Rad Science Procedures 1: Final
Which of the following structures helps stabilize and support the small intestine? a. Mesentery b. Viscera c. Peritoneum d. Omentum
mesentery
Of the following factors, which one is most crucial to demonstrate possible air and fluid levels in the chest? a. 72-inch (183-cm) SID b. High-kV technique c. Patient in erect or decubitus position d. Using high mA and short exposure time
patient in erect or decubitus position
Which of the following muscles should be demonstrated on a properly exposed abdomen projection on an average-size patient? a. Latissimus dorsi b. Erector spinae c. Psoas major d. Quadratus lumborum
psoas major
The thymus gland is at its maximum size at: a. age 40. b. age 21. c. puberty. d. birth.
puberty
The inner layer of the pleura that encloses the lungs and heart is called the: a. parietal pleura. b. pericardial sac. c. pulmonary or visceral pleura. d. omentum.
pulmonary or visceral pleura
The jugular notch is located on the: a. sternum b. thyroid cartilage. c. seventh cervical vertebra. d. scapula.
sternum
The sacroiliac joints are classified as ____ joints with ____ mobility. a. cartilaginous; amphiarthrodial b. synovial; amphiarthrodial c. cartilaginous; synarthrodial d. fibrous; amphiarthrodial
synovial; amphiarthrodial
The ankle joint is a ____ joint with a ____ type of movement. a. fibrous; plane b. synovial; saddle c. fibrous; ginglymus d. synovial; ginglymus
synovial; saddle
The patellofemoral joint is a ____ joint with a ____ type of movement. a. synovial; ginglymus b. fibrous; immovable c. synovial; saddle d. synovial; bicondylar
synovial; saddle
For an AP portable chest on an older or hypersthenic male patient, which of the following should occur? a. The image receptor generally should be placed portrait. b. The CR should be centered 3 inches (8 cm) below the jugular notch. c. The CR should be centered to the mammillary (nipple) line. d. None of the above should occur.
the CR should be centered 3 inches (8 cm) below the jugular notch
A tear of the tibial (medial) collateral ligament (MCL) caused by a trauma injury is frequently associated with tears of: a. the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and the medial meniscus. b. the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) and the lateral meniscus. c. the fibular lateral collateral ligament (LCL) and the patella ligament. d. none of the above.
the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and the medial meniscus.
A radiograph of an AP medial oblique projection of the foot, if positioned correctly, should demonstrate: a. first through fifth metatarsals free of superimposition. b. third through fifth metatarsals free of superimposition. c. first and second cuneiform joint space is open. d. CR is centered to midshaft of third metatarsal.
third through fifth metatarsals free of superimposition.
The medial malleolus is part of the: a. talus. b. calcaneus. c. fibula. d. tibia.
tibia.
A small pneumothorax may be detected by performing inspiration and expiration PA projections. True or False
true
Scoliosis and kyphosis may produce asymmetry of the sternoclavicular joints and rib cage as demonstrated on a PA chest radiograph. True or False
true
Which of the following is NOT a form of occupational lung disease? a. Silicosis b. Tuberculosis c. Anthracosis d. Asbestosis
tuberculosis
The xiphoid process is a reliable positioning landmark for determining the lower margin of the lungs for chest positioning. True or False
False
Which of the following conditions will produce shortening of the epiphyses but widening of the epiphyseal plate? a. Osteoarthritis b. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease c. Slipped capital femur d. Chondrosarcoma
Slipped capital femur
A radiograph of an AP oblique (Grashey method) projection for the glenoid cavity reveals that the anterior and posterior rims of the glenoid process are not superimposed. Which of the following modifications should produce a more acceptable image? a. Angle CR 5° to 10° caudad. b. Angle CR 5° to 10° cephalad. c. Increase rotation of the body toward the IR. d. Abduct the arm slightly.
Increase rotation of the body toward the IR.
A patient arrives in radiology with a metal foreign body in the palm of the hand. Which of the following hand routines should be performed on this patient to confirm the location of the foreign body? a. PA and lateral in extension projections b. PA and lateral in flexion projections c. PA and fan lateral projections d. PA and Gaynor-Hart method
PA and lateral in extension projections
An ambulatory patient comes to radiology with a clinical history of possible pneumonia. The patient complains of pain in the center of her chest. What positioning routine should be performed on this patient? a. PA and left lateral projections b. PA and right and left lateral projections c. PA and both decubitus projections d. AP and right lateral projections
PA and left lateral projection
When placing radiographs of the hand on the view box, the digits should be pointing upward. True or False
True
A patient enters the emergency department (ED) with a Smith fracture. Which region of the upper limb must be radiographed to demonstrate this injury? a. Trapezium b. Elbow c. Wrist and forearm d. Hand
Wrist and forearm
Using the hip localization method, the femoral head can be located: a. 1 inch (2.5 cm) below the midpoint of the imaginary line between the two bony landmarks. b. 1 1/2 inches (4 cm) below the midpoint of the imaginary line between the two bony landmarks. c. 2 1/2 inches (6 to 7 cm) below the midpoint of the imaginary line between the two bony landmarks. d. at the level of the symphysis pubis.
1 1/2 inches (4 cm) below the midpoint of the imaginary line
What type of CR angle is required for the PA axial weight-bearing bilateral knee projection (Rosenberg method)? a. 10° caudad b. 5° to 7° cephalad c. 20° to 25° caudad d. None. CR is perpendicular to IR
10° caudad
How much central ray (CR) angulation (if any) should be used for an AP projection of the toes (without elevation of forefoot)? a. Keep CR perpendicular to IR. b. 5° toward calcaneus c. 10° to 15° toward calcaneus d. 20° to 25° toward calcaneus
10° to 15° toward calcaneus
How much central ray (CR) angulation (if any) should be used for an AP projection of the toes (without elevation of forefoot)? a. Keep CR perpendicular to IR. b. 5° toward calcaneus c. 10° to 15° toward calcaneus d. 20° to 25° toward calcaneus
10° to 15° toward calcaneus
How much CR angle, from the horizontal, is required for the modified axiolateral (Clements-Nakayama) projection? a. None. The IR must be kept perpendicular to the tabletop. b. 5° to 10° c. 15° to 20° d. 25° to 30°
15° to 20°
What type of CR angle is required for the AP semi axial (alternative lordotic) projection for the lung apices? a. None. CR is perpendicular to IR. b. 10° to 15° caudad. c. 15° to 20° cephalad. d. 25° to 35° caudad.
15° to 20° cephalad.
How much rotation from an AP position of the ankle will typically produce an AP mortise projection? a. No rotation is necessary. b. 45° to 60° lateral c. 15° to 20° medial d. 25° to 30° medial
15° to 20° medial
At what level should the central ray (CR) be placed for a left lateral decubitus projection of the abdomen? a. Iliac crest b. 2 inches (5 cm) above iliac crest c. ASIS d. Umbilicus
2 inches (5 cm) above iliac crest
What CR centering should be used for a dorsal decubitus projection of the abdomen (if the diaphragm is to be included)? a. At level of umbilicus b. 2 inches (5 cm) above iliac crest c. At level of iliac crest d. Place bottom of image receptor at level of ASIS.
2 inches (5 cm) above iliac crest
Where is the CR centered for the AP erect projection of the abdomen? a. Level of iliac crest b. Xiphoid process c. 2 inches (5 cm) above iliac crest d. 2 inches (5 cm) below iliac crest
2 inches (5 cm) above iliac crest
Where is the CR centered for the AP oblique (Grashey method) position for the glenoid cavity? a. Acromion b. 2 inches (5 cm) medial and inferior to the superolateral border of shoulder c. Coracoid process d. 1 inch (2.5 cm) superior to the coracoid process
2 inches (5 cm) medial and inferior to the superolateral border of shoulder
What CR angulation is recommended for an AP projection of the knee on a patient with an ASIS-to-tabletop measurement of 18 cm? a. 3° to 5° caudad b. CR is perpendicular to the IR. c. 3° to 5° cephalad d. 10° to 15° cephalad
3° to 5° caudad
What CR angulation is recommended for an AP projection of the knee on a patient with an ASIS-to-tabletop measurement of 18 cm? a. 3° to 5° caudad b. CR is perpendicular to the IR. c. 3° to 5° cephalad d. 10° to 15° cephalad
3° to 5° caudad
How much CR angulation to the long axis of the foot is required for the plantodorsal (axial) projection of the calcaneus? a. 45° to 50° b. 15° to 20° c. 30° to 35° d. 40°
40°
What type of CR angle is required for the AP axial, inlet projection? a. 30° cephalad b. 10° to 15° cephalad c. 20° to 30° caudad d. 40° caudad
40° caudad
What is the amount of abduction of the femurs recommended for an AP bilateral frog-leg (modified Cleaves) projection? a. 10° to 15° b. 50° to 60° c. 40° to 45° d. 90°
40° to 45°
How much rotation of the humeral epicondyles is required for the AP medial oblique projection of the elbow? a. 30° b. 90° c. 45° d. 20°
45°
How much knee flexion is required for the weight-bearing PA axial projection (Rosenberg method) of the knee? a. None. The knee is fully extended. b. 30° flexion c. 45° flexion d. 50° to 60° flexion
45° flexion
What is the annual whole body effective dose (ED) for a technologist? a. 10 mSv (1 rem) times the years of age b. 20 mSv (200 mrem) c. 50 mSv (5000 mrem) d. 500 mSv (50 rem)
50 mSv (5000 mrem)
How much flexion of the knee is recommended for the lateral projection of the patella? a. 5° to 10° b. 20° to 30° c. 35° to 40° d. 45° to 50°
5° to 10°
Which chest oblique position will best demonstrate the air-filled trachea, heart, and great vessels? a. 45° RAO b. 60° RAO c. 45° LAO d. 60° LAO
60° LAO
For an average-size female patient, where is the CR placed for a PA projection of the chest? a. 7 inches (18 cm) below the vertebra prominens b. 3 inches (7.6 cm) below the jugular notch c. 8 inches (20 cm) below the vertebra prominens d. 2 inches (5 cm) above the shoulders
7 inches (18 cm) below the vertebra prominens
Which of the following factors must be applied to minimize distortion of the heart? a. 72-inch (183-cm) SID b. High-kV technique c. Performing study erect d. Using high mA and short exposure time
72-inch (183-cm) SID
What CR angle should be used for a mediolateral projection of the knee on a short, wide-pelvis patient? a. No CR angle is required. b. 5° cephalad c. 7° to 10° cephalad d. 5° to 10° caudad
7° to 10° cephalad
Which of the following projections of the wrist will best demonstrate the wrist joint and intercarpal spaces? a. AP b. PA c. Gaynor-Hart d. 30° PA oblique
AP
Which one of the following projections will best demonstrate signs of Osgood-Schlatter disease? a. Plantodorsal (axial) and lateral calcaneus b. AP, lateral, and oblique ankle c. AP bilateral weight-bearing knees d. AP and lateral knee
AP and lateral knee
A patient enters the ED with a possible ascites. The patient is ambulatory. Which of the following projections of the abdomen will best demonstrate this condition? a. AP erect Abdomen b. AP supine Abdomen c. PA prone Abdomen d. PA erect chest
AP erect Abdomen
A patient comes to radiology with a possible mass beneath the right clavicle. The PA and left lateral projections are inconclusive. Which additional projection/position can be taken to demonstrate this possible mass? a. AP erect b. Right lateral c. AP and lateral of upper airway d. AP lordotic
AP lordotic
Which position of the foot will best demonstrate the lateral (third) cuneiform? a. AP oblique with medial rotation b. AP oblique with lateral rotation c. AP projection d. Mediolateral projection
AP oblique with medial rotation
Which of the following projections can be performed using an orthostatic (breathing) technique? a. Scapular Y lateral projection b. Inferosuperior axiolateral projection c. AP clavicle d. AP scapula
AP scapula
A patient enters the ED with multiple injuries. The physician is concerned about a dislocation of the left proximal humerus. The patient is unable to stand. Which of the following routines is advisable to best demonstrate this condition? a. AP shoulder and inferosuperior axial projection b. AP shoulder and 35° to 45° AP oblique (Grashey method) c. AP shoulder and Neer projection d. AP shoulder and recumbent AP oblique (scapular Y) projection
AP shoulder and recumbent AP oblique (scapular Y) projection
The two bony landmarks that are palpated using the hip localization method are the: a. ischial spine and the symphysis pubis. b. symphysis pubis and the greater trochanter. c. ASIS and the crest of ilium. d. ASIS and the symphysis pubis.
ASIS and the symphysis pubis.
Which radiographic landmark is most reliable to evaluate the posteroanterior (PA) projection of the abdomen for rotation? a. Xiphoid process b. Symphysis pubis c. Ala of ilium (wings) d. ASIS
Ala of ilium (wings)
Which of the following conditions will produce the radiographic sign referred to as "bamboo spine"? a. Osteoarthritis b. Chondrosarcoma c. Metastatic carcinoma d. Ankylosing spondylitis
Ankylosing spondylitis
The prominent protuberance found on the anterior aspect of the ilium is the: a. Ischial Tuberosity b. Anterior Superior Iliac Spine (ASIS) c. symphysis pubis d. Iliac crest
Anterior Superior Iliac Spine (ASIS)
Why is the left lateral decubitus preferred over the right lateral decubitus abdomen for an acute abdomen series? a. It is more comfortable for the patient b. Any intraperitoneal air will be visualized along the spleen. c. Any intraperitoneal air will be visualized along the lower liver margin. d. It allows any gas in the large intestine to move toward the liver.
Any intraperitoneal air will be visualized along the lower liver margin.
Why is the left lateral decubitus preferred over the right lateral decubitus abdomen for an acute abdomen series? a. It is more comfortable for the patient. b. Any intraperitoneal air will be visualized along the spleen. c. Any intraperitoneal air will be visualized along the lower liver margin. d. It allows any gas in the large intestine to move toward the liver.
Any intraperitoneal air will be visualized along the lower liver margin.
Transverse fracture through fifth metacarpal neck
Boxer's Fracture
Fracture or dislocation of the posterior lip of the distal radius involving the wrist joint.
Barton's Fracture
Fracture of base of first metacarpal
Bennett's Fracture
Fracture of the base of the first metacarpal bone, extending into the carpometacarpal joint
Bennett's Fracture
Which of the following positions will best demonstrate signs of developmental dysplasia of the hip? a. Posterior oblique (Judet method) b. Axiolateral, inferosuperior (Danelius-Miller method) c. Taylor method d. Bilateral frog-leg method
Bilateral frog-leg method
Transverse fracture that extends through the metacarpal next (most commonly the fifth metacarpal)
Boxer's Fracture
Severe cases appear as emphysema
COPD
Which structure or bone contains the sustentaculum tali? a. Calcaneus b. Talus c. Base of the fifth metatarsal d. Tibia
Calcaneus
Which special projection of the wrist is ideal for demonstrating possible calcification in the dorsal aspect of the carpals? a. Carpal bridge b. Carpal canal c. Ulnar deviation d. Lateral wrist
Carpal bridge
The joint found between the base of the third metacarpal and carpal bone is the: a. Intercarpal b. Interphalangeal c. Carpometacarpal d. proximal metacarpophalangeal
Carpometacarpal
Malignant tumor of the cartilage usually occurring in men older than age 45 in the pelvis and long bones
Chondrosarcoma
Which of the following pathologic conditions often occurs in males older than the age of 45 years? a. Developmental dysplasia of the hip b. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis c. Chondrosarcoma d. Osteoporosis
Chondrosarcoma
Fracture of distal radius with posterior displacement
Colles Fracture
Transverse fracture of the distal radius in which the distal fragment is displaced posteriorly
Colles Fracture
Common primary bone malignancy in pediatric and young adult patients
Ewings Sarcoma
A radiograph of a PA oblique of the hand reveals that the midshaft of the fourth and fifth metacarpals is superimposed. What specific positioning error has been committed? a. Excessive rotation of the hand and/or wrist laterally b. Insufficient rotation of the hand and/or wrist laterally c. Incorrect CR angulation d. Fingers of the hand are not parallel to IR
Excessive rotation of the hand and/or wrist laterally
Select the correct gender to correspond with the following pelvic characteristics. Wider and shallow general shape of pelvis: a. Male b. Female
Female
Which metatarsal bone of the foot has a prominent tuberosity most frequently fractured? a. First b. Third c. Fourth d. Fifth
Fifth
Inherited type of arthritis commonly affecting males; frequently begins at first metatarsophalangeal joint
Gout
Which of the following shoulder projections best demonstrates the glenoid cavity in profile? a. Grashey method b. Clements modification c. Garth method d. AP shoulder, neutral rotation
Grashey method
A patient enters the ED with a midshaft humeral fracture. The AP projection taken on the cart demonstrates another fracture near the surgical neck of the humerus. The patient is unable to stand or rotate the humerus because of the extent of the trauma. What other projection should be taken for this patient? a. Scapular Y lateral-AP oblique projection b. Apical oblique projection c. Horizontal beam transthoracic lateral projection for humerus d. Rotational lateral projection for humerus
Horizontal beam transthoracic lateral projection for humerus
What two bony landmarks are palpated for positioning of the elbow? a. Radial and ulnar styloid processes b. Humeral epicondyles c. Humeral condyles d. Trochlea and capitulum
Humeral epicondyles
Which type of body habitus typically requires that the image receptor be placed landscape rather than portrait for a posteroanterior (PA) chest? a. Hypersthenic b. Asthenic c. Sthenic d. Hyposthenic
Hypersthenic
A radiograph of an AP axial projection of the clavicle demonstrates that the clavicle is within the midaspect of the lung apices. What should the technologist do to correct this error? a. Do nothing; this is an acceptable AP axial clavicle projection. b. Increase the caudad CR angle during repeat exposure. c. Increase the cephalic CR angle during repeat exposure. d. Make the exposure upon complete inspiration.
Increase the cephalic CR angle during repeat exposure.
Which one of the following projections/positions should NOT be performed for a possible shoulder dislocation? a. AP axial oblique (Garth method) b. Transthoracic lateral (Lawrence method) c. Inferosuperior axial (Clements modification) d. Scapular Y
Inferosuperior axial (Clements modification)
Identify the following as being either intraperitoneal, retroperitoneal, or infraperitoneal structures. - Lower rectum - C-loop of duodenum - Major abdominal blood vessels (abdominal aorta and inferior vena cava) - Spleen - Sigmoid colon - Pancreas - Transverse colon - Reproductive organs - Adrenal glands - Jejunum - Urinary bladder - Ascending and descending colon - Liver - Kidneys - Proximal ureters
Infraperitoneal - Lower rectum - Reproductive organs - Urinary bladder Retroperitoneal - C-loop of duodenum - Major abdominal blood vessels (abdominal aorta and inferior vena cava), - Pancreas - Adrenal glands - Ascending and descending colon - Kidneys - Proximal ureters Intraperitoneal - Spleen - Sigmoid colon - Transverse colon - Jejunum - Liver
A radiograph of the PA scaphoid projection reveals extensive superimposition of the scaphoid and adjacent carpals. Which of the following factors can lead to this problem? a. Elevation of the hand and wrist b. Insufficient ulnar deviation c. Insufficient CR angle distally d. Slight flexion of the phalanges
Insufficient ulnar deviation
In which region or compartment is the spleen located? a. Intraperitoneum b. Retroperitoneum c. Infraperitoneum d. Extraperitoneum
Intraperitoneum
Which of the following bony structures cannot be palpated? a. Ischial spine b. ASIS c. Ischial tuberosity d. Symphysis pubis
Ischial spine
Which bones fuse to form the acetabulum? a. Ischium and pubis b. Ilium and ischium c. Pubis, ilium, and sacrum d. Ischium, pubis, and ilium
Ischium, pubis, and ilium
Accumulated fluid in the joint cavity
Joint Effusion
Why is the PA projection of the abdomen less desirable for a KUB than the AP projection? a. There is an increased gonadal dose with the PA projection. b. The PA projection is less comfortable for the patient. c. Kidneys are farther from the image receptor with PA projection. d. It is not less desirable, but is the radiographer's choice.
Kidneys are farther from the image receptor with PA projection.
The iliac crest corresponds with the ____ vertebral level. a. L1 b. L2-3 c. T12 d. L4-5
L4-5
Which of the following pathologic conditions is a common type of aseptic or ischemic necrosis? a. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease b. Ankylosing spondylitis c. Metastatic carcinoma d. Osteoarthritis
Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
Which of the following structures is considered to be most inferior or distal? a. Fovea capitis b. Lesser trochanter c. Neck d. Greater trochanter
Lesser trochanter
Where is the CR centered for a transthoracic lateral projection for proximal humerus? a. 1 inch (2.5 cm) inferior to the acromion b. Level of the greater tubercle c. Level of surgical neck d. Midaxilla
Level of surgical neck
A radiograph of the elbow demonstrates the radius directly superimposed over the ulna and the coronoid process in profile. Which projection of the elbow has been performed? a. AP b. Lateral c. Lateral (external) rotation oblique d. Medial (internal) rotation oblique
Medial (internal) rotation oblique
Where is the CR placed for an AP projection of the pelvis? a. 1 inch (2.5 cm) above the symphysis pubis b. At the level of the ASIS c. At the level of the iliac crest d. Midway between the ASIS and the symphysis pubis
Midway between the ASIS and the symphysis pubis
Why is it recommended that the PA oblique (with medial rotation) projection be performed rather than the PA oblique (with lateral rotation) for the second digit of the hand? a. Minimizes optimal immunomodulating dose (OID). b. Is more comfortable for the patient. c. Opens up joints better. d. Minimizes object image-receptor distance (OID).
Minimizes object image-receptor distance (OID).
Which of the following projections would be best for a patient with limited movement of both lower limbs (in addition to the AP pelvis)? a. Modified axiolateral (Clements-Nakayama method) b. Axiolateral (inferosuperior) c. Anterior oblique (Teufel method) d. AP axial (Taylor method)
Modified axiolateral (Clements-Nakayama method)
Which of the following best demonstrates the coracoacromial arch? a. Neer method b. West Point method c. Fisk method d. Garth method
Neer method
Which AP projection of the shoulder and proximal humerus is created by placing the affected palm of the hand facing inward toward the thigh? a. Internal rotation b. Neutral rotation c. External rotation d. AP axial
Neutral rotation
Which of the following imaging modalities and/or procedures will provide the best assessment for osteomyelitis of the foot? a. Nuclear medicine b. Ultrasound c. Computed tomography d. Arthrography
Nuclear medicine
Which of the following imaging modalities will best detect early signs of bone infection of the pelvis? a. Radiography b. CT c. Nuclear medicine d. MRI
Nuclear medicine
Which of the following structures is not an aspect of the proximal femur? a. Intertrochanteric crest b. Fovea capitis c. Obturator foramen d. Lesser trochanter
Obturator foramen
An inflammatory condition involving the anterior, proximal tibia
Osgood-Schlatter Disease
Also known as osteitis deformans, a bone disease that disrupts new bone growth, resulting in overproduction of very dense yet soft bone
Paget's Disease
A patient enters the ED in severe pain with a possible dislocation of the elbow. The patient has the elbow flexed more than 90°. Which one of the following routines should be performed to confirm the diagnosis? a. Partially flexed AP and limited lateral projections b. Jones method and limited lateral projection c. Coyle method and limited lateral projection d. Lateral elbow only
Partially flexed AP and limited lateral projections
What additional maneuver must be added to the inferosuperior axial shoulder (Lawrence method) projection to best demonstrate a possible Hill-Sachs defect? a. Increase medial CR angulation. b. Angle the CR 10° to 15° downward or posteriorly in addition to the medial angle. c. Perform exaggerated external rotation of the affected upper limb. d. Increase abduction of the affected upper limb
Perform exaggerated external rotation of the affected upper limb.
How should the humeral epicondyles be aligned for a lateral projection of the elbow? a. Parallel to image receptor b. Perpendicular to image receptor c. 45° to image receptor d. 30° to image receptor
Perpendicular to image receptor
A radiograph for an AP projection with external rotation of the proximal humerus reveals that the greater tubercle is profiled laterally. What should be changed to improve this image for a repeat exposure? a. Rotate epicondyles so they are perpendicular to the image receptor. b. Move the patient obliquely 10° to 15° toward the affected side. c. Rotate the arm to place palm of the patient's hand against the thigh. d. Positioning is acceptable; do not repeat it.
Positioning is acceptable; do not repeat it
Why is the right kidney usually lower in the abdomen than the left kidney? a. Presence of right colic flexure b. Presence of the liver c. Presence of the stomach d. Presence of right suprarenal gland
Presence of the liver
Why must the technologist slightly angle the CR caudad for most AP projections of the chest? a. Elongates the carina. b. Prevents overlap of the chin on the upper airway. c. Separates the heart from the great vessels. d. Prevents clavicles from obscuring apices of the lungs.
Prevents clavicles from obscuring apices of the lungs.
Why is it important to keep the phalanges parallel to the IR for a PA oblique projection of the hand? a. Prevents foreshortening of phalanges and obscuring of interphalangeal joints. b. Prevents foreshortening of radiocarpal joint. c. Opens up the carpometacarpal joints. d. Demonstrates the sesamoid bones near the first interphalangeal joint.
Prevents foreshortening of phalanges and obscuring of interphalangeal joints.
Which of the following actions will lead to the proximal radius crossing over the ulna? a. Supination of the hand b. Placing epicondyles parallel to image receptor c. Pronation of the hand d. External rotation of elbow
Pronation of the hand
Condition affecting the sacroiliac joints and lower limbs of young men, especially the posterosuperior margin of calcaneus
Reiter's Syndrome
A radiograph of an AP clavicle reveals that the sternal extremity is partially collimated off. What should the technologist do? a. Repeat the AP projection and correct collimation. b. Make sure the sternal extremity is included on the AP axial projection. c. Only repeat it if the patient's pain/symptoms involve the sternal extremity. d. Ask the radiologist whether he or she wants the projection repeated.
Repeat the AP projection and correct collimation.
In which region or compartment of the abdomen is the pancreas located? a. Intraperitoneal b. Retroperitoneal c. Infraperitoneal d. Extraperitoneal
Retroperitoneal
In which of the four major quadrants of the abdomen would the gallbladder be found? a. Right upper quadrant b. Left upper quadrant c. Right lower quadrant d. Left lower quadrant
Right upper quadrant
Transverse fracture of the distal radius with the distal fragment displaced anteriorly
Smith's Fracture
What is the name of the large fossa found within the anterior surface of the scapula? a. Supraspinous fossa b. Infraspinous fossa c. Subscapular fossa d. Glenoid fossa
Subscapular fossa
The heart is located in the anterior chest at the level of: a. T10-12. b. the thymus gland. c. the arch of the aorta. d. T5-8
T5-8
The xiphoid process is at the vertebral level of: a. L2-3. b. T2-3. c. T9-10. d. T5-6.
T9-10
The recommended SID for AP AC joint study is 72 inches (~183cm). True or False
True
The use of a grid during shoulder radiography will result in higher patient dose over nongrid procedures. True or False
True
All of the joints of the shoulder girdle are diarthrodial. True or False
True
As a general rule, the use of high kV (110 to 120 kV) requires the use of a grid during chest radiography. True or False
True
Why must the lower limb be rotated 15° to 20° internally for AP pelvis projection (nontrauma)? a. To separate the greater trochanter from the lesser trochanter b. To place the fovea capitis into a profiled position c. To open up the femoroacetabular joint d. To place the femoral neck parallel to the image receptor
To place the femoral neck parallel to the image receptor
What is a common radiographic sign seen on a chest radiograph for a patient with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)? a. Enlargement of heart b. Fluid in apices c. Elevated diaphragm d. Air bronchogram sign
air bronchogram sign
Situs inversus is a condition in which: a. the heart is located in the left thorax. b. the liver is in the left abdomen. c. all major organs are in the opposite side of the body. d. the thymus gland is absent.
all major organs are in the opposite side of the body
For the AP weight-bearing feet projection, the CR should be: a. perpendicular to the image receptor. b. angled 15° posteriorly. c. directed horizontal. d. angled 5° posteriorly.
angled 15° posteriorly.
A disease producing extensive calcification of the longitudinal ligament of the spinal column
ankylosing spondylitis
The prominent protuberance found on the anterior aspect of the ilium is the: a. ischial tuberosity. b. anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). c. symphysis pubis. d. iliac crest.
anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS).
Which term describes an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity of the abdomen? a. Adynamic ileus b. Volvulus c. Intussusception d. Ascites
ascites
A PA chest radiograph reveals that the pendulous breasts of the patient are obscuring the base of the lungs. What should be done to lessen the effects of the breast shadow? a. Ask patient to lift breasts up and outward. b. Use a higher kV (beyond 125) to penetrate tissue. c. Have patient take a deeper inspiration before exposure. d. Take an AP rather than PA projection.
ask patient to lift breasts up and outward
Collapse of all or part of lung
atelectasis
A common condition of the femur that develops in elderly patients, leading to frequent fractures of the hip (proximal femur), is: a. congenital hip dysplasia. b. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease. c. avascular necrosis. d. developmental dysplasia of the hip.
avascular necrosis.
Fractures that occur in adolescent athletes who experience sudden, forceful, or unbalanced contraction of the tendinous and muscular attachments on the bony pelvis
avulsion fracture
To ensure that the diaphragm is included on the erect abdomen projection, the top of the image receptor should be at the approximate level of the: a. inferior costal margin. b. jugular notch. c. xiphoid process. d. axilla.
axilla
The lower concave area of the lung is termed the: a. base. b. apex. c. hilum. d. costophrenic angle.
base
Ileus is the formal term for: a. perforated bowel. b. bleeding in the abdomen. c. bowel obstruction. d. free air in the peritoneal cavity.
bowel obstruction
A condition characterized as an irreversible dilation or widening of bronchi or bronchioles that may result from repeated pulmonary infection or obstruction is termed: a. asthma. b. bronchitis. c. bronchiectasis. d. dyspnea.
bronchiectasis
The internal prominence or ridge in which the trachea bifurcates into the right and left bronchi is termed the: a. carina. b. hilum. c. thyroid cartilage. d. costophrenic angle
carina
Which of the following structures is considered to be most inferior? a. Epiglottis b. Hyoid bone c. Carina d. Vocal cords
carina
Now referred to as "developmental dysplasia of the hip"
congenital dislocation of hip
The anterior surface of the scapula is referred to as the: a. scapular surface. b. dorsal surface c. supraspinous and infraspinous fossa. d. costal surface
costal surface
The technologist most often ____ manual, analog exposure factors for the patient with a large ileus. a. increases b. does not change c. decreases d. switches to AEC instead of
decreases
Another term for osteoarthritis is: a. rheumatoid arthritis. b. bursitis. c. degenerative joint disease. d. osteoporosis.
degenerative joint disease.
A patient comes to radiology with a clinical history of a possible abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following abdominal projections would best demonstrate this condition? a. Dorsal decubitus b. Left Lateral Decubitus c. Right Lateral Decubitus d. AP Erect
dorsal decubitus
To decrease the angle between the anterior surface of the foot and anterior surface of the lower leg is described as: a. plantar flexion. b. inversion. c. dorsiflexion. d. eversion.
dorsiflexion
Which aspect of the small intestine is considered the shortest? a. Duodenum b. Jejunum c. Cecum d. Ileum
duodenum
The radiocarpal (wrist) joint possesses a(n) ____ type of joint movement. a. ellipsoidal b. ginglymus c. plane d. pivot
ellipsoidal
The radiocarpal (wrist) joint possesses a(n) ____ type of joint movement. a. ellipsoidal b. ginglymus c. plane d. trochoidal
ellipsoidal
What is the name for the structure that serves as a lid over the larynx to prevent aspiration of food or fluid? a. Uvula b. Epiglottis c. Hyoid bone d. Oropharynx
epiglottis
Which of the following structures is NOT considered as a mediastinal structure? a. Thymus gland b. Aorta c. Trachea d. Epiglottis
epiglottis
A patient enters the ED with a possible hemothorax in the right lung. With help, the patient can sit erect on a cart. Which of the following routines would best demonstrate this condition? a. Erect PA and erect right lateral on cart b. Right lateral decubitus c. Left lateral decubitus d. RPO and LAO erect
erect PA and erect right lateral on cart
The radiographic hallmark of Reiter's syndrome seen in young men is: a. asymmetrical narrowing of femoropatellar joint. b. destruction of the patella. c. fluid in the joints of the foot. d. erosion of the Achilles tendon insertion.
erosion of the Achilles tendon insertion.
Which of the following structures is considered to be most posterior? a. Larynx b. Esophagus c. Trachea d. Hyoid bone
esophagus
Another term for osteochondroma is: a. Ewing's sarcoma. b. exostosis. c. gout. d. Osgood-Schlatter disease.
exostosis.
What type of respiration should be employed during the exposure for the anteroposterior (AP) kidneys, ureter, and bladder (KUB) abdomen projection? a. Inspiration b. Expiration c. Shallow breathing during exposure d. Either inspiration or expiration
expiration
What type of respiration should be employed prior to exposure for the anteroposterior (AP) kidneys, ureter, and bladder (KUB) abdomen projection? a. Inspiration b. Expiration c. Shallow breathing during exposure d. Either inspiration or expiration
expiration
A general rule states that radiographic grids are required with chest radiography for: a. exposure factors using 80 kV or below. b. exposure factors using 100 kV or greater. c. all adults. d. all pediatrics.
exposure factors using 100 kV or greater
The distal tibiofibular joint is classified as a ____ joint. a. synovial b. fibrous c. diarthrodial d. synarthrodial
fibrous
The distal tibiofibular joint is classified as a ____ joint. a. synovial b. fibrous c. diarthrodial d. synarthrodial
fibrous
Which of the following objects does NOT have to be removed or moved before a chest radiography? a. Necklace b. Bra c. T-shirt d. Glasses
glasses
Which radiation unit of measurement is used to describe absorbed dose? a. Coulomb per kilogram b. Gray c. Sievert d. Curie
gray
To ensure that the inferior margin of the abdomen is included on a KUB radiograph, the technologist should palpate the: a. iliac crest. b. ASIS. c. greater trochanter or symphysis pubis. d. inferior costal margin.
greater trochanter or symphysis pubis.
Coughing up blood
hemoptysis
A ginglymus joint can also be referred to as a _____ joint. a. trochoid b. saddle c. hinge d. pivot
hinge
A patient enters the emergency department (ED) to be treated for severe trauma. The physician orders an AP supine chest to evaluate the lungs. What can the technologist do to reduce the magnification of the heart? a. Place the cassette landscape. b. Use a short exposure time. c. Increase super optical device (SOD) as much as possible. d. Increase SID as much as possible.
increase SID as much as possible
What is the primary disadvantage of performing an AP projection of the chest rather than a PA? a. More radiation exposure to the lungs b. Distortion of the ribs c. AP projection requires more kV as compared with the PA projection d. Increased magnification of the heart
increased magnification of the heart
The technologist most often ____ manual, analog exposure factors for a patient with severe ascites. a. increases b. does not change c. decreases d. switches to automatic exposure control (AEC) instead of
increases
The most inferior positioning landmark on the abdomen/pelvis is the: a. ischial tuberosity. b. symphysis pubis. c. anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). d. iliac crest.
ischial tuberosity.
What is a common palpable landmark for the AP chest projection on the obese patient? a. Xiphoid process b. Costal angle c. Jugular notch d. Vertebra prominens
jugular notch
The two most common landmarks for chest positioning are the: a. top of shoulders and xiphoid process. b. jugular notch and top of shoulders. c. lower margin of thyroid cartilage and vertebra prominens. d. jugular notch and vertebra prominens.
jugular notch and vertebra prominens
Where must the CR be centered for an AP supine projection of the abdomen as part of the acute abdominal series? a. 2 inches (5 cm) above iliac crest b. Level of iliac crest c. Level of umbilicus d. Level of axilla
level of iliac crest
Which of the following solid organs is the largest found in the abdomen? a. Spleen b. Kidneys c. Liver d. Stomach
liver
Which of the following solid organs is the largest in the abdomen? a. Spleen b. Kidneys c. Pancreas d. Liver
liver
Which of the following factors must be observed for an AP erect abdomen projection? a. Collimate lower border to level of ASIS b. Use a higher kV technique c. Patient needs to be upright a minimum of 5 minutes before imaging d. Increase SID to 72 inches (183 cm) to minimize magnification.
patient needs to be upright a minimum of 5 minutes before imaging
A fracture resulting from a severe blow to one side of the pelvis
pelvic ring fracture
What is the name of the double-walled tissue that lines the abdominopelvic cavity? a. Mesentery b. Omentum c. Peritoneum d. Viscera
peritoneum
The CR for an AP supine chest should be aligned: a. perpendicular to the long axis of sternum. b. at the level of the jugular notch. c. at the level of the xiphoid process. d. perpendicular to the long axis of the clavicles.
perpendicular to the long axis of sternum.
To properly visualize the joint spaces with the AP projection of the foot, the CR must be: a. parallel to the longitudinal arch. b. perpendicular to the metatarsals. c. perpendicular to the longitudinal arch. d. parallel to the metatarsals.
perpendicular to the metatarsals.
Which specific anatomy is better visualized with a fan lateral as compared with the other lateral projections of the hand? a. Sesamoid bones b. Carpals c. Phalanges d. Carpometacarpal joints
phalanges
Patchy infiltrate with increased radiodensity
pneumonia
Air or gas that escapes from the lungs into the pleural cavity results in a condition known as: a. air bronchogram. b. pneumothorax. c. hemidiaphragm. d. hemothorax
pneumothorax
Lung displaced from chest wall and no lung markings visible on radiograph
pneumothorax
The AP oblique-bilateral hands projection ("ball-catcher's position") is performed to evaluate for early signs of: a. gout. b. osteoporosis. c. rheumatoid arthritis. d. bursitis.
rheumatoid arthritis.
A patient enters the ED with a possible pneumothorax in the left lung. Because of trauma, the patient cannot stand or sit erect. Which of the following positions would best demonstrate this condition? a. AP supine b. Right lateral decubitus c. Left posterior oblique (LPO) and right posterior oblique (RPO) d. Left lateral decubitus
right lateral decubitus
Which of the following abdominal regions would contain the right colic (hepatic) flexure? a. Right lateral lumbar b. Right inguinal c. Right hypochondriac d. Epigastric
right lateral lumbar
A PA chest radiograph reveals that the left sternoclavicular joint is closer to the spine than the right joint. What specific positioning error has been committed? a. Left tilt b. Rotation into the left anterior oblique (LAO) position c. Right tilt d. Rotation into the right anterior oblique (RAO) position
rotation into the left anterior oblique (LAO) position
The first carpometacarpal joint is classified as a ____ joint. a. saddle b. ginglymus c. plane d. trochoidal
saddle
What is the best method to control involuntary motion during abdominal radiography? a. Short exposure time b. Second breath hold c. Careful breathing instructions to patient d. Use of small focal spot
short exposure time
Which of the following structures is part of the lymphatic system? a. Suprarenal glands b. Inferior vena cava c. Kidneys d. Spleen
spleen
To ensure that both joints are included on an AP projection of the tibia and fibula on an adult, the technologist can: a. increase the SID to 60 inches (150 cm). b. use a Bucky tray. c. turn the image receptor diagonally to the lower leg. d. use a tabletop technique.
turn the image receptor diagonally to the lower leg.
