Self Test

32. the correct term for the eardrum is the ______

tympanic membrane

56. A pt comes to the department skull series. Bc of the size of the pts shoulders, he is unable to flex his neck sufficiently to place the OML perpendicular to the IR for the AP axial projection. His head cannot be raised bc of possible cervical trauma. What other options does the tech have to obtain an acceptable AP axial projection

use the IOML instead of OML and increase CRE angle an additional 7 degree caudad for a total of 37 degrees

49. where is the CR ccentered for an SMV projection of the skull?

1 ½ inch inferior to the mandibular symphysis, midway between the gonions

List number individual bones that articulate with the following cranial bones e. ethmoid

2

List number individual bones that articulate with the following cranial bones c. temporal bone

3

45b. what is the central ray centered for a lateral projection of the cranium?

30 degrees caudad

45a. how much central ray angle is required for the AP axial projection (towne method) for skull with the IOML perpendicular to the image receptor?

37 degrees caudad

List number individual bones that articulate with the following cranial bones a. parietal bone

5

List number individual bones that articulate with the following cranial bones b. occipital bone

6

List number individual bones that articulate with the following cranial bones d. sphenoid

7

30. which aspect of the temporal bone is considered to be thinnest?

Squamous portion

22. Which one of the following terms is defined as the large cartilaginous aspect of external ear a. pinna b. tragus c. glabella d. acanthion

A. Pinna

44. which two projections of the cranium project the dorsum sellae within the foramen magnum?

A. ap axial projection (towne method) b. PA axial projection (Hass method)

35. what passes through the internal acoustic meatus?

Auditory nerve and blood vessels

24. How much of a difference in degrees is there between the OML and IOML? A. 10 degrees b. 7 to 8 degrees c. 3 degrees d. none (they represent the same positioning line)

B. 7-8 decrees

23. Reid's base line is an older term for: A. GML B. IOML C. GAL

B. IOML

12. Which small section of bone is located superior to the cribriform plate?

Crista galli

57. A radiograph of an AP axial (town method) projection for cranium reveals that the posterior of C1 and dorsum sellae are superimposed. Both are projected into the foramen magnum. What modification is needed to correct this represent on the initial radiograph?

Decrease CR angle based on the cranial line used (OML-30 degrees, IOML-37 degrees) another option is to decrease flexion of neck

34. which structure helps equalize atmospheric pressure in the middle ear?

Eustachian or auditory tube

60. A radiograph of a SMV projection of the cranium demonstrates the mandibular condyles are projected into the petrous portion (pyramids) of the temporal bone. How must the position be altered during the repeat exposure to correct this error.

Extend the skull further to place the IOML parallel to the IR

5. what is the name of a prominent landmark (or bump) found on the external surface of the occipital bone?

External occipital protuberance or inion

54. A patient with a possible basilar skull fracture enters the emergency room. The doc wants a projection to demonstrate possible sphenoid sinus effusion. Which projection of the cranium is best for this situation?

Horizontal beam (dorsal decubitus) lateral skull projection will demonstrate any possible air fluid levels in the sphenoid sinus

50. Which positioning line is parallel to the IR for the SMV projection of the skull?

IOML

51. situation: a radiograph of an AP axial projection for the cranium reveals that the dorsum sellae is projected superior to the foramen magnum. What must be modified during the repeat exposure to correct this problem?

Increase CR angle approx. 7 degrees caudad

53. Situation: A radiograph of a degree caudad PA axial projection of the cranium reveals the pertrous ridges are at the of the supraorbital margin. Without changing the central ray angle, how must the head position be modified during the repeat exposure produce more acceptable image.

Increase extension of the skull to place the OML perpendicular to the IR (this will project the petrous ridges into the lower one third of the orbits )

11. what is the of the paired collections of bone found inferior to the cribriform plate that contain numerous air cells and help form the lateral walls of the nasal cavity?

Lateral masses or labyrinth

4. which structures are found the widest aspect of the skull?

Parietal tubercles or eminences

55. A patient with a possible basilar skull fracture enters the emergency room. The doc wants the projection to demonstrate the frontal bone and place the petrous ridges in the lower one-third of the orbits, but it has not been determined whether the pts c spine has been fractured so the pt cannot moved from a supine position. How would the tech do to obtain this image?

Perform the AP projection with a 15 degree cephalad CR angle to the OML

31. which aspect of the temporal bone contains the organs of hearing and balance?

Petrous portion

7. What is the thickest and structure in the cranium?

Petrous portion or petrous pyramids

3. which four cranial bone articulate with the frontal bone?

Right parietal, left parietal, sphenoid, ethmoid

52. A radiograph of a lateral projection of the cranium reveals that the greater f sphenoid are not superimposed. What type position error is present on this radiograph?

Rotation

58. A radiograph of a lateral skull demonstrates that the orbital plates (roof) of the frontal are not superimposed. What is the positioning error present of this radiograph.

Tilt of the skull

28. which one of the following imaging modalities may be used to examine a possible cranial bleed caused by trauma? A. CT b. MRI c. Ultrasound d. Nuclear medicine

a. CT

33. which one of the following middle ear structures considered to be lateral? A. malleus b. incus c. stapes d. oval window

a. malleus

19. which of the preceding classifications is considered the average-shaped skull? a. mesocephalic b. dolichocephalic c. brachycephalic d. none of these

a. mesocephalic

25. which one of the following positioning errors frequently results in a repeat exposure of a cranial position? A. rotation b. incorrect central ray placement c. slight flexion d. slight extension

a. rotation

29. which one of the following imaging modalities provides an excellent distinction between normal and abnormal brain tissue? A. CT b. MRI c. Ultrasound d. Nuclear medicine

b. MRI

21. Which of the following landmarks corresponds to the highest level of the petrous ridge? A. EAM B. TEA c. Outer canthus d. Acanthion

b. TEA

match each of the following pathologic indications to the correct definition or description (use each choice only once) b. fracture evident by sphenoid sinus effusion

basal fracture

18. which one of the following skull classifications applies to a skull with an angle of 54 degree between the midsagittal and the long axis of the pars petrosa a. mesocephalic b. dolichocephalic c. brachycephalic d. none of these

c. brachycephalic

42. a benign, cystlike mass of the middle ear is a(n): a. acoustic neuroma b. osteomyelitis c. cholesteatoma d. acoustic matus

c. cholesteatoma

1. which one of the following bones is not part of the floor of the cranium? A. temporal b. ethmoid c. occipital d. sphenoid

c. occipital

2. which aspect of the frontal bone is thin-walled and forms the forehead? A. orbital b. horizontal C. squamous supraciliary margin

c. squamous

38. which auditory ossicle attaches to the oval window? A. malleus b. incus c. stapes d. none

c. stapes

10. the shallow depression just posterior to the base of the dorsum sellae and anterior to the foramen magnum is the _______

clivus

40. List the three divisions of the bony labyrinth of the inner ear

cochlea, vestibule, cemicircular canals

27. Which one of the following clinical indications may require a decrease in manual exposure factors? A. pituitary adenoma b. linear skull fx c. pagets disease d. multiple myeloma

d. multiple myeloma

match each of the following pathologic indications to the correct definition or description (use each choice only once) f. Tangential view may be helpful to extent degree of this fracture

depressed fracture

37. an infection of the mastoid air cells, if untreated, can lead to a serious infection of the brain called ______

encephalitis

36. the aditus is an opening between the _____ and the ______ portion of the temporal bone

epitympanic recess; mastoid

Match each of the following structures to its related cranial bone. 5. Perpendicular plate

ethmoid

Match each of the following structures to its related cranial bone. 6. superior nasal conchae

ethmoid

Match each of the following structures to its related cranial bone. 8. Cribriform plate

ethmoid

Match each of the following structures to its related cranial bone. 11. Superciliary arch

frontal

Match each of the following structures to its related cranial bone. 3. Glabella

frontal

47. to prevent tilting of the skull for the lateral projection of the cranium, the _______ line is placed perpendicular to the IR

interpupillary

13. What is the term for the left sphenoid fontanel the adult

left pterion

match each of the following pathologic indications to the correct definition or description (use each choice only once) e. fracture of the skull with jaggged or irregular lucent line that lies at a right angle to the axis of the bone

linear fracture

39. the internal ear is divided into the osseous or bony labinth and the ______

membranous

match each of the following pathologic indications to the correct definition or description (use each choice only once) a. bone tumor in the bone marrow

multiple myeloma

Match each of the following structures to its related cranial bone. 10. lateral condylar portion

occipital

Match each of the following structures to its related cranial bone. 13. Inion

occipital

Match each of the following structures to its related cranial bone. 7. Foramen magnum

occipital

match each of the following pathologic indications to the correct definition or description (use each choice only once) d. destructive lesion with irregular margins

osteolytic neoplasm

match each of the following pathologic indications to the correct definition or description (use each choice only once) c. condition that begins with bony destruction followed by bony repair

pagets disease

59. A radiograph of an AP axial (towne method) for cranium reveals that the petrous portion of the temporal bone is wider than the right. What is the specific positioning error present on this radiograph

rotation of the skull to the pts face to the right

Match each of the following structures to its related cranial bone. 1. pterygoid hamulus

sphenoid

Match each of the following structures to its related cranial bone. 14. Sella turcica

sphenoid

Match each of the following structures to its related cranial bone. 2. anterior clinoid processes

sphenoid

Match each of the following structures to its related cranial bone. 4. Foramen ovale

sphenoid

14. What is the name of the cranial suture formed by the inferior junction of the parietals the temporal bones

squamosal suture

48. where should the petros ridges be located (on the image) for a well-positioned, 25 degree caudad PA axial (Haas method) projection? _____

superior to the mastoid processes and symmetrical

15. What are the two terms for the small, irregular bones found in the adult skull sutures

sutural or wormian bones

Match each of the following structures to its related cranial bone. 12. EAM

temporal

Match each of the following structures to its related cranial bone. 15. Petrous ridge

temporal

Match each of the following structures to its related cranial bone. 9. Zygomatic process

temporal

43. T/F otosclerosis a hereditary die

true

8. T/F the hypophysis is another term for the pituitary gland

true

9. T/F the sphenoid bone articulates with the other cranial bones

true