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23. According to Kolb and Coolidge, during a negotiation men tend to A) demarcate negotiating from other behaviors that occur in the relationship. B) perceive negotiation as part of the larger context within which it takes place. C) seek empowerment when there is interaction among all parties in the relationship. D) to engage the other in a joint exploration of ideas. E) None of the above.

31. In which of the following examples is the communication model listed in the correct order? A) sender encodes the message, message is transmitted, receiver decodes the message, receiver provides feedback to the sender B) message is transmitted, sender encodes the message, receiver decodes the message, receiver provides feedback to the sender C) sender encodes the message, receiver decodes the message, message is transmitted, receiver provides feedback to the sender D) sender encodes the message, message is transmitted, receiver provides feedback to the sender, receiver decodes the message E) None of the above list the communication process in the correct order.

33. Nearly 50 years ago there were five major types of sources of power that could be exercised. All but one of the following is part of that group. Which one is not? A) Personal power. B) Reward power. C) Coercive power. D) Legitimate power. E) Referent power.

33. Which of the following lists three of the major types of coalitions? A) potential coalitions, operating coalitions, and recurring coalitions B) external coalitions, operating coalitions, and recurring coalitions C) latent coalitions, established coalitions, and potential coalitions D) established coalitions, operating coalitions, and temporary coalitions E) None of the above lists three major types of coalitions.

35. Information as a source of power is A) the accumulation and presentation of data to change the other person's point of view or position on an issue. B) an acknowledged accumulation of information, or mastery of a body of information, on a particular problem or issue. C) the accumulation of money, raw material, manpower, time or equipment which can by used to create incentives for other people to comply, or as threats and punishments if they do not comply. D) power derived from being located in a particular position in an organizational or communication structure. E) Information as a source of power is all of the above.

35. What is the "paradox" of being a coalition founder? A) Early in the coalition building process, the founder may have to give away a lot in order to apparently gain a little. B) The founder's position shifts from strength to weakness as the coalition grows. C) The founder is usually not a part of the leadership of the coalition. D) The founder's early share in the coalition is large, and grows as more members are added. E) None of the above describes the paradox of being a coalition founder.

36. Expert power is A) accorded to those who are seen as having achieved some level of command and mastery of specific information. B) derived from the ability to allocate, dispense, or withhold resources. C) derived from occupying a particular job, office, or position in an organizational hierarchy. D) derived from the ability to assemble and organize information to support the desired position, arguments, or outcomes. E) All of the above are characteristics of expert power.

41. Persuasion occurring through the peripheral route is A) likely to last a shorter time than central route persuasion. B) integrated into existing cognitive structures. C) used to determine if the position taken by the source has any merit. D) involves thought and integration of the message into the individual's previously existing cognitive structures. E) None of the above occurs through the peripheral route of persuasion.

41. Strategic power in coalitions A) emerges from the availability of alternative coalition partners. B) derives from what parties consider a fair or just distribution of the outcomes and results of a coalition. C) is dependent on which party's arguments ultimately shape the allocation rule used by the group. D) is shaped by the compatibility of preferences between two or more parties. E) Strategic power in coalitions is described by all of the above.

42. A constituency is A) one or more parties whose interests, demands, or priorities are being represented by the focal negotiator at the table. B) a negotiator representing the interests of another party. C) any individual or group of people who are not directly involved in or affected by a negotiation, but who have a chance to observe and react to the ongoing events. D) two or more parties on the same side who are working together and collectively advocating the same positions and interests. E) A constituency can be defined by all of the above.

42. Intransigence can be defined as A. an unwillingness to move to any fall-back position through concession or compromise. B. the use of concession or compromise to deceive an opponent. C. a propensity to use distributive bargaining in all negotiation situations. D. the escalation of power in international negotiations. E. Intransigence can be defined as all of the above.

44. Bedfellows are parties with whom a negotiator has A) high agreement and low trust. B) low agreement and high trust. C) low agreement and low trust. D) high agreement and high trust. E) Bedfellows have none of the above characteristics.

46. Communal sharing is a relationship of A) unity, community, collective identity, and kindness. B) asymmetric differences. C) one-to-one correspondence. D) balanced reciprocity. E) None of the above describes a relationship of communal sharing.

52. Schneider suggests what options for handling offensive behavior? A. ignoring it, confronting it, deflecting it, engaging it B. ignoring it, manipulating it, responding in kind, engaging it C. manipulating it, confronting it, responding in kind, engaging it D. confronting it, deflecting it, responding in kind, engaging it E. Schneider suggests none of the above options for handling offensive behavior.

52. The norm of reciprocity A) suggests that when we receive something from another person we should respond in the future with a favor for them. B) plays only a nominal role in negotiations. C) applies only to favors of the same size. D) is prevalent only in Western culture. E) None of the above statements describe the norm of reciprocity.

52. The target point is the A) point at which a negotiator would like to conclude negotiations. B) negotiator's bottom line. C) first offer a negotiator quotes to his opponent. D) initial price set by the seller. E) None of the above describes the target point.

53. In calculus-based trust A) the trustor calculates the value of creating and sustaining trust in the relationship relative to the costs of severing it. B) the relationship develops over time, largely because the parties develop a history of experience with each other which allows them to predict the other's behavior. C) regular communication and courtship are key processes. D) the parties effectively understand and appreciate the other's wants. E) All of the above statements are inherent in calculus based trust.

53. Only one of the approaches to ethical reasoning has as its central tenet that actions are more right if they promote more happiness, more wrong as they produce unhappiness. Which approach applies? A) End-result ethics. B) Duty ethics. C) Social context ethics. D) Personalistic ethics. E) Reasoning ethics.

53. Starting points A) are usually contained in the opening statements each negotiator makes. B) are usually learned or inferred as negotiations get under way. C) are not known to the other party. D) are given up as concessions are made. E) None of the above describes starting points.

54. The dominant purpose of mediation and process consultation is to A) enhance the parties' dispute resolution skills. B) encourage the parties to "agree to disagree." C) encourage the parties to surrender control over the outcome of their dispute to the third party's best judgment. D) achieve a satisfactory dispute resolution at any cost. E) None of the above states the dominant purpose of mediation and process consultation.

54. The objective of both parties in distributive bargaining is to obtain as much of which of the following as possible? A) bargaining range B) resistance point C) target point D) bargaining mix E) None of the above.

55. Which of the following strategies should negotiators with a low familiarity with the other culture choose? A) employ agents or advisers B) adapt to the other party's approach C) coordinate adjustment D) embrace the other party's approach E) Negotiators with a low familiarity with the other culture should not choose any of the above strategies.

56. Constructive bargaining relationships are typically marked by conditions of A. high trust. B. high distrust. C. high vigilance. D. high monitoring behaviors. E. Constructive bargaining relationships are typically not marked by any of the above conditions.

56. Substantive interests A) are the interests that relate to the focal issues under negotiation. B) are related to the way we settle the dispute. C) mean that one or both parties value their relationship with each other and do not want to take actions that will damage the relationship. D) regard what is fair, what is right, what is acceptable, what is ethical, or what has been done in the past and should be done in the future. E) All of the above relate to substantive interests.

57. How can we reward people for what they say during a negotiation? A) acknowledge and support a point that they have made B) ignore or underplay points that we feel need to be emphasized but which weren't C) encourage the other party to develop unfavorable points D) accept all concessions and favors without returning any E) None of the above tactics can be used to reward people for what they say during a negotiation.

57. What is the implication of the dilemma of trust? A) We believe everything the other says and can be manipulated by their dishonesty. B) We do not believe anything the other says and therefore are immune to their dishonesty. C) We tell the other party our exact requirements and limits in negotiation, and therefore we will never do better than this minimum level. D) We never reveal our requirements and limits in negotiation, and therefore are able to far exceed that minimum level. E) None of the above describes the implication of the dilemma of trust.

58. A large majority of agreements in distributive bargaining are reached when the deadline is A) near. B) flexible. C) past. D) undefined. E) None of the above.

58. Direct analogies are those in which A. the problem is placed or examined in a totally different field of information. B. the problem is restated in terms of a party's fantasized or wished-for state. C. a party puts himself or herself in the problem situation, attempting to identify with it or empathize with those in the situation. D. a different, often graphic image is conjured up to focus attention and provide a starting point for more open discussion. E. None of the above describes direct analogies.

58. Successful logrolling requires A) that the parties establish more than one issue in conflict and then agree to trade off among these issues so one party achieves a highly preferred outcome on the first issue and the other person achieves a highly preferred outcome on the second issue. B) no additional information about the other party than his/her interests, and assumes that simply enlarging the resources will solve the problem. C) that one party is allowed to obtain his/her objectives and he/she then "pays off" the other party for accommodating his/her interests. D) a fundamental reformulation of the problem such that the parties are disclosing sufficient information to discover their interests and needs and then inventing options that will satisfy both parties' needs. E) Successful logrolling requires all of the above.

58. The "harmony-and-light speech" A) communicates that the other negotiator is interested in building a personal relationship. B) indicates that the parties are adamant in their positions. C) is a clear sign that negotiations will be tense. D) is another name for a deadlocked negotiation. E) The "harmony and light speech" accomplishes none of the above.

58. The chilling effect states that A) if negotiators anticipate that their own failure to agree will lead to a binding arbitration, they lose their incentive to work seriously for a negotiated settlement. B) when arbitration is anticipated as a result of the failure of parties to agree, negotiators may lose interest in the process of negotiating. C) as the frequency of arbitration increases, disenchantment with the adequacy and fairness of the process develops, and the parties may resort to other means to resolve their disputes. D) perceived patterns of partiality toward one side may jeopardize the arbitrator's acceptability in future disputes.

59. The "embrace the other party's approach" strategy involves A) adopting completely the approach of the other party. B) both parties making mutual adjustments to find a common process for negotiation. C) creating a new approach that may include aspects of either home culture or practices from a third culture. D) persuading the other party to use your approach. E) The "embrace the other party's approach" strategy involves all of the above.

60. When working to create a new approach that may include aspects of either home culture or adopt practices from a third culture, negotiators are using what approach? A) effect symphony B) improvise an approach C) embrace the other party's approach D) employ agents or advisors E) Negotiators are using all of the above approaches.

61. Research has shown that negotiators use what two forms of deception in misrepresenting the common value issue? A) misrepresentation by omission and misrepresentation by commission B) misrepresentation by permission and misrepresentation by omission C) misrepresentation by admission and misrepresentation by permission D) misrepresentation by admission and misrepresentation by commission E) None of the above forms of deception are used in misrepresenting the common value issue.

61. What questions can be asked to facilitate nonspecific compensation? A) What are the other party's goals and values? B) How can both parties get what they are demanding? C) What issues are of higher and lower priority to me? D) What risks and costs does my proposal create for the other? E) None of the above can be used to facilitate nonspecific compensation.

64. When using the justification that "the tactic was unavoidable," the negotiator is saying that A) the negotiator was not in full control of his or her actions and hence should not be held responsible. B) what the negotiator did was really trivial and not very significant. C) the tactic helped to avoid greater harm. D) the quality of the tactic should be judged by its consequences. E) The justification that "the tactic was unavoidable" implies all of the above.

69. Which of the following is not necessary for integrative negotiation to succeed? A) Each party should be as interested in the objectives and problems of the other as each is in his/her own—each must assume responsibility for the other's needs and outcomes as well as for his/her own. B) The parties must be committed to a goal that benefits both of them rather than to pursuing only their own ends. C) The parties must be willing to adopt interpersonal styles that are more congenial than combative, more open and trusting than evasive and defensive, more flexible (but firm) than stubborn (but yielding). D) Needs have to be made explicit, similarities have to be identified, and differences have to be recognized and accepted. E) All of the above are essential for integrative negotiation to succeed.

70. According to Zubek, Pruitt, Pierce, McGillicuddy and Syna, mediator behaviors positively related to successful mediation include: A) demonstrating empathy. B) providing reassurance. C) displaying expertise. D) keeping order.

70. Which of the following statements about situational influences on unethical conduct is true? A) The negotiator's past relationship will affect current behavior if the parties have been previously competitive or cooperative. B) Negotiators were more likely to make more deceptive arguments, negotiate for a longer period of time, and make fewer concessions to the counterpart they previously experienced as cooperative compared to one who had been exploitative. C) Negotiators with less power are more likely to abuse what power they have by using less ethical tactics. D) An individual who confuses private ethics with business morality makes an effective negotiator. E) None of the above statements about situational influences on unethical conduct is True.

71. Negotiators who make threats A) are perceived as more powerful than negotiators who do not use threats. B) receive higher outcomes than negotiators who do not use threats. C) are perceived as more cooperative in distributive negotiations. D) should use detailed, complex statements of demands, conditions and consequences. E) All of the above describe negotiators who make threats.

72. In inquisitorial intervention A) a manager exerts high control over both the process and the decision. B) a manager exerts high control over the decision, but not the process. C) a manager exerts low control over the decision, but high control over the process. D) a manager does not exert control over the decision, and only a small amount of control over the process.

75. Which of the following 5-step processes has been used successfully in a collective bargaining situation? A) commitment, explanation, validation, prioritization, negotiation B) commitment, exploration, verification, prioritization, negotiation C) collaboration, explanation, validation, prioritization, negotiation D) collaboration, exploration, verification, prioritization, negotiation E) None of the above processes have been used in collective bargaining.

75. Which of the following is heavily involved in helping to establish or enhance communication and dispute resolution skills that the parties can then apply to the immediate dispute and future communication? A) Process consultants B) Arbitrators C) ADR systems D) Mediators

Accommodative strategies emphasize: A) Subordinating one's own goals in favor of those of others. B) Secrecy and defensiveness C) Abandonment of bad images and consideration of ideas based on merit D) A key attitude of "I win; you lose" E) All of the above

BATNA stands for A) best alternative to a negotiated agreement. B) best assignment to a negotiated agreement. C) best alternative to a negative agreement. D) best alternative to a negative assignment. E) BATNA stands for none of the above

Does any of the following represent the point at which we realistically expect to achieve a settlement? A) specific target point B) resistance point C) alternative D) asking price E) none of the above

Interdependent parties' relationships are characterized by A) interlocking goals. B) solitary decision making. C) established procedures. D) rigid structures. E) Interdependent relationships are characterized by all of the above

Negotiators pursuing the yielding strategy A) show little interest or concern in whether they attain their own outcomes, but are quite interested in whether the other party attains his or her outcomes. B) pursue their own outcome strongly and shows little concern for whether the other party obtains his or her desired outcome. C) shows little interest or concern in whether they attain their own outcomes, and does not show much concern about whether the other party obtains his or her outcomes. D) show high concern for attaining their own outcomes and high concern for whether the other attains his or her outcomes. E) Negotiators pursuing the yielding strategy demonstrate none of the above behaviors

Power distance describes A) the extent to which the less powerful members of organizations and institutions accept and expect that power is distributed unequally. B) the extent to which the society is organized around individuals or the group. C) the extent to which cultures hold values that were traditionally perceived as masculine or feminine. D) the extent to which a culture programs its members to feel either uncomfortable or comfortable in unstructured situations. E) None of the above describes power distance.

Tangible factors A) include the price and terms of agreement. B) are psychological motivations that influence the negotiations. C) include the need to look good in negotiations. D) cannot be measured in quantifiable terms. E) None of the above statements describe tangible factors

The general structure of a phase model of negotiations involves: A) Three phases: initiation; problem-solving; resolution B) Four phases: pre-initiation; initiation; problem-solving; resolution C) Two phases: problem-solving and resolution D) None of the above

The less concrete and measurable goals are: A) the harder it is to communicate to the other party what we want B) the easier it is to understand what your opponent wants C) the easier it is to determine whether a particular outcome satisfies our goals D) the harder it is to restate what the initial goal was E) all of the above

What are the most critical precursors for achieving negotiation objectives? A) Effective strategizing, planning and preparation B) goal setting and target planning C) defining frames and setting goals D) framing and strategizing E) none of the above

22. It is important negotiators consider the shadow negotiation carefully before meeting with the other party so they A) understand where the boundaries of the current negotiations are and should be. B) are clear in their own minds about the scope of the negotiations. C) understand how they would ideally like to work with the other party. D) determine what ground the negotiation is going to cover and how the negotiators are going to work together.

22. Which theoretical finding about the role of women in negotiations is not true? A) Women may place a greater emphasis on interaction goals (the interpersonal aspects of the negotiations). B) Women's conceptualization of power may make them less comfortable than men with integrative versus distributive negotiation. C) Women were more likely to perceive conflict episodes in relationship terms. D) Women in negotiations are often treated worse than men during negotiations. E) Women using the same negotiation tactic that men used were less successful than men.

23. Strategic levers available to help people navigate the shadow negotiation include power moves, appreciative moves and one other of the following. A) collaborative moves B) process moves C) pressure moves D) social moves E) perspective moves

25. A tactic that is ignored is essentially a tactic A) pressed. B) defeated. C) converted. D) exchanged. E) reserved.

25. Using dialogue to convince the other party that their position is correct and to support various tactics and ploys that are used to win points during the discussion is a characteristic of A) female negotiators. B) male negotiators. C) both male and female negotiators. D) neither male nor female negotiators. E) Either male or female negotiators, but not during the same negotiation.

26. Responding when the other side has more power, negotiators can utilize all but one of the following alternatives. A) Correct the power imbalance. B) Introduce ultimatums. C) Cultivate their best alternative to a negotiated agreement (BATNA). D) Formulate a "trip wire alert system." E) Protect themselves.

32. A coalition is determined by the commitment of its members to A) meet on a regular basis. B) collectively focus their action on an intended target. C) the formal hierarchy of the coalition. D) maintain regular and accurate communication. E) A coalition is determined by the commitment of its members to all of the above.

36. Coalitions build by A) organizing members through formal meetings . B) adding one member at a time. C) mobilizing departments or divisions. D) unification in a single, defining event. E) Coalitions are built by all of the above.

36. Define exonerating circumstances. A) Negotiators suggest that they had no choice in taking the positions they did. B) Negotiators explain their positions from a broader perspective, suggesting that while their current position may appear negative it derives from positive motives. C) Outcomes can be explained by changing the context. D) Negotiators who use multiple explanations are more likely to have better outcomes. E) None of the above can define exonerating circumstances.

37. The "joining threshold" is A) the total number of people who can join a specific coalition. B) the level where a minimum number of people have joined a coalition and others begin to join because they recognize that their current friends and associates are already members. C) the minimum number of people required for a coalition to be successful. D) the level at which a new member must "pay" in order to join the coalition. E) None of the above defines the joining threshold.

39. Which of the following statements about legitimate power is false? A) Legitimate power is at the foundation of our social structure. B) Social structures are inherently inefficient, and this realization creates the basis for legitimate power. C) Legitimate power cannot function without obedience. D) Legitimate power is often derived from manipulating other sources of power. E) All of the above statements about legitimate power are true.

41. Which of the following are types of manageable questions? A) close-out questions that force the other party into seeing things your way B) leading questions that point toward an answer C) impulse questions that occur "on the spur of the moment," without planning D) loaded questions that put the other party on the spot regardless of his/her answer E) None of the above are types of manageable questions.

41. Which of the following results can occur when a negotiation becomes derailed? A. The parties share interests and opinions. B. Perceptions become distorted and judgments are biased. C. Integrative negotiation is effectively used by both parties. D. The parties maintain open lines of communication. E. All of the above situations occur when negotiations become derailed.

42. In a transactional negotiation, the most important issue is usually the A) enhancing the relationship. B) better deal. C) dependence dynamics. D) inventory questions. E) all of the above.

42. The story about the new faculty member who might decide to volunteer to head up the "speakers" program for faculty seminars because it would put him in the center of many communications about the weekly presentations is illustrative of network structure through A) flexibility. B) visibility. C) centrality. D) coalition. E) criticality.

43. Allies can be defined as A) people with whom a negotiator has conflicting goals and objectives, but who can be trusted to be principled and candid in their opposition. B) parties who are in agreement with their goals and vision, and whom the negotiator trusts. C) parties with whom a negotiator has high agreement on the vision or objectives, but low to moderate levels of trust. D) negotiators who are low in agreement and low in trust. E) None of the above statements defines allies.

43. Halo effects occur when A) attributes are assigned to an individual solely on the basis of his or her membership in a particular social or demographic group. B) people generalize about a variety of attributes based on the knowledge of one attribute of an individual. C) the perceiver singles out certain information that supports or reinforces a prior belief, and filters out information that does not confirm that belief. D) people ascribe to others the characteristics or feelings that they possess themselves. E) All of the above describe halo effects.

44. Because relationship negotiations are never over, A) parties generally tackle negotiations over tough issues first in order to "get off on the right foot." B) it is often impossible to anticipate the future and negotiate everything "up front." C) issues on which parties truly disagree will go away with the conclusion of the negotiation. D) parties should never make concessions on substantive issues. E) All of the above are consequences of relationship negotiations.

44. Which of the following statements about persuasive style is false? A) People learn better and are more likely to change their attitudes and beliefs for the long term when they are actively involved in the process of learning and understanding new material. B) Metaphors should not be used as persuasion tools because they can lead the other party to believe that you're filled with "hot air". C) People who argue positions that are thought to be counter to their self-interest are generally more persuasive. D) Language of relatively low intensity seems to be more effective than highly intense language. E) All of the above statements about persuasive style are true.

45. Jeswald Salacuse suggests which rule for negotiating a relationship? A) minimize the prenegotiation stage of the relationship B) recognize a long-term business deal as a continuing negotiation C) eliminate the need for mediation or conciliation D) end all discussions when the contract is signed E) Salacuse suggests all of the above rules for negotiating a relationship.

45. Research supports which conclusion about role reversal? A) Role reversal is effective in producing cognitive changes but not attitude changes. B) When parties' positions are fundamentally compatible with one another, role reversal is likely to produce better results. C) When parties' positions are fundamentally incompatible; role reversal may dull the perceptions of incompatibility. D) Role reversal leads to easier resolutions of conflict, particularly when accurate communication reveals a fundamental incompatibility in the positions of the two sides. E) All of the above conclusions are supported by research.

46. Which of the following is not an example of major characteristics of audiences? A) Audiences vary according to whether they are physically present at or absent from the negotiation. B) Audiences try harder when they are under surveillance. C) Audiences affect negotiations is by the degree of their involvement in the process. D) Audiences also give periodic feedback to the negotiators, evaluating their effectiveness and letting them know how they are doing. E) Audiences who are outcome-dependent derive their payoffs as a direct result of the negotiator's behavior and effectiveness.

46. Which of the following is not one of Janosik's four ways that culture is used in international negotiation? A) culture as learned behavior B) culture as economic indicator C) culture as shared values D) culture as dialectic E) Each of the above is one of Janosik's four ways that culture is used in international negotiation.

47. In a study by Carnevale, Pruitt and Britton, negotiators who believed they were under surveillance A) were significantly more likely to conduct their negotiations in an integrative manner. B) were more likely to use threats, commitment tactics and put downs of their opponents. C) obtained higher joint outcomes than negotiators not under surveillance. D) were more likely to make concessions that would facilitate mutual gain. E) Negotiators who believed they were under surveillance exhibited all of the above behaviors.

47. The "culture-as-shared-value" approach A) concentrates on documenting the systematic negotiation behavior of people in different cultures. B) concentrates on understanding the central values and norms of a culture and then building a model for how these norms and values influence negotiations within that culture. C) recognizes that all cultures contain dimensions or tensions among their different values. D) recognizes that no human behavior is determined by a single cause. E) All of the above are elements of the "culture as shared" value approach.

47. Which of the following statements about source credibility is true? A) The stronger the perceived qualifications and expertise on the subject matter, the lower the credibility. B) People appear more or less credible because of their "presence." C) Trustworthiness, and how qualified the person appears to be, are less powerful characteristics in determining our perception of another's credibility than the type of person the source is. D) When meeting others they don't know, people generally tend to evaluate them negatively rather than positively. E) All of the above statements about source credibility are true.

48. The individualism/collectivism dimension describes A) the extent to which the less powerful members of organizations and institutions accept and expect that power is distributed unequally. B) the extent to which the society is organized around individuals or the group. C) the extent to which cultures hold values that were traditionally perceived as masculine or feminine. D) the extent to which a culture programs its members to feel either uncomfortable or comfortable in unstructured situations. E) None of the above describes the individualism/collectivism dimension.

48. Which is one of the six conflict-reduction strategies that can be applied in contentious situations used to resolve impasses? A. reinforcing tension in order to escalate hostility to the "breaking point" B. enhancing the desirability of the options and alternatives that each party presents C. limiting communications to the minimum necessary for continued negotiations D. allowing an unlimited number of issues to become part of the negotiations E. All of the above are conflict reduction strategies that can be used to resolve disputes in difficult negotiations.

49. The values that govern a market pricing relationship are determined by a market system and include all but which of the following? A) utility points B) the relationship with the negotiator C) ratio of price to goods D) fair pricing E) the dollars

50. "Either you deal with me and my demands or you work with someone else from my constituency who is far more irrational than me" is a statement from a negotiator who would fall into which of the following tactics described below? A) Limit one's own concessions by making negotiations visible to the constituency. B) Use the constituency to show militancy. C) Use the constituency to limit one's own authority. D) Use great caution in exceeding one's authority. E) Increase the possibility of concession to the other negotiator by reducing visibility to constituencies.

51. The concept of "duty ethics" states that A) the rightness of an action is determined by evaluating the pros and cons of its consequences. B) the rightness of an action is determined by existing laws and contemporary social standards that define what is right and wrong and where the line is. C) the rightness of an action is based on the customs and norms of a particular society or community. D) the rightness of an action is based on one's conscience and moral standards. E) None of the above defines "duty ethics."

51. Which of the following is not an element of integrative negotiations? A) a focus on commonalties B) an attempt to address positions C) a required exchange of information and ideas D) the use of objective criteria for standards of performance E) All of the above are elements of integrative negotiations.

52. Information can be privately exchanged in informal venues and could be found to increase the possibility of concession to the other negotiator by reducing visibility to constituents in which of the following approaches? A) Establish "privacy" prior to the beginning of negotiations. B) Screen visibility during negotiations. C) Be aware of time pressure. D) Establish a reputation for cooperation. E) Communicate through superiors.

53. According to Graham, which of the following statements would be characteristic of a Japanese negotiator? A) Higher profits are associated with making opponents feel uncomfortable. B) Higher profits are achieved by making opponents feel comfortable. C) The use of powerful and deceptive strategies is more likely to receive higher outcomes. D) Representational strategies are negatively related to profits. E) None of the above is characteristics of a Japanese negotiator.

53. In the imaging process, parties in conflict are asked to engage in the following activities in what order? A. describe how they see themselves, state how they think the other party would describe them, describe how the other party appears to them, state how they think the other party sees themselves B. describe how they see themselves, describe how the other party appears to them, state how they think the other party would describe them, state how they think the other party sees themselves C. describe how the other party appears to them, state how they think the other party sees themselves, describe how they see themselves, state how they think the other party would describe them D. state how they think the other party would describe them, state how they think the other party sees themselves, describe how they see themselves, describe how the other party appears to them E. In the imaging process, parties can engage in the above activities in any order they choose.

53. Intervention by a third party may signal that A) the parties have built a successful relationship. B) the parties have failed to build a relationship or manage their interdependence positively. C) the parties have grown into negotiation partners. D) the parties have successfully resolved a dispute.

53. The process of ____________ to a position states that once people have decided something, they can be remarkable persistent in their beliefs. A) proof B) commitment C) reciprocity D) reward E) All of the above principles state that once people have decided something, they can be remarkable persistent in their beliefs.

54. A doctor facing the moral dilemma between a mandate to save lives and the mandate to relieve undue suffering for those whose lives cannot be saved is an example of: A) end-result ethics. B) duty ethics. C) social contract ethics. D) personalistic ethics. E) utilitarian ethics.

54. All but one of the following actions contributes to increase identification-based trust. Which one does not contribute? A) Stand for the same principles. B) Monitor the other party's actions. C) Develop similar interests. D) Try to develop similar goals, objectives and scenarios. E) Try to be interested in the same things.

54. In which major step of the integrative negotiation process of identifying and defining the problem would you likely find that if the problem is complex and multifaceted the parties may not even be able to agree on a statement of the problem? A) define the problem in a way that is mutually acceptable to both sides. B) state the problem with an eye toward practicality and comprehensiveness. C) state the problem as a goal and identify the obstacles to attaining this goal. D) depersonalizing the problem. E) separate the problem definition from the search for solutions.

55. The resistance point is established by the ____________ expected from a particular outcome, which is in turn the product of the ____________ and ____________ of an outcome. A) cost, value, worth B) value, worth, cost C) value, cost and timeliness D) cost, importance, value E) None of the above.

55. Which of the following is a condition for the use of pressure? A) The other party is independent of the power holder. B) The agent controls some form of resources which can be denied or taken away from the other party. C) The punishment can only be administered in a single manner. D) The resources in question are not controlled by a single individual. E) None of the above is conditions for the use of pressure.

56. An interest is instrumental if A) the parties value it because it helps them derive other outcomes in the future. B) the parties value the interest in and of itself. C) it relates to "tangible issues" or the focal issues under negotiation. D) the relationship is valued for both its existence and for the pleasure that sustaining the relationship creates. E) All of the above relate to instrumental interests.

56. How parties treat each other in one-to-one relationships is the process of which of the following justices? A) Procedural B) Interactional C) Systemic D) Distributive E) None of the above

57. Formal intervention methods are A) third party roles and behaviors that are incidental to other primary roles. B) intentionally designed and generally follow a set of rules or standards. C) third party actions that follow a rigid, structured procedure and set of rules. D) third party actions implemented as part of an organizational hierarchy. E) None of the above defines formal intervention methods.

57. The collaborative ideal of high trust/low distrust refers to A. each party's expectations of a competitive motivational orientation from the other. B. patterns of predictable behavior from each other and will cooperate. C. minimal commitment to problem-solving behavior. D. a negotiation which is best suited to distributive bargaining. E. The collaborative ideal of high trust/low distrust refers to all of the above.

59. Negative emotions may lead parties to A) more integrative processes B) escalate the conflict C) promote persistence D) define the situation as integrative E) more integrative outcomes

61. Mediators A) have the same power as arbitrators. B) have no formal power over outcomes. C) have the authority to resolve the dispute on their own. D) have the power to impose a solution.

62. Incidences in cheating in the Boston Marathon included all but one motive. Which one was not identified as a motive for cheating in the race? A) Some cheaters were angry or disturbed. B) Some cheaters were seeking family approval. C) Some cheaters were middle-aged males. D) Some cheaters were after recognition. E) Some cheaters were simply "caught up in the moment."

63. Good distributive bargainers will A) begin negotiations with the other party with an opening offer close to their own resistance point. B) ensure that there is enough room in the bargaining range to make some concessions. C) accept an offer that is presented as a fait accompli. D) immediately identify the other party's target point. E) All of the above are actions that good distributive bargainers will take.

63. Moore states that in the premediation stages, the mediator is attempting to A) define issues and set an agenda. B) establish relationships with the disputing parties. C) generate options for settlement. D) uncover hidden interests of the disputing parties.

65. The compensation form of mediation strategy involves A) a high concern for parties' aspirations and a high perception of common ground. B) a high concern for parties' aspirations and a low perception of common ground. C) a low concern for parties' aspirations and a high perception of common ground. D) a low concern for parties' aspirations and a low perception of common ground. E) The compensation form of mediation strategy involves none of the above.

65. When confronted with complex problems, or a large number of alternative options, which of the following steps is necessary? A) broaden the range of solution options B) evaluate solutions on the basis of quality, standards, and acceptability C) decide on criteria while evaluating options D) maintain a focus on the influence of tangibles in selecting options E) All of the above steps should be used when confronted with complex problems.

66. Which of the following personality traits can most strongly predict the predisposition to behave unethically? A) cooperativeness B) Machiavellianism C) locus of control D) moral development E) None of the above can predict the predisposition to behave unethically.

67. A common goal is one in which A) all parties share the result equally B) the parties work toward a common end but benefit differently C) all parties work together to achieve some output that will be shared D) individuals with different personal goals agree to combine them in a collective effort. E) All of the above are characteristics of a common goal.

67. When successive concessions get smaller, the most obvious message is that A) the negotiator is reaching the fatigue point. B) the resistance point is being reached. C) the concession maker's position is weakening. D) the negotiator has passed the resistance point. E) None of the above.

69. Which was not one of the findings of a recent study? A) If told to "do your best," partied reported less honestly than if they had a specific goal to meet B) Participants who had to meet specific goals were more likely to overstate their productivity than those without C) Participants who had to meet specific goals were more likely to overstate their success when their actual performance was closer to the goal D) Participants who had to meet specific goals were more likely to overstate in those situations where they thought they "deserved" the reward based on overall productivity.

70. A commitment statement should have a A) low degree of finality. B) high degree of specificity. C) an indefinite statement of consequences. D) a high degree of emotionality. E) None of the above should be included in a commitment statement.

71. Which of the following factors does not contribute to the development of trust between negotiators? A) We are more likely to trust someone we perceive as similar to us or as holding a positive attitude toward us. B) We often mistrust people who are dependent upon us because we are in a position to help or hurt them. C) We are more likely to trust people who initiate cooperative, trusting behavior. D) We are more likely to trust negotiators who make concessions. E) All of the above contribute to the development of trust between negotiators.

72. Which of the following statements about group and organizational norms is false? A) Job related pressures within particular work groups, departments, or divisions may be such that marginally ethical behavior is not only tolerated, but even condoned. B) The more loyalty and commitment people feel toward an organization, the less that loyalty may be abused. C) Organizations may exert direct pressures on an individual to breach ethics or even break the law in the service of achieving some corporate or organizational goal. D) The pressures of escalating commitment may predispose parties to commit more unethical actions. E) All of the above statements about group and organizational norms are True.

74. Preventive ADR systems A) are mechanisms for the parties to resolve their own disputes without the help of any third party. B) are systems that companies establish to prevent disputes. C) provide a third party neutral who assists the parties in negotiating a resolution. D) use the technical expertise of a third party to determine the facts in a specific situation and how the facts should be interpreted in the case. E) None of the above describes preventive ADR systems.

74. When using the "altered information" tactic to detect deception, one should A) try to get the other to admit a small or partial lie about some information and use this to push for admission of a larger lie. B) exaggerate what you believe is the deception and state it, hoping that the other will jump in to "correct" the statement. C) point out behaviors you detect in the other which might be an indication they are lying. D) indicate one's true concern for the other's welfare. E) None of the above actions would be used as part of the altered information tactic.

75. The negotiator's basic strategy is to A) get information about the opposition and its positions. B) reach the final settlement as close to the other's resistance point as possible. C) convince members of the other party to change their minds about their ability to achieve their own goals. D) promote his or her own objectives as desirable, necessary, and inevitable. E) All of the above.

81. Cooperative goals tend to shape the "power with" orientation, even between superiors and subordinates. These goals induce higher expectations of all but one of the following. Which one? A) To perform effectively and achieve common objectives. B) To reinforce or enhance existing power differences. C) For more assistance and greater support. D) For more trusting and friendly attitudes. E) For more persuasion and less coercion.

A strong interest in achieving only the relationship outcomes suggests one, if any, of the following strategies. Which one? A) competitive B) accommodation C) collaborative D) avoidance E) none of the above

A zero-sum situation is also known by another name of a situation. Which of the following is that? A) integrative B) distributive C) win-lose D) negotiative E) None of the above.

To most people the words "bargaining" and "negotiation" are A) mutually exclusive. B) interchangeable. C) not related. D) interdependent. E) None of the above

What is the dominant force for success in negotiation? A) a distributive vs. integrative strategy B) the planning that takes place prior to the dialogue C) the discussions that precede planning sessions D) the tactics selected in support of strategic goals E) all of the above

Which is not a difference between strategy and tactics? A) Scale B) Goals C) Perspective D) Immediacy

Which of the following contribute to conflict's destructive image? A) increased communication B) misperception and bias C) clarifying issues D) minimized differences; magnified similarities E) All of the above contribute to conflict's destructive image.

Which of the following is not an intangible factor in a negotiation? A) the need to look good B) final agreed price on a contract C) the desire to book more business D) fear of setting a precedent E) All of the above are intangible factors

Which of the following statements about conflict is true? A) Conflict is the result of tangible factors. B) Conflict can occur when two parties are working toward the same goal and generally want the same outcome. C) Conflict only occurs when both parties want a very different settlement. D) Conflict has a minimal effect on interdependent relationships. E) All of the above statements about conflict are true

21. Negotiators always run the risk of encountering other parties who, for any number of reasons, are difficult negotiators. That difficulty may be intentional or due to A) inexperience B) philosophical differences C) inadequate skill D) lack of sophistication E) a psychological imbalance

21. Research on gender characteristics in negotiation A) has shown a strength in the use of sex as the independent variable. B) has yielded consistent findings to document significant differences between male and female negotiators. C) has found there are differences in how males and females negotiate, but these differences are difficult to detect. D) has a generalized influence on the dependent variables in a negotiation. E) All of the above are results of research on gender characteristics in negotiation.

24. According to Kolb and Coolidge, during a negotiation women tend to A) use dialogue to convince the other party that their position is correct. B) demarcate negotiating from other behaviors that occur in the relationship. C) seek empowerment when there is interaction among all parties in the relationship. D) use power to achieve their own goals. E) All of the above.

27. An ultimatum is an attempt to induce compliance or force concessions from a presumably recalcitrant A) group. B) arbitrator. C) opponent. D) team member. E) cooperator.

27. Identify the one result from among the following empirical findings on gender differences that is not true. A) Men and women conceive of negotiations in different ways. B) Men and women communicate differently in negotiation. C) Men and women are treated similarly in negotiation. D) Men and women can use the same tactics to different effects. E) Men and women stereotypes affect negotiator performance.

28. Women tend to fare worse on salary negotiations because: A) they tend to ask for higher salaries during interviews. B) they tend to accept what is offered them. C) they tend to not ask for more. D) they tend to anticipate a hypothetical salary. E) they tend to become overly involved with salary negotiations.

31. Tactics designed to create power equalization are often employed as a way to A) gain advantage in a distributive bargaining situation. B) block the other's power moves. C) level the playing field. D) diminish the expert power of the other party. E) Tactics designed to create power equalization are often employed to accomplish all of the above.

32. Encoding can be defined as A) the facts, ideas, feelings, reactions, or thoughts that exist within individuals and act as a set of filters for interpreting the decoded messages. B) the process by which messages are put into symbolic form. C) the process of translating messages from their symbolic form into a form that makes sense. D) the process by which the receiver reacts to the sender's message. E) Decoding can be defined as all of the above.

32. Lytle and her colleagues found that most negotiators cycled through three strategies during the same encounters. Which are the three strategies? A) interests, information, effectiveness. B) effectiveness, coercion, deception. C) interests, rights, power. D) deception, reward, position. E) information, position, rights.

34. "Interpretation" can be defined as A) the process by which the receiver reacts to the sender's message. B) the process of screening, selecting, and interpreting stimuli so that they have meaning to the individual. C) the facts, ideas, feelings, reactions, or thoughts that exist within individuals and act as a set of filters for interpreting the decoded messages. D) small amounts of perceptual information that are used to draw large conclusions about individuals. E) None of the above define "interpretation."

34. Which of the following is not a major source of power from one of the five different groupings? A) Informational sources of power. B) Personal sources of power. C) Organizational sources of power. D) Relationship-based sources of power. E) Contextual sources of power.

34. ____________ ____________ are emergent interest groups that have not yet formed into an operating coalition. A) Informal coalitions B) Formal coalitions C) Latent coalitions D) Dormant coalitions E) All of the above are emergent interest groups that have not yet formed into an operating coalition.

37. In which of the following types of power based on personality and individual differences would you find a person characterized by beliefs that power is distributed relatively equally across various groups, which compete and bargain for a share of the continually evolving balance of power? A) the unitarian. B) the radical. C) the pluralist. D) the idealist. E) the conformist.

38. Gibbons, Bradac, and Busch suggest that threats can be made more credible and more compelling by using A) positively polarized descriptions of the other party. B) low immediacy. C) high intensity. D) low verbal diversity. E) None of the above can make threats more credible and compelling.

39. Those advocating a need allocation standard argue that A) those who contributed more should receive more, in proportion to the magnitude of their contribution. B) everyone should receive the same outcome. C) parties should receive more in proportion to some demonstrated need for the resource. D) decision rules in coalitions should be made on an individual, case-by-case basis. E) Those advocating a need standard argue for all of the above.

39. Which of the following is not one of the four biases that threaten e-mail negotiations? A) Temporal synchrony bias is the tendency for e-mail negotiators to behave as if they are in a synchronous situation when they are not (parties are not working on the same time frame). B) Sinister attribution bias occurs when one mistakenly assumes that another's behavior is caused by personality flaws, while overlooking the role of situational factors (dissimilarity between parties and shortage of rapport may exist among e-mail lead individuals to project sinister and deceitful motives onto the other party). C) Impasse in e-mail negotiations bias is the tendency for the negotiators to disclose personal information through e-mail about themselves and the issues with the other party (no mutual self-disclosure on the part of the out-group party). D) Burned bridge bias is the tendency for individuals to employ risky behavior during e-mail negotiations that they would not use during a face-to-face encounter (negotiators may be more willing to challenge the other party). E) Squeaky wheel bias is the tendency for e-mail negotiators to use a negative emotional style to achieve their goals (resort to intimidation, rude behavior, poor etiquette to achieve outcomes).

42. According to Salacuse, which of the following is not a factor in the environmental context of negotiations? A) political and legal pluralism B) foreign governments and bureaucracies C) relative bargaining power D) international economic factors E) All of the above are factors in the environmental context of negotiations.

42. Block argues that authentic tactics require parties to A) say "yes" when they mean "no." B) share only the information that is relevant to the issue at hand. C) use language that describes reality. D) reposition their endorsement or support for the sake of acceptance. E) Authentic tactics require parties to do all of the above.

42. Which of the following lists the stages of the perceptual process in the correct order? A) stimulus, translation, attention, recognition, behavior B) stimulus, behavior, translation, attention, recognition C) stimulus, attention, recognition, translation, behavior D) behavior, stimulus, recognition, attention, translation E) None of the above lists the stages of the perceptual process in the correct order.

43. In passive listening A) the receivers restate or paraphrase the sender's message in their own language. B) the receivers interject responses to keep communicators sending messages. C) the receiver provides no feedback to the sender about the accuracy or completeness of reception. D) senders may misinterpret acknowledgments as the receiver's agreement with their position, rather than that they are simply receiving the message. E) None of the above occurs in passive listening.

43. Which of the following parameters shapes our understanding of relationship negotiation strategy and tactics? A) Negotiating within relationships takes place at a single point in time. B) Negotiation in relationships is only about the issue. C) Negotiating within relationships may never end. D) Parties never make concessions on substantive issues. E) All of the above parameters shape our understanding of relationship negotiation strategy and tactics.

44. In a negotiator's relationship with a constituency A) the constituency delegates all power and authority to the negotiator. B) constituents expect that the negotiator will report back only when the negotiation is complete. C) constituents expect to directly profit (or lose) as a result of the negotiator's effectiveness. D) the negotiator presents his or her view of what he or she expects to achieve in the negotiation, and the constituency must agree to support it or find another negotiator. E) All of the above occur in a negotiator's relationship with a constituency.

44. In which of the following five aspects of network structure would you find the role of a gatekeeper? A) Centrality. B) Criticality. C) Flexibility. D) Visibility. E) Coalitions.

44. Successful reflective responding can be characterized by A) a greater emphasis on speaking than listening. B) responding to abstract rather than personal points. C) following the other rather than leading him or her into areas that the listener thinks should be explored. D) suggesting or questioning what the speaker should be thinking or feeling. E) All of the above are characteristics of reflective responding.

44. Which of the following makes a negotiation more intractable? A. The parties themselves are well organized B. The conflict frequently de-escalates C. The parties themselves are unorganized, loosely connected, and lacking structure D. The social system from which the parties come is clearly structured E. There is general consensus on underlying values, but a disagreement on how resources are to be allocated

45. Frames are important in negotiation because A) they allow parties to develop separate definitions of the issues B) they can be avoided C) disputes are often nebulous and open to different interpretations D) do not allow negotiators to articulate an aspect of a complex social situation E) all of the above

45. Which of the following factors most influences relative bargaining power? A) the extent to which negotiators frame the negotiation differently B) tangible and intangible factors C) management control D) personal motivations of external stakeholders E) None of the above factors influence relative bargaining power.

46. In which type of frame would parties be more likely to engage primarily in distributive (win-lose or lose-lose) negotiations than in other types? A) Identity B) Loss-gain C) Outcome D) Process E) Substantive

46. Smyth suggests that the most intractable situations occur A. when a change in the power balance is at stake, and for which there are firmly agreed-upon social institutions for dealing with the power change. B. when the power relationship does not change, and for which there are firmly agreed-upon social institutions for dealing with the power change. C. the perceived need to negotiate simultaneously about change in power and the applicable, appropriate institutions for maintaining that power shift. D. when the power relationship does not change, and for which there are no agreed-upon social institutions for dealing with the power change. E. Smyth suggests that the most intractable situations occur in all of the above circumstances.

46. The recency effect A) indicates that the important points should be made early. B) should be used when the topics are familiar, interesting, or controversial to the receiver. C) states the tendency for the last item presented to be the best remembered. D) states that the first item in a long list of items is the one most likely to be remembered. E) None of the above statements about the recency effect are true.

48. Higher ranks dominate lower ranks is an example of "authority ranking" as a fundamental relationship form. Under what other form would you find the concept of "tit-for-tat" revenge? A) communal sharing B) authority ranking C) equality matching D) market pricing E) none of the above

48. Which of the following insights about pressures on sports agents to compete leads to ethical pressures was not found to be true? A) Competition for top players is very heavy. B) The only way to compete is to cheat. C) Agents spend too much time negotiating salaries. D) Many follow religious principles to guide their conduct. E) Agents post security bonds that could pay damages to athletes if the agent misbehaves.

49. Audiences hold negotiators accountable in all but one of the following ways. Which one? A) When the negotiator's performance is visible. B) When the audience is dependent upon the negotiator for their outcomes. C) When the negotiating agents were members of a group that developed the negotiating position. D) When the audience is able to judge how well a negotiator performs. E) When the audience insists that the negotiator be tough, firm, and demanding.

49. The effective use of persistence means A) pursuing one's goals blindly and rigidly. B) communicating with natural enthusiasm, sincerity and spontaneity. C) finding new, unique, and creative ways to pursue the same request. D) considering the long term consequences of their behavior on their future reputations. E) None of the above defines the effective use of persistence.

50. In the GRIT strategy for synchronized de-escalation, A. the party who desires to withdraw from the negotiation initiates the action. B. unilateral actions are required of both sides. C. a negotiator makes a concession and states that it is part of a deliberate strategy to reduce tension. D. each party makes a concession only when he or she knows that the opposing party will reciprocate in kind. E. All of the above are elements of the GRIT strategy.

51. As a genuine tactic, the negotiator's constituency has actually defined limits to what the negotiator can decide on his or her own and is part of which of the following tactics? A) Limit one's own concessions by making negotiations visible to the constituency. B) Use the constituency to show militancy. C) Use the constituency to limit one's own authority. D) Use great caution in exceeding one's authority. E) Increase the possibility of concession to the other negotiator by reducing visibility to constituencies.

51. Risk-avoiding cultures will A) be willing to move early on a deal. B) generally take more chances. C) seek further information. D) be less likely to take a wait-and-see stance. E) Risk avoiding cultures will generally take all of the above actions

51. Role reversal A. is applicable and useful only in integrative bargaining situations. B. is only useful in sharpening the differences between actual positions. C. helps negotiators place themselves in the other party's shoes. D. gives the negotiator inside information about the opposing negotiator's strategy. E. None of the above is true of role reversal.

51. Third-party intervention should be avoided A) when passions are high. B) when the parties are at am impasse on the issues. C) when progress is occurring or is likely to occur. D) when the parties are unable to move the process beyond a particular sticking point. E) Third party intervention should be avoided in all of the above situations.

51. What key elements become more critical and pronounced when they occur within a negotiation? A) the agency relationship, the number of negotiation parties, and the role of emotion B) the agency relationship and the role of trust and fairness C) the roles of reputation, trust and justice D) the structure of the constituency and the agency relationship E) none of the above is key elements in managing negotiations within relationships

52. Ethical criteria for judging appropriate conduct define A) what is wise based on trying to understand the efficacy of the tactic and the consequences it might have on the relationship with the other. B) what a negotiator can actually make happen in a given situation. C) what is appropriate as determined by some standard of moral conduct. D) what the law defines as acceptable practice. E) All of the above are defined by ethical criteria for judging appropriate conduct.

53. The availability of information bias operates with which of the following statements? A) when negotiators sometimes maintain commitment to a course of action even when that commitment constitutes irrational behavior on their part. B) when thorough preparation, along with the use of a devil's advocate or reality check, can help prevent errors. C) when information that is presented in vivid, colorful, or attention-getting ways becomes easy to recall, and thus also becomes central and critical in evaluating events and options. D) when the tendency of negotiators to believe that their ability to be correct or accurate is greater than is actually true E) when the tendency will often lead to a self-fulfilling prophecy, as follows: People who expect to be treated in a distributive manner will (1) be more likely to perceive the other party's behavior as distributive, and (2) treat the other party in a more distributive manner

55. The tactic of communicating though intermediaries is most often used under what circumstance? A) when the negotiator represents an organization or group that has some formal hierarchy of power B) when the other party is not representing his or her constituency's interests clearly and effectively at the table C) when deliberations are deadlocked and need to be unfrozen D) as an effort to build alliances and support for one's own position E) Communicating through intermediaries and constituency members is used under all of the above circumstances.

55. Which of the following processes is central to achieving almost all integrative agreements? A) moderating the free flow of information to ensure that each party's position is accurately stated B) exchanging information about each party's position on key issues C) emphasizing the commonalties between the parties D) searching for solutions that maximize the substantive outcome for both parties E) All of the above processes are central to achieving integrative agreements.

56. Arbitration typically involves A) high levels of negotiator control over outcomes and high levels of negotiator control over procedure. B) low levels of negotiator control over outcomes and low levels of negotiator control over procedure. C) low levels of negotiator control over outcomes and high levels of negotiator control over procedure. D) high levels of negotiator control over outcomes and low levels of negotiator control over procedure. E) Arbitration typically involves none of the above.

56. Which of the following arguments refutes Carr's claim that business strategy is analogous to poker strategy? A) Because good poker playing often involves concealing information and bluffing or deception, these rules ought to apply to business transactions. B) If an executive refuses to bluff periodically he or she is probably ignoring opportunities permitted under the "rules" of business C) Most games do not legitimize deception, and therefore business should not be analogous to a game that does legitimize deception D) Bluffing, exaggeration and concealment are legitimate ways for corporations to maximize their self interest E) None of the above arguments refute Carr's claim

56. Which of the following lists only joint strategies for cross-cultural negotiations? A) employ agents or advisors, bring in a mediator, adapt to the other party's approach, improvise an approach B) employ agents or advisors, adapt to the other party's approach, embrace the other party's approach, effect symphony C) bring in a mediator, coordinate adjustment, improvise an approach, effect symphony D) coordinate adjustment, improvise an approach, adapt to the other party's approach, embrace the other party's approach E) None of the above list only joint strategies for cross cultural negotiations.

57. "Adapting to the other party's approach" is best used by parties with A) no familiarity. B) low familiarity. C) moderate familiarity. D) high familiarity. E) Adapting to the other party's approach is equally effective for all parties.

57. The more you can convince the other that you value a particular outcome outside the other's bargaining range, the more pressure you put on the other party to set by one of the following resistance points. A) high B) low C) modest D) extreme E) None of the above.

57. Which of the following statements about interests is true? A) There is only one type of interest in a dispute. B) Parties are always in agreement about the type of interests at stake. C) Interests are often based in more deeply rooted human needs or values. D) Interests do not change during the course of an integrative negotiation. E) All of the above statements about interests are true.

58. "Coordinating adjustment" involves A) adopting completely the approach of the other party. B) making conscious changes to your approach so that it is more appealing to the other party. C) both parties making mutual adjustments to find a common process for negotiation. D) crafting an approach that is specifically tailored to the negotiation situation. E) "Coordinating adjustment" involves all of the above.

58. What are three major things that a listener can do to resist another's influence efforts? A) have a good BATNA, avoid public commitments, and defend one's self against the other's persuasive message B) avoid BATNAs, make a public commitment, and pay close attention to the other's persuasive message C) have a good BATNA, make a public commitment, and defend one's self against the other's persuasive message D) avoid BATNAs, avoid public commitments, and pay close attention to the other's persuasive message E) None of the above contains techniques that can be used to resist the other's influence efforts.

59. How can negotiators prevent the other party from making public commitments? A) emphasize statements of commitment B) respond to all statements of commitment C) look for a rationale to explain why the commitment does not apply at this time D) make pubic commitments of their own E) All of the above can be used to prevent the other party from making public commitments.

60. Brett, Barsness and Goldberg found that mediation, when compared to arbitration, A) was more costly. B) was more time-consuming. C) produced greater disputant satisfaction. D) was more complicated to implement.

60. Fisher and Davis have identified all but one of the following statements as advice to constituencies on managing agents. A) The constituent should focus most of his or her communication to the agent on interests, priorities, and alternatives, rather than specific settlement points B) The agent's authority should expand as the agent and constituent gain insight about the other parties through the negotiation process. C) The agent should not be given the discretion to design and develop an effective overall negotiation process. D) Specific and direct instructions to the agent by constituents should be put in writing about the other parties through the negotiation process. E) The agent should have no authority to make a binding commitment on any substantive issues.

60. The opening stance is A) another name for the first round of concessions. B) the first price that a buyer quotes to a seller. C) the attitude to adopt during the negotiation. D) a package of concessions. E) All of the above describe the opening stance.

60. Which of the following statements about how emotion plays a part in negotiation is accurate? A) Negotiations only create negative emotions. B) Positive feelings do not promote persistence. C) Negative feelings may create positive outcomes. D) Positive emotion may result from impasse. E) Negative emotions do not undermine a negotiator's ability to analyze a situation accurately.

62. In Esser and Marriott's research study, which type of mediation was found to be the most effective? A) issue identification B) positive framing of the issues C) content mediation D) mediated arbitration

63. In brainstorming A) individuals work in a large group to select a single optimal solution. B) all solutions are judged and critiqued as they are recorded, and a weighted-average percentage is assigned to each solution. C) parties are urged to be spontaneous and even impractical. D) the success of the approach depends on the item-by-item evaluation and critique of the solutions as presented. E) None of the above is a part of the brainstorming process.

63. McCornack and Levine found that victims had stronger emotional reactions to deception when A) they had a distant relationship with the subject. B) the information at stake was unimportant. C) lying was seen as an unacceptable type of behavior for that relationship. D) the victim had used deceptive tactics as well. E) Research found that victims did not have strong emotional reactions in any of the above cases.

64. Parties feel better about a settlement when negotiations involve a(n) A) immediate settlement. B) single round of concessions. C) progression of concessions. D) fait accompli. E) All of the above.

68. A joint goal is one in which A) all parties share the result equally. B) the parties work toward a common end but benefit differently. C) individuals with different personal goals agree to combine them in a collective effort. D) all parties work together to achieve some output that will be shared. E) All of the above are characteristics of a common goal.

69. Relating to "the issues" in aspects of mediation, effectiveness entails A) saving face when making concessions. B) resolving internal disagreements. C) uncovering the underlying interests and concerns. D) dealing with constituents.

72. When people do not trust each other they are more than likely to engage in which of the following behaviors? A) promoting collaboration B) communicating accurately C) positional bargaining D) committing to a joint solution E) none of the above

73. Hardball tactics are designed to A) be used primarily against powerful negotiators. B) clarify the user's adherence to a distributive bargaining approach. C) pressure targeted parties to do things they would not otherwise do. D) eliminate risk for the person using the tactic. E) Hardball tactics are designed to accomplish all of the above.

73. In providing impetus, the manager A) invents a solution that he or she thinks will meet both parties' needs, and usually enforces that solution on both parties. B) passively listens to what each side chooses to tell him or her, and then makes a decision (tells the parties how to solve the conflict) based exclusively on the presentations. C) tries to make a quick diagnosis of what the conflict is about and then tells the parties that if they don't find a solution, he or she will impose one on them. D) combines arbitration and mediation to arrive at a solution acceptable to all parties. E) None of the above describes providing impetus.

75. Which of the following tactics is the least preferable method of responding to another party's distributive tactics or "dirty tricks"? A) ignoring the tactic B) "calling" the tactic C) responding in kind D) discussing what you see and offer to help them change to more honest behaviors E) None of the above tactics should be used to respond to another party's dirty tricks.

A strong interest in achieving only substantive outcomes tends to support which of the following strategies? A) collaborative B) accommodating C) competitive D) avoidance E) none of the above

An individual who pursues his or her own outcomes strongly and shows little concern for whether the other party obtains his or her desired outcomes is using another of the following strategies. Which one? A) yielding B) compromising C) contending D) problem solving E) None of the above

Avoidance could best be used when: A) negotiation is necessary to meet your needs B) the time and effort to negotiate are negligible C) the available alternatives are very strong D) the only available negotiator is a senior manager. E) all of the above

Getting to know the other party and understanding similarities and differences represents what key step in the negotiation process: A) preparation B) information gathering C) relationship building D) information using E) None of the above

If the other party has a strong and viable alternative, he/she will A) be dependent on achieving a satisfactory agreement B) appear aggressive and hostile in negotiations C) set and push for high objectives D) have unlimited negotiating authority E) all of the above

In an accommodative negotiation, the relationships have: A) a short-term focus B) a long-term focus C) may be either short term or long term D) none of the above

In intragroup conflict, A) sources of conflict can include ideas, thoughts, emotions, values, predispositions, or drives that are in conflict with each other. B) conflict occurs between individual people. C) conflict affects the ability of the group to resolve differences and continue to achieve its goals effectively. D) conflict is quite intricate because of the large number of people involved and possible interactions between them. E) None of the above describes intragroup conflict.

Satisfaction with a negotiation is determined by A) the process through which an agreement is reached and the dollar value of concessions made by each party. B) the actual outcome obtained by the negotiation as compared to the initial bargaining positions of the negotiators. C) the process through which an agreement is reached and by the actual outcome obtained by the negotiation. D) the total dollar value of concessions made by each party. E) Satisfaction with a negotiation is determined by none of the above

Which is not a characteristic of a negotiation or bargaining situation? A) conflict between parties B) two or more parties involved C) an established set of rules D) a voluntary process E) None of the above is a characteristic of a negotiation

Which of the following is not a reason that negotiations fail? A) Allowing insufficient time for planning B) Failing to set clear objectives C) Understanding the strengths and weaknesses of their and the other party's positions D) Depending on being quick and clever during negotiations

Which type of justice is about the process of determining outcomes? A) Distributive B) Interactive C) Procedural D) Systemic E) None of the above.

28. In Ury's strategy for managing difficult negotiations, he sees five challenges: 1) don't react, 2) disarm them, 3) change the game, 4) make it easy for them to say yes, and 5) A) strike back. B) reject the offer. C) give in. D) make it hard to say no. E) break off negotiations.

29. The strategy of disarmament includes: A) providing some distance from the conflict and from one's own emotions. B) negotiating directly and openly the rules of the negotiation process. C) helping the other party think about the consequences of not reaching an agreement. D) expressing one's own views clearly and considerately. E) asking open-ended questions.

30. Some people are invariably difficult and their behavior follows predictable and one of the other following patterns. Which one? A) aggressive B) confusing C) contentious D) identifiable E) counter indicating

31. Which of the following is not a property of a coalition? A) A coalition is an interacting group of individuals. B) A coalition is independent of the formal structure of the organization. C) A coalition consists of mutually perceived membership. D) A coalition is focused on a goal or goals internal to the coalition. E) All of the above are properties of coalitions.

33. Which of the following would be likely to distort messages and their meaning, preventing them from being understood completely? A) shared or common goals between the sender and receiver B) the elimination of distraction and confusion in the communication environment C) the avoidance of symbolic communication D) the congruence or incongruence between multiple transmission channels E) All of the above would be likely to distort messages and their meaning.

37. Which of the following is not one of the five linguistic dimensions of making threats? A) the use of polarized language B) the conveyance of verbal immediacy C) the degree of lexical diversity D) the extent of low-power language style E) All of the above are elements of the five linguistic dimensions of making threats.

40. What are the most dominant contributors to breakdowns and failures in negotiation? A) failures and distortions in perception, meaning, and feedback B) failures and distortions in perception, feedback, and behaviors C) failures and distortions in perception, communication, and framing D) failures and distortions in perception, cognition, and communication. E) None of the above contribute to breakdowns and failures in negotiation.

41. An audience can be defined as A) parties on the same side that are working together and collectively advocating the same positions and interests. B) negotiators representing the interests of other parties. C) one or more parties that have designated someone else to represent their positions and interests in a negotiation. D) any individual or group of people who are not directly involved in or affected by a negotiation, but who have a chance to observe and react to the ongoing events and who may be drawn into the negotiation. E) An audience can be defined as all of the above.

41. We use the term "culture" to refer to the A) religious beliefs of a group of people. B) ethnicity of a group of people. C) geographic nationality of a group of people. D) shared values and beliefs of a group of people. E) Culture refers to none of the above.

42. Which of the following is not an aspect that contributes to persuasion through the central route? A) One- and two-sided messages. B) Message components. C) Repetition. D) Motivations. E) Conclusions.

43. The concept of criticality in a communication network involves A) the degree to which the key individual can exercise discretion in how certain decisions are made or who gains access. B) how visible the task performance is to others in the organization. C) the amount of information that passes through a node, the number of transactions that occur through the node, or the degree to which the node is central to managing information. D) the essentiality of the information that flows through the node to the organization's mission, major task, or key product. E) None of the above describes criticality in a communication network.

43. There are many different types of audiences and audience effects. A type of audience comprised of one or more parties whose interests, demands, or priorities are being represented by the focal negotiator at the table is part of one of the following. A) team member B) bystander C) neutral D) constituent E) observer

43. Which of the following is an immediate context factor in cross-cultural negotiations? A) external stakeholders B) instability C) international economic factors D) relationship between negotiators E) All of the above are immediate context factors in cross-cultural negotiations.

44. Projection occurs when A) attributes are assigned to an individual solely on the basis of his or her membership in a particular social or demographic group. B) people generalize about a variety of attributes based on the knowledge of one attribute of an individual. C) the perceiver singles out certain information that supports or reinforces a prior belief, and filters out information that does not confirm that belief. D) people ascribe to others the characteristics or feelings that they possess themselves. E) All of the above describe projection.

45. Adversaries can be described as A) parties who will not take a stand one way or the other on the issue. B) people with whom negotiator has conflicting goals and objectives, but who can be trusted to be principled and candid in their opposition. C) parties who a negotiator believes are in agreement with their goals and vision, and whom they trust. D) negotiators who are low in agreement and low in trust. E) None of the above statements describes adversaries.

45. All but one of the following is an aspect of messages that foster the peripheral route. Which one is not? A) Message order. B) Format. C) Distractions. D) Source Credibility. E) All of the above are aspects of the messages of the peripheral route.

45. Babcock, Wang and Loewenstein found that A. negotiators compare themselves to others whose positions are similar in scope and position to their own. B. negotiation breakdown or impasses are negatively correlated with perceived differences between the disputants chosen comparison groups. C. the smaller the perceived differences between comparison groups, the greater the likelihood of a breakdown. D. negotiators choose comparison groups to reflect a supportive, self-serving bias for their positions. E. Babcock, Wang and Loewenstein found support for all of the above hypothesis.

45. One way that lower power parties can deal with the big players in business deals and partnerships is by limiting the ways you can do business or who you can do business with and it is an example of one of the following dealings. Which one? A) Never do an all-or-nothing deal. B) Make yourself bigger. C) Build momentum by doing deals in sequence. D) Constrain yourself. E) Do what you can to manage the process.

47. An example of authority ranking as a form of relationship would include A) college roommates B) fraternal organizations C) auto salesperson and buyer D) soldiers and their commander E) church congregates

47. An insight drawn from research of the frames negotiators use in disputes would suggest that parties discussing salary may be likely to use outcome frames and may be related to which of the following. A) Negotiators can use more than one frame. B) Mismatches in frames between parties are sources of conflict. C) Particular types of frames may led to particular types of agreements. D) Specific frames may be likely to be used with certain types of issues. E) Parties are likely to assume a particular frame because of various factors.

48. Those attempting to negotiate in China recognize the value the Chinese place in saving "face." Which of the following cultural elements should also be examined in approaching discussions with the Chinese? A) Social linkage B) Harmony C) Roles D) Reciprocal obligations E) All of the above should be considered

49. Which of the following techniques is the least effective in resolving impasses and defusing volatile emotion? A. separating the parties B. tension management C. active listening D. synchronized de-escalation E. all of the above techniques aid in resolving impasses

50. A useful negotiating tactic, therefore, is to identify and discuss experiences, characteristics, and opinions you hold in common with the other party and this tactic is labeled A) perceived emotion. B) perceived ingratiation. C) perceived friendliness. D) perceived similarity. E) perceived helpfulness.

50. What consequences do negotiators from high uncertainty-avoidance cultures bring to negotiations? A) Negotiators will strongly depend on cultivating and sustaining a long-term relationship. B) Negotiators may be more likely to "swap" negotiators, using whatever short-term criteria seem appropriate. C) Negotiators may need to seek approval from their supervisors more frequently. D) Negotiators may not be comfortable with ambiguous situations and may be more likely to seek stable rules and procedures when they negotiate. E) All of the above are consequences of high uncertainty avoidance cultures.

51. Distributive bargaining strategies A) are the most efficient negotiating strategies to use. B) are used in all interdependent relationships. C) are useful in maintaining long term relationships. D) can cause negotiators to ignore what the parties have in common. E) None of the above describes distributive bargaining strategies.

51. Researchers have found that expressing high anger and low compassion toward another led the negotiators to A. a greater desire to work together in the future. B. achieve more joint gains. C. find and explore commonalties in experience. D. an unaffected ability to yield greater individual gains. E. Expressing high anger and low compassion can lead to all of the above.

51. The irrational escalation of commitment bias refers to A) the standard against which subsequent adjustments are measured during negotiation. B) the perspective or point of view that people use when they gather information and solve problems. C) how easily information can be recalled and used to inform or evaluate a process of a decision. D) a negotiator's commitment to a course of action, even when that commitment constitutes irrational behavior on his/her part. E) None of the above refer to irrational escalation of commitment.

52. In group-oriented cultures A) the individual comes before the group's needs. B) decisions are primarily made by senior executives. C) decision making is an efficient, streamlined process. D) negotiators may be faced with a series of discussions over the same issues and materials with many different people. E) All of the above occur in group-oriented cultures.

52. Which of the following is not a benefit of third-party intervention? A) creating breathing space or a cooling off period B) refocusing on the substantive issues C) salvaging the sunk cost of stalled negotiations D) decreased levels of negotiator satisfaction with and commitment to the conflict resolution process and its outcomes

53. Which of the following strategies can be used to manipulate the effect an audience can have? A) Limit one's own concessions by making negotiations invisible to the constituency. B) Do not allow the constituency to demonstrate their commitment to the bargaining position. C) Give the negotiator unlimited authority. D) Increase the possibility of concessions by cutting off visibility to audiences. E) None of the above tactics can be used to manipulate audience visibility.

54. According to Weiss, when choosing a strategy, negotiators should A) choose one strategy and stick with it throughout the entire negotiation. B) be aware of their own culture, but minimize the other culture's norms. C) not try to predict or influence the other party's approach. D) understand the specific factors in the current relationship. E) Weiss states that negotiators should do all of the above when preparing for negotiations.

54. In what way can resources be used in negotiation? A) as a means to get attention and a means to overcome resistance B) through the principles of social proof and the norm of reciprocity C) as a BATNA and an exchange tactic D) in exchange and pressure tactics E) Resources cannot be used in any of the above ways.

54. Which of the following is not one of Fisher's major approaches to fractionating conflict? A. reduce the number of parties on each side B. restrict the precedents involved, both procedural and substantive C. state issues in concrete terms rather than as principles D. role reversal and imaging processes E. All of the above encompass Fisher's approaches to fractionating conflict.

55. Proponents of personalistic ethics argue that A) the best way to achieve the greatest good is to closely follow a set of rules and principles. B) the worth of a particular action is judged on the basis of the consequences it produces. C) societies, organizations and cultures determine what is ethically appropriate and acceptable within that group. D) everyone ought to decide for themselves what is right based on their conscience. E) Rule utilitarians argue all of the above

55. The Endowment Effect A) is making attributions to the person or the situation B) is drawing conclusions from small sample sizes C) is negotiators believing that their ability to be correct or accurate is greater than actually true D) is the tendency to overvalue something you own or believe you possess

55. Which of the following approaches can be used to de-escalate conflict by establishing commonalties or focusing on common objectives? A. responding in kind B. confronting offensive behavior C. imaging D. establishing superordinate goals E. None of the above can be used to de-escalate conflict by establishing commonalties or focusing on common objectives.

56. The more you can convince the other party that your costs of delay or aborting negotiations are ____________, the more modest will be the other's resistance point. A) high B) modest C) extreme D) low E) None of the above.

58. Denise Rousseau has researched and defined the "idiosyncratic deal" as the unique ways that employers may come to treat certain employees compared to others in the same office or environment. Which observation stated below is inaccurate? A) Deals are more common when workers are willing to negotiate. B) Deals are more likely to work effectively when performance criteria are clear and well specified. C) Deals are more common in certain countries, such as the United States, the United Kingdom and New Zealand. D) Deals are more common when workers are located in large organizations. E) Deals are more likely to work when workers trust the performance appraisal process.

58. The distinction between mood and emotion is based on which of the following characteristics? A) specificity B) intensity C) duration D) all of the above E) none of the above

59. The decision-acceptance effect states that A) if negotiators anticipate that their own failure to agree will lead to a binding arbitrator's intervention, it may cool their incentive to work seriously for a negotiated settlement. B) when arbitration is anticipated as a result of the failure of parties to agree, negotiators may lose interest in the process of negotiating. C) as the frequency of arbitration increases, disenchantment with the adequacy and fairness of the process develops, and the parties may resort to other means to resolve their disputes. D) arbitrated disputes may engender less commitment to the settlement than alternative forms of dispute resolution.

59. What approach can parties use to generate alternative solutions by redefining the problem or problem set? A) brainstorming B) logrolling C) surveys D) nonspecific compensation E) None of the above approaches can be used to redefine the problem.

59. Which of the following would you not likely find the use of an agent in negotiations? A) When your natural conflict style is to compromise, accommodate, or avoid. B) When the agent has special friends, relationships or connections that he or she can use to contact the right people to get a deal done. C) When the representative has better negotiation skills than you. D) When you need to repair a damaged relationship. E) When you are emotionally involved in an issue or problem.

59. Which question that should be asked about working on the improvement of a relationship is false? A) If the relationship is in difficulty, what might have caused it, and how can I gather information or perspective to improve the situation? B) How can we take the pressure off each other so that we can give each other the freedom of choice to talk about what has happened, and what is necessary to fix it? C) Trust repair is a long and slow process. It requires adequate explanations for past behavior, apologies, and perhaps even reparations. Interestingly, cultures differ in the way they manage this process D) Must we surface the deeply felt emotions that have produced anger, frustration, rejection and disappointment? Should we effectively vent these emotions, or understand their causes, so that we can move beyond them? E) How can we begin to appreciate each other's contributions, and the positive things that we have done together in the past? How can we restore that respect and value each other's contributions?

60. In nonspecific compensation A) resources are added in such a way that both sides can achieve their objectives. B) one party achieves his/her objectives and the other's costs are minimized if he/she agrees to go along. C) the parties are able to invent new options that meet each sides' needs. D) one person is allowed to obtain his/her objectives and "pay off" the other person for accommodating his interests. E) All of the above are related to nonspecific compensation.

60. Per a study of ethically ambiguous tactics which of the following is true? A) There is a significant negative relationship between an attitude toward the use of each specific tactic and the intention to use it B) There is no significant positive relationship between an attitude toward the use of a specific tactic and actually using that tactic, for four of the five tactics studies C) Hiding the bottom line was the tactic least frequently used, exaggerating an opening offer was the most commonly used, followed by stalling for time and misrepresenting information. D) Hiding the bottom line improved negotiator performance in the role-play. Negotiators also believed that making empty promises, misrepresenting information, and exaggerating their opening offer improved their performance. E) All of the above

60. Which of the following statements about the three approaches for inoculating against the arguments of other parties is false? A) The most effective approach is the "double defense" approach. B) The least effective approach is that of developing arguments only in support of our own position. C) The best way to inoculate people against attacks on their position is to involve them in developing a defense. D) Asking people to make public statements supporting their original position decreases their resistance to counterarguments. E) All of the above statements are true.

61. The bargaining range is defined by A) the opening stance and the initial concession. B) the initial round of concessions. C) the bargaining mix and the opening stance. D) the opening offer and the counteroffer. E) The bargaining range is defined by all of the above.

62. "What are the other's real underlying interests and needs?" is a question that can facilitate the _____________ process. A) expanding the pie B) logrolling C) nonspecific compensation D) bridging E) The question should not be used with any of the above processes.

65. Studies have shown that with the exception of "traditional competitive bargaining," men were: A) significantly less likely to use unethical tactics than women. B) somewhat less likely to use unethical tactics than women. C) somewhat more likely to use unethical tactics than women. D) significantly more likely to use unethical tactics than women. E) Studies have shown that there is no gender bias in the use of unethical tactics.

65. What statement about concessions is false? A) Concessions are central to negotiations. B) Concessions is another word for adjustments in position. C) Concession making exposes the concession maker to some risk. D) Reciprocating concessions is a haphazard process. E) All of the above statements are true.

66. The inaction mediation strategy involves A) mediator application of rewards and inducements to entice the parties into making concessions and agreements. B) trying to force the parties to reduce their levels of aspiration in the absence of perceived potential for an integrative resolution. C) assisting the parties to engage in integrative exchange, as they would in win-win negotiation in the mediator's absence. D) standing back from the dispute, leaving the parties to work things out on their own.

66. Which guideline should be used in evaluating options and reaching a consensus? A) keep the range of solution options as wide as possible B) evaluate the solutions on the basis of speed and expediency C) keep detailed records throughout the discussion and evaluation process D) be alert to the influence of intangibles in selecting options E) None of the above should be used in the evaluation process.

68. Research results have generally indicated that higher levels of moral development are associated with A) less ethical decisions. B) more cheating behavior. C) less helping behavior. D) more resistance to authority figures who are attempting to dictate unethical conduct. E) Higher levels of moral development are associated with all of the above.

69. A commitment A) should not be interpreted as a threat. B) postpones the threat of future action. C) is designed to increase both parties' choices to a portfolio of options. D) removes ambiguity about the actor's intended course of action. E) All of the above.

71. Which of the following is not a major part of the process consultant's agenda? A) changing the climate for conflict management B) promoting constructive dialogue around differences of opinion C) creating the capacity for other people to act as their own third parties D) determining the final resolution of the conflict

72. To prevent the other party from establishing a committed position, a negotiator could A) give them the opportunity to evaluate the matter fully. B) acknowledge the other's commitment. C) reiterate the commitment. D) make a joke about the commitment. E) None of the above should be used to prevent the other party from establishing a committed position.

73. When formal channels of communication break down, negotiators are permitted to finding alternatives and can use which of the following? A) conversations over coffee breaks B) separate meetings between chief negotiators outside of the formal sessions C) off-the-record contacts between key subordinates D) all of the above E) none of the above

73. When using the "intimidation" tactic to detect deception, one should A) emphasize the futility and impending danger associated with continued deceit. B) lie to the other to make them believe you have uncovered their deception. C) play down the significance of any deceptive act. D) make a "no-nonsense" accusation of the other. E) None of the above actions would be used as part of the intimidation tactic.

A negotiator's goals: A) are intrinsically in conflict with his opponent's goals B) have no boundaries or limits C) are explicitly stated wishes D) must be reasonably attainable E) all of the above

A situation in which solutions exist so that both parties are trying to find a mutually acceptable solution to a complex conflict is known as which of the following? A) mutual gains B) win-lose C) zero-sum D) win-win E) None of the above

In the Dual Concerns Model, the level of concern for the individual's own outcomes and the level of concern for the other's outcomes are referred to as the A) cooperativeness dimension and the competitiveness dimension. B) the assertiveness dimension and the competitiveness dimension. C) the competitiveness dimension and the aggressiveness dimension. D) the cooperativeness dimension and the assertiveness dimension. E) None of the above

Promises and offers can be made more attractive in what way? A. minimizing the attractive qualities of the offer B. showing how the offer meets your own needs C. increasing the disadvantages of accepting the offer D. setting deadlines on offers E. Promises and offers can be made more attractive in none of the above ways.

Reactive strategies: A) encourage negotiators to be more flexible and creative B) can efficiently clear up confusion about issues C) will lessen a negotiator's defensive posture D) can make negotiators feel threatened and defensive E) none of the above

What are the two dilemmas of negotiation? A) the dilemma of cost and the dilemma of profit margin B) the dilemma of honesty and the dilemma of profit margin C) the dilemma of trust and the dilemma of cost D) the dilemma of honesty and the dilemma of trust E) None of the above.

Whereas distributive bargaining is often characterized by mistrust and suspicion, integrative negotiation is characterized by which of the following? A) obligation and perseverance B) avoidance and compromise C) influence and persuasiveness D) trust and openness E) cognition and emotion

Which is not true of limits? A) Are the point where you should stop the negotiation B) Are also called resistance point C) Establishing them is a critical part of planning D) They should be ignored in a bidding war E) All of the above

Which one of the following is as much a win-lose strategy as competition, although it has a decidedly different image? A) collaboration B) avoidance C) engagement D) accommodation

Which represents the best deal we can possibly hope to achieve? A) specific target point B) resistance point C) alternative D) asking price E) none of the above

24. As a party managing a negotiation mismatch, you can respond using which of the following ways? A) Ignore them. B) Respond in kind. C) Call them on it. D) Offer to change to more productive methods. E) Do all of the above.

26. Which of the following statements about the important factors that affect how women and men approach negotiations is untrue? A) Women are more aware of the complete relationship among the parties who are negotiating and are more likely to perceive negotiation as part of the larger context within which it takes place than to focus only on the content of the issues being discussed. B) Women tend not to draw strict boundaries between negotiating and other aspects of their relationships with other people but instead see negotiation as a behavior that occurs within relationships without large divisions marking when it begins and ends. C) Men can be characterized as using power to achieve their own goals, or to force the other party to capitulate to their point of view. D) Men use dialogue in two ways: (a) to convince the other party that their position is the correct one and (b) to support various tactics and ploys that are used to win points during the discussion. E) Negative stereotypes about female bargainers do not shape expectations and behaviors by both men and women at the negotiating table.

29. Which of the following are likely to "level the playing field" for women who seem to be at a disadvantage in negotiations? A) Motivational interventions. B) Situational interventions. C) Cognitive Interventions. D) None of the above interventions can help rectify the disparity. E) All of the above contribute to reducing the constraints.

30. There is a growing body of evidence that suggests that women are at a disadvantage in negotiations as compared to male negotiators. The nature of this disadvantage may occur in A) being treated differently before and during negotiations than men. B) receiving worse opening offers from the other party. C) receiving worse outcomes in similar negotiations than males. D) being penalized when they use the same negotiation tactic that males use successfully. E) All of the above.

35. The presence of feedback can A) distort communication in negotiation. B) lead negotiators to change the way that they negotiate or evaluate negotiation outcomes. C) influence the offers that negotiators make. D) motivate the sender to change his or her behavior, either in a positive or negative direction. E) The presence of feedback can cause all of the above to occur.

38. Legitimate power and its effectiveness of formal authority that are derived from the willingness of the followers to: A) create a group structure that gives one person a power base, group members generate a willingness within themselves to obey that person's directives. B) willingly give up their right to participate in every decision by vesting authority in someone who can act on their behalf. C) acknowledge the legitimacy of the organizational structure and the system of rules and regulations that empowers its leaders. D) simply show respect for a person's position or organization. E) All of the above contribute to the effectiveness of legitimate power.

38. The "strength-is-weakness" dynamic in coalitions states that A) coalition founders will go to those who are the weakest for support. B) the weakest members may need to be in the coalition the most. C) the weakest members will demand the least payoff from joining the coalition. D) the weakest members may hold power in the coalition. E) The "strength is weakness" dynamic in coalitions states all of the above.

40. Resources are more useful as instruments of power to the extent they are highly valued be participants in the negotiation. Which of the following is not a resource of organizational context? A) Money, in its various forms. B) Supplies, in form of materials, components, parts. C) Human capital in available labor supply, staff, temporary help. D) Critical services, in repairs, upkeep, technical support. E) Stress, in imposing deadlines, increasing workloads,

40. Which of the following statements about strength in coalitions is false? A) Those parties who have relatively fewer resources in a coalition may be stronger. B) The more resources one holds or controls, the more likely that he or she will be a critical coalition member. C) Coalition players with strength often become the center of communication networks. D) The more power one holds or controls, the more likely that he or she will be a central figure in pulling the coalition together and dictating its strategy. E) All of the above statements about strength in coalitions are true.

41. Laboratory controlled research is much easier to conduct than field research because studying live negotiators in the middle of an often complex negotiation causes them to object to all but one of the following? A) to conduct interviews. B) to ask questions. C) to publicly report actual successes. D) to publicly report actual failures. E) they object to all the above.

41. Perception is A) the process by which individuals connect to their environment. B) strongly influenced by the receiver's current state of mind, role and understanding or comprehension of earlier communications. C) a factor that can affect how meanings are ascribed. D) a complex physical and psychological process. E) All of the above describe perception.

42. Questions can be used to A) manage difficult or stalled negotiations. B) pry or lever a negotiation out of a breakdown or an apparent dead end. C) assist or force the other party to face up to the effects or consequences of their behaviors. D) collect and diagnose information. E) Questions can be used for all of the above.

43. Two-sided messages tend to be most effective A) with better educated audiences. B) when the other party initially disagrees with the position. C) when the other party will be exposed to people who will argue points of view different from the position advocated. D) when the issue discussed is already familiar. E) Two-sided messages are effective in all of the above situations.

44. Political and legal pluralism can make cross cultural negotiations more complex because A) there may be implications for the taxes that the organization pays. B) there may be implications for the labor codes or standards that the organization must meet. C) there may be different codes of contract law and standards of enforcement. D) political considerations may enhance or detract from the conduct of business negotiations in various countries at different times. E) Political and legal pluralism can make cross cultural negotiations more complex because of all of the above.

45. When audiences become directly involved in the negotiation process, the complexity of the interaction increases depending on A) who the audience is. B) what issues are at stake. C) how much power the audience has. D) what kind of role the audience chooses to play. E) The complexity of the interaction depends on all of the above.

47. Which is not a way parties avoid conflict per Mayer? A. Aggressive avoidance B. Passive aggressive avoidance C. Avoidance through premature problem solving D. Avoidance through surrogates E. All are ways parties avoid conflict

48. Status gives people visibility, which allows them to get attention and be heard. Where do people get their status from among the following criteria? A) Their occupation. B) Their age. C) Their education level. D) Their manner of dress. E) All the above.

49. Frames are shaped by conversations that the parties have with each other about the issues in the bargaining mix. Which of the following factors can affect how the conversation is shaped? A) Negotiators tend to argue for stock issues, or concerns that are raised every time the parties negotiate. B) Each party attempts to make the best possible case for his or her preferred position or perspective. C) Frames may define major shifts and transitions in a complex overall negotiation. D) Multiple agenda items operate to shape issue development. E) All of the above contribute to the shaping of the conversation.

50. One of the most important aspects of framing as issue development is the process of reframing, or the manner in which the thrust, tone, and focus of a conversation change as the parties engage in it. Reframing is or occurs: A) the way parties challenge each other, as they present their own case or refute the other's. B) a dynamic process that may occur many times in a conversation. C) when using metaphors, analogies, or specific cases to illustrate a point. D) and may be used intentionally by one side or the other. E) all of the above apply to reframing as parties often propose new ways to approach a problem.

50. Which of the statements is supported by research in communal-sharing relationships? A) Parties in a communal-sharing relationship are more cooperative and empathetic. B) Parties in a communal-sharing relationship craft better quality agreements. C) Parties in a communal-sharing relationship focus more attention on the norms that develop about their working together. D) Parties in a communal-sharing relationship are more likely to share information with the other and less likely to use coercive tactics. E) All of the above statements are supported by research in communal sharing relationships.

52. Reputation is: A) a perceptual identity. B) reflective of the combination of personal characteristics. C) demonstrated behavior. D) intended images preserved over time. E) all of the above statements define reputation.

52. Which of the following is not a cognitive bias? A) the irrational escalation of commitment B) the belief that the issues under negotiation are all "fixed pie" C) the process of anchoring and adjustment in decision making D) the winner's curse E) All of the above are cognitive biases.

53. Which of the following is a major step in the integrative negotiation process? A) identifying and defining the problem B) understanding the problem and bringing interests and needs to the surface C) generating alternative solutions to the problem D) choosing a specific solution E) All of the above are major steps in the integrative negotiation process.

54. Informal communications in a negotiation can take place in what way? A) communicate through superiors B) communicate through intermediaries C) communicate directly to the other party's constituency D) communicate directly to bystanders E) Informal communications can take place through all of the above methods.

54. Which of the following cognitive biases can lead negotiators to discount the worth or validity of the judgment of others? A) Irrational escalation of commitment B) Mythical fixed-pie beliefs C) Anchoring and adjustment D) Availability of information E) Overconfidence

55. Under what conditions might negotiators seek third-party involvement? A) Intense emotions appear to preventing a settlement. B) Misperceptions or stereotypes hinder productive exchanges. C) There is disagreement as to the number or type of issues under dispute. D) There is an absence of a clear, agreed-to negotiation procedure or protocol. E) Negotiators might seek third-party involvement under all of the above conditions.

56. Communications through bystanders may occur A) as an explicit and conscious tactic to exert influence on the other party. B) as an effort to build alliances and support for one's own position. C) as a result of the natural tendency for conflict to proliferate and envelop innocent bystanders. D) as a manipulation by an agent to undermine the other party's position. E) All of the above are examples of communications through bystanders.

56. Reactive devaluation A) leads negotiators to minimize the magnitude of a concession made by a disliked other. B) leads to reduced willingness to respond with a concession of equal size. C) may be minimized by maintaining a more objective view of the process. D) can lead to motivation to seek even more once a concession has been made. E) All of the above are elements of reactive devaluation.

56. Why is it important to explore the other party's outlook? A) It can give us more information. B) It can lead us to designing solutions to meet both sides' needs. C) It further increases the other party's feeling of being listened to. D) It makes the other party more receptive to meeting our needs. E) It is important to explore the other party's outlook for all of the above reasons.

57. The best way to manage perceptual and cognitive biases is: A) to be aware that they exist. B) to participate in group discussions. C) to tell people about the bias. D) complete a questionnaire. E) All of the above help manage biases but may not be enough in and of themselves.

57. The media increasingly provide opportunities for "disorganized majorities" to have a voice through all but one of the following. Which one? A) Web-based chat rooms. B) Call-in talk shows. C) Weblogs. D) Media polls. E) Petitions.

57. Which of the following conclusions about the issue of fairness is not a true statement? A) Involvement in the process of helping to shape a negotiation strategy increases commitment to that strategy and willingness to pursue it. B) Negotiators (buyers in a market transaction) who are encouraged ("primed") to think about fairness are more cooperative in distributive negotiations. C) Parties who are made offers they perceive as unfair may reject them out of hand, even though the amount offered may be better than the alternative settlement, which is to receive nothing at all. D) Establishment of some "objective standard" of fairness has a positive impact on the negotiations and satisfaction with the outcome. E) All of the above are true statements.

58. Which is a Category of Marginally Ethical Negotiating Tactics? A) Traditional Competitive Bargaining B) Emotional Manipulation C) Misrepresentation to Opponent's Networks D) Bluffing E) All of the above

59. Disruptive action tactics can cause A) embarrassment. B) increased costs. C) anger. D) escalation of conflict. E) Disruptive action tactics can cause all of the above.

59. What strategy does Fisher suggest to make options more desirable to the opponent? A. give them a "yesable" proposal B. ask for a different decision C. sweeten the offer D. use legitimacy or objective criteria to evaluate solutions E. Fisher suggests all of the above strategies to make options more desirable.

59. Which tactic is seen as inappropriate and unethical in negotiation? A) misrepresentation B) bluffing C) misrepresentation to opponent's network D) inappropriate information collection E) All of the above are seen as inappropriate and unethical tactics.

60. Within relationships, we see that parties shift their focus considerably, away from a sole focus on price and exchange, to also attend to A) the future of the relationship. B) the level of trust between the parties. C) the emotions and evaluations of the other negotiator. D) questions of fairness. E) Within relationships, parties shift their focus to attend to all of the above.

62. What action can be taken after the first round of offers? A) hold firm B) insist on the original position C) make some concessions D) make no concessions E) All of the above.

64. Research studies show that the problem-solving style of mediation A) is a more structured, active approach to resolving conflict. B) leads to more frequent and desirable outcomes. C) produces more positive attitudes toward mediation. D) decreases disputant hostility and the damaging effect of difficult conflicts based on intangible issues. E) Research shows that all of the above are results of the problem-solving style of mediation.

64. When identifying options in an integrative negotiation, solutions are usually attained through: A) hard work B) information exchange C) focusing on interests rather than positions D) firm flexibility E) Solutions are attained by using all of the above.

66. Concession making A) indicates an acknowledgment of the other party. B) shows a movement toward the other's position. C) implies a recognition of the legitimacy of the other party's position. D) recognizes the other party's position. E) All of the above are characteristics of concession making.

67. Research studies have shown that individuals who are strongly Machiavellian are A) more willing and able con artists. B) more likely to lie when they need to. C) better able to tell bigger lies with out feeling anxious about it. D) more persuasive and effective in their lies. E) Individuals who are strongly Machiavellian have all of the above

68. Skilled negotiators may A) suggest different forms of a potential settlement that are worth about the same to them. B) recognize that not all issues are worth the same amount to both parties. C) frequently save a final small concession for near the end of the negotiation to "sweeten" the deal. D) make the last concession substantial to indicate that "this is the last offer". E) Skilled negotiators may take all of the above actions.

68. When may mediation be less than effective? A) when the conflict is intense B) when they have major differences in their expectations for a settlement. C) when many issues are at stake D) when the parties disagree on major priorities E) Mediation tactics may be insufficient in all of the above situations.

70. Which of the following is a major characteristic of a pre-settlement settlement? A) The settlement results in a firm, legally binding written agreement between the parties. B) It occurs in advance of the parties undertaking a full-scale negotiation. C) The parties intend that the agreement will be replaced by a more clearly delineated long-term agreement which is to be negotiated. D) It resolves only a subset of the issues on which the parties disagree, and may simply establish a framework within which the more comprehensive agreement can be defined and delineated. E) All of the above are characteristics of a pre-settlement settlement.

71. The negotiators' past relationship will affect current behavior if the parties A) have been previously competitive. B) have been previously cooperative. C) feel indebted to one another. D) hold grudges toward one another. E) The negotiators' past relationship will affect current behavior under all of the above conditions.

74. Aggressive behavior tactics include A) the relentless push for further concessions. B) asking for the best offer early in negotiations. C) asking the other party to explain and justify their proposals item by item. D) forcing the other side to make many concessions to reach an agreement. E) Aggressive behavior tactics include all of the above.

74. Integrative negotiation fails because A) negotiators fail to perceive the integrative potential of the negotiating problem. B) of distributive assumptions about the negotiation problem. C) of the mixed-motive nature of the issues. D) of the negotiator's previous relationship with one another. E) All of the above are reasons why integrative negotiations fail.

A negotiator should ask which of the following questions when presenting issues to the other party to assemble information. A) What facts support my point of view? B) Whom may I consult or take with to help me elaborate or clarify the facts? C) What is the other party's point of view likely to be? D) How can I develop and present the facts so they are most convincing? E) All of the above questions should be asked.

Characteristics of collaborative strategies include: A) long-term focus B) trust and openness C) efforts to find mutually satisfying solutions D) pursuit of goals held jointly with others E) all of the above

Effective planning requires hard work on the following points: A) Defining the issues B) Defining the bargaining limit C) Defining interests D) Defining limits and alternatives E) All of the above

How much to believe of what the other party tells you A) depends on the reputation of the other party. B) is affected by the circumstances of the negotiation. C) is related to how he or she treated you in the past. D) is the dilemma of trust. E) All of the above

Interests can be: A) substantive, directly related to the focal issues under negotiation B) process based, related to the manner in which we settle this dispute C) relationship based, tied to the current or desired future relationship between the parties D) based in the intangibles of the negotiation E) all of the above

Parties pursuing one of the following strategies show little interest or concern in whether they attain their own outcomes, and do not show much concern about whether the other party obtains his or her outcomes. Which of the ones listed below? A) contending B) compromising C) problem solving D) yielding E) None of the above

Under which of the following questions of protocol would you find a bargaining relationship discussion about procedural issues that should occur before the major substantive ones have been raised? A) What agenda should we follow? B) Where should we negotiate? C) What is the time period of the negotiation? D) What might be done if negotiation fails? E) How will we keep track of what is agreed to?

Which is not a key step to an ideal negotiation process? A) Preparation B) Relationship Building C) Information Gathering D) Bidding E) All of the above are key steps

Which of the following are dynamics of highly polarized, unproductive conflict? A. The atmosphere is charged with anger, frustration, and resentment. B. Channels of communication are closed or constrained. C. The original issues at stake have become blurred and ill-defined. D. The parties tend to perceive great differences in their respective positions. E. All of the above characterize a highly polarized, unproductive conflict.

Which perspective can be used to understand different aspects of negotiation? A) economics B) psychology C) anthropology D) law E) All of the above perspectives can be used to understand different aspects of negotiation.

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