Small Animal Nursing Final
How many sections is the abdomen divided into with regard to palpation? A. 6 B. 4 C. 3 D. 5
A. 6
What is the reference range for heart rate in the dog? A. 60 to 180 beats/min B. 100 to 180 beats/min C. 100 to 250 beats/min D. 30 to 75 beats/min
A. 60 to 180 beats/min
The term apnea refers to which of the following? A. Absence of breathing B. A collection of air in the chest from a wound or tear in the lung C. Surgical puncture of the lung D. The abnormal development of the air sacs of the lung
A. Absence of breathing
Intradermal injections are used primarily for: A. Allergy testing B. Antibiotics C. Insulin D. Vaccinations
A. Allergy testing
A client calls the hospital to say that his pekingese has suffered an eye proptosis, your advice to the client should include all of the following, except: A. Apply pressure to the globe to replace it in the socket B. protect the globe from further trauma C. Keep the globe moist D. Immediately bring the dog to the veterinarian
A. Apply pressure to the globe to replace it in the socket
Clinical signs of gastric ulcers include: A. Bruxism B. Pyrexia C. Hyposalivation D. All of the above
A. Bruxism
A proptosed globe: A. Can be caused by overzealous restraint of the animal B. Is not considered an emergency C. Can most easily occur on dolichocephalic breeds, such as collies D. Is a consequence of conjunctivitis
A. Can be caused by overzealous restraint of the animal
What does redness, swelling, and purulent discharges from an IV catheter site indicate? A. Catheter site infection B. Catheter leakage C. Catheter occlusion D. Normal insertion site
A. Catheter site infection
Which nutrient assists in the normal peristaltic functions of the GI tract? A. Crude fiber B. Ash mineral C. Protein D. Fatty acids
A. Crude fiber
The term drug compounding refers to which of the following activities? A. Diluting or combining drugs for ease of administration B. Delivering a drug via a different route than is directed on the label C. Delivering a drug at a different dose than is directed on the label D. Delivering the drug to a different species than is directed on the label
A. Diluting or combining drugs for ease of administration
Four patients present at the same time with emergency conditions. In which order should the patients be triaged? A. Dyspnea, dystocia, proptosis, laceration B. Proptosis, dyspnea, dystocia, laceration C. Laceration, dystocia, dyspnea, proptosis D. Dystocia, proptosis, laceration, dyspnea
A. Dyspnea, dystocia, proptosis, laceration
A 5-year-old dog has an exudative, serosanguinous wound that is nonresponsive to antibiotics and corticosteroid therapy. This should alert the clinician to the possibility of which type of problem? A. Fungal B. Neoplastic C. Viral D. Bacterial
A. Fungal
Which of the following is not performed when treating acute gastric dilatation/volvulus? A. Induction of emesis B. Placement of an intravenous catheter C. Passing of a gastric tube D. Trocharization of the stomach
A. Induction of emesis
Which of these drugs is a laxative used most commonly in small animals with chronic constipation? A. Lactulose B. Paregoric C. Loperamide D. Diphenoxylate
A. Lactulose
A canine patient is being held in right lateral recumbency for venipuncture. Which of the following veins are most accessible? A. Left lateral saphenous B. Left medial saphenous C. Right jugular D. Right lateral saphenous
A. Left lateral saphenous
What is the name of the cycle of collecting subjective and objective data, identifying and prioritizing patient problems to be addressed, developing a nursing plan, implementing interventions, and assessing the treatment's effectiveness? A. Nursing process B. Physical exam C. Patient treatment D. Diagnosis
A. Nursing process
Overproduction of tears is always the result of: A. Ocular pain or irritation B. Sad or frightened patients C. Ingesting too much protein D. All of the above
A. Ocular pain or irritation
Which heart condition is most common in Pomeranians? A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Aortic stenosis C. Atrial septal defect D. Ventricular septal defect
A. Patent ductus arteriosus
The thin film covering a tooth that is composed of bacteria, saliva, and food particles is: A. Plaque B. Attrition C. Calculus D. Abrasion
A. Plaque
Coagulation tests are useful for diagnosing: A. Rodenticide poisoning B. Thyroid function C. Adrenal function D. Ethylene glycol poisoning
A. Rodenticide poisoning
In which part of the SOAP medical records does the technician play a large role? A. Subjective/Objective B. Assessment C. Plan D. The technician may complete all of the above portions
A. Subjective/Objective
Which of the following conditions is a common sign of heart failure? A. Tachypnea B. Bradypnea C. Tachycardia D. Bradycardia
A. Tachypnea
The systemic signs of feline Bordetella infection are caused by: A. Toxins released by Bordetella bronchiseptica bacteria B. The presence of virus particles carried in macrophages C. Pulmonary edema caused by the presence of lung abscesses D. Pericarditis related to the presence of viral particles
A. Toxins released by Bordetella bronchiseptica bacteria
What must be present prior to initiating a medical record for an animal. A. a desire to help the animal B. a request by the client C. a valid VCPR D. a request by the local media
A. a desire to help the animal
What type of abnormality would you not expect to be able to feel on abdominal palpation? A. a gastric foreign body B. an enlarged firm bladder in a blocked tom C. large amounts of firm feces in a thin constipated dog D. A large mass on the spleen of a cat
A. a gastric foreign body
A heart rate of 155 bpm and respiratory rate of 30 bpm would be considered normal for: A. an 8 pound 11 y.o neutered male chihuahua B. a 3 y.o. 143 lb intact female great dane C. a seven y.o. 6 lb spayed female cat D. both a and c
A. an 8 pound 11 y.o neutered male chihuahua
Which lymph nodes are NOT normal to palpate on a PE? A. axillary B. popliteal C. prescapular D. mandibular
A. axillary
Who does not have legal right to request medical records? A. other vet clinics B. animal owner C. animal control officers in offical capacity D. law enforcement officers/public health officers in official capacity
A. other vet clinics
Which of these is considered a respiratory emergency? A. panting cat B. panting dog C. purring that won't stop in a cat D. coughing in cats
A. panting cat
Which abdominal organ is not normally palpated on PE A. stomach B. liver C. spleen D. bladder
A. stomach
What is not a normal? A. yellow/green discharge from the prepuce of intact male dog B. clear/blood colored vulva discharge from intact female dog C. intermittent enlargement of the base of the penis in intact male dogs D. foul smelling vulvar discharge from intact female dogs
A. yellow/green discharge from the prepuce of intact male dog
Which breeds of dogs are prone to zinc deficiency and copper storage deficits respectively?
Alaskan malamute and Siberian Husky
Which two essential fatty acids does a dog require?
Alpha-linolenic acid and linoleic acid
How are proteins structured?
Amino acids linked together into a chain
Why is there no dietary need for sulphur?
An appropriate diet contains a mix of amino acids the contain Sulphur.
What is the difference between antagonistic and synergistic interactions?
Antagonist is the presence of one mineral reduces the transport or biological efficacy of the other and synergist is the two minerals act in a complimentary fashion either by sparing or substituting for the other mineral or the two together enhance a biological function.
What is the name of the fatty acid that is required by cats but not by dogs and why do they need it?
Arachidonic acid because they cannot synthesize this from linoleic acid.
What is the known duration of immunity for Bordetella bronchiseptica? A. 6 months B. 1 year C. 3 years D. 5 years
B. 1 year
When obtaining a patient history it is important to: A. Ask leading questions to save time and keep on schedule B. Ask open-ended questions C. Always use medical terms D. Ask leading questions when you already know what the problem is
B. Ask open-ended questions
Arterial blood is most commonly used to analyze: A. Hematology B. Blood gases C. Blood chemistry D. Organ function tests
B. Blood gases
Which of the following bacteria plays a part in infectious canine tracheobronchitis? A. Brucella B. Bordetella C. Borrelia
B. Bordetella
What breed is prone to lip fold dermatitis? A. Chihuahuas B. Bulldogs C. Labradors D. Miniature pinschers
B. Bulldogs
Which mineral is required in the greatest amount in the body? A. Iron B. Calcium C. Sodium D. Potassium
B. Calcium
Which of the following is not an important aspect of informed consent A. Consent person must be 18 or older B. Client education should include full client access to medical records prior authorization for treatment C. Client education should includ diagnosis, treament options and prognosis D. Cleint education should include treatment costs and authorization forms as appropriate
B. Client education should include full client access to medical records prior authorization for treatment
Which of the following is not considered a macro mineral? A. Calcium B. Copper C. Magnesium D. Potassium
B. Copper
The most common systemic mycotic disease in cats is caused by: A. Aspergillus B. Cryptococcus C. Coccidioides D. Blastomyces
B. Cryptococcus
Halitosis is an indication of a problem with which of the following body systems? A. Cardiovascular B. Digestive C. Nervous D. Hematologic
B. Digestive
Which of the following is the most commonly seen cardiovascular disease in the dog? A. Boxer right ventricular cardiomyopathy B. Dilated cardiomyopathy C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Ventricular septal defect
B. Dilated cardiomyopathy
What is the most concentrated source of energy? A. Protein B. Fats C. Carbohydrates D. Ash/vitamins
B. Fats
Prevention of periodontal disease involves all of the following except: A. Daily teeth brushing or mouth rinsing B. Full mouth extractions C. Routine professional scaling and polishing D. Proper diet
B. Full mouth extractions
If the patient is vomiting fresh or digested blood, this is termed: A. Hematemesis B. Hematochezia C. Hematuria D. Hemoabdomen
B. Hematochezia
Mrs. Walker comes to pick up her dog after dental cleaning has been performed. Which of the following topics would be least helpful to discuss as a part of the discharge instructions? A. Dietary concerns B. How to give injections C. Home care D. Postoperative complications
B. How to give injections
Which of the following conditions can be life threatening? A. Hyperglycemia B. Hypoglycemia C. Polyuria D. Polyphagia
B. Hypoglycemia
Technicians administering IV chemotherapy drugs via an IV catheter must be vigilant. If you suspect some of the drug may have leaked out of the vessel into the surrounding tissue, you should: A. Immediately remove the IV catheter B. Leave the IV catheter in place C. Continue to administer the drug D. No action is required
B. Leave the IV catheter in place
Which of the following are characteristics of a transudate? (There may be more than one answer.) A. High total protein B. Low nucleated cell count C. Low total protein D. High nucleated cell count
B. Low nucleated cell count C. Low total protein
Which of these is not considered a micro mineral? A. Iron B. Magnesium C. Manganese D. Copper
B. Magnesium
Which of the following conditions is not a cause of central vestibular disease? A. Neoplasia B. Ottitis interna C. Infection D. Inflammation
B. Ottitis interna
A puppy is having a "machinery-like" murmur that is best heard on the left side of the chest. What cardiovascular defect is most likely? A. Tetralogy of Fallot B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Septal defect D. Mitral stenosis
B. Patent ductus arteriosus
Which statement concerning a dog having a seizure is most correct? A. Grasp the dog's tongue and pull it forward to prevent airway obstruction B. Prevent the dog from injuring itself C. Administer oral anticonvulsants D. immediately start infusion of intravenous fluids
B. Prevent the dog from injuring itself
Which of the following diagnostic procedures might be of use in diagnosing nasal tumors or masses? (There may be more than one answer.) A. Serum chemistry B. Radiograph C. Endoscopy D. Computed tomography or magnetic resonance imaging
B. Radiograph D. Computed tomography or magnetic resonance imaging
Which part of a discharge form is not necessary to include? A. Review of complications B. Review of the completed SOAP format medical records C. Follow up plan D. demonstration of medication/treatment techniques
B. Review of the completed SOAP format medical records
Which class of controlled substance used in veterinary medicine has the highest risk for addiction and abuse in humans? A. Schedule 1 B. Schedule II C. Schedule IV D. Schedule V
B. Schedule II
A large amount of fat in the feces is known as which of the following? A. Lipase B. Steatorrhea C. Lipolysis D. Malodorous
B. Steatorrhea
Which sense is not used by the technician during the PE exam A. Sight B. Taste C. touch D. smell
B. Taste
What amino acid do cats require in their diet to avoid cardiomyopathy? A. Cysteine B. Taurine C. Guanine D. Isoleucine
B. Taurine
What amino acid does a cat require in its diet to avoid dilated cardiomyopathy? A. Cysteine B. Taurine C. Guanine D. Isoleucine
B. Taurine
Which of the following signs of heartworm infection in the cat is not commonly seen in the heartworm-infected dog? A. Coughing B. Vomiting C. No sign of disease
B. Vomiting
What is the name of uneven pupil size A. anisocytosis B. anisocoria C. anaplasmosis D. anastasia
B. anisocoria
What is the ideal body condition score (BCS) on cats and dogs on a 9 point scale A. cats: 5 dogs :5 B. cats : 5 dogs : 4-5 C. cats: 5 dogs : 6 D. cats : 6 dogs : 6
B. cats : 5 dogs : 4-5
In which region of the abdomen is the bladder usually palpated? A. middle ventral B. caudal ventral C. cranial ventral D. caudal dorsal
B. caudal ventral
Which of these conditions is the most common injury to the eye in dogs? A. Dermoid cyst B. corneal ulcer C. cherry eye D. cataracts in old dogs
B. corneal ulcer
How long should medical records be maintained in clinics? A. 3 years B. depends on the local state laws but usually 7 years C. 5 years D. 10 years
B. depends on the local state laws but usually 7 years
Internal rotation of one or both eyelids is know as: A. ectropion B. entropion C. cherry eye D. enucleation
B. entropion
Cyanotic mucous membrane are: A. an indication of liver disease B. indication of lack of oxygen C. a sign of anemia D. a sign of shock
B. indication of lack of oxygen
When you advance your finger quickly towards the eye of a dog or cat and they blink this is known as the ____________. A. vision response B. menace response C. threat response D. vision reflex
B. menace response
Which type of bite is considered normal in dogs? A. straight B. scissor C. overbite D. underbite in brachycephalic breeds
B. scissor
Which macro minerals maintain water balance in the body? A. Sodium and phosphorus B. sodium and chloride C. sodium and magnessium D. sodium and calcium
B. sodium and chloride
In general, what function do vitamins serve?
Biological antioxidants
How is calcium homeostasis maintained?
By the co-ordinated actions of PTH, calcitonin, and active vitamin D.
A dog showing skin tent of 2 seconds, CRT 4 sec, and tachy to dry MM would be what % dehydrated? A. <5 B. 6-8 C. 10-12 D. 12-15
C. 10-12
Orogastric intubation is sometimes necessary for a variety of reasons. The length of the tube is measured from the nose to which of the following? A. Thoracic inlet B. 8th rib C. 13th rib D. Medial canthus
C. 13th rib
The life span of the adult Dirofilaria immitis in the cat is approximately: A. 5 years B. 10 years C. 2 years D. 3 years
C. 2 years
If a patient presents with a heart murmur that can be heard with the stethoscope bell slightly off of the thoracic wall, which grade would the heart murmur receive? A. 1/6 B. 4/6 C. 6/6 D. Murmurs are not graded
C. 6/6
How many days after a tick attaches itself to a dog will one see neurological signs associated with tick paralysis? A. 1 B. 3 C. 7 D. 11
C. 7
Water makes up what approximate % body composition of adult dogs and cats? A. 30 B. 50 C. 70 D. 80
C. 70
While examining a Doberman, you hear a rapid, irregular heart rate with pulse deficits. This arrhythmia is most likely: A. Ventricular fibrillation B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Atrial fibrillation D. Sinus tachycardia
C. Atrial fibrillation
A client calls the hospital because she has noticed a barbed fishhook embedded in her dog's lower lip. The client should be advised to: A. Gently attempt to pull out the fishhook B. Observe the dog at home; most fishhooks fall out spontaneously within 24 hours C. Bring the animal to see the veterinarian as soon as possible D. Administer aspirin for discomfort and see the veterinarian right away
C. Bring the animal to see the veterinarian as soon as possible
Opaque pupillary opening and progressive vision loss may be seen in patients with: A. Calicivirus B. Parvovirus C. Cataracts D. Distemper
C. Cataracts
Pancreatitis occurs in both dogs and cats. Which of the following statements is false? A. Acute pancreatitis is seen more commonly in dogs B. Chronic pancreatitis is more common in cats C. Chronic pancreatitis is often caused by dietary indiscretion D. Acute pancreatitis is often caused by dietary indiscretion
C. Chronic pancreatitis is often caused by dietary indiscretion
The transparent covering of the front of the eye is called the: A. Lens B. Iris C. Cornea D. Pupil
C. Cornea
Pica is a term used to describe: A. A partial reduction in appetite B. Ingestion of an animal's own feces C. Cravings for eating unusual food or objects D. Loss of desire to eat
C. Cravings for eating unusual food or objects
External parasites are responsible for many skin problems seen in small-animal medicine. All of the following may be treated with shampoos and dips, except: A. Fleas B. Ticks C. Ear mites D. Mange mites
C. Ear mites
What is the first sign that owners see that alerts them to the fact that their pet may have dental disease? A. Periodontal disease B. Gingivitis C. Halitosis D. Visualization of plaque
C. Halitosis
Viral rhinotracheitis is caused by: A. Canine distemper B. Canine parvovirus C. Herpesvirus D. von Willebrand's
C. Herpesvirus
Which of the following endocrine diseases results in weight loss and a ravenous appetite in cats? A. Hyperadrenocorticism B. Hypoadrenocorticism C. Hyperthyroidism D. Hypothyroidism
C. Hyperthyroidism
A heartworm preventative that is also approved for the treatment of ear mites and sarcoptic mange is: A. Diethylcarbamazine B. Milbemycin C. Ivermectin D. Selamectin
C. Ivermectin
All of the following would be considered a core vaccine, except: A. Modified live panleukopenia B. Herpes-calicivirus C. Leukaemia D. Rabies
C. Leukaemia
How should a patient with a potential spinal injury be transported to the hospital? A. Sitting B. Standing C. Lying on a flat board D. Moving as you wish
C. Lying on a flat board
A patient presents with a history of collapse. While obtaining vitals, you notice the pulses become weaker with inspiration and stronger with expiration. The heart sounds are muffled and the height of the QRS complex on the patient's EKG changes with each beat. Which of the following conditions may be the cause of these clinical signs? A. Heart failure B. Hypovolemia C. Pericardial effusion D. Pneumothorax
C. Pericardial effusion
Which of the following statements is true regarding the administration of liquids via the oral cavity in a dog? A. Flush a large bolus of fluid directly into the mouth B. Flush a very small bolus of fluid directly into pharyngeal area C. Place fluid between the teeth and the cheek, and allow the patient to swallow on its own accord D. Place the fluid between the teeth and the cheek in large enough amounts so that the patient will be forced to swallow
C. Place fluid between the teeth and the cheek, and allow the patient to swallow on its own accord
Gastric dilatation/volvulus (GDV) is a life-threatening emergency. Which of the following veins becomes obstructed as a result of GDV? A. Femoral vein B. Gastroduodenal vein C. Portal vein D. Renal vein
C. Portal vein
The preferred spot for thoracocentesis is the _______ space. A. Fifth intercostal B. Third intercostal C. Seventh intercostal D. Tenth intercostal
C. Seventh intercostal
Which of the following is a sign of insulin overdose in treated diabetic patients? A. Muscle wasting B. Polyuria C. Severe lethargy and seizures D. Vomiting and halitosis
C. Severe lethargy and seizures
A client owning a diabetic cat calls the practice and says that her cat has just had a seizure and collapsed. She gave the cat its usual dose of insulin that morning, but the animal has not eaten anything during the day. What should the next recommendation entail? A. Another dose of insulin, then bring the cat to the clinic for medical attention B. Some corn syrup or sugar solution on the gums, then observe the cat at home C. Some corn syrup or sugar solution on the gums, then bring the cat to the clinic for medical attention
C. Some corn syrup or sugar solution on the gums, then bring the cat to the clinic for medical attention
Who owns the medical records? A. Client B. Anyone in the client's household C. The practice working on the animal D. The individual veterinarian working on the animal
C. The practice working on the animal
Which of the following correctly defines the term prognosis? A. The surgical procedure B. The medication prescribed C. The prediction of the outcome of a disease D. The treatment plan
C. The prediction of the outcome of a disease
Which statement is false concerning the collection of a plasma sample for a blood chemistry analysis? A. If a needle and syringe are used, hemolysis can be minimized by removing the needle from the syringe before discharging the blood into a sample tube. B. Volume changes caused by evaporation can be minimized by keeping the cap on the blood collection tube as much as possible. C. To separate, allow the sample to clot for approximately 30 minutes; gently remove the clot from the sides of the tube, centrifuge, and then remove the plasma. D. Avoid lipemia by fasting the animal before collecting the sample.
C. To separate, allow the sample to clot for approximately 30 minutes; gently remove the clot from the sides of the tube, centrifuge, and then remove the plasma.
Certain medications applied topically to the skin have systemic and local effects. Many drugs commonly administered by the oral route, such as prednisone or methimazole, can be formulated into an ointment for this type of application. Other medications, such as nitroglycerin, are manufactured as a cream to be applied directly to the skin. Which of the following terms indicates this route of medication application? A. Diuretic B. Emetics C. Transdermal D. Viscu
C. Transdermal
Which of the following arrhythmias is characterized by a fast, irregular rhythm with wide and bizarre QRS complexes? A. 3rd degree AV block B. Atrial premature complexes C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Sinus bradycardia
C. Ventricular tachycardia
Which of these lymph nodes should you not be able to palpate on a normal healthy animal exam? A. popliteal B. submandibular C. axillary D. prescapular
C. axillary
Technicians should become competent at palpating this internal abdominal structure in order to perform a cystocentesis A. spleen B. liver C. bladder D. kidney
C. bladder
What is the number one purpose of medical records? A. Avoid lawsuits B. ensure correct billing C. continuity of care D. following state and federal laws
C. continuity of care
Where is the best location to listen to the heart of a cat? A. left side B. right side C. directly over the sternum D. direct caudal to the scapula
C. directly over the sternum
In an emergency it is okay to skip: A. everything except HR B. everything except HR, RR, MM, pupils, and weight C. everything except HR, RR, MM, pupils D. It is not okay to skip any part of the PE even in an emergency situation
C. everything except HR, RR, MM, pupils
Which micro mineral is crucial for normal thyroid function? A. copper B. manganese C. iodine D. zinc
C. iodine
What are the 2 most common minerals and why are they important?
Calcium and phosphorus. They are important because they serve as structural components of bones and teeth.
When is calcium deficiency most likely to occur?
Commonly occurs when feeding foods that are high in phosphorus and in lactating bitches.
Is the regulation of food intake complex or simple?
Complex
What foods contain flavonoids and why are they important?
Cucumber, peppers, eggplant, tomatoes, and red grapes. Sparing effect on vitamin C and further support the antioxidant system.
Which of the following statements is false? A. Tooth brushing and avoiding treats containing sugars prevent caries in dogs B. Attrition, abrasion, and tooth fracture are prevented by modifying play behaviors or changing the animal's environment C. There is no magic bullet that we can feed our pets to prevent periodontal disease; daily tooth brushing remains the single most effective method of restoring inflamed gingivae to health and of then maintaining clinically healthy gingivae. D. After receiving instructions, clients will maintain a dental home care program on a daily basis
D. After receiving instructions, clients will maintain a dental home care program on a daily basis
Ketamine administration would be contraindicated in which of the following disease processes? A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Congestive heart failure C. Unstable shock patients D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Myasthenia gravis is commonly associated with: A. Megaesophagus B. Exercise intolerance C. Aspiration pneumonia D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Which medical issue can develop secondary to obesity A. arthritis and joint issues B. Diabetes C. respiratory and cardiovascular disease D. All of the above and more
D. All of the above and more
Which of the following is the most critical requirement of proper medical records A. write legibly or type in black ink B. date, time, and signature for all entries C. Tampering with records can not be done. Errors should have one line through and be signed and dated if corrected on another date D. All of the above are equally important
D. All of the above are equally important
While monitoring a dog under anesthesia, the technician notes different-looking QRS complexes on the ECG. The technician should do which of the following: A. Note the occurrence of the arrhythmia on the anesthesia record. B. Inform the doctor of the change in the ECG. C. Auscultate the heart directly and check femoral pulses. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
A client calls the hospital because he has noticed that his cat has a string protruding from under the tongue. The client should be advised to: A. Gently attempt to pull out the string B. Induce emesis C. Cut the string and administer laxatives at home D. Bring the cat to the clinic for examination
D. Bring the cat to the clinic for examination
The diuretic drug used most commonly in patients with congestive heart failure is: A. Mannitol B. Spironolactone C. Chlorothiazide D. Furosemide
D. Furosemide
When administering oral liquid medications the patient's neck should be: A. Hyperextended B. Flexed in a downward angle C. Flexed in an upward angle D. Held at a neutral angle
D. Held at a neutral angle
Vaccines may be given by any of the following routes, except: A. Subcutaneously B. Intramuscularly C. Intranasally D. Intraperitoneal
D. Intraperitoneal
To fill prescriptions or administer a medication, technicians must be familiar with medical abbreviations. Which of the following abbreviations indicates a medication that is to applied to both eyes? A. AU B. OD C. OS D. OU
D. OU
Which of the following points are true in gathering patient data during the nursing process? A. Past medical history should be ignored because the presenting problem might not be related. B. Consulting the veterinarian is unnecessary for a veterinary technician to assess a patient. C. The physical exam should be focused on the area of concern for efficiency. D. Owner's presenting complaint and description of history should be taken.
D. Owner's presenting complaint and description of history should be taken.
Duragesic (Fentanyl) transdermal patches are used most commonly in veterinary medicine to control: A. Diarrhea B. Vomiting C. Seizures D. Pain
D. Pain
What is the most common dental disease found in dogs and cats? A. Endodontic disease B. Oral tumors C. Jaw fractures D. Periodontal disease
D. Periodontal disease
An owner reports that her Weimaraner puppy is regurgitating undigested food every time the puppy eats. The puppy is losing weight and is coughing. Which of the following abnormalities might this puppy be exhibiting? A. Mitral stenosis B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Atrial septal defect D. Persistent right aortic arch
D. Persistent right aortic arch
What is not usually a sign of acute gastric dilatation/volvulus? A. Unproductive vomiting B. Hypersalivation C. Abdominal distention D. Profuse diarrhea
D. Profuse diarrhea
Which of the following terms refers to excessive salivation? A. Borborygmus B. Dyschezia C. Polyphagia D. Ptyalism
D. Ptyalism
Which vessel contains oxygenated blood? A. Vena cava B. Jugular vein C. Pulmonary artery D. Pulmonary vein
D. Pulmonary vein
Which of the amino acids is needed in cats specifically? A. Lycine B. Leucine C. Tryptophan D. Taurine
D. Taurine
Feline asthma can be treated with: A. Amphotericin B B. Digoxin C. Hydralazine D. Terbutaline
D. Terbutaline
Which of the following conditions matches a patient exhibiting a head tilt, facial paresis, nystagmus, positional strabismus, and ataxia? A. Brachycephalic syndrome B. Horner syndrome C. Wobbler syndrome D. Vestibular syndrome
D. Vestibular syndrome
Which fat soluble vitamin is critical for blood clot formation? A. Vitamin B12 B. Vitamin B 6 C. Vitamin B1 D. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin K
The forceful expulsion of stomach contents that requires abdominal contractions is: A. Cachexia B. Cathartics C. Regurgitation D. Vomiting
D. Vomiting
What is the number one food component of nutrition? A. Protein B. Fats C. Carbohydrates D. Water
D. Water
Which of the following is not a type of carbohydrate? A. starches B. crude fiber C. sugars D. all are carbohydrates
D. all are carbohydrates
Taurine deficiency may result in: A. reproductive abnormalities B. heart disease C. retinal damage D. all of the above
D. all of the above
Feline obstipation is also known as: A. IBD B. Megacolon C. Constipation D. both a and b
D. both a and b
Monitoring weight is critical for the following reasons: A. accurate drug dose calculations B. monitoring weight gain/loss with metabolic disease C. to prove to clients that all dogs and cats are obese D. both a and b
D. both a and b
If the protein number on the bag said 28-30% which animal would that be appropriate for? A. cat B. dog C. puppy D. both a and c
D. both a and c
When you flip over a foot onto the dorsum and wait for dog to flip it back to normal plantar/palmar stance you are testing ________? A. cutaneous trunci B. cranial nerves C. withdraw reflex D. conscious proprioception
D. conscious proprioception
With reference to body condition which would be an appropriate "body shape?" A. foot stool B. ottoman C. tick D. hourglass
D. hourglass
What does DER and RER stand for?
DER is daily energy requirement and RER is resting energy requirement.
What are the signs of vitamin B deficiency?
Dermatitis, alopecia, and dull coat.
What may cause electrolyte imbalances?
Diarrhea, vomiting, fever, any problem that causes dehydration, chronic heart disease, kidney diseases, chronic endocrine diseases, medicines.
What is the function of proteins?
Essential for building of tissues and organs.
True or False: Clients have legal rights to take original medical records as they are the official owner of the animal.
False
True or False: In order for a heart rate to be considered normal it must always have an identical time interval between heartbeats.
False
True or False: MAORS should include treatment dates, times, doses, patient name and I.D. but do not require signatures/initials as this is not a legal document.
False
True or False: Protein is the number one most important piece of nutrition in small animals.
False
True or False: The blink response an animal gives when you advance your finger rapidly towards the eye is known as the cutaneous trunci response
False
True or False: The feline herpesvirus responsible for feline viral rhinotracheitis (FVR) is hardy and will remain in the environment for years.
False
True or False: The following lymph nodes would be normal to feel on the examination of a healthy dog: submandibular, pre-scapular, popliteal, and axillary
False
True or False: Vascularization (blood vessels) across the cornea are normal in certain situations
False
What are the 3 categories of vitamins?
Fat-soluble, water-soluble, and vitamin-like substances
Amino acids contain four groups. What are they?
Hydrogen, carboxyl group, amino group, and chemical group
What are the different mechanisms for mineral interactions?
In the food during processing, in the digestive tract, at the time of transport, at tissue level, and in excretory pathway.
What are the 4 most important microminerals?
Iron, zinc, copper, and selenium.
Why is gelatin low in biological value?
It is deficient in essential amino acid tryptophan
Why does the energy requirement of pets vary?
It varies on age, reproductive status, breed, environment, gender, health status, and activity levels.
Which vitamin-like substance may help overweight pets lose weight?
L-carnitine
In dogs, what problems can a low carbohydrate diet cause?
Lethargy, reduced milk production, reduced live births, fetus abnormalities, and embryo resorption
What is the correct term for fats?
Lipids
Which nutrients do not provide energy?
Mineral, vitamins, and water
What functions do minerals serve?
Minerals for the maintenance of skeletal structures, acid base and fluid balance, cellular function, nerve conduction, and muscle contraction.
Where and how are simple carbohydrates and starches digested in the body?
Occurs throughout the digestive tract. First, they are broken down in mouth. Then they go through the gastric juices of the stomach, and then the small intestine. Last is the large intestine.
What foods contain carotenoids and what function do they serve?
Orange and green vegetables (butternut squash, peas, broccoli, pumpkin, and carrots). They function as antioxidants.
What are the signs of vitamin A toxicity in cats?
Painful bone disease, failure to groom due to neck flexing, and liver damage.
Why is vitamin K important?
Regulates formation of several blood-clotting factors
What purpose does selenium serve?
Selenium preserves integrity of the pancreas, which allows normal fat digestion and therefore normal absorption of vitamin E. Reduces the amount of vitamin E required to maintain integrity of lipid membranes. Aids retention of vitamin E in the blood plasma.
Explain how body surface area is related to the energy requirement of a pet.
Small animals have a larger surface area relatively to their body weight and therefore have relatively greater heat loss and so relatively greater DER.
What are the seven macrominerals?
Sodium, Sulphur, potassium, magnesium, calcium, chloride, and phosphorus.
Which essential amino acid is required by cats but not by dogs and where is it found?
Taurine, found in animal tissues
What happens to excess carbohydrates in the body?
They are converted into body fat
What are antioxidants? Name 2 different types?
They are enzymes or other molecules that can counteract the damaging effects of oxygen derivatives in food or tissue. Biologically active (carotenoids) and food antioxidants preventing food from going rancid (rosemary oil)
What function do electrolytes serve?
They are needed to keep the body's balance of fluids at the proper level.
What happens to amino acids after absorption?
They are reassembled into new proteins by the liver and other tissues.
Why are proteins called the 'backbone' of the cells?
They have a structural role in all the cell walls.
What are major functions of fibre?
To promote and regulate normal bowel function and to help maintain the health of the colon by providing fuel for the cells
What method is used to calculate the content of nutrients in food?
Total amount of potential energy in the food has to be found which is considered gross energy, but not all pets use all the gross energy, some is lost in form of heat or through urine and feces. This means that its more convenient to adjust the gross energy to reflect the amount of energy that is actually available for the needs, which is called metabolizable energy.
What do dietary fats contain?
Triglycerides
True or False: Logs for other purposes outside of the medical record may still be considered as legal documents (i.e. drug logs, radiology logs, etc)
True
True or False: Technicians can transmit respiratory viruses to uninfected cats by contact with hands and clothes.
True
True or False: Technicians should do a brief musculoskeletal exam to check for symmetry, swelling, and lameness of the limbs and joints.
True
True or False: The assessment and plan part of the exam must be completed by the veterinarian.
True
True or False: The technician should examine all structures of the mouth at every possible chance, particularly when an animal is sedated/under anesthesia.
True
How are fats and oils digested?
Via enzymatic and physical processes. Takes place in the stomach and small intestine.
Which vitamin is not considered essential for dogs and cats?
Vitamin C
Which fat-soluble vitamin is the least toxic?
Vitamin E
Which nutrient is considered the most important for sustaining life?
Water
What are the consequences of inadequate energy intake?
Weight loss and/or poor growth
How is energy content of food calculated?
You have to calculate how many kilocalories pet needs and how much energy the food contains based on metabolizable energy. To know the proportions, you need to know the different nutrients in the food.
What information do you need when communicating exactly how much food a pet needs when speaking to a pet owner?
You need to know the nutrients, vitamins, and caloric contents of the food they are feeding. You also need to know the weight of the dog, energy requirements, age, and health status of the pet.
When might recommended levels of protein vary?
Young animals and pregnant animals and pathophysiological state of the pet.
What are the clinical signs of vitamin D deficiency?
Young animals get rickets. Adults get enlarged junctions of the cartilage of the ribs, osteomalacia, and osteoporosis.
With the use of therapeutic ultrasound at what frequency can a penetration depth of 4 to 5 cm be achieved? a. 1 MHz b. 3 MHz c. 7.5 MHz d. 12 MHz
a. 1 MHz
If a neonatal puppy or kitten is sick, the volume of blood drawn should not be more than __% of the circulating volume. a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 25
a. 5
At what age do kitten open their eyes? a. 7 to 12 days of age b. 14 to 16 days of age c. 4 weeks of age d. 6 weeks of age
a. 7 to 12 days of age
When using hydrotherapy for exercise, to obtain approximately 85% of normal weight bearing, where should the water level be? a. At the level of the stifle b. At the level of the tarsus c. At the level of the greater trochanter d. Just above the spine
a. At the level of the stifle
A gulick is a tool used in physical therapy to measure what? a. Muscle mass b. Range of motion c. Nerve stimulation d. Muscle stimulation
a. Muscle mass
Pulsed therapeutic ultrasound is used for which of the following? a. To increase circulation b. To enhance healing and eliminate swelling c. To decrease circulation d. To cause destruction to tissue to aid in the stretching of scar tissue
a. To increase circulation
By which age are puppies and kittens able to crawl in a coordinated manner? a. 2 to 3 days b. 1 week c. 3 weeks d. 1 month
b. 1 week
What is the typical body temperature of puppies and kittens at birth? a. 87.2° to 91.5° F b. 94.5° to 97.3° F c. 97.4° to 100° F d. 99.5° to 102.5° F
b. 94.5° to 97.3° F
With the use of hydrotherapy, the hydrostatic pressure of water reduces what? a. Weight b. Edema c. Muscle mass d. Stress on joints
b. Edema
Which of the following supplements inhibits enzymes that are responsible for cartilage degradation and decreases the production of inflammatory mediators? a. Omega 3 fatty acids b. Glucosamine c. Chondroitin d. Fish oils
b. Glucosamine
A goniometer used in physical therapy is used to measure what? a. Pain tolerance b. Range of motion of distal joints c. Muscle mass d. Body mass index
b. Range of motion of distal joints
In neonatal puppies and kittens that are hypothermic, raising body temperatures by more than __° F within an hour is usually fatal because of delayed organ failure. a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8
c. 4
At what age do testicles descend into the scrotum of puppies? a. At birth b. 3 to 4 weeks of age c. 6 to 8 weeks of age d. 6 months of age
c. 6 to 8 weeks of age
Passive range of motion is the use of stretching to prevent the loss of what? a. Bone mass b. Muscle mass c. Normal range of motion d. Synovial fluid
c. Normal range of motion
Dextrose solutions should never be given via which route in neonatal puppies or kittens? a. Intravenously b. Orally c. Subcutaneously d. None; dextrose cannot be given to neonates
c. Subcutaneously
Chondroprotectants are oral or injectable medications that can help maintain the health of which of the following? a. Joint fluid b. Nerves c. Muscles d. Cartilage cushions
d. Cartilage cushions
Which of the following supplements has been shown to have beneficial effects in the treatment of cardiovascular disease? a. Hyaluronic acid b. Chondroitin c. Polysulfated glycosaminoglycans d. Omega 3 fatty acids
d. Omega 3 fatty acids
