Section #2: Hospital Management
Answer is B: Class II controlled substances must have their own separate log and invoices kept from classes III, IV, and V. Class I controlled substances are for research only and are not found in the veterinary hospitals.
Which controlled substance class must have separate logs and invoices from other classes? (A) I (B) II (C) IV (D) V
Answer is D: The following are examples of employee benefits: health insurance, dental/vision insurance, continuing education, vacation, sick leave, holiday pay, professional liability insurance, disability insurance, life insurance, retirement plans, dues and licenses, veterinary care.
Which of the following are considered to be employee benefits? (A) Sick leave (B) Veterinary care (C) Continuing education (D) All of the above
Answer is B: Medical record entries should follow the standard SOAP format, which includes: subjective, objective, assessment, and plan.
Medical record entry should follow standard SOAP format, which includes all of the following except? (A) Plan (B) Obsession (C) Subjective (D) Assessment
Answer is B: Pharmaceutical drugs that are controlled substances will have the letter "C" on the bottle, followed by a roman numeral. The letters A, D, and S do not denote any type of pharmaceutical.
Any pharmaceutical that is a controlled substance will have what letter on the bottle? (A) A (B) C (C) D (D) S
Answer is C: A loss of 3% or higher for any controlled substance must be reported to the DEA. The loss of less than 3% of a controlled substance does not need to be reported.
A loss equal to or greater than what amount must be reported to the DEA (A) 1% (B) 2% (C) 3% (D) 5%
Answer is B: A megabyte is the measure of a computer's data storage at approximately 1 million bytes. A gigabyte is a measure of a computer's data storage at approximately 1 billion bytes. A zip drive allows the backup of data and important files. A hard drive stores all data and can hold more than 100 GB of information.
A measure of computer data storage of approximately 1 million bytes refers to? (A) Zip drive (B) Megabyte (C) Gigabyte (D) Hard drive
Answer is A: A noncompete agreement falls under the division of the civil law. A civil law relates to the duties between people and the government. A contract law deals with duties established by individuals as a result of contractual agreement. A criminal law deals with the unlawful activity against a member of the public and is prosecuted by a public official.
A non-complete agreement falls under which division of law? (A) Civil (B) Criminal (C) Both criminal and civil (D) Neither criminal nor civil
Answer is D: Adware is a program or software that installs itself onto the computer without the user's knowledge. Cookies are messages given to the browser with information that has been collected about the user when visiting Web sites. Spam is/are emails that are not considered useful and that can be damaging to the user. Spyware is a software that secretly gathers information from the user's computer and transmits it to the source.
A program or software that installs itself onto the computer without the user's knowledge is known as? (A) Cookies (B) Spam (C) Spyware (D) Adware
Answer is B: A worm is a program that replicates itself over a computer network and performs malicious actions that can shut the computer system down. A host is a computer that is connected to a network or the Internet. A firewall is a device that regulates what comes in and goes out of the computer. A Trojan horse is a destructive program, usually attached to an email, which inhibits the computer.
A program that replicates itself over a computer network and performs malicious actions that can shut down the computer system is referred to as which of the following? (A) Host (B) Worm (C) Firewall (D) Trojan horses
Answer is A: An eyewash station must be within 10 seconds from any team member potentially exposed to a chemical. If the practice is large, multiple eyewash stations must be available to allow access within 10 seconds.
A team member must be able to walk to an eyewash station within what amount of time after being exposed to a chemical (A) 10 seconds (B) 30 seconds (C) 60 seconds (D) 2 minutes
Answer is A: Accounts receivable is defined as the money owed to a business for services rendered or products that are sold and not paid for at the time of service. Accounts receivable should NOT exceed 1.5% of gross revenue. Anything greater than 1.5% can decrease the cash flow of the practice.
Accounts receivable should not be greater than what percent of gross revenue (A) 1.5% (B) 5% (C) 10% (D) 12.5%
Answer is D: The following are common anticoagulant agents included within blood collections tubes: potassium citrate, lithium heparin, sodium heparin, and ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA). ETDA does not exist.
All of the following are anticoagulants used in blood collection tubes except? (A) Potassium citrate (B) Lithium heparin (C) Sodium heparin (D) ETDA
Answer is D: An anaerobic culture is a culture that requires the absence of air and should be kept at room temperature and processed within 48 hours of collection.
An anaerobic culture should be kept at room temperature and processed within how many hours of collection? (A) 8 hours (B) 12 hours (C) 24 hours (D) 48 hours
Answer is B: An inactive medical record is defined as a client who has not been seen by that practice for a year or more.
An inactive medical record is defined as client who has not been seen by the practice in how long? (A) 6 months (B) 12 months (C) 3 years (D) 7 years
Answer is B: Animal abuse falls under the division of a criminal law. A crime is an unlawful activity against a member of the public and is prosecuted by a public official. A civil law relates to the duties between people and the government.
Animal abuse falls under which division of law (A) Civil (B) Criminal (C) Both criminal and civil (D) Neither criminal nor civil
Answer is D: Appointment lengths may vary for many reasons such as specific clients, type of appointment, and the veterinarian. The length of appointments usually does not vary due to the patient (versus the appointment type).
Appointment lengths may vary for all of the following except (A) Specific client (B) Appointment type (C) Veterinarian (D) Patient
Answer is B: Controlled substance logs must be kept 2 years beyond the last recorded entry date and should remain retrievable for inspection. Some facilities may want to keep them longer for added reassurance, but the DEA requires 2 years.
Controlled substance log should be kept for how many years beyond last entry? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Answer is C: A credentialed veterinary technician is allowed to perform certain duties under the direct supervision of a licensed veterinarian who is on the premises and is readily available. An office manager, lead veterinary technician, and/or practice owner do not provide supervision of medical-related activities for credentialed veterinary technicians, as outlined by state veterinary practice acts.
Credentialed vet techs are allowed to perform certain duties under direct supervisions of whom? (A) Office manager (B) Lead vet tech (C) Veterinarian (D) Practice owner
Answer is A: Descriptive ethics refers to the study of ethical views of veterinarians and veterinary professionals regarding their behavior and attitudes. Official veterinary ethics refers to the creation of the official ethical standards adopted by organizations of professionals and imposed on their members. Normative ethics refers to the search for correct principles of good and bad, right and wrong, justice or injustice. Administrative ethics involves the actions by administrative government bodies that regulate veterinary practice and activities in which veterinarians engage.
Descriptive ethics refers to what? (A) Study of ethical views of veterinarians and veterinary professionals regarding their behavior and attitudes (B) Creation of official ethical standards adopted by organizations of professionals and imposed on members (C) Search for correct principles of good and bad, right and wrong, justice or injustice (D) Actions by administrative government bodies that regulate veterinary practice and activities in which veterinarians engage
Answer is C: Employee discounts on services greater than 20% are reported as fringe benefits and must be reported to the IRS as pay
Employee discounts on services greater than what percent must be reported to the IRS as pay (A) 10% (B) 15% (C) 20% (D) 50%
Answer is D: Euthanasia comes from the Greek terms eu and Thanatos. Eu stands for good or right. Thanatos stands for death.
Euthanasia comes from the greek terms eu and Thanatos. What does the term eu stand for? (A) Right (B) Death (C) Good (D) Both a and c
Answer is D: OSHA states that dosimetry reports be kept on hand for 30 years. Team members should always have access to the information regarding how much radiation they have been exposed to.
How long should dosimetry reports be kept in accordance with OSHA guidelines (A) 2 years (B) 10 years (C) 15 years (D) 30 years
Answer is B: There are four branches of veterinary ethics: descriptive, official, administrative, and normative.
How many branches of veterinary ethics exist (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
Answer is B: The human voice contains 4 different components: volume, tone, rate, and quality.
How many components does the human voice contain (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 10
Answer is C: An animal should be presented to an owner posteuthanasia within a waterproof body bag. A box, trash bag, or no covering at all is not acceptable to present a deceased pet to an owner.
How should a pet be presented to an owner after it is has been euthanized (A) In a box (B) In a trash bag (C) Waterproof body bag (D) Without any covering
Answer is B: A law generally consists of established rules, statutes, and administrative agency rules that can be enforced to establish limits of conduct for governments and individuals in society, and it is divided into two categories: civil and criminal
Law is divided into how many categories (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 5
Answer is B: The law requires controlled substance logs. Laboratory logs are not required by law but are helpful for maintaining reference records for certain tests. Compliance logs are used for internal monitoring.
Law requires which of the following logs? (A) Compliance logs (B) Controlled substance logs (C) Laboratory logs (D) All of the above
Answer is B: Missed charges account for approximately 10% of gross revenue. By managing inventory and investigating discrepancies managers should be able to determine why there are missed charges.
Missed charges account for approximately how much of gross revenue? (A) 5% (B) 10% (C) 25% (D) 45%
Answer is C: Lawsuits against veterinarians are almost always based on neglect versus breach of contract, defamation, or breach of warranty. Negligence is defined as performing an act that a person of ordinary prudence would not have done under similar circumstances.
ON what are lawsuits against veterinarians almost always based (A) Defamation (B) Breach of warranty (C) Neglect (D) Breach of contract
Answer is D: During stressful situations, neurotransmitters release hormones. An overproduction of neurotransmitters can cause anxiety, depression, and anger. The overproduction of neurotransmitters will not stimulate excitement.
Overproduction of neurotransmitters can cause all of the following conditions to occur, except: (A) Anxiety (B) Depression (C) Anger (D) Excitement
Answer is E: Recalls should be performed on every patient that has visited the practice regardless of the reason.
Recalls should be performed for which of the following patient scenarios? (A) Yearly exams (B) Vaccines (C) Wound care or infection (D) Surgery (E) All of the above
Answer is D: A clean read top tube should be used for the collection of serum used to monitor the following therapeutic levels: phenobarbital, theophylline, and digoxin.
Serum separator tubes should not be used for which of the following therapeutic monitoring? (A) Phenobarbital levels (B) Theophylline levels (C) Digoxin levels (D) All of the above
Answer is B: Surgical patients must be examined within 12 hours of anesthesia being administered, and the exam must be documented in the medical record.
Surgical patient must be examined within what time frame before anesthesia is administered (A) 2 hours (B) 12 hours (C) 24 hours (D) 48 hours
Answer is B: The ADA is the Americans with Disability Act, which protects employees and/or clients with disabilities and allows full access to the facility, including parking lots, restrooms, exam rooms, and so forth. Employee radiation exposure and employee ergonomic environments are protected under the Occupational Safety and Health Administration. The sale and distribution of pharmaceuticals is monitored through the FDA.
The ADA is a federal law that protects which of the following (A) Employees and their radiation exposure (B) Employees and clients with disabilities (C) Employees and ergonomic environment (D) Sale and distribution of pharmaceuticals
Answer is D: Client compliance is defined as the percentage of clients, who accept recommendations given by the veterinary health care team. Client retention refers to the ability to keep clients long term. Quantity refers to the total number of clients. Turnover refers to the occurrence of having new employees because of the continual loss of current employees.
The percentage of clients who accept a recommendation is defined as? (A) Quantity (B) Turnover (C) Retention (D) Compliance
Answer is B: The term "petty cash" refers to cash that is set aside in the practice to purchase items needed for business when a check is not available. Change that is owed back to a client on a bill is the difference of the bill owed and what was paid to the practice. The cash balance in the drawer at the start and end of every day is the cash flow allowed to be able to receive cash and to provide change back as needed.
The term petty cash refers to? (A) Change owed back to owner of a bill (B) Cash set aside to purchase items needed for business when a check is not available (C) Cash balance in the drawer at the start and end of every day (D) Payment received from a third party
Answer is C: To help reduce client overload at the front desk, appointments should be staggered every 5 minutes. Appointments can be set for every 15-30 minutes or more depending on the type of appointment; however, multiple appointments can be seen around the same time, so staggering them is ideal.
To help reduce client overload at the front desk, appointments should be (A) Set every 15 minutes (B) Set every 1/2 hour (C) Staggered every 5 minutes (D) None of the above
Answer is D: Computerized records, also known as paperless records, are filed under the client's last name and client number. The pet name is too generic to locate records.
What are computerized medical records filed under? (A) Pet name (B) Client last name (C) Client number (D) B and C
Answer is C: The Fair Debt Collection Practices Act of 1996 protects the public from unethical collection procedures. It only allows phone calls to be placed between 8 AM and 9 PM. Collecting agencies are not allowed to impersonate lawyers or government agencies. The business is allowed to use collecting agencies on past-due accounts, but they must follow what the law allows
What best describes fair debt collection practices act of 1996 (A) Any facility or collecting agency is allowed to call anytime in an effort to collect debt (B) Any collect agency is allowed to state that it is a government agency attempt to collect is debt (C) Protects public from unethical collection procedure (D) Protects the businesses on past-due accounts made by the patron
Answer is D: A SWOT analysis is used in the marketing aspect and is an acronym for strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. A coordinated SWOT analysis is used to evaluate all of these areas to help improve the practice from a marketing standpoint.
What does a SWOT analysis evaluate within a marketing plan? (A) Weakness (B) Opportunities (C) Strengths (D) All of the above
Answer is D: Dispensing fees are added to a product after the markup has been determined, and they cover costs associated with filling the prescription such as the label on the bottle, the vial used to package the medication, the wear and tear on the label writer machine, and the technician's time it takes to fill it.
What does a dispensing fee cover? (A) Label on the bottle (B) Vial used to prepackage medications (C) Wear and tear on the label machine (D) All of the above
Answer is A: Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid is an anticoagulant added to blood collection tubes in advance of collection. Serum separator is added to a blood collection tube to aid in the separation process of serum. Ethylene glycol is rubbing alcohol often added to the skin for aseptic purposes before collection.
What is ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid? (A) Anticoagulant added to blood tubes (B) Serum separator agent added to blood tubes (C) Rubbing alcohol added to skin for aspetic (D) None of the above
Answers is D: A practice cannot discriminate against pregnant team members. They should be counseled on the safety issues but the team member is responsible for deciding what safety level they should obtain
What is the correct protocol for handling a pregnant veterinary technician employee (A) Have the employer placed on a temporary resignation status for the duration of the pregnancy (B) Have employee transferred to a receptionist position for the duration of the pregnancy (C) Limit the employee on all safety issue such as lifting, anesthesia exposure, and radiation exposure (D) Address the safety issues within the facility but allow the employee to decide their own safety level
Answer is C: Controlled substances must be handled differently for disposal. Companies that are certified for reverse distribution should handle the disposal of controlled drugs. No pharmaceuticals should be disposed of down the drain; proper techniques must be used. Proper technique is defined as dissolving pills in water, adding to cat litter, and then thrown away. Liquid pharmaceuticals can directly be added to cat litter and discarded.
What is the correct way to dispose of controlled substances in any class (A) Poured down drain (B) Add to cat litter and toss it (C) Sent through certified reverse distribution company (D) None
Answer is B: When a client is not present to sign a euthanasia form, the owner must tell two team members that he or she wishes to euthanize the pet. Both team members must document the conversation in the medical record.
When a client is not present to sign a euthanasia form, to verify the euthanasia how many team members must the owner talk to? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Answer is C: Study Mode ID: 785 When a drug loss or theft has been identified, who must be notified? DEA Police Both a and b No one. It just needs to be recorded If a drug loss or theft takes place, both the DEA and local police need to be notified. In some states, the pharmacy and veterinary boards may also need to be notified.
When a drug loss or theft has been identified, who must be notified (A) DEA (B) Police (C) Both A and B (D) No one
Answer is C: When a mistake is written in the medical record, a single line should be drawn through the mistake, should be initialed, and then the correction should be written legibly. Erasing, using white-out, or scratching out the mistake should not be done because these could all be considered as altering the medical record.
When a mistake is written in the medical record, what is the proper method to correct it? (A) Erase the mistake and start over (B) Use white-out to cover written mistake, initial it, and rewrite (C) Draw a single line through the mistake, initial it, write the correction (D) Scratch out the mistake with ink and rewrite with initials
Answer is D: When scheduling appointments many factors need to be considered: number of veterinarians seeing appointments, veterinary technician appointments, nonsterile procedures, length of time for client education, dental and surgical procedures, holidays, and vacation times.
When scheduling appointments, which of the following factors should be considered? (A) # of vets seeing appointments (B) Vet tech appointments (C) Length of time for client education (D) All of the above
Answer is B: Client grievances should be handled immediately on occurrence. Any grievance that is handled later will result in a decrease in client retention and compliance and may make it more difficult to acquire new clients (clients who are upset do not refer friends and family).
When should client grievances be addressed? (A) After a meeting with office manager (B) Immediately (C) A week later after pet, client, employer has recovered (D) Depends on grievance severity
Answer is C: When submitting a tissue sample for pathology that requires the use of formalin, the sample should contain 10% formalin at 10 times the volume of the tissue, creating a 10:1 ratio.
When submitting a tissue sample for pathology what should the ratio of formalin to tissue volume be? (A) 1:1 (B) 5:1 (C) 10:1 (D) 20:1
Answer is C: Dosimeter badges measure the radiation exposure to the individual team member and they should be worn on the outside of the PPE. Under the PPE or in pockets is not acceptable to measure the amount of radiation exposure. Dosimeter badges should be kept in a separate location than the x-ray room when a team member is not participating in the imaging procedures.
Where should dosimeter badges be worn (A) Under the lead gown (B) In the pocket of the team member (C) On the outside of the PPE (D) Dosimeter badges are not worn and should be kept outside of the x-ray room at all times
Answer is A: Controlled substance class I holds the highest level for abuse potential. Classes IV and V hold the lowest levels of abuse potential. There are not any classes of controlled substances past level V. The lower the Roman numeral, the higher the level is for abuse.
Which class level of controlled drugs has the highest potential for abuse? (A) I (B) IV (C) V (D) VII
Answer is D: Characteristics of effective leaders include the following: self-confident, team player, innovator, effective communicator, effective listener, sincere, problem solver, and many more.
Which are characteristics of effective leaders? (A) Team player (B) Effective communication (C) Self-confident (D) All of the above
Answer is D: Environmental stressors within the veterinary clinic include the following: noise levels, alarms, equipment, and inventory.
Which are considered environmental stressors in veterinary medicine (A) Noise (B) Inventory (C) Equipment (D) All of the above
Answer is D: Losses associated with poor inventory management include theft, backorders, shrinkage, frequent ordering, expired products, wrong products, too much product on the shelf, or not enough product on the shelf.
Which are considered losses associated with poor inventory management (A) Back orders (B) Shrinkage (C) Frequent ordering (D) All of the above
Answer is D: All of the following are methods that can be used to decrease loss: implement internal controls to prevent employee theft, use travel sheets to decrease missed charges, manage inventory appropriately, implement electronic medical records, and set appropriate fees.
Which are methods that can be used to decrease loss of revenue? (A) Use travel sheets to decrease missed charges (B) Implement controls to prevent employee theft (C) Manage inventory appropriately (D) All of the above (E) Both A and B
Answer is D: The middle area of the hospital typically requires the most efficiency and includes the pharmacy and laboratory areas. The kennels require constant upkeep to stay clean and fresh for patients but do not necessarily require the most efficiency. The doctor's office is the area where physicians can finish writing up medical records and consult between staff members but does not require an efficient type of environment. The retail area needs to stay clean and presentable for clients and monitored for theft but not necessarily for efficiency.
Which area of the hospital typically requires the most efficiency (A) Kennels (B) Doctor's office (C) Retail area (D) Middle area
Answer is B: A mass cremation is a cremation of multiple animals at the same time without the return of ashes. A private cremation can be performed with either private ashes returned or no ashes returned.
Which correctly defines mass cremation (A) Cremation service held in a church (B) Cremation of multiple animals without private ashes returned (C) Cremation of a single animal with private ashes returned (D) A cremation of a single animal without ashes returned
Answer is C: The term prognosis refers to the prediction of the outcome of the disease. The surgical procedure and medication prescribed fall under the treatment plan and all depend on the prognosis of the patient.
Which correctly defines prognosis? (A) Surgical procedure (B) Medication prescribed (C) Prediction of outcome of a disease (D) Treatment plan
Answer is B: The objective portion of the exam includes information gathered directly from the patient, physical exam, or diagnostic workup. The subjective portion is the reason for the visit, history, and observations made by the client. The assessment is the conclusion reached along with a definitive diagnosis. The plant includes treatment, surgery, medication, and diagnostics recommended to be performed.
Which correctly defines the objective portion of the exam? (A) Reason for the visit, history, observations mad by the client (B) Information gathered directly from the patient, physical exam, diagnostic workup (C) Conclusion reached along with a definitive diagnosis (D) Treatment, surgery, medication, diagnostics are recommended
Answer is B: Ergonomics refers to the science that studies the relationship between people and their work environments. The organization of material in a logical sequence, positioning of objects as close to the point of use as possible, and the amount of time and degree of motion required to perform a given task all refer to motion economy.
Which correctly describes ergonomics (A) Organization of materials in a logical sequence (B) The science that studies the relationship between people and their work environments (C) Positioning of objects as close to the point of use as possible (D) The amount of time and degree of motion required to perform a given task
Answer is B: The number of times a specific product turns over in a practice is referred to as the turnover rate. Each product will have its own turnover rate. The more popular the product is, the more often it will turn over per year. Product expiration dates change and vary from product to product. The time it takes to receive product after it has been purchased depends on the distributor and the shipping agreement.
Which defines turnover rate in reference to inventory? (A) Most popular product used in facility (B) # of times specific product turns over (C) How quickly the product will expire (D) Time it take to receive product after purchase
Answer is D: Different cultures have different communication structures, and these can therefore be barriers when two different cultures are trying to communicate. Exam room tables, reception desks, and lack of eye contact are all barriers to communication and detract from the message being delivered.
Which is a barrier to communication? (A) Cultures (B) Exam room tables (C) Reception desk (D) Constant eye contact
Answer is C: Nonsterile procedures include any procedure that does not require aseptic technique to perform. Examples of nonsterile procedures include abscess debridement, dental procedures, anal sac expression, and ear flushes. Spay, orthopedic, and exploratory surgeries are all examples of sterile procedures.
Which is a nonsterile procedure? (A) Spay (B) Orthopedic surgery (C) Abscess debridement (D) Exploratory surgery
Answer is C: A disadvantage to using computerized medical records includes the lack of medical details. Computerized records are legible, can target specific clients quickly and efficiently when promoting specific services, and clients perceive progressive and higher-quality medicine.
Which is considered a disadvantage of computerized medical records? (A) Legibility (B) Client perceives progressive, high quality medicine (C) Computer-generated records can lack medical details (D) Can target specific clients quickly and efficiently when promoting specific services
Answer is B: The mission is defined as the purpose of the hospital; it is the fundamental reason that the practice exists. The vision statement is the desired future of the practice. The core values are the guiding principles that are not to be compromised during change.
Which is the correct definition of a mission statement in a hospital? (A) Desired future of the practice (B) Purpose of hospital; fundamental reason the hospital exists (C) Guiding principles that are not to be compromised during change (D) None of the above
Answer is B: A message has three components when being developed. Nonverbal skills or body language contributes about 55% of the message. Verbal skills, or word choice, contribute about 7%, and paraverbal skills, the way the words are spoken, contributes about 38% to the message.
Which message component contributes the most during communication (A) Verbal (B) Nonverbal (C) Paraverbal (D) All components of a message are equal
Answers is C: All of the following must be included on an inventory log: product name, strength and count in a full bottle, date of purchase, name and address of vendor, date and time of inventory, log quantity, physical quantity, any discrepancy found, and initials. Client and patient names will not be included on the inventory log
Which of the following can be found in an inventory log? (A) Date or purchase (B) Data and time of inventory (C) Client name, patient name (D) Product name, strength, count in bottle
Answer is B: A per-incident limit is the maximum dollar amount an insurance company will pay out per incident filed. A lifetime limit is the maximum dollar amount a company will pay out on one policy for the lifetime of the pet. A preexisting condition is an injury or illness contracted, manifested, or incurred before the policy effective date. A rider is an extension of coverage that can be purchased and added to a base medical policy.
Which of the following correctly defines a per-incident limit? (A) Maximum dollar amount company will pay out one policy for the lifetime of the pet (B) Maximum dollar amount an insurance company will pay out per incident filed (C) Injury or illness contracted, manifested, or incurred before the policy effective date (D) An extension of coverage that can be purchased and added to a base medical policy
Answer is C: Negligence is the performance of an act that a reasonable person under the same circumstance would not perform. A tort is a civil offense to an opposing party in which harm has occurred. An intentional tort is defined as an intentional action that has taken place in which harm has occurred to another member of society. A crime is an unlawful activity against a member of the public that is prosecuted by a public official.
Which of the following defines negligence (A) A civil offense to an opposing party in which harm has occurred (B) An intentional action that has taken place in which harm has occurred (C) The performance of an act that a reasonable person under the same circumstances would not perform (D) Unlawful activity against a member of the public that is prosecuted by a public official
Answer is A: A Web page or social media are examples of internal marketing. Yellow pages and newspaper advertisements are examples of direct marketing. Client education is an example of indirect marketing.
Which of the following is an example of internal marketing? (A) Web page/social media (B) Yellow pages (C) Client education (D) Newspaper advertisement
Answer is E: Acts of malpractice include the following: incorrect drug administration, incorrect strength of drug administration, failure to clean animals that have defecated and/or urinated on themselves, abandonment, leaving foreign objects in a patient after surgery, failure to exercise good judgment, failure to communicate, loss or damage to patients' personal property, disease transmission, a patient attacking another while in the veterinary practice, use of defective equipment or medication.
Which of the following is considered an act of malpractice? (A) Abandonment (B) Incorrect drug administration (C) Disease transmission (D) Failure to communicate (E) All of the above
Answer is C: The correct form to enter medication into a record is: 0.4 mL Cefazolin (100 mg/mL) IV. Choices a and b do not include a dosage strength. Choice d does not indicate which route to administer and also needs a zero placeholder in front of the decimal so that this amount is not confused.
Which of the following is considered the correct entry for cefazolin (A) Cefazolin 0.2 ml IV (B) 0.5 ml cefazolin (C) 0.4 ml cefazolin (100 mg/ml) IV (D) Cefazolin .3 100 mg/ml
Answer is D: Medical records must be legible and be able to be read by everybody. An illegible medical record is perceived as an incompetency in veterinary practitioners.
Which of the following people must be able to read medical records? (A) Vets (B) Team members (C) Legal personnel (D) All of the above
Answer is C: The following are examples of questions that should NOT be asked during an interview: Do you have any children? What is your national origin? What is your maiden name? What is your religion? Do you have any physical disabilities? What holidays do you observe? The following are examples of questions that should be asked during an interview: Are you currently employed? What is your salary requirement? What are some areas you feel you need improvement on?
Which of the following questions should not be asked during an interview (A) What is your salary requirement (B) Are you currently employed (C) Do you have any children (D) What are areas you need to improve in
Answer is B: The definition of rapport is a mutual trust or emotional relationship that exists among team members. Respect is the consideration or esteem given to another person. Responsibility denotes a duty or obligation that a team member is expected to uphold.
Which of the following statements is the correct definition of rapport? (A) Denotes a duty or obligation that a team member is expected to uphold (B) Mutual trust or emotional relationship that exists among team members (C) Consideration or esteem that is given to another person (D) All of the above
Answer is D: Of the tasks listed, a veterinary assistant is responsible to maintain legible and accurate medical records. A credentialed veterinary technician or technologist is responsible to perform dental prophylaxis and to calculate drug dosages. A licensed veterinarian is responsible to perform surgical procedures.
Which of the following tasks is the responsibility of a veterinary assistant? (A) Perform dental prophylaxis (B) Calculate drug dosages (C) Perform surgical procedures (D) Maintain legible/accurate med records
Answer is C: Veterinary technicians should be the team members presenting treatment plans to owners. They are the team members familiar with the pet and should be able to discuss the treatment options with confidence. Receptionists should handle the financial transaction but should not present the treatment plan because of the lack of scientific knowledge. The kennel assistant should not deliver a treatment plan because of the lack of scientific knowledge to support the discussion. The veterinarian should not discuss financial issues with the client; veterinarians should only diagnose, prescribe medication, and perform procedures.
Which team members should present treatment plans to clients? (A) Receptionist (B) Office manager (C) Veterinary technician (D) Veterinarian
Answer is D: Class II controlled substances are allowed to be filled for 30 days but are not allowed to have refills on the original script; there must be a new script written for the next 30 days if needed. Classes III and IV can have up to 5 refills, so 1 or 3 are acceptable as well.
Class II controlled substances can be filled for 30 days with how many refills? (A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) None
Answers is B: Controlled substance prescriptions for classes III, IV, and V for a 30-day supply can have 5 refills that are available for 6 months. After 6 months, there must be a new prescription submitted to the pharmacy. Usually a 30-day supply is allowed with refills that can follow, but it still cannot exceed 6 months.
Controlled substance prescriptions administered to clients for classes III, IV, and V can have 5 refills available for how long? (A) 1 month (B) 6 months (C) 12 months (D) No refills are available
Answer is B: Physiological factors within the work environment include: color, lighting, acoustics, heating/cooling, space, furniture, and equipment. Patients are not considered a physiological factor.
All of the following are considered physiological factors of work except (A) Space (B) Patients (C) Acoustics (D) Color
Answer is B: Safety data sheets are fact lists for chemicals, and the following information is included: identity of the chemical, physical and chemical characteristics, health hazards, permissible exposure limits, whether the product is a carcinogen, emergency first aid procedures, and specific hazards. SDS sheets do not list the nearest emergency facility; however, this should be included in the safety book.
All of the following are provided in SDS sheets except; (A) Health hazards (B) Nearest emergency facility (C) Permissible exposure limits (D) Emergency first aid procedure
Answer is A: Records must be written in blue or black ink only. The following are rules for medical records: the author of the entry must date and initial each time an entry is made, correction fluid may never be used, standard and approved abbreviations must be used, records must be legible, and when correcting a mistake a single line may be drawn through it and then it may be rewritten and initialed.
All of the following are rules for medical records except; (A) Records can be written in any color ink (B) Author of the entry must date and initial each time an entry is made (C) Correction fluid may never be used (D) Used standard and approved abbreviations only
Answer is D: Drugs logs should include the following information: client name and address, patient name, reason for use, amount of drug administered, balance of drug after use, and initials. Drug lot numbers are not required.
All of the following information is included in drugs logs except: (A) Amount of drug given (B) Balance of drug after use (C) Client name (D) Drug lot number
Answer is B: Positive stress is the body's natural ability to learn how to cope with stress and causes energy, satisfaction, and relief. However, too much positive stress can lead to an overly energized person, leading to exhaustion, which can create bad stress
Excess levels of positive stress may lead to (A) Satisfaction (B) Exhaustion (C) Energy (D) Relief
Answer is B: Hearing protection should be available for team members when the noise levels reach 85 dB and greater. OSHA standards require noise measurement, noise protection, and hearing testing when noise measurement exceeds 85 dB. Noise loudness is measured in decibel units.
Nose protection should be provided for employees when the noise levels reach what level? (A) 75 DB (B) 85 DB (C) 95 DB (D) Ear protection not required
Answer is A: There are many different signs of compassion fatigue. Decreased concentration and/or ability to concentrate is an example of a cognitive sign of compassion fatigue. Questioning life's meaning is a spiritual sign of compassion fatigue. Failure to develop non-work-related aspects of life is an interpersonal sign of compassion fatigue. Dread of working with certain co-workers is a work-related sign of compassion fatigue.
Which of the following are considered cognitive signs of compassion fatigue (A) Decreased concentration or ability to concentrate (B) Questioning life's meaning (C) Failure to develop non-work related aspects of life (D) Dread of working with certain co-workers
Answer is A: A licensed veterinarian is the only health care team member who is allowed to diagnose, prescribe medication, and perform surgery. An office manager does not hold the proper credentials to perform these duties. A credentialed veterinary technician and a veterinary technologist are allowed to perform certain duties under the direct supervision of a licensed veterinarian but are not allowed to diagnose, prescribe medication, or perform surgery.
Which of the following health care team members is allowed to diagnose, prescribe medications, and perform surgery? (A) Vet (B) Office manager (C) Credentialed vet tech (D) Veterinary technologist
Answer is A: Nonverbal skills are referred to as body language. Folded arms are a form of nonverbal communication. Pitch and tone are paraverbal skills. Slang word choice and using the phrase of "yeah" instead of "yes" are examples of verbal skills.
Which of the following is an example of a nonverbal skill? (A) Folded arms (B) High-pitched tone (C) Slang word choice (D) Using "yeah" instead of "yes"
Answer is D: Incorporeal property is defined as something that a person or corporation can have ownership of and can transfer ownership to another person or corporation, but has no physical substance. Practice goodwill is the reputation within the community, with colleagues and staff, and in doctor and client/patient relationships, and it is an example of incorporeal property or intangible property. Tangible property is anything that can be touched and includes both real and personal property such as buildings, equipment, and vehicles.
Which of the following is an example of incorporeal property? (A) Buildings (B) Equipment (C) Vehicles (D) Practice goodwill
Answer is D: All of the following are allowed to be given to a collection agency: client's full name, address and telephone number, clients' occupation, clients' driver's license number, client's employment address if known, total balance due on the account, copy of client information sheet, and signature of client guaranteeing payment for services rendered.
Which of the following is not allowed to be given to a collection agency? (A) Client full name, address, telephone # (B) Client occupation (C) Client driver license # (D) None of the above
Answer is D: Client education is an example of internal marketing. External marketing includes outdoor building sign, lectures, media advertising, and much more.
Which of the following is not an example of external marketings? (A) Outdoor building sign (B) Lectures (C) Media advertising (D) Client education
Answer is C: Expired drugs can be combined with cat litter and then thrown in the trash. However, expired drugs may never be thrown away whole, flushed down the drain, or prescribed to owner.
Which of the following is the proper way to handle expired drugs? (A) Prescribe them (B) Flush them (C) Combine with cat litter and toss out (D) Throw them in the trash
Answer is D: All veterinary facilities have to comply with all of the following laws/acts: Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act, Immigration Reform and Control Act, Employee Polygraph Protection Act, Family and Medical Leave Act (practices with 50+ employees).
Which of the following laws/acts does not apply to veterinary facilities? (A) Uninformed services employment and reemployment rights act (B) Immigration reform and control act (C) Employee polygraph protection act (D) None of the above
Answer is C: Indemnity insurance provides compensation of injured or sick pets paid directly to the client after services are rendered, according to their insurance policy. The client still pays for services in full and submits receipts to retrieve compensation. A contract for physicians to provide medical services at set prices is seen with HMOs or PPOs typically with human health care.
What does indemnity insurance provide (A) A contract for veterinarians to provide medical service at a set price (B) A reimbursement the veterinarian collections directly from the insurance company for services rendered (C) Compensation for treatment of injured or sick pets paid directly to the client, following the company policy (D) None
Answer is A: Barbiturates are commonly used as a euthanasia solution. Morphine, acepromazine, and Telazol are drugs commonly used for surgery induction, tranquilization, or pain management.
What drug is commonly used for euthanasia? (A) Barbiturate (B) Morphine (C) Acepromazine (D) Telazol
Answer is C: The minimum PPE required to perform x-rays is a lead gown, thyroid collar, and lead gloves. Some practices may recommend the use of goggles, but OSHA does not require it.
What is the minimum PPE that must be worn when performing x-rays (A) Lead gown only (B) Lead gown and thyroid collar (C) Lead gown, thyroid collar, lead gloves (D)Lead gown, thyroid collar, lead gloves, goggles
Answer is A: When a medication is being dispensed to an owner, all of the following must be clearly written in the medical record: drug name, strength, administration route, duration of treatment, and frequency. Drug lot numbers do not need to be recorded.
When a med is being dispensed, all of the following must be included in the record except (A) Drug lot number (B) Drug strength (C) Drug administration route (D) Drug duration of treatment
Answer is D: Class V controlled substances do not contain any DEA dispensing limits as it holds the lowest level of abuse potential. Class I is labeled for research only. Class II is written prescription only with no refills. Class IV is written prescription with 5 refills.
Which controlled substance class level does not have DEA dispensing limits (A) Class 1 (B) Class II (C) Class IV (D) Class V
Answer is B: The Fair Labor and Standards Act was created to establish minimum wage and overtime pay standards as well as to regulate the employment of minors. The Family and Medical Leave Act was created to protect and preserve the integrity of the family. The Equal Employment Opportunity was created to prohibit discrimination against employees based on race, color, sex, religion, or national origin. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration sets safety standards to protect employees.
Which of the following acts was created to establish minimum wage and overtime pay standard as well as to regulate the employment of minors? (A) Family and medical leave act (B) Fair labor and standards act (C) Equal employment opportunity (D) Occupational safety and health administration