Saunders NCLEX Endocrine

A client has been hospitalized for impaired function of the posterior pituitary gland. The nurse plans to monitor for signs and symptoms of which hormone imbalance? 1. Growth hormone (GH) 2. Luteinizing hormone (LH) 3. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) 4. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) ADH is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. The other hormone stored in the posterior pituitary gland is oxytocin. Both ADH and oxytocin are synthesized by the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary gland. These hormones are released as needed into the bloodstream. The anterior pituitary gland produces GH, LH, and FSH.

A client with medullary carcinoma of the thyroid has an excess function of the C cells of the thyroid gland. When reviewing the most recent laboratory results, the nurse should expect which electrolyte abnormality? 1. Sodium 2. Calcium 3. Potassium 4. Magnesium

Calcium The C cells of the thyroid gland are helpful in maintaining normal plasma calcium levels. They do not affect the levels of sodium, potassium, or magnesium.

A nurse is caring for a client after a thyroidectomy. Which specific emergency equipment should the nurse have available as it relates to this procedure? 1. Defibrillator 2. Tracheostomy tray 3. Dextrose 50% in water 4. Normal saline for intravenous bolus

Tracheostomy tray After thyroidectomy, airway obstruction, although not common, can occur. This is considered an emergency situation. If this develops, emergency management needs to occur and oxygen, suction equipment, and a tracheostomy tray should be immediately available at the bedside. The other supplies are not necessary specifically for thyroidectomy.

A nursing instructor is teaching the class about Addison's disease. The instructor determines that the class understands the disease process if they indicate which are affected in this disease? Select all that apply. 1. Androgens 2. Bicarbonate 3. Electrolytes 4. Glucocorticoids 5. Mineralocorticoids

1. Androgens 4. Glucocorticoids 5. Mineralocorticoids In Addison's disease, all three classes of corticosteroids are affected: glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and androgens. Electrolytes and bicarbonate are not directly affected by Addison's disease.

A client with hypovolemia experiences activation of the renin-angiotensin system to maintain blood pressure. The registered nurse determines that the new nurse understands that what substance is secreted if which statement is made? 1. "Cortisol will be secreted." 2. "Aldosterone will be secreted." 3. "Additional glucagon will be produced." 4. "Adrenocorticotropic hormone production will increase."

"Aldosterone will be secreted." Aldosterone is the primary mineralocorticoid that is produced and secreted in response to lowered blood volume. Cortisol is a glucocorticoid. Glucagon is produced by the pancreas and functions to oppose the action of insulin in regulating blood glucose levels. Adrenocorticotropic hormone is produced by the pituitary gland and stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids.

The nurse provides dietary instructions to a client with diabetes mellitus regarding the prescribed diet. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates a need for further teaching? 1. "I'll eat a balanced meal plan." 2. "I need to drink diet soft drinks." 3. "I'll snack on fruit instead of cake." 4. "I need to purchase special dietetic foods."

"I need to purchase special dietetic foods." It is important to emphasize to the client and family that they are not eating a diabetic diet but rather a balanced meal plan. Adherence to nutritional principles is an important component of diabetic management, and an individualized meal plan should be developed for the client. It is not necessary for the client to purchase special dietetic foods.

A client has been hospitalized for an endocrine system dysfunction of the pancreas. The registered nurse asks the new orientee nurse what kind of problem a client hospitalized for endocrine dysfunction of the pancreas would expect. The new orientee nurse demonstrates understanding if which statement is made? 1. "Lipase levels will decrease." 2. "Insulin production will be decreased." 3. "There will be overproduction of trypsin." 4. "Amylase will be secreted in excess amounts."

"Insulin production will be decreased."

A client has undergone a 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT). Which of the listed glucose levels is compatible with diabetes mellitus at the conclusion of the test? 1. 80 mg/dL (4.57 mmol/L) 2. 110 mg/dL (6.0 mmol/L) 3. 130 mg/dL (7.42 mmol/L) 4. 160 mg/dL (9.14 mmol/L)

160 mg/dL (9.14 mmol/L) The normal reference values for OGTTs are lower than 140 mg/dL (8 mmol/L) at 120 minutes; lower than 200 mg/dL (11.4 mmol/L) at 30, 60, and 90 minutes; and lower than 115 mg/dL (6.57 mmol/L) in the fasting state. A glucose level of 160 mg/dL (9.14 mmol/L) is higher than the normal reference range, so therefore is the correct answer.

A 33-year-old female client is admitted to the hospital with a tentative diagnosis of Graves' disease. Which symptom related to the menstrual cycle would the client be most likely to report during the initial assessment? 1. Amenorrhea 2. Menorrhagia 3. Metrorrhagia 4. Dysmenorrhea

Amenorrhea Amenorrhea or a decreased menstrual flow occurs in the client with Graves' disease. Menorrhagia, metrorrhagia, and dysmenorrhea are also disorders related to the female reproductive system; however, they are not typical manifestations of Graves' disease.

A hospitalized client is experiencing an episode of hypoglycemia. The client is lethargic and has no available intravenous (IV) access. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering? 1. Insulin 2. Cortisone 3. Glucagon 4. Epinephrine

Glucagon Glucagon, a natural hormone secreted by the pancreas, is available as a subcutaneous injection to be given when a quick response to severe hypoglycemia is needed. Glucagon is useful in the unconscious hypoglycemic client without established IV access. The remaining options are incorrect treatments.

A nurse is assessing the glycemic status of a client with diabetes mellitus. Which sign or symptom would indicate that the client is developing hyperglycemia? 1. Polyuria 2. Diaphoresis 3. Hypertension 4. Increased pulse rate

Polyuria Classic signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia include polydipsia, polyuria, and polyphagia. It is important to regularly assess the client for hyperglycemia to prevent the development of more serious complications, such as diabetic ketoacidosis. The remaining options are not manifestations of hyperglycemia.

A client with a history of diabetes mellitus has a fingerstick blood glucose level of 460 mg/dL. The home care nurse anticipates that which additional finding would be present with further testing if the client is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)? 1. Hyponatremia 2. Rise in serum pH 3. Presence of ketone bodies 4. Elevated serum bicarbonate level

Presence of ketone bodies DKA is marked by the presence of excessive ketone bodies. As a result of the acidosis, the pH and serum bicarbonate level would decrease. Hyponatremia is not related to DKA.

The nurse in a health care clinic is reviewing the record of a client with diabetes mellitus who was just seen by the health care provider (HCP). The nurse notes that the HCP has prescribed acarbose. Which preexisting disorder, if noted in the client's record, would indicate a contraindication to the use of this medication? 1. Hypothyroidism 2. Renal insufficiency 3. Arterial insufficiency 4. Coronary artery disease

Renal insufficiency Acarbose is an antidiabetic medication that may be administered alone or in conjunction with another antidiabetic medication. It is contraindicated in clients with significant renal dysfunction. It also is contraindicated in clients with inflammatory bowel disease, colonic ulceration, or partial intestinal obstruction.

The nurse has provided home care measures to the client with diabetes mellitus regarding exercise and insulin administration. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction? 1. "I should always wear a MedicAlert bracelet." 2. "I should perform my exercise at peak insulin time." j 3. "I should always carry a quick-acting carbohydrate when I exercise." 4. "I should avoid exercising at times when a hypoglycemic reaction is likely to occur."

"I should perform my exercise at peak insulin time." The client should be instructed to avoid exercise at peak insulin time because this is when a hypoglycemic reaction is likely to occur. If exercises are performed at this time, the client should be instructed to eat an hour before the exercise and drink a carbohydrate liquid. The remaining options are correct statements regarding exercise, insulin, and diabetic control.

A client with diabetes mellitus has been instructed in the dietary exchange system. The client asks the nurse if bacon is allowed in the diet. Which nursing response is most appropriate? 1. "Bacon is not allowed." 2. "Bacon is much too high in fat." 3. "Bacon may be eaten if you eliminate 1 meat item from your diet." 4. "One strip of bacon may be eaten if you eliminate 1 teaspoon of butter."

"One strip of bacon may be eaten if you eliminate 1 teaspoon of butter." Bacon is a component of the fat group in the exchange system. One teaspoon of butter is equal to 1 teaspoon of margarine, 1 teaspoon of any oil, 1 tablespoon of salad dressing, 1 strip of bacon, 5 large olives, or 10 whole peanuts.

The family of a bedridden client with type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease calls the nurse to report symptoms of headache, polydipsia, and increased lethargy. Which most important question should the nurse ask the family to determine a possible problem? 1. "What is the client's urine output?" 2. "What is the client's capillary blood glucose level?" 3. "Has there been any change in the dietary intake?" 4. "Have you increased the amount of fluids provided?"

"What is the client's capillary blood glucose level?" Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is an acute complication of type 2 diabetes mellitus leading to hyperglycemia and dehydration. Headache, polydipsia, and increasing lethargy can be caused by the dehydration. The remaining options will not assist in determining a possible problem.

A client has abnormal amounts of circulating thyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4). While obtaining the health history, the nurse asks the client about dietary intake. Lack of which dietary element is most likely the cause? 1. Iodine 2. Calcium 3. Phosphorus 4. Magnesium

Iodine

The nurse caring for a client with a diagnosis of hypoparathyroidism reviews the laboratory results of blood tests for this client and notes that the calcium level is extremely low. The nurse should expect to note which finding on assessment of the client? 1. Unresponsive pupils 2. Positive Trousseau's sign 3. Negative Chvostek's sign 4. Hyperactive bowel sounds

Positive Trousseau's sign Hypoparathyroidism is related to a lack of parathyroid hormone secretion or a decreased effectiveness of parathyroid hormone on target tissues. The end result of this disorder is hypocalcemia. When serum calcium levels are critically low, the client may exhibit Chvostek's and Trousseau's signs, which indicate potential tetany. The remaining options are not related to the presence of hypocalcemia.

A health care provider has prescribed propylthiouracil for a client with hyperthyroidism. The nurse recalls that first-line treatment calls for methimazole for medication therapy. The nurse should question the client about her past medical history, specifically regarding which condition? 1. Pregnancy 2. Renal failure 3. Prolonged QT interval 4. Adverse reaction to levothyroxine

Pregnancy Methimazole and propylthiouracil are both used to treat hyperthyroidism. Methimazole is considered first-line treatment; however, this medication cannot be used for clients who are in their first trimester of pregnancy, have had a previous adverse reaction to methimazole, or need rapid reduction of symptoms. Renal failure, prolonged QT interval, and adverse reaction to levothyroxine are not related to contraindications for methimazole.

The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the hospital with uncontrolled type 1 diabetes mellitus. In the event that diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) does occur, the nurse anticipates that which medication would most likely be prescribed? 1. Glucagon 2. Glyburide 3. Regular insulin 4. Neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin

Regular insulin Giving regular insulin by the intravenous route is the treatment of choice for DKA. A short-acting insulin is the only insulin that can be given intravenously because it can be titrated to the client's blood glucose levels. Glucagon is used to treat hypoglycemia because it increases blood glucose levels, and glyburide is an oral hypoglycemic agent used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus; both agents are inappropriate. NPH insulin is an intermediate-acting insulin and therefore is not appropriate for treatment of DKA.

A nurse notes that a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has lipodystrophy on both upper thighs. The nurse should ask the client if which measure is taken? 1. Rotating sites for injection 2. Administering the insulin at a 45-degree angle 3. Cleaning the skin with alcohol before each injection 4. Aspirating for blood before injection into the subcutaneous tissue

Rotating sites for injection Lipodystrophy (hypertrophy of subcutaneous tissue at the injection site) occurs in some clients with diabetes mellitus when injection sites are used for a prolonged period. Therefore, clients are instructed to adhere to a plan of rotating injection sites to avoid tissue changes. Angle of insulin administration, cleansing with alcohol, and aspiration do not produce this complication.

A client with diabetes mellitus who takes insulin is seen in the health care clinic. The client tells the clinic nurse that after the insulin injection, the insulin seems to leak through the skin. The nurse would appropriately determine the problem by asking the client which question? 1. "Are you rotating the injection site?" 2. "Are you aspirating before you inject the insulin?" 3. "Are you using a 1-inch needle to give the injection?" 4. "Are you placing an air bubble in the syringe before injection?"

"Are you rotating the injection site?" The client should be instructed that insulin injection sites should be rotated within 1 anatomical area before moving on to another area. This rotation process promotes uniform absorption of insulin and reduces the chances of irritation. The remaining options are not associated with the condition (skin leakage of insulin) presented in the question.

The nurse has provided instructions to the client with hyperparathyroidism regarding home care measures to manage the symptoms of the disease. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction? 1. "I should avoid bed rest." 2. "I need to avoid doing any exercise at all." 3. "I need to space activity throughout the day." 4. "I should gauge my activity level by my energy level.

"I need to avoid doing any exercise at all." The client with hyperparathyroidism should pace activities throughout the day and plan for periods of uninterrupted rest. The client should plan for at least 30 minutes of walking each day to support calcium movement into the bones. The client should be instructed to avoid bed rest and use energy levels as a guide to activity. The client also should be instructed to avoid high-impact activity or contact sports.

A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus calls the nurse to report recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia with exercising. Which statement by the client indicates an adequate understanding of the peak action of NPH insulin and exercise? 1. "I should not exercise since I am taking insulin." 2. "The best time for me to exercise is after breakfast." 3. "The best time for me to exercise is mid- to late afternoon." 4. "NPH is a basal insulin, so I should exercise in the evening."

"The best time for me to exercise is after breakfast." Exercise is an important part of diabetes management. It promotes weight loss, decreases insulin resistance, and helps to control blood glucose levels. A hypoglycemic reaction may occur in response to increased exercise, so clients should exercise either an hour after mealtime or after consuming a 10- to 15-gram carbohydrate snack, and they should check their blood glucose level before exercising. Option 1 is incorrect because clients with diabetes should exercise, though they should check with their health care provider before starting a new exercise program. Option 3 in incorrect; clients should avoid exercise during the peak time of insulin. NPH insulin peaks at 4 to 12 hours; therefore, afternoon exercise takes place during the peak of the medication. Options 4 is incorrect; NPH insulin in an intermediate-acting insulin, not a basal insulin.

The nurse is caring for a client who had a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Which statements should the nurse include in the discharge teaching instructions? Select all that apply. 1. "Include adequate fiber and fluids in your diet." 2. "Wear slip-on shoes rather than those that need to be tied." 3. "A postnasal drip may be expected for several weeks after surgery." 4. "Brushing your teeth will not be permitted for at least 2 weeks after surgery." 5. "Contact your health care provider immediately if you develop any headache, fever, or neck stiffness."

1. "Include adequate fiber and fluids in your diet." 2. "Wear slip-on shoes rather than those that need to be tied." 4. "Brushing your teeth will not be permitted for at least 2 weeks after surgery." 5. "Contact your health care provider immediately if you develop any headache, fever, or neck stiffness." Clients who have undergone a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy will have an incision just above the upper lip so that the pituitary gland can be accessed and removed through the sphenoid sinus. After the gland is removed, a muscle graft is taken, often from the thigh, to support the area and prevent leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Clients should be taught to include adequate fluids and fiber in the diet to prevent straining during a bowel movement. Clients must also avoid bending from the waist to pick up objects or tie shoes because these activities will increase intracranial pressure. The client should also be taught to avoid brushing the teeth for 2 weeks to allow time for the incision to heal. Infection can occur after surgery, so clients should be taught to immediately report headache, fever, and nuchal (neck) rigidity because these may be indicative of meningitis. Postnasal drip can be an indication of CSF leak and should be reported immediately.

The nurse caring for a male client newly admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia suspects that the client is also at risk for metabolic syndrome if which characteristics have been identified in this client? Select all that apply. 1. Hemoglobin A1C of 6.5% 2. Waist circumference of 36 inches 3. Triglycerides 160 mg/dL (1.81 mmol/L) 4. Consistent systolic blood pressures <130 mm Hg 5. Serial fasting glucose levels of 120 mg/dL (6.85 mmol/L), 132 mg/dL (7.54 mmol/L), and 128 mg/dL (7.31 mmol/L

1. Hemoglobin A1C of 6.5% 3. Triglycerides 160 mg/dL (1.81 mmol/L) 5. Serial fasting glucose levels of 120 mg/dL (6.85 mmol/L), 132 mg/dL (7.54 mmol/L), and 128 mg/dL (7.31 mmol/L) Features of metabolic syndrome include abdominal obesity: waist circumference of 40 inches (100 cm) or more for men; hyperglycemia: fasting blood glucose level of 110 mg/dL (6 mmol/L) or more or on medication treatment for elevated glucose; abnormal hemoglobin A1C: >6.0%; hypertension: systolic blood pressure of 130 mm Hg or more or diastolic blood pressure of 85 mm Hg or more or on medication treatment for hypertension; hyperlipidemia: triglyceride level of 160 mg/dL or more or on medication treatment for elevated triglycerides, normal triglyderides is 40 to 160 mg/dL (0.45 to 1.81 mmol/L); high-density lipoprotein cholesterol less than 40 mg/dL for men: normal is >40 mg/dL (>1.55 mmol/L). The client's risk factors include elevated triglyceride level, elevated hemoglobin A1C, and elevated fasting blood glucose levels.

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client with Cushing's syndrome. The nurse documents a client problem of excess fluid volume. Which nursing actions should be included in the care plan for this client? Select all that apply. 1. Monitor daily weight. 2. Monitor intake and output. 3. Assess extremities for edema. 4. Maintain a high-sodium diet. 5. Maintain a low-potassium diet.

1. Monitor daily weight. 2. Monitor intake and output. 3. Assess extremities for edema. The client with Cushing's syndrome and a problem of excess fluid volume should be on daily weights and intake and output and have extremities assessed for edema. He or she should be maintained on a high-potassium, low-sodium diet. Decreased sodium intake decreases renal retention of sodium and water.

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client with Addison's disease. The nurse has identified a problem of risk for deficient fluid volume and identifies nursing interventions that will prevent this occurrence. Which nursing interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply. 1. Monitor for changes in mentation. 2. Encourage an intake of low-protein foods. 3. Encourage an intake of low-sodium foods. 4. Encourage fluid intake of at least 3000 mL per day. 5. Monitor vital signs, skin turgor, and intake and output.

1. Monitor for changes in mentation. 4. Encourage fluid intake of at least 3000 mL per day. 5. Monitor vital signs, skin turgor, and intake and output. The client at risk for deficient fluid volume should be encouraged to eat regular meals and snacks and to increase intake of sodium, protein, and complex carbohydrates and fluids. Oral replacement of sodium losses is necessary, and maintenance of adequate blood glucose levels is required. Mentation, vital signs, skin turgor and intake and output should be monitored for signs of fluid volume deficit.

The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome. Which expected signs and symptoms should the nurse monitor for? Select all that apply . 1. Anorexia 2. Dizziness 3. Weight loss 4. Moon face 5. Hypertension 6. Truncal obesity

4. Moon face 5. Hypertension 6. Truncal obesity A client with Cushing's syndrome may exhibit a number of different manifestations. These could include moon face, truncal obesity, and a buffalo hump fat pad. Other signs include hypokalemia, peripheral edema, hypertension, increased appetite, and weight gain. Dizziness is not part of the clinical picture for this disorder.

The nurse is monitoring a client with diabetes mellitus for signs of hypoglycemia. Which manifestations are associated with this complication? 1. Slow pulse; lethargy; warm, dry skin 2. Elevated pulse; lethargy; warm, dry skin 3. Elevated pulse; shakiness; cool, clammy skin 4. Slow pulse, confusion, increased urine output

Elevated pulse; shakiness; cool, clammy skin Signs and symptoms of mild hypoglycemia include tachycardia; shakiness; and cool, clammy skin. The remaining options do not specify the manifestations of hypoglycemia.

A nurse is caring for a client with a dysfunctional thyroid gland and is concerned that the client will exhibit a sign of thyroid storm. Which is an early indicator of this complication? 1. Bradycardia 2. Constipation 3. Hyperreflexia 4. Low-grade temperature

Hyperreflexia Clinical manifestations of thyroid storm include a fever as high as 106°F, hyperreflexia, abdominal pain, diarrhea, dehydration rapidly progressing to coma, severe tachycardia, extreme vasodilation, hypotension, atrial fibrillation, and cardiovascular collapse.

The nurse is caring for a client after thyroidectomy. The nurse notes that calcium gluconate is prescribed for the client. The nurse determines that this medication has been prescribed for which purpose? 1. To treat thyroid storm 2. To prevent cardiac irritability 3. To treat hypocalcemic tetany 4. To stimulate release of parathyroid hormone

To treat hypocalcemic tetany Hypocalcemia, resulting in tetany, can develop after thyroidectomy if the parathyroid glands are accidentally removed during surgery. Manifestations develop 1 to 7 days after surgery. If the client develops numbness and tingling around the mouth, fingertips, or toes; muscle spasms; or twitching, the health care provider is notified immediately. Calcium gluconate should be readily available in the nursing unit.

The nurse has provided dietary instructions to a client with a diagnosis of hypoparathyroidism. The nurse should instruct the client that it is acceptable to include which item in the diet? 1. Fish 2. Cereals 3. Vegetables 4. Meat and poultry

Vegetables The client with hypoparathyroidism is instructed to follow a calcium-rich diet and to restrict the amount of phosphorus in the diet. Vegetables are allowed in the diet. The client should limit meat, poultry, fish, eggs, cheese, and cereals.

The nurse is taking a health history for a client with hyperparathyroidism. Which question would elicit information about this client's condition? 1. "Do you have tremors in your hands?" 2. "Are you experiencing pain in your joints?" 3. "Do you notice swelling in your legs at night?" 4. "Have you had problems with diarrhea lately?"

"Are you experiencing pain in your joints?" Hyperparathyroidism is associated with oversecretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH), which causes excessive osteoblast growth and activity within the bones. When bone reabsorption is increased, calcium is released from the bones into the blood, causing hypercalcemia. The bones suffer demineralization as a result of calcium loss, leading to bone and joint pain and, sometimes, pathological fractures. Tremors and diarrhea relate to assessment findings of hypoparathyroidism. Swelling in the legs at night is unrelated to hyperparathyroidism.

The home care nurse visits a client with a diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism who is taking furosemide and provides dietary instructions to the client. Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional instruction? 1. "I need to eat foods high in potassium." 2. "I need to drink at least 2 to 3 L of fluid daily." 3. "I need to eat small, frequent meals and snacks if nauseated." 4. "I need to increase my intake of dietary items that are high in calcium."

"I need to increase my intake of dietary items that are high in calcium." The aim of treatment in the client with hyperparathyroidism is to increase the renal excretion of calcium and decrease gastrointestinal absorption and bone resorption of calcium. Dietary restriction of calcium may be used as a component of therapy. The client should eat foods high in potassium, especially if the client is taking furosemide. Drinking 2 to 3 L of fluid daily and eating small, frequent meals and snacks if nauseated are appropriate instructions for the client.

A nurse is reviewing the assessment findings and laboratory data for a client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). The nurse understands that which symptoms are associated characteristics of this disorder? Select all that apply. 1. Hypernatremia 2. Signs of water deficit 3. High urine osmolality 4. Low serum osmolality 5. Hypotonicity of body fluids 6. Continued release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

3. High urine osmolality 4. Low serum osmolality 5. Hypotonicity of body fluids 6. Continued release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) SIADH is characterized by inappropriate continued release of ADH. This results in water intoxication, manifested as fluid volume expansion, hypotonicity of body fluids, and hyponatremia as a result of the high urine osmolality and low serum osmolality.

A client with diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 50 mg/dL (2.85 mmol/L) and reports feeling hungry and shaky. Which should the nurse provide the client? 1. 3 oz of 2% milk 2. 4 oz of apple juice 3. 2 oz of orange juice 4. A teaspoon of granulated sugar

4 oz of apple juice When a client is exhibiting symptoms of mild hypoglycemia, the nurse should provide the client with 15 g of a simple carbohydrate to quickly increase the blood glucose level. One half cup of apple juice is equivalent to 15 g of carbohydrates. The items in the remaining options do not provide a sufficient amount of carbohydrate.

The nurse is reviewing the health care provider's (HCP's) prescriptions for a client with a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus who has been hospitalized for treatment of an infected foot ulcer. The nurse expects to note which finding in the HCP's prescriptions? 1. A decreased-calorie diet 2. An increased-calorie diet 3. A decreased amount of NPH insulin daily insulin 4. An increased amount of NPH insulin daily insulin

An increased amount of NPH insulin daily insulin Infection is a physiological stressor that can cause an increase in the level of epinephrine in the body. An increase in epinephrine causes an increase in blood glucose levels. When the client is under stress, such as when an infection is present, an increase in the dose of insulin will be required to facilitate the transport of excess glucose into the cells. The client will not necessarily need an adjustment in the daily diet.

After hypophysectomy, a client complains of being thirsty and having to urinate frequently. What is the initial nursing action? 1. Increase fluid intake. 2. Document the complaints. 3. Assess for urinary glucose. 4. Assess urine specific gravity.

Assess urine specific gravity After hypophysectomy, diabetes insipidus can occur temporarily because of antidiuretic hormone deficiency. This deficiency is related to surgical manipulation. The nurse should assess the specific gravity of the urine and notify the health care provider (HCP) if the result is lower than 1.006. Although increasing fluid intake and documenting the complaints may be components of the plan of care, they are not initial actions. Additionally, the HCP will prescribe increased fluids. Assessing for urinary glucose is unrelated to the client's condition.

A client received 5 units of insulin aspart subcutaneously just before eating lunch at 12:00 p.m. The nurse should assess the client for a hypoglycemic reaction at which times? 1. Between 1:00 and 3:00 p.m. 2. 10 minutes after administration 3. Between 4:00 p.m. and 12:00 a.m. 4. Between 8:00 and 10:00 p.m.

Between 1:00 and 3:00 p.m. Insulin aspart is a rapid-acting insulin. Its onset of action is 15 minutes; it peaks in 1 to 3 hours, and its duration of action is 3 to 5 hours. Hypoglycemic reactions are most likely to occur during peak time.

The nurse caring for a client who underwent intracranial surgery is suspected of having diabetes insipidus. Which finding noted by the nurse is consistent with this complication of surgery? 1. Complaints of excessive thirst 2. Urine specific gravity of 1.030 3. Urine output of 10 to 15 mL/hour 4. Systolic blood pressures running consistently over 150 mm Hg

Complaints of excessive thirst Diabetes insipidus results from insufficient antidiuretic hormone (ADH) production, which in this case was caused by the intracranial surgery. Findings associated with diabetes insipidus include greatly increased urine output, low urine specific gravity (<1.005), hypotension, signs of dehydration, increased plasma osmolarity, increased thirst, and output that does not decrease when fluid intake decreases. A complaint of thirst is the only option consistent with diabetes insipidus.

A client is diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome. When reviewing the recent laboratory results, the nurse should expect an excess of which substance? 1. Calcium 2. Cortisol 3. Epinephrine 4. Norepinephrine

Cortisol Cushing's syndrome is characterized by an excess of cortisol, a glucocorticoid. Glucocorticoids are produced by the adrenal cortex. Calcium would be decreased in this disorder. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are produced by the adrenal medulla.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client with a diagnosis of myxedema (hypothyroidism). Which assessment finding should the nurse expect to note in this client? 1. Dry skin 2. Thin, silky hair 3. Bulging eyeballs 4. Fine muscle tremors

Dry skin Myxedema is a deficiency of thyroid hormone. The client will present with a puffy, edematous face, especially around the eyes (periorbital edema), along with coarse facial features; dry skin; and dry, coarse hair and eyebrows. The remaining options are noted in the client with hyperthyroidism.

A client arrives in the hospital emergency department in an unconscious state. As reported by the spouse, the client has diabetes mellitus and began to show symptoms of hypoglycemia. A blood glucose level is obtained for the client, and the result is 40 mg/dL (2.28 mmol/L). Which medication should the nurse anticipate will be prescribed for the client? 1. Glucagon 2. Glyburide 3. Metformin 4. Regular insulin

Glucagon A blood glucose level lower than 50 mg/dL (2.85 mmol/L) is considered to be critically low. Glucagon is used to treat hypoglycemia because it increases blood glucose levels. Insulin would lower the client's blood glucose and would not be an appropriate treatment for hypoglycemia. Glyburide and metformin are oral hypoglycemic agents used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus and would not be given to a client with hypoglycemia. In addition, an oral medication would not be administered to an unconscious client.

The clinic nurse is providing instructions to a client with diabetes mellitus about the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia. The nurse should tell the client that which would be noted in a hypoglycemic reaction? 1. Thirst 2. Hunger 3. Polydipsia 4. Increased urine output

Hunger Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include hunger, nervousness, anxiety, dizziness, blurred vision, sweaty palms, confusion, and tingling and numbness around the mouth. Polydipsia (thirst) and increased urine output are noted in the client with hyperglycemia.

A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Addison's disease. The nurse would assess for which problem as a manifestation of this disorder? 1. Edema 2. Obesity 3. Hirsutism 4. Hypotension

Hypotension Common manifestations of Addison's disease include postural hypotension from fluid loss, syncope, muscle weakness, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, abdominal cramps, weight loss, depression, and irritability. The remaining options do not occur with this disease.

The nurse is caring for a client who has had an adrenalectomy and is monitoring the client for signs of adrenal insufficiency. Which signs and symptoms indicate adrenal insufficiency in this client? 1. Hypotension and fever 2. Mental status changes and hypertension 3. Subnormal temperature and hypotension 4. Complaints of weakness and hypertension

Hypotension and fever The nurse should be alert to signs and symptoms of adrenal insufficiency after adrenalectomy. These signs and symptoms include weakness, hypotension, fever, and mental status changes. The remaining options are incorrect.

The nurse is providing instructions to a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. The nurse gives the client a list of the signs of hyperglycemia. Which specific sign of this complication should be included on the list? 1. Shakiness 2. Increased thirst 3. Profuse sweating 4. Decreased urine output

Increased thirst The classic signs of hyperglycemia include polydipsia, polyuria, and polyphagia. Profuse sweating and shakiness would be noted in a hypoglycemic condition.

A client is brought to the emergency department in an unresponsive state, and a diagnosis of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome is made. The nurse would immediately prepare to initiate which anticipated health care provider's prescription? 1. Endotracheal intubation 2. 100 units of NPH insulin 3. Intravenous infusion of normal saline 4. Intravenous infusion of sodium bicarbonate

Intravenous infusion of normal saline The primary goal of treatment in hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS) is to rehydrate the client to restore fluid volume and to correct electrolyte deficiency. Intravenous (IV) fluid replacement is similar to that administered in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and begins with IV infusion of normal saline. Regular insulin, not NPH insulin, would be administered. The use of sodium bicarbonate to correct acidosis is avoided because it can precipitate a further drop in serum potassium levels. Intubation and mechanical ventilation are not required to treat HHS.

An external insulin pump is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus. When the client asks the nurse about the functioning of the pump, the nurse bases the response on which information about the pump? 1. It is timed to release programmed doses of either short-duration or NPH insulin into the bloodstream at specific intervals. 2. It continuously infuses small amounts of NPH insulin into the bloodstream while regularly monitoring blood glucose levels. 3. It is surgically attached to the pancreas and infuses regular insulin into the pancreas. This releases insulin into the bloodstream. 4. It administers a small continuous dose of short-duration insulin subcutaneously. The client can self-administer an additional bolus dose from the pump before each meal.

It administers a small continuous dose of short-duration insulin subcutaneously. The client can self-administer an additional bolus dose from the pump before each meal. An insulin pump provides a small continuous dose of short-duration (rapid- or short-acting) insulin subcutaneously throughout the day and night. The client can self-administer an additional bolus dose from the pump before each meal as needed. Short-duration insulin is used in an insulin pump. An external pump is not attached surgically to the pancreas.

A client with diabetes mellitus is at risk for a serious metabolic disorder from the breakdown of fats for conversion to glucose. The nurse should anticipate that which substance will be elevated? 1. Glucose 2. Ketones 3. Glucagon 4. Lactate dehydrogenase

Ketones Ketones are a byproduct of fat metabolism. When this process occurs to an extreme, the resulting condition is called ketoacidosis. The remaining options are not associated with the breakdown of fats.

A nurse is assisting a client with diabetes mellitus who is recovering from diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) to develop a plan to prevent a recurrence. Which is most important to include in the plan of care? 1. Test urine for ketone levels. 2. Eat 6 small meals per day. 3. Monitor blood glucose levels frequently. 4. Receive appropriate follow-up health care.

Monitor blood glucose levels frequently. Client education after DKA should emphasize the need for home glucose monitoring 2 to 4 times per day. Instructing the client to notify the health care provider when illness occurs is also important. The presence of urine ketones indicates that DKA has occurred already. The client should eat well-balanced meals with snacks as prescribed.

A nurse is reviewing the health care provider's prescriptions for a client diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which medication prescription should the nurse question and verify? 1. Acetaminophen 2. Docusate sodium 3. Morphine sulfate 4. Levothyroxine sodium

Morphine sulfate Medications are administered very cautiously to the client with hypothyroidism because of altered metabolism and excretion and depressed metabolic rate and respiratory status. Morphine sulfate would further depress bodily functions. Hormone replacement with levothyroxine sodium, a thyroid hormone, is a component of therapy. Stool softeners, such as docusate sodium, are prescribed to prevent constipation. Acetaminophen can be taken.

A client has overactivity of the thyroid gland. The nurse should expect which finding? 1. Weight gain 2. Nutritional deficiencies 3. Low blood glucose levels 4. Increased body fat stores

Nutritional deficiencies Although the client may experience an increased appetite with overactivity of the thyroid gland, food intake does not meet energy demands, and nutritional deficiencies can develop. Weight loss occurs as a result of the increased metabolic activity. Glucose tolerance is decreased, and the client experiences hyperglycemia. Overactivity of the thyroid gland also causes increased metabolism, including fat metabolism. This leads to decreased levels of fat in the bloodstream, including cholesterol, and decreased body fat stores.

During physical examination of a client, which finding is characteristic of hypothyroidism? 1. Periorbital edema 2. Flushed, warm skin 3. Hyperactive bowel sounds 4. Heart rate of 120 beats/min

Periorbital edema Because cellular edema occurs in hypothyroidism, the client's appearance is changed. Nonpitting edema occurs, especially around the eyes and in the feet and hands. Knowing this should direct you to option 1. Flushed, warm skin; hyperactive bowel sounds; and tachycardia (heart rate >100 beats/min) are clinical manifestations of hyperthyroidism, which occurs as a result of excess thyroid hormone secretion, resulting in a hypermetabolic state.

A nurse is assessing a client who has had cranial surgery and is at risk for development of diabetes insipidus. The nurse would assess for which signs or symptoms that could indicate development of this complication? 1. Diarrhea 2. Infection 3. Polydipsia 4. Weight gain

Polydipsia Polydipsia and polyuria are classic symptoms of diabetes insipidus. The urine is pale, and the specific gravity is low. Diarrhea is not indicative of the complication. Infection is not associated with diabetes insipidus. Anorexia and weight loss also may occur.

The nurse is monitoring a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus for signs of complications. Which sign or symptom, if exhibited in the client, indicates that the client is at risk for chronic complications of diabetes if the blood glucose is not adequately managed? 1. Polyuria 2. Diaphoresis 3. Pedal edema 4. Decreased respiratory rate

Polyuria Chronic hyperglycemia, resulting from poor glycemic control, contributes to the microvascular and macrovascular complications of diabetes mellitus. Classic symptoms of hyperglycemia include polydipsia, polyuria, and polyphagia. Diaphoresis may occur in hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia is an acute complication of diabetes mellitus; however, it does not predispose a client to the chronic complications of diabetes mellitus. Therefore, option 2 can be eliminated because this finding is characteristic of hypoglycemia. Options 3 and 4 are not associated with diabetes mellitus.

The nurse is monitoring a diabetic client with a blood glucose level of 400 mg/dL (22.2 mmol/L). Which clinical manifestation would indicate diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)? 1. Bradycardia 2. Cool, clammy skin 3. Lower extremity edema 4. Rapid, deep respirations

Rapid, deep respirations DKA is caused by a profound deficiency of insulin and is characterized by hyperglycemia (blood glucose level greater than or equal to 250 mg/dL [13.9 mmol/L]), ketosis (ketones in urine or serum), metabolic acidosis, and dehydration. The correct option is 4. This is because the body's compensatory response to the metabolic acidosis is to increase carbon dioxide (CO2) excretion by the lungs through deep, rapid breathing (Kussmaul respirations). Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect, as clients with DKA are dehydrated and thus have an increased heart rate and dry, scaly skin and do not have lower extremity edema.

A test to measure long-term control of diabetes mellitus has been prescribed for a client. In instructing the client about the test, the nurse explains that long-term control can be measured because chronic high blood glucose levels lead to irreversible glucose binding onto what? 1. Platelets 2. Muscle tissue 3. Adipose tissue 4. Red blood cells (RBCs)

Red blood cells (RBCs) With chronic high circulating blood glucose levels, some glucose binds irreversibly onto RBCs and remains there for the life of the cell. The average life span of an RBC is 120 days. The measurement of glycosylated hemoglobin A (HbA1c), which detects glucose binding on the RBC membrane, is expressed as a percentage. Glucose does not bind onto platelets in diabetes mellitus. One of the problems in diabetes is that muscle and adipose cells may be unable to transport glucose across cell membranes.

A client arrives in the hospital emergency department complaining of severe thirst and polyuria. The client tells the nurse that she has a history of diabetes mellitus. A blood glucose level is drawn, and the result is 685 mg/dL (39.1 mmol/L). Which intervention should the nurse anticipate to be prescribed initially for the client? 1. Glyburide via the oral route 2. Glucagon via the subcutaneous route 3. Insulin aspart via the subcutaneous route 4. Regular insulin via the intravenous (IV) route

Regular insulin via the intravenous (IV) route The client is most likely in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Regular insulin via the IV route is the preferred treatment for DKA. Regular insulin is a short-acting insulin and can be given intravenously; it is titrated to the client's high blood glucose levels. Glucagon is used to treat hypoglycemia, and glyburide is an oral hypoglycemic agent used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. Insulin aspart is a short-acting insulin and is not appropriate for the emergency treatment of DKA.

A client has just been admitted to the nursing unit following thyroidectomy. Which assessment is the priority for this client? 1. Hypoglycemia 2. Level of hoarseness 3. Respiratory distress 4. Edema at the surgical site

Respiratory distress Thyroidectomy is the removal of the thyroid gland, which is located in the anterior neck. It is very important to monitor airway status, as any swelling to the surgical site could cause respiratory distress. Although all of the options are important for the nurse to monitor, the priority nursing action is to monitor the airway.

During health history taking, the client complains of weight loss and diarrhea and says that he can "feel my heart beating in my chest." The nurse anticipates that which diagnostic test will most likely be prescribed by the health care provider (HCP) in order to determine the underlying condition leading to the client's signs and symptoms? 1. Endoscopy 2. Electrocardiogram 3. Stool for occult blood 4. Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) A client with increased activity of the thyroid gland exhibits weight loss as a result of the higher metabolic rate, increased frequency of bowel movements or diarrhea, and an increased pulse rate, which account for the client's complaint of feeling his heart beating in his chest. Therefore, a TSH level should be drawn to validate hyperthyroidism. The TSH level will be decreased in hyperthyroid states.

A client's serum blood glucose level is 48 mg/dL (2.74 mmol/L). The nurse would expect to note which as an additional finding when assessing this client? 1. Slurred speech 2. Increased thirst 3. Increased appetite 4. Increased urination

Slurred speech A client who has a blood glucose level of less than 70 mg/dL (4 mmol/L) is considered to be hypoglycemic. A clinical manifestation of hypoglycemia is slurred speech.

The nurse is assessing the learning readiness of a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which behavior indicates to the nurse that the client is not ready to learn? 1. The client asks if the spouse may attend the teaching session. 2. The client asks appropriate questions about what will be taught. 3. The client asks for written materials about diabetes mellitus before class. 4. The client complains of fatigue whenever the nurse plans a teaching session.

The client complains of fatigue whenever the nurse plans a teaching session. Physical symptoms can interfere with an individual's ability to learn and can indicate to the teacher that the student lacks motivation to learn if the symptoms repeatedly recur when teaching is initiated. The remaining options identify active client participation in learning.

A nurse is assigned to care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus. During the shift, the nurse should monitor for which manifestation as a sign of hypoglycemia? 1. Tremors 2. Anorexia 3. Hot, dry skin 4. Muscle cramps

Tremors Decreased blood glucose levels trigger autonomic nervous system signs and symptoms, such as nervousness, irritability, and tremors. Hot, dry skin accompanies hyperglycemia. Anorexia and muscle cramps are unrelated to hypoglycemia.

The nurse is caring for a client with pheochromocytoma who is scheduled for adrenalectomy. In the preoperative period, what should the nurse monitor as the priority? 1. Vital signs 2. Intake and output 3. Blood urea nitrogen results 4. Urine for glucose and ketones

Vital signs Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine-producing tumor. Hypertension is the hallmark of pheochromocytoma. Severe hypertension can precipitate a stroke or sudden blindness. Although all of the options are accurate nursing interventions for the client with pheochromocytoma, the priority nursing action is to monitor the vital signs, particularly the blood pressure.

The health care provider prescribes a 24-hour urine collection for vanillylmandelic acid (VMA). The community health nurse visits the client at home and instructs the client in the procedure for the collection of the urine. Which statement, if made by the client, would indicate a need for further instruction? 1. "I can take medication if I need to during the collection." 2. "When I start the collection, I will urinate and discard that specimen." 3. "I will pour the urine in the collection bottle each time I urinate and refrigerate the urine." 4. "I will start the collection in 2 days. Starting now, I cannot eat or drink any tea, chocolate, vanilla, or fruit until the test is completed."

"I can take medication if I need to during the collection." Clients are reminded not to take medications for 2 to 3 days before a 24-hour urine collection for VMA. Because a 24-hour urine collection is a timed quantitative determination, it is essential that the client start the test with an empty bladder. Therefore, the client is instructed to void, discard the first urine, note the time, and start the test. The 24-hour urine specimen collection bottle must be kept on ice or refrigerated. For a VMA determination, the client is instructed to avoid tea, chocolate, vanilla, and all fruits for 2 days before urine collection begins.

The nurse has provided instructions for measuring blood glucose levels to a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus who will be taking insulin. The client demonstrates understanding of the instructions by identifying which method as the best method for monitoring blood glucose levels? 1. "I will check my blood glucose level every day at 5:00 p.m." 2. "I will check my blood glucose level 1 hour after each meal." 3. "I will check my blood glucose level 2 hours after each meal." 4. "I will check my blood glucose level before each meal and at bedtime."

"I will check my blood glucose level before each meal and at bedtime. The most effective and accurate measure for testing blood glucose is to test the level before each meal and at bedtime. If possible and feasible, testing should be done during the nighttime hours. Checking the level after the meal will provide an inaccurate assessment of diabetes control. Checking the level once daily will not provide enough data to control the diabetes mellitus.

A nurse has provided dietary instructions to a client with Addison's disease. Which statement made by the client indicates that the client understands instructions? 1. "I will decrease my carbohydrate intake." 2. "High fat intake is essential with this disease." 3. "I will maintain a normal sodium intake in my diet." 4. "I will need to restrict the amount of protein in my diet.

"I will maintain a normal sodium intake in my diet." A high-complex carbohydrate, high-protein diet will be prescribed for the client with Addison's disease. To prevent excess fluid and sodium loss, the client is instructed to maintain a normal salt intake daily (3 g) and to increase salt intake during hot weather, before strenuous exercise, and in response to fever, vomiting, or diarrhea. A high-fat diet is not prescribed.

The nurse is reviewing the record of a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. The nurse reads the assessment findings and expects to note documentation of which major symptom associated with this condition? 1. Glycosuria 2. Diaphoresis 3. Weight loss 4. Hypertension

Hypertension Hypertension is the major symptom associated with pheochromocytoma. Glycosuria, weight loss, and diaphoresis also are clinical manifestations of pheochromocytoma; however, they are not major symptoms.

The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. The preoperative teaching instructions should include which statement? 1. "Your hair will need to be shaved." 2. "You will receive spinal anesthesia." 3. "You will need to ambulate after surgery." 4. "Brushing your teeth needs to be avoided for at least 2 weeks after surgery."

"Brushing your teeth needs to be avoided for at least 2 weeks after surgery." A transsphenoidal hypophysectomy is a surgical approach that uses the nasal sinuses and nose for access to the pituitary gland. Based on the location of the surgical procedure, spinal anesthesia would not be used. In addition, the hair would not be shaved. Although ambulating is important, specific to this procedure is avoiding brushing the teeth to prevent disruption of the surgical site.

The nurse is instructing a client with Cushing's syndrome on follow-up care. Which of these client statements would indicate a need for further instruction? 1. "I should avoid contact sports." 2. "I should check my ankles for swelling." 3. "I need to avoid foods high in potassium." 4. "I need to check my blood glucose regularly."

"I need to avoid foods high in potassium." Hypokalemia is a common characteristic of Cushing's syndrome, and the client is instructed to consume foods high in potassium. Clients with this condition experience activity intolerance, osteoporosis, and frequent bruising. Fluid volume excess results from water and sodium retention. Hyperglycemia is caused by an increased cortisol secretion.

The home health nurse visits a client with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. The client relates a history of vomiting and diarrhea and tells the nurse that no food has been consumed for the last 24 hours. Which additional statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? 1. "I need to stop my insulin." 2. "I need to increase my fluid intake." 3. "I need to monitor my blood glucose every 3 to 4 hours." 4. "I need to call the health care provider (HCP) because of these symptoms."

"I need to stop my insulin." When a client with diabetes mellitus is unable to eat normally because of illness, the client still should take the prescribed insulin or oral medication. The client should consume additional fluids and should notify the HCP. The client should monitor the blood glucose level every 3 to 4 hours. The client should also monitor the urine for ketones during illness.

The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has Cushing's syndrome. Which client statement indicates that instructions related to dietary management are understood? 1. "I will need to limit the amount of protein in my diet." 2. "I should eat foods that have a lot of potassium in them." 3. "I am fortunate that I can eat all of the salty foods I enjoy." 4. "I am fortunate that I do not need to follow any special diet."

"I should eat foods that have a lot of potassium in them." A diet low in carbohydrates and sodium but ample in protein and potassium is encouraged for a client with Cushing's syndrome. Such a diet promotes weight loss, reduction of edema and hypertension, control of hypokalemia, and rebuilding of wasted tissue

A client with suspected Cushing's syndrome is scheduled for adrenal venography. A nurse has provided instructions to the client regarding the test. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction? 1. "I need to sign an informed consent." 2. "The insertion site will be locally anesthetized." 3. "I will be placed in a high-sitting position for the test." 4. "I may feel a burning sensation after the dye is injected."

"I will be placed in a high-sitting position for the test." The test aids in determining whether signs and symptoms are caused by abnormalities in the adrenal gland. The nurse assesses the client for allergies to iodine before the test. The client is informed that the supine position is necessary to access the femoral vein. An informed consent form is required, the insertion site will be locally anesthetized, and the client will experience a transient burning sensation after the dye is injected

A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is having trouble remembering the types, duration, and onset of the action of insulin. The client tells the nurse that family members have not been supportive. Which response by the nurse is best? 1. "What is it that you don't understand?" 2. "You can't always depend on your family to help." 3. "It's not really necessary for you to remember this." 4. "Let me go over the types of insulins with you again."

"Let me go over the types of insulins with you again." Reinforcement of knowledge and behaviors is vital to the success of the client's self-care. All of the other options do not address the need for client instructions and are not therapeutic responses.

The nurse is interviewing a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who is taking a sulfonylurea. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of this treatment for this disorder? 1. "I take oral insulin instead of shots." 2. "By taking this medication, I am able to eat more." 3. "When I become ill, I need to increase the number of pills I take." 4. "The medications I'm taking help release the insulin I already make."

"The medications I'm taking help release the insulin I already make." Clients with type 2 diabetes mellitus have decreased or impaired insulin secretion. Oral hypoglycemic agents are given to these clients to facilitate glucose uptake. Insulin injections may be given during times of stress-induced hyperglycemia. Oral insulin is not available because of the breakdown of the insulin by digestion. Therefore, the remaining options are incorrect.

A client with Cushing's syndrome verbalizes concern to the nurse regarding the appearance of the buffalo hump that has developed. Which statement should the nurse make to the client? 1. "Don't be concerned; this problem can be covered with clothing." 2. "Usually these physical changes slowly improve following treatment." 3. "This is permanent, but looks are deceiving and are not that important." 4. "Try not to worry about it; there are other things to be concerned about."

"Usually these physical changes slowly improve following treatment." The client with Cushing's syndrome should be reassured that most physical changes resolve with treatment. All other options are not therapeutic responses.

After client education about the importance of sunscreen use and active vitamin production via the skin, the nurse determines that the client understands the teaching when which statement is made? 1. "Vitamin B is activated in the outer layer of the skin by the sun." 2. "Vitamin E deficiency occurs from lack of exposure to sunlight." 3. "Vitamin K can be depleted if exposed to excess ultraviolet light." 4. "Vitamin D is activated in the epidermis from ultraviolet light, such as sunlight."

"Vitamin D is activated in the epidermis from ultraviolet light, such as sunlight." Vitamin D is activated in the epidermis by ultraviolet (UV) light, such as sunlight. Once activated, it is distributed by the blood to the gastrointestinal tract to promote uptake of dietary calcium. The vitamins in the remaining options are neither activated nor depleted by UV light, such as sunlight.

A client has been diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. The nurse monitors for which signs and symptoms indicating a complication of this disorder? Select all that apply. 1. Fever 2. Nausea 3. Lethargy 4. Tremors 5. Confusion 6. Bradycardia

1. Fever 2. Nausea 4. Tremors 5. Confusion Thyroid storm is an acute and life-threatening complication that occurs in a client with uncontrollable hyperthyroidism. Signs and symptoms of thyroid storm include elevated temperature (fever), nausea, and tremors. In addition, as the condition progresses, the client becomes confused. The client is restless and anxious and experiences tachycardia.

The nurse teaches a client with diabetes mellitus about differentiating between hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis. The client demonstrates an understanding of the teaching by stating that a form of glucose should be taken if which symptom or symptoms develop? Select all that apply. 1. Polyuria 2. Shakiness 3. Palpitations 4. Blurred vision 5. Lightheadedness 6. Fruity breath odor

2. Shakiness 3. Palpitations 5. Lightheadedness Shakiness, palpitations, and lightheadedness are signs/symptoms of hypoglycemia and would indicate the need for food or glucose. Polyuria, blurred vision, and a fruity breath odor are manifestations of hyperglycemia.

The nurse should include which interventions in the plan of care for a client with hyperthyroidism? Select all that apply. 1. Provide a warm environment for the client. 2. Instruct the client to consume a low-fat diet. 3. A thyroid-releasing inhibitor will be prescribed. 4. Encourage the client to consume a well-balanced diet. 5. Instruct the client that thyroid replacement therapy will be needed. 6. Instruct the client that episodes of chest pain are expected to occur.

3. A thyroid-releasing inhibitor will be prescribed. 4. Encourage the client to consume a well-balanced diet. The clinical manifestations of hyperthyroidism are the result of increased metabolism caused by high levels of thyroid hormone. Interventions are aimed at reduction of the hormones and measures to support the signs and symptoms related to an increased metabolism. The client often has heat intolerance and requires a cool environment. The nurse encourages the client to consume a well-balanced diet because clients with this condition experience increased appetite. Iodine preparations are used to treat hyperthyroidism. Iodine preparations decrease blood flow through the thyroid gland and reduce the production and release of thyroid hormone. Thyroid replacement is needed for hypothyroidism. The client would notify the health care provider if chest pain occurs because it could be an indication of an excessive medication dose.

The nurse is preparing a client with a new diagnosis of hypothyroidism for discharge. The nurse determines that the client understands discharge instructions if the client states that which signs and symptoms are associated with this diagnosis? Select all that apply. 1. Tremors 2. Weight loss 3. Feeling cold 4. Loss of body hair 5. Persistent lethargy 6. Puffiness of the face

3. Feeling cold 4. Loss of body hair 5. Persistent lethargy 6. Puffiness of the face Feeling cold, hair loss, lethargy, and facial puffiness are signs of hypothyroidism. Tremors and weight loss are signs of hyperthyroidism.

The nurse should include which interventions in the plan of care for a client with hypothyroidism? Select all that apply. 1. Provide a cool environment for the client. 2. Instruct the client to consume a high-fat diet. 3. Instruct the client about thyroid replacement therapy. 4. Encourage the client to consume fluids and high-fiber foods in the diet. 5. Inform the client that iodine preparations will be prescribed to treat the disorder. 6. Instruct the client to contact the health care provider (HCP) if episodes of chest pain occur.

3. Instruct the client about thyroid replacement therapy. 4. Encourage the client to consume fluids and high-fiber foods in the diet. 6. Instruct the client to contact the health care provider (HCP) if episodes of chest pain occur. The clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism are the result of decreased metabolism from low levels of thyroid hormone. Interventions are aimed at replacement of the hormone and providing measures to support the signs and symptoms related to decreased metabolism. The client often has cold intolerance and requires a warm environment. The nurse encourages the client to consume a well-balanced diet that is low in fat for weight reduction and high in fluids and high-fiber foods to prevent constipation. Iodine preparations may be used to treat hyperthyroidism. Iodine preparations decrease blood flow through the thyroid gland and reduce the production and release of thyroid hormone; they are not used to treat hypothyroidism. The client is instructed to notify the HCP if chest pain occurs because it could be an indication of overreplacement of thyroid hormone.

A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis and a serum glucose level of 789 mg/dL (45 mmol/L). The health care provider (HCP) prescribes 10 units of regular insulin by intravenous (IV) bolus, followed by a continuous insulin infusion at a rate of 5 units/hr. The pharmacy sends 500 mL of normal saline solution containing 50 units of regular insulin. After administering the IV bolus of 10 units of regular insulin, the nurse sets the infusion pump flow rate of the normal saline solution containing 50 units of regular insulin to infuse at how many milliliters per hour to deliver 5 units/hr? Fill in the blank.

50 mL

The nursing instructor asks a nursing student to identify the risk factors associated with the development of thyrotoxicosis. The student demonstrates understanding of the risk factors by identifying an increased risk for thyrotoxicosis in which client? 1. A client with hypothyroidism 2. A client with Graves' disease who is having surgery 3. A client with diabetes mellitus scheduled for a diagnostic test 4. A client with diabetes mellitus scheduled for debridement of a foot ulcer

A client with Graves' disease who is having surgery Thyrotoxicosis usually is seen in clients with Graves' disease in whom the symptoms are precipitated by a major stressor. This complication typically occurs during periods of severe physiological or psychological stress such as trauma, sepsis, delivery, or major surgery. It also must be recognized as a potential complication after thyroidectomy. The client conditions in the remaining options are not associated with thyrotoxicosis.

The nurse is preparing to care for a client after parathyroidectomy. The nurse should plan for which action for this client? 1. Maintain an endotracheal tube for 24 hours. 2. Administer a continuous mist of room air or oxygen. 3. Place the client in a flat position with the head and neck immobilized. 4. Use only a rectal thermometer for temperature measurement.

Administer a continuous mist of room air or oxygen Humidification of air or oxygen helps to liquefy mucous secretions and promotes easier breathing after parathyroidectomy. Pooling of thick mucous secretions in the trachea, bronchi, and lungs will cause respiratory obstruction. The client will not necessarily have an endotracheal tube in place. Tympanic temperatures can be taken. Semi Fowler's position is the position of choice to assist in lung expansion and prevent edema. Rectal temperatures only are not required.

The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). In the acute phase, the nurse plans for which priority intervention? 1. Correct the acidosis. 2. Administer 5% dextrose intravenously. 3. Apply a monitor for an electrocardiogram. 4. Administer short-duration insulin intravenously.

Administer short-duration insulin intravenously. Lack of insulin (absolute or relative) is the primary cause of DKA. Treatment consists of insulin administration (short- or rapid-acting), intravenous fluid administration (normal saline initially, not 5% dextrose), and potassium replacement, followed by correcting acidosis. Cardiac monitoring is important due to alterations in potassium levels associated with DKA and its treatment, but applying an electrocardiogram monitor is not the priority action.

The nurse is assessing a client who has a diagnosis of goiter. Which should the nurse expect to note during the assessment of the client? 1. An enlarged thyroid gland 2. The presence of heart damage 3. Client complaints of chronic fatigue 4. Client complaints of slow wound healing

An enlarged thyroid gland An enlarged thyroid gland develops in the client with goiter because of an excessive amount of thyroxine in the thyroid gland. Heart damage occurs with selenium deficiency. In addition, heart damage would not likely be noted during the nursing assessment. Further diagnostic tests in addition to the assessment would be necessary to determine heart damage. Chronic fatigue occurs with iron deficiency. Slow wound healing occurs with zinc deficiency.

A client has a tumor that is interfering with the function of the hypothalamus. The nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms related to which imbalance? 1. Melatonin excess or deficit 2. Glucocorticoid excess or deficit 3. Mineralocorticoid excess or deficit 4. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) excess or deficit

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) excess or deficit The hypothalamus exerts an influence on both the anterior and the posterior pituitary gland. Abnormalities can result in excess or deficit of substances normally mediated by the pituitary. ADH could be affected by disease of the hypothalamus because the hypothalamus produces ADH and stores it in the posterior pituitary gland. The pineal gland is responsible for melatonin production. The adrenal cortex is responsible for the production of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids

The nurse is reviewing the postoperative prescriptions for a client who had a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Which health care provider's (HCP's) prescriptions, if noted on the record, would indicate the need for clarification? 1. Assess vital signs and neurological status. 2. Instruct the client to avoid blowing his nose. 3. Apply a loose dressing if any clear drainage is noted. 4. Instruct the client about the need for a MedicAlert bracelet.

Apply a loose dressing if any clear drainage is noted. The nurse should observe for clear nasal drainage; constant swallowing; and a severe, persistent, generalized, or frontal headache. These signs and symptoms indicate cerebrospinal fluid leak into the sinuses. If clear drainage is noted after this procedure, the HCP needs to be notified. Therefore, clarification is needed regarding application of a loose dressing. The remaining options indicate appropriate postoperative interventions.

The emergency department nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results for a client suspected of having diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory result should the nurse expect to note in this disorder? 1. Serum pH of 9.0 2. Absent ketones in the urine 3. Serum bicarbonate of 22 mEq/L (22 mmol/L) 4. Blood glucose level of 500 mg/dL (28.5 mmol/L)

Blood glucose level of 500 mg/dL (28.5 mmol/L) In the client with DKA, the nurse should expect to note blood glucose levels between 350 and 1500 mg/dL (20 and 85.7 mmol/L), ketonuria, serum pH less than 7.35, and serum bicarbonate less than 15 mEq/L (15 mmol/L).

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who is scheduled for a thyroidectomy. The nurse focuses on psychosocial needs, knowing that which is likely to occur in the client? 1. Infertility 2. Gynecomastia 3. Sexual dysfunction 4. Body image changes

Body image changes Because of the location of the incision in the neck area, many clients are afraid of thyroid surgery for fear of having a visible large scar postoperatively. Having all or part of the thyroid gland removed will not cause the client to experience gynecomastia. Sexual dysfunction and infertility could occur if the entire thyroid is removed and the client is not placed on thyroid replacement medications.

The nurse is caring for a client with a serum phosphorus level of 5.0 mg/dL (1.61 mmol/L). What other laboratory value might the nurse expect to note in the medical record? 1. Calcium level of 8 mg/dL (2.0 mmol/L) 2. Calcium level of 11.2 mg/dL (2.8 mmol/L) 3. Potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L (2.9 mmol/L) 4. Potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L (5.6 mmol/L)

Calcium level of 8 mg/dL (2.0 mmol/L) Parathyroid hormone is responsible for maintaining serum calcium and phosphorus levels within normal range. Therefore, if these laboratory values are altered, this suggests dysfunction of the parathyroid gland. When calcium levels are elevated (normal is 9 to 10.5 mg/dL [2.25 to 2.75 mmol/L]) and phosphorous levels are decreased (normal is 3.0 to 4.5 mg/dL [0.97 to 1.45 mmol/L]) this suggests hyperparathyroidism. If the phosphorus level is elevated, the nurse should expect the calcium level to be low. Therefore, option 1 is the correct answer.

A home health nurse is visiting a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The client tells the nurse that he is not feeling well and has had a "respiratory infection" for the past week, which seems to be getting worse. After interviewing the client, what should be the initial nursing action? 1. Document the assessment data. 2. Check the client's blood glucose. 3. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 4. Obtain the client's sputum for culture and sensitivity

Check the client's blood glucose. Uncontrolled hyperglycemia may lead to the production of ketones, thus leading to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), a life-threatening condition. The most common precipitating factor for development of DKA is infection. Assessment data should be documented but are not a priority. The HCP may need to be notified if the client's blood glucose is elevated and the client has other symptoms of DKA or a respiratory infection. After determining the client's blood glucose, the nurse should obtain a sputum sample if the client is expectorating yellow, green, or bloody secretions.

A client who visits the health care provider's office for a routine physical examination reports new onset of intolerance to cold. Knowing that this is a frequent complaint associated with hypothyroidism, the nurse should check for which manifestations? 1. Weight loss and thinning skin 2. Complaints of weakness and lethargy 3. Diaphoresis and increased hair growth 4. Increased heart rate and respiratory rate

Complaints of weakness and lethargy Weakness and lethargy are common complaints associated with hypothyroidism. Other common symptoms include weight gain, bradycardia, decreased respiratory rate, dry skin, and hair loss.

A client visits the health care provider's office for a routine physical examination and reports a new onset of intolerance to cold. Since hypothyroidism is suspected, which additional information would be noted during the client's assessment? 1. Weight loss and tachycardia 2. Complaints of weakness and lethargy 3. Diaphoresis and increased hair growth 4. Increased heart rate and respiratory rate

Complaints of weakness and lethargy Weakness and lethargy are the most common complaints associated with hypothyroidism. Other common symptoms include intolerance to cold, weight gain, bradycardia, decreased respiratory rate, dry skin, and hair loss.

A client with diabetes mellitus demonstrates acute anxiety when admitted to the hospital for the treatment of hyperglycemia. What is the appropriate intervention to decrease the client's anxiety? 1. Administer a sedative. 2. Convey empathy, trust, and respect toward the client. 3. Ignore the signs and symptoms of anxiety, anticipating that they will soon disappear. 4. Make sure that the client is familiar with the correct medical terms to promote understanding of what is happening.

Convey empathy, trust, and respect toward the client. Anxiety is a subjective feeling of apprehension, uneasiness, or dread. The appropriate intervention is to address the client's feelings related to the anxiety. Administering a sedative is not the most appropriate intervention and does not address the source of the client's anxiety. The nurse should not ignore the client's anxious feelings. Anxiety needs to be managed before meaningful client education can occur.

The nurse is providing instructions regarding home care measures to a client with diabetes mellitus and instructs the client about the causes of hypoglycemia. The nurse determines that additional instruction is needed if the client identifies which as a cause of hypoglycemia? 1. Omitted meals 2. Increased intensity of activity 3. Decreased daily insulin dosage 4. Inadequate amount of fluid intake

Decreased daily insulin dosage Decreasing the dose of insulin will lead to hyperglycemia. Causes for hypoglycemic reactions include delayed consumption of meals and lack of necessary amounts of food. Other causes include the administration of excessive insulin or oral hypoglycemic medications, vomiting associated with illness, and strenuous exercise, which may potentiate the action of insulin.

The nurse is providing dietary instructions to help with diabetes control for a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus who will be taking insulin. The nurse should provide the client with which best instruction? 1. Eat meals at approximately the same time each day. 2. Adjust mealtimes depending on blood glucose levels. 3. Vary mealtimes if insulin is not administered at the same time every day. 4. Avoid being concerned about the time of meals as long as snacks are taken on time.

Eat meals at approximately the same time each day. Mealtimes must be approximately the same each day to maintain a stable blood glucose level. The client should not be instructed that mealtimes can be varied depending on blood glucose levels, insulin administration, or consumption of snacks.

The nurse has documented the problem of body image distortion for a client with a diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome. The nurse identifies nursing interventions related to this problem and includes these interventions in the plan of care. Which nursing intervention is inappropriate? 1. Encourage the client's expression of feelings. 2. Assess the client's understanding of the disease process. 3. Encourage family members to share their feelings about the disease process. 4. Encourage the client to recognize that the body changes need to be dealt with.

Encourage the client to recognize that the body changes need to be dealt with. Encouraging the client to understand that the body changes that occur in this disorder need to be dealt with is an inappropriate nursing intervention. This option does not address the client's feelings. The remaining options are appropriate because they address the client and family feelings regarding the disorder.

The nurse is admitting a client diagnosed with pheochromocytoma. The client is complaining of a pounding headache and palpitations and the blood pressure is 170/90 mm Hg. The nurse is aware that which substance is responsible for these clinical manifestations? 1. Cortisol 2. Androgens 3. Aldosterone 4. Epinephrine

Epinephrine Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine-producing tumor and causes secretion of excessive amounts of epinephrine and norepinephrine, which are produced by the adrenal medulla. Hypertension is the principal manifestation, and the client has episodes of high blood pressure accompanied by pounding headaches. The excessive release of catecholamines also results in excessive conversion of glycogen into glucose in the liver. Consequently, hyperglycemia and glucosuria occur during attacks. In addition, the other substances listed (cortisol, androgens, and aldosterone) are produced by the adrenal cortex.

A young man with type 1 diabetes mellitus tells the nurse that he might lose his job because he has been having frequent hypoglycemic reactions. His boss thinks that he is drunk during these episodes and that he has been drinking on the job. Which action by the nurse would best assist this client to meet his needs? 1. Ask the client if he indeed has been drinking at work. 2. Ask the client what he does to treat his hypoglycemia. 3. Contact the local employment office to help him find another job 4. Examine factors with the client that may be causing frequent hypoglycemic episodes.

Examine factors with the client that may be causing frequent hypoglycemic episodes. Hypoglycemic reactions present as adrenergic symptoms of tremor, shakiness, and nervousness that are comparable or alike to the signs of alcohol intoxication. The best strategy to assist the client to meet his needs is to decrease the episodes of hypoglycemia by first identifying and then eliminating those factors that precipitate this event. Asking the client if he has been drinking at work and contacting the local employment office are inappropriate. Asking the client what he does to treat his hypoglycemia is not directly related to the subject, factors that may cause frequent hypoglycemic episodes.

A client with diabetes mellitus is being tested to determine long-term diabetic control. Which result should the nurse expect to see if the client's long-term control is within acceptable limits? 1. Glycosylated hemoglobin of <6% 2. Presence of ketones in the urine 3. Presence of albumin in the urine 4. Fasting blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL (8.57 mmol/L)

Glycosylated hemoglobin of <6% This measurement of glycosylated hemoglobin (HgbA1C) detects glucose binding on the red blood cell (RBC) membrane and is expressed as a percentage. It measures glucose for the life of the RBC, which is 120 days. A HgbA1C of <6% is acceptable. The fasting blood glucose level should be 110 mg/dL (6 mmol/L). The urine should be free of both ketones and albumin.

A nurse is caring for a client with pheochromocytoma. The client asks for a snack and something warm to drink. Which items would be the most appropriate choice for this client to meet nutritional needs? 1. Crackers with cheese and tea 2. Graham crackers and warm milk 3. Toast with peanut butter and cocoa 4. Vanilla wafers and coffee with cream and sugar

Graham crackers and warm milk The client with pheochromocytoma needs to be provided with a diet high in vitamins, minerals, and calories. Foods or beverages that contain caffeine, such as cocoa, coffee, tea, or colas, are prohibited because they can precipitate a hypertensive crisis.

A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is complaining of polydipsia, polyuria, weight loss, and weakness. Laboratory results indicate a blood glucose level of 800 mg/dL (45.7 mmol/L) and nonketosis. The nurse reviews the health care provider's documentation and expects to note which diagnosis? 1. Hypoglycemia\ 2. Pheochromocytoma 3. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) 4. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS)

Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS) HHS is seen primarily in clients with type 2 diabetes mellitus, who experience a relative deficiency of insulin. The onset of signs and symptoms may be gradual. Manifestations may include polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, mental status alterations, weight loss, and weakness. In HHS, the client is nonketotic. The clinical manifestations noted in the question are not signs of hypoglycemia. Pheochromocytoma is not related to these clinical manifestations. DKA typically occurs in type 1 diabetes mellitus.

A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level greater than 600 mg/dL (34.3 mmol/L) and is complaining of polydipsia, polyuria, weight loss, and weakness. The nurse reviews the health care provider's documentation and expects to note which diagnosis? 1. Hypoglycemia 2. Pheochromocytoma 3. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) 4. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS)

Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS) HHS is seen primarily in clients with type 2 diabetes mellitus, who experience a relative deficiency of insulin. The onset of signs and symptoms may be gradual. Manifestations may include polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, mental status alterations, weight loss, and weakness. The clinical manifestations noted in the question are not signs of hypoglycemia. Pheochromocytoma is not related to these clinical manifestations. DKA typically occurs in type 1 diabetes mellitus.

A client has begun medication therapy with propylthiouracil. The nurse should assess the client for which condition as an adverse effect of this medication? 1. Joint pain 2. Renal toxicity 3. Hyperglycemia 4. Hypothyroidism

Hypothyroidism Propylthiouracil is prescribed for the treatment of hyperthyroidism. Excessive dosing with this agent may convert a hyperthyroid state to a hypothyroid state. If this occurs, the dosage should be reduced. Temporary administration of thyroid hormone may be required to treat the hypothyroid state. Propylthiouracil is not used for relief of joint pain. It does not cause renal toxicity or hyperglycemia.

A client is admitted to a hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The initial blood glucose level is 950 mg/dL (54.2 mmol/L). A continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of short-acting insulin is initiated, along with IV rehydration with normal saline. The serum glucose level is now decreased to 240 mg/dL (13.7 mmol/L). The nurse would next prepare to administer which medication? 1. An ampule of 50% dextrose 2. NPH insulin subcutaneously 3. IV fluids containing dextrose 4. Phenytoin for the prevention of seizures

IV fluids containing dextrose Emergency management of DKA focuses on correcting fluid and electrolyte imbalances and normalizing the serum glucose level. If the corrections occur too quickly, serious consequences, including hypoglycemia and cerebral edema, can occur. During management of DKA, when the blood glucose level falls to 250 to 300 mg/dL (14.2 to 17.1 mmol/L), the IV infusion rate is reduced and a dextrose solution is added to maintain a blood glucose level of about 250 mg/dL (14.2 mmol/L), or until the client recovers from ketosis. Fifty percent dextrose is used to treat hypoglycemia. NPH insulin is not used to treat DKA. Phenytoin is not a usual treatment measure for DKA.

The nurse is preparing a plan of care for a client with diabetes mellitus who has hyperglycemia. The nurse places priority on which client problem? 1. Lack of knowledge 2. Inadequate fluid volume 3. Compromised family coping 4. Inadequate consumption of nutrients

Inadequate fluid volume An increased blood glucose level will cause the kidneys to excrete the glucose in the urine. This glucose is accompanied by fluids and electrolytes, causing an osmotic diuresis leading to dehydration. This fluid loss must be replaced when it becomes severe. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not related specifically to the information in the question.

The emergency department nurse is preparing a plan for initial care of a client with a diagnosis of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS). The nurse recognizes that the hyperglycemia associated with this disorder results from which occurrence? 1. Increased use of glucose 2. Overproduction of insulin 3. Increased production of glucose 4. Increased osmotic movement of water

Increased production of glucose Hyperglycemia results from decreased use and increased production of glucose. Increased use of glucose and overproduction of insulin would most likely cause hypoglycemia. Option 4 is incorrect.

A client's serum blood glucose level is 389 mg/dL (22.2 mmol/L). The nurse would expect to note which as an additional finding when assessing this client? 1. Unsteady gait 2. Slurred speech 3. Increased thirst 4. Cold, clammy skin

Increased thirst A clinical manifestation of hyperglycemia is increased thirst secondary to dehydration and frequent urination. Unsteady gait; slurred speech; and cold, clammy skin would most likely be noted in hypoglycemia.

The nurse is providing instructions regarding insulin administration for a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. The health care provider has prescribed a mixture of NPH insulin and regular insulin. The nurse should instruct the client that which is the first step in this procedure? 1. Draw up the correct dosage of NPH insulin into the syringe. 2. Draw up the correct dosage of regular insulin into the syringe. 3. Inject air equal to the amount of NPH insulin prescribed into the vial of NPH insulin. 4. Inject air equal to the amount of regular insulin prescribed into the vial of regular insulin.

Inject air equal to the amount of NPH insulin prescribed into the vial of NPH insulin. The initial step in preparing an injection of insulin that is a mixture of NPH and regular insulin is to inject air into the NPH insulin bottle equal to the amount of insulin prescribed. The client would then be instructed to inject an amount of air equal to the amount of prescribed insulin into the regular insulin bottle. The regular insulin would then be withdrawn, followed by the NPH insulin. Contamination of regular insulin with NPH insulin will convert part of the regular insulin into a longer acting form.

The nurse is caring for a client after thyroidectomy. The client expresses concern about the postoperative voice hoarseness she is experiencing and asks if the hoarseness will subside. The nurse should provide the client with which information? 1. It indicates nerve damage. 2. The hoarseness is permanent. 3. It is normal during this time and will subside. 4. It will worsen before it subsides, which may take 6 months.

It is normal during this time and will subside. Hoarseness in the postoperative period usually is the result of laryngeal pressure or edema and will resolve within a few days. The client should be reassured that the effects are transitory. The other options are incorrect.

A client is admitted with a serum glucose level of 650 mg/dL (37.14 mmol/L) and diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is suspected. Which additional laboratory result does the nurse identify as being supportive of DKA? 1. Ketones in urine 2. Lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) of 200 U/L 3. pH of 7.52 on arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis 4. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 10 mg/dL (3.6 mmol/L

Ketones in urine Ketones are a byproduct of fat metabolism. When this process occurs to the extreme, it is termed ketoacidosis. Ketone bodies are a product of fat metabolism, and the presence of moderate to high urine ketones (hyperketonuria) indicates a severe lack of insulin, such as in DKA. Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect. BUN of 10 mg/dL (3.6 mmol/L) is a normal value, as normal is 10 to 20 mg/dL (3.6 to 7.1 mmol/L). Elevations in LDH (normal is 100 to 190 U/L) can be indicative of heart failure, hemolytic disorders, hepatitis dysfunction, myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolus, or skeletal muscle damage. In acidotic conditions the pH will be decreased (normal is 7.35 to 7.45).

A nurse is assessing the status of a client who returned to the surgical nursing unit after a parathyroidectomy procedure. The nurse would place highest priority on which assessment finding? 1. Laryngeal stridor 2. Difficulty voiding 3. Mild incisional pain 4. Absence of bowel sounds

Laryngeal stridor During the early postoperative period, the nurse carefully observes the client for signs of bleeding, which may cause swelling and compression of adjacent tissues. Laryngeal stridor results from compression of the trachea and is a harsh, high-pitched sound heard on inspiration and expiration. Laryngeal stridor is an acute emergency, necessitating immediate attention to avoid complete obstruction of the airway. The other options describe usual postoperative problems that are not life threatening.

A client is admitted to an emergency department, and a diagnosis of myxedema coma is made. Which action should the nurse prepare to carry out initially? 1. Warm the client. 2. Maintain a patent airway. 3. Administer thyroid hormone. 4. Administer fluid replacement.

Maintain a patent airway. Myxedema coma is a rare but serious disorder that results from persistently low thyroid production. Coma can be precipitated by acute illness, rapid withdrawal of thyroid medication, anesthesia and surgery, hypothermia, and the use of sedatives and opioid analgesics. In myxedema coma, the initial nursing action is to maintain a patent airway. Oxygen should be administered, followed by fluid replacement, keeping the client warm, monitoring vital signs, and administering thyroid hormones by the intravenous route.

The nurse has developed a postoperative plan of care for a client who had a thyroidectomy and documents that the client is at risk for developing an ineffective breathing pattern. Which nursing intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care? 1. Maintain a supine position. 2. Monitor neck circumference every 4 hours. 3. Maintain a pressure dressing on the operative site. 4. Encourage deep-breathing exercises and vigorous coughing exercises.

Monitor neck circumference every 4 hours. After thyroidectomy, neck circumference is monitored every 4 hours to assess for the occurrence of postoperative edema. The client should be placed in an upright position to facilitate air exchange. A pressure dressing is not placed on the operative site because it may restrict breathing. The nurse should monitor the dressing closely and should loosen the dressing if necessary. The nurse should assist the client with deep-breathing exercises, but coughing is minimized to prevent tissue damage and stress to the incision.

A client with Graves' disease has exophthalmos and is experiencing photophobia. Which nursing action would best assist the client with these manifestations? 1. Obtain dark glasses for the client. 2. Lubricate the eyes with tap water every 2 to 4 hours. 3. Administer methimazole every 8 hours around the clock. 4. Instruct the client to avoid straining or heavy lifting because this effort can increase eye pressure.

Obtain dark glasses for the client. Because photophobia (light intolerance) accompanies this disorder, wearing dark glasses is helpful in alleviating the problem. Tap water, which is hypotonic, could actually cause more swelling to the eye because it could pull fluid into the interstitial space. In addition, the client would be at risk for developing an eye infection because the solution is not sterile. Methimazole is a thyroid inhibitor, but medication therapy for Graves' disease does not help to alleviate the clinical manifestation of exophthalmos. There is no need to avoid straining or heavy lifting with exophthalmos.

A client's laboratory results indicate the serum calcium is 12 mg/dL (3 mmol/L) and the serum phosphorous is 2.1 mg/dL (0.697 mmol/L). Based on these findings, the nurse suspects imbalance of which hormone? 1. Thyroid hormone 2. Parathyroid hormone 3. Follicle-stimulating hormone 4. Adrenocorticotropic hormone

Parathyroid hormone Parathyroid hormone is responsible for maintaining serum calcium and phosphorous levels within normal range. Knowledge of normal ranges for serum calcium (9 to 10.5 mg/dL [2.25 to 2.75 mmol/L]) and serum phosphorous (3.0 to 4.5 mg/dL [0.97 to 1.45 mmol/L]) is needed to determine that the client's calcium is elevated and phosphorus is decreased, consistent with hyperparathyroidism. Thyroid hormone is responsible for maintaining a normal metabolic rate in the body. Follicle-stimulating hormone and adrenocorticotropic hormone are produced by the anterior pituitary gland. They are responsible for growth and maturation of the ovarian follicle and stimulation of the adrenal glands, respectively.

A client with suspected primary hyperparathyroidism is undergoing diagnostic testing. The nurse would assess for which as a manifestation of this disorder? 1. Polyuria 2. Diarrhea 3. Polyphagia 4. Weight gain

Polyuria Hypercalcemia classically occurs with hyperparathyroidism. Elevated serum calcium levels produce osmotic diuresis, making polyuria the correct option. The other manifestations listed are not associated with this disorder.

A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the emergency department with suspected diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory result would be expected with this diagnosis? 1. Urine is negative for ketones. 2. Serum potassium is 6.8 mEq/L (6.8 mmol/L). 3. Serum osmolality is 260 mOsm/kg (260 mmol/kg) H20. 4. Arterial blood gas values are pH 7.52, PCO2 44 mm Hg, HCO3- 30 mEq/L (30 mmol/L).

Serum potassium is 6.8 mEq/L (6.8 mmol/L). Movement of hydrogen ions from the extracellular to the intracellular fluid promotes the movement of potassium from intracellular to extracellular fluid. Thus, the serum potassium level will rise. The value in option 2 is greater than the normal range of 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L (3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L). The presence of ketones in urine would be expected, and the serum osmolality would be elevated to reflect dehydration (the serum osmolality in option 3 is decreased). The client with DKA experiences metabolic acidosis (not metabolic alkalosis as noted in option 4).

The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of Addison's disease and is monitoring the client for signs of addisonian crisis. The nurse should assess the client for which manifestation that would be associated with this crisis? 1. Agitation 2. Diaphoresis 3. Restlessness 4. Severe abdominal pain

Severe abdominal pain Addisonian crisis is a serious life-threatening response to acute adrenal insufficiency that most commonly is precipitated by a major stressor. The client in addisonian crisis may demonstrate any of the signs and symptoms of Addison's disease, but the primary problems are sudden profound weakness; severe abdominal, back, and leg pain; hyperpyrexia followed by hypothermia; peripheral vascular collapse; coma; and renal failure. The remaining options do not identify clinical manifestations associated with addisonian crisis.

The nurse is caring for a postoperative client who has had an adrenalectomy. What should the nurse check for during the client's focused assessment? 1. Peripheral edema 2. Bilateral exophthalmos 3. Signs and symptoms of hypovolemia 4. Signs and symptoms of hypocalcemia

Signs and symptoms of hypovolemia Aldosterone, secreted by the adrenal cortex, plays a major role in fluid volume balance by retaining sodium and water. Thus, a deficiency can cause hypovolemia. A deficiency of adrenocortical hormones (such as after adrenalectomy) does not cause the clinical manifestations noted in the remaining options.

A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is to begin an exercise program, and the nurse is providing instructions regarding the program. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan? 1. Try to exercise before mealtimes. 2. Administer insulin after exercising. 3. Take a blood glucose test before exercising. 4. Exercise is best performed during peak times of insulin.

Take a blood glucose test before exercising. A blood glucose test performed before exercising provides the client with information regarding the need to consume a snack before exercising. Exercising during the peak times of insulin or before mealtime places the client at risk for hypoglycemia. Insulin should be administered as prescribed.

A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client with a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. The nurse should assess for the major sign associated with pheochromocytoma by performing which action? 1. Obtaining the client's weight 2. Taking the client's blood pressure 3. Testing the client's urine for glucose 4. Palpating the skin for its temperature

Taking the client's blood pressure Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine-producing tumor. Hypertension is the major sign associated with pheochromocytoma. Taking the client's blood pressure would assess the blood pressure status. Weight loss, glycosuria, and diaphoresis are also clinical manifestations of pheochromocytoma, yet hypertension is the major sign.

The nurse is caring for a client after hypophysectomy and notes clear nasal drainage from the client's nostril. The nurse should take which initial action? 1. Lower the head of the bed. 2. Test the drainage for glucose. 3. Obtain a culture of the drainage. 4. Continue to observe the drainage.

Test the drainage for glucose. After hypophysectomy, the client should be monitored for rhinorrhea, which could indicate a cerebrospinal fluid leak. If this occurs, the drainage should be collected and tested for the presence of cerebrospinal fluid. Cerebrospinal fluid contains glucose, and if positive, this would indicate that the drainage is cerebrospinal fluid. The head of the bed should remain elevated to prevent increased intracranial pressure. Clear nasal drainage would not indicate the need for a culture. Continuing to observe the drainage without taking action could result in a serious complication.

A client with diabetes mellitus is being discharged following treatment for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS) precipitated by acute illness. The client tells the nurse, "I will call the health care provider (HCP) the next time I can't eat for more than a day or so." Which statement reflects the most appropriate analysis of this client's level of knowledge? 1. The client needs immediate education before discharge. 2. The client requires follow-up teaching regarding the administration of oral antidiabetics. 3. The client's statement is inaccurate, and he or she should be scheduled for outpatient diabetic counseling. 4. The client's statement is inaccurate, and he or she should be scheduled for educational home health visits.

The client needs immediate education before discharge. If the client becomes ill and cannot retain fluids or food for a period of 4 hours, the HCP should be notified. The client's statement indicates a need for immediate education to prevent hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS), a life-threatening emergency. Although all of the other options may be true, the most appropriate analysis is that the client requires immediate education.

A client with an endocrine disorder has experienced recent weight loss and exhibits tachycardia. Based on the clinical manifestations, the nurse should suspect dysfunction of which endocrine gland? 1. Thyroid 2. Pituitary 3. Parathyroid 4. Adrenal cortex

Thyroid The thyroid gland is responsible for a number of metabolic functions in the body. Among these are metabolism of nutrients such as fats and carbohydrates. Increased metabolic function places a demand on the cardiovascular system for a higher cardiac output. A client with increased activity of the thyroid gland will experience weight loss from the higher metabolic rate and will have an increased pulse rate. The anterior pituitary gland produces growth hormone, luteinizing hormone, and follicle-stimulating hormone. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. Both ADH and oxytocin are synthesized by the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary gland. These hormones are released as needed into the bloodstream. Parathyroid hormone is responsible for maintaining serum calcium and phosphorus levels within normal range. The adrenal cortex is responsible for the production of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids.

The nurse is monitoring a client for signs of hypocalcemia after thyroidectomy. Which sign or symptom, if noted in the client, would most likely indicate the presence of hypocalcemia? 1. Bradycardia 2. Flaccid paralysis 3. Tingling around the mouth 4. Absence of Chvostek's sign

Tingling around the mouth After thyroidectomy the nurse assesses the client for signs of hypocalcemia and tetany. Early signs include tingling around the mouth and in the fingertips, muscle twitching or spasms, palpitations or arrhythmias, and Chvostek's and Trousseau's signs. Bradycardia, flaccid paralysis, and absence of Chvostek's sign are not signs of hypocalcemia.

A client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus is started on a 2-dose insulin protocol combination of short- and intermediate-acting insulin injected twice daily. What portion of the total dose is given before breakfast, and what portion is given before the evening meal? 1. Half before breakfast and half before the evening meal 2. Two thirds before breakfast and one third before the evening meal 3. One third before breakfast and two thirds before the evening meal 4. Three fourths before breakfast and one fourth before the evening meal

Two thirds before breakfast and one third before the evening meal Initially the 2-dose insulin protocol is two thirds of the dose before breakfast and one third before the evening meal. Any future changes in these ratios are based on results of blood glucose monitoring. Therefore, the remaining options are incorrect amounts.

During routine nursing assessment after hypophysectomy, a client complains of thirst and frequent urination. Knowing the expected complications of this surgery, what should the nurse assess next? 1. Serum glucose 2. Blood pressure 3. Respiratory rate 4. Urine specific gravity

Urine specific gravity After hypophysectomy, temporary diabetes insipidus can result from antidiuretic hormone deficiency. This deficiency is related to surgical manipulation. The nurse should assess urine specific gravity and notify the health care provider if the result is less than 1.005. Although the remaining options may be components of the assessment, the nurse would next assess urine specific gravity.

A preoperative client is scheduled for adrenalectomy to remove a pheochromocytoma. The nurse would most closely monitor which item in the preoperative period? 1. Vital signs 2. Fluid balance 3. Anxiety level 4. Creatinine levels

Vital signs Hypertension is the hallmark symptom of pheochromocytoma. Severe hypertension can precipitate a stroke (brain attack) or sudden blindness. Although all of the items are appropriate nursing assessments for the client with pheochromocytoma, the priority is to monitor the vital signs, especially the blood pressure.

A multidisciplinary health care team is developing a plan of care for a client with hyperparathyroidism. The nurse should include which priority intervention in the plan of care? 1. Describe the use of loperamide. 2. Restrict fluids to 1000 mL per day. 3. Walk down the hall for 15 minutes 3 times a day. 4. Describe the administration of aluminum hydroxide gel.

Walk down the hall for 15 minutes 3 times a day. Mobility of the client with hyperparathyroidism should be encouraged as much as possible because of the calcium imbalance that occurs in this disorder and the predisposition to the formation of renal calculi. Fluids should not be restricted. Discussing the use of medications is not the priority with this client.

The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled to have a thyroidectomy and provides instructions to the client about the surgical procedure. Which client statement indicates an understanding of the nurse's instructions? 1. "I expect to experience some tingling of my toes, fingers, and lips after surgery." 2. "I will definitely have to continue taking antithyroid medications after this surgery." 3. "I need to place my hands behind my neck when I have to cough or change positions." 4. "I need to turn my head and neck front, back, and laterally every hour for the first 12 hours after surgery."

"I need to place my hands behind my neck when I have to cough or change positions." The client is taught that tension needs to be avoided on the suture line; otherwise hemorrhage may develop. One way of reducing incisional tension is to teach the client how to support the neck when coughing or being repositioned. Likewise, during the postoperative period the client should avoid any unnecessary movement of the neck. That is why sandbags and pillows frequently are used to support the head and neck. Any postoperative tingling in the fingers, toes, and lips probably is due to injury to the parathyroid gland during surgery, resulting in hypocalcemia. These signs and symptoms need to be reported immediately. Removal of the thyroid does not mean that the client will be taking antithyroid medications postoperatively. Thyroid replacement medications are necessary.

The nurse is teaching a client with hyperparathyroidism how to manage the condition at home. Which response by the client indicates the need for additional teaching? 1. "I should limit my fluids to 1 liter per day." 2. "I should use my treadmill or go for walks daily." 3. "I should follow a moderate-calcium, high-fiber diet." 4. "My alendronate helps to keep calcium from coming out of my bones."

"I should limit my fluids to 1 liter per day." In hyperparathyroidism, clients experience excess parathyroid hormone (PTH) secretion. A role of PTH in the body is to maintain serum calcium homeostasis. When PTH levels are high, there is excess bone resorption (calcium is pulled from the bones). In clients with elevated serum calcium levels, there is a risk of nephrolithiasis. One to 2 liters of fluids daily should be encouraged to protect the kidneys and decrease the risk of nephrolithiasis. Moderate physical activity, particularly weight-bearing activity, minimizes bone resorption and helps to protect against pathological fracture. Walking, as an exercise, should be encouraged in the client with hyperparathyroidism. Clients should follow a moderate-calcium, high-fiber diet. Even though serum calcium is already high, clients should follow a moderate-calcium diet because a low-calcium diet will surge PTH. Calcium causes constipation, so a diet high in fiber is recommended. Alendronate is a bisphosphate that inhibits bone resorption. In bone resorption, bone is broken down and calcium is deposited into the serum.

A nurse is providing home care instructions to a client with a diagnosis of Addison's disease. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction? 1. "I need to wear a MedicAlert bracelet." 2. "I need to purchase a travel kit that contains cortisone." 3. "I will need to take daily medications until my symptoms decrease." 4. "I need an increased dose of glucocorticoid medication during stressful minor illnesses."

"I will need to take daily medications until my symptoms decrease." Client teaching includes the need for lifelong daily medications. The client also is instructed to carry or wear a medical identification card or bracelet. A travel kit will need to be purchased. It should contain oral cortisone along with intramuscular preparations for self-injection and intravenous vials for emergency injection by a health care provider. Increased glucocorticoid dosage during stressful minor illnesses will be necessary.

The nurse provides instructions to a client newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The nurse recognizes accurate understanding of measures to prevent diabetic ketoacidosis when the client makes which statement? 1. "I will stop taking my insulin if I'm too sick to eat." 2. "I will decrease my insulin dose during times of illness." 3. "I will adjust my insulin dose according to the level of glucose in my urine." 4. "I will notify my health care provider (HCP) if my blood glucose level is higher than 250 mg/dL (14.2 mmol/L)."

"I will notify my health care provider (HCP) if my blood glucose level is higher than 250 mg/dL (14.2 mmol/L)." During illness, the client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is at increased risk of diabetic ketoacidosis, due to hyperglycemia associated with the stress response and due to a typically decreased caloric intake. As part of sick day management, the client with diabetes should monitor blood glucose levels and should notify the HCP if the level is higher than 250 mg/dL (14.2 mmol/L). Insulin should never be stopped. In fact, insulin may need to be increased during times of illness. Doses should not be adjusted without the HCP's advice and are usually adjusted on the basis of blood glucose levels, not urinary glucose readings.

The nurse is providing education to a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The nurse explains in layperson's language the physiological mechanism behind hypoglycemia. Which response by the client determines that teaching has been successful? 1. "My body cannot make insulin." 2. "My body has decreased epinephrine levels." 3. "My body decreases release of cortisol, which is a stress hormone." 4. "My body increases glucagon production to fight low blood sugars."

"My body increases glucagon production to fight low blood sugars." Glucagon is secreted from the alpha cells in the pancreas in response to declining blood glucose levels. At the same time, hypoglycemia triggers increased cortisol release, increased epinephrine release, and decreased secretion of insulin. Options 1, 2, and 3 are not physiological mechanisms that take place to combat the decrease in the blood glucose level.

The client with pheochromocytoma is scheduled for surgery and says to the nurse, "I'm not sure that surgery is the best thing to do." Which statement is the appropriate response by the nurse? 1. "I think you are making the right decision to have the surgery." 2. "You have concerns about the surgical treatment for your condition?" 3. "You are very ill. Your health care provider has made the correct decision." 4. "There is no reason to worry. Your health care provider is a wonderful surgeon."

"You have concerns about the surgical treatment for your condition?" Paraphrasing is restating the client's messages in the nurse's own words. The correct option addresses the therapeutic communication technique of paraphrasing. Telling the client that there is no reason to worry is offering a false reassurance, and this type of response will block communication. Telling the client that the health care provider has made the correct decision also represents a communication block in that it reflects a lack of the client's right to an opinion. In the remaining option, the nurse is expressing approval, which can be harmful to the nurse-client relationship.

The nurse is caring for a client with Addison's disease. The client asks the nurse about the risks associated with this disease, specifically about addisonian crisis. Regarding prevention of this complication, how should the nurse inform the client? 1. "You can take either hydrocortisone or fludrocortisone for replacement." 2. "You need to take your fludrocortisone 3 times a day to prevent a crisis." 3. "You need to increase salt in your diet, particularly during stressful situations." 4. "You need to decrease your dosages of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids during stressful situations."

"You need to increase salt in your diet, particularly during stressful situations." Addison's disease is a result of adrenocortical insufficiency, and management is focused on treating the underlying cause. Hormone therapy is used for replacement. Hydrocortisone has both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid properties and needs to be taken 3 times daily, with two thirds of the daily dose taken on awakening. Fludrocortisone is taken once daily in the morning. Salt additives are necessary, particularly during times of stress, to compensate for excess heat or humidity as a result of the condition. There needs to be an increased dose of cortisol given for stressful situations such as surgery or hospitalization. Therefore, option 3 is the correct answer.

The home care nurse is visiting a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. The client tells the nurse that he is planning to eat dinner at a local restaurant this week. The client asks the nurse if eating at a restaurant will affect diabetic control and if this is allowed. Which nursing response is most appropriate? 1. "You are not allowed to eat in restaurants." 2. "You should order a half-portion meal and have fresh fruit for dessert." 3. "If you plan to eat in a restaurant, you need to skip the lunchtime meal." 4. "You should increase your daily dose of insulin by half on the day that you plan to eat in the restaurant."

"You should order a half-portion meal and have fresh fruit for dessert." Clients with diabetes mellitus are instructed to make adjustments in their total daily intake to plan for meals at restaurants or parties. Some useful strategies include ordering a half-portion, salads with dressing on the side, fresh fruit for dessert, and baked or steamed entrees. Clients are not instructed to skip meals or increase their prescribed insulin dosage.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus experiencing the Somogyi effect. Which blood glucose results and treatment would the nurse expect? 1. 0300 blood glucose 68 mg/dL (3.8 mmol/L) and 0700 blood glucose 200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L). Instruct to decrease amount of evening insulin. 2. 0300 blood glucose 68 mg/dL (3.8 mmol/L) and 0700 blood glucose 200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L). Instruct to increase amount of evening insulin. 3. 0300 blood glucose 190 mg/dL (10.6 mmol/L) and 0700 blood glucose 240 mg/dL (13.3 mmol/L). Instruct to decrease amount of evening insulin. 4. 0300 blood glucose 190 mg/dL (10.6 mmol/L) and 0700 blood glucose 240 mg/dL (13.3 mmol/L). Instruct to increase amount of evening insulin.

0300 blood glucose 68 mg/dL (3.8 mmol/L) and 0700 blood glucose 200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L). Instruct to decrease amount of evening insulin. With the Somogyi effect, hyperglycemia occurs in the morning as a result of hypoglycemia during the night from too much evening insulin. Treatment includes having a bedtime snack, decreasing the amount of evening insulin, or both. Thus, option 1 is the correct answer (hypoglycemia during the night and hyperglycemia in the morning, which is treated by decreasing the evening dose of insulin). Option 2 is incorrect because it instructs the client to increase the evening dose of insulin. Options 3 and 4 are incorrect because the nighttime blood glucose levels indicate hyperglycemia, which would indicate dawn phenomenon.

A client with a diagnosis of Addisonian crisis is being admitted to the intensive care unit. Which findings will the interprofessional health care team focus on? Select all that apply. 1. Hypotension 2. Leukocytosis 3. Hyperkalemia 4. Hypercalcemia 5. Hypernatremia

1. Hypotension 3. Hyperkalemia In Addison's disease, also known as adrenal insufficiency, destruction of the adrenal gland leads to decreased production of adrenocortical hormones, including the glucocorticoid cortisol and the mineralocorticoid aldosterone. Addisonian crisis, also known as acute adrenal insufficiency, occurs when there is extreme physical or emotional stress and lack of sufficient adrenocortical hormones to manage the stressor. Addisonian crisis is a life-threatening emergency. One of the roles of endogenous cortisol is to enhance vascular tone and vascular response to the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine. Hypotension occurs when vascular tone is decreased and blood vessels cannot respond to epinephrine and norepinephrine. The role of aldosterone in the body is to support the blood pressure by holding salt and water and excreting potassium. When there is insufficient aldosterone, salt and water are lost and potassium builds up; this leads to hypotension from decreased vascular volume, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia. The remaining options are not associated with Addisonian crisis.

The nurse is admitting a client who is diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) and has serum sodium of 118 mEq/L (118 mmol/L). Which health care provider prescriptions should the nurse anticipate receiving? Select all that apply. 1. Initiate an infusion of 3% NaCl. 2. Administer intravenous furosemide. 3. Restrict fluids to 800 mL over 24 hours. 4. Elevate the head of the bed to high Fowler's. 5. Administer a vasopressin antagonist as prescribed.

1. Initiate an infusion of 3% NaCl. 3. Restrict fluids to 800 mL over 24 hours. 5. Administer a vasopressin antagonist as prescribed Clients with SIADH experience excess secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which leads to excess intravascular volume, a declining serum osmolarity, and dilutional hyponatremia. Management is directed at correcting the hyponatremia and preventing cerebral edema. Hypertonic saline is prescribed when the hyponatremia is severe, less than 120 mEq/L (120 mmol/L). An intravenous (IV) infusion of 3% saline is hypertonic. Hypertonic saline must be infused slowly as prescribed and an infusion pump must be used. Fluid restriction is a useful strategy aimed at correcting dilutional hyponatremia. Vasopressin is an ADH; vasopressin antagonists are used to treat SIADH. Furosemide may be used to treat extravascular volume and dilutional hyponatremia in SIADH, but it is only safe to use if the serum sodium is at least 125 mEq/L (125 mmol/L). When furosemide is used, potassium supplementation should also occur and serum potassium levels should be monitored. To promote venous return, the head of the bed should not be raised more than 10 degrees for the client with SIADH. Maximizing venous return helps to avoid stimulating stretch receptors in the heart that signal to the pituitary that more ADH is needed.

A client is hospitalized with a diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency. Which findings does the nurse identify as supportive of this diagnosis? Select all that apply. 1. Irritability 2. Complaints of nausea 3. Sodium level of 128 mEq/L (128 mmol/L) 4. Potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) 5. Blood pressure lying 138/70 mm Hg and standing 110/58 mm Hg

1. Irritability 2. Complaints of nausea 3. Sodium level of 128 mEq/L (128 mmol/L) 5. Blood pressure lying 138/70 mm Hg and standing 110/58 mm Hg Findings consistent with a diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea; hyponatremia; salt craving; hyperkalemia; and orthostatic hypotension. Irritability and depression may also occur in primary adrenal hypofunction.

The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which assessment findings are consistent with this diagnosis? Select all that apply. 1. Polyuria 2. Polydipsia 3. Polyphagia 4. Dry mouth 5. Flushed, dry skin 6. Moist mucous membranes

1. Polyuria 2. Polydipsia 3. Polyphagia 4. Dry mouth 5. Flushed, dry skin Clinical manifestations of DKA include polyuria (frequent urination); polydipsia (excessive thirst); polyphagia (excessive hunger); dry mouth; and flushed, dry skin. The client with DKA experiences dehydration. Therefore, option 6 would not be noted.

A nurse is reviewing the assessment findings for a client who was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetes insipidus. The nurse understands that which manifestations are associated with this disorder? Select all that apply. 1. Polyuria 2. Polydipsia 3. Concentrated urine 4. Complaints of excessive thirst 5. Specific gravity lower than 1.005

1. Polyuria 2. Polydipsia 4. Complaints of excessive thirst 5. Specific gravity lower than 1.005 A triad of clinical symptoms-polyuria, polydipsia, and excessive thirst-often occurs suddenly in the client with diabetes insipidus. The urine is dilute, with a specific gravity lower than 1.005, and the urine osmolality is low (50 to 200 mOsm/L).

The nurse is completing an assessment on a client who is being admitted for a diagnostic workup for primary hyperparathyroidism. Which client complaint would be characteristic of this disorder? Select all that apply. 1. Polyuria 2. Headache 3. Bone pain 4. Nervousness 5. Weight gain

1. Polyuria 3. Bone pain The role of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in the body is to maintain serum calcium homeostasis. In hyperparathyroidism, PTH levels are high, which causes bone resorption (calcium is pulled from the bones). Hypercalcemia occurs with hyperparathyroidism. Elevated serum calcium levels produce osmotic diuresis and thus polyuria. This diuresis leads to dehydration (weight loss rather than weight gain). Loss of calcium from the bones causes bone pain. Options 2, 4, and 5 are not associated with hyperparathyroidism. Some gastrointestinal symptoms include anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and constipation.

The nurse is providing home care instructions to the client with a diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome and prepares a list of instructions for the client. Which instructions should be included on the list? Select all that apply. 1. The signs and symptoms of hypoadrenalism 2. The signs and symptoms of hyperadrenalism 3. Instructions to take the medications exactly as prescribed 4. The importance of maintaining regular outpatient follow-up care 5. A reminder to read the labels on over-the-counter medications before purchase

1. The signs and symptoms of hypoadrenalism 2. The signs and symptoms of hyperadrenalism 3. Instructions to take the medications exactly as prescribed 4. The importance of maintaining regular outpatient follow-up care The client with Cushing's syndrome should be instructed to take the medications exactly as prescribed. The nurse should emphasize the importance of continuing medications, consulting with the health care provider (HCP) before purchasing any over-the-counter medications, and maintaining regular outpatient follow-up care. The nurse also should instruct the client in the signs and symptoms of both hypoadrenalism and hyperadrenalism.

The nurse is monitoring a client who was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus and is being treated with NPH and regular insulin. Which manifestations would alert the nurse to the presence of a possible hypoglycemic reaction? Select all that apply. 1. Tremors 2. Anorexia 3. Irritability 4. Nervousness 5. Hot, dry skin 6. Muscle cramps

1. Tremors 3. Irritability 4. Nervousness Decreased blood glucose levels produce autonomic nervous system symptoms, which are manifested classically as nervousness, irritability, and tremors. Option 5 is more likely to occur with hyperglycemia. Options 2 and 6 are unrelated to the manifestations of hypoglycemia. In hypoglycemia, usually the client feels hunger.

Which findings should raise suspicion to the nurse that a head-injured client may be experiencing diabetes insipidus? Select all that apply. 1. Urine specific gravity is 1.001. 2. Ketones are present in the urine. 3. Jugular venous distention is observed. 4. Serum osmolality is 320 mOsm/kg (320 mmol/kg) of water. 5. Blood glucose levels are greater than 200 mg/dL (11.4 mmol/L). 6. Urine output has increased from 1000 mL in 24 hours to 4000 mL in 24 hours.

1. Urine specific gravity is 1.001. 4. Serum osmolality is 320 mOsm/kg (320 mmol/kg) of water. 6. Urine output has increased from 1000 mL in 24 hours to 4000 mL in 24 hours. Signs of diabetes insipidus include low urine specific gravity (<1.005), high serum osmolality (>300 mOsm/kg of water), and increased urine output from a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Options 2, 3, and 5 are not characteristic of diabetes insipidus.

A hospitalized client is diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The nurse plans care for the client, understanding that which factors are likely causes of the beta cell destruction that accompanies this disorder? Select all that apply. 1. Viruses 2. Genetic factors 3. Autoimmune factors 4. Human leukocyte antigen (HLA) 5. Primary failure of glucagon secretion

1. Viruses 2. Genetic factors 3. Autoimmune factors 4. Human leukocyte antigen (HLA) Viruses and autoimmune factors are thought to play a role in the development of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Other causes of type 1 diabetes mellitus include genetic factors, specifically the presence of HLA. This factor is found in many clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The problem with type 1 diabetes mellitus is destruction of the beta cells. It is not caused by a primary failure of glucagon secretion.

The nurse teaches a class on foot care for clients diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which instructions should the nurse include in the class? Select all that apply. 1. Wear closed-toe shoes. 2. Soak feet in hot water twice a day. 3. Massage lanolin lotion between the toes. 4. Cut toenails straight across and file the edges. 5. Pat feet dry gently, especially between the toes.

1. Wear closed-toe shoes. 4. Cut toenails straight across and file the edges. 5. Pat feet dry gently, especially between the toes. People with diabetes mellitus are at high risk for foot ulcerations and resultant lower extremity amputations. The development of diabetic foot complications can be the result of a combination of microvascular and macrovascular diseases that place the client at risk for injury and serious infection. Options 1, 4, and 5 are correct, as measures should be taken to teach clients how to prevent foot ulcers and injury. These measures include wearing closed-toe shoes to protect the feet and toes (especially for those with peripheral neuropathy), cutting toenails straight across and filing the edges to avoid sharp toenail edges and cutting the skin of the toe, and drying the feet gently and thoroughly (including between the toes) to prevent maceration of the skin and infections. Option 2 is incorrect, as clients with diabetes should avoid hot water due to neuropathy and possible burns. Option 3 is incorrect, as lotion between the toes is not advised; it is necessary to keep the area between the toes dry to avoid maceration and infections.

A client with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is being treated in the emergency department. Which findings support this diagnosis? Select all that apply. 1. Increase in pH 2. Comatose state 3. Deep, rapid breathing 4. Decreased urine output 5. Elevated blood glucose level

2. Comatose state 3. Deep, rapid breathing 5. Elevated blood glucose level Because of the profound deficiency of insulin associated with DKA, glucose cannot be used for energy and the body breaks down fat as a secondary source of energy. Ketones, which are acid byproducts of fat metabolism, build up and the client experiences a metabolic ketoacidosis. High serum glucose contributes to an osmotic diuresis and the client becomes severely dehydrated. If untreated, the client will become comatose due to severe dehydration, acidosis, and electrolyte imbalance. Kussmaul's respirations, the deep rapid breathing associated with DKA, is a compensatory mechanism by the body. The body attempts to correct the acidotic state by blowing off carbon dioxide (CO2), which is an acid. In the absence of insulin, the client will experience severe hyperglycemia. Option 1 is incorrect because in acidosis the pH would be low. Option 4 is incorrect because a high serum glucose will result in an osmotic diuresis and the client will experience polyuria.

The nurse is monitoring a client diagnosed with acromegaly who was treated with transsphenoidal hypophysectomy and is recovering in the intensive care unit. Which findings should alert the nurse to the presence of a possible postoperative complication? Select all that apply. 1. Anxiety 2. Leukocytosis 3. Chvostek's sign 4. Urinary output of 800 mL/hour 5. Clear drainage on nasal dripper pad

2. Leukocytosis 4. Urinary output of 800 mL/hour 5. Clear drainage on nasal dripper pad Acromegaly results from excess secretion of growth hormone, usually caused by a benign tumor on the anterior pituitary gland. Treatment is surgical removal of the tumor, usually with a sublingual transsphenoidal complete or partial hypophysectomy. The sublingual transsphenoidal approach is often through an incision in the inner upper lip at the gum line. Transsphenoidal surgery is a type of brain surgery and infection is a primary concern. Leukocytosis, or an elevated white count, may indicate infection. Diabetes insipidus is a possible complication of transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. In diabetes insipidus there is decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone and clients excrete large amounts of dilute urine. Following transsphenoidal surgery, the nasal passages are packed and a dripper pad is secured under the nares. Clear drainage on the dripper pad is suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid leak. The surgeon should be notified and the drainage should be tested for glucose. A cerebrospinal fluid leak increases the postoperative risk of meningitis. Anxiety is a nonspecific finding that is common to many disorders. Chvostek's sign is a test of nerve hyperexcitability associated with hypocalcemia and is seen as grimacing in response to tapping on the facial nerve. Chvostek's sign has no association with complications of sublingual transsphenoidal hypophysectomy.

The nurse is caring for a client with a new diagnosis of hypothyroidism. Which clinical manifestations might the nurse expect to note on examination of this client? Select all that apply 1. Irritability 2. Periorbital edema 3. Coarse, brittle hair 4. Slow or slurred speech 5. Abdominal distention 6. Soft, silky, thinning hair

2. Periorbital edema 3. Coarse, brittle hair 4. Slow or slurred speech 5. Abdominal distention The manifestations of hypothyroidism are the result of decreased metabolism from low levels of thyroid hormones. The client may exhibit skin manifestations, such as coarse, brittle hair; thick, brittle nails; coarse, scaly skin; delayed wound healing; periorbital edema; and face puffiness. Neuromuscular manifestations include lethargy, slow or slurred speech, and impaired memory. Gastrointestinal manifestations include complaints of constipation, weight gain, and abdominal distention. Irritability and soft, silky, thinning hair on the scalp are manifestations of hyperthyroidism.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client with pheochromocytoma. Which assessment data would indicate a potential complication associated with this disorder? 1. A urinary output of 50 mL/hour 2. A coagulation time of 5 minutes 3. A heart rate that is 90 beats/minute and irregular 4. A blood urea nitrogen level of 20 mg/dL (7.1 mmol/L)

A heart rate that is 90 beats/minute and irregular Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine-producing tumor usually found in the adrenal medulla, but extraadrenal locations include the chest, bladder, abdomen, and brain; it is typically a benign tumor but can be malignant. Excessive amounts of epinephrine and norepinephrine are secreted. The complications associated with pheochromocytoma include hypertensive retinopathy and nephropathy, myocarditis, increased platelet aggregation, and stroke. Death can occur from shock, stroke, kidney failure, dysrhythmias, or dissecting aortic aneurysm. An irregular heart rate indicates the presence of a dysrhythmia. A coagulation time of 5 minutes is normal. A urinary output of 50 mL/hour is an adequate output. A blood urea nitrogen level of 20 mg/dL (7.1 mmol/L) is a normal finding.

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results for a client with a diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome. Which laboratory finding would the nurse expect to note in this client? 1. A platelet count of 200,000 mm3 (200 × 109/L) 2. A blood glucose level of 110 mg/dL (6.28 mmol/L) 3. A potassium (K+) level of 3.0 mEq/L (3.0 mmol/L) 4. A white blood cell (WBC) count of 6000 mm3 (6 × 109/L)

A potassium (K+) level of 3.0 mEq/L (3.0 mmol/L) The client with Cushing's syndrome experiences hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, an elevated WBC count, and elevated plasma cortisol and adrenocorticotropic hormone levels. These abnormalities are caused by the effects of excess glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids in the body. The laboratory values listed in the remaining options would not be noted in the client with Cushing's syndrome.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client with a diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome. Which should the nurse expect to note on assessment of the client? 1. Skin atrophy 2. The presence of sunken eyes 3. Drooping on 1 side of the face 4. A rounded "moonlike" appearance to the face

A rounded "moonlike" appearance to the face With excessive secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and chronic corticosteroid use, the person with Cushing's syndrome develops a rounded moonlike face; prominent jowls; red cheeks; and hirsutism on the upper lip, lower cheek, and chin. The remaining options are not associated with the assessment findings in Cushing's syndrome

A nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client with diabetes mellitus regarding proper foot care. Which instruction should be included in the plan? 1. Soak the feet in hot water. 2. Avoid using a mild soap on the feet. 3. Always have a podiatrist cut the toenails. 4. Apply a moisturizing lotion to dry feet but not between the toes.

Apply a moisturizing lotion to dry feet but not between the toes. The client is instructed to use a moisturizing lotion on the feet and avoid applying lotion between the toes. The client should be instructed not to soak the feet and should avoid hot water to prevent burns. The client should be instructed to wash the feet daily with a mild soap. The client may cut the toenails straight across and even with the toe itself and would consult a podiatrist if the toenails are thick or hard to cut or if vision is poor.

A client is admitted with suspected diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which clinical manifestations best support a diagnosis of DKA? 1. Blood glucose 500 mg/dL (27.8 mmol/L); arterial blood gases: pH 7.30, PaCo2 50, HCO3- 26. 2. Blood glucose 400 mg/dL (22.2 mmol/L); arterial blood gases: pH 7.38, PaCo2 40, HCO3- 22. 3. Blood glucose 450 mg/dL (25.0 mmol/L); arterial blood gases: pH 7.48, PaCo2 39, HCO3- 29. 4. Blood glucose 350 mg/dL (19.4 mmol/L); arterial blood gases: pH 7.28, PaCo2 30, HCO3- 14.

Blood glucose 350 mg/dL (19.4 mmol/L); arterial blood gases: pH 7.28, PaCo2 30, HCO3- 14. DKA is caused by a profound deficiency of insulin and is characterized by hyperglycemia (blood glucose level greater than or equal to 250 mg/dL [13.9 mmol/L]), ketosis (ketones in urine or serum), metabolic acidosis, and dehydration. The correct option is 4, as it represents an elevated blood glucose and the arterial blood gases (ABGs) indicate metabolic acidosis. Option 1 is incorrect, as the ABGs indicate respiratory acidosis; option 2 is incorrect, as the ABG values are within normal; and option 3 is incorrect, as the ABGs indicate metabolic alkalosis.

A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. The nurse would check which item to detect the primary manifestation of this disorder? 1. Weight 2. Urine ketones 3. Blood pressure 4. Skin temperature

Blood pressure Hypertension is the major symptom associated with pheochromocytoma and is assessed by taking the client's blood pressure. Glycosuria, weight loss, and diaphoresis are other clinical manifestations of pheochromocytoma; however, hypertension is the major symptom.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client with a diagnosis of hyperthyroidism. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect to note in this client? 1. Dry skin 2. Bulging eyeballs 3. Periorbital edema 4. Coarse facial features

Bulging eyeballs Hyperthyroidism is clinically manifested by goiter (increase in the size of the thyroid gland) and exophthalmos (bulging eyeballs). Other clinical manifestations include nervousness, fatigue, weight loss, muscle cramps, and heat intolerance. Additional signs found in this disorder include tachycardia; shortness of breath; excessive sweating; fine muscle tremors; thin, silky hair and thin skin; infrequent blinking; and a staring appearance.

A client has returned to the nursing unit after a thyroidectomy. The nurse notes that the client is complaining of tingling sensations around the mouth, fingers, and toes. On the basis of these findings, the nurse should next assess the results of which serum laboratory study? 1. Sodium 2. Calcium 3. Potassium 4. Magnesium

Calcium After surgery on the thyroid gland, the client may experience a temporary calcium imbalance. This is due to transient malfunction of the parathyroid glands. The nurse also would assess for Chvostek's and Trousseau's signs. The correct treatment is administration of calcium gluconate or calcium lactate. The remaining options are unrelated to the client's complaints.

A nurse is caring for a client who had a thyroidectomy 1 day ago. Which client laboratory data should the nurse identify as a possible complication of thyroid surgery? 1. Increased serum sodium level 2. Increased serum glucose level 3. Decreased serum calcium level 4. Decreased serum albumin level

Decreased serum calcium level Hypocalcemia may occur if the parathyroid glands are removed or damaged or if their blood supply is impaired during thyroid surgery, resulting in decreased parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels and leading to decreased serum calcium levels. Serum sodium, albumin, and glucose levels are not affected by thyroid surgery.

A nurse needs to maintain food and fluid intake to minimize the risk of dehydration in a client with diabetes mellitus who has gastroenteritis. Which is the appropriate nursing intervention? 1. Offer water only until the client is able to tolerate solid foods. 2. Withhold all fluids until vomiting has ceased for at least 4 hours. 3. Encourage the client to take 8 to 12 oz of fluid every hour while awake. 4. Maintain a clear liquid diet for at least 5 days before advancing to solids.

Encourage the client to take 8 to 12 oz of fluid every hour while awake .Small amounts of fluid may be tolerated, even when vomiting is present. The nurse should encourage liquids containing glucose and electrolytes every hour. The remaining options will not provide the adequate intake needed by the client with diabetes mellitus.

The nurse is monitoring a client with Graves' disease for signs of thyrotoxic crisis (thyroid storm). Which signs or symptoms, if noted in the client, will alert the nurse to the presence of this crisis? 1. Fever and tachycardia 2. Pallor and tachycardia 3. Agitation and bradycardia 4. Restlessness and bradycardia

Fever and tachycardia Thyrotoxic crisis (thyroid storm) is an acute, potentially life-threatening state of extreme thyroid activity that represents a breakdown in the body's tolerance to a chronic excess of thyroid hormones. The clinical manifestations include fever with temperatures greater than 100°F, severe tachycardia, flushing and sweating, and marked agitation and restlessness. Delirium and coma can occur.

A client has been diagnosed with pheochromocytoma. Which clinical manifestation is most indicative of this condition? 1. Water loss 2. Bradycardia 3. Hypertension 4. Decreased cardiac output

Hypertension The client with pheochromocytoma has a benign or malignant tumor in the adrenal medulla. Because the medulla secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine, the client will exhibit signs related to excesses of these catecholamines, including tachycardia, increased cardiac output, and increased blood pressure. Vasoconstriction of the renal arteries triggers the renin-angiotensin system, resulting in water reabsorption and retention.

A nurse is caring for a client with thyrotoxicosis who is at risk for the development of thyroid storm. To detect this complication, the nurse should assess for which sign or symptom? 1. Bradycardia 2. Constipation 3. Hypertension 4. Low-grade temperature

Hypertension Thyroid storm is an acute, life-threatening condition that occurs in a client with uncontrollable hyperthyroidism. Clinical manifestations of thyroid storm include systolic hypertension, tachycardia, diarrhea, and a fever as high as 106°F. Other manifestations include abdominal pain, dehydration, extreme vasodilation, stupor rapidly progressing to coma, atrial fibrillation, and cardiovascular collapse. Bradycardia, constipation and low-grade temperature are not a part of the clinical picture in thyroid storm.

The nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative from abdominal hysterectomy. The client has a history of diabetes mellitus and has been receiving regular insulin based on capillary blood glucose testing 4 times a day. A carbohydrate-controlled diet has been prescribed, but the client has not been eating. On entering the client's room, the nurse finds the client to be pale and diaphoretic. Which action is appropriate at this time? 1. Call a code to obtain needed assistance immediately. 2. Obtain a capillary blood glucose level and quickly perform a focused assessment. 3. Ask the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to stay with the client while obtaining a carbohydrate snack for the client to eat. 4. Stay with the client and ask the UAP to call the health care provider (HCP) for a prescription for intravenous 50% dextrose.

Obtain a capillary blood glucose level and quickly perform a focused assessment. Diaphoresis and confusion are signs of moderate hypoglycemia. A likely cause of the client's change in condition could be related to the administration of insulin without the client's eating enough food. However, an assessment is necessary to confirm the presence of hypoglycemia. The nurse would obtain a capillary blood glucose level to confirm the hypoglycemia and quickly perform a focused assessment to determine the extent and cause of the client's condition. Once hypoglycemia is confirmed, the nurse stays with the client and asks the UAP to obtain the appropriate carbohydrate snack. A code is called if the client is not breathing or if the heart is not beating.

A client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus has been stabilized with daily insulin injections. A nurse prepares a discharge teaching plan regarding the insulin and plans to reinforce which concept? 1. Always keep insulin vials refrigerated. 2. Ketones in the urine signify a need for less insulin. 3. Increase the amount of insulin before excessive exercise. 4. Systematically rotate insulin injections within 1 anatomical site.

Systematically rotate insulin injections within 1 anatomical site. Injection sites should be rotated systematically within 1 anatomical site. To minimize the discomfort associated with insulin injections, insulin should be administered at room temperature. If ketones are found in the urine, it may indicate the need for additional insulin. Insulin doses should not be adjusted or increased before excessive exercise.

The nurse performs a physical assessment on a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Findings include a fasting blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL (6.8 mmol/L), temperature of 101°F (38.3°C), pulse of 102 beats/minute, respirations of 22 breaths/minute, and blood pressure of 142/72 mm Hg. Which finding would be the priority concern to the nurse? 1. Pulse 2. Respiration 3. Temperature 4. Blood pressure

Temperature In the client with type 2 diabetes mellitus, an elevated temperature may indicate infection. Infection is a leading cause of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome in the client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The other findings are within normal limits.

The nurse is preparing for a client's postoperative return to the unit after a parathyroidectomy procedure. The nurse should ensure that which piece of medical equipment is at the client's bedside? 1. Cardiac monitor 2. Tracheotomy set 3. Intermittent gastric suction device 4. Underwater seal chest drainage system

Tracheotomy set Respiratory distress caused by hemorrhage and swelling and compression of the trachea is a paramount concern for the nurse managing the care of a postoperative client who has had a parathyroidectomy. An emergency tracheotomy set is routinely placed at the bedside of the client who has undergone this type of surgery, in anticipation of this complication. The items in the remaining options are not specifically needed with this surgical procedure.

A client has been diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome. The nurse should assess the client for which expected manifestations of this disorder? 1. Dizziness 2. Weight loss 3. Hypoglycemia 4. Truncal obesity

Truncal obesity The client with Cushing's syndrome may exhibit a number of different manifestations. These may include moon face, truncal obesity, and a "buffalo hump" fat pad. Other signs include hyperglycemia, hypernatremia, hypocalcemia, peripheral edema, hypertension, increased appetite, and weight gain. Dizziness is not part of the clinical picture for this disorder.