Respiratory- Ch 20,21,22

Inspection of a patient's skin color is part of the assessment of the integumentary system. Cyanosis, which is a late indicator of hypoxia, is present when the unoxygenated hemoglobin level is:

5g/dL Explanation: Normal hemoglobin is approximately 15 g/dL. Cyanosis appears when a full one-third of the hemoglobin is deoxygenated.

A nurse practitioner diagnosed a patient with an infection in the maxillary sinuses. Select the area that the nurse palpated to make that diagnosis.

On the cheeks below the eyes Explanation: To palpate the maxillary sinuses, the nurse should apply gentle pressure in the cheek area below the eyes, adjacent to the nose.

When performing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse applies suctioning while withdrawing and gently rotating the catheter 360 degrees for how long?

10-15 seconds Explanation: In general, the nurse should apply suction no longer than 10 to 15 seconds. Applying suction for 20-25 or 30-35 seconds is hazardous and may result in the development of hypoxia, which can lead to dysrhythmias and, ultimately, cardiac arrest. Applying suction for 0-5 seconds would provide too little time for effective suctioning of secretions.

A client is on a ventilator. Alarms are sounding, indicating an increase in peak airway pressure. The nurse assesses first for

A kink in the ventilator tubing Explanation: One event that could cause the ventilator's peak-airway-pressure alarm to sound is a kink in the ventilator tubing. After making this and other assessments without correction, then it could be a malfunction of the alarm button. Higher than normal endotracheal cuff pressure could cause client tissue damage but would not make the ventilator alarms sound. A cut or slice in the tubing from the ventilator would result in decreased pressure.

The client you are caring for has just been told they have advanced laryngeal cancer. What is the treatment of choice?

Total laryngectomy Explanation: In more advanced cases, total laryngectomy may be the treatment of choice. Partial laryngectomy, laser surgery, and radiation therapy are not the treatment of choice for advanced cases of laryngeal cancer.

The nurse is caring for a client with allergic rhinitis. The client asks the nurse about measures to help decrease allergic symptoms. Which is the best response by the nurse?

"You should try to reduce exposure to irritants and allergens." Explanation: The nurse instructs the client with allergic rhinitis to avoid or reduce exposure to allergens and irritants, such as dusts, molds, animals, fumes, odors, powders, sprays, and tobacco smoke. Receiving an influenza vaccination each year is recommended for clients with infectious rhinitis. To prevent possible drug interactions, the client is cautioned to read drug labels before taking any over-the-counter medication. Clients with nasal septal deformities or nasal polyps may be referred to an ear, nose, and throat specialist.

A patient playing softball was hit in the nose by the ball and has been determined to have an uncomplicated fractured nose with epistaxis. The nurse should prepare to assist the physician with what tasks?

Applying nasal packing Explanation: A nasal fracture very often produces bleeding from the nasal passage. As a rule, bleeding is controlled with the use of packing.

The nurse assessed a 28-year-old woman who was experiencing dyspnea severe enough to make her seek medical attention. The history revealed no prior cardiac problems and the presence of symptoms for 6 months' duration. On assessment, the nurse noted the presence of both inspiratory and expiratory wheezing. Based on this data, which of the following diagnoses is likely?

Asthma Explanation: The presence of both inspiratory and expiratory wheezing usually signifies asthma if the individual does not have heart failure. Sudden dyspnea is an indicator of the other choices.

A nurse prepares to perform postural drainage. How should the nurse ascertain the best position to facilitate clearing the lungs?

Auscultation Explanation: The nurse should assess breath sounds before doing postural drainage to determine the areas that need draining. Inspection, chest X-rays, and ABG levels are all assessment parameters that give good information about respiratory function but aren't necessary to determine lung areas requiring postural drainage.

The nurse assesses a patient with a heart rate of 42 and a blood pressure of 70/46. What type of hypoxia does the nurse determine this patient is displaying?

Circulatory hypoxia Explanation: Given this patient's vital signs, he appears to be in shock. Circulatory hypoxia is hypoxia resulting from inadequate capillary circulation. It may be caused by decreased cardiac output, local vascular obstruction, low-flow states such as shock, or cardiac arrest. Although tissue partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) is reduced, arterial oxygen (PaO2) remains normal. Circulatory hypoxia is corrected by identifying and treating the underlying cause.

A son brings his father into the clinic, stating that his father's color has changed to bluish around the mouth. The father is confused, with a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute and scattered crackles throughout. The son states this condition just occurred within the last hour. Which of the following factors indicates that the client's condition has lasted for more than 1 hour?

Cyanosis Explanation: The client's appearance may give clues to respiratory status. Cyanosis, a bluish coloring of the skin, is a very late indicator of hypoxia. The presence of cyanosis is from decreased unoxygenated hemoglobin. In the presence of a pulmonary condition, cyanosis is assessed by observing the color of the tongue and lips.

A patient is being educated in the use of incentive spirometry prior to having a surgical procedure. What should the nurse be sure to include in the education?

Encourage the patient to take approximately 10 breaths per hour, while awake. Explanation: The patient should be instructed to perform the procedure approximately 10 times in succession, repeating the 10 breaths with the spirometer each hour during waking hours. The patient should assume a semi-Fowler's position or an upright position before initiating therapy, not be supine. Coughing during and after each session is encouraged, not discouraged. The patient should Splint the incision when coughing postoperatively. The patient should still use the spirometer when in pain.

A client has a red pharyngeal membrane, reddened tonsils, and enlarged cervical lymph nodes. The client also reports malaise and sore throat. The nurse needs to assess first for:

Fever Explanation: The signs and symptoms described are consistent with acute pharynigitis. The nurse needs to assess for a fever higher than 39.3°C. Findings will help to determine if the client requires antibiotic therapy. The client may also experience headache, myalgias, and nausea. The nurse needs to assess for these symptoms also, and symptomatic treatment would then be provided.

The nurse is obtaining a health history from a client on an annual physical exam. Which documentation should be brought to the physician's attention?

Hoarseness for 2 weeks Explanation: Persistent hoarseness, especially of unknown cause, can be a sign of laryngeal cancer and merits prompt investigation. Epistaxis can be from several causes and has occurred infrequently. Aphonia and laryngitis are common following the noted activity.

A client reports nasal congestion, sneezing, sore throat, and coughing up of yellow mucus. The nurse assesses the client's temperature as 38°C The client states this is the third episode this season. The highest priority nursing diagnosis is

Ineffective airway clearance related to excess mucus production Explanation: All the listed nursing diagnoses are appropriate for this client. Following Maslow's hierarchy of needs, physiological needs are addressed first and, within physiological needs, airway, breathing, and circulation are the most immediate. Thus, ineffective airway clearance is the priority nursing diagnosis.

A client suffers acute respiratory distress syndrome as a consequence of shock. The client's condition deteriorates rapidly, and endotracheal (ET) intubation and mechanical ventilation are initiated. When the high-pressure alarm on the mechanical ventilator sounds, the nurse starts to check for the cause. Which condition triggers the high-pressure alarm?

Kinking of the ventilator tubing Explanation: Conditions that trigger the high-pressure alarm include kinking of the ventilator tubing, bronchospasm, pulmonary embolus, mucus plugging, water in the tube, and coughing or biting on the ET tube. The alarm may also be triggered when the client's breathing is out of rhythm with the ventilator. A disconnected ventilator circuit or an ET cuff leak would trigger the low-pressure alarm. Changing the oxygen concentration without resetting the oxygen level alarm would trigger the oxygen alarm, not the high-pressure alarm.

A physician has ordered that a client with suspected lung cancer undergo magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). The nurse explains the benefits of this study to the client. What is the reason the client with suspected lung cancer would undergo magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)?

MRI can view soft tissues and can help stage cancers. Explanation: MRI uses magnetic fields and radiofrequency signals to produce a detailed diagnostic image. MRI can visualize soft tissues, characterize nodules, and help stage carcinomas. The other options describe different studies.

The nurse is performing an assessment for a patient with congestive heart failure. The nurse asks if the patient has difficulty breathing in any position other than upright. What is the nurse referring to?

Orthopnea Explanation: Orthopnea (inability to breathe easily except in an upright position) may be found in patients with heart disease and occasionally in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Dyspnea (subjective feeling of difficult or labored breathing, breathlessness, shortness of breath) is a multidimensional symptom common to many pulmonary and cardiac disorders, particularly when there is decreased lung compliance or increased airway resistance. Tachypnea is abnormally rapid respirations. Bradypnea is abnormally slow respirations.

The nurse is taking a respiratory history for a patient who has come into the clinic with a chronic cough. What information should the nurse obtain from this patient? (Select all that apply.)

Previous history of smoking Previous history of lung disease in the patient or family Occupational and environmental influences Explanation: Risk factors associated with respiratory disease include smoking, exposure to allergens and environmental pollutants, and exposure to certain recreational and occupational hazards. Financial ability and social support are not pertinent to a chronic cough.

The nurse is caring for a client with an endotracheal tube (ET). Which nursing intervention is contraindicated?

Routinely deflating the cuff Explanation: Routine cuff deflation is not recommended because of the increased risk for aspiration and hypoxia. The cuff is deflated before the ET is removed. Cuff pressures should be checked every 6 to 8 hours. Humidified oxygen should always be introduced through the tube.