Staffing Test 4, Staffing Test 3
A z score of 3.0 for a job applicant's score on an aptitude test indicates the applicant ________. A) received a score 3 standard deviations above the mean score B) achieved a score 3 points higher than the average score C) had a score 3 percent higher than the average score D) had a score plus or minus 3 points relative to the mean score
A
Administration instructions, scoring instructions, and normative data are included in a good ________. A) Test manual B) Correlation estimate C) Online posting system D) Counterbalanced validation design
A
Administration instructions, scoring instructions, and normative data are included in a good ________. A) Test manual B) Correlation estimate C) Online posting system D) Counterbalanced validation design
A
Coefficient alpha assesses ________. A) reliability within a single time period B) reliability between samples C) reliability within a single time period and reliability between time periods are correct D) test-retest reliability E) reliability between time periods
A
Coefficient alpha assesses ________. A) reliability within a single time period B) reliability between samples C) reliability within a single time period and reliability between time periods are correct D) test-retest reliability E) reliability between time periods
A
Comparing the same supervisor's rating of an employee's performance at T1 to T2 is a method for assessing ________ reliability. A) intrarater B) fixed-point C) test-retest D) interrater
A
Comparing the same supervisor's rating of an employee's performance at T1 to T2 is a method for assessing ________ reliability. A) intrarater B) fixed-point C) test-retest D) interrater
A
The Uniform Guidelines in Employee Selection procedures require the calculation of selection rates for ________. A) every disability category currently assessed B) the population at large C) each job category D) all of the above
A
The Uniform Guidelines in Employee Selection procedures require the calculation of selection rates for ________. A) every disability category currently assessed B) the population at large C) each job category D) all of the above
A
The correlation coefficient expresses ________. A) strength of the relationship between two variables B) the range between two variables C) variance D) causality
A
The correlation coefficient expresses ________. A) strength of the relationship between two variables B) the range between two variables C) variance D) causality
A
The proper test to determine that a given sample correlation is statistically significant as an estimate of a correlation in a population is the ________. A) the t test B) standard deviation C) squared correlation coefficient D) z score
A
The proper test to determine that a given sample correlation is statistically significant as an estimate of a correlation in a population is the ________. A) the t test B) standard deviation C) squared correlation coefficient D) z score
A
The use of the case analysis method of assessment is most appropriate for assessing ________. A) problem-solving abilities B) ability to perform a technical task C) social-interactive skills D) leadership skills
A
The validity of assessment centers as a method for internal selection is approximately ________. A) .25-.35 B) .50-.60 C) .00 D) .05-.15
A
Validity of a measure is best defined as ________. A) the degree to which the measure does indeed measure what it is intended to measure B) the upper limit of reliability C) the lower limit of reliability D) the consistency of measurement
A
Validity of a measure is best defined as ________. A) the degree to which the measure does indeed measure what it is intended to measure B) the upper limit of reliability C) the lower limit of reliability D) the consistency of measurement
A
Where peer assessments are concerned, it would be accurate to say that ________. A) peer rankings rely on ordering of peers being assessed B) peer ratings rely on voting to select the most promotable applicants C) peer assessments are used for both internal and external applicants D) peer rankings rely on assessments of each applicant using scores on a continuous numerical scale
A
Which of the following is true regarding pre-employment inquiries (PI)? A) It is critical for employers to understand the laws and regulations regarding PIs. B) Organizations rarely make inappropriate and illegal PIs. C) They have little potential for being used for discriminatory purposes in the assessment process. D) The emphasis in PIs on the illegal collection of information.
A
Which of the following is(are) examples of substantive methods for internal selection? A) Performance appraisals B) Skills inventories C) Managerial sponsorship D) Career concepts
A
Which of the following results represents statistically significance as it is commonly understood? A) p < .05 B) r = .30 C) r > .10 D) all of the above
A
Which of the following results represents statistically significance as it is commonly understood? A) p < .05 B) r = .30 C) r > .10 D) all of the above
A
Selection for team contexts ________. A) should emphasize both interpersonal and self-management KSAOs B) is not much different than for selection in general C) should not involve members of the team, because that only leads to resentment D) all of the above
A. should emphasize both interpersonal and eslf management KSAOs
Which of the following is a characteristic of a typical unstructured interview? A) The interviewer makes a quick and final evaluation of the candidate. B) The interviewer is highly prepared. C) It consists of formal, objective questioning. D) It is usually carefully planned.
A. the interviewer makes a quick and final evaluation of the candidate
Within the context of internal selection, an accurate statement about the logic of prediction would be that ________. A) the logic of prediction can be applied more precisely for internal selection than for external selection B) the logic of prediction works better for external selection than for internal selection C) this concept does not apply to internal selection D) the logic of prediction has identical application for internal and external selection
A. the logic of prediction can be applied more precisely for internal selection then for external selection
The standard error of measurement allows ________. A) calculation of confidence intervals for actual scores B) calculation of confidence intervals for true scores C) calculation of confidence intervals for error D) estimates of content validity
B
The standard error of measurement allows ________. A) estimates of content validity B) calculation of confidence intervals for true scores C) calculation of confidence intervals for actual scores D) calculation of confidence intervals for error
B
The type of selection methods which are used to narrow down a list of finalists to those who will receive job offers is called ________ methods. A) sequential B) discretionary C) compensatory D) initial E) substantive
B
The variability of a measure is best captured by the ________. A) range and median B) range and standard deviation C) mode and mean D) mean and standard deviation
B
The variability of a measure is best captured by the ________. A) range and median B) range and standard deviation C) mode and mean D) mean and standard deviation
B
Which of the following statements about various methods of managerial sponsorship is false? A) A mentor becomes personally responsible for the success of the person being assisted. B) A coach is available to the person being assisted on and off the job. C) A sponsor actively promotes the person being assisted for advancement opportunities. D) A coach provides day-to-day feedback.
B
While information from internal selection can be better because multiple point of view can be combined, there are concerns that ________. A) internal candidates with poor technical skills are likely to be promoted B) impression management and politics can play a role in who gets promoted C) instincts and intuition are not given enough weight D) bribery for promotions is widespread
B
The first step of the structured interview process is ________. A) developing the selection plan B) consulting the job requirements matrix C) selecting and training interviewers D) developing selection goals
B. consulting the job requirements matrix
The difference between black and white test takers on cognitive ability tests has been ________. A) decreasing over time B) both decreasing over time and lower when tests are given in an open-ended format C) lower when tests are given in an open-ended format D) demonstrated to be an artifact of question wording
B. demonstrated to be an artifact of question wording
Which of the following is the law that governs the collection of background check information for employment purposes? A) Americans with Disadvantaged Access Act B) Fair Credit Reporting Act C) National Labor Rights Act D) Personnel Reporting Statue of 1977
B. fair credit reporting act
An important advantage of peer assessments is ________. A) lower probability of bias in the assessment B) greater knowledge of the applicants' KSAOs C) enhanced employee morale through the fostering of a competitive spirit D) greater clarity in the criteria for assessment
B. greater knowledge of applicants' KSAOs
The process of ensuring that all test takers receive the same tests in the same context, as a way to eliminate extraneous influences on test performance is called ________. A) optimization B) rationalization C) standardization D) inflation
C
The process of ensuring that all test takers receive the same tests in the same context, as a way to eliminate extraneous influences on test performance is called ________. A) optimization B) rationalization C) standardization D) inflation
C
When predictor and criterion scores have been obtained, the predictor can be considered valid if ________. A) the correlation coefficient has statistical significance alone B) the correlation coefficient has practical significance alone C) the correlation coefficient has the desired practical and statistical significance D) the correlation coefficient is insignificant
C
When predictor and criterion scores have been obtained, the predictor can be considered valid if ________. A) the correlation coefficient has statistical significance alone B) the correlation coefficient has practical significance alone C) the correlation coefficient has the desired practical and statistical significance D) the correlation coefficient is insignificant
C
Which of the following is not part of the process of measurement? A) using the measure to gauge the attribute B) constructing a measure of the attribute C) assessing the attribute's acceptability to applicants D) choosing an attribute of concern
C
Which of the following is not part of the process of measurement? A) using the measure to gauge the attribute B) constructing a measure of the attribute C) assessing the attribute's acceptability to applicants D) choosing an attribute of concern
C
Which of the following is true regarding performance appraisals and internal selection? A) Performance appraisals have no reliability. B) It is illegal for organizations to use performance appraisals as a basis for internal selection decisions. C) Performance appraisals are readily available in most organizations. D) Performance appraisals have no validity.
C
Which of the following statements about measurement is not correct? A) it assigns numbers to objects. B) it measures constructs. C) it measures the object not the attribute. D) it is based on rules determined in advance.
C
Which of the following statements about measurement is not correct? A) it assigns numbers to objects. B) it measures constructs. C) it measures the object not the attribute. D) it is based on rules determined in advance.
C
The validity of assessment centers as a method for internal selection is approximately ________. A) .05-.15 B) .00 C) .25-.35 D) .50-.60
C. .25-.35
Which of the following statements regarding the use of grade point averages as a predictor is(are) true? A) GPAs in one's major tend to be highly similar to one's GPAs in other classes. B) Grades do not vary widely by field. C) GPA may be influenced by many factors in addition to the applicant's KSAOs and motivation. D) GPAs from different schools mean the same thing.
C. GPA may be influenced by many factors in addition to the applicant's KSAOs and motivation
Which of the following statements regarding résumés is true? A) Video résumés are highly respected by most employers B) Even background checks cannot reduce the problem of résumé fraud C) Most surveys suggest that around half of all résumés have substantial inaccuracies or distortions D) Extensive evidence suggests that résumés are highly accurate predictors of employee job performance
C. Most surveys suggest that around half of all resumes have substantial inaccuracies or distortions
Which of the following is(are) true based on research regarding interviews? A) Situational interviews are less valid than job-related interviews. B) The validity of structured interviews is low. C) Panel interviews were less valid than individual interviews. D) All of the above are true.
C. Panel interviews were less valid than individual interviews
Which of the following is(are) examples of substantive methods for internal selection? A) Skills inventories B) Career concepts C) Performance appraisals D) Managerial sponsorship
C. Performance appraisals
The strength of the relationship between a predictor and performance is called ________. A) reliability B) instrumentality C) validity D) utility
C. Validity
In using educational level as an initial selection criterion, which of the following statements is false? A) Educational level is a predictor of job performance. B) High-level degrees from non-accredited schools may be indicators of lesser accomplishment than lower-level degrees from accredited schools. C) A GED is a high school equivalency degree and is about as good as a conventional high school diploma in predicting job performance. D) The degree received from an institution is not sufficient as a sole indicator of an applicant's level of education.
C. a GED is a high school equivalency degree and is about as good as a conventional high school diploma in predicting job performance
The best description of UGESP is that they are ________. A) regulations that deal only with gender equity and job selection B) a set of regulations relating only to disabled individuals C) a set of federal regulations related to selection systems as covered by the Civil Rights Act D) regulations for drug testing in the workplace
C. a set of federal regulations related to selection systems as covered by the civil rights act
What are the most useful personality traits, in order, for selection contexts? A) Agreeableness, openness to experience, extraversion B) Extraversion, conscientiousness, emotional stability C) Conscientiousness, emotional stability, extraversion D) Emotional stability, conscientiousness, openness to experience
C. conscientiousness, emotional stability, extraversion
A statement that identifies the rights than an employer wishes to maintain for itself that often accompanies initial employment assessments is called a ________. A) waiver B) providential statement C) disclaimer D) requisition
C. disclaimer
The type of selection methods which are used to narrow down a list of finalists to those who will receive job offers is called ________ methods. A) sequential B) substantive C) discretionary D) initial E) compensatory
C. discretionary
The assessment method which involves the use of very realistic equipment and scenarios to simulate actual tasks of a job is called a ________ test. A) low fidelity B) job knowledge C) high fidelity D) psychomotor
C. high fidelity
An important advantage of peer assessments is ________. A) enhanced employee morale through the fostering of a competitive spirit B) lower probability of bias in the assessment C) greater clarity in the criteria for assessment D) greater knowledge of the applicants' KSAOs
D
Contamination error ________. A) is the same as deficiency error B) is easy to minimize and control C) shows a lack of an acceptable coefficient alpha D) represents unwanted sources of influence on a measure
D
Contamination error ________. A) is the same as deficiency error B) is easy to minimize and control C) shows a lack of an acceptable coefficient alpha D) represents unwanted sources of influence on a measure
D
Content validation is most appropriate when ________. A) criterion measures are readily available B) sample size is large C) reliability is too high D) sample size is too small for criterion validity calculation
D
Content validation is most appropriate when ________. A) criterion measures are readily available B) sample size is large C) reliability is too high D) sample size is too small for criterion validity calculation
D
Deficiency error would not indicate a failure to ________. A) adequately define the attribute of interest B) measure some portion of the attribute of interest C) construct a proper measure of the totality of the attribute D) calculate the standard deviation
D
Deficiency error would not indicate a failure to ________. A) adequately define the attribute of interest B) measure some portion of the attribute of interest C) construct a proper measure of the totality of the attribute D) calculate the standard deviation
D
Which of the following is an example of contamination error? A) different time limits for the same test B) irrelevant material on the test C) guessing by the test taker D) all of the above
D
Which of the following levels of statistical significance would provide the most confidence that a sample correlation coefficient would not be interpreted as having a relationship in the population, when, in fact, there is no such relationship? A) .05 B) .50 C) .10 D) .01
D
Which of the following levels of statistical significance would provide the most confidence that a sample correlation coefficient would not be interpreted as having a relationship in the population, when, in fact, there is no such relationship? A) .05 B) .50 C) .10 D) .01
D
An organization which is committed to shattering the "glass ceiling" should ________. A) emphasize the use of traditional assessment methods B) decrease its use of selection plans C) undertake programs to raise employees' awareness of general career issues D) pay attention to the types of KSAOs needed for advancement
D, pay attention to the types of KSAOs needed for advancement
Work samples and performance tests are useful for a broad range of jobs, although they are difficult to use in ________ jobs. A) bank teller B) customer service C) assembly D) none of the above
D. None of the above
Which of the following statements about various methods of managerial sponsorship is false? A) A coach provides day-to-day feedback. B) A sponsor actively promotes the person being assisted for advancement opportunities. C) A mentor becomes personally responsible for the success of the person being assisted. D) A coach is available to the person being assisted on and off the job.
D. a coach is available to the person being assisted on and off the job
Background testing is concerned with the ________ of an applicant. A) reliability B) personal adjustments C) integrity D) all of the above
D. all of the above
Examples of initial assessment methods that have moderate degrees of adverse impact against women and/or minorities include ________. A) training and experience B) quality of school C) education level D) all of the above are correct
D. all of the above
Problems with using others' "feelings" about a job applicant include ________. A) discrimination on the basis of protected class status B) decisions with low validity C) lowered hiring standards for some employees D) all of the above
D. all of the above
The information collected for an accomplishments record includes ________. A) when the accomplishment took place B) any recognition for the accomplishment C) a written statement of the accomplishment D) all of the above
D. all of the above
Which of the following are common sources of résumé fraud? A) inflated titles B) inaccurate dates to cover up job hopping or unemployment C) inflated education or "purchased" degrees D) all of the above
D. all of the above
Which of the following cognitive abilities appear to reflect general intelligence? A) quantitative abilities B) verbal abilities C) reasoning abilities D) All of the above are correct
D. all of the above
Which of the following is a source of error or bias in unstructured interviews? A) Low reliability between interviewers. B) Primacy effects. C) Nonverbal cues from interviewees influence interview ratings. D) All of the above are true.
D. all of the above
Which of the following is a typical justification of a BFOQ involving sex that employers use? A) Customers have a preference for dealing with one sex. B) One sex has an inability to perform the work. C) Personal contact with others requires same sex. D) All of the above are potential justifications.
D. all of the above
Which of the following is(are) initial assessment methods? A) Application blanks B) Résumés and cover letters C) Biographical information D) All of the above
D. all of the above
Research on application blanks has suggested that the most common questions that are misinterpreted include ________. A) reasons for leaving previous jobs B) previous positions held C) previous employers D) all of the above are true
A. reasons for leaving previous jobs
Which of the following assessment methods does not have at least moderately high validity? A) seniority B) work experience C) job knowledge tests D) assessment centers
A. seniority
A job candidate responding to an "in-basket exercise" would most likely be asked to ________. A) draft memos to respond to letters received B) complete a written test to assess KSAOs C) make a simulated visit to a customer location D) participate in an interview simulation
A
A scale in which a given attribute is categorized, and numbers are assigned to the categories, but there is no order or level implied among the categories. A) nominal B) ratio C) ordinal D) interval
A
A scale in which a given attribute is categorized, and numbers are assigned to the categories, but there is no order or level implied among the categories. A) nominal B) ratio C) ordinal D) interval
A
A z score of 3.0 for a job applicant's score on an aptitude test indicates the applicant ________. A) received a score 3 standard deviations above the mean score B) achieved a score 3 points higher than the average score C) had a score 3 percent higher than the average score D) had a score plus or minus 3 points relative to the mean score
A
Within the context of internal selection, an accurate statement about the logic of prediction would be that ________. A) the logic of prediction can be applied more precisely for internal selection than for external selection B) the logic of prediction has identical application for internal and external selection C) the logic of prediction works better for external selection than for internal selection D) this concept does not apply to internal selection
A
Employers protect themselves in the initial stages of contact with job applicants through the use of ________. A) disclaimers B) discharge policies C) labor contracts D) employment clauses
A. Disclaimers
Which of the following is an example of contamination error? A) different time limits for the same test B) irrelevant material on the test C) guessing by the test taker D) all of the above
D
Which of the following statements regarding the development of a selection plan is false? A) The process of developing a selection plan is usually straightforward and can be done quickly B) The list of KSAOs used in the selection plan are derived from the job requirements matrix C) One reason KSAOs may be deemed unimportant for selection is because they will be learned on the job D) Possible methods for assessing every identified job-relevant KSAO need to be developed
A. The process of developing a selection plan is usually straightforward and can be done quickly
One guideline for improving the effectiveness of initial interviews is to ________. A) ask questions which assess the most basic KSAOs B) ask questions which assess the most basic KSAOs and make them long and rigorous are correct C) make them long and rigorous D) ask each applicant different questions
A. ask questions which assess the most basic KSAOs
Asking applicants to complete a supplemental application in which they describe their most significant accomplishments relative to a list of job behaviors is known as the ________. A) behavioral consistency method B) biodata approach C) experiential summary method D) none of the above
A. behavioral consistency method
Which of the following is true regarding research on the validity of personality tests? A) Conscientiousness predicts performance across occupational groups. B) Extraversion predicts job performance for most jobs. C) Openness to experience does not predict training performance. D) All of the above are true.
A. conscientiousness predicts performance across occupational groups
The UGESP requires employers to ________. A) consider suitable alternative selection procedures if one of the selection techniques has adverse impact B) perform a local validation study for every subgroup of employees C) keep records based on religion and marital status for all employees D) assess employee history of drug abuse
A. consider suitable alternative selection procedures if one of selection techniques had adverse impact
A job candidate responding to an "in-basket exercise" would most likely be asked to ________. A) draft memos to respond to letters received B) complete a written test to assess KSAOs C) participate in an interview simulation D) make a simulated visit to a customer location
A. draft memos to respond to letters received
Which of the following statements is false? A) Faking has a negative impact on the validity of personality tests B) When individuals believe their scores are being used for selection, their observed scores tend to increase C) There is little evidence that people fake their scores on personality tests in the hiring contexts D) None of the above statements is false
A. faking has a negative impact on the validity of personality tests
Which of the following is not one of the five-factor model personality traits? A) General mental ability B) Extroversion C) Neuroticism D) Conscientiousness
A. general mental ability
Situational judgment tests ________. A) involve applicants' descriptions of how they would behave in work scenarios B) have very low validity C) are based on applicants' evaluations of photographs D) have very high adverse impact
A. involve applicants' descriptions of how they would behave in work scenarios
Which of the following is true regarding genetic screening? A) It helps to screen out people who are susceptible to certain diseases. B) It helps to screen out people who will perform poorly on the job. C) It is used widely by companies in the U.S. D) A recent court decision has ruled that it is allowable under the Americans with Disabilities Act.
A. it helps to screen out people who are susceptible to certain diseases
Which of the following items is a major principle pertaining to selection under the Americans with Disabilities Act? A) It is unlawful to screen out individuals with disabilities unless the procedure is consistent with a business necessity B) The employer can retain the right to refuse to hire individuals with disabilities if customers have a strong preference for not encountering disabled staff C) It is unlawful to screen out individuals with disabilities for any reason D) It is unlawful for employers to require employees to physical agility tests in a selection context
A. it is unlawful to screen out individuals with disabilities unless the procedure is consistent with a business necessity
Which of the following is true regarding seniority? A) It refers to length of service or tenure. B) It is closely related to the quality of job experience. C) It is closely related to the type of job experience. D) It is a highly valid selection method.
A. it refers to length of service of tenure
Research has indicated that job applicants generally have a ________ view of biodata inventories. A) negative B) positive C) neutral D) very positive
A. negative
One of the major disadvantages of using handwriting analysis as an assessment method is that it is ________. A) not related to job performance B) easy to fake C) inefficient D) expensive
A. not related to job performance
If the selection objective is to assess a candidate's ability to make a coherent. persuasive report about the organization's annual results before a group of top managers, the best interview simulation to make this assessment would be a(n) ________. A) oral presentation B) in-basket exercise C) assessment center D) role play
A. oral presentation
Which of the following is true regarding cognitive ability tests? A) There is reason to believe cognitive ability tests will be associated with positive financial returns. B) Cognitive ability tests are among the least valid methods of selection. C) Cognitive ability tests do not generalize to a wide range of organizations and jobs. D) All of the above are true.
A. there is reason to believe cognitive ability tests will be associated with positive financial returns
Essay tests are best used to assess ________ skills. A) written communication B) interpersonal C) oral communication D) none of the above
A. written communication
A complete lack of correlation between two variables is expressed by a correlation coefficient of ________. A) -1.00 B) zero C) 1.00 D) 50
B
A complete lack of correlation between two variables is expressed by a correlation coefficient of ________. A) -1.00 B) zero C) 1.00 D) 50
B
Applicant flow statistics require the calculation of ________. A) interview rates for the groups under analysis B) selection rates for the groups under analysis C) range scores for the groups under analysis D) rejection rates for the groups under analysis
B
Applicant flow statistics require the calculation of ________. A) interview rates for the groups under analysis B) selection rates for the groups under analysis C) range scores for the groups under analysis D) rejection rates for the groups under analysis
B
Reliability of a measure places ________. A) an average limit on the validity of a measure B) an upper limit on the validity of a measure C) a lower limit on the validity of a measure D) no limit on the validity of a measure
B
Reliability of a measure places ________. A) an average limit on the validity of a measure B) an upper limit on the validity of a measure C) a lower limit on the validity of a measure D) no limit on the validity of a measure
B
The case for validity generalization across situations becomes stronger if ________. A) the standard error of measurement is large B) differences in method and statistical differences are controlled C) reliability is low D) correlation coefficients are negative
B
The case for validity generalization across situations becomes stronger if ________. A) the standard error of measurement is large B) differences in method and statistical differences are controlled C) reliability is low D) correlation coefficients are negative
B
The most appropriate measure of central tendency for nominal data is the ________. A) mean B) mode C) median D) standard deviation
B
The most appropriate measure of central tendency for nominal data is the ________. A) mean B) mode C) median D) standard deviation
B
Which of the following are absolutely necessary for maintaining test security? A) A method for disseminating information to the pool of candidates regarding the scores of other candidates B) Assurances that the test results will only be communicated by someone trained in how to interpret scores C) Identical forms of the test for all test-takers D) A scoring key for the questionnaire provided to candidates after the test is completed
B
Which of the following are absolutely necessary for maintaining test security? A) A method for disseminating information to the pool of candidates regarding the scores of other candidates B) Assurances that the test results will only be communicated by someone trained in how to interpret scores C) Identical forms of the test for all test-takers D) A scoring key for the questionnaire provided to candidates after the test is completed
B
Which of the following factors is the most relevant to the theory behind assessment centers? A) Substituting HR assessors for line management assessors. B) Prediction of the individual's behavior in critical roles through assessment by multiple methods. C) Matching applicants to KSAOs required by the job. D) Shortening the period of time needed to complete an assessment for a managerial position.
B
Which of the following is a true statement? A) true score divided by error equals actual score B) actual score equals true score plus error C) actual score plus error equals true score D) true score equals variance plus error
B
Which of the following is a true statement? A) true score divided by error equals actual score B) actual score equals true score plus error C) actual score plus error equals true score D) true score equals variance plus error
B
Which of the following is a type of validity? A) parallel forms B) criterion C) coefficient alpha D) test-retest
B
Which of the following is a type of validity? A) parallel forms B) criterion C) coefficient alpha D) test-retest
B
Which of the following is true regarding seniority? A) It is closely related to the type of job experience. B) It refers to length of service or tenure. C) It is closely related to the quality of job experience. D) It is a highly valid selection method.
B
The highest estimate of validity coefficients of unweighted applicant banks as predictors of job performance are ________. A) .40 B) .20 C) 1.00 D) .60 E) .80
B. 0.20
Which of the following methods is the most valid predictor of performance? A) Unweighted application blanks B) Biodata C) Initial interviews D) Handwriting analysis
B. Biodata
The most common person to be contacted in a reference check is the applicant's ________. A) HR department at his/her former employer B) former supervisor C) friends D) former coworkers
B. Former supervisor
The issue of consistency of measurement with assessment methods is called ________. A) central tendency B) reliability C) variability D) validity
B. Reliability
The most accurate description of the basic purpose of a selection plan is ________. A) a selection plan matches applicants to outcome criteria B) a selection plan describes predictors to be used to assess KSAOs required to perform the job C) a selection plan consists of interview rating criteria D) a selection plan determines the means for attracting qualified job applicants
B. a selection plan describes predictors to be used to assess KSAOs required to perform the job.
Measures which assess an individual's capacity to function in a certain way are called ________. A) interest inventories B) ability tests C) knowledge tests D) personality tests
B. ability tests
________ refers to the possibility that a disproportionate number of protected-class members may be rejected using this predictor. A) Utility B) Adverse impact C) Habeas corpus D) Low reliability
B. adverse impact
Interest inventories are designed to improve person job match by assessing applicant preferences for different types of work. Research suggests that these inventories ________. A) are prohibited by law B) are not strongly predictive of job performance C) are about as predictive of job performance as ability tests D) are more predictive of job performance than ability tests
B. are not strongly predictive of job performance
One major problem with letters of recommendation is that they ________. A) are too ambiguous to interpret B) are not structured or standardized C) are too lengthy to be useful D) all of the above are correct
B. are not structured of standardized
Which of the following is true regarding biodata and background tests? A) Only background tests look into an applicant's past. B) Background information is obtained through interviews and conversations with references. C) They are two different names for the same thing. D) Biodata is used primarily when screening applicants for positions in which integrity and emotional adjustment are necessary.
B. background information is obtained through interviews and conversations with references
This personality trait is associated with better performance, higher job satisfaction, and lower adaptability on the job. A) Agreeableness B) Conscientiousness C) Extraversion D) Openness to experience E) Neuroticism
B. conscientiousness
Within the context of the selection process, the "logic of prediction" means that: A) indicators of an applicant's future performance are predictive of likely job performance B) indicators of a person's degree of success in past situations should be predictive of future job success C) predictors of job performance are correlated with KSAOs D) indicators of job outcomes can be used to predict job performance
B. indicators of a person's degree of success in past situations should be predictive of future job success
An example of an assessment method which has relatively low reliability is ________. A) resumes B) initial interviews C) biographical information D) application blanks
B. initial interviews
Most initial assessment methods have ________ validity. A) high to very high B) moderate to low C) moderately high to high D) moderate
B. moderate to low
Which of the following inquiries can be made prior to giving a job offer? A) Questions about history of illegal drug use B) Oral or written questions about the existence of a disability C) Psychological exams designed to detect mental illness D) None of the above
B. oral or written questions about the existence of a disability
Which of the following is a recommendation for the use of drug testing programs? A) Drug testing should be done with all jobs. B) Provide rejected applicants with an opportunity to appeal. C) Do not inform applicants of the test results. D) All of the above
B. provide rejected applicants with an opportunity to appeal
Research studies have found ________ support for the validity of job knowledge tests. A) some B) relatively strong C) no support D) very weak
B. relatively strong
The type of structured interview that assesses an applicant's ability to project what his/her behavior would be in the future is the ________ interview. A) experience-based B) situational C) projective D) KSAO-based
B. situational
The process of administering tests that place applicants in hypothetical, job-related situations and asking them to choose a course of action among several alternatives is called ________. A) Job simulation tests B) situational judgment tests C) behavioral implementation tests D) work sample tests
B. situational judgement tests
The principal assumption behind the use of biodata is the axiom, ________. A) The best predictor of future behavior is motivation level B) The best predictor of future behavior is past behavior C) The best predictor of future behavior is education level D) The best predictor of future behavior is KSAOs
B. the best predictor of future behavior is past behavior
Which of the following is true regarding the Big Five personality factors? A) They represent cognitive abilities. B) They are reasonably valid in predicting job performance. C) They represent emotional traits. D) None of the above.
B. they are reasonable valid in predicting job performance
When considering the use of extracurricular activities as a job performance predictor, one should ________. A) use extracurricular activities mainly for selection of managerial personnel B) use extracurricular activities when they correlate with KSAOs required by the job C) use extracurricular activities whenever possible D) de-emphasize the use of extracurricular activities
B. use extracurricular activities when they correlate with KSAO's required by the job
Applicants' reactions to interviews tend to be ________. A) somewhat unfavorable B) very favorable C) somewhat favorable D) neutral
B. very favorable
A nominal scale of measurement has ________. A) equal differences between points on a scale of measurement B) rank order C) classification by categories D) an absolute true zero point
C
A nominal scale of measurement has ________. A) equal differences between points on a scale of measurement B) rank order C) classification by categories D) an absolute true zero point
C
A scale in which objects are rank ordered according to how much of the attribute they possess, with equal space between objects. A) ordinal B) nominal C) interval D) ratio
C
A scale in which objects are rank ordered according to how much of the attribute they possess, with equal space between objects. A) ordinal B) nominal C) interval D) ratio
C
A scale in which objects are rank ordered according to how much of the attribute they possess. A) ratio B) interval C) ordinal D) nominal
C
A scale in which objects are rank ordered according to how much of the attribute they possess. A) ratio B) interval C) ordinal D) nominal
C
An organization which is committed to shattering the "glass ceiling" should ________. A) emphasize the use of traditional assessment methods B) decrease its use of selection plans C) pay attention to the types of KSAOs needed for advancement D) undertake programs to raise employees' awareness of general career issues
C
Applicant flow statistics require the calculation of ________. A) range scores for the groups under analysis B) interview rates for the groups under analysis C) selection rates for the groups under analysis D) rejection rates for the groups under analysis
C
Applicant flow statistics require the calculation of ________. A) range scores for the groups under analysis B) interview rates for the groups under analysis C) selection rates for the groups under analysis D) rejection rates for the groups under analysis
C
Applicant stock statistics for groups under analysis require calculation of percentages for ________. A) the reliability of a measure B) measures of content validity C) availability in the population D) unemployed workers
C
Applicant stock statistics for groups under analysis require calculation of percentages for ________. A) the reliability of a measure B) measures of content validity C) availability in the population D) unemployed workers
C
Comparing objective scores from T1 to T2 is a method for assessing ________ reliability. A) internal consistency B) maximal asymptotic C) test-retest D) interrater
C
Comparing objective scores from T1 to T2 is a method for assessing ________ reliability. A) internal consistency B) maximal asymptotic C) test-retest D) interrater
C
In comparing internal selection with external selection, an advantage of internal selection is that ________. A) internal selection presents fewer dangers of incurring legal liability than external selection B) internal selection requires few procedures to locate and screen viable job candidates C) information about internal candidates tends to be more verifiable than information about external candidates D) there is less need to use multiple predictors in assessing internal candidates than with external candidates
C
Length in inches is an example of a(n) ________. A) ordinal scale B) nominal scale C) ratio scale D) interval scale
C
Length in inches is an example of a(n) ________. A) ordinal scale B) nominal scale C) ratio scale D) interval scale
C
Rankings of the finishes of competitors in a foot race is an example of a(n) ________. A) interval scale B) ratio scale C) ordinal scale D) none of the above
C
Rankings of the finishes of competitors in a foot race is an example of a(n) ________. A) interval scale B) ratio scale C) ordinal scale D) none of the above
C
Reliability of measurement is defined as ________. A) magnitude of measurement B) frequency of measurement C) consistency of measurement D) accuracy of measurement
C
Reliability of measurement is defined as ________. A) magnitude of measurement B) frequency of measurement C) consistency of measurement D) accuracy of measurement
C
Research on the use of selection and experience as internal selection methods indicates that ________. A) seniority is better suited to predict short-term rather than long-term potential B) experience is less likely to be content valid if the past or present jobs are similar to the future job C) experience is unlikely to remedy initial performance difficulties of low ability employees D) seniority is a more valid method of internal selection than experience
C
The likelihood that a correlation exists in a population, based on knowledge of the actual value of r in a sample from that population is the ________. A) practical significance B) likelihood ratio C) statistical significance D) functional statistic
C
The likelihood that a correlation exists in a population, based on knowledge of the actual value of r in a sample from that population is the ________. A) practical significance B) likelihood ratio C) statistical significance D) functional statistic
C
While information from internal selection can be better because multiple point of view can be combined, there are concerns that ________. A) instincts and intuition are not given enough weight B) internal candidates with poor technical skills are likely to be promoted C) impression management and politics can play a role in who gets promoted D) bribery for promotions is widespread
C. impression management and politics can play a role in who gets promoted
Organizations may not ________ prior to making a job offer. A) conduct background checks B) discuss job responsibilities C) make medical inquiries D) none of the above
C. make medical inquiries
According to ADA, it is not permissible for employers to do which of the following at the pre-offer stage of assessment process? A) Ask the applicant if he/she can perform the job, with or without reasonable accommodation. B) Ask the applicant to demonstrate how they could perform the job. C) Ask if the applicant has any disabilities. D) None of the above is permissible.
C. none of the above
Which of the following is a criterion on which biodata items can be classified? A) equal access vs. easy access B) invasive vs. firsthand C) objective vs. subjective D) historical vs. nonverifiable
C. objective vs. subjective
This personality trait is associated with more creativity, effective leadership, and a lower commitment to one's employer. A) Agreeableness B) Conscientiousness C) Openness to experience D) Neuroticism E) Extraversion
C. openness to experience
Where peer assessments are concerned, it would be accurate to say that ________. A) peer assessments are used for both internal and external applicants B) peer ratings rely on voting to select the most promotable applicants C) peer rankings rely on ordering of peers being assessed D) peer rankings rely on assessments of each applicant using scores on a continuous numerical scale
C. peer rankings rely on ordering of peers being assessed
Which of the following is true regarding performance appraisals and internal selection? A) Performance appraisals have no validity. B) It is illegal for organizations to use performance appraisals as a basis for internal selection decisions. C) Performance appraisals are readily available in most organizations. D) Performance appraisals have no reliability.
C. performance appraisals are readily available in most organizations
The correlation between structured interviews and cognitive ability tests is ________. A) very negative B) moderately negative C) positive D) zero
C. positive
Which of the following factors is the most relevant to the theory behind assessment centers? A) Shortening the period of time needed to complete an assessment for a managerial position. B) Substituting HR assessors for line management assessors. C) Prediction of the individual's behavior in critical roles through assessment by multiple methods. D) Matching applicants to KSAOs required by the job.
C. prediction of the individual's behavior in critical roles through assessment by multiple methods
The use of the case analysis method of assessment is most appropriate for assessing ________. A) leadership skills B) social-interactive skills C) problem-solving abilities D) ability to perform a technical task
C. problem - solving abilites
Which of the following is necessary for the logic of prediction to work in practice for selecting employees? A) the organization has adopted a thorough competency modeling approach B) anonymous periodic reviews of applicant files to ensure accuracy C) qualifications carry over from one job to another D) that each candidate is assessed based on his or her unique experiences
C. qualifications carry over from one job to another
________ assessment methods are used to reduce the candidate pool to finalists for a job. A) Initial B) Contingent C) Substantive D) Discretionary
C. substantive
Which of the following is true regarding drug testing? A) Upper-level employees are more likely to be tested than lower-level employees. B) Applicants were twice as likely to be tested for alcohol use as drug use. C) The rate of drug testing has declined slightly in recent years. D) All of the above are true.
C. the rate of drug testing has declined slightly in recent years
Which of the following is an advantage of external recruiting? A) they are very inexpensive B) they ensure consistency from opening to closing C) they are useful for companies too small to have dedicated recruiters D) all of the above
C. they are useful for companies too small to have dedicated recruiters
Which of the following is true regarding integrity tests? A) Their use has declined in the past decade. B) They are used to reduce employee accidents. C) They are usually paper-and-pencil or computerized measures. D) The construct of integrity is well understood.
C. they are usually paper and pencil or computerized measures
In comparing internal selection with external selection, an advantage of internal selection is that ________. A) internal selection requires few procedures to locate and screen viable job candidates B) internal selection presents fewer dangers of incurring legal liability than external selection C) there is less need to use multiple predictors in assessing internal candidates than with external candidates D) information about internal candidates tends to be more verifiable than information about external candidates
D
Research on the use of selection and experience as internal selection methods indicates that ________. A) seniority is a more valid method of internal selection than experience B) seniority is better suited to predict short-term rather than long-term potential C) experience is less likely to be content valid if the past or present jobs are similar to the future job D) experience is unlikely to remedy initial performance difficulties of low ability employees
D
The concept which refers to the idea that individuals rise to their lowest level of incompetence is the ________. A) Career Concept Principle B) Promotability Principle C) 4/5 Principle D) Peter Principle
D
The larger the correlation coefficient, ________. A) the smaller its statistical significance B) the smaller its practical significance C) the larger its range D) the greater the practical significance
D
The larger the correlation coefficient, ________. A) the smaller its statistical significance B) the smaller its practical significance C) the larger its range D) the greater the practical significance
D
Which of the following assessment methods does not have at least moderately high validity? A) work experience B) assessment centers C) job knowledge tests D) seniority
D
Biographical information is like application blanks, except ________. A) biographical information is based on history, but application blanks are based on current events B) biographical data is more likely to be accepted by applicants C) application blanks are more likely to be used for substantive selection decisions D) biographical data can be more fruitfully used for substantive selection decisions
D. biographical data can be more fruitfully used for substantive selection decisions
Drug tests are not common for many jobs because ________. A) the tests produce a massive number of false positive results B) drug tests are extremely expensive C) the law essentially bans drug tests for all jobs not involving operating a vehicle D) drug tests do not "catch" many people
D. drug tests do not "catch" many people
Research has shown that most of the effect of cognitive ability on performance is due to the fact that intelligent employees have greater ________. A) diligence B) presentation skills C) social networking capacity D) job knowledge
D. job knowledge
The problem with using ________ for hiring purposes is that only very poor applicants cannot obtain these, and the format is unstandardized. A) certifications B) MBAs C) biodata forms D) letters of recommendation
D. letters of recommendation
Which of the following is true regarding the use of personality tests in the selection process? A) The Core Self-Evaluations Scale has not been shown to have much validity in predicting job performance. B) Emotional stability is a much more valid predictor of job performance when it is measured narrowly. C) The aspect of emotional stability that is more relevant to job performance is stress proneness. D) None of the above.
D. none of the above
If the correctness of a response is essential for a job, then a(n) ________ test should be used. A) essay B) objective C) speed D) power
D. power
The biggest reason why cognitive ability tests are not more widely used is ________. A) they are difficult to administer B) they are too expensive C) they are too time-consuming D) they have an adverse impact on minorities
D. they have an adverse impact on minorities
The most widely used test of general mental ability for selection decisions is the ________. A) Job Characteristics Inventory B) MMPI C) Myers-Briggs D) Wonderlic Personnel Test
D. wonderlic personnel test
This personality trait is associated with more helping behaviors, teamwork, and difficulty in coping with conflicts. A) Openness to experience B) Neuroticism C) Extraversion D) Conscientiousness E) Agreeableness
E. agreeableness
