Science

Medial rotation represents this movement of the hip: 1. outward, towards the side 2. inward, towards the center 3. posteriorly 4. anteriorly

2. inward, towards the center

Which of the following movements are not associated with the scapula? 1. elevation 2. opposition 3. depression 4. protraction 5. both b and c

2. opposition

To allow movement of the tendons within the carpal tunnel zone, each tendon is enclosed in a _____________. 1. bursa 2. sheath 3. osseous membrane 4. meniscus

2. sheath

Extension of the glenohumeral joint results from the contraction of one synergist, the _____________. 1. deltoid 2. teres major 3. latissimus dorsi 4. pectoralis major

2. teres major

How many distinct sets of fibers compose the deltoid muscle? 1. two 2. three 3. four five

2. three

The deep posterior extensors of the wrist and fingers are specific for the _____________. 1. index finger and wrist 2. thumb and index finger 3. thumb and wrist 4. all four digits

2. thumb and index finger

Dorsiflexion is most important during _____________. 1. jumping 2. walking 3. standing on the tip toes 4. rocking back on the heels

2. walking

When you do jumping jacks, which lower limb movements are necessary? 1.Flexion and extension 2.Abduction and adduction 3.Flexion and abduction 4.Plantar flexion and eversion

2.Abduction and adduction

Smooth muscle can contract over a wider range of resting lengths than skeletal muscle can. Why? 1.Smooth muscle sarcomeres are longer. 2.Actin and myosin filament arrangement is less organized in smooth muscle. 3.Smooth muscle cells are shorter. 4.Smooth muscle actin is longer.

2.Actin and myosin filament arrangement is less organized in smooth muscle.

After centrifuging, which of the listed blood components contains the components of immune function? 1.Plasma 2.Buffy coat 3.Erythrocytes 4.Hematocrit

2.Buffy coat

Which bleeding disorder is caused by any condition that suppresses or destroys the red bone marrow? 1.Hemophilia A 2.Thrombocytopenia 3.Hemophilia C 4.Disseminated intravascular coagulation

2.Thrombocytopenia

The thin filaments are not comprised of which of the following components? 1.Actin 2.Titin 3.Troponin 4.Tropomyosin

2.Titin

The trochlea of the humerus articulates with the _____ and the capitulum articulates with the ______. 1.Coronoid process of the ulna/olecranon fossa of the humerus 2.Trochlear notch of the ulna/head of the radius 3.Olecranon process of the ulna/radial notch 4.Head of the radius/trochlear notch of the ulna

2.Trochlear notch of the ulna/head of the radius

Why were some people sickened by radioactivity years after the Chernobyl accident? 1.Osteoclasts do not differentiate between heavy metals and calcium 2.Turnover of bone matrix caused release of stored radiation into circulation 3.Osteoblasts are a type of memory cell and recall the poisons that enter them 4.Heavy metal ions are stored in the bloodstream

2.Turnover of bone matrix caused release of stored radiation into circulation

Which of the phases of hemostasis occurs first? 1.Platelet phase 2.Vascular phase 3.Fibrinolysis phase 4.Coagulation phase

2.Vascular phase

Corpses usually exhibit rigor mortis because __________. 1.ATP hydrolysis is stimulating myosin head attachment to actin 2.a lack of ATP hydrolysis prevents myosin head detachment from actin 3.calcium stores become deficient 4.sodium stores become deficient

2.a lack of ATP hydrolysis prevents myosin head detachment from actin

Muscle A abducts the humerus, and muscle B adducts the humerus. What is the relationship between these two muscles? 1.synergists 2.antagonists 3.agonists 4.fixators

2.antagonists

Which of the following is not considered a medial muscle? 1. adductor magnus 2. gracilis 3. pectineus 4. iliopsoas 5. adductor longus

4. iliopsoas

The long head of the triceps brachii muscle originates on the _____________. 1. posterior shaft of the humerus 2. anterior shaft of the humerus 3. olecranon process of the ulna 4. infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula

4. infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula

The larger of the axial muscles, both anterior and posterior, that cross the glenohumeral joint is the _____________. 1. pectoralis major 2. pectoralis minor 3. serratus anterior 4. latissimus dorsi

4. latissimus dorsi

All of the following tendons of insertion are found within the flexor retinaculum except _____________. 1. flexor digitorum profundus 2. flexor pollicis longus 3. flexor digitorum superficialis 4. palmaris longus

4. palmaris longus

The smallest of the posterior or flexor muscles of the thigh is the _____________. 1. semimembranosus 2. semitendinosus 3. biceps femoris 4. popliteus

4. popliteus

Medial rotation results from the combined actions of ___________ muscles. 1. four 2. five 3. six 4. seven 5. eight

4. seven

Which of the following muscles would not be considered part of the rotator cuff? 1. supraspinatus 2. infraspinatus 3. teres minor 4. teres major 5. subscapularis

4. teres major

Which vertebral movements are involved in (a) bending forward, (b) bending to the side, and (c) moving the head to signify "no"? 1.(a) flexion; (b) rotation; (c) lateral flexion 2.(a) lateral flexion; (b) flexion; (c) rotation 3.(a) rotation; (b) lateral flexion; (c) flexion 4.(a) flexion; (b) lateral flexion; (c) rotation

4.(a) flexion; (b) lateral flexion; (c) rotation

Which of the following is/are correct concerning the periosteum? 1.It has a fibrous outer layer and cellular inner layer. 2.It provides a route for nerves and blood vessels into bone. 3.It actively participates in bone growth and repair. 4.All of the above are correct

4.All of the above are correct

How does calcitonin help lower the calcium ion concentration of blood? 1.By inhibiting osteoclast activity 2.By increasing the rate of calcium excretion at the kidneys 3.By increasing the rate of calcium uptake by intestinal cells 4.1 and 2

1 and 2

How is bone remodeling accomplished? 1.Osteoblasts form new bone matrix. 2.Osteocytes remove and replace calcium salts. 3.Osteoclasts are not active, thus producing stronger bone. 4.1 and 2.

1 and 2

How is it possible for a skeletal muscle to contract without shortening? 1.Through eccentric contractions, the muscle lengthens 2.Through concentric contractions, the muscle does not change length 3.Through isometric contraction, the muscle remains the same length 4. 1 and 3 are correct

1 and 3 are correct

What feature distinguishes cervical vertebrae 2-6 from a thoracic or lumbar vertebra? 1.Bifid spinous processes 2.Spinous processes point inferiorly 3.Transverse foramina 4.1 and 3 are correct.

1 and 3 are correct.

Each hemoglobin can transport __________ oxygen atoms. 1.4 2.40 3.400 4.4000

1) 4

What does the name flexor carpi radialis longus tell you about this muscle? 1.its size 2.its action 3.its location 4.1, 2, and 3 are correct

1, 2, and 3 are correct

Without lateral rotation of the humerus by the teres minor and infraspinatus muscles, the maximum angle of abduction would be _____________. 1. 90 degrees 2. 45 degrees 3. 120 degrees 4. 35 degrees

1. 90 degrees

All fibers of the pectoralis major muscle converge on the lateral edge of the intertubercular sulcus. 1. True 2. False

1. True

All heads of the triceps brachii muscle insert on the olecranon process of the ulna. 1. True 2. False

1. True

Ankle joint movements include plantar flexion and dorsiflexion. 1. True 2. False

1. True

Contraction of the pronator teres and the pronator quadratus results in forearm pronation. 1. True 2. False

1. True

Finger flexion occurs though the combined actions of the flexor digitorum profundus, flexor pollicis longus, and flexor digitorum superficialis. 1. True 2. False

1. True

Muscle of extension for the forearm is located posteriorly. 1. True 2. False

1. True

Muscles that act on the knee joint are from most of the mass of the thigh. 1. True 2. False

1. True

One of the origin sites for the trapezius muscle is the external occipital protuberance. 1. True 2. False

1. True

The iliacus and psoas major are known as the iliopsoas muscle because they share a common insertion on the lesser trochanter of the femur. 1. True 2. False

1. True

The inflammation that can occur within the flexor retinaculum is called carpal tunnel syndrome. 1. True 2. False

1. True

The longest muscle of the medial muscles that cross the hip is the gracilis. 1. True 2. False

1. True

The muscles of the lower limb, as a group, are the largest muscles in the body. 1. True 2. False

1. True

The subscapularis muscle inserts on the lesser tubercle of the humerus. 1. True 2. False

1. True

The superficial posterior extensors include the extensor digitorum. 1. True 2. False

1. True

The two heads of the biceps brachii muscle converge distally to insert on the radial tuberosity. 1. True 2. False

1. True

The primary mover of hip adduction is the _____________. 1. adductor magnus 2. pectineus 3. psoas major 4. adductor longus

1. adductor magnus

Muscles that act on the knee are divided into _____________ groups. 1. anterior and posterior 2. medial and lateral 3. anterior and lateral 4. posterior and lateral

1. anterior and posterior

Muscles of the lower limb can be separated into three groups: _____________. 1. anterior, medial, posterior 2. superficial, medial, anterior 3. posterior, anterior, deep 4. lateral, medial, posterior

1. anterior, medial, posterior

During exercise, the _____________ aids venous return of the blood. 1. deep fascia 2. flexor retinaculum 3. anterior muscle compartment 4. posterior muscle compartment

1. deep fascia

The action that moves the scapula towards the head is called _____________. 1. elevation 2. medial rotation 3. retraction 4. protraction

1. elevation

Eversion of the foot results in the contraction of the _____________ muscle. 1. fibularis tertius 2. tibialis anterior 3. extensor hallucis longus

1. fibularis tertius

The _____________ muscle inserts on metatarsal 5. 1. fibularis tertius 2. extensor hallucis longus 3. extensor digitorum longus 4. tibialis anterior

1. fibularis tertius

The greater trochanter of the femur is the site of insertion for _____________of the six lateral rotators. 1. five 2. four 3. three 4. two 5. one

1. five

A reduction in the anterior angle of the glenohumeral joint in relation to the anatomical position would be _____________. 1. flexion 2. extension 3. abduction 4. adduction

1. flexion

Finger flexion is not a function of the _____________. 1. flexor carpi radialis 2. flexor digitorum profundus 3. flexor pollicis longus 4. flexor digitorum superficialis

1. flexor carpi radialis

Of the deep posterior muscles of the forearm and from the posterior view of the forearm, which muscle is most lateral? 1. flexor carpi ulnaris 2. extensor pollicis longus 3. extensor pollicis brevis 4. abductor pollicis longus

1. flexor carpi ulnaris

All muscles termed the lateral rotators insert on or near the ______________ trochanter of the femur. 1. greater 2. lesser

1. greater

The posterior axial muscle that crosses the glenohumeral joint is the _____________ muscle. 1. latissimus dorsi 2. pectoralis major 3. trapezius 4. brachioradialis

1. latissimus dorsi

All synovial joints are ______. 1.diarthrotic 2.amphiarthrotic 3.synarthrotic none of the above

1.diarthrotic

The anterior axial muscle that crosses the glenohumeral joint is the _____________ muscle. 1. pectoralis major 2. pectoralis minor 3. serratus anterior 4. trapezius

1. pectoralis major

Movement of the forearm is summarized as _____________. 1. pronation and supination 2. supination and flexion 3. flexion and extension 4. extension and pronation

1. pronation and supination

The rotator cuff muscles provide what type of movement? 1. rotational 2. depression 3. elevation 4. oppositional

1. rotational

The longest muscle in the body is the _____________. 1. sartorius 2. quadriceps femoris 3. adductor magnus 4. rectus femoris

1. sartorius

The rhomboideus minor muscle originates on which process of the vertebrae? 1. spinous process 2. transverse process 3. posterior process 4. pedicle

1. spinous process

In contrast to the upper limb, muscles of the lower limb are adapted more for _____________. 1. size than speed 2. precision than strength 3. strength than precision 4. speed than size

1. strength than precision

Forearm supination is the result of the __________, but is assisted by the ____________. 1. supinator muscle, biceps brachii muscle 2. biceps brachii muscle, supinator muscle 3. supinator muscle, pronator quadratus 4. supinator muscle, pronator teres

1. supinator muscle, biceps brachii muscle

Downward dislocation of the humerus from the glenohumeral joint when carrying weight is prevented by the _____________ muscle. 1. supraspinatus 2. infraspinatus 3. teres minor 4. subscapularis

1. supraspinatus

The posterior scapular muscle that crosses the glenohumeral joint is the _____________ muscle(s). 1. teres major 2. teres minor 3. deltoid 4. all of the above

1. teres major

The head of the femur articulates at the __. 1.Acetabulum 2.Glenoid fossa 3.Fovea capitis 4.Ilium

1.Acetabulum

Which agglutinins are naturally present in someone who is B+? 1.Anti-A 2.Anti-B 3.Anti-A + Anti-Rh Anti-B + Anti-Rh

1.Anti-A

What is calcium's function during muscle contraction? 1.Calcium binds to troponin, changing its shape and removing the blocking action of tropomyosin. 2.Calcium binds to troponin to prevent myosin from attaching to actin. 3.Calcium depolarizes the muscle fiber. 4.Calcium flows down the T tubules to stimulate the influx of sodium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

1.Calcium binds to troponin, changing its shape and removing the blocking action of tropomyosin.

How would a drug that blocks acetylcholine release affect muscle contraction? 1.Contraction would be prevented. 2.Contraction would be slowed. 3.The speed of contraction would increase. 4.The strength of contraction would increase.

1.Contraction would be prevented.

All of the following except ___ leads to a decrease in HCT. 1.Dehydration 2.Hemorrhage 3.Problems with RBC formation 4.Anemia

1.Dehydration

What is a consequence of early closure of one or more sutures? 1.Distorted skull shape 2.Brain stops growing 3.Early death 4.Parents cannot see if their infant is dehydrated

1.Distorted skull shape

Which of the following describes osteoprogenitor cells? 1.Divide to produce daughter cells that differentiate into osteoblasts 2.Assist in elevating local concentrations of calcium phosphate 3.Multinucleate and derive from same stem cells that produce monocytes 4.Maintain protein and mineral content of surrounding matrix

1.Divide to produce daughter cells that differentiate into osteoblasts

Sam has an infestation of large parasitic worms. Which of the following will happen? 1.Eosinophils will release cytotoxic enzymes from their granules. 2.Lymphocytes will engulf the worms by phagocytosis. 3.Basophils will release histamine. 4.All types of WBCs will be damaged by the parasites, causing leukopenia.

1.Eosinophils will release cytotoxic enzymes from their granules.

Why are women usually shorter than men at maturity? 1.Estrogens cause faster epiphyseal plate closure. 2.Androgens cause faster epiphyseal plate closure. 3.Thyroxine increases the rate of osteoblast activity in boys before puberty. 4.Men have more growth hormone.

1.Estrogens cause faster epiphyseal plate closure.

Why does a muscle that has been overstretched produce less tension? 1.Few cross-bridges form, causing weak contraction. 2.Cross-bridges cannot be formed. 3.Actin and myosin cease to be stimulated by acetylcholine. 4.The increased amount of Ca2+ in the sarcoplasm causes the muscle to relax completely.

1.Few cross-bridges form, causing weak contraction.

You are studying the sagittal and lambdoid sutures of the skull. These are considered what classification of joint? 1.Fibrous synarthroses 2.Cartilaginous synchondroses 3.Fibrous synostoses 4.Cartilaginous syndesmoses

1.Fibrous synarthroses

Which movements are associated with hinge joints? 1.Flexion and extension 2.Abduction and adduction 3.Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion 4.Circumduction

1.Flexion and extension

Tracey has been diagnosed with pernicious anemia. Which of the following conditions contributed to his illness? 1.He has a vitamin B12 deficiency. 2.He has more than the normal percentage of RBCs. 3.He has an iron deficiency. 4.He is producing too much intrinsic factor.

1.He has a vitamin B12 deficiency.

What effect would increased PTH secretion have on blood calcium levels? 1.Higher level of calcium 2.Lower level of calcium 3.Uncontrolled level of calcium 4.No effect on blood calcium, PTH affects calcium in the bones

1.Higher level of calcium

Where would you find the following ligaments: iliofemoral ligament, pubofemoral ligament, and ischiofemoral ligament? 1.Hip joint 2.Knee joint 3.Shoulder joint Ankle joint

1.Hip joint

Why is cross-matching performed, though both donor and recipient are known to be the same blood type? 1.It reveals the presence of potential cross-reactions with surface antigens other than A, B, or Rh. 2.It ensures that neither donor nor recipient is anemic. 3.It confirms the HIV status of the donor. 4.It ensures that the donor does not have WBCs outside the normal range.

1.It reveals the presence of potential cross-reactions with surface antigens other than A, B, or Rh.

If you were looking at a synchondrosis in an adult skeleton, you'd be looking at the ___? 1.Joint between the first rib and manubrium 2.Epiphyseal cartilage between epiphysis and diaphysis of a long bone 3.Pubic symphysis 4.1 and 2

1.Joint between the first rib and manubrium

Paranasal sinuses serve what purposes? 1.Lightening the skull bones and providing an extensive area of mucous epithelium 2.Pulling mucus back toward the throat 3.Providing the superior and posterior boundary of the nasal complex 4.Providing the lateral and inferior boundaries of the orbital complex

1.Lightening the skull bones and providing an extensive area of mucous epithelium

The rounded projections on either side of the elbow are the _____ and ____ and are parts of which bone? 1.Medial and lateral epicondyles/humerus 2.Trochlea and capitulum/humerus 3.Olecranon and head of radius/radius 4.both 1 and 2

1.Medial and lateral epicondyles/humerus

The only direct articulation of the pectoral girdle to the axial skeleton is at the articulation of the ______. 1.Medial end of the clavicle and manubrium 2.Head of the femur to the acetabulum 3.Lateral end of the clavicle to the head of the humerus 4.None of these

1.Medial end of the clavicle and manubrium

Christopher has blood type O. What blood type(s) can he receive from a donor? Why? 1.O/he has anti-A and anti-B antibodies in his plasma 2.A, B, or O/he has no surface antigens on his RBCs 3.A or O/he has anti-B surface antigens on his RBCs None of the above is correct.

1.O/he has anti-A and anti-B antibodies in his plasma

Which fontanelles disappear within a month or two after birth? 1.Occipital, sphenoid, and mastoid 2.Metopic, frontal, and sagittal 3.Anterior, parietal, and occipital 4.Sphenoid, lambdoid, and mastoid

1.Occipital, sphenoid, and mastoid

Which of the following bone cell types is primarily responsible for initiating ossification of bone? 1.Osteoblasts 2.Osteoclasts 3.Osteocytes 4.Chondroblasts

1.Osteoblasts

A person standing on her toes is ____, while a person trying to kick his own gluteal region is _____? 1.Plantar flexing/flexing his leg 2.Dorsiflexing/extending his leg 3.Everting her feet/flexing his thigh 4.Inverting her feet/pronating his leg

1.Plantar flexing/flexing his leg

Pointing your toes downward is described as which type of movement? 1.Plantar flexion 2.Dorsiflexion 3.Pronation Supination

1.Plantar flexion

What is the primary difference between plasma and interstitial fluid? 1.Plasma contains significantly more protein. 2.Interstitial fluid contains no respiratory gases. 3.The concentration of ions is significantly less in plasma. 4.Interstitial fluid contributes very little to the volume of ECF in the body.

1.Plasma contains significantly more protein.

What type of exercise can convert fast oxidative fibers to fast glycolytic fibers? 1.Resistance exercise 2.Aerobic exercise 3.Both a and b 4.Muscle fibers cannot change type

1.Resistance exercise

Joe suffered a hairline fracture at the base of the dens. Which bone is fractured, and where is it located? 1.Second cervical vertebra; posterior neck 2.First cervical vertebra; posterior neck 3.Occipital bone; posterior base of skull 4.Sacrum; posterior pelvis

1.Second cervical vertebra; posterior neck

Two cardiologist are talking about functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue. Which of the following descriptions would they use? 1.Special gap junctions, no wave summation, contracts without neural stimulation 2.Spindle-shaped, non-striated, thick filaments scattered, involuntary 3.Ca2+ from SR, rapid fatigue, functional syncytium 4.Cardiologists would not use any of this terminology

1.Special gap junctions, no wave summation, contracts without neural stimulation

Which bone contains the depression called the sella turcica? What is located in this depression? 1.Sphenoid bone; pituitary gland 2.Ethmoid; olfactory epithelium 3.Temporal bone; inner ear 4.Lacrimal bone; tear apparatus

1.Sphenoid bone; pituitary gland

What are functional relationships between compact and spongy bone? 1.Spongy bone resists stress from many directions/compact bone is extremely strong when stressed along the axis of alignment 2.Spongy bone is strong along its main axis/compact bone resists stress from many directions 3.Both spongy and compact bone resist stresses from all angles except a sudden force to the side of the bone 4.None of these is correct

1.Spongy bone resists stress from many directions/compact bone is extremely strong when stressed along the axis of alignment

Of the following types of joints, which type occurs only in the skull? 1.Suture 2.Ball and socket 3.Hinge 4.Symphysis

1.Suture

Why would improper circulation of synovial fluid lead to the degeneration of articular cartilages in the affected joint? 1.Synovial fluid nourishes articular cartilage. 2.Blood flow follows synovial fluid circulation. 3.Articular cartilage is composed of synovial fluid. Both 1 and 2.

1.Synovial fluid nourishes articular cartilage.

Which of the following statements is true? 1.The biceps brachii muscle has two heads that share the same origin site. 2.The triceps brachii muscle has two heads the insert on the olecranon process of the ulna. 3.The biceps brachii could be classified as a posterior extensor. 4.All heads of the triceps brachii muscle originate on the humerus. None of the above statements are true.

1.The biceps brachii muscle has two heads that share the same origin site.

Predict the outcome of an overdose of the hormone erythropoietin. 1.The blood viscosity increases to levels that may induce heart attacks or strokes. 2.The oxygen-carrying capacity remains unchanged despite elevated red blood cell counts. 3.Red blood cell counts remain unchanged, but the number of reticulocytes increases. 4.Blood viscosity levels decrease while oxygen-carrying capacity increases.

1.The blood viscosity increases to levels that may induce heart attacks or strokes.

How could X-rays of the femur be used to determine whether a person has reached full height? 1.The epiphyseal plates can be identified. 2.The epiphyseal lines can be measured. 3.The width of the shaft can be correlated to height. 4.The extent of osteoporosis can be seen.

1.The epiphyseal plates can be identified.

The significance of the petrous part of the temporal bone is that it serves as ___? 1.The housing for the auditory ossicles 2.A passageway for the jugular vein 3.Sites of attachment for muscles that move the mandible 4.The housing for the temporal sinuses

1.The housing for the auditory ossicles

A seven-year-old child has a pituitary tumor involving the cells that secrete growth hormone (GH), resulting in increased levels of GH. How will this condition affect the child's growth? 1.The individual will be taller. 2.The individual will be shorter. 3.Growth of the individual will be erratic and slow. 4.Excessive growth will be limited to axial skeleton.

1.The individual will be taller.

Why would a second fracture to a particular bone be more likely to occur at a different site along that bone than the first fracture? 1.The newly formed bone is slightly thicker and stronger at the original fracture site. 2.During healing of the first fracture, calcium was removed making the site of the second fracture weaker. 3.The person is older when the second fracture occurs, so their bones are weaker. 4.None of these is correct.

1.The newly formed bone is slightly thicker and stronger at the original fracture site.

Which of the following statements is true regarding muscles of the forearm? 1.The pronator quadratus muscle originates on the ulna and inserts on the radius. 2.The pronator teres muscle originates on the medial epicondyle and inserts on the radius. 3.Contraction of the pronator quadratus and the supinator results in forearm pronation. 4.The pronator quadratus is a two headed muscle.

1.The pronator quadratus muscle originates on the ulna and inserts on the radius.

The patellar ligament attaches to which structure? 1.The tibial tuberosity 2.The lateral malleolus 3.The intercondylar eminence 4.The hamstring muscles

1.The tibial tuberosity

What would be the first response of a muscle fiber treated with an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor? 1.There would be a continued muscle fiber contraction in the absence of additional nervous system stimulation. 2.The muscle fiber would be nonresponsive to acetylcholine. 3.Acetylcholine would be retained in the axon ending. 4.The muscle fiber would continuously contract for a prolonged period of time.

1.There would be a continued muscle fiber contraction in the absence of additional nervous system stimulation.

What are the structural and functional distinctions of fast fibers (white muscle fibers)? 1.They contract in 0.01 sec, are large in diameter, and use anaerobic metabolism. 2.They use aerobic metabolism, have numerous mitochondria, and have high myoglobin content. 3.They are capable of mitotic division and their contractions use ATP in small amounts. 4.They are the least abundant fiber type and use aerobic metabolism.

1.They contract in 0.01 sec, are large in diameter, and use anaerobic metabolism.

Bill accidentally fractures his first distal phalanx with a hammer. Which finger is broken? 1.Thumb 2.Small finger 3.Ring finger Index finger

1.Thumb

Which of the distal carpals has/have a distal articulation with metacarpal I and a proximal articulation with the scaphoid? 1.Trapezium 2.Trapezoid and hamate 3.Capitate and lunate 4.Triquetrum

1.Trapezium

The anconeus muscle is the smallest of the posterior extensors. 1.True 2.False

1.True

The rotator cuff muscles act to stabilize the humerus. 1.True 2.False

1.True

The teres minor muscle provides for external rotation of the humerus. 1.True 2. False

1.True

How could you distinguish between true ribs and false ribs? 1.True ribs attach directly to the sternum by their own costal cartilage. 2.True ribs are entirely bony. 3.False ribs are not part of the thoracic cage. 4.True ribs are attached only to the sternum.

1.True ribs attach directly to the sternum by their own costal cartilage.

Which of these bony markings would become more pronounced with weight-bearing exercise? 1.Tuberosities 2.Condyles 3.Processes 4.Heads

1.Tuberosities

Why does skeletal muscle appear striated when viewed through a microscope? 1.Z. Lines and myosin filaments align within the tissue. 2.Glycogen reserves are linearly arranged. 3.Capillaries regularly intersect the myofibers. 4.Actin filaments repel stain, appearing banded.

1.Z. Lines and myosin filaments align within the tissue.

A sprinter is likely to depend on __________ respiration to generate ATP, and a Tour de France cyclist is likely to rely on __________ respiration. 1.anaerobic; aerobic 2.aerobic; anaerobic 3.aerobic; aerobic anaerobic; anaerobic

1.anaerobic; aerobic

The muscles of the leg that control ankle and foot movement are called extrinsic because they _____________. 1.are located in the leg but exert actions in the ankle and foot 2.are located in the superficial compartment of the ankle and foot 3.control extrinsic movements of the ankle and foot 4.all of the above

1.are located in the leg but exert actions in the ankle and foot

The soleus muscle inserts on the _____________. 1.calcaneous 2. tibia 3. fibula 4. medial cuneiform

1.calcaneous

If you were contracting and relaxing your masseter muscle, what would you probably be doing? 1.chewing 2.kissing 3.nodding smiling

1.chewing

In a patient whose parathyroid glands have been removed, you would expect that person's blood calcium levels to _______. 1.decrease 2.increase 3.stay the same increase twofold

1.decrease

Muscles of the shoulder can be divided into three separate groups based on _____________ relationships. 1.distribution and functional 2.size and leverage 3.posterior and anterior 4.superior and inferior

1.distribution and functional

The muscles of the __________ are rather unusual for muscles because they insert onto the skin or other muscles. 1.face 2.posterior thigh 3.abdomen hand

1.face

The insertion of the biceps femoris muscle is the head of the _____________. 1.fibula 2. tibia 3. femur 4. humerus

1.fibula

The deep posterior compartment does not contain the _____________. 1.fibularis longus 2. flexor digitorum longus 3. flexor hallucis longus 4. tibialis posterior

1.fibularis longus

The joint between the occipital bone of the skull and the first cervical vertebra (atlas) is part of which type of lever system? 1.first-class lever system 2.second-class lever system 3.third-class lever system 4.fulcrum/load/applied force lever system

1.first-class lever system

Depressions on bones include ___________. 1.fossae 2.trochanters 3.tubercles 4.tuberosities

1.fossae

The principal component of bone that contributes to its hardness is __________. 1.hydroxyapatite 2.collagen 3.osteoid organic

1.hydroxyapatite

An injectable heparin medication might be prescribed for a patient who: 1.is at risk for embolism. 2.has thrombocytopenia. 3.is a hemophiliac. 4.has a deficiency in a clotting factor.

1.is at risk for embolism.

The time period between action potential initiation and mechanical activity of a muscle fiber is called the __________. 1.latent period 2.refractory period 3.action potential 4.excitation period

1.latent period

One consequence of aging is a decrease in diameter of skeletal muscle fibers. What factors contribute to the decrease in size of muscle fibers? 1.less myoglobin and smaller reserves of glycogen and ATP 2.decreasing elasticity and increasing fibrosis 3.rapid fatigue and decline in thermoregulatory ability 4.decrease in number of satellite cells and a decrease of 30% in aerobic performance

1.less myoglobin and smaller reserves of glycogen and ATP

The four muscles that comprise the posterior group of the pectoral girdle are the _____________. 1.levator scapulae, rhomboideus minor, rhomboideus major, and trapezius 2.levator scapulae, rhomboideus minor, rhomboideus major, and pectoralis major 3.pectoralis major, serratus anterior, pectoralis minor, and trapezius 4.rhomboideus minor, rhomboideus major, trapezius, and levator scapulae

1.levator scapulae, rhomboideus minor, rhomboideus major, and trapezius

The ______ the ligament fibers of a syndesmosis, the ______ the degreeof movement. 1.longer; greater 2.longer; smaller 3.shorter; greater wider; smaller

1.longer; greater

The most common form of chronic arthritis is ______. 1.osteoarthritis 2.rheumatoid arthritis 3.gouty arthritis 4.subluxation

1.osteoarthritis

The palmaris longus inserts on the _____________. 1.palmar aponeurosis 2. bodies of phalanges 2-5 3. medial epicondyle of the humerus 4. bases of the second and third metacarpals

1.palmar aponeurosis

The muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement is a(n) __________. 1.prime mover 2.antagonist 3.synergist 4.fixator

1.prime mover

Injured cardiac muscle is repaired mostly as: 1.scar tissue 2.smooth muscle 3.cardiac muscle satellite cells

1.scar tissue

Lateral rotation of the scapula results from the contraction of _____________ and _____________ muscles. 1.serratus anterior, trapezius 2.levator scapulae, major and minor rhomboid 3.serratus anterior, major and minor rhomboid 4.trapezius, major and minor rhomboid

1.serratus anterior, trapezius

An injury common to baseball players is a torn rotator cuff. This collection of muscles and tendons is associated with the________ joint. 1.shoulder 2.elbow 3.hip knee

1.shoulder

Small precise movements are controlled by __________ motor units. 1.small 2.large 3.many 4.few

1.small

The sarcoplasmic reticulum is an elaborated __________. 1.smooth endoplasmic reticulum 2.Golgi apparatus 3.rough endoplasmic reticulum 4.vesicle

1.smooth endoplasmic reticulum

During depolarization, the sarcolemma is most permeable to __________. 1.sodium ions 2.potassium ions 3.calcium ions 4.chloride ions

1.sodium ions

When lying on your back, your __________ muscles contract to lift your head. 1.sternocleidomastoid 2.scalene 3.splenius 4.platysm

1.sternocleidomastoid

A muscle that assists another in a movement is a ____ and an example is the relationship between the ___ and ___. 1.synergist/latissimus dorsi/teres major 2.antagonist/gracilis/sartorius 3.prime mover/brachioradialis/biceps brachii 4.fixator/gastrocnemius/tibialis anterior

1.synergist/latissimus dorsi/teres major

The muscles that move the fingers and wrist located in the forearm allow _____________. 1.the hand to maintain fine motor control and strength without the interference of the bulky muscles 2.for greater torque strength by the tendons of the fingers 3.the muscles to contract more rapidly 4.the hand and fingers to have greater sensitivity to environmental stimuli

1.the hand to maintain fine motor control and strength without the interference of the bulky muscles

A football player received a blow to the upper surface of his shoulder, causing a shoulder separation. What does this mean? 1.breaking of the clavicle and scapula 2.partial dislocation of the acromioclavicular joint 3.complete dislocation of the acromioclavicular joint 4. 2 and 3

2 and 3

An anatomy student says to you, "Sam likes to push the toy car hard." She is referring to the ____. 1.Damage that occurred at last night's party 2.Scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate and hamate 3.Way to remember the names of the eight carpal bones 4.2 and 3

2 and 3

Another student comes to you and says, "Tom can control not much in life". What are they talking about? 1.Tom must live with his parents next semester 2.The memory tool for remembering the tarsals 3.Talus, calcaneus, cuboid, navicular, and medial, intermediate and lateral cuneiform bones 4. 2 and 3

2 and 3

During intramembranous ossification, which type(s) of tissue is/are replaced by bone? 1.Hyaline cartilage 2.Fibrous connective tissue 3.Mesenchymal connective tissue 4.2 and 3

2 and 3

Types of angular motion include which of these movements? 1.Pronation and supination 2.Circumduction 3.Adduction and abduction 4.2 and 3

2 and 3

Which condition(s) stimulates the release of EPO? What is/are effects of EPO? 1.The presence of deoxyhemoglobin in the blood/ decreases the rate of hemoglobin synthesis 2.Blood flow to the kidneys declines/Stimulates increase in cell division rates of erythroblasts 3.Moving to a high altitude/Speeds up maturation of RBCs 4.2 and 3 are correct

2 and 3 are correct

Which of these groupings of muscles includes only axial muscles? 1.orbicularis oculi, zygomaticus, trapezius, temporalis 2.masseter, sternocleidomastoid, buccinator, erector spinae 3.quadratus lumborum, scalene muscles, rectus abdominis 4. 2 and 3 are correct

2 and 3 are correct

Rank the medial muscles that cross the hip by point of insertion from lateral to medial: (1) adductor magnus, (2) pectineus, (3) adductor brevis, (4) adductor longus, (5) gracilis. 1. 1,2,3,4,5 2. 2,1,3,4,5 3. 2,3,4,5,1 4. 1,2,4,3,5

2. 2,1,3,4,5

The axial skeleton contains approximately __ bones, which include bones of the ___? 1.126/pelvic girdle and limb bones 2.80/skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage 3.80/pelvic girdle and pectoral girdle 4.2 and 3

2. 80/skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage

Abduction of the hip requires the same muscles regardless of the hip position (flexed or non-flexed). 1. True 2. False

2. False

All of the hamstring muscles insert on the fibula. 1. True 2. False

2. False

Both adduction and abduction require the deltoid muscle for action. 1. True 2. False

2. False

Hip flexion increases the angle between the hip joint and the torso. 1. True 2. False

2. False

Keeping the humeral head centered within the glenoid cavity requires that the muscle and the head of the humerus be kept in separate planes. 1. True 2. False

2. False

The fibularis brevis muscle inverts the foot. 1. True 2. False

2. False

The fibularis brevis muscle is longer than the fibularis longus muscle. 1. True 2. False

2. False

The gastrocnemius muscle that crosses the knee joint inserts on the femur. 1. True 2. False

2. False

The posterior compartment of muscles that act on the ankle and foot contains deep leg muscles only. 1. True 2. False

2. False

The primary function of the pectoral girdle is to provide the only connection between the arm and the axial skeleton. 1. True 2. False

2. False

The rotator cuff is a term used to describe the group of muscles and tendons that stabilize and reinforce the pectoral girdle. 1. True 2. False

2. False

The rotator cuff muscles are not considered part of the shoulder joint. 1. True 2. False

2. False

The rotator cuff muscles increase upward pressure from the humerus on the acromion process of the scapula. 1. True 2. False

2. False

The teres major muscle is one of the two posterior muscles that cross the glenohumeral joint. 1. True 2. False

2. False

The three gluteal muscles, gluteus minimus, gluteus medius and gluteus maximus, are considered lateral rotators. 1. True 2. False

2. False

The two heads of the biceps brachii muscle come together distally to insert on the ulnar tuberosity. 1. True 2. False

2. False

The various muscles of the leg that act on the ankle and foot are found within two compartments. 1. True 2. False

2. False

Wrist abduction occurs through the flexor carpi ulnaris while wrist adduction is a function of the flexor carpi radialis. 1. True 2. False

2. False

Movement of the shoulder away and laterally from the body is called _____________. 1. medial rotation 2. abduction 3. adduction 4. extension

2. abduction

The muscles of the shoulder joint are divided into all of the following groups except the: 1.pectoral girdle 2. anterior flexors 3. rotator cuff 4. glenohumeral joint

2. anterior flexors

Hyperextension of the elbow would result in damage to the _____________. 1. triceps brachii muscle 2. biceps brachii muscle 3. anconeus muscle 4. supinator muscle

2. biceps brachii muscle

The most powerful muscle of the flexors is the _____________. 1. brachioradialis 2. brachialis 3. biceps brachii 4. triceps brachii

2. brachialis

The components of the pectoral girdle include _____________. 1. clavicle, scapula, and humerus 2. clavicle and scapula 3. clavicle and humerus 4. scapula and humerus

2. clavicle and scapula

The tendons of the ____________ can be easily seen on the back of the hand when the fingers are extended. 1. extensor carpi radialis 2. extensor digitorum 3. extensor digiti minimi 4. extensor carpi ulnaris

2. extensor digitorum

At what age are nearly all bones completely ossified and skeletal growth ended? 1.18 2.21 3.25 4.28

25

While jumping off the back steps at his house, 10-year-old Joey lands on his right heel and breaks his foot. Which foot bone is most likely broken? 1.Talus 2.Calcaneus 3.Navicular bone 4.First metatarsal bone

2.Calcaneus

Which characteristic of cartilage enhances its job as the precursor to endochondral bone? 1.Cartilage can decay easily. 2.Cartilage can accommodate mitosis. 3.Cartilage is a weak tissue. 4.Cartilage is retained as part of the skeletal system.

2.Cartilage can accommodate mitosis.

Joints are classified structurally as _____, based upon _____? 1.Sutures, gomphoses, or synchondroses/location 2.Cartilaginous, fibrous or synovial/material binding the joint 3.Synarthroses, amphiarthroses, or diarthroses/amount of movement 4.Monaxial, biaxial, or triaxial/number of planes of movement

2.Cartilaginous, fibrous or synovial/material binding the joint

Secondary curves of the spine are also called ______? The cervical curve ____ and the lumbar curve ______? 1.Accommodation curves/is present at birth/accommodates abdominal viscera 2.Compensation curves/helps balance weight of head/balances weight over lower limbs 3.Compensation curves/decreases flexibility/allows for development of larger vertebrae 4.None of these is correct

2.Compensation curves/helps balance weight of head/balances weight over lower limbs

Which of these lists the six categories for classifying bone by shape? 1.Intramembranous; periosteal; diaphysis mesenchymal; endochondral; interstitial 2.Flat; irregular; short; long; sesamoid; sutural 3.Long; short; mesenchymal; intramembranous; endochondral; epiphyseal 4.Femur; sternum; wormian; pelvis; patella; vertebra

2.Flat; irregular; short; long; sesamoid; sutural

What structural characteristics distinguish cardiac muscle tissue from skeletal muscle tissue? Cardiac muscle cells ___. 1.Are larger and usually have one nucleus 2.Have intercalated discs, short T tubules and no triads 3.Are dependent on anaerobic metabolism 4.Contact each other at tight junctions

2.Have intercalated discs, short T tubules and no triads

Which bone articulates with the scapula at the glenoid cavity? 1.Acromial end of the clavicle 2.Head of the humerus 3.Condyle of the humerus 4.Olecranon of the ulna

2.Head of the humerus

Which three bones make up a coxal bone? 1.Ilium, ischium, and femur 2.Ilium, ischium, and pubis 3.Ilium, acetabulum, and pubis 4.Ilium, femur, and pubis

2.Ilium, ischium, and pubis

Which of these bones are paired bones of the face? 1.Temporal bones 2.Inferior nasal conchae 3.Parietal bones 4.1 and 3

2.Inferior nasal conchae

Which characteristics of blood contribute to its high viscosity? 1.Its temperature is slightly above body temperature. 2.Interactions among proteins, formed elements, and water molecules in plasma. 3.Its alkalinity. 4.The percentage of body weight it comprises.

2.Interactions among proteins, formed elements, and water molecules in plasma.

Which of the following is not a fatigue-producing factor in moderate exercise? 1.Potassium imbalances 2.Lack of ATP 3.Inorganic phosphate accumulation 4.Damage to the SR

2.Lack of ATP

Why would you expect the arm bones of a weight lifter to be thicker and heavier than those of a jogger? 1.Joggers are naturally thin. 2.Larger muscles apply more mechanical stress to the bones. 3.Aerobic exercise reduces bone mass. Anaerobic exercise reduces bone mass

2.Larger muscles apply more mechanical stress to the bones.

Which of the following is NOT a major function of skeletal muscle? 1.Maintaining body temperature 2.Lining hollow organs 3.Maintaining posture 4.Storing nutrient reserves

2.Lining hollow organs

The A band is comprised of which of the following subunits? 1.I-Band, terminal cisternae, and the Z-Line 2.M-Line, H-Zone, and zone of overlap 3.Thin filaments, titin, and the Z-Line 4.Sarcoplasmic reticulum and T-Tubules

2.M-Line, H-Zone, and zone of overlap

The greater and lesser tubercles of the humerus are important sites for ____? 1.Red bone marrow production 2.Muscle attachment 3.A large tendon 4.Forming the lateral contour of the shoulder

2.Muscle attachment

What is a motor unit? Why would you need a small motor unit to control movements of the fingers? 1.The resting tension in a muscle/so it would not involve muscle fibers of adjoining fingers 2.Muscle fibers controlled by a single motor neuron/need precise control 3.The addition of one twitch to another/need twitches to cover a large area 4.None of these is correct

2.Muscle fibers controlled by a single motor neuron/need precise control

Which type of WBC is found in greatest numbers in an infected cut? 1.Monocytes 2.Neutrophils 3.B lymphocytes 4.Eosinophils

2.Neutrophils

In which bone is the foramen magnum located? 1.Sphenoid 2.Occipital bone 3.Ethmoid 4.Parietal bone

2.Occipital bone

Why don't platelets form plugs in undamaged vessels? 1.Platelets aren't formed until vessel damage occurs. 2.Only contact of platelets with exposed collagen fibers and von Willebrand factor causes them to be sticky and form plugs. 3.Plugs do form, but are removed by macrophages. 4.Platelets don't form plugs; it is the megakaryocytes that form the plugs.

2.Only contact of platelets with exposed collagen fibers and von Willebrand factor causes them to be sticky and form plugs.

Why would you expect that all people lose some height as they age? 1.Osteomalacia causes the bones to soften. 2.Osteopenia causes a reduction in bone mass. 3.Osteoporosis causes a reduction in bone mass. 4.Growth hormone is no longer available.

2.Osteopenia causes a reduction in bone mass.

Leukemia is a general descriptor for which of the following disorders? 1.An abnormally low white blood cell count 2.Overproduction of abnormal leukocytes 3.Elevated counts of normal neutrophils 4.Overproduction of abnormal erythrocytes

2.Overproduction of abnormal leukocytes

Menisci are not found in every synovial joint. What are menisci and what is their function? 1.Another name for bursae/reducing friction 2.Pads of fibrocartilage/subdivides a synovial cavity and allow for variations in shape of articular surfaces. 3.Fat pads/protect articular cartilage 4.Specialized intracapsular ligaments/reducing undesirable movements

2.Pads of fibrocartilage/subdivides a synovial cavity and allow for variations in shape of articular surfaces.

What is the mechanism by which ATP is continuously synthesized in muscle cells? 1.Through the reaction of ADP with creatine 2.Primarily aerobic metabolism in mitochondria 3.Primarily glycolysis in the cytoplasm 4.2 and 3 are correct

2.Primarily aerobic metabolism in mitochondria

Which bone of the forearm is lateral in the anatomical position? 1.Ulna 2.Radius 3.Scaphoid 4.Depends on hand position

2.Radius

You have a young adult patient complaining of joint pain and inflammation. Her uric acid levels are normal. Your diagnosis is ___ and the cause is ____? 1.Gouty arthritis/uric acid crystals in synovial fluid 2.Rheumatoid arthritis/autoimmune 3.Osteoarthritis/wear and tear on joints 4.Herniated disc/rupture of the anulus fibrosus

2.Rheumatoid arthritis/autoimmune

Which class of levers has the load between the fulcrum and effort? 1.First class 2.Second class 3.Third class 4.Fourth class

2.Second class

Of the following muscle types, which is the only one subject to conscious control? 1.Smooth 2.Skeletal 3.Cardiac 4.All of these muscle types are subject to conscious control.

2.Skeletal

An amphiarthrotic joint exhibits which levelof movement? 1.Immovable 2.Slightly movable 3.Freely movable 4.Slightly immovable

2.Slightly movable

Which type of muscle fibers would predominate in the large leg muscles of someone who excels at endurance activities, such as cycling and why? 1.Fast fibers/because they have large glycogen reserves 2.Slow fibers/because they have extensive capillary networks 3.Nonvascular fibers/because they use both aerobic and anaerobic metabolism 4.Intermediate fibers/because they have more neuromuscular junctions

2.Slow fibers/because they have extensive capillary networks

Which type of muscle fibers would you expect to predominate in the large leg muscles of someone who excels at endurance activities, such as cycling or long-distance running and why? 1.Fast fibers/large glycogen reserves 2.Slow fibers/extensive capillary networks 3.Nonvascular fibers/use both aerobic and anaerobic metabolism 4.Intermediate fibers/more neuromuscular junctions

2.Slow fibers/extensive capillary networks

Why is it important that the iron-oxygen interaction in oxyhemoglobin is weak? 1.So that an irreversible bond forms between oxygen and the hemoglobin molecule 2.So that oxygen may dissociate into tissues 3.Because RBCs consume some of the oxygen they carry 4.Because carbon dioxide has a higher affinity for the iron molecule

2.So that oxygen may dissociate into tissues

Which of these describes the neuromuscular junction? 1.The surface containing membrane receptors that bind acetylcholine 2.Special intercellular connection between axon branches and a skeletal muscle fiber 3.The link between generation of an action potential and the start of muscle contraction 4.A propagated change in membrane potential that travels the length of an axon

2.Special intercellular connection between axon branches and a skeletal muscle fiber

Which suture is not paired with the bones it separates? 1.Lambdoidal/occipital and parietal bones 2.Squamous/temporal bone and sphenoid bone 3.Coronal/frontal from two parietal bones 4.Sagittal/parietal bones

2.Squamous/temporal bone and sphenoid bone

Which of the following forms of exercise is best for joints? 1.Jogging 2.Swimming 3.Weight lifting Aerobics

2.Swimming

Why is the sternocleidomastoid considered an axial muscle, while the serratus anterior is considered an appendicular muscle? 1.The sternocleidomastoid has both insertions on the axial skeleton and the serratus anterior has its origin on the axial skeleton. 2.The action of the sternocleidomastoid is on the axial skeleton and the action of the serratus anterior is on the appendicular skeleton. 3.The serratus anterior has its insertion on the appendicular skeleton and the sternocleidomastoid's insertion on the clavicle is not considered. 4.2 and 3 are correct.

2.The action of the sternocleidomastoid is on the axial skeleton and the action of the serratus anterior is on the appendicular skeleton.

What would long bone growth look like in an individual whose cartilage in the epiphyseal disc stopped dividing? 1.The long bones would grow excessively. 2.The long bones would cease growth in length. 3.The long bones would cease growth in width. The long bones would appear normal

2.The long bones would cease growth in length.

Contrasting the pelvis with the pelvic girdle, reveals that ____. 1.The pelvic girdle includes the femurs, whereas the pelvis only includes hip bones and sacrum 2.The pelvis includes the hip bones, sacrum, and coccyx and the pelvic girdle refers only to the hip bones 3.They refer to exactly the same structures 4.None of these is correct

2.The pelvis includes the hip bones, sacrum, and coccyx and the pelvic girdle refers only to the hip bones

Why is it unlikely that the antibodies in a Type O donors plasma would cause a transfusion reaction in a Type A recipient? 1.Surface antigens on RBCs are more important in determining compatibility. 2.The plasma portion of donated blood is tiny when compared to the volume of plasma in the recipient's body. 3.Plasma is not transfused in blood donations. 4.O blood doesn't have any antibodies in its plasma.

2.The plasma portion of donated blood is tiny when compared to the volume of plasma in the recipient's body.

Under normal conditions, what is the fate of the globular proteins of a recycled hemoglobin molecule? 1.They are filtered by the kidneys and eliminated in urine. 2.They are disassembled into their component amino acids. 3.They are stripped of their heme unit and converted into biliverdin. 4.They are converted to bilirubin and excreted in bile.

2.They are disassembled into their component amino acids.

The anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments of the knee are distinctive in what way? 1.They tighten only when the knee is fully extended 2.They are inside the joint capsule and prevent anterior and posterior movement of the femur 3.They reinforce the joint's posterior surface 4.They work with the patellar ligament to support the anterior surface of the joint

2.They are inside the joint capsule and prevent anterior and posterior movement of the femur

Why is "clergyman's knee" (a type of bursitis) common among carpet layers and roofers? 1.Their jobs demand locked knees for long periods of time. 2.They kneel often. 3.Bursitis is caused by skin abrasion as happens in their jobs. 4.There is lateral stress on the knee in these occupations.

2.They kneel often.

The pectoralis muscle originates on the _____________. 1.scapula 2.anterior surfaces of ribs 3 to 5 3.posterior and medial surfaces of the humerus 4.coracoid process of the scapula

2.anterior surfaces of ribs 3 to 5

Adding new bony matrix to injury sites is known as _________. 1.bone sizing 2.bone deposition 3.bone resorption bone addition

2.bone deposition

The anterior flexors consist of the _____________ muscle(s). 1.brachialis and brachioradialis 2.brachialis, brachioradialis and biceps brachii 3.brachialis and biceps brachii 4.biceps brachii

2.brachialis, brachioradialis and biceps brachii

Which facial muscle would you expect to be well developed in a trumpet player? 1.masseter muscle 2.buccinator muscle 3.zygomaticus major and minor 4.orbicularis oris

2.buccinator muscle

In a muscle fiber, the key intracellular event that stimulates muscle contraction is known as __________. 1.polarization 2.depolarization 3.repolarization 4.potential

2.depolarization

The __________ is (are) the most important muscle(s) for inspiratory breathing. 1.internal intercostals 2.diaphragm 3.scalenes rectus abdominis

2.diaphragm

The muscles of the back, which are most susceptible to injury during heavy lifting, belong to the __________ muscle group. 1.quadratus lumborum 2.erector spinae 3.semispinalis 4.splenius

2.erector spinae

The action of the gluteus maximus muscle is to __ and it has a common insertion with __ at the ___. 1.flexion and medial rotation at the hip/gluteus medius/greater trochanter 2.extension and lateral rotation at the hip/tensor fasciae latae/iliotibial tract 3.adduction at the thigh/adductor magnus/linea aspera of the femur 4.None of these

2.extension and lateral rotation at the hip/tensor fasciae latae/iliotibial tract

A major cellular feature in smooth muscle that contributes to its rhythmicity and ability to participate in peristalsis is the presence of _________. 1.troponin complex 2.gap junctions 3.varicosities 4.caveolae

2.gap junctions

The popliteus muscle is included as a knee flexor because _____________. 1.of its large size and association with the quadriceps femoris muscle 2.it unlocks the knee to allow flexion to occur 3.it aids in knee extension 4.it spans the knee joint and is in the best plane to induce knee flexion

2.it unlocks the knee to allow flexion to occur

The knee joint is most susceptible to injury when ______ blows are applied to the knee. 1.vertical 2.lateral 3.posterior 4.inferior

2.lateral

Which muscle are you using when you shrug your shoulders? 1.trapezius muscles 2.levator scapulae muscles 3.deltoid muscles 4.sternocleidomastoid muscles

2.levator scapulae muscles

Which activity would be more likely to create an oxygen debt: swimming laps or lifting weights? 1.swimming laps 2.lifting weights 3.both 1 and 2 4.neither 1 nor 2

2.lifting weights

In order to receive a signal to contract, each skeletal muscle must be served by a(n) __________. 1.artery 2.nerve 3.vein ligament

2.nerve

A group of concentric rings of bone matrix, comprising the functional unit of long bones, is called a(n) __________. 1.lamella 2.osteon 3.pillar system Sharpey's system

2.osteon

A muscle contraction increases in strength up to a point because __________. 1.stronger stimuli inhibit motor unit activation 2.recruitment occurs and more motor units respond to stronger stimuli 3.more calcium is available in the sarcoplasm 4.additional neurons begin stimulating each muscle fiber

2.recruitment occurs and more motor units respond to stronger stimuli

The _______ muscles include the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis. 1.shoulder blade 2.rotator cuff 3.humerus 4.arm extender

2.rotator cuff

The benefit of third-class lever systems in muscles is that ___, while the benefit of second-class levers in muscles is ___? 1.they operate at a mechanical advantage/they operate at a mechanical disadvantage 2.speed and distance traveled are increased/a small force can move a heavy weight 3.the fulcrum lies between the applied force and the load/the load lies between the applied force and the fulcrum 4.None of the above

2.speed and distance traveled are increased/a small force can move a heavy weight

The benefit of third-class lever systems in muscles is that ___, while the benefit of second-class levers in muscles is ___? 1.they operate at a mechanical advantage/they operate at a mechanical disadvantage 2.speed and distance traveled are increased/a small force can move a heavy weight 3.the fulcrum lies between the applied force and the load/the load lies between the applied force and the fulcrum None of the above

2.speed and distance traveled are increased/a small force can move a heavy weight

Would a tennis player or a jogger be more likely to develop inflammation of the subscapular bursa? Why? 1.tennis player; stronger muscles in the back 2.tennis player; repetitive shoulder motion 3.jogger; excessive pectoral swinging motion 4.jogger; bursitis develops from running

2.tennis player; repetitive shoulder motion

Muscle power is primarily dependent on __________. 1.the degree to which a muscle can shorten 2.the number of cells in the muscle 3.the muscle's shape 4.the direction of fibers in the muscle

2.the number of cells in the muscle

Activation of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation requires exposure of the blood to __________. 1.collagen 2.tissue factor III 3.prothrombin activator 4.serotonin

2.tissue factor III

Calcium's homeostatic importance to the body is primarily _____________. 1.to strengthen bone 2.to function in numerous metabolic activities (muscle contraction, blood coagulation) 3.to whiten our teeth 4.both a and c

2.to function in numerous metabolic activities (muscle contraction, blood coagulation)

If a patient has pernicious anemia, the inability of the body to absorb vitamin B12, the patient __________. 1.would have reduced blood iron levels 2.would have a decreased number of red blood cells 3.would have increased levels of hemoglobin 4.would not experience any effects on red blood cells

2.would have a decreased number of red blood cells

The coracobrachialis muscle originates on the _____________. 1. radial tuberosity 2. medial surface of the humeral shaft 3. coracoid process of the scapula 4. greater tuberosity of the humerus

3. coracoid process of the scapula

The prime movers of glenohumeral joint flexion are the _____________ muscles. 1. coracobrachialis and the biceps brachii 2. coracobrachialis and the deltoid 3. deltoid and the pectoralis major 4. pectoralis major and the coracobrachialis

3. deltoid and the pectoralis major

Which of the following deep posterior extensors has an origin site that is not on the radius? 1. abductor pollicis longus 2. extensor pollicis brevis 3. extensor indicis 4. extensor pollicis longus

3. extensor indicis

Movement at the elbow joint is summarized as _____________. 1. pronation and supination 2. supination and flexion 3. flexion and extension 4. extension and pronation

3. flexion and extension

Movement at the elbow joint is summarized as _____________. 1.pronation and supination 2. supination and flexion 3. flexion and extension 4. extension and pronation

3. flexion and extension

The superficial anterior flexor muscles consist of all of the following except _____________. 1.flexor digitorum superficialis 2. flexor carpi ulnaris 3. flexor pollicis longus 4.palmarislongus

3. flexor pollicis longus

Identify the superficial posterior muscle that acts on the ankle and foot from the following: 1.tibialis posterior 2. flexor digitorum longus 3. gastrocnemius 4.flexor hallucis longus

3. gastrocnemius

The tendons of all four muscles of the rotator cuff combine at the _____________. 1. coranoid process 2. radial tuberosity 3. humeral head 4. scapula

3. humeral head

The fibularis longus muscle inserts on the _____________. 1. head of the fibula 2. base of metatarsal 5 3. medial cuneiform of metatarsal 1 4. lateral surface of the tibia

3. medial cuneiform of metatarsal 1

The most powerful movement of the ankle is _____________. 1. eversion 2. inversion 3. plantar flexion 4. dorsiflexion

3. plantar flexion

Arguably, the most powerful muscle in the body is the _____________. 1.sartorius 2. adductor magnus 3. quadriceps femoris 4. popliteus

3. quadriceps femoris

The interosseous membrane is located between the _____________. 1. humerus and radius 2. humerus and ulna 3. radius and ulna 4. ulna and the bones of the wrist

3. radius and ulna

Which muscle is not considered a prime mover of the shoulder joint? 1. deltoid 2. latissimus dorsi 3. teres major 4. pectoralis major

3. teres major

Which bony marking is correctly paired with its description? 1.Fissure; depression 2.Facet; opening 3.Tuberosity; process formed where tendons or ligaments attach 4.Spine; process formed for articulation with adjacent bones

3..Tuberosity; process formed where tendons or ligaments attach

A deficiency of albumin in plasma contributes to __. 1.A decrease in the ability for blood to clot 2.A decrease in the ability to fight infection 3.A decrease in osmotic pressure and decrease in transport of fatty acids 4.A decrease in transport of hormone binding proteins and steroid binding proteins

3.A decrease in osmotic pressure and decrease in transport of fatty acids

If Sarah has surface antigen A on her RBCs, what blood type does she have? What type of antibodies are in her plasma? 1.O/Anti-A and Anti-B 2.B/Anti-A 3.A/Anti-B AB/None

3.A/Anti-B

A patient with low iron levels would experience which of the following symptoms? 1.An increased white blood cell count 2.An increase in energy level 3.An increase in fatigue 4.A decreased white blood cell count

3.An increase in fatigue

What accounts for males' HCT (~46) being higher than females' HCT (~42)? 1.Males are larger than females. 2.Females' RBCs are smaller than males' RBCs. 3.Androgens stimulate RBC production. 4.Estrogens breakdown RBCs at a faster rate than they are produced.

3.Androgens stimulate RBC production.

After Terry injured his elbow, he noticed a large degree of motion between the radius and the ulna at the elbow. Which ligament did Terry damage? 1.Radial collateral ligaments 2.Ulnar collateral ligaments 3.Annular ligament 4.Interosseus membrane

3.Annular ligament

Antihistamines counter the actions of which white blood cells? 1.Neutrophils 2.Lymphocytes 3.Basophils 4.Eosinophils

3.Basophils

Why does a child who has rickets have difficulty walking? 1.Joints become fused, preventing movement. 2.Bones are brittle and break under body weight. 3.Bones are flexible and bend under body weight. Motor skills are impaired.

3.Bones are flexible and bend under body weight.

What characteristics do typical synarthrotic and amphiarthrotic joints share? 1.Joint capsules filled with fluids 2.Non-restricted movement of bony regions 3.Bony regions separated by fibrous connective tissue 4.Articular cartilages and bursae

3.Bony regions separated by fibrous connective tissue

The fibula neither participates in the knee joint nor bears weight. When it is fractured, however, walking becomes difficult. Why? 1.Fibula helps stabilize the ankle joint. 2.Fibula attaches many leg muscles. 3.Both 1 and 2. 4.None of the above.

3.Both 1 and 2.

Why doesn't a clot fill the entire vasculature system once it has started forming? 1.Rapid blood flow washes away and dilutes activated clotting factors. 2.Thrombin is inactivated by antithrombin III if it enters the general circulation. 3.Both 1and 2 occur. 4.Neither 1 nor 2 occurs.

3.Both 1and 2 occur.

How is the pelvis of females adapted for childbearing? 1.Narrow pubic angle 2.Greater curvature on sacrum 3.Broad, low pelvis 4.Oval pelvic inlet

3.Broad, low pelvis

Which of the following is not a factor that stabilizes joints? 1.Articular surfaces 2.Muscle tone 3.Bursae 4.Ligaments

3.Bursae

The levator ani and __________ muscles form the pelvic diaphragm. 1.ischiocavernosus 2.bulbospongiosus 3.coccygeus 4.gluteus maximus

3.coccygeus

A balance between which two hormones is essential for maintaining calcium homeostasis? 1.Calcitrol and parathyroid hormone 2.Calcitrol and thyroxine 3.Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone 4.Growth hormone and sex hormones

3.Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone

In endochondral ossification, what is the original source of osteoblasts? 1.De novo synthesis 2.Cells brought via the nutrient artery 3.Cells of the inner layer of the perichondrium 4.Chondrocytes from the original model

3.Cells of the inner layer of the perichondrium

The pectoral girdle consists of the ___ and ____? 1.Scapulae and humerus 2.Clavicles, humerus, and sternum 3.Clavicles and scapulae 4.Only the scapulae

3.Clavicles and scapulae

Bones of the axial skeleton have all of the following functions except _____? 1.Protect brain and spinal cord 2.Provide surface area for attachment of respiratory muscles 3.Contain medullary cavities with yellow bone marrow 4.Protect organs of the ventral body cavity

3.Contain medullary cavities with yellow bone marrow

Why is osteoporosis more common in older women than in older men? 1.Testosterone levels decline in post-menopausal women. 2.Older women tend to be more sedentary than older men. 3.Declining estrogen levels lead to decreased calcium deposition. 4.In males, androgens increase with age.

3.Declining estrogen levels lead to decreased calcium deposition.

Which of the following is true about origins and insertions of skeletal muscles? 1.The fixed end of a muscle is its insertion. 2.The origin is typically distal or lateral to the insertion. 3.During contraction, the insertion moves toward the origin. 4.A muscle with a broad aponeurosis on one end does not have a true origin.

3.During contraction, the insertion moves toward the origin.

The sphenoid bone contains all of the following openings except? 1.Optic canals 2.Superior orbital fissures 3.External auditory meatus 4.Foramen ovale

3.External auditory meatus

What contributions from the Extrinsic and Intrinsic Pathways help form the enzyme complex necessary to begin the Common Pathway? 1.Factors VIII and IX from the Extrinsic pathway/ factor VII from the Intrinsic pathway 2.Factor III from the Extrinsic pathway/factor XII from the Intrinsic pathway 3.Factor VII from the Extrinsic pathway/factors VIII and IX from the Intrinsic pathway 4.None of the above is correct

3.Factor VII from the Extrinsic pathway/factors VIII and IX from the Intrinsic pathway

Which of the following correctly lists the three structural types of joints? 1.Bony, cartilaginous, immovable 2.Synarthrotic, diarthrotic, amphiarthrotic 3.Fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial 4.Sutures, syndesmoses, gomphoses

3.Fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial

Inflammation of connective tissue between the _____ and carpal bones causes what condition? 1.Deltoid tuberosity/congenital talipes equinovarus 2.Interosseous membrane/flat feet 3.Flexor retinaculum/carpal tunnel syndrome 4.Extensor retinaculum/carpal tunnel syndrome

3.Flexor retinaculum/carpal tunnel syndrome

When you are seated, which part of the pelvis bears your body's weight? 1.Obturator foramen 2.Posterior inferior iliac spines 3.Ischial tuberosities 4.Pubic tubercle

3.Ischial tuberosities

Monocytes transform into ____ in tissues, where they ____. 1.Basophils/exacerbate inflammation 2.Plasma cells/synthesize and release antibodies 3.Macrophages/are phagocytic and release chemicals that attract neutrophils 4.Natural killer cells/detect and destroy abnormal tissue cells

3.Macrophages/are phagocytic and release chemicals that attract neutrophils

Which of the following functions of the skeletal system would be considered a "metabolic function"? 1.Protection 2.Support 3.Mineral storage 4.Movement

3.Mineral storage

The proximal radioulnar joint and the atlas/axis joint are similar in that they are both ______? 1.Biaxial saddle joints 2.Biaxial ellipsoidal joints 3.Monaxial pivot joints 4.Non-axial gliding joints

3.Monaxial pivot joints

Predict what would happen to muscles if a pesticide that inhibits acetylcholinesterase were present at the motor end plate. 1.Muscle would lose strength. 2.Muscle would be unable to contract. 3.Muscle would lock in a state of contraction. 4.Muscle would contract repeatedly.

3.Muscle would lock in a state of contraction.

Which of the following components accounts for the bulk of muscle fiber volume (up to 80%)? 1.Glycosomes 2.Mitochondria 3.Myofibrils Sarcoplasm

3.Myofibrils

How would severing the tendon attached to a muscle affect the muscle's ability to move a body part? 1.Uncontrolled movement would result from a severed tendon. 2.Movement would be greatly exaggerated with no tendon. 3.No movement is possible without a muscle to bone connection. 4.Limited movement would result.

3.No movement is possible without a muscle to bone connection.

All of the following except _____ is a major function of blood. 1.Transport of dissolved gases, nutrients and hormones 2.Stabilization of body temperature 3.Provides storage for calcium ions 4.Defense against toxins and pathogens

3.Provides storage for calcium ions

Red blood cells are efficient oxygen transport cells. Of the following characteristics, which is the major contributor to the significant oxygen-carrying capacity of a red blood cell? 1.Red blood cells lack mitochondria. 2.Red blood cells don't divide. 3.Red blood cells are biconcave discs. 4.Red blood cells contain myoglobin.

3.Red blood cells are biconcave discs.

Tomás suffers a blow to the skull that fractures the right superior lateral surface of his cranium. Which bone is fractured? 1.Frontal bone 2.Right temporal bone 3.Right parietal bone 4.Ethmoid

3.Right parietal bone

Myofibrils are organized into repeating subunits called ____? 1.T-Tubules 2.Z lines 3.Sarcomeres 4.Sarcoplasmic reticulum

3.Sarcomeres

What structure of the scapula divides its posterior surface into two regions? 1.Acromion process 2.Coracoid process 3.Scapular spine Supraspinous fossa

3.Scapular spine

Of the following muscles of the wrist and fingers, which muscle is considered a deep anterior flexor? 1. flexor digitorum superficialis 2. flexor carpi ulnaris 3. palmaris longus 4. flexor pollicis longus

4. flexor pollicis longus

Why would a sprinter experience muscle fatigue before a marathon runner? 1.Marathon running uses ATP for only a short time, while sprinting uses ATP indefinitely. 2.Marathon runners muscles depend on stored glycogen, therefore they do not fatigue. 3.Sprinting involves anaerobic endurance, whereas running a marathon depends more upon availability of substrates for aerobic respiration. 4.None of these is correct.

3.Sprinting involves anaerobic endurance, whereas running a marathon depends more upon availability of substrates for aerobic respiration.

Which of the nasal conchae are part of the ethmoid bone? 1.Superior, middle, and inferior nasal conchae 2.Lateral and medial nasal conchae 3.Superior and middle nasal conchae 4.None of these is correct

3.Superior and middle nasal conchae

When someone has "slipped a disc" of the vertebral column, which type of joint is disrupted? 1.Synchondrosis 2.Suture 3.Symphysis 4.The connections between the vertebrae are not examples of joints.

3.Symphysis

Joints are classified functionally as _____, based upon _____? 1.Sutures, gomphoses, or synchondroses/location 2.Cartilaginous, fibrous or synovial/material binding the joint 3.Synarthroses, amphiarthroses, or diarthroses/amount of movement 4.Monaxial, biaxial, or triaxial/number of planes of movement

3.Synarthroses, amphiarthroses, or diarthroses/amount of movement

Which of these characteristics is NOT a component of synovial joints ___? 1.Ends of opposing bones covered by articular cartilage 2.Joint cavity enclosed by an articular capsule 3.Synovial membrane made of dense regular connective tissue 4.Synovial fluid

3.Synovial membrane made of dense regular connective tissue

What response would you expect after traveling to high altitude for two weeks? 1.Blood levels of oxygen would remain depressed for the duration. 2.A surge in iron release from the liver would occur. 3.The kidneys would secrete elevated amounts of erythropoietin. 4.There would be no change in blood composition.

3.The kidneys would secrete elevated amounts of erythropoietin.

Why does the vertebral column of an adult have fewer vertebrae than that of a newborn? 1.Vertebrae are absorbed as adult stature is reached. 2.Newborns require more support in the cervical region. 3.The sacrum and coccyx fuse post-puberty. 4.Vertebrae are formed that later become ribs.

3.The sacrum and coccyx fuse post-puberty.

On which bone would you find a medial malleolus? 1.The talus 2.The fibula 3.The tibia 4.The femur

3.The tibia

All of the following except ____ are characteristics of all types of WBCs. 1.They can leave capillaries by diapedesis 2.They are capable of amoeboid movement 3.They are phagocytic 4.They are attracted to specific chemical stimuli

3.They are phagocytic

Which class of lever is flexing the forearm with the biceps brachii? 1.First class 2.Second class 3.Third class 4.Fourth class

3.Third class

Why are the bodies of the lumbar vertebrae so large? 1.They develop first and therefore have longer to grow. 2.To provide more flexibility. 3.To distribute weight over a larger area. 4.To provide greater protection to the lumbar spinal nerves.

3.To distribute weight over a larger area.

Why can't a person with Type A blood safely receive blood from a person with Type B blood? 1.Mixing blood types causes infections in the recipient. 2.The anti-A antibodies in Type A's plasma would react with Type B's donated blood. 3.Type B blood would agglutinate in the recipients blood vessels and plug small vessels to vital organs. All of the above are correct.

3.Type B blood would agglutinate in the recipients blood vessels and plug small vessels to vital organs.

Electrical coupling by gap junctions is present in: 1.Multi unit smooth muscle 2.Skeletal muscle 3.Unitary smooth muscle 4.Bi-unit smooth muscle

3.Unitary smooth muscle

If someone hit you in your rectus abdominis muscle, how would your body position change? 1.You would lean to the right. 2.You would bend backward. 3.You would double over. 4.You would twist to the left.

3.You would double over.

In what ways does the appearance of a sarcomere change during contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber? 1.Zones of overlap get larger; H. Zone gets wider; A bands shorten 2.Titin molecules are relaxed; M. Line disappears 3.Z. Lines move closer together; I bands and H. Zones get smaller 4.None of these is correct

3.Z. Lines move closer together; I bands and H. Zones get smaller

An elevated neutrophil count would be indicative of __________. 1.an allergic reaction 2.a cancer 3.an acute bacterial infection 4.a parasitic infection

3.an acute bacterial infection

At the neuromuscular junction, the muscle contraction initiation event is __________. 1.a release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum 2.conduction of an electrical impulse down the T tubules 3.binding of acetylcholine to membrane receptors on the sarcolemma 4.sliding of actin and myosin filaments past each other

3.binding of acetylcholine to membrane receptors on the sarcolemma

Doing pull-ups with the palms facing anteriorly effectively exercises the __________ muscles of the arm. 1.triceps brachii 2.anconeus 3.brachialis 4.pronator teres

3.brachialis

Damage to the external intercostal muscles would interfere with what important process? 1.standing upright 2.walking 3.breathing 4.digesting

3.breathing

Much of the friction associated with synovial joints is reduced by the presence of ______. 1.tendons 2.fatty pads 3.bursae 4.fibrous capsules

3.bursae

A major difference between smooth muscle fibers and skeletal muscle fibers in terms of calcium influx is that __________. 1.smooth muscle fibers have a sarcoplasmic reticulum 2.calcium ions are stored in the sarcoplasm of smooth muscle 3.calcium ion influx occurs mostly from the extracellular fluid in smooth muscle 4.smooth muscle contraction does not involve calcium

3.calcium ion influx occurs mostly from the extracellular fluid in smooth muscle

Lyme disease is ______. 1.due to the accumulation of urate crystals 2.a chronic inflammatory disease with an insidious onset 3.caused by a bacterium 4.a chronic degenerative condition

3.caused by a bacterium

What specific facts can you tell me about the extensor digitorum longus, even if you don't know the muscle? It is a muscle that....? 1.flexes at a joint, probably moves the elbow joint, and it is short. 2.extends at a joint, probably moves the knee joint, and it is feather-like. 3.extends at a joint, probably moves a finger or toe joint, and it is long. 4.abducts at a joint, probably moves the hip joint, and it is large.

3.extends at a joint, probably moves a finger or toe joint, and it is long.

The anterior compartment contains the _____________ 1.fibularis tertius muscle but not the extensor hallucis longus muscle 2.extensor digitorum longus muscle but not the tibialis anterior muscle 3.extensor digitorum longus muscle and the extensor hallucis longus muscle 4.fibularis tertius muscle but not the tibialis anterior muscle

3.extensor digitorum longus muscle and the extensor hallucis longus muscle

All bones formed via intramembranous ossification are ________ bones. 1.long 2.short 3.flat 4.irregular

3.flat

Which two movements would injury to the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle impair? 1.flexion and abduction of the fingers 2.flexion and extension of the wrist 3.flexion and adduction of the wrist flexion and circumduction of the fing

3.flexion and adduction of the wrist

What feature of cardiac muscle tissue allows the heart to act as a functional syncytium? 1.striations 2.intercalated discs 3.gap junctions 4.short T tubules without triads

3.gap junctions

Oxygen binds to the __________ portion of hemoglobin. 1.globin 2.oxyhemoglobin 3.iron atom 4.amino acid

3.iron atom

The most important function of the rotator cuff muscles is to _____________. 1.provide angular rotation of the humerus 2.medially rotate the scapula 3.keep the humeral head centered within the glenoidal cavity 4.assist the deltoid muscle during abduction

3.keep the humeral head centered within the glenoidal cavity

A __________ is the progenitor of platelets. 1.thrombopoietin 2.thrombocyte 3.megakaryocyte 4.thrombocytoblast

3.megakaryocyte

A muscle with multipennate fibers would have ___ when compared to a similarly sized muscle with parallel fibers? 1.less range of motion and be weaker 2.the same range of motion, larger fibers, and contract more slowly 3.more fibers, shorten very little, and be more powerful 4.longer fibers, a longer range of motion, and attach obliquely to a central tendon

3.more fibers, shorten very little, and be more powerful

How would a torn calcaneal tendon affect movement of the foot? What muscle(s) is/are the antagonist(s) of the muscles that pull on the calcaneal tendon? 1.no dorsiflexion; tibialis anterior muscle 2.no dorsiflexion; soleus and gastrocnemius muscles 3.no plantar flexion; tibialis anterior muscle 4.no plantar flexion; soleus and gastrocnemius muscles

3.no plantar flexion; tibialis anterior muscle

You could conclude that a muscle with the term "rectus" included in its name is a muscle whose fibers run __________ to the body's vertical axis. 1.at a right angle 2.obliquely 3.parallel 4.perpendicular

3.parallel

All four heads of the quadriceps femoris muscle form a single insertion at three locations of the tibia: _____________. 1.tibial tuberosity, tibial crest, linea aspera 2.patella, superior margin, lateral condyles 3.patella, the tibial tuberosity, medial condyles 4.patella, linea aspera, tibial tuberosity

3.patella, the tibial tuberosity, medial condyles

Which muscle is paired correctly with its fascicle arrangement? 1.extensor digitorum/parallel 2.biceps brachii/bipennate 3.pectoralis major/convergent 4.orbicularis oris/unipennate

3.pectoralis major/convergent

The prime mover of pronation is the __________. 1.brachioradialis 2.palmaris longus 3.pronator quadratus 4.supinator

3.pronator quadratus

Muscles of the forearm that function in pronation and supination are the _____________. 1.pronator quadratus and pronator teres only 2.pronator quadratus only 3.pronator quadratus, pronator teres, and supinator 4.supinator only

3.pronator quadratus, pronator teres, and supinator

A disease caused by vitamin D deficiency in children is termed ________. 1.Paget's disease 2.osteoporosis 3.rickets 4.osteomalacia

3.rickets

The most flexible joint in the body is the_____________. 1.elbow joint 2.wrist joint 3.shoulder joint 4.hip joint

3.shoulder joint

An adult male is donating red bone marrow to determine if he is a match to a leukemia patient. Most likely, the doctor will collect the bone marrow from his ____________. 1.femoral diaphysis 2.humeral diaphysis 3.sternum 4.skull

3.sternum

During a muscle contraction, the sliding filament theory would be apparent in a sarcomere because __________. 1.the I bands get longer 2.the A bands get shorter 3.the H zone becomes less obvious and the Z discs move closer together 4.the Z discs get pulled closer to the I bands and the H zone becomes more obvious

3.the H zone becomes less obvious and the Z discs move closer together

The angle of the subscapularis muscle prevents _____________. 1.lateral rotation of the humeral head in the glenoid cavity 2.medial rotation of the humeral head in the glenoid cavity 3.the humeral head from sliding upward out of the joint as the arm is raised 4.the humeral head from sliding downward when carrying weight

3.the humeral head from sliding upward out of the joint as the arm is raised

The prime movers of hip flexion are the _____________. 1. iliacus muscle 2. psoas major muscle 3. adductor magnus 4. 1 and 2 5. 1 and 3

4) 1 and 2

The major function of the most common plasma protein, albumin, is __________. 1.maintenance of plasma osmotic pressure 2.buffering changes in plasma pH 3.fighting foreign invaders 4.both 1and 2

4) both 1and 2

All of the deep posterior extensor muscles have origin sites on the radius except for the _____________. 1. Abductor pollicis longus 2. Extensor pollicis brevis 3. Extensor pollicis longus 4. Extensor indicis

4. Extensor indicis

The prime mover of wrist extension is _____________. 1. extensor carpi radialis longus 2. extensor carpi radialis brevis 3. extensor carpi ulnaris 4. extensor digitorum

4. extensor digitorum

How are epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium interrelated? 1.All three surround skeletal muscle fibers 2.All three contain capillaries and nerves 3.All three contain satellite cells that function in the repair of muscle tissue 4.All three unite at the ends of skeletal muscles to form tendons

4.All three unite at the ends of skeletal muscles to form tendons

Several openings occur within the temporal bone for the passage of structures. Which of the following is correct? 1.Foramen magnum/medulla oblongata and hypoglossal canals/hypoglossal nerves 2.Hypoglossal canals/hypoglossal nerve and jugular foramen/glossopharyngeal, vagus and accessory nerves 3.Foramen lacerum/small arteries and jugular foramen/jugular vein 4.Carotid canal/internal carotid artery and stylomastoid foramen/facial nerve

4.Carotid canal/internal carotid artery and stylomastoid foramen/facial nerve

Why would a broken clavicle affect the mobility of the scapula? 1.Muscles attach the clavicle to the scapula. 2.Clavicle is attached to the sternum which is attached to the scapula. 3.Clavicle attaches the scapula to the humerus. 4.Clavicle articulates with the scapula, restricting its movement.

4.Clavicle articulates with the scapula, restricting its movement.

Which of the following muscular functions serves a metabolic function? 1.Movement 2.Posture maintenance 3.Joint stabilization 4.Heat generation

4.Heat generation

Where would you expect the greatest concentration of Ca2+ in resting skeletal muscle to be? 1.In T. Tubules 2.Surrounding the mitochondria 3.Within sarcomeres 4.In cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum

4.In cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum

What is the nature of and purpose of surface antigens on RBCs? 1.Glycoproteins in the cytoplasm/substances that your body recognizes as foreign 2.Receptor proteins/they aid the entry of oxygen to RBCs 3.Peripheral proteins/they trigger an immune response 4.Integral membrane glycoproteins or glycolipids/ substances your immune system recognizes as "normal"

4.Integral membrane glycoproteins or glycolipids/ substances your immune system recognizes as "normal"

Why can swallowing help alleviate the pressure sensations at the eardrum (tympanic membrane) when you are in an airplane that is changing altitude? 1.It prevents movement of the uvula. 2.It causes a shift in inner ear structures. 3.It moves the eardrum (tympanic membrane). 4.It enlarges the auditory tube opening

4.It enlarges the auditory tube opening

A sample of bone has lamellae, which are not arranged in osteons. Is this sample from the epiphysis or diaphysis? 1.It is from the diaphysis. 2.It is from the medullary cavity of a long bone. 3.It could be from either epiphysis or diaphysis. 4.It is from the epiphysis.

4.It is from the epiphysis.

Which of the following is not a prefix used to refer to muscle? 1.Mys 2.Myo 3.Sarco 4.Lemma

4.Lemma

If the activity of osteoclasts exceeds the activity of osteoblasts in a bone, how will the mass of the bone be affected? 1.Stable mass, but re-positioned matrix 2.Mass will not be affected 3.More mass 4.Less mass

4.Less mass

Which tissues or structures provide most of the stability for the shoulder joint? 1.Bone and adipose 2.Tendons and bones 3.Joint capsules and muscles 4.Ligaments and muscles

4.Ligaments and muscles

In which organ are most plasma proteins synthesized? 1.Spleen 2.Bone marrow 3.Kidneys 4.Liver

4.Liver

Which bone contains the mental foramen and what structures use that passageway? 1.Parietal/none 2.Occipital/hypoglossal nerves 3.Temporal/internal carotid artery 4.Mandible/mental nerves

4.Mandible/mental nerves

When you bite down on an ice cube, this muscle strongly contracts. 1.Lateral pterygoid 2.Buccinator 3.Hyoglossus 4.Masseter

4.Masseter

Which of these bones form parts of the orbital complex and also contain paranasal sinuses? 1.Sphenoid, frontal, maxillary and lacrimal bones 2.Zygomatic, lacrimal, frontal and palatine bones 3.Palatine, temporal, ethmoid and zygomatic bones 4.Maxillary, sphenoid, frontal, and ethmoid bones

4.Maxillary, sphenoid, frontal, and ethmoid bones

Which structures participate in the knee joint? 1.Medial and lateral epicondyles 2.Fibula and tibia 3.Patella and gluteal tuberosity 4.Medial and lateral condyles of the femur

4.Medial and lateral condyles of the femur

Why are cardiac and smooth muscle contractions more affected by changes in extracellular Ca2+ than are skeletal muscle contractions? 1.Extracellular Ca2+ inhibits actin. 2.Cross-bridges are formed extracellularly. 3.Most calcium for contractions comes from SR stores. 4.Most calcium for contractions comes from extracellular fluid.

4.Most calcium for contractions comes from extracellular fluid.

Which of the following correctly describes differences between the male and female pelvis? 1.The female pelvis is heart shaped and deeper 2.The acetabulum of the male faces slightly anteriorly 3.The pubic angle of the male pelvis is >100o 4.None of these is correct

4.None of these is correct

What is the preferred choice for restoring blood volume? 1.Purified human serum albumin 2.Hetastarch 3.Dextran 4.Normal saline

4.Normal saline

Which of the following is not a type of bone cell? 1.Osteoblast 2.Osteoclast 3.Osteocyte 4.Osteoclasp

4.Osteoclasp

When you run your finger along a person's spine, what part of the vertebrae are you feeling just beneath the skin? 1.Superior articular processes 2.Pedicles 3.Transverse processes 4.Spinous processes

4.Spinous processes

Improper administration of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) can result in a fracture of which bone(s)? 1.Cervical vertebra and ribs 2.Thoracic vertebra and ribs 3.Sternum and thoracic vertebra 4.Sternum and ribs

4.Sternum and ribs

How would the strength of a bone be affected if the ratio of collagen to hydroxyapatite increased? 1.Strength increases, flexibility increases. 2.Strength increases, flexibility decreases. 3.Strength decreases, flexibility decreases. 4.Strength decreases, flexibility increases.

4.Strength decreases, flexibility increases.

Which of the following joints is a site of long bone growth? 1.Symphysis 2.Ball and socket 3.Gomphosis 4.Synchondrosis

4.Synchondrosis

In a newborn infant, the large bones of the skull are joined by fibrous connective tissue. Which type of joints are these? The bones later grow, interlock, and form immovable joints. Which type of joints are these? 1.Synarthrosis; gomphosis 2.Symphysis; sutural 3.Synchondrosis; synostosis 4.Syndesmosis; sutural

4.Syndesmosis; sutural

Which of the following synovial joint components is responsible for secreting synovial fluid? 1.Articular cartilage 2.Synovial cavity 3.Articular capsule 4.Synovial membrane

4.Synovial membrane

Which foot bone transmits the weight of the body from the tibia toward the toes? 1.Calcaneus 2.Navicular bone 3.Cuboid bone 4.Talus

4.Talus

The elastic components of muscle consist of which elements? 1.Tendon, epimysium, muscle fiber 2.Bone, perimysium, blood vessel 3.Fascicle, bone, blood vessel 4.Tendon, epimysium, perimysium, endomysium

4.Tendon, epimysium, perimysium, endomysium

What is the significance of the muscle fiber triad relationship? 1.The terminal cisternae subdivide the sarcolemma. 2.The T tubules bring calcium to the sarcoplasmic reticulum. 3.The sarcoplasmic reticulum transfers calcium to the T tubules. 4.The T tubules conduct electrical impulses that stimulate calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

4.The T tubules conduct electrical impulses that stimulate calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

What is excitation-contraction coupling and where does it occur? 1.The same as rigor mortis/in the SR 2.Pivoting of myosin heads/cross-bridges 3.The release of ACh/at motor end plates 4.The link between generation of an action potential and the start of muscle contraction/at triads

4.The link between generation of an action potential and the start of muscle contraction/at triads

Which of the following is not true of platelets? 1.They are packets of cytoplasm produced from megakaryocytes. 2.They release chemicals important to clotting. 3.Their formation is stimulated by thrombopoietin. 4.There are about 3.5 million platelets in a microliter of blood.

4.There are about 3.5 million platelets in a microliter of blood.

Which hormone is correctly paired with its function? 1.Calcitonin/stimulates osteoclast activity 2.PTH/reduces calcium ion concentration of body fluids 3.Calcitrol/inhibits calcium and phosphate ion absorption along the digestive tract 4.Thyroxine/stimulates osteoblast activity

4.Thyroxine/stimulates osteoblast activity

A local coroner determined that the unidentified skeleton found last week was that of a weight lifter because the muscle attachment sites were much thicker than in a normal person. This phenomenon is known as _______. 1.calcitonin metabolism 2.the weight lifter law 3.bone resorption 4.Wolff's law

4.Wolff's law

This muscle is the primary muscle used in smiling. 1.Mentalis 2.Platysma 3.Orbicularis oculi 4.Zygomaticus

4.Zygomaticus

The site where two or more bones meet is called a(n) ______. 1.cartilage connection site 2.alignment site 3.auriculation site 4.articulation site

4.articulation site

Adjacent osteocytes communicate via gap junctions found within ________. 1.lacunae 2.Volkmann's canals 3.Haversian canals 4.canaliculi

4.canaliculi

Which type of fascicle arrangement is typical of muscles guarding the opening to the anus and surrounding the eye? 1.convergent muscle 2.multipennate muscle 3.parallel muscle 4.circular muscle (sphincter)

4.circular muscle (sphincter)

Sprinters typically possess more __________ muscle fibers. 1.slow glycolytic 2.fast glycolytic 3.slow oxidative 4.fast oxidative

4.fast oxidative

A muscle that immobilizes a bone, or a muscle's origin so that the prime mover has a stable base in which to act is called a __________. 1.secondary stabilizer 2.antagonist 3.synergist 4.fixator

4.fixator

The ________ muscles comprise the triceps surae that inserts onto the calcaneal tendon and are prime movers of plantar flexion. 1.plantaris and popliteus 2.soleus and tibialis anterior 3.gastrocnemius and tibialis posterior 4.gastrocnemius and soleus

4.gastrocnemius and soleus

The gluteus maximus muscle originates on all the following sites except the _____________. 1.dorsal ilium 2. sacrum 3. coccyx 4.gluteal tuberosity

4.gluteal tuberosity

Which thigh movement would be impaired by injury to the obturator muscle? 1.flexion at the hip 2.adduction at the hip 3.medial rotation at the hip 4.lateral rotation at the hip

4.lateral rotation at the hip

Swimmers tend to have particularly well-developed __________ muscles. 1.coracobrachialis 2.teres minor 3.subscapularis 4.latissimus dorsi

4.latissimus dorsi

Bones and muscles work together to move your body. In this case one bone is the ______ and a second bone is the ______. 1.fulcrum; lever 2.lever; pulley 3.pulley; load 4.lever; load

4.lever; load

Isometric contractions come into play when an individual is __________. 1.jumping 2.walking uphill 3.moving a heavy object 4.maintaining an upright posture

4.maintaining an upright posture

The greatest degree of motion that synovial joints display is described as ______. 1.nonaxial movement 2.uniaxial movement 3.biaxial movement 4.multiaxial movement

4.multiaxial movement

Athletes occasionally suffer a "pulled hamstring". This phrase refers to damage to which muscles? 1.biceps femoris, gracilis, and adductor magnus 2.rectus femoris, vastus lateralis and vastus medialis 3.sartorius, gracilis and rectus femoris 4.semitendinosus, biceps femoris, and semimembranosus muscle

4.semitendinosus, biceps femoris, and semimembranosus muscle

The __________ muscles are antagonistic to each other when moving the scapula forward and backward. 1.pectoralis major and subclavius 2.latissimus dorsi and rhomboid 3.pectoralis minor and serratus anterior 4.serratus anterior and trapezius

4.serratus anterior and trapezius

The rotator cuff is formed from ___ muscles and is commonly injured by __. 1.rhomboid major and minor, teres major and minor muscles/piano players 2.teres major, teres minor and serratus anterior muscles/golfers 3.rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus intermedius, and vastus medialis/quarterbacks 4.supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, and teres minor muscles/baseball pitchers

4.supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, and teres minor muscles/baseball pitchers

An example of a projection on a bone that is a site of muscle or ligament attachment is a ___________. 1.meatus 2.head 3.condyle 4.trochanter

4.trochanter

There are ~280 million Hb molecules in one RBC. A single Hb molecule carries ___ molecule(s) of O2, which means that a single RBC carries about ____ O2 molecules. 1.1/280 million 2.8/2 billion 3.2/1 million 4. 4/1 billion

4/1 billion

When the hip is already flexed, abduction requires the addition of _____________ more muscle(s). 1. one 2. two 3. three 4. four 5. five

5. five

The four heads of the quadriceps femoris muscle include all of the following except the _____________. 1.vastus medialis 2. vastus lateralis 3. vastus intermedius 4. rectus femoris 5. sartorius

5. sartorius

What symptoms would you expect to see in an individual who has damaged the menisci of the knee joint? 1.Difficulty in locking the knee 2.Inability to stabilize the joint 3.Pain in the knee area 4.All of the above

All of the above

Which regions of the vertebral column do not contain intervertebral discs? Why is the absence of discs significant? 1.Between sacral vertebrae; these vertebrae are fused. 2.Between coccygeal vertebrae; these vertebrae are fused. 3.Between the atlas and the axis; a disc would prevent rotation. 4.All of the above are correct.

All of the above are correct.

Why is venipuncture a common technique for obtaining a blood sample? 1.Blood pressure is relatively low in veins. 2.Superficial veins are easy to locate. 3.Venous walls are thinner than arterial walls. 4.All of the above are correct.

All of the above are correct.

What are the main differences between vertebrosternal and vertebrochondral ribs? 1.Vertebrosternal ribs attach to the sternum by their own costal cartilages. 2.Vertebrochondral ribs' costal cartilage fuse and merge with cartilages from rib 7 3.Vertebrosternal ribs increase in curvature and length from 1-7. 4.All of the above are true.

All of the above are true.

A child who enters puberty several years later than the average age is generally taller than average as an adult. Why? 1.Epiphyseal plates fuse during puberty. 2.Bone growth continues throughout childhood. 3.Growth spurts usually occur at the onset of puberty. 4.All of the above.

All of the above.

After spending an afternoon carrying heavy boxes from his basement to his attic, Joe complains that the muscles in his back hurt. Which muscle(s) is/are most likely sore? 1.erector spinae muscles 2.latissimus dorsi 3.trapezius 4.Both 1 and 2

Both 1 and 2

Theoretically, contraction would not occur if: 1.Z discs contact the thick myofilaments 2.Actin and myosin filaments do not overlap 3.Both a and b 4.Neither a or b

Both a and b

Growth of cartilage from within cartilage is termed ________. a)interstitial growth b)remodeling c)appositional growth d)endochondral growth

a)interstitial growth

The most important characteristic for designating a bone as a long bone is _________. a)its elongated shape b)its total length c)its length relative to other bones d)its location in the body

a)its elongated shape

The psoas major muscle originates on the _____________. 1.bodies of the vertebrae T12 through L5 2. transverse process of all lumbar vertebrae 3. iliac crest of the pelvis 4. pelvic fossa 5.both 1 and 2

both 1 and 2

A hematopoietic stem cell will give rise to __________. 1.erythrocytes 2.leukocytes 3.platelets 4.all of the above

all of the above

The anterior scapular muscles include the _____________ muscle(s). 1.coracobrachialis 2.biceps brachii 3.deltoid 4.all of the above

all of the above

The deep fascia separates the lower leg muscles into a(n) _____________. 1. anterior compartment 2. lateral compartment 3. posterior compartment 4. a and b only 5. all of the above

all of the above

The hamstring muscle(s) consist of the _____________. 1. biceps femoris 2. semimembranosus 3. semitendinosus 4. all of the above

all of the above

The prime movers of wrist flexion are the _____________. 1. flexor carpi radialis 2. flexor carpi ulnaris 3. flexor digitorum superficialis 4. a and b only 5. all of the above

all of the above

The principal neurotransmitter of skeletal muscle is acetylcholine. The major neurotransmitter(s) of smooth muscle is (are) _______. 1.acetylcholine 2.epinephrine 3.norepinephrine 4.all of the above

all of the above

Fibrocartilage would be found at which location? a)Elbow b)Knee c)Larynx d)External ear

b)Knee

The supinator muscle originates on the _____________. 1. proximal one-third of the radius 2. lateral epicondyle of the humerus only 3. supinator crest only 4. both 1 and 2

both 1 and 2

Anterior muscles of the pectoral girdle include the _____________. 1. pectoralis minor 2. serratus anterior 3. pectoralis major 4. both 1 and 2 5. both 2 and 3

both 1 and 2

The lateral compartment of muscles that act on the ankle and foot contains the _____________. 1. fibularis brevis muscle 2. fibularis longus muscle 3. fibularis tertius muscle 4. both 1 and 2 5. both 2 and 3

both 1 and 2

What would you expect to happen to a resting skeletal muscle if the sarcolemma suddenly became very permeable to Ca2+? 1.increased strength of contraction 2.decreased cross bridge formation 3.decreased ability to relax 4.both 1 and 3

both 1 and 3

The iliacus muscle originates on the _____________. 1. bodies of the vertebrae T12 through L5 2. transverse process of all lumbar vertebrae 3. iliac crest of the pelvis 4. pelvic fossa 5. both 3 and 4

both 3 and 4

The most common joint injuries include ________. 1.sprains 2.dislocations 3.cartilage injuries 4.both a and b

both a and b

The serratus anterior muscle is associated with which of the following scapular movement(s)? 1. protraction 2. retraction 3. depression 4. elevation 5. both a and c

both a and c

The terms "long," "short," "flat," and "irregular" are used to classify bones based on their ________. a)tissue content b)function c)shape d)weight

c)shape

Which of the following is not a type of cartilage? a)Hyaline b)Elastic c)Fibrocartilage d)Dense regular

d)Dense regular