and the priority action is to relieve the retention by catheterization. The BUN and creatinine measurements can be obtained after the catheter is inserted. The patient's agitation may resolve once the bladder distention is corrected, and sedative drugs should be used cautiously in older patients. The IVP is an appropriate test but does not need to be done urgently.

It is most important that the nurse ask a patient admitted with acute glomerulonephritis about a. history of kidney stones. b. recent sore throat and fever. c. history of high blood pressure. d. frequency of bladder infections.

ANS: B Acute glomerulonephritis frequently occurs after a streptococcal infection such as strep throat. It is not caused by kidney stones, hypertension, or urinary tract infection (UTI).

A 58-year-old male patient who weighs 242 lb (110 kg) undergoes a nephrectomy for massive kidney trauma due to a motor vehicle crash. Which postoperative assessment finding is most important to communicate to the surgeon? a. Blood pressure is 102/58. b. Urine output is 20 mL/hr for 2 hours. c. Incisional pain level is reported as 9/10. d. Crackles are heard at bilateral lung bases.

ANS: B Because the urine output should be at least 0.5 mL/kg/hr, a 40 mL output for 2 hours indicates that the patient may have decreased renal perfusion because of bleeding, inadequate fluid intake, or obstruction at the suture site. The blood pressure requires ongoing monitoring but does not indicate inadequate perfusion at this time. The patient should cough and deep breathe, but the crackles do not indicate a need for an immediate change in therapy. The incisional pain should be addressed, but this is not as potentially life threatening as decreased renal perfusion. In addition, the nurse can medicate the patient for pain.

The nurse will plan to teach a 27-year-old female who smokes 2 packs of cigarettes daily about the increased risk for a. kidney stones. b. bladder cancer. c. bladder infection. d. interstitial cystitis.

ANS: B Cigarette smoking is a risk factor for bladder cancer. The patient's risk for developing interstitial cystitis, urinary tract infection (UTI), or kidney stones will not be reduced by quitting smoking.

A 22-year-old female patient seen in the clinic for a bladder infection describes the following symptoms. Which information is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Urinary urgency b. Left-sided flank pain c. Intermittent hematuria d. Burning with urination

ANS: B Flank pain indicates that the patient may have developed pyelonephritis as a complication of the bladder infection. The other clinical manifestations are consistent with a lower urinary tract infection (UTI).

When planning teaching for a 59-year-old male patient with benign nephrosclerosis the nurse should include instructions regarding a. preventing bleeding with anticoagulants. b. monitoring and recording blood pressure. c. obtaining and documenting daily weights. d. measuring daily intake and output volumes.

ANS: B Hypertension is the major symptom of nephrosclerosis. Measurements of intake and output and daily weights are not necessary unless the patient develops renal insufficiency. Anticoagulants are not used to treat nephrosclerosis.

To prevent recurrence of uric acid renal calculi, the nurse teaches the patient to avoid eating a. milk and cheese. b. sardines and liver. c. legumes and dried fruit. d. spinach, chocolate, and tea.

ANS: B Organ meats and fish such as sardines increase purine levels and uric acid. Spinach, chocolate, and tomatoes should be avoided in patients who have oxalate stones. Milk, dairy products, legumes, and dried fruits may increase the incidence of calcium-containing stones.

Which information will the nurse include when teaching the patient with a urinary tract infection (UTI) about the use of phenazopyridine (Pyridium)? a. Pyridium may cause photosensitivity b. Pyridium may change the urine color. c. Take the Pyridium for at least 7 days. d. Take Pyridium before sexual intercourse.

ANS: B Patients should be taught that Pyridium will color the urine deep orange. Urinary analgesics should only be needed for a few days until the prescribed antibiotics decrease the bacterial count. Pyridium does not cause photosensitivity. Taking Pyridium before intercourse will not be helpful in reducing the risk for UTI.

Which assessment finding for a patient who has just been admitted with acute pyelonephritis is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Complaint of flank pain b. Blood pressure 90/48 mm Hg c. Cloudy and foul-smelling urine d. Temperature 100.1° F (57.8° C)

ANS: B The low blood pressure indicates that urosepsis and septic shock may be occurring and should be immediately reported. The other findings are typical of pyelonephritis.

A 58-year-old male patient who is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome has ascites and 4+ leg edema. Which nursing diagnosis is a priority for the patient? a. Activity intolerance related to rapidly increased weight b. Excess fluid volume related to low serum protein levels c. Disturbed body image related to peripheral edema and ascites d. Altered nutrition: less than required related to protein restriction

ANS: B The patient has massive edema, so the priority problem at this time is the excess fluid volume. The other nursing diagnoses are also appropriate, but the focus of nursing care should be resolution of the edema and ascites.

A 56-year-old female patient is admitted to the hospital with new onset nephrotic syndrome. Which assessment data will the nurse expect? a. Poor skin turgor b. Recent weight gain c. Elevated urine ketones d. Decreased blood pressure

ANS: B The patient with a nephrotic syndrome will have weight gain associated with edema. Hypertension is a clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome. Skin turgor is normal because of the edema. Urine protein is high.

A 79-yr-old patient has been admitted with benign prostatic hyperplasia. What is most appropriate to include in the nursing plan of care? a. Limit fluid intake to no more than 1000 mL/day. b. Leave a light on in the bathroom during the night. c. Ask the patient to use a urinal so that urine can be measured. d. Pad the patient's bed to accommodate overflow incontinence.

ANS: B The patient's age and diagnosis indicate a likelihood of nocturia, so leaving the light on in the bathroom is appropriate. Fluids should be encouraged because dehydration is more common in older patients. The information in the question does not indicate that measurement of the patient's output is necessary or that the patient has overflow incontinence. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1022 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A 34-year-old male patient seen at the primary care clinic complains of feeling continued fullness after voiding and a split, spraying urine stream. The nurse will ask about a history of a. recent kidney trauma. b. gonococcal urethritis. c. recurrent bladder infection. d. benign prostatic hyperplasia.

ANS: B The patient's clinical manifestations are consistent with urethral strictures, a possible complication of gonococcal urethritis. These symptoms are not consistent with benign prostatic hyperplasia, kidney trauma, or bladder infection.

A patient who had surgery for creation of an ileal conduit 3 days ago will not look at the stoma and requests that only the ostomy nurse specialist does the stoma care. The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of a. anxiety related to effects of procedure on lifestyle. b. disturbed body image related to change in function. c. readiness for enhanced coping related to need for information. d. self-care deficit, toileting, related to denial of altered body function.

ANS: B The patient's unwillingness to look at the stoma or participate in care indicates that disturbed body image is the best diagnosis. No data suggest that the impact on lifestyle is a concern for the patient. The patient does not appear to be ready for enhanced coping. The patient's insistence that only the ostomy nurse care for the stoma indicates that denial is not present.

Which action will the nurse anticipate taking for an otherwise healthy 50-year-old who has just been diagnosed with Stage 1 renal cell carcinoma? a. Prepare patient for a renal biopsy. b. Provide preoperative teaching about nephrectomy. c. Teach the patient about chemotherapy medications. d. Schedule for a follow-up appointment in 3 months.

ANS: B The treatment of choice in patients with localized renal tumors who have no co-morbid conditions is partial or total nephrectomy. A renal biopsy will not be needed in a patient who has already been diagnosed with renal cancer. Chemotherapy is used for metastatic renal cancer. Because renal cell cancer frequently metastasizes, treatment will be started as soon as possible after the diagnosis.

A patient has been diagnosed with urinary tract calculi that are high in uric acid. Which foods will the nurse teach the patient to avoid (select all that apply)? a. Milk b. Liver c. Spinach d. Chicken e. Cabbage f. Chocolate

ANS: B, D Meats contain purines, which are metabolized to uric acid. The other foods might be restricted in patients who have calcium or oxalate stones.

Following rectal surgery, a patient voids about 50 mL of urine every 30 to 60 minutes for the first 4 hours. Which nursing action is most appropriate? a. Monitor the patient's intake and output over night. b. Have the patient drink small amounts of fluid frequently. c. Use an ultrasound scanner to check the postvoiding residual volume. d. Reassure the patient that this is normal after rectal surgery because of anesthesia.

ANS: C An ultrasound scanner can be used to check for residual urine after the patient voids. Because the patient's history and clinical manifestations are consistent with overflow incontinence, it is not appropriate to have the patient drink small amounts. Although overflow incontinence is not unusual after surgery, the nurse should intervene to correct the physiologic problem, not just reassure the patient. The patient may develop reflux into the renal pelvis and discomfort from a full bladder if the nurse waits to address the problem for several hours.

A 28-year-old male patient is diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease. Which information is most appropriate for the nurse to include in teaching at this time? a. Complications of renal transplantation b. Methods for treating severe chronic pain c. Discussion of options for genetic counseling d. Differences between hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis

ANS: C Because a 28-year-old patient may be considering having children, the nurse should include information about genetic counseling when teaching the patient. The well-managed patient will not need to choose between hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis or know about the effects of transplantation for many years. There is no indication that the patient has chronic pain.

Nursing staff on a hospital unit are reviewing rates of hospital-acquired infections (HAI) of the urinary tract. Which nursing action will be most helpful in decreasing the risk for HAI in patients admitted to the hospital? a. Encouraging adequate oral fluid intake b. Testing urine with a dipstick daily for nitrites c. Avoiding unnecessary urinary catheterizations d. Providing frequent perineal hygiene to patients

ANS: C Because catheterization bypasses many of the protective mechanisms that prevent urinary tract infection (UTI), avoidance of catheterization is the most effective means of reducing HAI. The other actions will also be helpful, but are not as useful as decreasing urinary catheter use.

A 46-year-old female patient returns to the clinic with recurrent dysuria after being treated with trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) for 3 days. Which action will the nurse plan to take? a. Teach the patient to take the prescribed Bactrim for 3 more days. b. Remind the patient about the need to drink 1000 mL of fluids daily. c. Obtain a midstream urine specimen for culture and sensitivity testing. d. Suggest that the patient use acetaminophen (Tylenol) to treat the symptoms.

ANS: C Because uncomplicated urinary tract infections (UTIs) are usually successfully treated with 3 days of antibiotic therapy, this patient will need a urine culture and sensitivity to determine appropriate antibiotic therapy. Acetaminophen would not be as effective as other over-the-counter (OTC) medications such as phenazopyridine (Pyridium) in treating dysuria. The fluid intake should be increased to at least 1800 mL/day. Because the UTI has persisted after treatment with Bactrim, the patient is likely to need a different antibiotic.

Which information from a patient who had a transurethral resection with fulguration for bladder cancer 3 days ago is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient is voiding every 4 hours. b. The patient is using opioids for pain. c. The patient has seen clots in the urine. d. The patient is anxious about the cancer.

ANS: C Clots in the urine are not expected and require further follow-up. Voiding every 4 hours, use of opioids for pain, and anxiety are typical after this procedure.

Which information about a patient with Goodpasture syndrome requires the most rapid action by the nurse? a. Blood urea nitrogen level is 70 mg/dL. b. Urine output over the last 2 hours is 30 mL. c. Audible crackles bilaterally over the posterior chest to the midscapular level. d. Elevated level of antiglomerular basement membrane (anti-GBM) antibodies.

ANS: C Crackles heard to a high level indicate a need for rapid actions such as assessment of oxygen saturation, reporting the findings to the health care provider, initiating oxygen therapy, and dialysis. The other findings will also be reported, but are typical of Goodpasture syndrome and do not require immediate nursing action.

The nurse will anticipate teaching a patient with nephrotic syndrome who develops flank pain about treatment with a. antibiotics. b. antifungals. c. anticoagulants. d. antihypertensives.

ANS: C Flank pain in a patient with nephrotic syndrome suggests a renal vein thrombosis, and anticoagulation is needed. Antibiotics are used to treat a patient with flank pain caused by pyelonephritis. Fungal pyelonephritis is uncommon and is treated with antifungals. Antihypertensives are used if the patient has high blood pressure.

The nurse determines that further instruction is needed for a patient with interstitial cystitis when the patient says which of the following? a. "I should stop having coffee and orange juice for breakfast." b. "I will buy calcium glycerophosphate (Prelief) at the pharmacy." c. "I will start taking high potency multiple vitamins every morning." d. "I should call the doctor about increased bladder pain or odorous urine."

ANS: C High-potency multiple vitamins may irritate the bladder and increase symptoms. The other patient statements indicate good understanding of the teaching.

A patient admitted to the hospital with pneumonia has a history of functional urinary incontinence. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Demonstrate the use of the Credé maneuver. b. Teach exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor. c. Place a bedside commode close to the patient's bed. d. Use an ultrasound scanner to check postvoiding residuals.

ANS: C Modifications in the environment make it easier to avoid functional incontinence. Checking for residual urine and performing the Credé maneuver are interventions for overflow incontinence. Kegel exercises are useful for stress incontinence.

When a patient's urine dipstick test indicates a small amount of protein, the nurse's next action should be to a. send a urine specimen to the laboratory to test for ketones. b. obtain a clean-catch urine for culture and sensitivity testing. c. inquire about which medications the patient is currently taking. d. ask the patient about any family history of chronic renal failure.

ANS: C Normally the urinalysis will show zero to trace amounts of protein, but some medications may give false-positive readings. The other actions by the nurse may be appropriate, but checking for medications that may affect the dipstick accuracy should be done first. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1026 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The home health nurse teaches a patient with a neurogenic bladder how to use intermittent catheterization for bladder emptying. Which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "I will buy seven new catheters weekly and use a new one every day." b. "I will use a sterile catheter and gloves for each time I self-catheterize." c. "I will clean the catheter carefully before and after each catheterization." d. "I will need to take prophylactic antibiotics to prevent any urinary tract infections."

ANS: C Patients who are at home can use a clean technique for intermittent self-catheterization and change the catheter every 7 days. There is no need to use a new catheter every day, to use sterile catheters, or to take prophylactic antibiotics.

A 63-year-old male patient had a cystectomy with an ileal conduit yesterday. Which new assessment data is most important for the nurse to communicate to the physician? a. Cloudy appearing urine b. Hypotonic bowel sounds c. Heart rate 102 beats/minute d. Continuous stoma drainage

ANS: C Tachycardia may indicate infection, hemorrhage, or hypovolemia, which are all serious complications of this surgery. The urine from an ileal conduit normally contains mucus and is cloudy. Hypotonic bowel sounds are expected after bowel surgery. Continuous drainage of urine from the stoma is normal.

A 68-year-old male patient who has bladder cancer had a cystectomy with creation of an Indiana pouch. Which topic will be included in patient teaching? a. Application of ostomy appliances b. Barrier products for skin protection c. Catheterization technique and schedule d. Analgesic use before emptying the pouch

ANS: C The Indiana pouch enables the patient to self-catheterize every 4 to 6 hours. There is no need for an ostomy device or barrier products. Catheterization of the pouch is not painful.

The nurse observes unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) taking the following actions when caring for a female patient with a urethral catheter. Which action requires that the nurse intervene? a. Taping the catheter to the skin on the patient's upper inner thigh b. Cleaning around the patient's urinary meatus with soap and water c. Disconnecting the catheter from the drainage tube to obtain a specimen d. Using an alcohol-based gel hand cleaner before performing catheter care

ANS: C The catheter should not be disconnected from the drainage tube because this increases the risk for urinary tract infection (UTI). The other actions are appropriate and do not require any intervention.

After a ureterolithotomy, a female patient has a left ureteral catheter and a urethral catheter in place. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Provide teaching about home care for both catheters. b. Apply continuous steady tension to the ureteral catheter. c. Call the health care provider if the ureteral catheter output drops suddenly. d. Clamp the ureteral catheter off when output from the urethral catheter stops.

ANS: C The health care provider should be notified if the ureteral catheter output decreases because obstruction of this catheter may result in an increase in pressure in the renal pelvis. Tension on the ureteral catheter should be avoided in order to prevent catheter displacement. To avoid pressure in the renal pelvis, the catheter is not clamped. Because the patient is not usually discharged with a ureteral catheter in place, patient teaching about both catheters is not needed.

A 32-year-old patient with a history of polycystic kidney disease is admitted to the surgical unit after having shoulder surgery. Which of the routine postoperative orders is most important for the nurse to discuss with the health care provider? a. Infuse 5% dextrose in normal saline at 75 mL/hr. b. Order regular diet after patient is awake and alert. c. Give ketorolac (Toradol) 10 mg PO PRN for pain. d. Draw blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine in 2 hours.

ANS: C The nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should be avoided in patients with decreased renal function because nephrotoxicity is a potential adverse effect. The other orders do not need any clarification or change.

When preparing a female patient with bladder cancer for intravesical chemotherapy, the nurse will teach about a. premedicating to prevent nausea. b. obtaining wigs and scarves to wear. c. emptying the bladder before the medication. d. maintaining oral care during the treatments.

ANS: C The patient will be asked to empty the bladder before instillation of the chemotherapy. Systemic side effects are not usually experienced with intravesical chemotherapy.

The nurse teaches a 64-year-old woman to prevent the recurrence of renal calculi by a. using a filter to strain all urine. b. avoiding dietary sources of calcium. c. choosing diuretic fluids such as coffee. d. drinking 2000 to 3000 mL of fluid a day.

ANS: D A fluid intake of 2000 to 3000 mL daily is recommended to help flush out minerals before stones can form. Avoidance of calcium is not usually recommended for patients with renal calculi. Coffee tends to increase stone recurrence. There is no need for a patient to strain all urine routinely after a stone has passed, and this will not prevent stones.

A hospitalized patient with possible renal insufficiency after coronary artery bypass surgery is scheduled for a creatinine clearance test. Which item will the nurse need to obtain? a. Urinary catheter c. Cleansing towelettes b. Sterile specimen cup d. Large urine container

ANS: D Because creatinine clearance testing involves a 24-hour urine specimen, the nurse should obtain a large container for the urine collection. Catheterization, cleaning of the perineum with antiseptic towelettes, and a sterile specimen cup are not needed for this test. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1031 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which finding for a patient admitted with glomerulonephritis indicates to the nurse that treatment has been effective? a. The patient denies pain with voiding. b. The urine dipstick is negative for nitrites. c. The antistreptolysin-O (ASO) titer is decreased. d. The periorbital and peripheral edema is resolved.

ANS: D Because edema is a common clinical manifestation of glomerulonephritis, resolution of the edema indicates that the prescribed therapies have been effective. Nitrites will be negative and the patient will not experience dysuria because the patient does not have a urinary tract infection. Antibodies to streptococcus will persist after a streptococcal infection.

Which assessment finding is most important to report to the health care provider regarding a patient who has had left-sided extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy? a. Blood in urine b. Left flank bruising c. Left flank discomfort d. Decreased urine output

ANS: D Because lithotripsy breaks the stone into small sand, which could cause obstruction, it is important to report a drop in urine output. Left flank pain, bruising, and hematuria are common after lithotripsy.

Which finding by the nurse will be most helpful in determining whether a 67-year-old patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia has an upper urinary tract infection (UTI)? a. Bladder distention b. Foul-smelling urine c. Suprapubic discomfort d. Costovertebral tenderness

ANS: D Costovertebral tenderness is characteristic of pyelonephritis. Bladder distention, foul-smelling urine, and suprapubic discomfort are characteristic of lower UTI and are likely to be present if the patient also has an upper UTI.

To assess whether there is any improvement in a patient's dysuria, which question will the nurse ask? a. "Do you have to urinate at night?" b. "Do you have blood in your urine?" c. "Do you have to urinate frequently?" d. "Do you have pain when you urinate?"

ANS: D Dysuria is painful urination. The alternate responses are used to assess other urinary tract symptoms: hematuria, nocturia, and frequency. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1025 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A young adult who is employed as a hairdresser and has a 15 pack-year history of cigarette smoking is scheduled for an annual physical examination. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the increased risk for a. renal failure. c. pyelonephritis. b. kidney stones. d. bladder cancer.

ANS: D Exposure to the chemicals involved with working as a hairdresser and in smoking both increase the risk of bladder cancer, and the nurse should assess whether the patient understands this risk. The patient is not at increased risk for renal failure, pyelonephritis, or kidney stones. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1021 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

A 68-year-old female patient admitted to the hospital with dehydration is confused and incontinent of urine. Which nursing action will be best to include in the plan of care? a. Restrict fluids between meals and after the evening meal. b. Apply absorbent incontinent pads liberally over the bed linens. c. Insert an indwelling catheter until the symptoms have resolved. d. Assist the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours during the day.

ANS: D In older or confused patients, incontinence may be avoided by using scheduled toileting times. Indwelling catheters increase the risk for urinary tract infection (UTI). Incontinent pads increase the risk for skin breakdown. Restricting fluids is not appropriate in a patient with dehydration.

A 55-year-old woman admitted for shoulder surgery asks the nurse for a perineal pad, stating that laughing or coughing causes leakage of urine. Which intervention is most appropriate to include in the care plan? a. Assist the patient to the bathroom q3hr. b. Place a commode at the patient's bedside. c. Demonstrate how to perform the Credé maneuver. d. Teach the patient how to perform Kegel exercises.

ANS: D Kegel exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles will help reduce stress incontinence. The Credé maneuver is used to help empty the bladder for patients with overflow incontinence. Placing the commode close to the bedside and assisting the patient to the bathroom are helpful for functional incontinence.

Which assessment data reported by a 28-year-old male patient is consistent with a lower urinary tract infection (UTI)? a. Poor urine output b. Bilateral flank pain c. Nausea and vomiting d. Burning on urination

ANS: D Pain with urination is a common symptom of a lower UTI. Urine output does not decrease, but frequency may be experienced. Flank pain and nausea are associated with an upper UTI.

The nurse determines that instruction regarding prevention of future urinary tract infections (UTIs) has been effective for a 22-year-old female patient with cystitis when the patient states which of the following? a. "I can use vaginal antiseptic sprays to reduce bacteria." b. "I will drink a quart of water or other fluids every day." c. "I will wash with soap and water before sexual intercourse." d. "I will empty my bladder every 3 to 4 hours during the day."

ANS: D Voiding every 3 to 4 hours is recommended to prevent UTIs. Use of vaginal sprays is discouraged. The bladder should be emptied before and after intercourse, but cleaning with soap and water is not necessary. A quart of fluids is insufficient to provide adequate urine output to decrease risk for UTI.

Before administration of captopril to a patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease (CKD), the nurse will check the patient's a. glucose. c. creatinine. b. potassium. d. phosphate.

B Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are frequently used in patients with CKD because they delay the progression of the CKD, but they cause potassium retention. Therefore careful monitoring of potassium levels is needed in patients who are at risk for hyperkalemia. The other laboratory values would also be monitored in patients with CKD but would not affect whether the captopril was given or not.

A 42-yr-old patient admitted with acute kidney injury due to dehydration has oliguria, anemia, and hyperkalemia. Which prescribed action should the nurse take first? a. Insert a urinary retention catheter. b. Place the patient on a cardiac monitor. c. Administer epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit). d. Give sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate).

B Because hyperkalemia can cause fatal cardiac dysrhythmias, the initial action should be to monitor the cardiac rhythm. Kayexalate and Epogen will take time to correct the hyperkalemia and anemia. The catheter allows monitoring of the urine output but does not correct the cause of the renal failure.

Which information will the nurse monitor in order to determine the effectiveness of prescribed calcium carbonate (Caltrate) for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)? a. Blood pressure c. Neurologic status b. Phosphate level d. Creatinine clearance

B Calcium carbonate is prescribed to bind phosphorus and prevent mineral and bone disease in patients with CKD. The other data will not be helpful in evaluating the effectiveness of calcium carbonate.

A female patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving peritoneal dialysis with 2-L inflows. Which information should the nurse report promptly to the health care provider? a. The patient has an outflow volume of 1800 mL. b. The patient's peritoneal effluent appears cloudy. c. The patient's abdomen appears bloated after the inflow. d. The patient has abdominal pain during the inflow phase.

B Cloudy-appearing peritoneal effluent is a sign of peritonitis and should be reported immediately so that treatment with antibiotics can be started. The other problems can be addressed through nursing interventions such as slowing the inflow and repositioning the patient.

A patient has arrived for a scheduled hemodialysis session. Which nursing action is most appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to a dialysis technician? a. Teach the patient about fluid restrictions. b. Check blood pressure before starting dialysis. c. Assess for causes of an increase in predialysis weight. d. Determine the ultrafiltration rate for the hemodialysis.

B Dialysis technicians are educated in monitoring for blood pressure. Assessment, adjustment of the appropriate ultrafiltration rate, and patient teaching require the education and scope of practice of an RN.

Which information in a patient's history indicates to the nurse that the patient is not an appropriate candidate for kidney transplantation? a. The patient has type 1 diabetes. b. The patient has metastatic lung cancer. c. The patient has a history of chronic hepatitis C infection. d. The patient is infected with human immunodeficiency virus.

B Disseminated malignancies are a contraindication to transplantation. The conditions of the other patients are not contraindications for kidney transplant.

The nurse is titrating the IV fluid infusion rate immediately after a patient has had kidney transplantation. Which parameter will be most important for the nurse to consider? a. Heart rate b. Urine output c. Creatinine clearance d. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level

B Fluid volume is replaced based on urine output after transplant because the urine output can be as high as a liter an hour. The other data will be monitored but are not the most important determinants of fluid infusion rate.

When a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has an arterial blood pH of 7.30, the nurse will expect an assessment finding of a. persistent skin tenting b. rapid, deep respirations. c. hot, flushed face and neck. d. bounding peripheral pulses.

B Patients with metabolic acidosis caused by AKI may have Kussmaul respirations as the lungs try to regulate carbon dioxide. Bounding pulses and vasodilation are not associated with metabolic acidosis. Because the patient is likely to have fluid retention, poor skin turgor would not be a finding in AKI.

The nurse is assessing a patient 4 hours after a kidney transplant. Which information is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The urine output is 900 to 1100 mL/hr. b. The patient's central venous pressure (CVP) is decreased. c. The patient has a level 7 (0- to 10-point scale) incisional pain. d. The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels are elevated.

B The decrease in CVP suggests hypovolemia, which must be rapidly corrected to prevent renal hypoperfusion and acute tubular necrosis. The other information is not unusual in a patient after a transplant.

A 62-yr-old female patient has been hospitalized for 4 days with acute kidney injury(AKI) caused by dehydration. Which information will be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. The creatinine level is 3.0 mg/dL. b. Urine output over an 8-hour period is 2500 mL. c. The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is 67 mg/dL. d. The glomerular filtration rate is less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m2

B The high urine output indicates a need to increase fluid intake to prevent hypovolemia. The other information is typical of AKI and will not require a change in therapy.

A 25-yr-old male patient has been admitted with a severe crushing injury after an industrial accident. Which laboratory result will be most important to report to the health care provider? a. Serum creatinine level of 2.1 mg/dL b. Serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L c. White blood cell count of 11,500/μL d. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 56 mg/dL

B The hyperkalemia associated with crushing injuries may cause cardiac arrest and should be treated immediately. The nurse also will report the other laboratory values, but abnormalities in these are not immediately life threatening.

A 74-yr-old patient who is progressing to stage 5 chronic kidney disease asks the nurse, "Do you think I should go on dialysis? Which initial response by the nurse is best? a. "It depends on which type of dialysis you are considering." b. "Tell me more about what you are thinking regarding dialysis." c. "You are the only one who can make the decision about dialysis." d. "Many people your age use dialysis and have a good quality of life."

B The nurse should initially clarify the patient's concerns and questions about dialysis. The patient is the one responsible for the decision, and many people using dialysis do have good quality of life, but these responses block further assessment of the patient's concerns. Referring to which type of dialysis the patient might use only indirectly responds to the patient's question.

Which intervention will be included in the plan of care for a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) who has a temporary vascular access catheter in the left femoral vein? a. Start continuous pulse oximetry. b. Restrict physical activity to bed rest. c. Restrict the patient's oral protein intake. d. Discontinue the urethral retention catheter.

B The patient with a femoral vein catheter must be on bed rest to prevent trauma to the vein. Protein intake is likely to be increased when the patient is receiving dialysis. The retention catheter is likely to remain in place because accurate measurement of output will be needed. There is no indication that the patient needs continuous pulse oximetry.

During routine hemodialysis, a patient complains of nausea and dizziness. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Slow down the rate of dialysis. b. Check the blood pressure (BP). c. Review the hematocrit (Hct) level. d. Give prescribed PRN antiemetic drugs.

B The patient's complaints of nausea and dizziness suggest hypotension, so the initial action should be to check the BP. The other actions may also be appropriate based on the blood pressure obtained.

The nurse is planning care for a patient with severe heart failure who has developed elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. The primary treatment goal in the plan will be a. augmenting fluid volume. b. maintaining cardiac output. c. diluting nephrotoxic substances. d. preventing systemic hypertension.

B The primary goal of treatment for acute kidney injury (AKI) is to eliminate the cause and provide supportive care while the kidneys recover. Because this patient's heart failure is causing AKI, the care will be directed toward treatment of the heart failure. For renal failure caused by hypertension, hypovolemia, or nephrotoxins, the other responses would be correct.

A patient who has had progressive chronic kidney disease (CKD) for several years has just begun regular hemodialysis. Which information about diet will the nurse include in patient teaching? a. Increased calories are needed because glucose is lost during hemodialysis. b. More protein is allowed because urea and creatinine are removed by dialysis. c. Dietary potassium is not restricted because the level is normalized by dialysis. d. Unlimited fluids are allowed because retained fluid is removed during dialysis.

B When the patient is started on dialysis and nitrogenous wastes are removed, more protein in the diet is encouraged. Fluids are still restricted to avoid excessive weight gain and complications such as shortness of breath. Glucose is not lost during hemodialysis. Sodium and potassium intake continues to be restricted to avoid the complications associated with high levels of these electrolytes.

A 38-yr-old patient who had a kidney transplant 8 years ago is receiving the immunosuppressants tacrolimus (Prograf), cyclosporine (Sandimmune), and prednisone . Which assessment data will be of most concern to the nurse? a. Skin is thin and fragile b. Blood pressure is 150/92. c. A nontender axillary lump. d. Blood glucose is 144 mg/dL.

C A nontender lump suggests a malignancy such as a lymphoma, which could occur as a result of chronic immunosuppressive therapy. The elevated glucose, skin change, and hypertension are possible side effects of the prednisone and should be addressed, but they are not as great a concern as the possibility of a malignancy.

Which assessment finding may indicate that a patient is experiencing adverse effects to a corticosteroid prescribed after kidney transplantation? a. Postural hypotension b. Recurrent tachycardia c. Knee and hip joint pain d. Increased serum creatinine

C Aseptic necrosis of the weight-bearing joints can occur when patients take corticosteroids over a prolonged period. Increased creatinine level, orthostatic dizziness, and tachycardia are not caused by corticosteroid use.

A 37-yr-old female patient is hospitalized with acute kidney injury (AKI). Which information will be most useful to the nurse in evaluating improvement in kidney function? a. Urine volume b. Creatinine level c. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) d. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level

C GFR is the preferred method for evaluating kidney function. BUN levels can fluctuate based on factors such as fluid volume status and protein intake. Urine output can be normal or high in patients with AKI and does not accurately reflect kidney function. Creatinine alone is not an accurate reflection of renal function.

A 55-yr-old patient with end-stage kidney disease (ESKD) is scheduled to receive a prescribed dose of epoetin alfa (Procrit). Which information should the nurse report to the health care provider before giving the medication? a. Creatinine 1.6 mg/dL b. Oxygen saturation 89% c. Hemoglobin level 13 g/dL d. Blood pressure 98/56 mm Hg

C High hemoglobin levels are associated with a higher rate of thromboembolic events and increased risk of death from serious cardiovascular events (heart attack, heart failure, stroke) when erythropoietin (EPO) is administered to a target hemoglobin of greater than 12 g/dL. Hemoglobin levels higher than 12 g/dL indicate a need for a decrease in epoetin alfa dose. The other information also will be reported to the health care provider but will not affect whether the medication is administered.

Before administration of calcium carbonate to a patient with chronic kidney disease\(CKD), the nurse should check laboratory results for a. potassium level. c. serum phosphate. b. total cholesterol. d. serum creatinine.

C If serum phosphate is elevated, the calcium and phosphate can cause soft tissue calcification. Calcium carbonate should not be given until the phosphate level is lowered. Total cholesterol, creatinine, and potassium values do not affect whether calcium carbonate should be administered.

The nurse in the dialysis clinic is reviewing the home medications of a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which medication reported by the patient indicates that patient teaching is required? a. Acetaminophen c. Magnesium hydroxide b. Calcium phosphate d. Multivitamin w/ iron

C Magnesium is excreted by the kidneys, and patients with CKD should not use over-the-counter products containing magnesium. The other medications are appropriate for a patient with CKD.

A licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) is caring for a patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease. Which observation by the RN requires an intervention? a. The LPN/LVN administers the erythropoietin subcutaneously. b. The LPN/LVN assists the patient to ambulate out in the hallway. c. The LPN/LVN administers the iron supplement and phosphate binder with lunch. d. The LPN/LVN carries a tray containing low-protein foods into the patient's room.

C Oral phosphate binders should not be given at the same time as iron because they prevent the iron from being absorbed. The phosphate binder should be given with a meal and the iron given at a different time. The other actions by the LPN/LVN are appropriate for a patient with renal insufficiency.

Which action by a patient who is using peritoneal dialysis (PD) indicates that the nurse should provide more teaching about PD? a. The patient leaves the catheter exit site without a dressing. b. The patient plans 30 to 60 minutes for a dialysate exchange. c. The patient cleans the catheter while taking a bath each day. d. The patient slows the inflow rate when experiencing abdominal pain.

C Patients are encouraged to take showers rather than baths to avoid infections at the catheter insertion side. The other patient actions indicate good understanding of peritoneal dialysis.

Which menu choice by the patient who is receiving hemodialysis indicates that the nurse's teaching has been successful? a. Split-pea soup, English muffin, and nonfat milk b. Oatmeal with cream, half a banana, and herbal tea c. Poached eggs, whole-wheat toast, and apple juice d. Cheese sandwich, tomato soup, and cranberry juice

C Poached eggs would provide high-quality protein, and apple juice is low in potassium. Cheese is high in salt and phosphate, and tomato soup is high in potassium. Split-pea soup is high in potassium, and dairy products are high in phosphate. Bananas are high in potassium, and cream is high in phosphate.

A patient who has acute glomerulonephritis is hospitalized with hyperkalemia. Which information will the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the prescribed calcium gluconate IV? a. Urine volume c. Cardiac rhythm b. Calcium level d. Neurologic status

C The calcium gluconate helps prevent dysrhythmias that might be caused by the hyperkalemia. The nurse will monitor the other data as well, but these will not be helpful in determining the effectiveness of the calcium gluconate.

Which statement by a patient with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD) indicates that the nurse's teaching about management of CKD has been effective? a. "I need to get most of my protein from low-fat dairy products." b. "I will increase my intake of fruits and vegetables to 5 per day." c. "I will measure my urinary output each day to help calculate the amount I can drink." d. "I need to take erythropoietin to boost my immune system and help prevent infection."

C The patient with end-stage renal disease is taught to measure urine output as a means of determining an appropriate oral fluid intake. Erythropoietin is given to increase the red blood cell count and will not offer any benefit for immune function. Dairy products are restricted because of the high phosphate level. Many fruits and vegetables are high in potassium and should be restricted in the patient with CKD.

After the insertion of an arteriovenous graft (AVG) in the right forearm, a patient complains of pain and coldness of the right fingers. Which action should the nurse take? a. Teach the patient about normal AVG function. b. Remind the patient to take a daily low-dose aspirin tablet. c. Report the patient's symptoms to the health care provider. d. Elevate the patient's arm on pillows to above the heart level.

C The patient's complaints suggest the development of distal ischemia (steal syndrome) and may require revision of the AVG. Elevation of the arm above the heart will further decrease perfusion. Pain and coolness are not normal after AVG insertion. Aspirin therapy is not used to maintain grafts.

A patient with diabetes who has bacterial pneumonia is being treated with IV gentamicin 60 mg IV BID. The nurse will monitor for adverse effects of the medication by evaluating the patient's a. blood glucose. c. serum creatinine. b. urine osmolality. d. serum potassium.

C When a patient at risk for chronic kidney disease (CKD) receives a potentially nephrotoxic medication, it is important to monitor renal function with BUN and creatinine levels. The other laboratory values would not be useful in assessing for the adverse effects of the gentamicin.

A patient complains of leg cramps during hemodialysis. The nurse should a. massage the patient's legs. b. reposition the patient supine. c. give acetaminophen (Tylenol). d. infuse a bolus of normal saline.

D Muscle cramps during dialysis are caused by rapid removal of sodium and water. Treatment includes infusion of normal saline. The other actions do not address the reason for the cramps.

A patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has longer QRS intervals on the electrocardiogram (ECG) than were noted on the previous shift. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Notify the patient's health care provider. b. Document the QRS interval measurement. c. Review the chart for the patient's current creatinine level. d. Check the medical record for the most recent potassium level.

D The increasing QRS interval is suggestive of hyperkalemia, so the nurse should check the most recent potassium and then notify the patient's health care provider. The BUN and creatinine will be elevated in a patient with AKI, but they would not directly affect the electrocardiogram (ECG). Documentation of the QRS interval is also appropriate, but interventions to decrease the potassium level are needed to prevent life-threatening dysrhythmias.

After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient who is scheduled for the drain phase of a peritoneal dialysis exchange b. Patient with stage 4 chronic kidney disease who has an elevated phosphate level c. Patient with stage 5 chronic kidney disease who has a potassium level of 3.4 mEq/L d. Patient who has just returned from having hemodialysis and has a heart rate of 124/min

D The patient who has tachycardia after hemodialysis may be bleeding or excessively hypovolemic and should be assessed immediately for these complications. The other patients also need assessments or interventions but are not at risk for life-threatening complications.

A major advantage of peritoneal dialysis is a. the diet is less restricted and dialysis can be performed at home b. the dialysate is biocompatible and causes no long-term consequences c. high glucose concentrations of the dialysate cause a reduction in appetite, promoting weight loss d. no medications are required because of the enhanced efficiency of the peritoneal membrane in removing toxins a. the diet is less restricted and dialysis can be performed at home Rationale: Advantages of peritoneal dialysis include fewer dietary restrictions and the possibility of home dialysis. A kidney transplant recipient complains of having fever, chills, and dysuria over the past 2 days. What is the first action that the nurse should take? a. Assess temperature and initiate workup to rule out infection b. Reassure the patient that this is common after transplantation c. Provide warm cover for the patient and give 1 g acetaminophen orally d. Notify the nephrologist that the patient has developed symptoms of acute rejection

a. Assess temperature and initiate workup to rule out infection Rationale: The nurse must be astute in the observation and assessment of kidney transplant recipients because prompt diagnosis and treatment of infections can improve patient outcomes. Fever, chills, and dysuria indicate an infection. The temperature should be assessed, and the patient should undergo diagnostic testing to rule out an infection.

Nutritional support and management are essential across the entire continuum of chronic kidney disease. Which statements would be considered true related to nutritional therapy (select all that apply)? a. Fluid is not usually restricted for patients receiving peritoneal dialysis b. Sodium and potassium may be restricted in someone with advanced CKD c. Decreased fluid intake and a low-potassium diet are hallmarks of the diet for a patient receiving hemodialysis d. Decreased fluid intake and a low-potassium diet are hallmarks of the diet for a patient receiving peritoneal dialysis e. Decreased fluid intake and a diet with phosphate-rich foods are hallmarks of a diet for a patient receiving hemodialysis

a. Fluid is not usually restricted for patients receiving peritoneal dialysis b. Sodium and potassium may be restricted in someone with advanced CKD c. Decreased fluid intake and a low-potassium diet are hallmarks of the diet for a patient receiving hemodialysis Rationale: Water and any other fluids are not routinely restricted before Stage 5 end-stage renal disease (ESRD). Patients receiving hemodialysis have a more restricted diet than do patients receiving peritoneal dialysis. Patients receiving hemodialysis are frequently educated about the need for a dietary restriction of potassium- and phosphate-rich foods. However, patients receiving peritoneal dialysis may actually require replacement of potassium because of the higher losses of potassium with peritoneal dialysis. Sodium and salt restriction is common for all patients with CKD. For those receiving hemodialysis, as their urinary output diminishes, fluid restrictions are enhanced. Intake depends on the daily urine output. In general, 600 mL (from insensible loss) plus an amount equal to the previous day's urine output is allowed for a patient receiving hemodialysis. Patients are advised to limit fluid intake so that weight gains between dialysis sessions (i.e., interdialytic weight gain) are no more than 1 to 2 kg. For the patient who is undergoing dialysis, protein is not routinely restricted. The beneficial role of protein restriction in CKD stages 1 through 4 as a means to reduce the decline in kidney function is controversial. Historically, dietary counseling often encouraged restriction of protein for individuals with CKD. Although there is some evidence that protein restriction has benefits, many patients find these diets difficult to adhere to. For CKD stages 1 through 4, many clinicians encourage a diet with normal protein intake. However, patients must be taught to avoid high-protein diets and supplements because they may overstress the diseased kidneys.

Which descriptions characterize acute kidney injury (select all that apply)? a. Primary cause of death is infection b. It almost always affects older people c. Disease course is potentially reversible d. Most common cause is diabetic nephropathy e. Cardiovascular disease is most common cause of death

a. Primary cause of death is infection c. Disease course is potentially reversible Rationale: Acute kidney injury (AKI) is potentially reversible. AKI has a high mortality rate, and the primary cause of death in patients with AKI is infection. The primary cause of death in patients with chronic kidney failure is cardiovascular disease. Most commonly, AKI follows severe, prolonged hypotension or hypovolemia or exposure to a nephrotoxic agent. Older adults are more susceptible to AKI because the number of functioning nephrons decrease with age, but AKI can occur at any age.

Patients with chronic kidney disease experience an increased incidence of cardiovascular disease related to (select all that apply) a. hypertension b. vascular calcifications c. a genetic predisposition d. hyperinsulinemia causing dyslipidemia e. increased high-density lipoprotein levels

a. hypertension b. vascular calcifications d. hyperinsulinemia causing dyslipidemia Rationale: CKD patients have traditional cardiovascular (CV) risk factors, such as hypertension and elevated lipids. Hyperinsulinemia stimulates hepatic production of triglycerides. Most patients with uremia develop dyslipidemia. CV disease may be related to nontraditional CV risk factors, such as vascular calcification and arterial stiffness, which are major contributors to CV disease in CKD. Calcium deposits in the vascular medial layer are associated with stiffening of the blood vessels. The mechanisms involved are multifactorial and incompletely understood, but they include (1) change of vascular smooth muscle cells into chondrocytes or osteoblast-like cells, (2) high total-body amounts of calcium and phosphate as a result of abnormal bone metabolism, (3) impaired renal excretion, and (4) drug therapies to treat the bone disease (e.g., calcium phosphate binders).

Nurses must teach patients at risk for developing chronic kidney disease. Individuals considered to be at increased risk include (select all that apply) a. older African Americans b. patients more than 60 years old c. those with a history of pancreatitis d. those with a history of hypertension e. those with a history of type 2 diabetes

a. older African Americans b. patients more than 60 years old d. those with a history of hypertension e. those with a history of type 2 diabetes Rationale: Risk factors for CKD include diabetes mellitus, hypertension, age older than 60 years, cardiovascular disease, family history of CKD, exposure to nephrotoxic drugs, and ethnic minority (e.g., African American, Native American).

A patient is admitted to the hospital with chronic kidney disease. The nurse understands that this condition is characterized by a. progressive irreversible destruction of the kidneys b. a rapid decrease in urine output with an elevated BUN c. an increasing creatinine clearance with a decrease in urine output d. prostration, somnolence, and confusion with coma and imminent death

a. progressive irreversible destruction of the kidneys Rationale: Chronic kidney disease (CKD) involves progressive, irreversible loss of kidney function.

An ESRD patient receiving hemodialysis is considering asking a relative to donate a kidney for transplantation. In assisting the patient to make a decision about treatment, the nurse informs the patient that a. successful transplantation usually provides better quality of life than that offered by dialysis b. if rejection of the transplanted kidney occurs, no further treatment for the renal failure is available c. hemodialysis replaces the normal functions of the kidneys, and patients do not have to live with the continual fear of rejection d. the immunosuppressive therapy following transplantation makes the person ineligible to receive other forms of treatment if the kidney fails

a. successful transplantation usually provides better quality of life than that offered by dialysis Rationale: Kidney transplantation is extremely successful, with 1-year graft survival rates of about 90% for deceased donor organs and 95% for live donor organs. An advantage of kidney transplantation over dialysis is that it reverses many of the pathophysiologic changes associated with renal failure when normal kidney function is restored. It also eliminates the dependence on dialysis and the need for the accompanying dietary and lifestyle restrictions. Transplantation is less expensive than dialysis after the first year.

During the oliguric phase of AKI, the nurse monitors the patient for (select all that apply) a. hypotension b. ECG changes c. hypernatremia d. pulmonary edema e. urine with high specific gravity

b. ECG changes d. pulmonary edema Rationale: The nurse monitors the patient in the oliguric phase of acute renal injury for the following: -Hypertension and pulmonary edema: When urinary output decreases, fluid retention occurs. The severity of the symptoms depends on the extent of the fluid overload. In the case of reduced urine output (i.e., anuria, oliguria), the neck veins may become distended with a bounding pulse. Edema and hypertension may develop. Fluid overload can eventually lead to heart failure (HF), pulmonary edema, and pericardial and pleural effusions. -Hyponatremia: Damaged tubules cannot conserve sodium. Consequently, the urinary excretion of sodium may increase, which results in normal or below-normal serum levels of sodium. -Electrocardiographic changes and hyperkalemia: Initially, clinical signs of hyperkalemia are apparent on electrocardiogram (ECG) demonstrating peaked T waves, widening of the QRS complex, and ST-segment depression. -Urinary specific gravity: Urinary specific gravity is fixed at about 1.010.

If a patient is in the diuretic phase of AKI, the nurse must monitor for which serum electrolyte imbalances? a. Hyperkalemia and hyponatremia b. Hyperkalemia and hypernatremia c. Hypokalemia and hyponatremia d. Hypokalemia and hypernatremia

c. Hypokalemia and hyponatremia Rationale: In the diuretic phase of AKI, the kidneys have recovered the ability to excrete wastes but not the ability to concentrate urine. Hypovolemia and hypotension can result from massive fluid losses. Because of the large losses of fluid and electrolytes, the patient must be monitored for hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and dehydration.

To assess the potency of a newly placed arteriovenous graft for dialysis, the nurse should (select all that apply) a. monitor the BP in the affected arm b. irrigate the graft daily with low-dose heparin c. palpate the area of the graft to feel a normal thrill d. listen with a stethoscope over the graft to detect a bruit e. frequently monitor the pulses and neurovascular status distal to the graft

c. palpate the area of the graft to feel a normal thrill d. listen with a stethoscope over the graft to detect a bruit e. frequently monitor the pulses and neurovascular status distal to the graft Rationale: A thrill can be felt on palpation of the area of anastomosis of the arteriovenous graft, and a bruit can be heard with a stethoscope. The bruit and thrill are created by arterial blood rushing into the vein. The BP should not be taken in the arm with the AV graft.

RIFLE defines three stages of AKI based on changes in a. blood pressure and urine osmolality b. fractional excretion of urinary sodium c. estimation of GFR with the MDRD equation d. serum creatinine or urine output from baseline

d. serum creatinine or urine output from baseline Rationale: The RIFLE classification is used to describe the stages of AKI. RIFLE standardizes the diagnosis of AKI. Risk (R) is the first stage of AKI, followed by injury (I), which is the second stage, and then increasing in severity to the final or third stage of failure (F). The two outcome variables are loss (L) and end-stage renal disease (E). The first three stages are characterized by the serum creatinine level and urine output.