State

10. A cylinder should be considered dangerous, regardless of what type of hazardous material it contains, because the contents are: A. flammable. B. pressurized. C. toxic. D. asphyxiating.

B

357. When describing a product as a solid, liquid, or a gas, we are referring to its: A. vapor density. B. physical state. C. flash point. D. ignition temperature.

B

359. What would be the likely result of allowing a contaminated individual to leave the hot zone without being decontaminated? A. Nothing. All contaminates would likely be gone after the individual exited the hot zone. B. The contaminates would likely be transferred to other personnel or equipment resulting in secondary contamination. C. The individual would be treated for exposure but is no risk to others. D. There would be direct contamination of the warm zone.

B

360. Carcinogens, mutagens, and teratogens are permanent and irreversible conditions known as: A. irritants. B. chronic health hazards. C. convulsants. D. sensitizers.

B

364. Vesicants/blister agents, such as nitrogen mustard, would fall under which UN/DOT hazard class and division? A. 6.1 B. 6.2 C. 4.1 D. 4.2

B

370. Which DOT Hazard Class covers nerve agents used in chemical warfare? A. DOT 6.3 B. DOT 6.1 C. DOT 6.2 D. DOT 5.2

B

371. Nerve agents are considered to be part of which UN/DOT hazard class? A. 6.2 B. 6.1 C. 2.3 D. 2.2

B

372. The immediate concern when dealing with combustible liquid spills is to: A. apply AFFF foam to the combustible liquid. B. prevent ignition of the fuel. C. dike storm drains along collection route. D. ignite fuel to allow the combustible materials to burn off.

B

373. Most riot control agents are considered to be in DOT hazard class: A. 6.2 B. 6.1 C. 6.3 D. 5.2

B

375. The amount of an ingested or injected substance that results in the death of 50% of the test population is: A. LC-50. B. LD-50. C. DC-50. D. CD-50.

B

381. Which of the following resources would be able to determine, or predict, the concentrations of a released hazardous material within an endangered area when provided with local data and leak information? A. Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) B. Computer Aided Management for Emergency Operations (CAMEO) C. Waybill D. Emergency Response Guidebook

B

16. For materials in Hazard Class 8 (corrosive), a DOT placard is required if the gross weight is in excess of: A. 500 lbs. B. 100 lbs. C. 1000 lbs. D. 5000 lbs.

C

161. Which section of the Emergency Response Guidebook provides the fire, explosion, and health hazard information for the material identified by the first responder? A. Green B. Yellow C. Orange D. Blue

C

369. The minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture, with air near the surface, is called the __________ point. A. combustion B. ignition C. flash D. fire

C

377. The primary type of harm associated with biological terrorism is: A. thermal B. asphyxiation C. etiological D. mechanical

C

379. One type of hazardous material that may be shock sensitive is: A. chlorine. B. sulfuric acid. C. organic peroxide. D. hydrogen peroxide.

C

104. Where are pipeline owners required to place, pipeline markings (and first responders can expect to find them)? A. At the origin and destination points of the underground pipeline only B. Wherever the underground pipeline passes in close proximity to highly populated areas only C. Only wherever the underground pipeline crosses state or provincial borders D. At any place the underground pipeline crosses a mode of transportation

D

342. A product that is heavier than water and sinks when placed in water is an example of its: A. water solubility. B. vapor density. C. decomposition. D. specific gravity.

D

349. Which of the following is not a dispersion pattern created by the release of a hazardous material? A. Cloud B. Plume C. Cone D. Puddle

D

351. Under fire conditions, indicators preceding a rupture of a compressed gas tank include all of the following except: A. discoloration of the tank. B. a high-pitched whistle. C. leakage of the hazardous material. D. a change in the position of the tank.

D

353. The temperature at which a liquid changes to a gas is best described as: A. the flash point. B. corrosivity. C. vapor density. D. the boiling point.

D

356. The minimum temperature to which a fuel in air must be heated to initiate self-sustained combustion without initiation from an independent ignition source is best described as: A. the flash point. B. the flammable range. C. specific gravity. D. autoignition temperature.

D

362. After repeated exposure, __________ will cause an allergic reaction. A. carcinogens B. convulsants C. irritants D. sensitizers/allergens

D

363. Blood agents, such as Arsine, would fall under which UN/DOT hazard class and division? A. 1.1 B. 1.2 C. 6.1 D. 2.3

D

389. The primary hazard to responders rescuing victims in the vicinity of a fire involving products of hazard class 1 is: A. inhalation. B. ingestion. C. injection. D. explosion.

D

396. When estimating the time it will take to successfully achieve the primary objective of the incident, all of the following should be considered except the: A. container size. B. product's chemical and physical properties. C. location of the incident. D. manufacturer of the product.

D

397. The purpose of vapor suppression is to: A. stop the further release of a material from its container. B. direct or influence the course of airborne hazardous materials. C. control the flow of a hazmat spill. D. reduce the emission of vapors.

D

403. When considering personnel protection, remember that the most common route of exposure for an emergency responder is: A. skin absorption. B. heat stress (thermal effects). C. the eyes. D. the respiratory system.

D

404. Work uniforms that provide minimal protection best defines EPA Level __________ protection. A. A B. B C. C D. D

D

407. Self-contained breathing apparatus and supplied air respirators, are two types of: A. rebreather equipment. B. air-purification devices. C. air-filtration devices. D. atmosphere supplied devices.

D

408. Exposure to __________ materials may cause freeze burns and frostbite. A. corrosive B. carcinogen C. radiation D. cryogenic

D

409. The most critical parameter when selecting the appropriate level of chemical protective equipment is: A. flexibility. B. decontamination abilities. C. available sizes. D. chemical compatibility.

D

412. Which of the following is not a physical limitation of personnel working in a positive pressure SCBA? A. Physical condition B. Agility C. Facial features D. Height and weight

D

57. The background color of a placard that would signify a poisonous substance hazard and that contains a skull and crossbones is: A. yellow. B. orange. C. red. D. white.

D

62. A tractor-trailer carrying 975 lbs. of organic peroxides, other than Type B, requires: A. a white placard. B. an orange placard. C. a yellow placard. D. no placard.

D

67. The DOT Hazard Class 6 includes all of the following except : A. liquid poisons. B. infectious substances. C. poison solids. D. poison gases.

D

72. The least likely location for terrorist activity of the following choices is: A. public assembly. B. mass transit systems. C. telecommunication facilities. D. a remote government facility in a rural area.

D

74. A document developed by the manufacturer listing specific hazards of a product is called: A. a hazard list. B. a bill of lading. C. the NFPA 704 System. D. the Materials Safety Data Sheet.

D

159. The DOT Hazard Class 7 consists of: A. oxidizers. B. poisons. C. radioactive substances. D. corrosives.

C

241. A rail car with a stenciled name on its side is generally a: A. coded car. B. pressurized car. C. dedicated car. D. gas-carrying car.

C

52. A container of flammable solids would receive a UN Label or placard with a hazardous classification number of: A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 4.

D

280. A substance that spontaneously releases ionizing radiation would be labeled a __________ hazard classification under the UN Labeling System. A. 7 B. 9 C. 11 D. 13

A

Directions: Match the shipping paper type in Column A with its location on the transportation mode, located in Column B. Column A 108. Bill of Lading 109. Waybill OR Consist 110. Dangerous Cargo Manifest 111. Air Bill Column B A. Cockpit B. Wheelhouse, bridge or pipe-like container (on a barge) C. Engine or caboose D. Cab of vehicle E. Cargo hold

108. D 109.C 110.B 111.A

Directions: Match the mode of hazmat transportation in Column A with the person responsible for having the shipping papers in that mode of transportation, located in Column B. Column A 112. Air 113. Rail 114. Highway 115. Water Column B A. Driver B. Captain or master C. Conductor D. Pilot E. Purser

112.D 113.A 114.C 115.B

Directions: Match the shipping paper type in Column A with its mode of transportation in Column B. Column A 116. Airbill 117. Bill of Lading 118. Dangerous Cargo Manifest 119. Waybill OR Consist Column B A. Highway B. Rail C. Water D. Air E. Space

116.D 117.A 118.C 119.B

Directions: Match the terms in Column A with the appropriate definitions from Column B. Column A 168. Isolate hazard area and deny entry 169. Evacuate 170. In-place protection Column B A. Moving everyone from a threatened area to a safer area B. Keeping everyone not directly involved in the emergency operation away from the affected area C. Allowing only first responders into the affected area D. Having people remain inside a building rather than moving them to another area.

168.B 169.A 170.D

Directions: Match the hazard type in Column A with its description in Column B. Column A 174. Thermal 175. Asphyxiation 176. Etiological Column B A. Includes poisons and corrosives B. Exposure to a microorganism or its toxin C. Can lead to suffocation and may be eithe simple or chemical D. Excessive heat or excessive cold

174.D 175.C 176.B

Directions: Match the words in Column A with the definitions in Column B. Column A 285. Beta 286. Alpha 287. Gamma Column B A. Large particles with positive electrical charge B. Form of radiation bearing no particular charge C. Small particles with negative electrical charge D. Large physical mass with no electrical charge

285.C 286.A 287.B

Directions: Match the term in Column A with the appropriate definition in Column B. Column A 331. Corrosiveness 332. Specific gravity 333. Water solubility Column B A. Ratio of the weight of a volume of liquid or solid to the weight of an equal volume of water B. The measure of a substance's tendency to deteriorate another substance C. The percentage of an acid or base dissolved in water D. The degree to which a substance will mix with water

331.C 332.A 333.D

Directions: Match the dispersion patterns listed in Column A with the appropriate description in Column B. Column A 343. Hemispheric 344. Irregular 345. Pool 346. Stream Column B A. A circular or dome vapor cloud extending up from the ground B. Low-lying vapor cloud on the ground C. Movement of material by responder D. Low to ground following natural barriers E. Low-lying liquid in an odd shape

343.A 344.C 345.B 346.D

Directions: Match the warfare agents in Column A to the appropriate UN/Dot hazard class and division in Column B. A Division from Column B may be used more than one time. Column A 365. nerve agents 366. choking agents 367. irritants 368. biological agents/toxins Column B A. Division 2.3 B. Division 6.1 C. Division 6.2 D. Division 2.2 E. Division 1.6

365.B 366.D 367.D 368.C

Directions: Match the function of the components of positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus listed in Column A with the name of the component, listed in Column B. Column A 465. Supports the SCBA components worn 466. Stores the compressed air supply 467. Indicates the quantity of air available 468. Allows SCBA to be used even if 469. Reduces the high cylinder pressure to a useable lower pressure and controls air flow to the user. Column B A. Emergency by-pass mode by the haz mat responder B. SCBA regulator C. Face piece D. Air cylinder E. Pressure gauge regulator malfunctions F. Backpack

465.F 466.D 467.E 468.A 469.B

Directions: Match the foam type listed in Column A with its characteristics, listed in Column B. Column A 492. Protein foam 493. Fluro protein foam 494. Aqueous film-forming foam 495. High expansion foam Column B A. Synthetic based; quickly forms a seal over the surface of a flammable liquid B. Requires special foam generator;detergent based C. Made from animal by-products; applied @ 3% or 6% delivery rates D. Protein-based with fluorinated surfactant added; can be sub-surface injected into a flammable liquid E. Formulated so that alcohols will not dissolve the foam blanket

492.C 493.D 494.A 495.B

142. Which of the following would not be used to determine the name of a hazardous material located in a facility? A. NFPA 704 diamond B. DOT Emergency Response Guidebook C. Labels D. Material Safety Data Sheets

A

152. The chemicals listed in highlighted type in the Emergency Response Guidebook were selected because: A. they present a poison inhalation hazard. B. their vapors are explosive. C. they create corrosive vapors. D. the actions listed in the orange section will not be effective for these chemicals.

A

153. The DOT Hazard Class 1 consists of: A. explosives. C. poisons. B. flammable liquids. D. corrosives.

A

157. The DOT Hazard Class 5 consists of: A. oxidizers. B. poisons. C. flammable liquids. D. flammable solids.

A

Directions: Match the EPA signal word, from Column A, with its meaning in Column B. Column A 85. Danger 86. Caution 87. Warning Column B A. Moderate toxicity B. High toxicity C. Relatively low toxicity D. Non-toxic

85.B 86.C 87.A

Directions: Match the term in Column A with its definition in Column B. Column A 96. Hazardous Material 97. Hazardous Waste 98. Hazardous Chemical 99. Extremely Hazardous Substance Column B A. Any chemical that is a physical hazard or health hazard B. Any chemical that must be reported to the appropriate authorities if released above the threshold report quantity C. Any substance designated via the Federal Water Pollution Control Act D. A substance or material, including a hazardous substance, that has been determined by the Secretary of Transportation to be capable of posing an unreasonable risk to health, safety, and property when transported in commerce E. Any material that is subject to the Hazardous Waste Manifest Requirements of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency

96. D 97.E 98.A 99.B

11. The four-digit number appearing on a placard or an orange panel of a tank car is the: A. UN product identification number. B. capacity of the tank car. C. last date the tank car was pressure tested. D. tank car registration number.

A

12. The NFPA 704 System for identifying hazardous materials gives: A. general hazard and degree of severity. B. specific product identification. C. the DOT hazard class. D. the UN hazard class.

A

121. Who is responsible for care and control of a dangerous cargo manifest? A. Captain or master B. Conductor or crew C. Driver D. Pilot

A

123. Where would a first responder expect to find a dangerous cargo manifest? A. Bridge or pilot house B. Engine or caboose C. Cockpit D. Cab of the vehicle

A

129. While extinguishing a small fire in an unoccupied house, you discover a lab setup and numerous types of raw materials. There is particularly a large amount of powders. What type of illegal activity might be occurring here? A. Explosive manufacture B. Drug production C. Biological weapons production D. Chemical agent production

A

13. A number 4 in the blue quadrant of the NFPA 704 System indicates that there is __________ risk in this category from the chemical involved. A. severe B. a slight C. no D. moderate

A

132. Of the following biological or chemical agents, which is the easiest for a terrorist to make? A. Ricin B. Vesicants C. Choking agents D. Blood agents

A

133. The acronym SLUDGEM is used to describe the signs and symptoms of exposure to which of the categories of warfare agents? A. Nerve agents B. Vesicants C. Blood and chocking agents D. Biological agents

A

163. One resource that deals with protective action distances involving poisonous gas, is the: A. DOT Emergency Response Guide Book. B. Material Safety Data Sheet. C. NFPA Hazardous Materials Data Base. D. Fire Chief's Handbook.

A

165. The recommended shape of the initial isolation zone around a chemical spill or release is: A. circular. B. square. C. triangular. D. rectangular.

A

18. A bill of lading contains valuable information about the origin of the product and is the type of shipping paper used when transporting a product via: A. truck. B. railway car. C. barge. D. aircraft.

A

181. Typical ignition sources found at the scene of a hazardous material incident would include all of the following except: A. chemical light sticks. B. pass devices. C. radios. D. lighting equipment E. hand lights.

A

182. Of the following, which is not a responsibility of the individual trained to the awareness level? A. Establish the decon corridor B. Call for appropriate assistance C. Protect themselves D. Secure the area

A

195. Of the following, which are the prescribed shapes of the recommended initial isolation and protective action zones? A. A circle for the initial isolation zone with an elongation of it downwind side for the protective action zone. B. A circle for the initial isolation zone with an elongation of it outward toward the upwind side for the protective action zone. C. A rectangle for the initial isolation zone elongating toward the downwind side. D. A square for the initial isolation zone, expanding in all four directions as needs dictate for the protective action zone.

A

200. If a product with a vapor density of 1.6 escaped from its container, you would expect the product to: A. collect in low-lying areas. B. rapidly dissipate if outdoors C. float on water D. sink in water

A

205. You arrive on the scene of a vehicle accident involving a cargo tank truck carrying gasoline. The truck is leaking its product into a small lake. The driver of the truck gives you an MSDS sheet on gasoline, which gives a specific gravity of 0.8. With this information, you can predict that the product will: A. remain on top of the water, as it is lighter than the water. B. sink to the bottom, as it is heavier than water. C. completely mix with the water and no longer be a hazard. D. react violently upon contact with water.

A

215. If mitigation efforts are failing or the situation is getting worse: A. the original plan must be reevaluated and possibly revised. B. the original plan should be discarded and a new plan developed. C. the original plan should be continued as originally developed until incident end. D. the incident should be considered a loss and evacuation procedures initiated.

A

217. The statement, Keep Away From Children, is found on a pesticide label. This is an example of a(n): A. precautionary statement. B. incompatibility statement. C. pest control warning statement. D. signal word statement.

A

219. The transport container on which you would expect to find a specification plate is known as a A. cargo tank truck. B. rail car. C. fixed facility container. D. All of the above.

A

228. A tank carrier designed to carry flammable liquids, combustible liquids, Class B poisons, and liquid food products with vapor pressures up to 3 psi, is an: A. MC 306/DOT 406. B. MC 307/DOT 407. C. MC 312/DOT 412. D. MC 331/DOT 407.

A

233. The shipping of radioactive materials in a metal drum is considered a Type __________ packaging. A. A B. B C. C D. D

A

243. A rail car with exposed fittings would be considered to be a __________ car. A. nonpressure or low-pressure tank B. pressure or high-pressure tank C. hopper D. cryogenic liquid tank

A

245. There is specific information given on pipeline markers. Of the information given below, which is not required on a pipeline marker? A. Destination of the product B. Product carried in the pipeline C. Owner of the pipeline D. Emergency telephone numbers

A

252. Bags may be used to store: A. nonbulk dry items such as fertilizer. B.cryogenic liquids. C. pressurized gasses. D. nerve agents.

A

253. A common design feature of cylinders is a: A. pressure relief device. B.fill cap. C. manual-control vent. D. air monitoring alarm.

A

254. On pesticide labels for materials originating in Canada, the product will have a __________ which is similar to the EPA registration number in the United States. A. Pest control number B. Poison control number C. DOT hazard class number D. UN identification number

A

255. While surveying a hazardous materials incident scene, you notice yellowish vapors emitting from a cylinder. The driver of the vehicle carrying the cylinders tells you they contain chlorine. As a responder trained to the operations level, one of the ways to verify chlorine could emit these vapors is to: A. contact Chemtrec for assistance. B. enter the hot zone to read the label on the cylinder. C. bring a chlorine monitor into the vapor cloud to check the reading. D. both A and C are correct.

A

258. Type __________ packaging contains low-level commercial radioactive shipments. These containers include cardboard boxes, wooden crates, and metal drums. A. A B. B C. C D. D

A

260. A specialized intermodal tank container which transports gases in high-pressure cylinders (3000 to 5000 psi) is known as a(n): A. tube module. B. cryogenic intermodal tank. C. IM 101. D. IM 102.

A

266. The products that IM 102 intermodal portable tanks typically carry are: A. nonregulated materials. B. flammable gases. C. flammable liquids. D. radioactive materials.

A

27. On a placard, the number at the bottom of the diamond indicates the: A. UN hazard class. B. guide number from the DOT Emergency Response Guidebook to be used C. UN product identification number. D. relative risk.

A

276. Gases that displace oxygen, such as carbon dioxide and nitrogen, are examples of __________ asphyxiants. A. simple B. terminal C. general D. chemical

A

283. The maximum airborne concentration to which an average healthy person may be exposed 8 hours a day, 40 hours a week, without adverse health effects, best defines: A. TLV-TWA. B. TLV-STEL. C. IDLH. D. TLV-C.

A

293. To obtain hazard and response information, a firefighter can contact the manufacturer using: A. the phone number on the MSDS. B. the CAS registry number. C. the Emergency Response Guide. D. CAMEO.

A

295. In an emergency, responders can locate an MSDS from: A. the facility preincident plan. B. the label of the container. C. OSHA. D. the local health department.

A

297. The radiation that is least dangerous as a threat to external portions of the body but is very dangerous if ingested or inhaled is: A. alpha. B. ultra violet. C. electromagnetic. D. gamma.

A

306. Given the provided Material Safety Data Sheet, in which sections would you find personal protective equipment and first aid procedures? A. 4 and 8 B. 8 and 9 C. 6 and 9 D. 4 and 6

A

308. Given the Material Safety Data sheet provided, in which section would signs and symptoms of exposure and routes of entry be found? A. Section #3 B. Section #6 C. Section #4 D. Section #9 E. All of the above are correct.

A

309. Given the Material Safety Data Sheet provided, which of the following choices would be a physical hazard of this chemical? A. wide flammable range B. low autoignition temperature C. ignites on contact with water D. immediately explodes upon contact with air

A

311. Radiation that can be stopped by a piece of paper consists of __________ particles. A. alpha B. low-beta C. high-beta D. gamma

A

318. A liquid's ability to mix with water best defines: A. solubility. B. surface tension. C. water reactivity. D. instability.

A

32. A type of gas that can be extremely toxic and is considered by the DOT to be a hazardous material is a(n): A. poison gas. B. pressurized gas. C. inorganic gas. D. inert gas.

A

324. __________ materials may cause severe chemical burns and extensive tissue damage on contact. A. Corrosive B. Radioactive C. Carcinogenic D. Etiologic

A

33. Liquid or solid substances that emit toxic, dangerous, and irritating fumes are known as: A. poisonous materials. B. pyrophoric materials. C. etiological agents. D. cryogenic materials.

A

338. In hazardous materials, one of the three time frames used for predicting the length of time that exposures may be in contact with a hazardous material in an endangered area is short term. Short term means: A. minutes and hours. B. days, weeks, and years. C. a century or more. D. years and generations.

A

361. Convulsants are best described as: A. poisons that will cause an exposed individual to have seizures. B. cancer causing agents. C. exposure to microorganisms or toxins. D. materials that will cause allergic reactions from repeated exposure.

A

374. The concentration that should never be exceeded is called: A. TLV-C. B. PEL. C. TLV-TWA. D. STEL.

A

376. The measurement commonly used by OSHA in evaluating workplace exposure during an 8 hour period is: A. PEL. B. LC50. C. TLV-C. D. STEL.

A

378. One of the symptoms of poisonous gases such as chlorine and anhydrous ammonia is severe irritation to the __________ system. A. respiratory B. skeletal C. cardiac D. muscular

A

386. If a hazardous material incident involves a leaking flammable substance, the first responders should immediately remove all: A. ignition sources. B. upwind ignition sources. C. large combustible tanks. D. fire equipment and personnel.

A

390. A process by which one substance combines with a second substance is called: A. absorption. B. dispersion. C. suppression. D. diversion.

A

391. When determining the type of dam to use to control a spill, responders need to consider the: A. specific gravity of the material. B. vapor density of the fluid. C. vapor suppression of the liquid. D. retention capabilities.

A

4. The steps that are taken to preserve the health and safety of emergency responders and the public during an incident involving releases of hazardous materials are called: A. protective actions. B. isolating the hazard area and denying entry. C. evacuation procedures. D. in-place protection procedures.

A

400. Directions: Read the following statements regarding absorption and select your answers from choices A through D. Statement 1: Absorption is a defensive method of controlling a hazardous material spill by applying a material that will soak up and hold, or absorb, the spill. Statement 2: Absorption generally requires that the operational personnel be in close proximity to the spill. Statement 3: Absorbent materials can react with certain hazardous substances. A. All three statements are true. B. Statement 1 is true; statements 2 and 3 are false. C. Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false. D. Statements 1 and 3 are true; statement 2 is false.

A

402. The taking of hazardous materials into the body through the undamaged skin and the eyes is called: A. absorption. B. ingestion. C. inhalation. D. injection.

A

410. The highest level of protection, based on EPA guidelines, from hazardous chemicals provided by chemical protective clothing is: A. Level A. B. Level B. C. Level C. D. Level D.

A

414. A vapor-tight suit which resists permeation by most chemicals is known as a: A. level A. B. level B. C. level C. D. level D.

A

6. All of the following information (to the extent known at the time) should be provided during the notifications except the: A. cost estimate for cleanup. B. chemical name. C. estimate of quantity released. D. time and duration of release. E. name and phone numbers of contacts for further information.

A

416. Which of the following correctly identifies the purpose, advantages, and limitations of structural firefighting protective clothing at hazardous materials incidents? A. Protection from heat, moisture and ordinary hazards associated with firefighting; provides thermal, impact, and cut/abrasion protection; offers no chemical protection. B. Protection from heat, moisture and hazards associated with firefighting; can be worn for decontamination activities; is acid but not base resistant. C. Protection from heat and impacts; shields or insulates from chemical hazards; is corrosive resistant but not vapor tight. D. Protection from heat, moisture and impacts; provides long-term protection from extreme weather conditions and unlimited range of motion; is resistant to permeation, but not penetration.

A

420. __________ is designed to remove contaminates that pose immediate threat to life. A. Emergency decontamination B. Secondary decontamination C. Decontamination D. Primary decontamination

A

421. Directions: Read the following statements and select your answer from Alternatives A-D below. 1. A person may be exposed to large quantities of a hazardous material in concentrations that do not present a hazard or to small amounts of a hazardous material that present a very high hazard. 2. A person exposed to a hazardous material may not necessarily be contaminated by it. 3. Responders working in the hot zone may become contaminated during control operations. If they then carry that contamination outside the hot zone, they may contaminate others. A. Statements 1, 2, and 3 are all true. B. Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false. C. Statement one is true; statements 2 and 3 are false. D. Statement 1 is false and 2 and 3 are true.

A

424. The area that exists just outside the hot exclusion zone is known as the: A. warm zone. B. command zone. C. support zone. D. staging area.

A

439. Who is responsible for requesting additional resources at a hazardous materials incident? A. Incident Commander B. Safety Officer C. Staging Officer D. Logistics Officer

A

441. Within the Incident Command System, the optimum span of control is: A. 5:1. B. 7:1. C. 10:1. D. 30:1.

A

443. Level III incidents often require the technical expertise of __________ to be brought in for quick handling of such an incident. A. a specialist from an industrial and or governmental team B. a mutual aide fire department C. firefighters with hazardous material clothing D. a government representative

A

448. The __________ is the location where information gathering occurs, and both technical and administrative functions are assigned. A. Command Post B. Warm Zone C. Staging Area D. News Media Post

A

451. The Safety Officer notices a critical emergency condition at an incident. The Safety Officer should: A. notify the Incident Commander for corrective action. B. discipline the offenders. C. take over the IC position. D. consult with on-scene personnel.

A

452. Once the Safety Officer arrives on the scene, the Incident Commander should: A. have the Safety Officer review the incident action plan. B. delegate command to the Safety Officer. C. place the Safety Officer under operations. D. make the Safety Officer a sector officer.

A

456. Symptoms of heat __________ include little or no sweating; hot, dry, red, skin; deep then shallow breathing; and rapid pulse. A. stroke B. exhaustion C. cramps D. rash

A

457. When donning an SCBA with a Level A suit, the SCBA is: A. worn inside the PPE. B. worn outside the PPE. C. worn intermittently. D. donned last.

A

464. Directions: Read the following statements regarding limitations of personnel working in PPE and select your answer from choices A-D. Statement 1: A responder's physical, mental, or emotional condition can cause problems with using PPE. Statement 2: Practice and conditioning can help reduce psychological limitations of PPE users. Statement 3: Training and education can help reduce physical limitations of PPE users. A. Statement 1 is true; statements 2 and 3 are false. B. Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false. C. Statements 2 and 3 are true; statement 1 is false. D. All three statements are true.

A

472. Diversion, diking, and retention are all techniques used in: A. confinement. B. containment. C. neutralization. D. disposal.

A

478. When performing a search and rescue mission at a hazardous materials incident, the responder should attempt to: A. assure the incident is safe for rescue. B. enter the hot zone to treat all patients. C. perform fine decon before treatment. D. wait for EMS agencies to arrive.

A

48. The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) lists __________ as the standard for identifying fire hazards of materials at fixed facilities. A. 704 B. 1991 C. 472 D. 1910.120

A

480. Alcohol-resistant foam: A. is used at 3% or 6% on polar solvent fires. B. should be plunged into fuels. C. is affected by freezing temperatures. D. is used at 1% on hydrocarbon fires.

A

482. The single most important factor in eliminating radioactive material contamination problems is to: A. avoid contact with the material. B. dilute the material to safe levels. C. absorb the material and place in a radioactive container. D. neutralize the material with a neutralizing agent.

A

485. The action taken to direct or influence the course of airborne hazardous materials is called: A. vapor dispersion. B. vapor suppression. C. confinement. D. dilution.

A

497. When applying water to a highway tanker or railway tank car with flame impingement, the minimum amount of water to be used is __________ gpm at the point of flame impingement. A. 500 B. 1,000 C. 250 D. 2,000

A

505. What is unique about hazardous materials IMS? A. There are typically two safety officers assigned. B. Back-up teams are more more important than for fire incident IMS. C. There is no need for a financial and administrative function because the spiller is automatically responsible for all costs. D. A hot zone entry team is added under the logistics function.

A

59. Referring to the U.S. Military Marking System for Hazardous Materials, the symbol for a mass fire hazard is: A. #3 in a triangle. B. #1 in a square. C. #2 in a square. D. #4 in a circle.

A

61. When referring to the U.S. Military Marking System, if a circle with a symbol of a person wearing a mask is seen, it is necessary to assume that: A. a protective mask or breathing apparatus must be used. B. fumigants are being used. C. turn-out clothing must be used. D. hazardous material is of an odorous nature.

A

63. The NFPA 704 System provides the: A. general hazard information. B. product's chemical name. C. four-digit UN number. D. number used to look up the product's name.

A

69. The NFPA 704 System indicates hazardous materials as : A. potential dangers. B. a chemical name. C. a four-digit number. D. a number used to look up the name of the product.

A

73. According to the NFPA 704 System, the most dangerous chemical would have a placard showing which of the following number sets? A. 4, 4, 2 B. 3, 2, 1 C. 0, 2, 4 D. 3, 3, 2

A

78. A tractor trailer hauling gasoline should display a placard with the Hazard Class __________. A. Red, 3. B. Blue, 4. C. Red, 2. D. Red White Stripe, 4.

A

79. __________ is placed on highway transport vehicles to identify the contents. A. A placard B. A shipping paper C. A container ID D. The manufacturer's name

A

81. Toxic substances that are living materials or are obtained from living organisms are called: A. biological agents. B. chemical agents. C. nuclear agents. D. incendiary agents.

A

83. The person responsible for control of the air shipping papers is the: A. pilot. B. co-pilot. C. flight attendant. D. material owner.

A

84. Shipping papers are referrred to as __________ and usually stored __________, in air transport. A. dangerous cargo manifest; in the cockpit B. waybill; in the cargo compartment C. air bill; in the cockpit D. bill of lading; in the cargo compartment.

A

9. A major difference between a hazardous materials incident and other types of emergencies is the fact that hazmat incidents: A. can be more complex. B. occur less frequently. C. occur more frequently. D. occur in specific locations.

A

44. Position # 2 is the information and degree of hazard relating to a chemical's: A. flammability (red). B. health (blue). C. reactivity (yellow). D. special information (white)

A.

100. With respect to the U.S. Military Marking System for Hazardous Materials, which of the following is not one of the three special hazard symbols? A. Apply No Water (bucket of water being thrown onto a fire with a diagonal slash within a circle) B. Apply No Dry Chemical (fire extinguisher discharging chemical onto a fire with a diagonal slash within a circle) C. Chemical Hazard (person in an encapsulated suit within a circle) D. Wear Protective Mask or Breathing Apparatus (person's face with a protective mask in place within a circle)

B

103. The manufacturing and labeling of pesticides is regulated by: A. OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration). B. EPA (Environmental Protection Association). C. CERCLA (Comprehensive Environmental Response and Liability Act). D. FEMA (Federal Emergency Management Association).

B

105. Which of the following agencies regulates pipelines that carry hazardous materials across state borders, navigable waterways and federal lands? A. EPA (Environmental Protection Association) B. DOT (Department of Transportation) C. CERCLA (Comprehensive Environmental Response Compensation & Liability Act) D. FEMA (Federal Emergency Management Association)

B

120. Who is responsible for care and control of a bill of lading? A. Conductor or crew B. Driver C. Captain or Master D. Pilot

B

125. Where would a first responder expect to find an airbill? A. Cab of the vehicle B. Cockpit C. Engine or caboose D. Bridge or pilot house

B

140. Directions: Read the statements below and select your answer from alternatives A-D. Statement 1: Examples of nerve agents are sarin, soman, and V agent. Statement 2: Nerve agents were designed with only one purpose in mind: to kill people. Statement 3: Nerve agents are very effective due to their high vapor pressure, which allows them to readily vaporize. A. Statements 2 and 3 are true; statement 1 is false. B. Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false. C. Statements 1 and 3 are true; statement 2 is false. D. All three statements are true.

B

149. The primary hazard of a DOT Hazard Class 5 material is: A. radiation. B. oxidation. C. spontaneously combustible. D. poison.

B

150. If a chemical name is highlighted in the Emergency Response Guidebook, the table of initial isolation and protective action distances are found in the __________ section. A. white B. green C. yellow D. blue

B

154. The DOT hazard Class 2 consists of: A. flammable liquids. B. gases. C. flammable solids. D. explosives.

B

158. The DOT Hazard Class 6 consists of: A. oxidizers. B. poisons. C. radioactive substances. D. flammable liquids.

B

162. The recommended course of action for fighting a small fire involving a substance identified by the UN/A I.D. number 2553 would be found in the __________ section of the Emergency Response Guidebook. A. blue B. orange C. white D. green

B

172. Scene control at a terrorism incident may present unique challenges for the responders. In particular, responders must be aware that: A. the incident may have taken place in a high crime area, so they should wait for the police before taking any action. B. the terrorist may be on the scene waiting for responders to arrive before striking again. C. the terrorist will not intentionally target responders, so they should consider the scene safe except for any hazardous materials present. D. scene control at criminal incidents is solely the responsibility of law enforcement, so they should focus on other activities.

B

178. __________ is the process of taking in materials through the skin or eyes. A. Inhalation B. Absorption C. Injection D. Ingestion

B

184. The Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances in the Emergency Response Guidebook is divided into "small spills" and "large spills." The DOT defines a small spill as a leaking container, smaller than: A. 5 gallons B. 55 gallons C. 100 gallons D. 1001 gallons

B

187. The mission of the first responder trained to the awareness level includes all of the following except : A. recognizing the presence of hazardous materials. B. surveying the incident from a close proximity to determine the identity of the material involved. C. securing the area of the emergency and preventing entry by unauthorized persons. D. calling for the appropriate help to mitigate the incident.

B

19. Care and control of the waybill consist is the responsibility of the: A. truck driver. B. train conductor OR engineer. C. ship captain or master. D. aircraft pilot.

B

190. Upon arrival to a hazardous material incident involving a motor vehicle (truck), you learn it is carrying magnesium scrap. You are unable to obtain the 4-digit ID number. Where should you look first in the Emergency Response Guidebook for guidance? A. In the orange-bordered action guide section. B. In the blue-bordered material index section. C. In the yellow-bordered identification number index section. D. In the green-bordered table of initial isolation and protective action distances section.

B

198. A tank carrier designed to haul various chemicals whose pressures do not exceed 40 psi at 70°F (21oC) would be an: A. MC 306, DOT 406. B. MC 307, DOT 407. C. MC 312, DOT 412. D. MC 331.

B

202. When attempting to collect hazard information during an emergency incident, the responders could contact _________ for immediate information on the material's properties, its hazards, and suggested control techniques. A. DOD B. Chemtrec C. NFPA D. OSHA

B

206. Which three factors determine the harm of exposure to a hazardous material? A. time, distance, shielding B. timing of release, size, toxicity C. pH, specific gravity, vapor pressure D. health hazard, flammability, reactivity

B

207. Control of the scene begins by isolating the site. The process for establishing initial isolation distances can be found: A. on the product Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS). B. in the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG). C. in the Chemtrec Responder Handbook. D. by contacting Poison Control.

B

208. The piping for the __________ is contained outside of the tank, usually on the ends, with a manhole on top of the tank. A. IM 101 B. IM 102 C. IM 105 D. IM 107

B

218. The statement, Keep away from waterways, is found on a pesticide label. This statement is referred to as a(n): A. signal word. B. hazard statement. C. pest control product warning. D. incompatibility statement.

B

222. A recon team is sent to observe a tank truck that has rolled over. The team reports that the vehicle is an MC 312. The container most probably contains a: A. flammable liquid. B. corrosive liquid. C. poison gas. D. flammable solid.

B

23. Hazardous occupancies and problem locations should be identified and evaluated: A. en route to an emergency. B. during preincident planning. C. during training sessions. D. at least once a year.

B

232. Pipe-like packaging of radioactive materials is done in steel reinforced concrete casks, lead pipes, or heavy gauge metal drums. This packaging is considered to be Type: A. 2. B. B. C. A. D. 1.

B

235. A carboy may be used for transporting materials containing: A. radioactive materials. B. corrosives. C. explosives. D. poison gases.

B

239. A __________ cargo tank has an inner tank with an outer shell. The space between the tank and shell is placed under vacuum. A. flammable liquid B. cryogenic C. combustible liquid D. acid

B

24. Local emergency response personnel can gain valuable information if the __________ is utilized in preincident planning. A. ERG B. MSDS C. Shipping Paper D. Bill of Lading

B

257. Type __________ packaging is the strongest packaging and is used for more highly radioactive shipments. These containers include steel reinforced concrete casks, lead pipe, and heavy-gauge metal drums. A. A B. B C. C D. D

B

262. The piping for the __________ is contained outside of the tank, usually on the ends, with a manhole on top of the tank. A. IM 101 B. IM 102 C. IM 105 D. IM 107

B

264. Common hazardous materials stored in nonbulk packages, referred to as bags, are: A. corrosives. B. fertilizers. C. poisons. D. gases.

B

271. What type of container is used to ship materials of low reactivity? A. Industrial B. Strong, tight C. Type B D. Extruded

B

272. Packaging used for transport with extremely low levels of radioactivity that present no risk to the public or environment is known as: A. Type B. B. Excepted. C. Concrete Box. D. Industrial.

B

273. All of the following are examples of materials that are transported in industrial containers except: A. contaminated clothing. B. natural uranium. C. laboratory samples. D. smoke detectors.

B

275. All of the following are shipped in industrial containers which have limited hazard to the public and environment except : A. laboratory samples. B. radioactive materials for medical use. C. slightly contaminated clothing D. smoke detectors.

B

277. In the UN/DOT Marking System, Hazard Class 3 includes: A. black powder. C. ammonium nitrate. B. gasoline. D. magnesium.

B

28. The DOT Placarding System requires a vehicle carrying over 1001 pounds of corrosive to display a __________ placard. A. yellow B. white over black C. white D. black and yellow

B

281. Which of the following values represents an atmosphere that poses an immediate hazard to life or produces immediate, irreversible, debilitating effects on health? A. TLV-TWA B. IDLH C. REL D. PEL

B

288. The CHEMTREC organization is available __________ hours per day to provide information about __________ to __________. A. 24, certain chemicals, transport personnel only B. 24, many chemicals, response agencies C. during normal business, only liquid chemicals, any emergency agency D. during normal business, selected chemicals, any interested person

B

299. The number to be used to contact CHEMTREC during a chemical emergency is: A. 1-800-225-5288 B. 1-800-424-9300 C. 1-800-535-1212 D. 1-888-424-0000

B

315. Substances that ignite when combined create a __________ reaction. A. hyperbolic B. hypergolic C. congenial D. cryogenic

B

319. A reaction that is associated with over-pressurization of closed containers and occurs at a rate of one second or less is called a: A. rapid relief. B. violent rupture. C. detonation. D. spill.

B

327. Vapors that attack the mucous membranes, such as the surfaces of the eyes, nose and throat, are considered: A. asphyxiants. B. irritants. C. anesthetics. D. carcinogens.

B

337. In hazardous materials, one of the three time frames used for predicting the length of time that exposures may be in contact with a hazardous material in an endangered area is medium term. Medium term means: A. minutes and hours. B. days, weeks, and months. C. a century or more. D. years and generations.

B

340. All biological etiologic agents and toxins are designated as DOT Hazard Class: A. 3. B. 6. C. 7. D. 1.

B

341. Determining whether a vapor will rise or fall is commonly referred to as: A. vapor dispersion. B. vapor density. C. vaporization. D. specific gravity.

B

347. Chemicals that are classified as __________ can cause a severe allergic reaction. A. asphyxiants B. sensitizers C. irritants D. convulsants

B

348. A person who is repeatedly exposed to a chemical may develop: A. etiological changes. B. acute health hazard. C. chronic health hazard. D. chemical asphyxia.

B

354. The flammable range is best described as: A. the weight of a substance compared to the weight of an equal volume of water. B. the percentage of gas or vapor concentration. C. the minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off vapors. D. the minimum temperature at which a liquid fuel gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air near its surface.

B

355. The minimum temperature at which a liquid fuel gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air near its surface is best described as: A. flammable range. B. flash point. C. autoignition temperature. D. vapor density.

B

384. Which of the following resources are available for determining the concentrations of a released hazardous material in an endangered area? A. Concentrations can be estimated using the Initial Emergency Response Guide. B. Monitoring equipment should be utilized, keeping in mind that Haz Mat technicians are needed to operate this equipment. C. It is impossible to determine concentrations of hazardous materials. D. Concentrations can be estimated by the odor of the leaking product.

B

385. Removal of contaminated victims that are in need of medical treatment from the hazard area requires: A. that personnel must wait until the full decontamination corridor is in place and operational. B. the Emergency Decontamination process. C. that victims shall remain in the hot zones indefinitely. D. Decontamination of these victims is not required.

B

388. What would be the primary hazard to a responder while rescuing victims in a building where a non-flammable hazard class 2 product is leaking? A. Ingestion B. Inhalation C. Desorption D. Injection

B

394. Which of the following is not an appropriate procedure or consideration before applying foam? A. Ensure the material is contained. B. The use of foam is limited to combustible liquids. C. Ensure that foam will not cause any further problems. D. Ensure that the foam is compatible with the spilled material.

B

398. Defensive control techniques that operations level personnel are permitted to engage in are: A. monitoring and capping. B. dike, dam, diversion, and retention. C. overpacking and diluting. D. clamping and neutralizing.

B

401. Directions: Read the following statements regarding vapor dispersion and select your answer from choices A through D. Statement 1: Vapor dispersion involves using water spray or fans to intentionally move vapors away from certain areas. Statement 2: Vapor dispersion is always a good idea when flammable substances are the problem. Statement 3: Vapor dispersion is only effective with materials that are water soluble. A. All three statements are true. B. Statement 1 is true; statements 2 and 3 are false. C. Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false. D. Statements 2 and 3 are true; statement 1 is false.

B

405. The highest level of respiratory protection is needed but lesser chemical protection is required for the skin best defines EPA Level __________ Protection. A. A B. B C. C D. D

B

415. What single item makes a Level B ensemble different from the lower levels of PPE? A. APR B. SCBA C. Hard hat D. Inner/outer gloves

B

417. The hazardous materials PPE ensemble level most commonly used is: A. Level A. B. Level B. C. Level C. D. Level D.

B

418. There are many ways that personnel, personal protective equipment, apparatus, and tools become contaminated. Of the following, all are means of contamination except: A. working in the hot zone. B. working upwind and uphill from the hot zone. C. parking apparatus downwind. D. working in the decontamination area.

B

425. The __________ zone is the area of highest known hazard. A. limited-access B. hot exclusion C. support D. blue

B

426. One of the factors that can change the evacuation area is: A. firefighters entering incidents from the north. B. a change in wind direction. C. the number of firefighters responding to the incident. D. the number of firefighters with SCBA.

B

430. Which of the following is not a consideration when setting up an emergency decontamination area? A. Accessibility B. Location of incident command C. Location of water supply D. Surface material

B

431. When dealing with a Level III incident, it is expected that evacuation of people will cover an area of: A. several square blocks. B. large scale evacuation. C. one mile up wind. D. one block in each direction.

B

434. Directions: Read the following statements regarding hazardous materials incident evacuation sheltering-in-place and select your answer from choices A through D. Statement 1: The decision to evacuate or shelter-in-place is relatively easy to make. Statement 2: Sheltering-in-place is a method of safeguarding people in a hazardous area by keeping them in a safe atmosphere, usually inside structures. Statement 3: Evacuation is always preferred over sheltering-in-place. A. Statement 1 is true; statements 2 and 3 are false. B. Statement 2 is true; statements 1 and 3 are false. C. Statements 2 and 3 are true; statement 1 is false. D. All three statements are true.

B

435. What should responders do with runoff from emergency decontamination? A. Flush into a convenient storm drain using copious amounts of water. B. Divert into an area where it can be treated or disposed of later. C. Try to delay decontamination until a decontamination corridor or area is established, which will eliminate the runoff problem. D. Perform the decontamination process in the hot zone so that runoff just becomes part of the original problem.

B

442. A Level II incident that is beyond the normal capabilities of the first responder having jurisdiction and may require a response from: A. Chemtrec. B. a hazardous material response team. C. the National Radiological Commission. D. the National Response Center.

B

444. The individual responsible for establishing and managing the overall plan, developing an organizational structure, and allocating resources best describes the: A. Safety Officer. B. Incident Commander. C. Operations Officer. D. Decontamination Officer.

B

445. The person who advises the Incident Commander of existing or potentially unsafe conditions, monitoring conditions of personnel, and compliance with standard operating procedures is the: A. Operations Officer. B. Safety Officer. C. Recon Officer. D. Team Leader.

B

455. Heat __________ occurs when the circulatory system begins to fail, resulting in rapid, shallow breathing and cool, clammy skin. A. cramps B. exhaustion C. rash D. stroke

B

458. To minimize the physical limitations of PPE, a firefighter should: A. immediately remove the PPE. B. hydrate frequently. C. ignore heat stress when wearing PPE. D. remove his her own PPE.

B

459. Respiratory protective equipment should be cleaned and inspected: A. before each use. B. after each use. C. while in rehab. D. between gross and fine decon.

B

470. Which of the following components of a positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus reduces high storage pressure and controls the flow of air to the user? A. PASS device B. Regulator C. Pressure gauge D. Valves

B

481. Which of the following is not a characteristic of AFFF? A. It is detergent based. B. It should be plunged into fuels. C. It may be used with fresh or salt water. D. It can be premixed in water in water tanks.

B

484. The action taken to reduce the emission of vapors at a haz mat spill is known as: A. vapor dispersion. B. vapor suppression. C. confinement. D. dilution.

B

49. In the NFPA 704 System, the quadrant dealing with reactivity is colored: A. blue. B. yellow. C. red. D. white.

B

496. Which of the following characteristics does fluroprotein foam share with aquaeous film-forming foam? A. Both are protein-based. B. Both can be applied at 1, 3, and 6 percent concentrations. C. Both are effective on polar solvents. D. Neither can be used in conjunction with dry chemical extinguishing agents.

B

498. A fire involving a DOT Hazard Class 5.1 oxidizer generally requires large volumes of: A. foam. B. water. C. extinguishing powder. D. foam and extinguishing powder.

B

5. To protect themselves and others, first responders must be able to make a proper assessment. The most important part of assessment is: A. calling for the appropriate help to mitigate the incident. B. recognizing the presence of hazardous materials. C. determining the appropriate actions to be taken recommended by the ERG. D. securing the area of the emergency.

B

502. What is the best course of action when confronted by a fire in a warehouse in which large amounts of pesticides are stored? A. Use foam to smother the fire. B. Use large amounts of water to extinguish and dilute the pesticides. C. Withdraw and allow the fire to consume the pesticides. D. Extinguish the fire with dry chemicals verified to be nonreactive with the pesticides.

B

503. If the safety officer notices an unsafe activity at an emergency, the safety officer should: A. consult with the Incident Commander. B. stop the activity immediately. C. call the Incident Commander on the radio. D. report the activity to the highest rank.

B

51. A substance that readily yields oxygen to support combustion of fuels, would be labeled Hazard Class __________ under the U.N. Labeling System. A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 9

B

55. Of the references listed below, the most specific source of information on a hazardous material is/are: A. the DOT Emergency Response Guidebook. B. the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS). C. DOT Placards. D. the NFPA 704 System.

B

64. The primary hazard of an oxidizer in a fire is its ability to: A. disintegrate tissue and steel. C. form combustible mixtures in air. B. accelerate combustion. D. cause harm when inhaled.

B

66. The DOT Hazard Class 1 includes: A. etiologic agents. C. corrosives. B. explosives. D. nonflammable liquids.

B

75. The number __________ would be shown in the Flammability Quadrant of the NFPA 704 System for a material that must be moderately heated before ignition can occur and on which water spray may be used to extinguish a fire. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

B

76. A substance that readily yields oxygen to support combustion of fuels would be labeled __________ under the UN Labeling System. A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 9

B

80. During the recognition and identification of facility containers process, the firefighter should utilize the NFPA 704 System to identify the: A. amount of product stored. B. flammability of the material. C. signs and symptoms of exposure. D. specific chemical stored.

B

1. Substances or materials in quantities or forms that may pose an unreasonable risk to health, safety, or property when transported, stored, or used in commerce is a definition for a: A. hazard class. B. hazardous chemical. C. hazardous material. D. hazardous substance.

C

101. Directions: Read the statements below and select your answer from alternatives A-D. Statement 1: In urban or suburban locales, hazardous materials can be found in service stations, hardware stores and doctor's offices. Statement 2: In rural areas, hazardous materials can be found in agricultural stores or co-ops, farm buildings, and residences. Statement 3: The size of a community determines the potential for hazardous materials. A. All three statements are true. B. Statement 1 is true; statements 2 and 3 are false. C. Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false. D. Statements 2 and 3 are true, statement 1 is false.

C

102. Directions: Read the following statements regarding pesticide labeling and select your answer from alternatives A-D. Statement 1: EPA labels on pesticides must contain one of the signal words DANGER/POISON, WARNING or CAUTION. Statement 2: The word WARNING is used on labeling for packages containing highly toxic materials. Statement 3: The signal words EXTREMELY FLAMMABLE are also displayed if package contents have a flash point below 80oF. A. Statement 1 is true; statements 2 and 3 are false. B. Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false. C. Statements 1 and 3 are true; statement 2 is false. D. All three statements are true.

C

106. Of the following, which is the quickest available source of MSDS for first responders to a hazmat emergency? A. The supplier of the material B. The local Emergency Planning Committee C. CHEMTREC D. OSHA

C

122. Who is responsible for care and control of an air bill? A. Captain or master B. Conductor or crew C. Pilot D. Driver

C

127. Directions: Read the following statements regarding hazmat recognition and identification and select your answer from alternatives A-D. Statement 1: There are numerous informal ways to recognize the presence of hazardous materials. Statement 2: Using the senses of sight, sound, and odor is one of the informal ways of recognizing the presence of hazardous materials. Statement 3: Using the human senses indiscriminately to detect the presence of hazmat, while fairly reliable, is unsafe. A. All three statements are true. B. Statement 1 is true; statements 2 and 3 are false. C. Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false. D. Statements 2 and 3 are true; statement 1 is false.

C

128. The senses which are acceptable for use in hazmat detection are: A. touch, smell, and taste. B. vision and smell. C. vision and hearing. D. smell and hearing.

C

130. In the course of extinguishing a small fire in an unoccupied house you discover the presence of chemicals and lab equipment, an indicator of possible illegal activity. According to statistics, the most likely illegal activity occurring is: A. bomb making. B. warfare agent research. C. drug making. D. terrorism agent production.

C

134. Blister agents belong in which category of warfare agents under the BNICE classification? A. Biological B. Incendiary C. Chemical D. Explosive

C

135. Directions: Read the statements below and select your answer from alternatives A-D. Statement 1: Federal public buildings are prime targets for terrorist attacks. Statement 2: Social Security buildings would be an exception to statement 1, above. Statement 3: Virtually all terrorist attacks are directed toward public buildings. A. Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false. B. Statements 1 and 3 are true; statement 2 is false. C. Statement 1 is true; statements 2 and 3 are false. D. All three statements are true.

C

136. Which of the following are signs and symptoms of exposure to a nerve agent at a haz mat or suspected terrorism incident? A. Eye and respiratory irritation B. Dizziness and difficulty in breathing C. Loss of bladder control and vomiting D. Fever and muscle tenderness

C

137. Using the nuclear, biological and chemical (NBC) classification, which of the following is not considered a chemical warfare agent? A. Sarin B. Mustard C. Ricin D. Incendiary

C

138. Directions: You have arrived on the scene of a haz mat incident. Read the statements below and determine if you are dealing with a chemical or biological incident. Then select your answer from Alternatives A-D. Statement 1: Victims have lost control of their bowels--you suspect a nerve agent. Statement 2: Victims complain of not feeling well after inhaling an airborne white powder--you suspect a biological agent. Statement 3: Victims are exhibiting pinpoint pupils, runny noses and difficulty breathing--you suspect a biological agent. A. Statement 1 is false; statements 2 and 3 are true. B. Statements 1 and 2 are false; statement 3 is true. C. Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false. D. Statement 1 is true; statements 1 and 3 are false.

C

139. You have arrived on the scene of an incident involving an explosion. People in the immediate vicinity are all experiencing runny noses and difficulty breathing. Some are having convulsions. You suspect a terrorist incident involving a: A. biological agent. B. blister agent. C. nerve agent. D. blood agent.

C

14. A white quadrant in the 6 o'clock position of the NFPA 704 System is used to indicate: A. health hazards. B. flammability. C. special hazards. D. reactivity.

C

148. The DOT Hazard Class 8 consists of: A. flammable liquids. C. corrosives. B. explosives. D. poisons.

C

15. The fact that a product is water reactive would be indicated in the __________ quadrant of the NFPA 704 System. A. blue B. red C. white D. yellow

C

155. The DOT Hazard Class 3 consists of: A. gas B. explosives C. flammable liquids. D.flammable solids.

C

167. The general routes of entry for human exposure to hazardous materials are: A. inhalation, ingestion, radiation, and injection. B. injection, infection, radiation, and adsorption. C. inhalation, ingestion, absorption, and injection. D. absorption, dilution, injection, and ingestion.

C

17. UN/DOT placards indicate general hazard recognition by: A. using the numbers 0-4 to indicate relative risk B. always indicating the product name. C. giving the UN hazard class number. D. the shape of the placard.

C

177. The collection of evidence at a terrorist event is primarily the responsibility of: A. the hazmat team. B. the fire department. C. law enforcement. D. the arson investigator.

C

179. The route of exposure that is the most commonly associated with causing ill effects, both acute and chronic, is: A. Absorption B. Ingestion C. Inhalation D. Injection

C

183. One of the roles of the first responder at the awareness level during a haz mat incident is to: A. plug the leak. B. operate a remote shut off. C. secure the area. D. dike around a spill.

C

186. When providing emergency medical care to victims of a hazardous materials incident: A. all contaminated clothing, jewelry, eye glasses, and shoes should be immediately discarded. B. the majority of care should be performed prior to moving patient from the contaminated area. C. the patient should be removed from the contaminated area at which time basic care and decontamination can begin. D. under ideal circumstances, the patients should not be decontaminated until they are at the hospital. All initial efforts should be focused on patient care.

C

188. First responders trained to the Awareness level have the ability to: A. select and use proper PPE. B. implement basic decontamination measures. C. realize the need for additional resources and make the appropriate notifications to the communication center. D. apply basic hazard and risk assessment techniques.

C

193. Upon arrival at a hazardous material incident involving a motor vehicle (truck), you locate the 4-digit ID number on an orange panel. You should look first in the Emergency Response Guidebook for guidance in the: A. green-bordered section. B. blue-bordered section. C. yellow-bordered section. D. orange-bordered section.

C

194. If, in using the Emergency Response Guidebook, a first responder discovers the entry for the material in question is highlighted and there is no fire involved, the first responder should go directly to the: A. yellow-bordered section. B. blue-bordered section. C. green-bordered section. D. table of placards.

C

196. A first responder must refer to the Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances in the emergency Response Guidebook: A. whenever the material entry guide number is supplemented with the letter "P." B. whenever the material entry in the Identification Number and Name Indexes is highlighted and fire is involved. C. whenever the material entry in the Identification Number and Name Indexes is highlighted and fire is not involved. D. whenever identification of a material cannot be made using any of the index methods.

C

199. When using water to extinguish a fire involving pesticides or a poison, the primary concern should be: A. reactivity. B. resistance to solubility. C. run-off contamination. D. product recovery.

C

2. A reference book intended to be carried in every emergency vehicle in the United States is the: A. IFSTA First Responder Manual. B. NIOSH Handbook of Hazardous Materials. C. Emergency Response Guidebook. D. NFPA Fire Protection Handbook.

C

204. In order to determine whether the personal protective equipment provided is appropriate for defensive operations, the Emergency Response Guidebook should be consulted. The section in which this information would be found is colored: A. yellow. B. blue. C. orange. D. green.

C

209. Diking, damming, and diverting are __________ options available for __________ control. A. offensive; spill B. defensive; leak C. defensive; spill D. offensive; leak

C

21. During an incident involving a train, you should look for the shipping papers in any of the following except : A. the engine. B. the caboose. C. rail cars carrying the products. D. the engineer's possession.

C

210. When initiating an Incident Management System at hazardous materials incidents, it is important to remember that an individual's span of control is: A. 1 to 5. B. 3 to 9. C. 4 to 6. D. 5 to 10.

C

211. If you are initiating the Incident Management System at a hazardous materials incident, the person assigned as the Safety Officer should be: A. trained to the awareness level. B. trained to the operations level. C. trained to the technician level. D. the second highest ranking person on the scene.

C

22. Using the human senses of smell or taste to determine the presence of a hazardous material is: A. the best first step. B. not reliable if the product is heavier than air. C. unreliable, unacceptable, and unsafe. D. recommended unless you have a head cold.

C

220. While enroute to an emergency incident, dispatch informs you that callers are reporting a tank leaking an unknown liquid. Dispatch also informs you that witnesses report seeing a marking of "Spec. 51" on the side of the tank. Which of the following types of containers would you expect to find on arrival at the incident? A. Cargo tank B. Rail car C. Intermodal portable tank D. Radioactive container

C

227. An MC 307/DOT 407 low-pressure chemical carrier is designed to carry chemicals with pressures not to exceed __________ psi. A. 3.0 B. 75.0 C. 40.0 D. 30.0

C

236. Viewed from the rear, a liquid carrier has an elliptical shape. This shape, illustrated below, indicates what type of carrier? A. MC 307/DOT 407 B. MC 312/DOT 412 C. MC 306/DOT 406 D. MC 331

C

237. The proper cargo tank truck to carry a shipment of sulfuric acid is an: A. MC 306/DOT 406. B. MC 307/DOT 407. C. MC 312/DOT 412. D. MC 331.

C

240. A cryogenic liquid tank car will have: A. a single uninsulated shell. B. an enclosed dome. C. a double shell with insulation. D. fittings and valves visible on top of the tank car.

C

242. If a rail car had a cylindrical tank and a covered dome containing all the fittings and valves, it would be classified as a __________ rail car. A. nonpressure B. cryogenic liquid tank C. pressure tank D. dry bulk tank

C

246. Which of the following is not mandatory information found on a pesticide label? A. EPA registration number B. Signal word C. NFPA 704 data D. Active ingredients

C

247. Which of the following is not a required signal word on a pesticide label? A. Caution B. Warning C. Toxic D. Danger

C

248. When implementing tactical activities during a bomb event, responders should: A. stage in the line-of-sight path of the suspected device. B. use only one radio when in close proximity to the device. C. be alert for secondary devices. D. move the device away from primary exposures.

C

256. The intermodal tank that is designed for working pressures of 100 to 500 psig and usually transports liquefied gases under pressure is known as an: A. IMO Type 1. B. IMO Type 2. C. IMO Type 5. D. IMO Type 7.

C

259. All of the following are characteristics of a compressed gas tube trailer except: A. the manifold is enclosed at the rear. B. it has permanent markings for the material or ownership. C. it carries liquefied gases. D. it carries compressed gases.

C

263. You have arrived on the scene of a hazardous materials incident involving pesticides. On one of the pesticide labels, you notice the statement "Keep from waterways." This statement is called the: A. Signal Words. B. EPA Statement. C. Hazard Statement. D. Danger Statement.

C

265. The products that IM 101 intermodal portable tanks typically carry are: A. molten sulfur. B. flammable gases. C. flammable liquids. D. radioactive materials.

C

268. The design pressure of an IM 101 portable tank is: A. 14.5 to 25.4 psi. B. 100 to 500 psi. C. 25.4 to 100 psi. D. 6.89 to 14.5 psi.

C

269. Pneumatically unloaded hopper cars typically carry: A. finished goods. B. compressed gasses. C. fine powdered materials. D. rolled steel.

C

270. Of the railcars listed below, which of the following is considered to be obsolete? A. Covered Hopper Car B. Cryogenic liquid tank car C. High pressure tube car D. Nonpressure tank car without an expansion dome

C

279. Cryogenic liquids are those which exist at: A. greater than 32°F. B. minus 0°F. C. minus 150°F. D. minus 110°F.

C

282. Which of the following exposure values could be repeated a maximum of four times daily for 15 minutes with a 60-minute rest period between exposures? A. IDLH B. TLV-TWA C. TLV-STEL D. TLV-C

C

284. In the event of exposure, the material which would pose a threat to a developing fetus is known as a(n): A. biogen. B. etiogen. C. teratogen. D. synergen.

C

289. Within the UN System, a container labeled with a Hazard Classification of 4 contains a(n): A. explosive. B. flammable gas. C. flammable solid. D. flammable liquid.

C

29. The DOT Placarding System requires a vehicle carrying nonflammable compressed gas to display a placard colored: A. red. B. yellow. C. green. D. orange.

C

296. Responders can contact the shipper directly from the emergency contact number on the: A. MSDS. B. Pre-Incident Plan. C. shipping papers. D. Chemical Abstract Service.

C

305. Given the Material Safety Data Sheet provided, identify the chemical CAS number. A. (770) 925-4640 B. G-90 C. 75-21-8 D. C2H40

C

312. Materials that emit ionizing radiation are called __________ materials. A. negative-ion B. synesgeous C. radioactive D. lethal-concentration

C

320. If a container is unable to adapt to applied stress, it will breach. An opening commonly associated with a BLEVE is called: A. a failure of container attachments. B. disintegration. C. runaway cracking. D. a puncture.

C

321. A __________ is a release that is the result of a broken or damaged valve(s) that may last from several seconds to several minutes, depending on the size of the opening, type of container, and nature of contents. A. spill B. detonation C. rapid relief D. violent rupture

C

322. Hypergolic materials ignite when they: A. contact water. C. contact each other. B. contact air. D. encounter heat of friction.

C

323. When a pressurized tanker fails violently due to over-pressurizing, the phenomenon is called: A. detonation. B. SAOT. C. BLEVE. D. rapid relief.

C

325. A __________ effect occurs at the point of contact with a hazardous substance. A. remote B. systemic C. local D. chronic

C

326. Which of the following substances would be classified as a chemical asphyxiant? A. Carbon dioxide B. Nitrogen C. Carbon monoxide D. Methane

C

329. Materials such as lithium, finely divided magnesium, sodium, and cesium are classified as: A. hypergolic. B. pyrophoric. C. water reactive. D. inhibitors.

C

330. __________ is the difference between the upper and lower flammable limits of a gas or vapor. A. Flash point B. Ignition temperature C. Flammable (explosive) range D. Vapor density

C

334. __________ is the ratio of the weight of a volume of liquid to the weight of an equal volume of water, with water having a value of 1.0. A. Flammable (explosive) range B. Flash point C. Specific gravity D. Vapor density

C

335. __________ is the minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air. A. Ignition temperature B. Autoignition temperature C. Flash point D. Reactivity point

C

350. A poison that will cause a person to have seizures is called a(n): A. irritant. B. sensitizer. C. convulsant. D. carcinogen.

C

380. If available, which of the following resources is able to predict vapor cloud travel after responders' input, local data and leak information? A. Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) B. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) C. Computer Aided Management for Emergency Operations (CAMEO) D. Department of Transportation Computer Enhancement for Haz Mat (DOT-CEH)

C

383. The resource that would be useful in determining the size of an endangered area during a Haz Mat incident is the: A. IFSTA Training Manual. B. NFPA Guidebook. C. Initial Emergency Response Guide. D. Environmental Protection Agency.

C

387. In dealing with a hazardous materials fire involving bulk containers, extinguishment or control should not be attempted without: A. a large group of firefighters. B. specialists in hazardous materials. C. a continuous water supply. D. special hazmat suits.

C

392. Which of the following is true concerning the proper procedure for dilution of a spill? A. Flush the material into a waterway. B. Fuels, oils, and other hydrocarbons are readily diluted with water. C. Dilution may be effective when combined with other containment tactics. D. A foam blanket should be applied and repeated frequently.

C

393. Which of the following statements is true regarding vapor dispersion? A. It commonly utilizes firefighting foam. B. It is not effective on water soluble materials. C. The runoff may need to be contained. D. It is only effective on materials with a specific gravity of less than 1.

C

395. __________ is comprised of those procedures taken to keep a material in a defined or local area. A. Containment B. Diversion C. Confinement D. Dispersion

C

399. A process by which a hazardous liquid flow is redirected away from an area is called: A. absorption B. dispersion C. diversion D. retention

C

406. The type of breathing system that cannot be utilized in an oxygen deficient atmosphere is a(n): A. supplied-air respirator. B. rebreather equipment. C. air-purification respirator. D. SCBA.

C

411. The minimum level of respiratory protection for employees engaged in emergency response and exposed to an unknown hazardous substance is a(an): A. air purifying respirator. B. supplied air respirator. C. positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus. D. pressure demand self-contained breathing apparatus.

C

413. This suit is used where splashes may occur, but where respiratory hazards are minimal. A. Level A B. Level B C. Level C D. Level D

C

422. At a suspected terrorist incident, evidence collection is primarily the responsibility of: A. whoever located the evidence. B. the incident commander. C. law enforcement. D. the CIA.

C

423. The zone where contamination has occurred or has the potential to occur and requires established entry and exit control points, is known as a __________ zone. A. warm contamination reduction B. safety C. hot exclusion D. cold support

C

432. Directions: Read the following statements regarding hazardous materials incident control zones and select your answer from choices A through D. Statement 1: The hot zone should cover the incident site as well as the personnel and equipment necessary to control it. Statement 2: The warm zone includes the decontamination area. Statement 3: The command post is located in the warm zone. A. All three statements are true. B. Statement 1 is true; statements 2 and 3 are false. C. Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false. D. Statements 2 and 3 are true; statement 1 is false.

C

440. Identify the five major functions within the Incident Command System. A. Command, Safety, Liaison, Information, and Operations B. Command, Planning, Safety, Logistics, and Finance C. Command, Operations, Planning, Logistics, and Finance D. Operations, Logistics, Planning, Support, and Service

C

447. At a hazardous materials emergency, the Operations Section serves the task of: A. monitoring the incident and personnel, assuring compliance with safety procedures, and limiting access to the Hot and Warm Zones of the incident. B. controlling and overseeing equipment and personnel inventories. C. controlling the tactical portion of the incident. D. coordinating all medical and health concerns at the incident.

C

449. At a hazardous materials incident, the safety officer's responsibilities include all of the following except: A. obtaining briefings from the Incident Commander. B. participating in preparation of and monitoring the safety plan. C. being the coordination point between the IC and any assisting agency. D. altering, suspending, or terminating any activity that is judged to be unsafe.

C

45. Position # 3 is the information and degree of hazard relating to a chemical's: A. special information (white). B. health (blue). C. reactivity (yellow). D. flammability (red).

C

450. Which of the following tasks at a hazardous materials incident is are provided by the Logistics Sector? A. Providing information to the media B. Coordinating interaction between law enforcement personnel and emergency response operations C. Monitoring the incident and personnel and assuring compliance with safety procedures D. Assuring adequate numbers of personnel and equipment for the response

C

454. There are many limitations for personnel working in SCBA. Of the following, all are limitations except: A. SCBA places a strain on the wearer's cardiovascular system. B. some wearers may be claustrophobic. C. wearers do not have to be medically certified to wear a SCBA. D. wearers must be trained.

C

460. Back-up personnel should be advised of the incident action plan and positioned in the __________ zone. A. hot B. warm C. cold D. emergency

C

461. Dizziness, headache, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and decreased urine output are all signs of: A. heat stroke. B. heat cramps. C. heat exhaustion. D. Both B and C are correct.

C

463. Directions: Read the following statements regarding excessive heat disorders and select your answer from choices A through D. Statement 1: Heat exhaustion occurs because the body is unable to dissipate excessive heat and becomes overheated. Statement 2: Heat stroke results from the failure of the temperature-regulating capacity of the body. Statement 3: Both heat exhaustion and heat stroke are immediate life-threatening conditions. A. All three statements are true. B. Statement 1 is true; statements 2 and 3 are false. C. Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false. D. Statements 2 and 3 are true; statement 1 is false.

C

47. In the NFPA 704 System of Identification, the diamond-shaped placard used for fire hazard is always colored: A. blue. B. yellow. C. red. D. white.

C

473. Actions taken to confine a product release to a limited area, with these actions being performed remote from the spill location, are considered to be: A. offensive strategies. B. poor strategies. C. defensive strategies. D. unacceptable actions.

C

474. An advantage of confinement operations is that: A. confinement operations are solely the responsibility of specially trained teams. B. special equipment is utilized to ensure safety. C. direct exposure of personnel is avoided. D. containment is already achieved, increasing manpower.

C

476. An appropriate application of high-expansion foam would be: A. large outdoor spills. B. a five-gallon spill of hydrocarbons. C. a pesticide fire. D. an above-ground tank fire.

C

489. On which type of fire are fluoroprotein foams designed to be used? A. Class A B. Polar solvent C. Hydrocarbon D. Class D

C

50. A Hazard Class of 3, within the U.N. Labeling System indicates a __________ product. A. flammable gas B. flammable solid C. flammable liquid D. poisonous liquid

C

500. When trying to prevent a BLEVE from occurring, the most commonly accepted minimum flow is __________ gpm. A. 250 B. 750 C. 500 D. 1000

C

501. A __________ sound often occurs when metal has been softened by high heat and pressure. A. crunching B. scraping C. pinging D. banging

C

53. Using the DOT Labeling System, a flammable liquid would receive a hazard classification of: A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 4.

C

54. Within the UN System, a container labeled with a Hazard Class 4 contains a: A. combustible liquid. B. flammable gas. C. flammable solid. D. flammable liquid.

C

56. Physical data, chemical name, exposure limits, health hazard data, and special precautions are all parts of the: A. Dangerous Cargo Manifest. B. Emergency Response Guidebook. C. Material Safety Data Sheet. D. UN Identification System

C

58. Referring to the U.S. Military Marking System for Hazardous Materials, an octagon-shaped placard with a #1 on it denotes a: A. moderate fire hazard. B. chemical fire hazard. C. mass detonation. D. mass escape.

C

60. An explosive with a fragment hazard is denoted by the U.S. Military Marking System as a: A. #3 in an X. B. #4 in an X. C. #2 in an X. D. #4 in a circle.

C

65. The DOT Hazard Class 2 includes: A. flammable solids. C. nonflammable gases. B. poison liquid. D. corrosive poisons.

C

7. Directions: Read the statements below and select your answers from alternatives A-D. Statement 1: Section 304 requires reporting of releases of the extremely hazardous substances listed in Section 302 of SARA, Title III. Statement 2: Releases resulting in an exposure to a person while at a fixed facility may be exempted from being reported. Statement 3: Private industry is exempt from notification and reporting requirements in regards to releases of hazardous substances. A. Statement 1 and 3 are true; Statement 2 is false. B. Statement 2 and 3 are true; Statement 1 is false. C. Statements 1 and 2 are true; Statement 3 is false. D. Statement 2 and 3 are false; Statement 1 is true.

C

70. In using the various clues for detecting the presence of hazardous materials, the use of __________ would be considered the most dangerous. A. hearing B. vision C. the sense of smell D. binoculars

C

8. Federal OSHA 29CFR 1910.1200 and several states have required that local establishments keep a Material Safety Data Sheet on file when: A. wood products are used. B. personnel have not received specialized hazmat training. C. hazardous materials are used or stored on site. D. backup emergency power is not available.

C

88. Which of the following is not a signal word found on pesticide labels? A. Danger B. Warning C. Toxic D. Caution

C

91. Which of the following is not required on a pipeline marker? A. Pipeline contents B. Pipeline owner C. Pipeline depth underground D. Emergency contact number

C

107. Directions: Read the statements below and select your answer from alternatives A-D. Statement 1: If placards are clearly displayed on the transportation mode, shipping papers are not required. Statement 2: If a transportation mode is not carrying hazardous materials, there is no requirement for specific information to be provided on shipping papers. Statement 3: Shipping papers must contain the proper name of the chemical or its hazard class. A. All three statements are true. B. Statement 1 is true; statements 2 and 3 are false. C. Statements 1 and 3 are true; statement 2 is false. D. Statements 2 and 3 are true; statement 1 is false.

D

124. Where would a first responder expect to find a waybill or consist? A. Cab of the truck B. Cockpit C. Bridge or pilot house D. Engine or caboose

D

126. Which of the following is not a clue to indicate the presence of hazmat derived from the use of human senses. A. Peculiar smells B. Pinging or popping of heat-exposed vessels C. Wavy vapors over the surface of a liquid puddle D. Waves on wake water surfaces

D

131. Using the nuclear, biological and chemical (NBC) classification, which of the following is not considered a biological warfare agent? A. Mycotoxins B. Tularemia C. Plague D. Soman

D

141. Given the product name, you can find the four-digit UN/DOT number assigned by referencing all the following except: A. shipping papers. B. Emergency Response Guidebook. C. MSDS Sheets. D. NFPA 704.

D

143. The complexity of transport regulations is compounded by several agencies having overlapping responsibilities. All of the following federal agencies are involved in the regulation of hazardous materials andor wastes except the: A. Department of Transportation (DOT). B. Department of Energy (DOE). C. Transport Development Group (TDG). D. Chemical Transportation Emergency Center (Chemtrec)

D

145. Directions: Read the statements below regarding the determination of specific names of hazardous materials and select your answer from alternatives A-D. Statement 1: A Material Safety Data Sheet provides the name the chemical company uses to identify the product. Statement 2: The product name is not always identical to the chemical name, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet. Statement 3: The listing of product names, chemical names, and synonyms on Material Safety Data Sheets can make identifying chemicals sometimes confusing. A. Statement 1 is true; statements 2 and 3 are false. B. Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false. C. Statements 2 and 3 are true; statement 1 is false. D. All three statements are true.

D

146. Directions: Read the statements below regarding the determination of specific names of hazardous materials and select your answer from alternatives A-D. Statement 1: The blue section of the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) lists the shipping names of hazardous materials. Statement 2: Shipping names are always identical to the chemical names of materials. Statement 3: It is important to know the proper spelling of the shipping name of a material before referencing the ERG. A. All three statements are true. B. Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false. C. Statements 2 and 3 are true; statement 1 is false. D. Statements 1 and 3 are true; statement 2 is false.

D

147. Which of the following are examples of hazardous materials that would be classified and placarded Class 9 during transportation? A. Molten sulfur, PCBs B. Gasoline, kerosene C. Ammonium nitrate, ethyl ketone peroxide D. Anhydrous ammonia, phosgene

D

151. When referring to the Emergency Response Guidebook, if a chemical name is not highlighted, the next step is to proceed to the __________ section. A. blue B. green C. white D. orange

D

156. The DOT Hazard Class 4 consists of: A. corrosives. B. flammable liquids. C. oxidizers. D. flammable solids.

D

160. The DOT Hazard Class 9 consists of: A. gases. B. oxidizers. C. radioactive substances. D. miscellaneous.

D

164. When using the Table of Isolation Distances in the Emergency Response Guidebook, a large spill is defined as a quantity greater than: A. 5 gallons. B. 55 liters. C. 5 liters. D. 55 gallons.

D

166. The statement: "People inside a building should remain inside until the danger passes," best describes: A. protective actions. B. initial isolation area. C. evacuation. D. shelter in place.

D

171. When determining initial isolation distances for incidents involving explosive devices, it is best for responders to: A. routinely isolate the immediate danger area 2,000 feet in all directions regardless of the device. B. use explosives detection equipment or bomb-sniffing dogs to accomplish the task. C. wait for bomb technicians to size up the situation and confer with the incident commander before making the call. D. understand that recommended isolation distances should be considered only as a guide.

D

173. Which of the following is are potential ignition sources found at the scenes of hazardous materials incidents? A. Radios, hand lights, pagers B. Heated metal surfaces C. Electrostatic and frictional sparks D. All of the above.

D

180. Copies of the local emergency response plan (LERP) must be made available to: A. first responders trained to awareness level. B. all incident commanders. C. hazardous material response teams. D. all first responders.

D

185. Upon arriving on the scene of a 55 gallon drum leaking an unknown liquid, you notice a flammable liquid placard. After referring to your Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG), you are directed to guide number 127. You would expect to find the Emergency Action for a spill or leak is the section which is colored: A. blue. B. yellow. C. green. D. orange.

D

189. The isolation distance in the numbered guides is to be used: A. whenever the index entry is highlighted. B. whenever the entry is identified as a toxic inhalation hazard. C. whenever the entry is identified as a dangerous water reactive material. D. once the 3-digit guide number has been obtained through the ID number or material name indexes.

D

191. In the Emergency Response Guidebook, a first responder would expect to find the highlighted entries indicating that a material is either a toxic inhalation hazard or a dangerous water reactive material in the: A. orange-bordered section only. B. green and orange-bordered sections. C. table of placards section. D. yellow and blue-bordered sections

D

192. When using the Emergency Response Guidebook, the next step the first responder should follow after learning a material's 3-digit guide is to: A. go to the blue-bordered section. B. go to the yellow-bordered section. C. call CHEMTREC. D. go to the orange-bordered section.

D

197. The lead agency during a terrorist emergency (crisis management) is the: A. regional hazmat team. B. FEMA. C. U.S. Fire Administration. D. FBI.

D

20. The normal location for the bill of lading is in the: A. wheelhouse. B. cockpit. C. conductor's possession. D. cab of the truck.

D

201. The best source of information on a specific hazardous material is: A. Chemtrec B. the Emergency Response Guidebook C. the transporting vehicle's driver D. the manufacturer's Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

D

212. The goal of an emergency decon procedure is to: A. completely remove all possible contamination while protecting the environment from run-off. B. remove any residual contamination after gross decon is completed. C. eliminate cross contamination of hospital personnel. D. remove any threatening contamination as quickly as possible.

D

213. As a first responder trained to the operations level, which spill control tactics can be conducted? A. Absorption B. Dilution C. Vapor Suppression D. All of the above.

D

214. Which of the following is not a response objective for hazardous material incidents? A. Leak control B. Rescue C. Recovery D. Reporting

D

216. What level of training is required to don chemical protective clothing? A. Firefighter I B. First Responder C. Haz Mat Awareness D. Haz Mat Operations

D

230. A cryogenic material would be carried in an: A. MC 306/DOT 406. B. MC 307/DOT 407. C. MC 331. D. MC 338.

D

244. A __________ cargo tank is designed to carry low-pressure, refrigerated liquids at -150°F and below. A. nonpressure or low-pressure B. pressure or high-pressure C. hopper D. cryogenic liquid

D

249. Two complicating factors facing emergency responders at a terrorist incident are: A. media relations and political implications. B. the need for auto-injectors and radiological equipment. C. secondary devices and uncertain weather conditions. D. crime scene considerations and possible secondary events.

D

251. Above ground pressure facility tanks are divided into two categories: A. bulk and nonbulk. B.below-ground and above-ground. C. cryogenic and corrosive. D. low-pressure and high-pressure.

D

26. When transporting hazardous material, the shipping papers should contain: A. emergency contact information. B. the proper name of the shipped materials. C. the hazard class of the shipment. D. All of the above

D

261. A specialized intermodal tank container which carries refrigerated liquid gases, argon, oxygen, or helium would be an example of: A. tube modules. B. IM 101. C. IM 102. D. cryogenic intermodal tanks.

D

274. Large tanks with hemispherical heads on both ends can be identified as: A. cryogenic liquid. B. corrosive liquid. C. dry bulk. D. high pressure.

D

278. Emergency centers such as __________ are principal agencies providing immediate technical assistance to an emergency responder. A. OSHA B. NFPA C. CHEMCO D. CHEMTREC

D

290. CHEMTREC/CANUTEC can usually provide all of the following information except: A. hazard information warnings. B. databases. C. technical information. D. advice on remediation contractors.

D

291. In an emergency at a facility with bulk chemical storage, where the MSDS is not available on site, the firefighter may obtain an MSDS from: A. an EPA Alert. B. the chemical abstract service. C. the Department of Transportation. D. CHEMTREC or the manufacturer.

D

292. Given the provided MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet), identify the boiling point of the chemical. A. 80.6°F B. 10.7°F C. 70°F D. 51°F

D

294. To contact the shipper for hazard and response information, a firefighter can obtain the phone number from: A. CAMEO. B. the CAS registry number. C. the Emergency Response Guide. D. the shipping papers.

D

3. The two types of potential hazards found in each guide of the Emergency Response Guidebook are: A. reactivity and solubility. B. spill and leak. C. corrosive and flammable. D. health and fire explosion.

D

301. When contacting CHEMTREC, the caller should be prepared to provide all of the following information except: A. the name of the caller and a call-back number. B. the type of container or vehicle. C. the names of the material, shipper, and manufacturer. D. the number of casualties.

D

303. Which type of radiation has a physical mass like alpha radiation but has no electrical charge? A. X-ray B. Gamma C. Alpha D. Neutron

D

307. Given the provided Material Safety Data Sheet, in what sections can you find information on precautions for safe handling to include release measures and personal protection measures? A. 3 and 7 B. 4 and 6 C. 4 and 7 D. 7 and 8

D

313. __________ rays are the most dangerous type of radiation. A. Alpha B. Beta C. Delta D. Gamma

D

314. Caustic soda and potassium hydroxide are examples of: A. polymers. B. catalysts. C. acids. D. bases.

D

328. __________ interfere with oxygen exchange during normal respiration. A. Anesthetics B. Carcinogens C. Irritants D. Asphyxiants

D

336. There are five ways that a metal container can breach. Which of the following is not considered to be a breach? A. Disintegration B. Runaway cracking C. Punctures D. Rust

D

339. In hazardous materials, one of the three time frames used for predicting the length of time that exposures may be in contact with a hazardous material in an endangered area is long term. Long term means: A. minutes and hours. B. days, weeks, and years. C. a century or more. D. years and generations.

D

419. All of the following statements about emergency decontamination are true except: A. It can be implemented without a formal decontamination area. B. It provides only gross decontamination. C. The victim may still pose a threat of secondary contamination. D. It removes the threat of secondary contamination.

D

427. All of the following are protective actions that must be taken during in-place protection except: A. closing all windows. B. closing all doors. C. monitoring local TV and radio stations. D. ensuring HVAC System remains operating.

D

428. When sheltering in place, the citizens should be instructed to do all of the following except : A. shut all windows and doors. B. shut off air handling systems. C. stay tuned to a TV or radio. D. shut off all electrical appliances.

D

429. Prior to allowing responders to act, they should be briefed on all of the following except : A. the immediate goal. B. the material's effects. C. the escape route. D. how to plug a leak.

D

433. Directions: Read the following statements regarding hazardous materials incident control zones and select your answer from choices A through D. Statement 1: The first control zone established at a hazardous materials incident is the hot zone. Statement 2: Only individuals trained to the technician level should be permitted in the hot zone. Statement 3: Personnel working in the hot zone must log in and out at the access control point, recording entry and exit times. A. Statement 1 is true; statements 2 and 3 are false. B. Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false. C. Statements 2 and 3 are true; statement 1 is false. D. All three statements are true.

D

436. Directions: Read the following statements regarding safety briefings prior to allowing personnel to work at a hazardous material incident and select your answer from choices A through D. Statement 1: Pre-incident survey information is vital to establishing briefing items. Statement 2: MSDS information can be an important part of the briefing process. Statement 3: Risk benefit assessment is the most important item to be considered. A. Statement 1 is true; statements 2 and 3 are false. B. Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false. C. Statements 2 and 3 are true; statement 1 is false. D. All three statements are true.

D

437. Directions: Read the following statements regarding haz mat incidents involving criminal or terrorist activities, and select your answer from choices A through D. Statement 1: Safety briefings should include approaching a potential terrorism incident in the same manner as a hazardous material incident. Statement 2: If an explosion has occurred, the safety briefing should stress the potential that a secondary explosive device exists. Statement 3: Safety briefings should include the reminder that the incident is also a crime scene, so evidence must be preserved. A. Statement 1 is true; statements 2 and 3 are false. B. Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false. C. Statements 2 and 3 are true; statements 1 is false. D. All three statements are true.

D

438. In Level I incidents, the response team should be able to deal with: A. LPG leaking from full 1000-pound tanks. B. ruptures of high-pressure gas lines. C. spills requiring evacuation. D. a natural gas leak in an occupancy.

D

446. When an Operations Section has not been staffed, staging reports to: A. support. B. logistics. C. the safety officer. D. command.

D

46. Position # 4 is the information and degree of hazard relating to a chemical's: A. health (blue). B. flammability (red). C. reactivity (yellow). D. special information (white).

D

462. The first step or most important thing to accomplish upon arrival at a hazardous materials or suspected hazardous materials incident is: A. identification of the spilled or released product. B. rescue. C. notification of the hazardous materials response team. D. isolation of the area and prevention of entry.

D

471. There are different procedures and time intervals for SCBA inspections. Several are listed below in choices A through D. Which procedure should be used when restoring a unit to service after it has been used? A. Annual B. Biannual C. Monthly D. Daily

D

475. Which of the following is not a characteristic of fluoroprotein foams? A. They are designed for hydrocarbon fires only. B. Streams can be applied from a distance. C. They are suitable for subsurface injection. D. They can only be used with fresh water.

D

477. On cargo tanks, emergency remote shutoff devices are usually located: A. on either side of the tank. B. at the front of the truck on the passenger side. C. at the rear of the truck on the driver's side. D. at the front of the truck on the driver's side.

D

479. Which of the following is a characteristic of protein foams? A. They are affected by freezing and thawing. B. They have minimal water-retention capabilities. C. They are designed for polar solvent fires only. D. They are designed for hydrocarbon fires only.

D

483. When dealing with cargo tanks, you would expect to find the emergency shutoff located: A. behind the driver's side of the cab. B. near the control valves. C. under the cab on the passenger side. D. Both A and B are correct. E. A, B, and C are correct.

D

488. High expansion foams have expansion ratios of: A. 3:1 to 6:1. B. 10:1 to 20:1. C. 20:1 to 200:1. D. 20:1 to 1000:1.

D

490. With which of the following foam concentrates may a standard fixed-flow fog nozzle be used? A. Alcohol resistant film forming fluoroprotein foams (FFFP) B. Protein C. Fluoroprotein D. Aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF)

D

499. When a fire involves the cargo of a truck transporting explosives, the responders should: A. increase water application immediately. B. try to separate unburned cargo. C. attempt to move the involved vehicle to a safer location. D. immediately evacuate the area.

D

504. At a hazardous materials incident, the second safety officer directly reports to the: A. Incident Commander. B. first Safety Officer. C. dispatcher. D. Haz Mat Team Officer.

D

506. Which of the following is true regarding hazardous materials incident command posts? A. They should be identified by a flashing red light. B. They should be established in the warm zone. C. It is absolutely necessary that they be positioned so that the Incident Commander can observe the scene. D. Their location should be relayed to the dispatcher and responding personnel.

D

77. During a suspected terrorist event, the outward warning indicator(s) that responders should be alert to is/are: A. strong chemical odors without apparent reason. B. unexplained patterns of illness or death. C. unusual containers that are out-of-place with the surroundings. D. All of the above.

D

82. During transport, the party responsible for the waybill should be the: A. pilot. B. driver. C. captain. D. conductor.

D

89. In which of the following locations would you expect to encounter hazardous materials? A. Private residences B. Doctors' offices C. Hardware stores D. All of the above.

D

90. In general, as compared to the standard emergency incident faced by a first responder, a Haz Mat incident will: A. be less complex. B. require less manpower. C. require the same equipment. D. be more complex.

D

92. Which of the following types of events should raise your awareness of possible terrorism involvement? A. Warehouse fire B. Tanker truck accident C. Ruptured drum D. Non-trauma mass casualty incident

D

382. Which of the following is the first tactical priority to consider during a haz mat incident? A. Fire extinguishment B. Confinement C. Containment D. Exposure protection E. Rescue

E

93. Which of the following occupancy or location types would be considered a possible target for terrorism? A. Symbolic and historic B. Public buildings or assembly areas C. Controversial businesses D. Infrastructure systems E. All of the above

E

94. What are some of the on-scene warning signs that may be present in a terrorist event involving chemical or biological agents? A. Unexplained patterns of illnesses or death B. Unexplained signs and symptoms of skin, eye, or airway irritation C. Recognizable odors and/or taste D. Unexplained vapor clouds, mist, and plumes E. All of the above.

E

95. What are some factors that should raise your awareness of possible terrorism involvement? A. Occupancy or location B. Type of event C. Timing of event D. On-scene warning signs E. All of the above.

E

203. T F Emergency decontamination must take place in the decon corridor.

F

298. T F Chemtrec is not able to provide assistance to responders if the name of the shipper or manufacturer is not known.

F

304. T F Neutron radiation is commonly used in commercial and industrial operations.

F

317. T F Chemicals with specific gravities greater than one tend to float on water.

F

358. T F All personnel and equipment exposed to hazardous materials are also contaminated.

F

453. T F When determining the location of the command post, it is vital that the incident commander can view the scene from it.

F

487. T F Absorption is not an effective method in dealing with an oil spill in water, because all absorbent materials will also absorb the water.

F

491. T F Protein foam should be applied by plunging directly into the fuel to allow for proper mixing percentages.

F

144. T F Hazardous materials that are manufactured, stored, processed, or used at a particular site are not subject to regulations affecting transported materials.

T

238. T F Pipeline markers contain information describing the transported commodity and the name and telephone number of the carrier.

T

25. T F Shipping papers are required to contain an entry for hazard classification according to DOT regulations.

T

300. T F CHEMTREC should be utilized to access non-emergency information.

T

302. T F Structural firefighting gear with SCBA will protect responders from Beta particles.

T

316. T F A chemical with a vapor density of greater than one will tend to collect in low areas and below-grade places.

T

352. T F A liquid with a low boiling point will more readily change to a vapor than a liquid with a high boiling point when exposed to fire or heat.

T

486. T F Dilution of liquid materials has few practical applications at a haz mat incident.

T

68. T F Placards that contain the DOT Class number 6 at the bottom identify a material that may be an infectious substance hazard.

T