State Hazmat Operations Test

Bases

Caustic soda and potassium hydroxide are examples of:

See page 660 The correct answer is: continuous

Chain of custody is the _____ changes of possession of physical evidence that must be established in court to admit such material into evidence. Select one: a.first b.final c.continuous d.interrupted

Temperature, thickness, previous exposures, and chemical combinations

Chemical permeation rates are a result of:

D. All of the above

Chemical vapor protective clothing should be used when ___________ are suspected. A. corrosives B. splash hazards C. extremely hazardous substances D. All of the above

Extremely hazardous substances, corrosives, or splash hazards

Chemical vapor protective clothing should be used when ______________ are suspected

a. toxicity. see page 27

Chemicals or biological substances that cause sickness, illness, or injury by doing damage on the molecular scale are examples of: Select one: a.toxicity. b.corrosivity. c.energy release. d.chronic exposure.

Sensitizers

Chemicals that are classified as ___________ can cause a severe allergic reaction

Phosgene

Choking agents like ___________ attack the lungs causing tissue damage

See page 194 The correct answer is: radiation.

Class 7 placards may come in white or yellow, and they bear the unique trefoil symbol for: Select one: a.radiation. b.explosives. c.infectious diseases or biohazards. d.oxidizing substances or organic peroxides.

See page 196 The correct answer is: corrosive.

Class 8 hazards are either a liquid or a solid that cause full thickness destruction of human skin at the site of contact because they are: Select one: a.toxic. b.explosive. c.corrosive. d.radioactive.

law enforcement

Collection, preservation, and sampling of evidience will be performed under the direction of _____, per established procedures.

See page 214 The correct answer is: mechanical

Collision, impact, or internal overpressure are common causes of damage to a container caused by _____ energy. Select one: a.thermal b.chemical c.mechanical d.radiological

See page 552 The correct answer is: the amount of flammable vapors or gases in the atmosphere.

Combustible gas indicators (CGIs) measure: Select one: a.the percentage of oxygen in the air. b.the potential a substance has for oxidation. c.the ratio of hydrogen ions or hydronium ions to water. d.the amount of flammable vapors or gases in the atmosphere.

Fertilizers

Common hazmat stored in nonbulk packages, referred to as bags, are:

See page 297 The correct answer is: loss of situational awareness.

Competing priorities, distractions, and information overload may contribute to: Select one: a.a successful rescue. b.loss of situational awareness. c.reduced loss of life and property. d.correct identification of the hazardous material.

standard color

pH paper is designed to change color when it comes into contact with corrosive materials: the color indicates the pH. There is not a ___________ system established for pH paper.

See page 222 The correct answer is: model dispersion patterns.

Computer software programs such as CAMEO and AHOLA can be used to: Select one: a.model dispersion patterns. b.determine the origin of the container. c.predict ruptures from mechanical stress. d.make notifications downwind of a container release.

See page 513 The correct answer is: hypothermia.

Conducting wet decon operations in freezing weather can lead to: Select one: a.evaporation. b.hypothermia. c.hyperthermia. d.loss of evidence.

See page 332 The correct answer is: notification

Contacting law enforcement whenever a terrorist or criminal incident is suspected is a part of the _____ process. Select one: a.notification b.scene control c.product control d.emergency decontamination

See page 607 The correct answer is: defensive

Control actions involving spills are generally _____ in nature. Select one: a.simple b.offensive c.defensive d.unsuccessful

In the ERG

Control of the scene begins by isolating the site. The process for establishing initial isolation distances can be found:

B. Asphyxiation

Convulsant can cause death by means of? A. Cancer B. Asphyxiation C. Allergic Reaction D. Destruction of living tissue

Poisons that will cause an exposed individual to have seizures

Convulsants are BEST described as:

Heat exhaustion

Cool, moist skin is a symptom of what thermal emergency?

All first responders

Copies of the local emergency response plan (LERP) must be made available to:

Level A PPE

Corrosive gases such as ammonia, chlorine, hydrogen chloride, fluoride present an extreme threat to health & safety therefor require the highest level of protection

See page 255 The correct answer is: 30 days

Cryogenic liquid tank cars protect the contents from temperatures for how long? Select one: a.30 days b.3 weeks c.3 months d.Indefinitely

Minus 150 degrees F

Cryogenic liquids are those which exist at:

See page 182 The correct answer is: 2.2

Cryogens and their accompanying cold hazards belong to which hazard class? Select one: a.1.2 b.2.1 c.2.2 d.3.2

B

Cylindrical or box-like cask packaging made of rigid metal that is designed for performance under hypothetical accident conditions best describes Type ___ radioactive packaging.

Drums

Cylindrical packaging made of metal, plastic, or fiberboard used to transport solids or liquids best describes:

See page 338 The correct answer is: warm zone.

Decontamination usually takes place within the: Select one: a.hot zone. b.cold zone. c.warm zone. d.command zone.

Dike, dam, diversion, and retention

Defensive control techniques that operations level personnel are permitted to engage in are:

See page 304 The correct answer is: responders seek to confine the emergency to a given area without directly contacting the hazardous material.

Defensive operations are those in which: Select one: a.serious container damage threatens a massive release. b.responders take aggressive, direct action on the incident. c.personnel evacuate the area and withdraw to a safe distance. d.responders seek to confine the emergency to a given area without directly contacting the hazardous material.

Vapor density

Determining whether a vapor will rise or fall is commonly referred to as:

See page 531 The correct answer is: inhalation.

Devices that measure concentrations measure materials that enter the body through: Select one: a.injection. b.ingestion. c.inhalation. d.absorption.

See page 489 The correct answer is: absorbents.

Diatomaceous earth, baking powder, and activated carbon are examples of: Select one: a.vermiculite. b.absorbents. c.adsorbents. d.contaminants.

Defensive; spill

Diking, damming, and diverting are ________ options available for _________ control

See page 614 The correct answer is: control the flow of liquid hazardous materials away from the point of discharge.

Diking, damming, diverting, and retention: Select one: a.reduce the emission of vapors at a hazmat incident. b.control air movement using natural or mechanical means. c.reduce the potential risks of liquid hazardous materials by dilution. d.control the flow of liquid hazardous materials away from the point of discharge.

Confinement

Diversion, diking, and retention are all techniques used in:

Heat exhaustion

Dizziness, headache, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and decreasing urine output are all signs of:

Competence

possessing the knowledge and skills necessary to perform one's job appropriately and safely

The engine, the caboose, the engineer's possession

During an incident involving a train, you should look for the shipping papers in what areas?

sanitization

reduces

See page 506 The correct answer is: only if soaked in something that would penetrate outer clothing and into the underwear.

During decon, a victim should be completely disrobed: Select one: a.if they are deceased. b.once triage has been completed. c.as soon as decontamination procedures are initiated. d.only if soaked in something that would penetrate outer clothing and into the underwear.

See page 498 The correct answer is: isolated for later disposal.

During mass decon, contaminated clothing should be removed from victims and then: Select one: a.immediately burned. b.washed by responders. c.returned to the victims. d.isolated for later disposal.

See page 588 The correct answer is: an allied professional

During rescue operations, Operations level responders must work under the supervision of a Technician level responder, _____, or under the guidance of SOPs. Select one: a.an EMS supervisor b.an allied professional c.local or state/provincial law enforcement d.a more experienced Operations level responder

See page 612 The correct answer is: physically adhere to the adsorbent material rather than being adsorbed into its inner spaces.

During the process of adsorption, the molecules of the liquid hazardous material: Select one: a.physically adhere to the adsorbent material rather than being adsorbed into its inner spaces. b.chemically adhere to the adsorbent material rather than being absorbed into its inner spaces. c.chemically adhere to the absorbent material rather than being adsorbed into its inner spaces. d.physically adhere to the absorbent material rather than being adsorbed into its inner spaces.

Flammability of the material

During the recognition and identification of a facility, the firefighter should utilize the NFPA 704 system to identify the :

See page 657 The correct answer is: Tactical

During which response phase does law enforcement remove hostile threats? Select one: a.Tactical b.Operational c.Crime scene d.Remediation

Unity of Command

Each individual reporting to only one supervisor defines:

C. Unity of Command

Each individual reporting to only one supervisor defines: A. Span of Operations B. Span of Control C. Unity of Command D. Unified Command

b. ingestion. see page 23

Eating or swallowing hazardous materials is defined as: Select one: a.injection. b.ingestion. c.inhalation. d.absorption.

evaluated

Effectiveness of decon operations must be _____

CHEMTREC

Emergency centers such as _______ are principal agencies providing immediate technical assistance to an emergency responders.

See page 314 The correct answer is: should be considered at any hazmat or terrorism incident.

Emergency decontamination: Select one: a.is only done on equipment, not people. b.should be considered at any hazmat or terrorism incident. c.is not needed if the incident involves only a single product. d.will be necessary if a person has been exposed but not contaminated.

Explosive incidents

Emergency responders must always check for radiation at what type of incident?

See page 663 The correct answer is: local law enforcement

Emergency responders should coordinate with _____ in order to avoid problems of inadmissible evidence. Select one: a.local judicial officer b.local law enforcement c.insurance investigators and adjustors d.the National Fire Protection Association

See page 619 The correct answer is: on the left front corner of the tank (behind the driver).

Emergency shutoff devices in high pressure tanks are located: Select one: a.on top of the tank. b.in the cab of the tank. c.on the left front corner of the tank (behind the driver). d.on the right front corner of the tank (behind the passenger).

See page 654 The correct answer is: may include additional hazards in the form of armed owners/operators or explosive devices.

Environmental crimes that involve the illegal use and disposal of hazardous substances and waste: Select one: a.are handled solely by local law enforcement. b.are never considered emergency operations. c.pollute the air, water, or soil, but are not hazardous. d.may include additional hazards in the form of armed owners/operators or explosive devices.

See page 308 The correct answer is: risk-based response.

Equipping responders with the critical information that is needed to make good decisions, while not overwhelming them with nice-to-know information is the key to: Select one: a.risk-based response. b.risk monitoring and detection. c.response model implementation. d.product identification and control.

before

Establish the decontamination corridor _____ performing any work in the hot zone.

See page 329 The correct answer is: all agencies that have jurisdictional responsibility at a multijurisdictional incident contribute to the process.

Establishing unified command at a hazmat incident means that: Select one: a.several people will ultimately answer for the operation. b.each leader will have no more than five workers to supervise. c.law enforcement has primary command, then fire, and then EMS. d.all agencies that have jurisdictional responsibility at a multijurisdictional incident contribute to the process.

See page 493 The correct answer is: high vapor pressure.

Evaporation is used for decon of materials with: Select one: a.low solubility. b.low specific gravity. c.high vapor pressure. d.high autoignition temperature.

See page 514 The correct answer is: must be packaged and then only the exterior of the packaging will undergo decon.

Evidence collected on scene must be appropriately packaged and then: Select one: a.must be sprayed with hot water. b.does not need to undergo decon. c.must be thoroughly decontaminated before packaging. d.must be packaged and then only the exterior of the packaging will undergo decon.

See page 514 The correct answer is: law enforcement.

Evidence collected on scene must be decontaminated in conjunction with: Select one: a.law enforcement. b.NIOSH guidelines., c.state health guidelines. d.emergency medical services.

See page 681-683 The correct answer is: a booby trap is present in the lab.

Exposed wiring and reversed on/off switches may be an indication that: Select one: a.a booby trap is present in the lab. b.the lab operator is not very intelligent. c.the equipment was bought in a foreign country. d.the lab operator does not take care of his equipment.

See page 314 The correct answer is: people, animals, or the environment are potentially subjected to, or come in contact with, a material.

Exposure is the process by which: Select one: a.emergency decontamination is performed. b.hazardous materials are transferred out of the hot zone to the cold zone. c.people, animals, or the environment are potentially subjected to, or come in contact with, a material. d.hazardous material transfer to persons, equipment, and the environment in greater than acceptable quantities.

See page 531 The correct answer is: maximum length of time an individual can be exposed to an airborne substance before injury, illness, or death occurs.

Exposure limit is the: Select one: a.concentration of an ingested or injected substance that results in the death of 50 percent of the test population. b.English System unit used to express the radiation absorbed dose (rad) equivalence as pertaining to a human body. c.maximum length of time an individual can be exposed to an airborne substance before injury, illness, or death occurs. d.elapsed time between the movement of an air sample into a monitoring detection device and the reading provided to the user.

See page 462 The correct answer is: a hazardous material has entered or potentially entered your body.

Exposure means that: Select one: a.you are radioactive. b.you may have had contact with a foreign substance. c.you must be immediately extracted from the hot zone. d.a hazardous material has entered or potentially entered your body.

Cryogenic

Exposure to ________ materials may cause freeze burns and frostbite

Hazardous materials are used or stored on site

Federal OSHA 29CFR 1910.1200 ad several states require that local establishments keep a Material Safety Data Sheet on file when:

Notifying law enforcement

Federal agencies may be contacted and authorized for assistance at a terrorist activity by:

d. a history of harmful and deadly incidents that affected the emergency response community. see page 28

Fire service professional organizations testified before the U.S. Congress and requested inclusion of emergency responders in the provisions of the Superfund Amendment and Reauthorization Act (SARA) based on: Select one: a.fire department funding requirements. b.environmental consequences of aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF). c.concern for the potentially toxic chemicals used in firefighting operations. d.a history of harmful and deadly incidents that affected the emergency response community.

Class B (flammable & combustible liquids

Fire-fighting foams are effective on spills of flammable and combustible liquids if the foam is compatible with the material. Class ___ foam concentrates can be used for vapor suppression.

c. energy release. see page 26

Fires and explosions are examples of: Select one: a.toxicity. b.corrosivity. c.energy release. d.chronic exposure.

A. Understand both their role and their limitations See page 13

First responders at hazmat incidents must: A. Understand both their role and their limitations B. Respond to all hazmat incidents in their jurisdiction C. Supervise decontamination and mitigation operations D. Possess competencies in several areas including radiation safety

Realize the need for additional resources and make the appropriate notifications

First responders trained to the Awareness level have the ability to:

See page 343 The correct answer is: conducting searches on the edge of the hot zone.

First responders without Mission-Specific training can conduct rescue operations without risk of contamination such as: Select one: a.moving victims to a safe place. b.decontaminating exposed victims. c.conducting searches within the hot zone. d.conducting searches on the edge of the hot zone.

See page 298 The correct answer is: focusing on a single element of the situation to the exclusion of all others.

Fixation may lead to the loss of situational awareness by: Select one: a.receiving two or more pieces of information that do not agree. b.losing focus of the original mission without appropriate rationale. c.focusing on a single element of the situation to the exclusion of all others. d.obtaining a false sense of comfort based on a misconception of the hazard, risk, or situation.

See page 436 The correct answer is: everyday flame-resistant work apparel.

Flame-resistant protective clothing is mostly used for: Select one: a.wildland fires. b.explosive materials. c.everyday flame-resistant work apparel. d.long-term exposures to high temperatures.

See page 154 The correct answer is: chemical

Flammability, corrosivity, and reactivity are _____ properties of a material. Select one: a.physical b.chemical c.biological d.radiological

See page 154 The correct answer is: very low flash points.

Flammable gases have: Select one: a.no flash point. b.higher fire points. c.very low flash points. d.no autoignition temperature.

See page 154 The correct answer is: flammability.

Flash point, autoignition temperature, and flammable range are properties related to a material's: Select one: a.reactivity. b.corrosivity. c.flammability. d.radioactivity.

See page 631 The correct answer is: boiling liquids.

Foam cannot seal vapors of: Select one: a.boiling liquids. b.cryogenic liquids. c.pressurized liquids. d.alcohol-type liquids.

See page 630 The correct answer is: drainage time and expansion ratio.

Foam quality is measured in terms of: Select one: a.expansion time and color. b.neutralization and drainage time. c.drainage time and expansion ratio. d.potential surface area and application time.

See page 593 The correct answer is: ensuring a backup team is in position prior to entry

For Operations level responders assigned to individual companies or units, the unit leader's responsibilities include _____, after first establishing the hot zone and assembly area near the entry point. Select one: a.determining feasibility b.briefing all personnel on scene c.developing the incident action plan (IAP) d.ensuring a backup team is in position prior to entry

1000 lbs

For materials in Hazard Class 8 (corrosive), a DOT placard is required if the gross weight is in excess of:

See page 264 The correct answer is: intermodal tanks.

Freight containers and tank containers are both types of: Select one: a.intermodal tanks. b.facility containers. c.cryogenic containers. d.low pressure tank cars.

Simple

Gases that displace oxygen, such as carbon dioxide and nitrogen, are examples of _________ asphyxiants.

See page 148 The correct answer is: less than one

Gases with a vapor density of _____ will rise quickly and spread to a wide geographical area. Select one: a.one b.less than one c.more than one d.one through five

See page 563 The correct answer is: increases.

Generally, as the dose increases, the severity of the toxic response: Select one: a.increases. b.decreases. c.remains constant. d.is not measurable.

Dilution

Given an incident involving anhydrous ammonia, the decontamination of crew members through the use of water and soap is known as:

See page 486 The correct answer is: emergency responders exposed to smoke or products of combustion before leaving the scene of the incident.

Gross decontamination would most likely be performed on: Select one: a.anyone found at the site of the incident. b.victims after emergency decontamination. c.persons that do not require mass decontamination. d.emergency responders exposed to smoke or products of combustion before leaving the scene of the incident.

Level I: Lowest threat Level 2: HAZMAT team needed Level 3: Highest level of threat

HAZMAT Incident Levels and meaning

Ethiologic

Harm resulting from exposures to etiologic and infectious substances

See page 293 The correct answer is: the size-up process.

Hazard and risk assessment is part of: Select one: a.response tactics. b.the size-up process. c.response objectives. d.recovery and termination.

See page 293 The correct answer is: during pre-incident planning.

Hazard and risk assessment starts: Select one: a.during size-up. b.during pre-incident planning. c.when setting incident priorities. d.when developing response objectives.

D. Present a variety of dangers, sometimes in very small quantities See page 12

Hazardous material may: A. Possess no harmful characteristics B. Not require and personal protective equipment C. Be much simpler than most emergency incidents D. Present a variety of dangers, sometimes in very small quantities.

d. substances that possess harmful characteristics. See page 11

Hazardous materials or dangerous goods are: Select one: a.not a serious problem. b.always easy to identify. c.rarely encountered by firefighters. d.substances that possess harmful characteristics.

During preincident planning

Hazardous occupancies should be identified and evaluated:

a. their limitations. see page 13

Hazmat first responders must understand their roles and responsibilities, as well as: Select one: a.their limitations. b.complex chemical reactions. c.how to defuse weapons of mass destruction. d.the proper use of monitoring and detection equipment.

d. are more complex than other types of emergency incidents. see page 12

Hazmat incidents often: Select one: a.do not pose any threat. b.involve international news coverage. c.are less complex than other types of emergency incidents. d.are more complex than other types of emergency incidents.

A. Acute See page 21

Health effects that are short term and appear within a few hours or days are called: A. Acute B. Chronic C. Inconsequential D. Life-threatening

C. exhaustion

Heat _________ occurs when the circulatory system begins to fail, resulting in rapid, shallow breathing and cool, clammy skin. A. stroke B. cramps C. exhaustion D. rash

Exhaustion

Heat ___________ occurs when the circulatory system begins to fail, resulting in rapid, shallow breathing and cool, clammy skin

See page 229 The correct answer is: dispersion patterns from pressure containers.

Hemispheric pattern, cloud, plume, and cone are types of common: Select one: a.liquid spill patterns. b.bulk storage containers. c.nonpressure container breaches. d.dispersion patterns from pressure containers.

See page 373 The correct answer is: detonate faster than the speed of sound.

High explosives: Select one: a.only have a low-pressure phase. b.only have a positive-pressure phase. c.do not require an oxidizing component. d.detonate faster than the speed of sound.

See page 435 The correct answer is: short-term exposures to high temperatures.

High temperature protective clothing is designed to protect the wearer from: Select one: a.chemical hazards. b.inhalation hazards. c.long-term exposures to high temperatures. d.short-term exposures to high temperatures.

See page 259 The correct answer is: miscellaneous railroad cars.

Hopper cars, boxcars, and gondolas are types of: Select one: a.cryogenic liquid tanks. b.pressure intermodal tanks. c.miscellaneous railroad cars. d.corrosive liquid tank trucks.

Heat stroke

Hot, dry, red skin are symptoms of what thermal emergency?

See page 233 The correct answer is: Mechanical stressors

How are solids containers MOST likely to be damaged? Select one: a.Entropy b.Rapid release c.Thermal stressors d.Mechanical stressors

See page 504 The correct answer is: Medical triage

How are victims going through decontamination prioritized? Select one: a.Age and sex b.Medical triage c.NFPA standards d.NIOSH guidelines

See page 636 The correct answer is: It can be used as a cooling agent.

How can water be used in flammable and combustible liquid fire control? Select one: a.It can be used as a cooling agent. b.It can be used as an extinguishing agent. c.It can be used for dilution of toxic materials. d.It can only be used for hydration of responders.

See page 454 The correct answer is: EMS PPE must provide blood- and body-fluid pathogen barrier protection.

How do EMS ensembles differ from fire service first responders? Select one: a.EMS PPE includes a sidearm. b.EMS personnel must wear ballistic protection. c.EMS personnel will typically wear higher levels of respiratory protection. d.EMS PPE must provide blood- and body-fluid pathogen barrier protection.

See page 395 The correct answer is: They interfere with the body's ability to use oxygen.

How do blood agents cause harm? Select one: a.They are infectious. b.They cause disseminated blood coagulation. c.They interfere with the body's ability to use oxygen. d.They cause immediate and widespread bleeding from all body orifices.

See page 452 The correct answer is: Law enforcement personnel will typically wear ballistic protection.

How do law enforcement first responder ensembles differ from fire service first responders? Select one: a.Fire service personnel will typically carry a sidearm. b.Fire service personnel will typically wear ballistic protection. c.Law enforcement personnel will typically wear ballistic protection. d.Law enforcement personnel will typically wear higher levels of respiratory protection.

See page 290 The correct answer is: Helps prevent duplication of effort and uncoordinated operations

How do predetermined procedures help to reduce chaos at a hazmat incident? Select one: a.Destabilizes the incident b.Decreases command control c.Allows roles to be defined by each responder d.Helps prevent duplication of effort and uncoordinated operations

See page 455 The correct answer is: Most PPE inhibits the body's ability to disperse heat and moisture.

How does wearing PPE increase the risk of heat-related disorders? Select one: a.Most PPE has no effect on body temperature. b.Most PPE provides automatic cooling technology. c.Most PPE increases the body's ability to disperse heat and moisture. d.Most PPE inhibits the body's ability to disperse heat and moisture.

60-90 mins

How long should a critique last?

See page 497 The correct answer is: It is an incident-specific decision

How long should actual showering time last during mass decon? Select one: a.At least 10 minutes b.It is an incident-specific decision c.As long as there is water available d.It should be specified in NFPA 472

See page 545 The correct answer is: It can vary from seconds to minutes

How long will it take a monitoring device to detect the material and display a reading? Select one: a.Sixty seconds b.An hour or two c.Readings are instantaneous d.It can vary from seconds to minutes

1

How many leaders should conduct a critique

Keeping everyone not directly involved in the emergency operation away from the affected area

How should you Isolate the hazard area and deny entry?

Moving everyone from a threatened area to a safer area

How should you evacuate?

Having people remain inside a building rather than moving them to another area

How should you perform In-Place Protection?

Contact each other

Hypergolic materials ignite when they:

See page 509 The correct answer is: slope toward the hot zone.

Ideally, terrain of the decon zone should: Select one: a.be rocky or uneven. b.slope toward the hot zone. c.slope away from the hot zone. d.be a soft, porous, absorbing surface.

Command, Operations, Planning, Logistics, and Finance

Identify the five major functions within the Incident Management System

See page 314 The correct answer is: incident action plan should be revised.

If PPE is not adequate for an assigned task, the: Select one: a.PPE should be modified. b.incident will be terminated. c.responder should use the PPE available. d.incident action plan should be revised.

See page 637 The correct answer is: call the utility company immediately.

If a break occurs in an underground pipe carrying natural gas or liquefied petroleum gas, responders should: Select one: a.call law enforcement immediately. b.approach from the downwind side. c.fix the pipe before its contents spill. d.call the utility company immediately.

Green

If a chemical name is highlighted in the ERG, the table of initial isolation and protective action distances are found in the ________ section

Runaway cracking

If a container is unable to adapt to applied stress, it will breach. An opening commonly associated with a BLEVE is called:

See page 512 The correct answer is: supervised by law enforcement.

If a criminal suspect must be decontaminated, they should be: Select one: a.supervised by law enforcement. b.allowed to keep their personal belongings. c.given a longer decon process than other victims. d.given a shorter decon process than other victims.

See page 231 The correct answer is: heat rapidly and may blow the rupture disc/relief valve.

If a cryogenic container loses its vacuum, the product will: Select one: a.cool rapidly and may blow the rupture disc/relief valve. b.heat rapidly and may blow the rupture disc/relief valve. c.undergo a chemical reaction and release a plume cloud. d.sound an alarm for 20 seconds before violently rupturing.

See page 509 The correct answer is: a dike can be constructed to protect the waterway.

If a decontamination site must be located near storm and sewer drains, creeks, ponds, or other waterways, then: Select one: a.mass decontamination cannot be permitted. b.a dry decontamination method must be chosen. c.a dike can be constructed to protect the waterway. d.copious amounts of water should be used to dilute the contaminant.

See page 487 The correct answer is: follow local procedures for emergency decontamination.

If a first responder becomes contaminated before realizing the situation, they should immediately withdraw and: Select one: a.set up a decon zone. b.notify law enforcement. c.sample themselves to determine the contaminant. d.follow local procedures for emergency decontamination.

See page 662 The correct answer is: becomes a link in the custody chain.

If a first responder handles or collects evidence, he or she then: Select one: a.becomes a link in the custody chain. b.breaks the link in the chain of custody. c.will likely be charged with evidence tampering. d.has failed in protecting and preserving evidence.

Ignition sources

If a hazardous material incident involves a leaking flammable substance, the first responders should immediately remove all:

See if the placard is visible, refer to the Table of Placards section of the Guidebook

If a numbered guide for a transported hazardous material cannot be obtained by following the 3 steps outlined on page 1 of the DOT ERG, the first responder should:

The table of placards lists guide numbers

If a placard is visible, but no product name or four digit UN number is given, how can you determine which guide page of the ERG to use?

Collect in low-lying areas

If a product with a vapor density of 1.6 escaped from its container, you would expect the product to:

Pressure tank

If a rail car had a cylindrical tank and a covered dome containing all the fittings and valves, it would be classified as a ________ rail car.

See page 487 The correct answer is: Emergency

If a responder experiences failure of protective clothing, she should immediately undergo what type of decontamination? Select one: a.Mass b.Gross c.Technical d.Emergency

See page 562 The correct answer is: exit the hot zone immediately.

If a self-reading dosimeter gives a response that is off the scale, responders should: Select one: a.recalibrate the instrument. b.exit the hot zone immediately. c.finish their task and then leave the hot zone. d.not cause a panic by telling other responders.

See page 352 The correct answer is: the IAP is effective.

If an IC receives favorable progress reports from tactical and/or task supervisors, this is an indication that: Select one: a.the IAP is effective. b.the incident is destabilizing. c.the IC is no longer needed. d.responders should withdraw immediately.

See page 225 The correct answer is: a liquid that rapidly evaporates and expands into a gas or vapor.

If an incident involves a pressure container, any product released is likely to be a gas or: Select one: a.minute particles that pose a respiratory hazard. b.a radioactive material that emits ionizing radiation. c.a solid or semi-solid that is likely to violently rupture or detonate. d.a liquid that rapidly evaporates and expands into a gas or vapor.

See page 225 The correct answer is: behave as a gas.

If an incident involves a pressure container, any product released is likely to: Select one: a.detonate. b.sublimate. c.behave as a gas. d.behave as a solid.

Area Locations Of Hazardous Atmospheres (ALOHA)

If available, what resource is able to predict vapor cloud travel after responders' input, local data, and leak information?

See page 594 The correct answer is: attempting to change the environment.

If conditions in excess of IDLH are detected by monitoring during rescue operations, consider: Select one: a.beginning product control measures. b.creating additional response objectives. c.attempting to change the environment. d.adding additional personnel to the entry team.

Original plan must be reevaluated and possibly revised

If mitigation efforts are failing or the situation is getting worse, the:

See page 481 The correct answer is: a different decon method must be tried.

If monitoring determines that the selected method of decon is not working, then: Select one: a.victims should be hospitalized. b.decon attempts should be abandoned. c.a different decon method must be tried. d.a different type of monitor should be used.

See page 597 The correct answer is: directed to a safe haven or area of safe refuge.

If possible, ambulatory victims who are not in the line of sight should be: Select one: a.treated as victims with the highest priority. b.directed to a safe haven or area of safe refuge. c.told to move to the cold zone as quickly as possible. d.decontaminated in the area in which they were found.

See page 595 The correct answer is: within the warm zone

If possible, line-of-sight ambulatory victims should be directed to a safe haven or area of safe refuge _____ until a determination is made regarding the need for decontamination. Select one: a.within the hot zone b.within the warm zone c.outside of the warm zone d.outside of the incident area

See page 595 The correct answer is: require completely reestablishing the medical treatment area.

If rescued individuals contaminated with radioactive material were allowed to bypass decon and enter the medical treatment area, such a discovery would: Select one: a.immediately shut down all incident operations. b.reduce the hot and warm zone areas unnecessarily. c.require the victims to be interviewed by law enforcement. d.require completely reestablishing the medical treatment area.

See page 681 The correct answer is: rely on specially trained bomb technicians to search for and dismantle any booby traps.

If responders suspect or encounter a potential booby trap, they should: Select one: a.turn lab equipment on or off to dismantle any possible booby traps. b.allow as many experts as possible to observe the scene for booby traps. c.attempt to locate and dismantle the booby trap before technical experts arrive. d.rely on specially trained bomb technicians to search for and dismantle any booby traps.

See page 666 The correct answer is: it should be discarded.

If sampling equipment touches a non-sterile surface other than the sample itself: Select one: a.it should be discarded. b.it should become potential evidence. c.begin additional field screening procedures. d.label each sample carefully with a sample and seal number.

See page 512 The correct answer is: decontaminated.

If service canines are brought into the hot zone, they must be: Select one: a.isolated. b.destroyed. c.decontaminated. d.kept away from victims.

64 F (18 C)

If temperatures are _____ degrees or lower, consideration should be given to protecting victims from the cold.

See page 363 The correct answer is: notify law enforcement.

If terrorist activity is suspected at an incident, first responders must immediately: Select one: a.retreat. b.notify law enforcement. c.take public safety samples. d.attempt to restrain those responsible.

See page 509 The correct answer is: place some type of barrier to ensure confinement of an unintentional release.

If the decontamination site cannot be placed on terrain that slopes toward the hot zone, first responders may have to: Select one: a.perform brushing and scraping downwind of the hot zone. b.document all victims so that decon can be performed at a later date. c.forgo decontamination so that they do not spread the hazardous material. d.place some type of barrier to ensure confinement of an unintentional release.

See page 623 The correct answer is: protect exposure and let a fire burn until the fuel is consumed.

If the products of combustion present fewer hazards than the leaking chemical, the best course of action may be to: Select one: a.attempt to extinguish the fire immediately. b.dilute the chemical by applying copious amounts of water. c.contain the release of the chemical in its original container. d.protect exposure and let a fire burn until the fuel is consumed.

Stop the activity immediately

If the safety officer notices an unsafe activity at an emergency, the safety officer should:

Poses a minimal health risk

If the type of container located at a facility is a fiberboard drum, the firefighter should realize that the contents of the package:

See page 542 The correct answer is: Consider the possibility of instrument failure.

If unexpected readings are detected, what should you do? Select one: a.Ignore the results. b.Immediately evacuate all personnel. c.Consider the possibility of instrument failure. d.Contact the manufacturer of the monitoring device.

Technician level

If you are initiating the IMS at a hazmat incident, the person assigned as the Safety Officer should be trained to what level

See page 412-413 The correct answer is: illicit lab.

If you discover an occupancy where common materials (such as coffee filters, water bottles, coffee grinders, etc.) are being used in an unusual way, you might suspect a(an): Select one: a.illicit lab. b.gas leak. c.illegal hazmat dump. d.chronically ill patient.

See page 399 The correct answer is: phosgene, a choking agent.

If you smell freshly cut hay in an urban setting, you should suspect the presence of: Select one: a.Sarin, a nerve agent. b.phosgene, a choking agent. c.any of the riot control agents. d.hydrogen cyanide, a blood agent.

See page 386 The correct answer is: Clear and isolate the area.

If you suspect a suicide bomber, what is the first priority? Select one: a.Leave immediately. b.Apprehend the suspect. c.Clear and isolate the area. d.Warn the suspect not to move.

Green-bordered section

If, in using the ERG, a first responder discovers the entry for the material in question is highlighted and there is no fire involved, the first responder should go directly to the:

See page 414 The correct answer is: may occur in any jurisdiction.

Illegal hazmat dumps: Select one: a.are not hazmat incidents. b.may occur in any jurisdiction. c.do not require backup or PPE. d.are not considered emergencies.

See page 412 The correct answer is: extremely hazardous.

Illicit labs are generally: Select one: a.unprotected. b.not dangerous. c.extremely hazardous. d.found only in urban areas.

See page 533 The correct answer is: concentrations high enough to kill or cause serious injury or illness.

Immediately dangerous to life or health (IDLH) describes: Select one: a.concentrations at which most people are not adversely affected. b.concentrations high enough to kill or cause serious injury or illness. c.concentrations that should not be exceeded during 8-hour workdays. d.concentration of an ingested or injected substance that results in the death of 50 percent of the test population.

See page 654 The correct answer is: Release or attack with a WMD agent

Improvised nuclear devices are an example of what type of incident? Select one: a.Illicit drug laboratory b.Environmental crimes c.Suspicious letters and packages d.Release or attack with a WMD agent

B. Dangerous goods See page 11

In Canada, substances that possess harmful characteristics are called: A. Terrorist targets B. Dangerous goods C. Hazardous materials D. Weapons of mass destructions

A natural gas leak in an occupancy

In Level I incidents, the response team should be able to deal with:

a. gather information and attempt to understand the current situation. see page 16

In Step 1 of the APIE process, responders: Select one: a.gather information and attempt to understand the current situation. b.perform tasks determined in the planning stage and direct actions to mitigate the incident. c.use the information gathered to determine what actions need to be taken to mitigate the incident. d.monitor progress to see whether the response plan is working, and continue throughout the incident.

c. use the information gathered to determine what actions need to be taken to mitigate the incident. see page 16

In Step 2 of the APIE process, responders: Select one: a.gather information and attempt to understand the current situation. b.perform tasks determined in the planning stage and direct actions to mitigate the incident. c.use the information gathered to determine what actions need to be taken to mitigate the incident. d.monitor progress to see whether the response plan is working, and continue throughout the incident.

b. perform tasks determined in the planning stage and direct actions to mitigate the incident. see page 16

In Step 3 of the APIE process, responders: Select one: a.gather information and attempt to understand the current situation. b.perform tasks determined in the planning stage and direct actions to mitigate the incident. c.use the information gathered to determine what actions need to be taken to mitigate the incident. d.monitor progress to see whether the response plan is working, and continue throughout the incident.

d. monitor progress to see whether the response plan is working, and continue throughout the incident. See page 16

In Step 4 of the APIE process, responders: Select one: a.gather information and attempt to understand the current situation. b.perform tasks determined in the planning stage and direct actions to mitigate the incident. c.use the information gathered to determine what actions need to be taken to mitigate the incident. d.monitor progress to see whether the response plan is working, and continue throughout the incident.

See page 570 The correct answer is: remove contaminants that may interfere with the measurement.

In a colorimetric indicator tube, a preconditioning filter may precede the indicating chemical in order to: Select one: a.remove any traces of oxygen in the tube. b.increase the speed at which results are displayed. c.remove contaminants that may interfere with the measurement. d.allow the instrument to measure specific chemicals and groups of gases.

See page 183 The correct answer is: toxicity.

In addition to burning, all flammable and combustible liquids exhibit varying degrees of: Select one: a.toxicity. b.infectivity. c.corrosivity. d.fragmentation.

See page 200 The correct answer is: survey surrounding conditions.

In addition to identifying hazmat containers and their contents, first responders need to: Select one: a.survey surrounding conditions. b.call the manufacturer for backup. c.immediately search for any victims. d.refuse entry to local law enforcement.

CHEMTREC or the manufacturer

In an emergency at a facility with bulk chemical storage, where the MSDS is not available on site, the firefighter may obtain an MSDS from:

The facility preincident plan

In an emergency, responders can locate an MSDS from:

See page 598 The correct answer is: Pull in the direction of the long axis of the body

In an extreme emergency, how should rescuers move a victim with a possible spinal injury? Select one: a.Use a cradle carry b.Use a standard ambulance cot c.Pull in the direction of the long axis of the body d.Pull in the direction of the short axis of the body

A continuous water supply

In dealing with a haz mat fire involving bulk containers, extinguishment or control SHOULD NOT be attempted without:

See page 177 The correct answer is: most dangerous chemical and/or physical properties.

In general, a product's hazard class is assigned based on its: Select one: a.potential for use in terrorist attacks. b.ability to cause epidemics/pandemics. c.least dangerous chemical and/or physical properties. d.most dangerous chemical and/or physical properties.

Be more complex

In general, as compared to the standard emergency incident faced by a first responder, a Haz Mat incident will:

See page 630 The correct answer is: substantially less

In general, the application rate to control an unignited liquid spill is _____ than that required to extinguish a spill fire. Select one: a.slightly less b.slightly more c.substantially less d.substantially more

See page 448 The correct answer is: associated risks.

In general, the higher the level of PPE, the greater the: Select one: a.associated risks. b.media coverage. c.number of victims. d.amount of hazardous material.

Days, weeks, and months

In hazardous materials, one of the three time frames used for predicting the length of time that exposures may be in contact with a hazardous material in an endangered area is long term. Long term means:

Years and generations

In hazmat, one of the three time frames used for predicting the length of time that exposures may be in contact with a hazardous material in an endangered area is long term. Long term means:

Minutes and hours

In hazmat, one of the three time frames used for predicting the length of time that exposures may be in contact with a hazardous material in an endangered area is short term. Short term means:

cold zone

In most instances, triage will be conducted in the _____ after decontamination has been performed.

See page 314 The correct answer is: SOP/Gs.

In order to determine if PPE is adequate to perform a task at an incident, a first responder should reference: Select one: a.SOP/Gs. b.the IC's PPE. c.their last incident. d.local weather predictions.

Orange

In order to determine whether the PPE provided is appropriate for defensive operations, the ERG should be consulted. The section in which this information would be found is colored:

See page 702 The correct answer is: decrease exposure time, increase distance from the radiological source, and use appropriate shielding whenever possible.

In order to keep your exposure to radiological materials as low as reasonably achievable (ALARA), you should: Select one: a.increase exposure time, increase distance from the radiological source, and use appropriate PPE. b.decrease exposure time, decrease distance from the radiological source, and use appropriate PPE. c.increase exposure time, decrease distance from the radiological source, and use appropriate shielding whenever possible. d.decrease exposure time, increase distance from the radiological source, and use appropriate shielding whenever possible.

See page 636 The correct answer is: vapor space.

In order to prevent a BLEVE, responders should use a water stream to cool a tank's: Select one: a.shell. b.liquid space. c.vapor space. d.pressure relief valve.

See page 538 The correct answer is: at different heights in a room/area.

In order to properly determine concentrations of different gases, monitoring and detection equipment should be operated: Select one: a.for a few seconds at a time. b.at different heights in a room/area. c.on the same grade within a building. d.by several technicians at the same time.

See page 662 The correct answer is: use items such as barricades to alert personnel that potential evidence is present.

In order to protect suspected pieces of evidence, responders should: Select one: a.keep the evidence on their person at all times. b.move the evidence as quickly as possible from the scene. c.remove all personnel, including themselves, from the scene. d.use items such as barricades to alert personnel that potential evidence is present.

See page 339 The correct answer is: use a cornering/quartering staging procedure.

In order to spread out emergency response personnel and limit their exposure as a target, the IC may: Select one: a.establish multiple hot zones. b.require them to shelter in place. c.dispense with use of the buddy system. d.use a cornering/quartering staging procedure.

1. Apply no water 2. Chemical hazard 3. Wear protective mask or Breathing apparatus

In regards to U.S. Military Marking system for hazardous materials, what are the 3 special hazards?

See page 515 The correct answer is: evidentiary issues.

In some cases after decon, return of personal items may be a law enforcement function because of: Select one: a.exposure records. b.evidentiary issues. c.regulatory citations. d.chemical degradation.

Yellow and Blue-bordered sections

In the ERG, a first responder would expect to find the highlighted entries indicating that a material is either a toxic inhalation hazard or a dangerous water reactive material in the:

Red

In the NFPA 704 system of identification, the diamond-shaped placard used for fire hazard is always colored:

Yellow

In the NFPA 704 system, the quadrant dealing with reactivity is colored:

See page 703 The correct answer is: OSHA 1910.120.

In the U.S., SOP/Gs for illicit lab responders need to follow rules established by: Select one: a.NFPA 1001. b.ANSI Z535.4. c.OSHA 1910.120. d.U.N. Recommendations.

See page 654 The correct answer is: the Federal Bureau of Investigation.

In the U.S., if a crime is determined to be a terrorist attack, investigative authority shifts to: Select one: a.the Federal Bureau of Investigation. b.local law enforcement agencies. c.military explosive ordnance disposal (EOD) personnel. d.the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives.

See page 332 The correct answer is: National Response Framework (NRF).

In the U.S., the notification process is detailed in the: Select one: a.Incident Management System (IMS). b.National Response Framework (NRF). c.Memorandum of Understanding (MOU). d.National Incident Management System (NIMS).

Gasoline

In the UN/DOT Marking System, Hazard Class 3 includes what example of material?

d. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). See page 31

In the United States, responsibility for researching and setting national standards for environmental programs is the duty of the: Select one: a.Department of Labor (DOL). b.Department of Transportation (DOT). c.Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC). d.Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).

C. Hazardous materials See page 11

In the United States, substances that possess harmful characteristics are called: A. Terrorist targets B. Dangerous goods C. Hazardous materials D. Weapons of mass destructions

c. assigns primary responsibility for operational response to threat or acts of terrorism to the Federal Bureau of Investigation. See page 34

In the United States, the Department of Justice: Select one: a.provides coordinated comprehensive federal response to any large-scale crisis. b.oversees and enforces compliance with the Federal Hazardous Substances Act (FSHA). c.assigns primary responsibility for operational response to threat or acts of terrorism to the Federal Bureau of Investigation. d.protects the public's health, safety, and the environment from the effects of radiation from nuclear reactors, materials, and waste facilities.

a. Department of Labor (DOL). see page 31

In the United States, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is administered by the: Select one: a.Department of Labor (DOL). b.Department of Transportation (DOT). c.Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC). d.Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).

b. Department of Homeland Security (DHS). see page 31

In the United States, the agency concerned with preventing terrorist attacks and reducing the nation's vulnerability to terrorist attacks is the: Select one: a.Department of Energy (DOE). b.Department of Homeland Security (DHS). c.Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC). d.Department of Defense Explosives Safety Board (DDESB).

a.Department of Energy (DOE). see page 31

In the United States, the agency that manages national nuclear research and defense programs is called the: Select one: a.Department of Energy (DOE). b.Department of Homeland Security (DHS). c.Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC). d.Department of Defense Explosives Safety Board (DDESB).

c. Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC). see page 33

In the United States, the agency that oversees and enforces compliance with the Federal Hazardous Substance Act (FSHA) is the: Select one: a.Department of Energy (DOE). b.Department of Homeland Security (DHS). c.Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC). d.Department of Defense Explosives Safety Board (DDESB).

d. Department of Defense Explosives Safety Board (DDESB). See page 34

In the United States, the agency that provides oversight of explosives and chemical agents specific to DOD facilities worldwide is the: Select one: a.Department of Energy (DOE). b.Department of Homeland Security (DHS). c.Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC). d.Department of Defense Explosives Safety Board (DDESB).

c. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC). see page 31

In the United States, the civilian use of nuclear and radioactive materials is regulated by the: Select one: a.Department of Labor (DOL). b.Department of Transportation (DOT). c.Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC). d.Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).

b. Department of Transportation (DOT). see page 31

In the United States, transportation of hazardous materials via air, highway, pipeline, rail, or water is regulated by the: Select one: a.Department of Labor (DOL). b.Department of Transportation (DOT). c.Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC). d.Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).

Drug making

In the course of extinguishing a small fire in an unoccupied house, you discover the presence of chemicals and lab equipment, an indicator of possible illegal activity. According to statistics, the most likely illegal activity occurring is:

The sense of smell

In using the various clues for detecting the presence of hazardous materials, the use of _______________ would be considered the MOST dangerous.

Shipping papers Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) MSDS Sheets

In what reference materials can you find the 4 digit UN/DOT number assigned, given the product name?

See page 694 The correct answer is: Chemical agent lab

In what type of lab might phosphorus trichloride be found? Select one: a.Biological lab b.Explosives lab c.Radiological lab d.Chemical agent lab

See page 481 The correct answer is: Individuals may develop psychologically based symptoms even if they have not been exposed to harmful levels.

In what way does decontamination provide victims with psychological reassurance? Select one: a.Decontamination procedures can distract victims who may otherwise want to leave the area. b.Decontamination can make victims feel as though they are safer even when decon procedures have no effect. c.Individuals may develop psychologically based symptoms even if they have not been exposed to harmful levels. d.Decontamination procedures can provide responders with a task when they may otherwise feel helpless in aiding victims.

See page 463 The correct answer is: Avoid walking through and touching product whenever possible.

In what ways can a responder take steps to avoid contamination that may lead to exposure? Select one: a.Wear the appropriate level of PPE. b.Avoid walking through and touching product whenever possible. c.Decontaminate any PPE in the hot zone if contact with product is made. d.Never come into contact with the product regardless of the circumstances.

See page 338 The correct answer is: Cold zone

In which hazard control zone is the staging area located? Select one: a.Hot zone b.Cold zone c.Warm zone d.Command Zone

See page 338 The correct answer is: Cold zone

In which of the hazard-control zones are workers not required to wear PPE because the zone is considered safe? Select one: a.Hot zone b.Cold zone c.Warm zone d.Command zone

See page 593 The correct answer is: Risk assessment did not show any chemical hazards

In which situation would a unit leader NOT be required to don chemical protective equipment during a rescue operation? Select one: a.Operation requires several entry teams b.Entry team would not be in line of sight c.Incident requires a complex entry team operation d.Risk assessment did not show any chemical hazards

See page 702 The correct answer is: Radiological

In which type of lab might responders find dose meters? Select one: a.Bacterial b.Chemical c.Explosives d.Radiological

See page 461 The correct answer is: safety briefing

Incident status, identified hazards, and tasks to be performed should be communicated during the: Select one: a.size-up. b.safety briefing. c.hazards assessment. d.post-incident briefing.

See page 140 The correct answer is: gases

Incidents involving _____ are potentially the most dangerous for emergency responders. Select one: a.solids b.gases c.liquids d.frozen substances

See page 384 The correct answer is: mail showing oily stains or discoloration.

Indicators of a package or letter bomb include: Select one: a.small rectangular sizes. b.careful writing with correct spelling. c.mail showing oily stains or discoloration. d.postmarks that are the same as the return address.

See page 250 The correct answer is: compressed gas/tube trailers.

Individual steel cylinders stacked and mounted together are MOST likely to be: Select one: a.dry bulk cargo trailers. b.low pressure cargo tanks. c.corrosive liquid tank trucks. d.compressed gas/tube trailers.

immediately

Individuals who have been exposed to deadly levels of chemical agents should undergo emergency decon _____, regardless of ambient temperatures.

See page 466 The correct answer is: the organization's

Inspection of respiratory equipment and PPE should follow manufacturer's recommendations and _____ guidelines. Select one: a.EPA b.training c.international d.the organization's

See page 271 The correct answer is: provider shipping names stenciled on two sides.

Intermodal containers carrying hazardous materials must have: Select one: a.reinforced steel frames. b.easily reachable release valves. c.provider shipping names stenciled on two sides. d.contents stenciled in 6-inch (15 cm) high red letters.

Yes as long as they do not enter the product to shut off the valve.

Is remote valve shutoff allowed for operations personnel?

See page 599 The correct answer is: two or more rescuers

It is always better to have _____ when attempting to move an adult. Select one: a.two or more rescuers b.four or more rescuers c.extrication hand tools d.extrication power tools

High pressure

Large tanks with hemispherical heads on both ends can be identified as:

Branch

Largest sub-command, greatest capability for controlling personnel and responsible for groups and divisions

See page 618 The correct answer is: containment.

Leak control is often referred to as: Select one: a.suppression. b.confinement. c.containment. d.neutralization.

See page 677 The correct answer is: inhaled

Lethal concentration is the concentration of an _____ substance that results in the death of the entire test population. Select one: a.inhaled b.injected c.ingested d.absorbed

See page 447 The correct answer is: typical work uniforms, street clothing, or coveralls.

Level D PPE consists of: Select one: a.typical work uniforms, street clothing, or coveralls. b.hooded chemical resistant clothing and full-face or half-mask APRs. c.typical work uniforms, street clothing, or coveralls with the addition of a half-mask APR. d.hooded chemical resistant clothing and positive-pressure, full facepiece, SCBA, or positive-pressure respirator with escape SCBA.

A specialist from an industrial and/or governmental team

Level III incidents often require the technical expertise of __________ to be brought in for appropriate handling of such an incident

See page 657 The correct answer is: Operational

Life safety objectives are met and the scene is stabilized and secured in which response phase? Select one: a.Tactical b.Operational c.Crime scene d.Remediation

See page 293 The correct answer is: a continual evaluation.

Like size-up, hazard and risk assessment is: Select one: a.often a formality. b.a continual evaluation. c.unique to hazmat incidents. d.completed before plan implementation.

See page 146 The correct answer is: boiling

Liquid changes to a gas at the _____ point. Select one: a.flash b.boiling c.freezing d.sublimation

Poisonous Materials

Liquid or solid substances that emit toxic, dangerous, and irritating fumes are known as:

See page 142 The correct answer is: visible.

Liquids may be easier than gases to detect because they are usually: Select one: a.frozen. b.visible. c.colored. d.scented.

MSDS

Local emergency response personnel can gain valuable information if the ____ is utilized in preincident planning

avoided (unless the sewer system is approved for use as a contained system that can be managed and neutralized)

Locating a decontamination site near storm and sewer drains, creeks, ponds, ditches, and other waterways should be _____

See page 243 The correct answer is: large hemispherical heads on both ends.

MC-331 cargo tanks typically have bolted manways, inlet and outlet valves, and: Select one: a.multiple compartments. b.black, heat-absorbing paint. c.large hemispherical heads on both ends. d.large bulky double shelling and heavy insulation.

See page 245 The correct answer is: large bulky double shelling and heavy insulation.

MC-338 cryogenic tank trucks typically have relief valves and: Select one: a.multiple compartments. b.black, heat-absorbing paint. c.large hemispherical heads on both ends. d.large bulky double shelling and heavy insulation.

6.1

MOST riot control agents are considered to be in DOT hazard class:

See page 497 The correct answer is: a simple water shower system.

Mass decon can most readily and effectively be accomplished with: Select one: a.dry methods. b.neutralization. c.absorption and adsorption. d.a simple water shower system.

high volume, low pressure

Mass decon showers should use a _____, _____ of water delivered in a fog pattern to ensure the showering process physically removes the hazardous material.

d. mission-specific tasks with specialized competencies. see page 20

Mass decontamination, product control, and victim rescue and recovery are examples of: Select one: a.freelancing. b.Awareness level responsibilities. c.tasks that all first responders must perform. d.mission-specific tasks with specialized competencies.

See page 658 The correct answer is: transient

Material that will lose its evidentiary value if it is unpreserved or unprotected is called _____ evidence. Select one: a.direct b.forensic c.transient d.circumstantial

Carcinogens

Materials such as benzene, asbestos, and arsenic are known as:

Radioactive

Materials that emit ionizing radiation are called _______ materials

D. radioactive

Materials that emit ionizing radiation are called __________ materials? A. lethal-concentration B. negative-ion C. synesgeous D. radioactive

See page 531 The correct answer is: concentration.

Materials that responders might inhale are measured as: Select one: a.dose. b.millimeters. c.concentration. d.oxygen percentage.

See page 151 The correct answer is: sink in water.

Materials with a specific gravity greater than one will: Select one: a.BLEVE. b.sink in water. c.float in water. d.mix with water.

See page 145 The correct answer is: 760

Materials with a vapor pressure over _____ mmHg will be gases under normal conditions. Select one: a.7 b.76 c.760 d.7600

See page 459 The correct answer is: as established by organization guidelines.

Medical monitoring at a hazmat/WMD incident should be conducted: Select one: a.after the incident. b.before the incident. c.only if SCBA is worn. d.as established by organization guidelines.

See page 198 The correct answer is: Class 9

Miscellaneous hazardous materials such as elevated temperature material or marine pollutants go in what Hazard Class? Select one: a.Class 6 b.Class 7 c.Class 8 d.Class 9

See page 455 The correct answer is: heat emergencies.

Most PPE inhibits the body's ability to disperse heat and moisture, which can lead to: Select one: a.cold emergencies. b.heat emergencies. c.psychological issues. d.increased energy and endurance.

See page 177 The correct answer is: body fluids.

Most diseases are spread via contact with: Select one: a.toxicity. b.rickettsias. c.body fluids. d.radioactive substances.

See page 151 The correct answer is: specific gravities less than one.

Most flammable liquids will float on water because they have: Select one: a.high solubility. b.high miscibility. c.specific gravities less than one. d.specific gravities greater than one.

See page 149 The correct answer is: density

Most gases have a vapor _____ greater than one and will sink in relation to ambient air. Select one: a.point b.density c.pressure d.temperature

See page 183 The correct answer is: Class 3

Most hazmat incidents, such as gasoline and diesel fuel spills, involve which type of hazard class? Select one: a.Class 3 b.Class 4 c.Class 5 d.Class 6

See page 337 The correct answer is: multiple devices or release points.

Multiple hot zones or a very large hot zone may be required at an incident with: Select one: a.more than one IC. b.interstate agencies. c.multiple contaminants. d.multiple devices or release points.

Heat stress

Muscle cramps in legs and abdomen are symptoms of what thermal emergency?

See page 393 The correct answer is: burn and blister the skin or any other part of the body they contact.

Mustard agents and arsenical vesicants: Select one: a.attack and cause tissue damage to lungs. b.kill quickly by attacking the nervous system. c.burn and blister the skin or any other part of the body they contact. d.prevent red blood cells from carrying oxygen to other cells in the body.

4

NFPA 704 number that is greatest hazard

0

NFPA number associated with the least hazard

See page 392 The correct answer is: are liquids at ambient temperatures.

Nerve agents: Select one: a.have a pungent unique odor. b.attack the cardiovascular system. c.are liquids at ambient temperatures. d.are absorbed only through the respiratory system.

See page 609 The correct answer is: defensive spill-control tactics aimed at reducing the amount of harm a material causes.

Neutralization and vapor dispersion are: Select one: a.offensive spill-control tactics aimed at stopping the release of a hazardous material. b.defensive spill-control tactics aimed at confining spilled hazardous materials. c.offensive spill-control tactics aimed at confining spilled hazardous materials. d.defensive spill-control tactics aimed at reducing the amount of harm a material causes.

See page 702 The correct answer is: radiological lab.

Neutron shielding materials, such as paraffin wax, would likely be found in a(an): Select one: a.biological lab. b.explosives lab. c.radiological lab. d.chemical agent lab.

See page 597 The correct answer is: carts and buggies.

Non-ambulatory victims can be moved using rescue equipment such as: Select one: a.tool boxes. b.excavators. c.carts and buggies. d.struts and buttresses.

See page 303 The correct answer is: the only safe strategy in many types of incidents.

Nonintervention operations, or not taking any direct action at an incident, is: Select one: a.always the safest course of action. b.a poor strategy and used as a last resort. c.the only safe strategy in many types of incidents. d.the best strategy when mitigation is successful and straightforward.

See page 618 The correct answer is: Technician

Normally, personnel trained below the _____ level do not perform leak control. Select one: a.Technician b.Awareness c.Operations d.Incident Commander

See page 505 The correct answer is: after all viable victims have been removed.

Normally, removal of deceased victims from the hot zone will occur: Select one: a.before the medical examiner arrives. b.only after any media has left the scene. c.before viable victims have been removed. d.after all viable victims have been removed.

Critique

Not to be used as a blame session but should serve as a way to improve operations from lessons learned, should be attended by all responders plus a critique leader

a. worker safety. see page 31

OSHA issues (and enforces) regulations relating to: Select one: a.worker safety. b.incident management systems. c.international nuclear weapons storage. d.transportation of nonhazardous materials.

SCBA and structural firefighter's protective clothing

Of the 62 guides found in the orange-bordered section of the ERG, only two, Guides 161 and 162 (low level and low to moderate level radiation) list ________ as providing adequate protection for first responders

The MSDS

Of the references listed below, the MOST SPECIFIC source of information on a hazardous material is/are:

See page 667 The correct answer is: handle only clean equipment and provide it to the sampler when needed.

Of the two individuals recommended for a sampling team, the assistant will generally: Select one: a.perform emergency decontamination. b.oversee and monitor the documentation process. c.take the samples and handle all sample equipment. d.handle only clean equipment and provide it to the sampler when needed.

See page 306 The correct answer is: sometimes beyond the scope of responsibilities of first responders and require highly trained personnel.

Offensive operations are: Select one: a.those in which responders will never come into contact with the material. b.sometimes beyond the scope of responsibilities of first responders and require highly trained personnel. c.the best strategy in certain types of incidents when mitigation is failing or otherwise impossible. d.those in which responders seek to confine the emergency to a given area without directly contacting the hazardous materials involved.

UN Hazard Class

On a placard, the number at the bottom of the diamond indicates the:

Pest control number

On pesticide labels for materials originating in Canada, the product will have a ________ which is similar to the EPA registration number in the US.

See page 531 The correct answer is: determine whether the materials on scene have sufficient concentrations or doses to make them hazardous to responders.

Once responders know the actual concentration or dose of the materials on scene, they can: Select one: a.choose the most appropriate extinguishing agent. b.explain to victims their possible acute, chronic, and latent health hazards. c.establish an appropriate Incident Command system and set up a mobile Command Post. d.determine whether the materials on scene have sufficient concentrations or doses to make them hazardous to responders.

Have the Safety Officer review the incident action plan

Once the Safety Officer arrives on the scene, the Incident Commander should:

That it permits extended operations

One advantage of using Level A PPE with Supplied Air Respirators (Type 3) and a vapor-protective suit is:

See page 141 The correct answer is: displace oxygen, creating an asphyxiating atmosphere.

One danger of gases is that they can: Select one: a.sublimate. b.present a splash hazard. c.displace oxygen, creating an asphyxiating atmosphere. d.rapidly contract when heated, causing container damage.

See page 555 The correct answer is: responders must be in close proximity to the material in order to use them.

One limitation of test strips for oxidizers is that: Select one: a.the strips are expensive and have a short shelf life. b.the strips must be wetted with distilled water before use. c.responders must be in close proximity to the material in order to use them. d.responders must wait several minutes before the strips will show a reading.

See page 487 The correct answer is: can harm the environment.

One of the disadvantages of emergency decontamination is that it: Select one: a.is fast to implement. b.can harm the environment. c.requires minimal equipment. d.requires a formal decon corridor.

A change in wind direction

One of the factors that can change the evacuation area is:

Accountability System

One of the most important functions of an incident management system is______________

Isolate the area

One of the roles of the first responders at the awareness level during a hazmat incident is to:

Respiratory

One of the symptoms of poisonous gases such as chlorine and anhydrous ammonia is severe irritation to the __________ system

See page 310 The correct answer is: inherent

One principle of risk-based response is that activities that are routinely employed to protect property shall be recognized as _____ risks to the safety of members. Select one: a.inherent b.unknown c.significant d.unacceptable

See page 616 The correct answer is: spread a hazardous material over a wide area.

One problem associated with dispersion is that it can: Select one: a.only control small, shallow liquid spills. b.spread a hazardous material over a wide area. c.only be accomplished by creating a foam blanket. d.not be used on hydrocarbon spills such as oceanic crude oil.

See page 617 The correct answer is: adding too much of a neutralizer can cause pH to shift in the opposite direction.

One problem associated with neutralization is that: Select one: a.neutralizers themselves are often toxic. b.it may spread the material over a wide area. c.adding too much of a neutralizer can cause pH to shift in the opposite direction. d.the instrument used to neutralize a substance maintains the substance's corrosivity.

DOT ERG book

One resource that deals with protective action distances involving poisonous gas, is the :

Organic peroxide

One type of hazardous material that may be shock sensitive is:

See page 683 The correct answer is: refrain from handling, touching, or moving items in or around the lab.

One way responders can attempt to avoid booby traps is to: Select one: a.turn off lab equipment that might present hazards. b.bring unfamiliar equipment to subject matter experts. c.refrain from handling, touching, or moving items in or around the lab. d.have as many personnel as possible search the lab for potential hazards.

See page 423 The correct answer is: positive-pressure

Only _____ open-circuit or closed-circuit SCBA is allowed in incidents where personnel are exposed to hazardous materials. Select one: a.chemical b.nonpowered c.positive-pressure d.pressure-demand

Nonintervention Operation

Operations in which responders take no direct actions on the actual problem

d. protect individuals, environment, and property from effects of the release in a primarily defensive manner. see page 18

Operations level responders are expected to: Select one: a.assume control of the incident and delegate resources. b.perform mission-specific tasks that fit into the APIE process. c.identify needed resources and personnel and request them from dispatch. d.protect individuals, environment, and property from effects of the release in a primarily defensive manner.

D. May be trained beyond core competencies to preform additional defensive tasks and limited offensive actions See page 14

Operations mission-specific personnel: A. Are typically at the scene or incident when it occurs B. Provide addition expertise in areas such as radiation C. Are dispatched to the scene in order to mitigate the incident D. May be trained beyond core competencies to preform additional defensive tasks and limited offensive actions

C. Are dispatched to the scene in order to mitigate the incident

Operations-core responders: A. Are typically at the scene or incident when it occurs B. Provide addition expertise in areas such as radiation C. Are dispatched to the scene in order to mitigate the incident D. May be trained beyond core competencies to preform additional defensive tasks and limited offensive actions

C. Are dispatched to the scene in order to mitigate the incident See page 14

Operations-core responders: A. Are typically at the scene or incident when it occurs B. Provide addition expertise in areas such as radiation C. Are dispatched to the scene in order to mitigate the incident D. May be trained beyond core competencies to preform additional defensive tasks and limited offensive actions

See page 189 The correct answer is: reactive.

Organic peroxides are both an oxidizer and a fuel, making them very: Select one: a.stable. b.reactive. c.corrosive. d.radioactive.

See page 414 The correct answer is: natural disasters.

Orphaned hazardous materials may be an issue during terrorist attacks and: Select one: a.natural disasters. b.training exercises. c.legal hazmat dumps. d.in medical occupations.

See page 200 The correct answer is: potential site hazards.

Overhead power lines, highway traffic, and rail lines are examples of: Select one: a.unavoidable risks. b.variables to eliminate. c.potential site hazards. d.potential ignition sources.

Level C Protection

PPE that is used when the type of airborne substance is known, the concentration is measured, the criteria for using ARPs are met, and skin and eye exposure is unlikely.

Level A Protection

PPE that provides protection against vapors, gases, mists, and even dusts. (Totally-encapsulating)

Excepted

Packaging used for transport with extremely low levels of radioactivity that present no risk to the public or environment is known as:

See page 665 The correct answer is: elimination of knowns.

Part of public safety sampling includes hazard characterization, which is the: Select one: a.elimination of knowns. b.identification of knowns. c.elimination of unknowns. d.identification of unknowns.

See page 149 The correct answer is: delayed symptoms that include pulmonary edema and coughing up blood.

Partially water-soluble chemicals will penetrate into the lower respiratory system and cause: Select one: a.sudden gastrointestinal distress. b.itching, scratching, and bloody skin lesions. c.immediate symptoms such as coughing and throat irritations. d.delayed symptoms that include pulmonary edema and coughing up blood.

See page 428 The correct answer is: asbestos.

Particulate-removing filters on APRs are used to protect the user from materials such as: Select one: a.asbestos. b.carbon monoxide. c.low oxygen atmospheres. d.fireground gases and smoke.

See page 533 The correct answer is: concentration

Parts per million (ppm) is an example of a unit used to express the _____ of a substance. Select one: a.volume b.viscosity c.surface area d.concentration

Fluid in lungs

Pepper spray is considered an irritant. What IS NOT a symptom of an irritant exposure?

See page 254 The correct answer is: 1 mile (16. km).

Per the ERG, the initial isolation zone for a pressure tank car involved in fire is: Select one: a.30 feet (10 m). b.1/3 mile (500 m). c.1 mile (16. km). d.2 miles (3 km).

See page 467 The correct answer is: patterns about equipment that require excessive maintenance or is susceptible to failure.

Periodically reviewing records of all PPE inspection, testing, and maintenance procedures is MOST likely to show: Select one: a.which PPE takes too long to don properly. b.which PPE individual responders prefer to use. c.patterns about equipment that require excessive maintenance or is susceptible to failure. d.patterns about which type of PPE the manufacturer recommends for specific hazardous materials.

Degradation

Physical damage from a chemical best defines:

MSDS

Physical data, chemical name, exposure limits, health hazard data, and special precautions are all parts of the:

Emotions/stress

Physical stresses that can affect users of specialized protective clothing DO NOT include:

B

Pipe-like packaging of radioactive materials is done in steel reinforced concrete casks, lead pipes, or heavy gauge metal drums. This packaging is considered to be Type:

Complete dam

Placed across a small stream or ditch, completely stops flow of material

Powdered materials

Pneumatically unloaded hopper cars typically carry:

See page 192 The correct answer is: toxic

Poisonous materials are known to be _____ to humans. Select one: a.toxic b.corrosive c.infectious d.not dangerous

Health (blue)

Position 1 is the information and degree of hazard relating to a chemical's:

Flammability (red)

Position 2 is the information and degree of hazard relating to a chemical's:

Reactivity (yellow)

Position 3 is the information and degree of hazard relating to a chemical's:

Special information (white)

Position 4 is the information and degree of hazard relating to a chemical's:

How to plug a leak

Prior to allowing responders to act, they should be briefed on all of the following except:

See page 593 The correct answer is: must be established.

Prior to any entry of PPE-equipped personnel into hazardous zones, such as those during rescue operations, a decontamination station: Select one: a.should be planned. b.must be considered. c.must be established. d.should be disassembled.

Diking or remote closing a valve

Prior to entry into a confined space, defensive actions taken should include:

incident command system

Priorities for a radiological or nuclear terrorist incident are accomplished through the _____ and by following local/jurisdictional procedures.

See page 504 The correct answer is: within the local emergency response plan.

Procedures for conducting triage during decontamination operations of victims should be determined: Select one: a.once the ICM has been established. b.within the local emergency response plan. c.in the hot zone as soon as a victim is identified. d.in the warm zone, once all victims are assembled.

See page 466 The correct answer is: before and after use or exposure.

Procedures for inspection, testing, and maintenance are needed upon initial receipt of personal protective equipment and: Select one: a.after decommission. b.the end of each shift. c.half way through any incident. d.before and after use or exposure.

delayed health effects

Provide exposed persons with as much information as possible about the _____ of the hazardous materials involved in the incident.

acclimate to the temperature

Provide warm water for washing, if possible. If water is cold, allow victims to gradually get wet in order to _____ and avoid cold shock.

See page 618 The correct answer is: gasoline and natural gas fuels.

Provided they have appropriate training, equipment, and PPE, Operations level responders can take offensive actions, like leak control, in situations involving: Select one: a.chlorine. b.anhydrous ammonia. c.radioactive materials. d.gasoline and natural gas fuels.

Logistics

Provides for services and support needs of operating resources

300-400 degrees F

Proximity gear allows the wearer in close proximity to a burning liquid. It offers protection for temperatures up to:

See page 664 The correct answer is: classify

Public safety sampling is performed to _____ potentially hazardous materials at suspicious incidents. Select one: a.classify b.control c.transport d.decontaminate

Alpha

Radiation that can be stopped by a piece of paper consists of _________ particles

See page 274 The correct answer is: Type A

Radiopharmaceuticals are shipped in what type of packaging? Select one: a.Type A b.Type B c.Excepted d.Industrial

See page 533 The correct answer is: material in the atmosphere.

Rather than providing concentrations of specific materials, some meters will instead provide the percentage of a: Select one: a.material in water. b.material's dosage. c.material's toxicity. d.material in the atmosphere.

Post-incident Analysis

Reconstruct the incident and establish a timeline of actions taken to mitigate a situation, done by administrative personnel, who also serve as contacts for the private sector

See page 351 The correct answer is: evaluating progress.

Recovery actions and deciding when to withdraw are part of: Select one: a.evaluating progress. b.analyzing the incident. c.planning the initial response. d.implementing the action plan.

See page 599 The correct answer is: the victim is determined or presumed to be dead.

Recovery operations occur when: Select one: a.law enforcement arrives on scene. b.victim rescue is the highest priority. c.only non-ambulatory victims remain. d.the victim is determined or presumed to be dead.

See page 599 The correct answer is: Law enforcement

Recovery operations should be coordinated by the Incident Commander along with what other agencies? Select one: a.Public works b.Law enforcement c.Disaster relief agencies d.Federal public health agencies

Mass detonation

Referring to the US Military Marking System for Hazardous Materials, an octagon-shaped placard with a #1 on it denotes a:

#3 in a triangle

Referring to the US Military Marking System for Hazardous Materials, the symbol for a mass fire hazard is:

See page 458 The correct answer is: cold emergencies.

Rehabbing in a warm area and avoiding cold beverages can help prevent: Select one: a.heat stress. b.claustrophobia. c.cold emergencies. d.psychological issues.

The emergency decontamination process

Removal of contaminated victims that are in need of medical treatment from the hazard area requires:

See page 483 The correct answer is: may be an effective method of decon.

Removal of the contaminated outer clothing or PPE: Select one: a.should not be done. b.will spread the contamination. c.may be an effective method of decon. d.will never be an effective method of decon.

See page 271 The correct answer is: railroad tank car markings.

Reporting marks, capacity stencil, and specification markings are types of North American: Select one: a.facility placards. b.highway placards. c.barge shipping markings. d.railroad tank car markings.

See page 594 The correct answer is: rescuers typically start at the incident's outer edges.

Rescue priorities at hazmat incidents may differ from other emergency incidents because at hazmat incidents: Select one: a.rescuers must act much more quickly. b.more severely injured victims are rescued first. c.rescuers typically start at the incident's outer edges. d.rescue operations do not occur if a leak is confirmed.

See page 430-431 The correct answer is: that incorporates a facepiece can reduce visibility.

Respiratory equipment: Select one: a.is always certified by NIOSH. b.does not require training to use. c.is not worn at hazmat/WMD incidents. d.that incorporates a facepiece can reduce visibility.

After each use

Respiratory protective equipment should be cleaned and inspected:

See page 544 The correct answer is: firefighter protective equipment with SCBA.

Responders at hazmat incidents involving hazardous solids will typically be sufficiently protected when using: Select one: a.latex gloves and eye protection. b.liquid splash-protective clothing. c.encapsulating vapor-protective suits. d.firefighter protective equipment with SCBA.

Shipping papers

Responders can contact the shipper directly from the emergency contact number on the:

See page 708 The correct answer is: law enforcement tactical teams

Responders must coordinate decontamination procedures with _____ to resolve potential issues, such as considerations of scene/perimeter, resources, and equipment. Select one: a.suspects or witnesses b.Awareness level personnel c.law enforcement tactical teams d.environmental protection officials

See page 708 The correct answer is: local, state, and federal agency policies concerning the remediation of illicit drug/WMD scenes.

Responders should become familiar with: Select one: a.military policies concerning the remediation of illicit drug/WMD scenes. b.every possible hazard concerning the remediation of illicit drug and explosives lab scenes. c.the United Nations' policies concerning the remediation of illicit drug and explosives lab scenes. d.local, state, and federal agency policies concerning the remediation of illicit drug/WMD scenes.

See page 551 The correct answer is: hydrogen fluoride is extremely corrosive, toxic, and highly reactive.

Responders should test for fluoride in situations involving unidentified or unknown hazardous materials because: Select one: a.hydrogen fluoride is present at most hazmat incidents. b.fluorides, like hydrogen fluoride, are difficult to identify. c.hydrogen fluoride is extremely corrosive, toxic, and highly reactive. d.the presence of fluorides means more reactive substances will be present.

See page 617 The correct answer is: decontamination operations.

Responders use dilution more frequently when dealing with: Select one: a.corrosive vapor. b.terrorist attacks. c.hydrocarbon spills. d.decontamination operations.

See page 612 The correct answer is: adsorbents.

Responders usually use organic-based materials, such as activated charcoal or carbon, as: Select one: a.adsorbents. b.absorbents. c.neutralizers. d.vapor suppressants.

See page 612-613 The correct answer is: adsorbents.

Responders usually use organic-based materials, such as activated charcoal or carbon, as: Select one: a.adsorbents. b.absorbents. c.neutralizers. d.vapor suppressants.

See page 310 The correct answer is: broad statements; specific operations

Response objectives are _____ of what must be done to resolve an incident, while action options are _____ that must be done in order to accomplish those goals. Select one: a.list of actions; risk assessments b.risk assessments; hazard mitigations c.specific operations; broad statements d.broad statements; specific operations

See page 310 The correct answer is: broad statements of what must be done to resolve an incident.

Response objectives are: Select one: a.inherent risks that must be avoided. b.designed to maximize environmental and property damage. c.broad statements of what must be done to resolve an incident. d.specific operations that must be done in order to accomplish a goal.

See page 309 The correct answer is: immediate hazards

Risk-based response starts with a thorough size-up and identifying the _____ so that decisions can be made in a logical and educated manner. Select one: a.specific product b.immediate hazards c.secondary exposures d.product control techniques

See page 308 The correct answer is: should be used for hazardous materials incidents.

Risk-based response: Select one: a.is used only for rescue missions. b.should be used for hazardous materials incidents. c.is a hierarchy of decisions used to identify unknown materials. d.aims to provide responders with as much supplementary information as possible.

See page 557 The correct answer is: exposure to gamma and x-ray radiation.

Roentgen® is a unit used to measure: Select one: a.exposure to gamma and x-ray radiation. b.the percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere. c.the amount of radiation absorbed by a material. d.the absorbed dose equivalence as pertaining to a human body.

See page 246 The correct answer is: Low pressure

Rounded or horseshoe-shaped ends are features associated with which type of tank trucks? Select one: a.Cryogenic b.Intermodal c.Nonpressure d.Low pressure

See page 289 The correct answer is: predetermined procedures.

SOP/Gs are part of: Select one: a.a response procedure. b.predetermined procedures. c.risk-based response models. d.the incident action plan (IAP).

Group

Same size as a division, based on function, not tied to a geographic location

The correct answer is: render etiological contaminants harmless.

Sanitization, disinfection, and sterilization are processes that: Select one: a.change the pH of a corrosive. b.render contaminants harmless by isolation. c.flush contaminants from surfaces using water. d.render etiological contaminants harmless.

See page 486 The correct answer is: chemical

Sanitization, neutralization, and solidification are methods of _____ decon. Select one: a.dry b.wet c.physical d.chemical

See page 393 The correct answer is: nerve

Sarin (GB) and Soman (GD) are examples of _____ agents. Select one: a.blood b.nerve c.blister d.choking

The terrorist may be on the scene waiting for responders to arrive before striking again

Scene control at a terrorism incident may present unique challenges for the responders. In particular, responders must be aware that:

See page 335 The correct answer is: hazard-control zones.

Scene control at an incident is greatly facilitated by the establishment of: Select one: a.law enforcement. b.hazard-control zones. c.public safety sampling. d.interdepartmental MOUs.

See page 597 The correct answer is: triage.

Screening and classification of sick or injured persons to determine medical priority needs is called: Select one: a.triage. b.victim recovery. c.decontamination. d.rescue operations.

See page 368 The correct answer is: affect an ongoing emergency response.

Secondary devices are often designed to: Select one: a.warn first responders. b.neutralize terrorist suspects. c.affect an ongoing emergency response. d.go off at the same time as primary attacks.

d. hazardous materials and/or wastes. see page 35

Secretaría de Medico Ambiente y Recursos Naturales (SEMARNAT) is one of the three main Mexican agencies involved in regulating: Select one: a.fireground equipment. b.property mineral rights. c.technical rescue PPE requirements. d.hazardous materials and/or wastes.

Atmosphere supplied device

Self-contained breathing apparatus and supplied air respirators are two types of:

Atmosphere supplied devices

Self-contained breathing apparatus and supplied air respirators, are two types of:

True

Sheltering-in place is a method of safeguarding people in a hazardous area by keeping them in a safe atmosphere, usually inside structures

Air bill; in the cargo compartment

Shipping papers are referred to as _________ and usually stored _______________, in air transport

See page 297 The correct answer is: interpreting signs and clues and predicting outcomes.

Situational awareness can BEST be described as: Select one: a.incident size-up. b.making decisions with limited information. c.classifying incidents based on size and scope. d.interpreting signs and clues and predicting outcomes.

See page 364 The correct answer is: two or more medical emergencies in public locations.

Situations that can cue the responder to consider the possibility of terrorist attack include: Select one: a.an explosion in a rural area. b.a severe flu outbreak in winter. c.one person diagnosed with an unusual disease. d.two or more medical emergencies in public locations.

Division

Smaller command, sub command based on geographic locations

See page 695 The correct answer is: shrapnel-type materials and ammunition.

Some indicators of an explosives lab are: Select one: a.incubators and centrifuges. b.pseudoephedrine and iodine crystals. c.shrapnel-type materials and ammunition. d.radiopharmaceuticals and lantern mantles.

See page 652 The correct answer is: booby traps.

Some of the hazards unique to crime scenes include: Select one: a.explosions. b.booby traps. c.confined spaces. d.reactive substances.

See page 684 The correct answer is: methamphetamines.

Some of the most common and hazardous illicit labs found in the U.S. produce: Select one: a.LSD. b.heroin. c.phencyclidine (PCP). d.methamphetamines.

See page 704 The correct answer is: before an illicit laboratory is found.

Specific jurisdictional situations involving illicit laboratories should be identified: Select one: a.after an illicit laboratory is found. b.at the scene of an illicit laboratory. c.before an illicit laboratory is found. d.by whoever arrives at the scene first.

Tactical Objectives

Specific operations that must be accomplished to achieve strategic goals

See page 607 The correct answer is: reduce the amount of contact the product makes with people, property, and the environment.

Spill control tactics attempt to: Select one: a.spill hazardous materials in a carefully controlled manner. b.remediate spilled hazardous materials from contaminated exposures. c.contain the product in its original container (or another) and prevent it from escaping. d.reduce the amount of contact the product makes with people, property, and the environment.

defensive operation

Spill-control is primarily a _________operation with the most important issue being the safety of the first responders performing these actions

See page 186 The correct answer is: Class 4

Spontaneously Combustible Materials" and "Dangerous When Wet" are divisions of which hazard class? Select one: a.Class 3 b.Class 4 c.Class 5 d.Class 6

See page 200 The correct answer is: potential ignition sources.

Static electricity, internal combustion engines, and heated surfaces are examples of: Select one: a.unavoidable risks. b.variables to eliminate. c.potential site hazards. d.potential ignition sources.

D. Highway

Statistics indicate that the most transportation hazmat incidents occur via: A. Air B. Rail C. Water D. High way

D. Highway See page 39

Statistics indicate that the most transportation hazmat incidents occur via: A. Air B. Rail C. Water D. High way

Nonintervention strategy

Strategies are divided into three options that relate to modes of operation: This strategies allow the incident to run its course on its own

See page 549 The correct answer is: oxidizers and organic peroxides.

Stripped or bleached pH paper likely indicates: Select one: a.neutral materials. b.especially corrosive acids. c.especially corrosive bases. d.oxidizers and organic peroxides.

See page 144 The correct answer is: solid to a gas.

Sublimation occurs when a material transitions directly from a: Select one: a.solid to a gas. b.gas to a solid. c.gas to a liquid. d.solid to a liquid.

Hazardous Materials

Substances or materials in quantities or forms that may pose an unreasonable risk to health, safety, or property when transported, stored, or used in commerce

Hypergolic

Substances that ignite when combined create a _________ reaction

See page 301 The correct answer is: specialists from industry and governmental agencies.

Successful handling of a Level III incident requires a collective effort, including unique outside resources such as: Select one: a.mutual aid fire departments. b.emergency medical services. c.local law enforcement agencies. d.specialists from industry and governmental agencies.

Stroke

Symptoms of heat ___________ include little or no sweating; hot, dry, red, skin; deep, then shallow breathing; and rapid pulse

True

T/F Should the command post be able o view the scene if possible

See page 252 The correct answer is: rail.

Tank cars carry the bulk of the hazardous materials transported by: Select one: a.air. b.rail. c.sea. d.road.

See page 494 The correct answer is: ambulatory

Technical decon corridors are typically designed for _____ persons. Select one: a.ambulatory b.nonambulatory c.critically injured d.a large number of

See page 489 The correct answer is: within a formal decon line or corridor.

Technical decon is usually conducted: Select one: a.at the hospital. b.in the hot zone. c.far away from the hot zone. d.within a formal decon line or corridor.

See page 488 The correct answer is: on responders' PPE and equipment.

Technical decon would MOST likely be used: Select one: a.on apparatus. b.once the incident has concluded. c.on responders' PPE and equipment. d.on victims in life-threatening situations.

See page 362 The correct answer is: have an emotional effect on the target population.

Terrorist organizations plan activities that will: Select one: a.further rational discourse. b.impact the fewest people. c.assist in a peaceful transition of power. d.have an emotional effect on the target population.

See page 361 The correct answer is: civilians are present.

Terrorists deliberately target locations where: Select one: a.civilians are present. b.there is little infrastructure. c.damage is likely to go unnoticed. d.few people are likely to be injured.

Health and Fire/Explosion

The 2 types of potential hazards found in each guide of the Emergency Response Guidebook

UN product identification number

The 4-digit number appearing on a placard or an orange panel of a tank car is the :

Hazard and risk evaluation implementing response objectives

The 8-step process recommended for assessing a haz mat incident includes:

See page 170 The correct answer is: shielding

The ALARA principle uses time, distance, and _____ to limit exposure to radiation. Select one: a.shielding b.cold zones c.two-in/two-out d.decontamination

a. can guide responders' actions at hazmat incidents. See page 15

The APIE process is a simple 4-step response model that: Select one: a.can guide responders' actions at hazmat incidents. b.is not effective in large or complex hazmat incidents. c.is most effective in large or complex hazmat incidents. d.is required to be used at all North American hazmat incidents.

The manufacturer's MSDS

The BEST source of information on a specific hazmat is:

24; Many chemicals; response agencies

The CHEMTREC organization is available ________ hours per day to provide information about ________________ to ______________.

CANTEC

The Canadian transport emergency center, operated by Transport Canada, which provides emergency response and assistance on 24 hour basis for responders to hazardous materials/weapons of ass destruction incidents.

Gases

The DOT Hazard Class 2 consists of:

Flammable liquids

The DOT Hazard Class 3 consists of:

Flammable solids

The DOT Hazard Class 4 consists of:

Oxidizers

The DOT Hazard Class 5 consists of:

Poisons

The DOT Hazard Class 6 consists of:

Radioactive substances

The DOT Hazard Class 7 consists of:

Corrosives

The DOT Hazard Class 8 consists of:

Miscellaneous

The DOT Hazard Class 9 consists of:

White Over Black

The DOT Placarding System requires a vehicle carrying > 1001 lbs of corrosive to display a ________________ placard

Green

The DOT Placarding System requires a vehicle carrying nonflammable compressed gas to display a placard colored :

Explosives

The DOT hazard class 1 includes:

Nonflammable gases

The DOT hazard class 2 includes:

See page 588 The correct answer is: emergency responders will implement the rescue/recovery plan in accordance with local procedures.

The Incident Commander will formulate the incident action plan (IAP) at all hazmat incidents and: Select one: a.will always include a rescue/recovery plan. b.it should be implemented after rescue operations. c.will avoid sending responders on rescue operations at all costs. d.emergency responders will implement the rescue/recovery plan in accordance with local procedures.

Positive pressure SCBA

The MINIMUM level of respiratory protection for employees engaged in emergency response and exposed to an unknown hazardous substance is a(n):

Flash point

The MINIMUM temperature at which a liquid fuel gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air near its surface is best described as:

Flash

The MINIMUM temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture, with air near the surface, is called the _______ point

Autoignition temperature

The MINIMUM temperature to which a fuel in air must be heated to initiate self-sustained combustion without initiation from an independent ignition source is best described as:

Chemical compatibility

The MOST critical parameter when selecting the appropriate level of chemical PPE is:

Chemical compatibility

The MOST critical parameter when selecting the appropriate level of chemical protective equipment is:

General hazard and degree of severity

The NFPA 704 system for identifying hazardous materials gives:

Potential dangers

The NFPA 704 system indicates hazardous materials as:

General hazard information

The NFPA 704 system provides the:

704

The NFPA lists _______ as the standard for identifying chemical hazards of materials at fixed facilities

d. has several consensus standards that apply to personnel who respond to hazmat emergencies. see page 13

The NFPA: Select one: a.sets federal regulations for hazmat personnel. b.must be contacted prior to responding to a hazmat incident. c.requests copies of all postincident analyses from hazmat incidents. d.has several consensus standards that apply to personnel who respond to hazmat emergencies.

See page 327 The correct answer is: Intelligence and Information Section.

The NIMS-ICS organizational function established at incidents when WMDs or criminal activities are suspected is called the: Select one: a.Logistics Section. b.Planning Section. c.Finance/Administration Section. d.Intelligence and Information Section.

Accelerate combustion

The PRIMARY hazard of an oxidizer in a fire is its ability to:

Oxidation

The PRIMARY hazard pf a DOT Hazard Class 5 material is:

Explosion

The PRIMARY hazard to responders rescuing victims in the vicinity of a fire involving products of hazard class 1 is:

Etiological

The PRIMARY type of harm associated with biological terrorism is:

Intervene in the unsafe action

The Safety Officer notices a critical emergency condition at an incident. The Safety Officer should:

55 gallons

The Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances in the ERG is divided into "small spills" and "large spills." The DOT defines a small spill as a leaking container, smaller than:

In all modes

The U.S. DOT Title 49 CFR addresses transportation of hazardous materials: A. By water B. on railways C. in all modes D. on highways

See page 432 The correct answer is: National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)

The U.S. Department of Homeland Security has adopted NIOSH and _____ standards for protective clothing used at hazmat/WMD incidents. Select one: a.International Firestop Council (IFC) b.National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) c.International Association of Fire Fighters (IAFF) d.Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

See page 342 The correct answer is: Resume Operations.

The US&R designated signal that consists of one long and one short blast means: Select one: a.Evacuate the Area. b.Resume Operations. c.Cease Operations/All Quiet. d.Conduct Search Operations.

Dry bulk

The V-shaped carrier illustrated here depicts a ________ carrier

See page 158 The correct answer is: reactivity

The _____ of a substance describes its relative ability to undergo a chemical reaction with itself or other materials. Select one: a.reactivity b.corrosivity c.flammability d.radioactivity

See page 538 The correct answer is: state of matter

The _____ of the materials being sampled will affect the monitoring and detection techniques and devices used. Select one: a.odor b.color c.value d.state of matter

local health department

The _____ should be contacted for additional instructions for vaccinations, prophylactic antibiotic therapy, or other measures that may be appropriate for a given disease.

Command Post

The ________ is the location where information gathering occurs, and both technical and administrative functions are assigned

Hot/exclusion

The ___________ zone is the area of highest known hazard

Nerve agents

The acronym SLUDGEM is used to describe the signs and symptoms of exposure to which of the categories of warfare agents?

Containment

The actions taken to keep a material in its container

Listed by name and percentage

The active ingredients on a pesticide label will be:

See page 494-496 The correct answer is: thoroughly decontaminate them before transferring them to EMS.

The aim of technical decon for nonambulatory victims is to: Select one: a.package and triage them appropriately. b.apply first aid and return them to an ambulatory state. c.thoroughly decontaminate them before transferring them to EMS. d.make sure they understand the delayed health risks of the hazardous material.

LD-50

The amount of an ingested or injected substance that results in the death of 50% of the test population is:

Upper flammability limit

The amount of flammable vapor needed to keep a fire burning.

Warm zone

The area that exists just outside the hot/exclusion zone is known as the:

Decontamination Corridor

The area usually located within the warm zones where decontamination is performed

See page 594 The correct answer is: remove downed responders.

The back-up team for rescue operations is on standby to: Select one: a.remove downed responders. b.repair or adjust the entry team's PPE. c.maintain radio contact with the entry team. d.relieve the entry team after exiting the hot zone.

White

The background color of a placard that would signify a poisonous substance hazard and that contains a skull and crossbones is:

See page 594 The correct answer is: two members trained in the appropriate level of PPE.

The backup team for rescue operations consists of: Select one: a.two Technician level responders. b.at least one Operations level responder. c.the unit leader and the Incident Safety Officer. d.two members trained in the appropriate level of PPE.

See page 322 The correct answer is: Strategic, Tactical, and Task

The basic Command organization configuration of NIMS-ICS includes what three levels? Select one: a.Strategic, Tactical, and Task b.Incident, Safety, and Liaison c.Operations, Planning, and Logistics d.Command, Finance, and Administrative

See page 482 The correct answer is: contain

The basic principles of decon are get it off, keep it off, and _____ it. Select one: a.identify b.destroy c.contain d.preserve

Permeation, breakthrough

The best protective material against a specific chemical is one that has a low _______ rate (if any) and a long _______ time

See page 341 The correct answer is: provide rapid help if there is an emergency.

The buddy system's primary benefit is to: Select one: a.reduce the need for backup personnel. b.provide rapid help if there is an emergency. c.provide rapid decontamination for victims in the hot zone. d.reduce the need for more equipment to enter the hot zone.

See page 252 The correct answer is: tank cars.

The bulk of hazardous materials transported by rail are carried in: Select one: a.tank cars. b.ton containers. c.intermodal tanks. d.dry bulk cargo trailers.

Permeation

The chemical action involving the movement of chemicals, on a molecular level, through intact materials BEST defines:

See page 157 The correct answer is: corrosivity.

The chemical property used to describe substances that destroy living tissue is: Select one: a.reactivity. b.corrosivity. c.flammability. d.radioactivity.

They present a poison inhalation hazard

The chemicals listed in highlighted type in the ERG were selected because:

See page 516 The correct answer is: activity log.

The chronology of events, activities that occurred during an incident, and decon procedures must be documented in the: Select one: a.size-up. b.SOP/Gs. c.activity log. d.preincident plan.

Law enforcement

The collection of evidence at a terrorist event is PRIMARILY the responsibility of:

See page 154 The correct answer is: odor threshold.

The concentration (in air) at which the "average person" can smell a particular compound is the: Select one: a.solubility. b.vapor density. c.odor threshold. d.vapor pressure.

See page 565 The correct answer is: median lethal dose.

The concentration of an ingested or injected substance that results in the death of 50 percent of the test population is the: Select one: a.lethal dose. b.lethal dose low. c.median lethal dose. d.lethal concentration.

TLV-C

The concentration that SHOULD NEVER be exceeded is called:

Cold Zone

The control zone that contains the IC and other support functions necessary

See page 142 The correct answer is: increases the material's mobility.

The conversion of a liquid to vapor: Select one: a.makes it easier to detect. b.makes it easier to contain. c.increases the material's mobility. d.decreases the material's mobility.

See page 432 The correct answer is: requires special training and instruction.

The correct use of a specific and appropriate PPE ensemble: Select one: a.will protect against all hazards. b.will not protect the respiratory system. c.requires special training and instruction. d.is not necessary at hazmat/WMD incidents.

See page 167 The correct answer is: cellular

The damaging effects of ionizing radiation occur at the _____ level. Select one: a.organ b.cellular c.external d.environmental

See page 484 The correct answer is: the urgency in removing the victim from the contaminated environment.

The decision of whether to perform emergency or technical decon is determined based on the hazardous material involved and: Select one: a.temperature and wind conditions. b.how much media coverage is involved. c.the local terrain and available waterways. d.the urgency in removing the victim from the contaminated environment.

decontamination corridor

The decon site must be away from hazards, but adjacent to the hot zone so that persons exiting the hot zone can step directly into the _____.

adequate lighting

The decontamination corridor should have _____ to help reduce the potential for injury to personnel in the area.

See page 508 The correct answer is: upwind

The decontamination site should be situated _____ of the hot zone. Select one: a.inside b.upwind c.opposite d.downwind

See page 170 The correct answer is: toxicity.

The degree to which a substance causes harm within the body is called its: Select one: a.toxicity. b.reactivity. c.sensitization. d.biological hazard.

See page 389 The correct answer is: chemical

The deliberate release of a toxic gas, liquid, or solid that can poison people and the environment is a(an) _____ attack. Select one: a.chemical b.incendiary c.radiological d.biological/etiological

See page 219 The correct answer is: engulfment.

The dispersion of material from a container is sometimes referred to as: Select one: a.spillage. b.blanketing. c.engulfment. d.disintegration.

See page 219 The correct answer is: engulfment.

The dispersion of materials is sometimes referred to as: Select one: a.BLEVE. b.engulfment. c.disintegration. d.dispersion pattern.

Breakthrough time

The elapsed time between initial contact of a chemical with the outside surface of the chemical protective equipment and detection at the inside surface of the material is called:

B. breakthrough time

The elapsed time between initial contact of a chemical with the outside surface of the chemical protective equipment and detection at the inside surface of the materials is called: A. permeation B. breakthrough time C. penetration D. degradation

See page 451 The correct answer is: the mission of the responder.

The ensemble worn at an incident will vary depending on: Select one: a.media coverage. b.number of victims. c.availability of backup teams. d.the mission of the responder.

See page 593 The correct answer is: two trained members in the appropriate level of PPE.

The entry team must have at least: Select one: a.two types of monitoring and detection equipment. b.three types of monitoring and detection equipment. c.one trained member in the appropriate level of PPE. d.two trained members in the appropriate level of PPE.

See page 423 The correct answer is: adopt standards for respiratory equipment to protect responders at hazmat/WMD incidents.

The extreme hazards associated with materials that could be used in terrorist attacks has prompted the U.S. Department of Homeland Security to: Select one: a.regulate who can be a first responder at hazmat/WMD incidents. b.recommend that only APRs be used during hazmat/WMD incidents. c.adopt standards for respiratory equipment to protect responders at hazmat/WMD incidents. d.mandate that first responders at all hazmat/WMD incidents be certified to the Technician level.

White

The fact that a product is water reactive would be indicated in the _____ quadrant of the NFPA 704 system

See page 339 The correct answer is: protection and safety of emergency responders.

The first priority at any incident is the: Select one: a.isolation of the hazardous materials. b.preservation of potential evidence. c.protection and preservation of the environment. d.protection and safety of emergency responders.

See page 291 The correct answer is: life safety.

The first priority for hazmat incidents is: Select one: a.life safety. b.incident stabilization. c.recovery and societal restoration. d.protection of property and the environment.

See page 209 The correct answer is: understanding the problem within the framework of incident priorities, IMS, and predetermined procedures.

The first step in mitigating or solving any hazmat incident is: Select one: a.determining needed decontamination and establishing the decontamination line. b.distinguishing the available types of PPE and determining which is most appropriate to use. c.understanding the problem within the framework of incident priorities, IMS, and predetermined procedures. d.effectively communicating with media and any national or federal organizations that may be able to lend assistance.

Isolation of the area and prevention of entry

The first step or MOST IMPORTANT thing to accomplish upon arrival at a haz mat or suspected haz mat incident is:

See page 253 The correct answer is: out of sight under the single protective housings on top of the tanks.

The fittings for pressure tank cars are typically: Select one: a.tucked away under the tank. b.only accessible from the engine room. c.found at both the front and the rear of the tank. d.out of sight under the single protective housings on top of the tanks.

The percentage of gas or vapor concentration in the air

The flammable range is BEST described as:

Level A Fully Encapsulating (Type 1)

The following advantages are indicative of what type of chemical vapor suit? 1. It offers maximum level of protection to the user 2. Positive internal pressure may help to minimize minor leaks 3. If the SCBA malfunctions, the user may have some time to reach a nonhostile environment

Level B, with SCBA (Type 2)

The following limitations are indicative of what type of chemical vapor suit? 1. SCBA exposed to the atmosphere without protection 2. Facepiece compatibility may not be equivalent to suit compatibility 3. The chemical compatibility of belts, straps, & harnesses may not be known

See page 480 The correct answer is: mass.

The four primary types of decon are emergency, technical, and: Select one: a.mass. b.general. c.specific. d.reactive.

Inhalation, Ingestion, Absorption, and Injection

The general routes of entry for human exposure to hazmat are:

Remove any threatening contamination as quickly as possible

The goal of an emergency decon procedure is to:

See page 487 The correct answer is: remove the threatening contaminant from the victim as quickly as possible.

The goal of emergency decontamination is to: Select one: a.protect the environment and property. b.do the greatest good for the greatest number of people. c.use chemical or physical methods to remove contaminant. d.remove the threatening contaminant from the victim as quickly as possible.

See page 367 The correct answer is: nations or organizations with the infrastructure, finances, and scientific knowledge to produce them.

The greatest threat of mass-produced WMD agents most likely comes from: Select one: a.isolated terrorist groups. b.hackers or cyberterrorists. c.developing nations that want to make themselves known on the world political stage. d.nations or organizations with the infrastructure, finances, and scientific knowledge to produce them.

See page 505 The correct answer is: the AHJ's medical examiner.

The handling of deceased victims is determined by: Select one: a.the IC. b.NIOSH regulations. c.the AHJ's medical examiner. d.the first responders on scene.

Level B

The haz mat PPE ensemble level MOST COMMONLY used is:

b. most commonly used. see page 39

The hazardous materials most likely to be involved in incidents and accidents are those: Select one: a.with long half lives. b.most commonly used. c.without any negative side-effects. d.used in manufacture of weapons of mass destruction.

Level A

The highest level of Chemical Protective Clothing is:

Level A

The highest level of protection, based on EPA guidelines, from hazardous chemicals provided by chemical protective clothing is:

B

The highest level of respiratory protection is needed but lesser chemical protection is required for the skin BEST defines EPA Level _____ Protection

Excepted

The illustration is an example of radioactive material packaging known as:

Prevent ignition of the fuel

The immediate concern when dealing with combustible liquid spills is to:

Incident Commander

The individual responsible for establishing and managing the overall plan, developing an organizational structure, and allocating resources BEST describes the:

Chemical Name, Estimate of Quantity Released, Time and Duration of Release, Name and Phone #s of Contacts for Further Information

The information (to the extent known at the time) that should be provided during incident notifications

See page 684 The correct answer is: commercially available in local stores.

The ingredients used to make meth are: Select one: a.difficult to locate and acquire. b.not hazardous by themselves. c.commercially available in local stores. d.not available for commercial purchase.

See page 237 The correct answer is: confined space.

The interior of an empty nonpressure/atmosphere storage tank should be treated as a: Select one: a.safe shelter. b.confined space. c.nonhazardous space. d.good place to perform decon.

Once the 3-digit guide number has been obtained through the ID number or material name indexes`

The isolation distance in the numbered guides is to be used:

Vertical bars; radioactive levels

The item indicated in the illustration is referred to as the _________ and indicates the _________.

FBI

The lead agency during a terrorist emergency (crisis management) is the:

See page 143 The correct answer is: solids.

The least mobile of the three states of matter are: Select one: a.solids. b.gases. c.liquids. d.aerosols.

B. Time of day of exposure

The likelihood of an adverse health effect occurring and the severity of the effect depend on all of the following EXCEPT: A. Toxicity of the chemical B. Time of day of exposure C. Pathway or route of exposure D. Nature and extent of exposure

1/4th of the tank

The low air warning bell rings on a SCBA when how much air remains?

See page 156 The correct answer is: LFL (lower flammable limit).

The lowest concentration (or lowest percentage of the substance in the air) that will produce a flash of fire when an ignition source is present is the: Select one: a.LLL (lower liability limit). b.LFL (lower flammable limit). c.UEL (upper explosive limit). d.UFL (upper flammable limit).

See page 298 The correct answer is: perception.

The lowest level of situational awareness is: Select one: a.perception. b.application. c.distraction. d.comprehension.

Fire Point

The lowest temperature at which a liquid will ignite and achieve sustained burning when exposed to an ignition source.

See page 326 The correct answer is: Logistics Section.

The major NIMS-ICS organizational function that provides services and support systems to all the organizational components involved in the incident is called the: Select one: a.Logistics Section. b.Planning Section. c.Command Section. d.Operations Section.

EPA (Environmental Protection Agency)

The manufacturing and labeling of pesticides is regulated by:

300

The maximum hose length allowed by NIOSH when using an airline hose respirator is ________ feet

PEL

The measurement commonly used by OSHA in evaluating workplace exposure during an 8 hour period is:

See page 293 The correct answer is: size-up.

The mental process of considering all available factors that will affect an incident during the course of operations is called: Select one: a.size-up. b.delegation. c.implementation. d.command structure.

See page 565 The correct answer is: lethal dose.

The minimum amount of solid or liquid that, when ingested, absorbed, or injected through the skin will cause death is known as the: Select one: a.lethal dose. b.toxic response. c.incapacitating dose. d.lethal concentration.

Ignition (autoignition) temperature

The minimum temperature at which a fuel, when heated, will ignite in air and continue to burn.

Recognizing the presence of hazmat Isolating the area of the emergency and preventing entry by unauthorized persons Calling for the appropriate help to mitigate the incident

The mission of the first responder trained to the awareness level includes what 3 responsibilities?

See page 635 The correct answer is: flames contact the tank shell above the liquid level and the tank shell itself has overheated.

The most common cause of a BLEVE is when: Select one: a.flames from inside the container cause the tank shell and the liquid to overheat. b.flames surround the tank shell and the shell itself and the liquid become overheated. c.flames contact the tank shell above the liquid level and the tank shell itself has overheated. d.flames contact the tank shell below the liquid level and the liquid itself has overheated.

C. Inhalation See page 23

The most common route of entry into the body for a hazardous material is: A. Injection B. Ingestion C. Inhalation D. Absorption

See page 381 The correct answer is: pipe bomb.

The most common type of IED found in the United States is a: Select one: a.pipe bomb. b.tennis ball bomb. c.plastic bottle bomb. d.carbon dioxide grenade.

See page 163 The correct answer is: ionizing.

The most energetic and hazardous forms of radiation are: Select one: a.ionizing. b.nonionizing. c.visible light. d.electromagnetic.

Recognizing the presence of Hazardous Materials

The most important part of assessment

Flammability

The most serious hazard associated with meth lads is?

Cab of the Truck

The normal location for the bill of lading is the:

2

The number ___ would be shown in the Flammability quadrant of the NFPA 704 system for a material that must be moderately heated before ignition can occur and on which water spray may be used to extinguish a fire

1-800-424-9300

The number to be used to contact CHEMTREC during a chemical emergency is:

See page 408 The correct answer is: use radiological monitoring equipment.

The only way to confirm if radiation is present at an incident is to: Select one: a.look for glowing materials. b.observe a mushroom cloud. c.use radiological monitoring equipment. d.listen for the sound of disintegrating material.

HazMat Technician

The operations level responder would work under who?

Radioactive Yellow-III

The package label that indicates the highest radiation hazard

See page 328 The correct answer is: a briefing or a situation status report.

The person relinquishing Command must provide the person assuming Command with: Select one: a.the preincident plan. b.copies of mutual aid contracts. c.an established Command Post. d.a briefing or a situation status report.

Pilot

The person responsible for control of the air-bill papers is the:

Safety Officer

The person who advises the Incident Commander of existing or potentially unsafe conditions, monitoring conditions of personnel, and compliance with standard operating procedures is the:

Hazardous materials officer

The person who is responsible for directing and coordinating all operations

Hazardous materials safety officer

The person who works within the Incident Management System to ensure that recognized HAZMAT/WMD safe practices are followed.

Degradation

The physical destruction or decomposition of chemical protective clothing (CPC) by a chemical action is called:

Degradation

The physical destruction or decomposition of chemical protective clothing material due to exposure to chemicals, general use, or ambient conditions defines:

See page 496 The correct answer is: mass decontamination.

The physical process of rapidly reducing or removing contaminants from multiple persons in potentially life-threatening situations is called: Select one: a.sanitization. b.scraping and brushing. c.mass decontamination. d.technical decontamination.

Mass Decontamination

The physical process of reducing or removing surface contaminants from large numbers of victims in potentially life-threatening situations in the fastest time possible. Flush, Strip, Cover

Poisonous

The placard shown indicates that the material is considered to be:

Stabilization

The point in an incident when the adverse behavior of the hazardous material, or the hazardous component of a weapon of mass destruction is controlled.

See page 414 The correct answer is: in preincident surveys and preplanning.

The potential for natural disasters should be considered and addressed: Select one: a.in rural areas. b.during storm season. c.in preincident surveys and preplanning. d.in large-scale, multijurisdictional incidents.

See page 660 The correct answer is: chain of custody.

The practice of tracking an item of evidence from the time it is found until it is ultimately disposed of or returned is called: Select one: a.access control. b.chain of custody. c.transient evidence. d.evidence preservation.

See page 699 The correct answer is: biological lab.

The presence of castor beans and other materials known to be the source of toxins indicates a: Select one: a.biological lab. b.illicit drug lab. c.explosives lab. d.radiological lab.

See page 145 The correct answer is: vapor pressure.

The pressure produced or exerted by the vapors released by a liquid is called its: Select one: a.boiling point. b.vapor pressure. c.specific gravity. d.sublimation point.

See page 402 The correct answer is: do the greatest good for the greatest number.

The primary operational objective at a chemical attack is to: Select one: a.implement decon. b.administer antidotes. c.identify the chemical involved. d.do the greatest good for the greatest number.

Penetration

The process by which a chemical enters a protective suit through openings in the garment BEST describes:

Secondary Contamination

The process by which a contaminant is carried out of the hot zone and contaminates people, animals, the environment, and equipment.

Adsorption

The process of adding a material such as sand or activated carbon to a contaminant, which then adheres to the surface of the material.

Emulsification

The process of changing the chemical properties of a hazardous material to reduce its harmful effects

See page 666 The correct answer is: identifying specific hazards prior to transportation.

The process of field screening samples includes first: Select one: a.decontaminating any possible evidence. b.transporting samples to an evidence laboratory. c.collecting samples in properly labeled containers. d.identifying specific hazards prior to transportation.

a.injection See page 23

The process of taking in hazardous materials through a puncture of the skin is defined as: Select one: a.injection. b.ingestion. c.inhalation. d.absorption.

d. absorption. See page 23

The process of taking in hazardous materials through the skin or eyes is defined as: Select one: a.injection. b.ingestion. c.inhalation. d.absorption.

Disinfection

The process used to destroy recognized disease-carrying (pathogenic) microorganisms.

Flammable liquids

The products that IM 101 intermodal portable tanks typically carry are:

Reduce the emission of vapors

The purpose of vapor suppression is to:

Alpha

The radiation that is least dangerous as a threat to external portions of the body but is very dangerous if ingested or inhaled is:

See page 159 The correct answer is: activation energy.

The reactivity triangle has three components: an oxidizing agent, a reducing agent, and a(an): Select one: a.solubility. b.flash point. c.reactivity point. d.activation energy.

Circular

The recommended shape of the initial isolation zone around a chemical spill or release is:

See page 159 The correct answer is: fuel

The reducing agent in the fire tetrahedron acts as the _____ source for the reaction. Select one: a.fuel b.oxygen c.activation d.autoignition

See page 658 The correct answer is: remediation

The response phase at criminal hazmat/WMD incidents that is generally performed by contractors or federal authorities is the _____ phase. Select one: a.tactical b.operational c.crime scene d.remediation

training and equipment

The response to a bioterrorsim incident requires that local emergency response and public health professionals acquire the necessary _____ to safely respond to an incident and manage the health care of the public.

b. perform offensive tasks, including controlling releases at hazmat incidents. See page 15

The role of the hazardous materials technician is to: Select one: a.ensure that recognized safe practices are followed at hazmat incidents. b.perform offensive tasks, including controlling releases at hazmat incidents. c.manage hazmat personnel and operations under the direction of the Incident Commander at a hazmat emergency. d.manage the incident and make command decisions to determine strategies and tactics to mitigate a hazmat emergency.

a. provide additional expertise at hazmat incidents in areas such as radiation. See page 15

The role of the hazardous materials technician specialist is to: Select one: a.provide additional expertise at hazmat incidents in areas such as radiation. b.perform offensive tasks, including controlling releases at hazmat incidents. c.manage hazmat personnel and operations under the direction of the Incident Commander at a hazmat emergency. d.manage the incident and make command decisions to determine strategies and tactics to mitigate a hazmat emergency.

Inhalation

The route of exposure that is the MOST COMMONLY associated with causing ill effects, both acute and chronic, is:

Vision and hearing

The senses which are acceptable for use in hazmat detection are:

Cryogenic

The shape of this container that is located at a fixed facility would indicate it probably contains a:

A

The shipping of radioactive materials in a metal drum is considered to be Type ____ packaging.

Hand held portable survey instruments

The simplest and most affordable tool available to detect radiation and contamination are________

See page 663 The correct answer is: documentation.

The site safety plan, video, and photographs are all examples of crime scene: Select one: a.protection. b.preservation. c.accountability. d.documentation.

Precautionary statemtent

The statement, "Keep Away From Children," is found on a pesticide label. This is an example of a(n):

Hazard statement

The statement, "Keep Away From Waterways," is found on a pesticide label. This statement is referred to as a(n):

Shelter in place

The statement: "People inside a building should remain inside until the danger passes," best describes:

Protective Actions

The steps that are taken to preserve the health and safety of emergency responders and the public during an incident involving release of hazardous materials

See page 657 The correct answer is: first

The tactical phase is the _____ of the response phases at criminal hazardous materials/WMD incidents. Select one: a.first b.second c.third d.fourth

Absorption

The taking of haz mat into the body through undamaged skin and the eyes is called:

Hot-zone Entry Team

The team of fire fighters assigned to the entry into the designated hot zone

See page 492 The correct answer is: chemical degradation.

The technical decontamination process that uses a material to change the chemical structure of a hazardous material is: Select one: a.dilution. b.evaporation. c.chemical degradation. d.brushing and scraping.

The boiling point

The temperature at which a liquid changes to a gas is BEST described as:

See page 154 The correct answer is: fire point.

The temperature at which a liquid or volatile substance gives off enough vapors to support continuous burning is its: Select one: a.fire point. b.flash point. c.flammable range. d.autoignition temperature.

See page 335 The correct answer is: hot, warm, and cold.

The three hazard control zones are referred to as: Select one: a.A, B, and C. b.one, two, and three. c.hot, warm, and cold. d.red, orange, and yellow.

See page 291 The correct answer is: all emergency services organizations.

The three incident priorities at all hazardous materials incidents apply to: Select one: a.fire and rescue operations. b.all emergency services organizations. c.civilian and emergency responder victims. d.emergency responders entering the hot zone.

See page 225 The correct answer is: energy release, corrosivity, and toxicity.

The three mechanisms of harm in a container hazardous materials incident are: Select one: a.energy release, corrosivity, and toxicity. b.radioactivity, pressure, and temperature. c.dispersion patterns, rapid release, and detonation. d.wind speed, barometric pressure, and time of day.

See page 479 The correct answer is: contamination.

The transfer of a hazardous material to persons, equipment, or the environment is called: Select one: a.decon. b.exposure. c.contamination. d.decontamination.

Cargo tank trailer

The transport container on which you would expect to find a specification plate is known as a:

Disposal

The two-step process for contaminated items that cannot be properly decontaminated. Items are bagged and placed in appropriate containers for transport to a hazardous waste facility

Air-purification respirator

The type of breathing system that CANNOT BE utilized in an oxygen deficient atmosphere is a(n):

Air-purification respirator

The type of breathing system that CANNOT be utilized in an oxygen deficient atmosphere is a(n):

See page 163 The correct answer is: neutron.

The types of ionizing radiation are alpha, beta, gamma, and: Select one: a.proton. b.electron. c.neutron. d.dosimeter.

See page 261 The correct answer is: capacity stencil.

The volume of a railroad tank car can be found via the: Select one: a.capacity stencil. b.reporting marks. c.specification marking. d.manufacturers' marks.

See page 154 The correct answer is: chemical properties.

The way a substance behaves and interacts at the molecular level are: Select one: a.physical properties. b.chemical properties. c.biological properties. d.radiologic properties.

Hot/exclusion

The zone where contamination has occurred or has the potential to occur and requires established entry and exit control points, is known as a _________ zone

Rust

There are 5 ways that a metal container can breach. What is not considered to be a breach?

Daily

There are different procedures and time intervals for SCBA inspections. How often should a unit be restored to service after it has been used?

Working upwind and uphill from the hot zone

There are many ways that personnel, PPE, apparatus, and tools become contaminated. What is not a means of comntamination?

Permeation

There is no assurance that once decontamination of chemical protective clothing is complete, ________ has ceased

Corrosive tanks

These cargo tanks usually do not have emergency shutoff valves

d. Operations mission-specific personnel See Page 14

These first responders may be trained beyond core competencies to perform additional defensive tasks and limited offensive actions. Select one: a.Operations-core personnel b.Awareness level personnel c.Hazardous materials technician d.Operations mission-specific personnel

Penetrations

This can be defined as movement of material through closures

High-expansion foam

This foam has poor heat resistance because air-to-water ratio is very high

Permeation

This occurs to a CPC suit on a molecular level

Level C

This suit is used where splashes may occur, but where respiratory hazards are minimal

Level III - Most serious

This type of incident requires resources from state, federal, private agencies and requires unified command

The shipping papers

To contact the shipper for hazard and response information, a firefighter can obtain the phone number from:

See page 350 The correct answer is: take photographs and videos of the scene.

To help preserve evidence and assist law enforcement, first responders should: Select one: a.remove fatalities quickly. b.collect evidence when possible. c.take photographs and videos of the scene. d.not allow any photographs or videos to be taken.

See page 658 The correct answer is: hazards at the scene and the tactical requirements.

To maintain the safety of personnel, the PPE for a criminal hazardous materials/WMD incident will be determined by: Select one: a.the first arriving officer. b.the direct and circumstantial evidence. c.hazards at the scene and the tactical requirements. d.a Hazardous Materials Technician or Allied Professional.

Hydrate frequently

To minimize the physical limitations of PPE, a firefighter should:

The phone number on the MSDS

To obtain hazard and response information, a firefighter can contact the manufacturer using:

See page 614 The correct answer is: vapor suppression.

To reduce the emission of vapors at a hazmat incident, responders should use: Select one: a.adsorption. b.ventilation. c.vapor dispersion. d.vapor suppression.

See page 618 The correct answer is: leak control.

To stop or limit the escape or to contain the release of a product either in its original container or by transferring it to a new one is the goal of: Select one: a.fire control. b.spill control. c.leak control. d.dilution control.

See page 539 The correct answer is: more than one sampling method and technology.

To verify monitoring and sampling results, when possible, use: Select one: a.new, uncalibrated technology. b.observations from people at the scene. c.a single sampling method and technology. d.more than one sampling method and technology.

See page 272 The correct answer is: bulk transportation containers.

Ton containers, Y cylinders, and Y ton containers are types of: Select one: a.railway cars. b.intermodal tanks. c.bulk transportation containers. d.underground storage containers.

Biological agents

Toxic substances that are living materials or are obtained from living organisms are called:

See page 364 The correct answer is: bombings.

Traditional terrorist tactics include assassination, armed assault, and: Select one: a.bombings. b.agroterrorism. c.cyberterrorism. d.nuclear attacks.

Operations

Trained personnel that are used to assist the technician but do not collect the sample themselves

See page 257 The correct answer is: High-Hazard Flammable Trains (HHFT).

Trains transporting multiple low pressure tank cars containing Class 3 products may be called: Select one: a.Densely Packed Trains (DPT). b.Multiple Cargo Tank Cars (MCTC). c.High-Hazard Corrosive Trains (HHCT). d.High-Hazard Flammable Trains (HHFT).

See page 658 The correct answer is: will lose its evidentiary value if it is unpreserved or unprotected.

Transient evidence is best described as material that: Select one: a.provides information but is not admissible in court. b.is in process but not yet in law enforcement custody. c.cannot be preserved but can e testified to in court. d.will lose its evidentiary value if it is unpreserved or unprotected.

B. Dead or fatally injured

Triage priority 4 is assigned to which of the following? A. Minor injuries B. Dead or fatally injured C. Life threatening injuries D. Serious but not life threatening

False

True or False: Private industry is exempt from notification and reporting requirements in regards to releases of hazardous substances

True

True or False: Releases resulting in an exposure to a person while at a fixed facility may be exempted from reporting

True

True or False: Section 304 requires reporting of releases of the extremely hazardous substances listed in Section 302 of SARA, Title III

True

True or False: Shipping papers are required to contain an entry for hazard classification according to DOT regulations

True

True or false: A MSDS provides the name the chemical company uses to identify the product

True

True or false: A chemical with a vapor density of greater than one will tend to collect in low areas and below-grade places

True

True or false: A liquid with a low boiling point will more readily change to a vapor than a liquid with a high boiling point when exposed to fire or heat

True

True or false: A person exposed to a hazardous material may not necessarily be contaminated by it

True

True or false: A person may be exposed to large quantities of a hazardous material in concentrations that do not present a hazard or to small amounts of a hazardous material that present in a very high hazard

True

True or false: A responder's physical, mental, or emotional condition can cause problems with using PPE

True

True or false: Absorbent materials can react with certain hazardous substances

True

True or false: Absorption generally requires that the operational personnel be in close proximity to the spill

True

True or false: Absorption is a defensive method of controlling a hazardous spill by applying a material that will soak up and hold, or absorb, the spill

False

True or false: All personnel and equipment exposed to haz mat are also contaminated

True

True or false: An ice-cooled vest consists of frozen ice packs placed in a vest and operates on the principle of conductive heat cooling. Studies have indicated that ice vests are better than air cooled units and water cooled jackets

True

True or false: Biological agents are the easiest warfare agent classification for terrorists to make

False

True or false: Biological agents are very easy for terrorists to distribute effectively

True

True or false: Blood and chocking agents, while being terrorism agents, are also common industrial chemicals

False

True or false: Both heat exhaustion and heat stroke are immediate life-threatening conditions

True

True or false: CHEMTREC should be utilized to access non-emergency information

False

True or false: Chemicals with specific gravities greater than one tend to float on water

False

True or false: Chemtrec IS NOT able to provide assistance to responders if the name of the shipper or manufacturer is not known

False

True or false: Cryogenic liquids cannot be shipped in intermodal containers because they are considered to be too unstable for this type of shipment.

True

True or false: EPA labels on pesticides must contain one of the signal words DANGER/POISON, WARNING, or CAUTION

False

True or false: Emergency decontamination must take place in the decon corridor

False

True or false: Evacuation is always preferred over sheltering in place

True

True or false: Examples of nerve agents are sarin, soman, and V agent

True

True or false: Federal public buildings are prime targets for terrorist attacks

False

True or false: Hazardous materials releases that involve excessive noise levels only cause psychological stress to personnel in specialized protective clothing

True

True or false: Hazardous materials that are manufactured, stored, processed, or used at a particular site ARE NOT subject to regulations affecting transported materials

True

True or false: Heat exhaustion occurs because the body is unable to dissipate excessive heat and becomes overheated

True

True or false: Heat stroke results from the failure of the temperature-regulating capacity of the body

True

True or false: Hypothermia is a lowered body core temperature

False

True or false: Hypothermia, while serious, is NOT a true medical emergency

True

True or false: If a transportation mode is not carrying hazardous materials, there is no requirement for specific information to be provided on shipping papers

True

True or false: If an explosion has occurred, the safety briefing should stress the potential that a secondary explosive device exists

False

True or false: If placards are clearly displayed on the transportation mode, shipping papers are not required

True

True or false: In rural areas, hazardous materials can be found in agricultural stores or co-ops, farm buildings, and residences

True

True or false: In urban or suburban locales, hazardous materials can be found in service stations, hardware stores and doctor's offices

True

True or false: It is important to know the proper spelling of the shipping name of a material before referencing the ERG

False

True or false: Level A suit will protect the responder from ill effects from all hazardous materials

True

True or false: MSDS information can be an important part of the briefing process

False

True or false: Nerve agents are very effective due to their high vapor pressure, which allows them to readily vaporize

True

True or false: Nerve agents were designed for one purpose - to kill people

True

True or false: Nerve agents were designed wih only one purpose in mind: to kill people

False

True or false: Neutron radiation is commonly used in commercial and industrial operations

True

True or false: On vehicles, the two most common locations for remote shutoffs are at the valve controls and behind the driver's door

True

True or false: Pipeline markers contain information describing the transported commodity and the name and telephone number of the carrier.

True

True or false: Placards that contain the DOT class number 6 at the bottom identify a material that may be an infectious substance hazard

False

True or false: Practice and conditioning can help reduce psychological limitations of PPE users

True

True or false: Pre-incident survey information is vital to establishing briefing items

True

True or false: Radioactive material containers are shipped in either Type A or Type B containers.

True

True or false: Remote shutoffs are usually well marked and in an easy-to-find location

True

True or false: Remote shutoffs in fixed facilities are typically located near the entrance

True

True or false: Responders working in the hot zone may become contaminated during control operations. If they then carry that contamination outside the hot zone, they may contaminate others

True

True or false: Risk/benefit assessment is the MOST important item to be considered

True

True or false: Safety briefings should include approaching a potential terrorism incident in the same manner as a hazardous material incident

True

True or false: Safety briefings should include the reminder that the incident is also a crime scene, so evidence must be preserved

False

True or false: Shipping names are always identical to the chemical names of materials

True

True or false: Shipping papers may include a packing group number listed as I, II, or III

True

True or false: Shipping papers must contain the proper name of the chemical or its hazard class

False

True or false: Social Security buildings would be an exception to the fact that federal public buildings are prime targets for terrorist attacks

True

True or false: Structural fire-fighting protective clothing can be utilized to make rescues of live victims during a haz mat incident involving chemicals

True

True or false: Structural firefighting gear with SCBA will protect responders from Beta particles

True

True or false: The 2 most popular biological agents among terrorists are anthrax and ricin

True

True or false: The blue section of the ERG lists the shipping names of hazardous materials

False

True or false: The command post is located in the warm zone

False

True or false: The decision to evacuate or shelter in place is relatively easy to make

False

True or false: The higher the packing the group number, the more dangerous the chemical is

True

True or false: The hot zone is the area immediately around the release

True

True or false: The listing of product names, chemical names, and synonyms on MSDS can make identifying chemicals sometimes confusing

True

True or false: The product name is not always identical to the chemical name, as listed on a MSDS

True

True or false: The signal words EXTREMELY FLAMMABLE are also displayed if package contents have a flash point below 80 degrees F

False

True or false: The size of a community determines the potential for hazardous materials

True

True or false: The warm zone includes the decontamination area

False

True or false: The word WARNING is used on labeling for packages containing highly toxic materials

True

True or false: There are many types of intermodal containers, or freight containers that can be used interchangeably on multiple modes of transportation (highway, rail, ship).

True

True or false: There are numerous informal ways to recognize the presence of hazardous materials

False

True or false: Training and education can help reduce physical limitations of PPE users

False

True or false: Using the human senses indiscriminately to detect the presence of hazmat, while fairly reliable, is unsafe

True

True or false: Using the senses of sight, sound, and odor is one of the informal ways of recognizing the presence of hazmat

True

True or false: Vapor dispersion involves using water spray or fans to intentionally move vapors away from certain areas

False

True or false: Vapor dispersion is always a good idea when flammable substances are the problem

False

True or false: Vapor dispersion is only effective with materials that are water soluble

True

True or false: Vapor pressures of a substance at 100 degrees F are always higher than the same substance at 68 degrees F

True

True or false: Vent and burn is the last option at a Haz Mat/WMD scene

False

True or false: Victims are exhibiting pinpoint pupils, runny noses, and difficulty breathing - you suspect a biological agent

True

True or false: Victims complain of not feeling well after inhaling an airborne white powder a few days earlier - you suspect a biological agent

True

True or false: Victims have lost control of their bowels - you suspect a nerve agent

False

True or false: Virtually all terrorist attacks are directed toward public buildings

True

True or false: Wet clothing extracts heat from the body up to 240 times faster than dry clothing, which can lead to hypothermia

True

True or false: When carrying hazmat, a transportation mode must carry shipping papers

True

True or false: When decontamination and doffing of PPE occurs in a cold environment, the body can cool rapidly

False

True or false: When determining the location of the command post, it is vital that the incident commander can view the scene from it

See page 540 The correct answer is: responders' mission.

Two key factors that dictate the detection and monitoring strategies and tactics used at an incident as well as the PPE required to perform these strategies and tactics are the hazards present at the incident and the: Select one: a.season. b.weather conditions. c.responders' mission. d.responders' skill level.

1. Evacuations 2. Shelter-in-place

Two main protective actions

A

Type ___ packaging contains low-level commercial radioactive shipments. These containers include cardboard boxes, wooden crates, and metal drums.

B

Type ____ packaging is the strongest packaging and is used for more highly radioactive shipments. These containers include steel reinforced concrete casks, lead pipe, and heavy-gauge metal drums.

Biological

Type of attack that has a onset of symptoms requires days to weeks , typically odorless and colorless

See page 654 The correct answer is: local law enforcement.

Typically, hazardous materials crime scenes will initially fall under the jurisdiction of: Select one: a.local law enforcement. b.federal law enforcement agencies. c.state/provincial fire marshal officer. d.multiple agencies working as a Task Force.

See page 654 The correct answer is: initially fall under the jurisdiction of the local law enforcement agency.

Typically, hazardous materials crime scenes will: Select one: a.eventually shift to the jurisdiction of the local fire department. b.initially fall under the jurisdiction of the local law enforcement agency. c.eventually shift to the jurisdiction of the local law enforcement agency. d.initially fall under the jurisdiction of the state/provincial or federal authorities.

Giving the UN hazard class number

UN/DOT placards indicate general hazard recognition by:

Has chemicals that are not consumer quantities

Under SARA Titile III, some facilities are required to have MSDS information. The PRIMARY consideration in determining whether a facility is required to have MSDS information is whether the facility:

A change in the position of the tank

Under fire conditions, what is not an indicator preceding a rupture of a compressed gas tank?

See page 391 The correct answer is: chemical

Unexplained patterns or sudden onset of similar, nontraumatic and non-infectious illnesses or death may indicate a possible _____ attack. Select one: a.chemical b.explosive c.incendiary d.biological/etiological

See page 407 The correct answer is: biological agents.

Universal precautions are meant to protect against: Select one: a.gases. b.explosives. c.chemical agents. d.biological agents.

See page 678 The correct answer is: concealed hazards, including booby traps or weapons.

Unusual or erratic behavior from illicit lab operators may indicate: Select one: a.biological weapon manufacturing. b.that the illicit lab is no longer in operation. c.an illicit lab with high levels of gamma radiation. d.concealed hazards, including booby traps or weapons.

See page 371 The correct answer is: an explosive device.

Unusually colored smoke or flames combined with unusually fast burning fires may indicate: Select one: a.a nuclear explosion. b.an explosive device. c.a biological weapon. d.radiological contamination.

Yellow-bordered section

Upon arrival at a hazmat incident involving truck, you locate a 4-digit ID number on an orange panel. You should look FIRST in the ERG for guidance in the:

In the blue-bordered material index section

Upon arrival to a hazmat incident involving a truck, you learn it is carrying magnesium scrap. You are unable to obtain the 4-digit number. Where should you look FIRST in the ERG for guidance?

Orange

Upon arriving on the scene of a 55 gallon drum leaking an unknown liquid, you notice a flammable liquid placard. After referring to your ERG, you are directed to guide number 127. You would expect to find the Emergency Action for a spill or leak in the section which is colored:

See page 412 The correct answer is: get out and report it to authorities.

Upon discovery of a possible illicit lab, responders should immediately: Select one: a.search for booby traps. b.take public safety samples. c.get out and report it to authorities. d.determine what is being manufactured.

female responders

Use _____ to assist whenever possible when decontaminating women.

See page 458 The correct answer is: facepieces may cause some users to feel confined or claustrophobic.

Using chemical protective clothing can cause psychological stress because: Select one: a.increased mobility may worry some users. b.increased oxygen levels can cause cognitive impairment. c.facepieces may cause some users to feel confined or claustrophobic. d.facepieces may cause some users to be over confident and unnecessarily expose themselves to contaminants.

3

Using the UN/DOT labeling system, a flammable liquid would receive a hazard classification of:

Unreliable, Unacceptable, and Unsafe

Using the human senses of smell or taste to determine the presence of a hazmat is:

Mycotoxins Tularemia Plague

Using the nuclear, biological, and chemical (NBC) classification, what are 3 examples of biological warfare agents?

Sarin Mustard Tabun

Using the nuclear, biological, and chemical (NBC) classification, what are 3 examples of chemical warfare agents?

See page 145 The correct answer is: physical properties

Vapor pressure, boiling point, specific gravity, appearance, and odor are some of the _____ of a material. Select one: a.risks b.hazards c.physical properties d.chemical properties

See page 439 The correct answer is: A

Vapor protective clothing is usually part of what level of protection? Select one: a.A b.B c.C d.D

6.1

Vesicants/blister agents, such as nitrogen mustard, would fall under which UN/DOT hazard class and division?

antibiotics

Viruses do not respond to _____, making them an attractive weapon.

See page 152 The correct answer is: temperature.

Viscosity determines the ease with which a product will flow and is greatly affected by: Select one: a.sublimation. b.temperature. c.specific gravity. d.appearance and odor.

See page 214 The correct answer is: chemical

Visible corrosion, or other degradation of a container, may indicate that a container is undergoing _____ energy. Select one: a.thermal b.chemical c.mechanical d.radiological

See page 240 The correct answer is: vents and fill points.

Visual clues to the presence of underground tanks include: Select one: a.pipeline placards. b.vents and fill points. c.an airport within 10 miles (15 km). d.leftover wood construction materials.

d. are particularly dangerous materials used as weapons. see page 11

Weapons of mass destruction: Select one: a.cannot be neutralized. b.do not pose any serious threat. c.refer to any automated weapon. d.are particularly dangerous materials used as weapons.

See page 140 The correct answer is: Gas that, at normal temperature, exists solely as a gas when pressurized in a container

What BEST describes compressed gas? Select one: a.Gas that has expanded upon release and escaped mitigation b.Confined gas that at normal temperatures exists in both liquid and gaseous states c.Any gas that is kept at pressures and/or temperatures higher than ambient conditions d.Gas that, at normal temperature, exists solely as a gas when pressurized in a container

Location of incident command

What IS NOT a consideration when setting up an emergency decontamination area?

Height and weight

What IS NOT a physical limitation of personnel working in a positive pressure SCBA?

The use of the foam is limited to combustible liquids

What IS NOT an appropriate procedure or consideration before applying foam?

The proper air filtering cartridge for the expected contaminants must be selected

What IS NOT an operational consideration when using supplied air respirators?

Level A

What PPE would you use for a material that had a LC50 of 5mg/kg, had a high vapor pressure and was dermally toxic?

Level A

What PPE would you use for a material that had a LC50 of 5mg/kg, had a high vapor pressure, and was dermally toxic?

Division 6.2

What UN/DOT hazard class are biological agents/toxins?

Division 2.3

What UN/DOT hazard class are choking agents?

Division 6.1

What UN/DOT hazard class are irritants?

Division 6.1

What UN/DOT hazard class are nerve agents?

See page 666 The correct answer is: Field screening

What action should responders take in order to identify specific hazards of a sample prior to transportation so that the safety of all individuals involved is ensured? Select one: a.Field screening b.Sample packaging c.Laboratory processing d.Emergency decontamination

DOT (Department of Transportation)

What agency regulates pipelines that carry hazardous materials across state borders, navigable waterways, and federal lands?

See page 708 The correct answer is: Joint training

What allows agencies to locate the deficiencies in operation, the needed equipment, and/or the assistance needed by other agencies before an incident suh as remediation of an illicit lab occurs? Select one: a.Joint training b.Remediation strategy c.Decontamination training d.Illicit lab assessment strategy

Crime scene considerations Possible secondary events

What are 2 complicating factors facing emergency responders at a terrorist incident?

Private residences Doctor's offices Hardware stores

What are 3 examples of locations where you could expect to encounter hazardous materials?

Contaminated clothing Laboratory samples Smoke detectors

What are 3 examples of materials that are transported in industrial containers?

Laboratory samples Slightly contaminated clothing Smoke detectors

What are 3 examples of materials that can be shipped in industrial containers which have limited hazard to the public and environment?

Department of Transportation (DOT) Department of Energy (DOE) Transport Development Group (TDG)

What are 3 federal agencies that are involved in the regulation of hazardous materials and/or wastes?

Activated pressure-relief devices Pinging or popping of heat-exposed vessels Wavy vapors over the surface of a liquid puddle

What are 3 indications of a physical action?

DOT Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) Labels MSDS

What are 3 items that can be used to determine the name of a hazmat located in a facility?

EPA registration number Signal word Active ingredients

What are 3 pieces of mandatory information required on a pesticide label?

Caution Warning Danger

What are 3 possible signal words that can be required on a pesticide label?

Leak control Rescue Recovery

What are 3 response objectives for hazmat incidents?

Call for appropriate assistance Protect themselves Isolate the area

What are 3 responsibilities of the individual trained to the awareness level of hazmat?

Danger Warning Caution

What are 3 signal words that can be found on pesticide labels?

Strong chemical odors without apparent reason Unexplained patterns of illness or death Unusual containers that are out-of-place with the surroundings

What are 3 signs that could indicate a possible terrorist attack?

Liquid poisons, infectious substances, and poison solids

What are 3 substances included in the DOT hazard class 6?

Symbolic and historic Public buildings or assembly areas Controversial businesses Infrastructure systems

What are 4 occupancy/location types that could be considered a possible target for terrorism?

See page 664 The correct answer is: To classify hazardous materials

What are public safety samples MOST likely to be used for? Select one: a.To classify hazardous materials b.To test monitoring and detecting equipment c.To file charges against suspects in a criminal case d.To create a baseline reading before entering the hot zone

Excessive heat or excessive cold

What are some examples of thermal hazards?

Occupancy or location Type of event Timing of event On-scene warning signs

What are some factors that should raise your awareness of possible terrorism involvement?

Unexplained patterns of illnesses or death Unexplained signs and symptoms of skin, eye, or airway irritation Recognizable odors and/or taste Unexplained vapor clouds, mist, and plumes

What are some of the on-scene warning signs that may be present in a terrorist event involving chemical or biological agents?

Radios, hand lights, pagers Heated surfaces Static electricity

What are some potential ignition sources found at the scenes of hazmat incidents?

Hand lights Radios Lighting equipment

What are some typical ignition sources found at the scene of a hazmat incident?

Chemical Biological Radiological Nuclear Explosive

What are the 5 types of terrorist attacks? (CBRNE)

See page 362 The correct answer is: The same as other emergency incidents

What are the incident priorities in a terrorist incident? Select one: a.It depends on the incident b.To capture and punish the terrorists c.The same as other emergency incidents d.To downplay the terrorist aspect of the incident

See page 333 The correct answer is: National Medical Response Team-Weapons of Mass Destruction (NMRT-WMD)

What are the specialized response forces that provide medical care following a nuclear, biological, and/or chemical incident? Select one: a.Disaster Medical Assistance Teams (DMAT) b.Disaster Mortuary Operational Response Teams (DMORT) c.Weapons of Mass Destruction-Civil Support Teams (WMD-CST) d.National Medical Response Team-Weapons of Mass Destruction (NMRT-WMD)

See page 311 The correct answer is: Action options

What are the specific tactics that are used to accomplish response objectives? Select one: a.Strategies b.Action options c.Incident action plans (IAPs) d.Risk-based response principles

See page 349 The correct answer is: Spill control and leak control

What are the two main product control strategies? Select one: a.Salvage and overhaul b.Spill control and leak control c.Hazard-control zones and fire control d.Sheltering in place and defending in place

See page 352 The correct answer is: Recovery

What aspect of evaluating progress deals with returning the incident scene and responders to a preincident level or readiness? Select one: a.Recovery b.Withdrawal c.Termination d.Progress reports

See page 707 The correct answer is: Protective clothing, if any, used by the lab operator

What can be a factor when determining the proper PPE needed at an illicit lab response? Select one: a.Allergies of responders b.Atmospheric conditions c.The location of the illicit lab and its surroundings d.Protective clothing, if any, used by the lab operator

IDLH

What can be defined as an atmosphere that poses an immediate hazard to life or produces immediate, irreversible, debilitating effects on health?

See page 223 The correct answer is: People, environment, property

What categories should be considered as exposures when conducting a hazard and risk assessment after a container releases its contents? Select one: a.Air, water supply, ground b.People, environment, property c.Commercial, residential, public structures d.First responders, residents, other victims

See page 493 The correct answer is: Solidification

What chemical decon process involves treating a hazardous liquid chemically so that it turns into a solid? Select one: a.Isolation b.Washing c.Vacuuming d.Solidification

Regulator

What component of a positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus reduces high storage pressure and controls the flow of air to the user?

Emergency by-pass mode

What component of the SCBA allows the SCBA to be used even if the regulator malfunctions?

Pressure gauge

What component of the SCBA indicates the quantity of air available?

SCBA regulator

What component of the SCBA reduces the high cylinder pressure to a useable lower pressure and controls air flow to the user?

Air cylinder

What component of the SCBA stores the compressed air supply?

Backpack

What component of the SCBA supports the SCBA components worn by the haz mat responder?

Air-cooled jackets

What cooling systems ARE NOT typically used for emergency response applications?

Protection from heat, moisture, and ordinary hazards associated with firefighting; provides thermal, impact, and cut/abrasion protection; offers limited chemical protection

What correctly identifies the purpose, advantages, and limitations of structural firefighting protective clothing at haz mat incidents?

See page 548 The correct answer is: The ratio of the amount of chemical to the amount of water

What determines an acid or base solution's concentration? Select one: a.The percentage of oxygen in the air b.The amount of hydrogen fluoride present c.The number of hydrogen ions or hydronium ions produced d.The ratio of the amount of chemical to the amount of water

See page 538 The correct answer is: The knowledge, skills, and ability of the individual using it

What determines the effectiveness of a monitoring and detecting instrument? Select one: a.The cost of the instrument b.How long ago the instrument was purchased c.The size, color, and ease of use of the instrument d.The knowledge, skills, and ability of the individual using it

Hemispheric

What dispersion pattern is described as a circular dome vapor cloud extending up from the ground?

Stream

What dispersion pattern is described as low to the ground following natural barriers?

Pool

What dispersion pattern is described as low-lying liquid in an odd shape?

Irregular

What dispersion pattern is described as the movement of the hazardous material by a responder?

4.3

What division is Dangerous when wet

Relatively low toxicity

What does the signal word Caution mean?

High toxicity

What does the signal word Danger mean?

Moderate toxicity

What does the signal word Warning mean?

See page 702 The correct answer is: Dose rate meter and contamination meter

What equipment must responders use to detect and mitigate hazards at a radiological lab? Select one: a.Dose rate meter and CGI detector b.CGI detector and colorimetric tubes c.Dose rate meter and contamination meter d.Contamination meter and colorimetric tubes

TLV-STEL

What exposure value could be repeated a MAXIMUM of 4 times daily for 15 minutes with a 60-minute rest period between exposures?

See page 514 The correct answer is: The hazardous materials involved

What generally determines the technology or device needed to monitor the effectiveness of decontamination operations? Select one: a.NFPA standards b.Length of exposure c.Law enforcement regulations d.The hazardous materials involved

Flammable solids

What hazard class is represented by the placard drawing?

See page 209 The correct answer is: Physical and chemical properties of the material and the container

What influences how a container will behave when damaged or ruptured? Select one: a.Size of the initial isolation area b.The speed with which notifications were performed c.Accuracy of preincident plans and predetermined procedures d.Physical and chemical properties of the material and the container

Hazard information warnings Databases Technical information

What information can CHEMTREC/CANUTEC usually provide?

See page 296 The correct answer is: Who the victim is

What information is generally NOT a variable to be considered when considering a rescue operation at a hazmat incident? Select one: a.Who the victim is b.Probability of rescue c.Constraints of time and distance d.Available escape routes and safe havens

Pipeline contents Pipeline owner Emergency contact number

What information is required on a pipeline marker?

Product carried by the pipeline Owner of the pipeline Emergency telephone numbers

What information is required on a pipeline marker?

See page 353 The correct answer is: Signs and symptoms of an exposure

What information should be provided to responders before they leave the scene? Select one: a.Postincident analysis b.Postincident critiques c.Evacuation and escape procedures d.Signs and symptoms of an exposure

See page 307 The correct answer is: A simple response model

What is APIE? Select one: a.A size-up process b.A level of response c.An operational tactic d.A simple response model

See page 600 The correct answer is: Maintenance logs

What is LEAST likely to be a document or report that responders will need to fill out or assist with completing after rescue/recovery operations? Select one: a.Site safety plans b.Exposure reports c.Maintenance logs d.NIMS reports such as HM 208

See page 664 The correct answer is: To determine the type of decontamination required

What is MOST likely to be the reason Operations level responders collect public safety samples? Select one: a.To discover the location of illicit laboratories b.To determine the type of decontamination required c.To monitor changing levels of pollutants in public spaces d.To demonstrate compliance with environmental protection regulations

See page 655 The correct answer is: Collection of samples or items without the direct guidance or supervision from law enforcement

What is MOST likely to lead to samples or items becoming inadmissible during criminal proceedings? Select one: a.Multiple agencies working together in a Task Force setting b.Shifting investigative authority from one agency to another c.Involving non-law enforcement responders in sample or item collection d.Collection of samples or items without the direct guidance or supervision from law enforcement

Puddle

What is NOT a dispersion pattern created by the release of a hazardous material?

Wearers do not have to be medically certified to wear a SCBA

What is NOT a limitation for personnel working in SCBA

Ensuring HVAC system remains operating

What is NOT a protective action that must be taken during in-place protection?

See page 591 The correct answer is: What are the names of the victims?

What is NOT one of the basic questions that should be asked when determining the feasibility of conducting rescue operations? Select one: a.What are the names of the victims? b.Is it a rescue operation or a recovery operation? c.Are victims within line of sight or will a search be needed? d.Are there enough personnel available to conduct a rescue safely?

Its location should be relayed to the dispatcher and responding personnel

What is TRUE regarding hazardous materials incident command post?

Dilution may be effective when combined with other containment tactics

What is a TRUE statement concerning the proper procedure for dilution of a spill?

They are usually well marked and in an easy-to find location

What is a TRUE statement regarding the safety precautions of remote shutoffs

See page 280 The correct answer is: A large glass or plastic bottle that may be encased in a basket or box

What is a carboy? Select one: a.A flat-ended or convex-ended cylindrical packaging b.A large glass or plastic bottle that may be encased in a basket or box c.A pressure vessel designed for pressures higher than 40 psi (276 kPa) d.Flexible packaging made of paper, plastic film, textiles or similar materials

See page 430 The correct answer is: Decreased ability to communicate

What is a common limitation of respiratory equipment? Select one: a.Enhanced visibility b.Increased mobility c.May cause shortness of breath d.Decreased ability to communicate

See page 409 The correct answer is: A weapon that releases radiological materials

What is a dirty bomb? Select one: a.A nuclear bomb b.A weapon that releases radiological materials c.An explosive covered with petrochemical products d.Legal fireworks that have been manipulated to be more powerful

See page 290 The correct answer is: Effective command and control

What is a likely result of following predetermined procedures at emergency incidents? Select one: a.Decreased accountability b.Increased chaos on scene c.Size-up becomes unnecessary d.Effective command and control

See page 242 The correct answer is: A tank not constructed to meet one of the common MC or DOT/TC specifications

What is a nonspec tank? Select one: a.A shipping tank from the European Union b.A tank that cannot carry hazardous materials c.An international shipping container used in long distance sea transport d.A tank not constructed to meet one of the common MC or DOT/TC specifications

See page 327 The correct answer is: Prevent/deter potential unlawful activity

What is a purpose of the Intelligence and Information Section in NIMS-ICS? Select one: a.Prevent/deter potential unlawful activity b.Establish a decontamination plan and operation c.Identify and monitor hazardous and unsafe situations d.Identify the materials or conditions involved in the incident

See page 597 The correct answer is: Stokes basket

What is a specialized tool used mostly for rescue or recovery operations? Select one: a.Pulaski tool b.Stokes basket c.Bonding equipment d.Master stream device

It removes the threat of secondary contamination

What is a statement that is NOT TRUE of emergency decontamination?

Open heads

What is a type of drum?

See page 589 The correct answer is: Establishing a safe haven or area of safe refuge

What is a unique challenge to conducting rescue operations with a large number of victims? Select one: a.Planning for a long-term incident b.Establishing a safe haven or area of safe refuge c.Performing emergency decontamination on personnel d.Preparing additional personnel to back up the entry team

See page 543 The correct answer is: A response to known or unknown chemicals or products that will trigger some action

What is an action level? Select one: a.The level at which monitoring is no longer required b.The amount of a poison that will kill 50% of a population c.The temperature at which a material will transform directly from a solid to a gas d.A response to known or unknown chemicals or products that will trigger some action

A remote government facility in a rural area

What is an example of a location that has a low likelihood of being targeted by a terrorist attack?

Nonbulk dry items such as fertilizer

What is an example of a material that bags may be used to store?

Loss of bladder control and vomiting

What is an example of a sign/symptom of exposure to a nerve agent at a hazmat or suspected terrorism incident?

See page 678 The correct answer is: Drug Enforcement Agency Clandestine Lab Teams

What is an example of a specialized team that exists to assist responders in identifying the kinds of activities that take place at an illicit lab? Select one: a.FBI Illicit Lab Teams b.Homeland Security Drug Teams c.Drug Enforcement Agency Clandestine Lab Teams d.Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, and Firearms Lab Teams

Can lead to suffocation and may be either simple or chemical

What is an example of an asphyxiation hazard?

Exposure to a microorganism or its toxin

What is an example of an etiological hazard?

Molten sulfur, PCBs

What is an example of hazmat that would be classified and placarded Class 9 during transportation?

See page 404 The correct answer is: Casualty distribution aligned with wind direction

What is an indicator of a biological attack? Select one: a.Unexplained odors or tastes b.Unusually colored smoke or flames c.Unexplained vapor clouds, mists, and plumes d.Casualty distribution aligned with wind direction

See page 442 The correct answer is: Degradation

What is it called when characteristics of a material are altered through contact with chemical substances? Select one: a.Permeation b.Penetration c.Degradation d.Contamination

Conduct fine decon

What is not a procedure for personnel wearing vapor-protective clothing requiring emergency decon?

See page 297 The correct answer is: Competing priorities

What is one of the greatest barriers to maintaining situational awareness on scene? Select one: a.Limited information b.Competing priorities c.Dangerous conditions d.Making methodical decisions

See page 515 The correct answer is: Exposure records

What is required for all first responders who have been exposed or potentially exposed to hazardous materials? Select one: a.Exposure records b.A leave of absence c.Exposure justification d.Immediate hospitalization

The weight of a liquid or solid relative to the weight of water. If the specific gravity is greater than 1 the item sinks, if less than 1 it will float.

What is specific gravity?

Withdraw and allow the fire to consume the pesticides

What is the BEST course of action when confronted by a fire in a warehouse in which large amounts of pesticides are stored?

See page 599 The correct answer is: Using a litter or SKED®

What is the BEST method for moving nonambulatory victims? Select one: a.Using a cradle carry b.Using a litter or SKED® c.Grabbing the clothes or a belt d.Pulling in the direction of the long axis of the body

See page 695 The correct answer is: Wires, circuit boards, and cellular phones

What is the MOST likely indicator of the possible design of an IED? Select one: a.Household pots and pans b.Old watches, dials, and gauges c.Pipettes and disinfection materials d.Wires, circuit boards, and cellular phones

See page 562 The correct answer is: Infrared thermometer

What is the best way to detect a potentially hazardous chemical reaction? Select one: a.pH paper b.A strong odor c.Infrared thermometer d.A reactive chemical dosimeter

See page 661 The correct answer is: Facts found through the five physical senses to which a person can attest without further support

What is the definition of direct evidence? Select one: a.Material objects evaluated during an investigation which tend to prove or disprove facts b.Facts which support presumptions or inferences formed from direct or physical evidence c.Facts found through the five physical senses to which a person can attest without further support d.A written history that includes the name of each person who maintains visual or physical control over evidence

See page 661 The correct answer is: Material objects evaluated during an investigation which tend to prove or disprove facts

What is the definition of physical evidence? Select one: a.Any data that may be used to prove or disprove a certain hypothesis b.Facts that support presumptions or inferences formed from direct evidence c.Material objects evaluated during an investigation which tend to prove or disprove facts d.Facts found through the five physical senses to which a person can attest without further support

D. Hazardous materials incidents may require specialized equipment, procedures and PPE

What is the difference between a hazardous materials incident and other emergencies? A. Other emergencies may be difficult to detect B. Other emergencies may be extremely difficult to contain and/or control C. Hazardous materials incidents do not pose a risk to people or the environment D. Hazardous materials incidents may require specialized equipment, procedures and PPE

Ricin

What is the easiest biological or chemical agent for a terrorist to make?

See page 665 The correct answer is: Hazard characterization

What is the elimination of the knowns, and is generally determined through field screening techniques using common field screening equipment? Select one: a.Risk assessment b.Public safety sampling c.Hazard characterization d.Evidence laboratory processing

See page 659 The correct answer is: Exhibition in court

What is the final step in the procedure for identifying, protecting, and preserving potential evidence? Select one: a.Exhibition in court b.Laboratory examination c.Discovery of the evidence d.Documentation of the evidence

See page 212 The correct answer is: Stress

What is the first step in the sequence proposed by the General Hazardous Materials Behavior Model (GEBMO)? Select one: a.Stress b.Release c.Exposure d.Dispersion

Rescue

What is the first tactical priority to consider during a haz mat incident?

Corrosives

What is the hazard class represented by the placard illustration?

Dangerous when wet

What is the hazard class represented by the placard illustration?

Explosives

What is the hazard class represented by the placard illustration?

Flammable liquid/combustible

What is the hazard class represented by the placard illustration?

Oxidizers

What is the hazard class represented by the placard illustration?

Poison gases

What is the hazard class represented by the placard illustration?

Radioactives

What is the hazard class represented by the placard illustration?

months to decades

What is the long term remediation for Response?

35 ppm

What is the low alarm for CO on a 4 gas meter

19.5%

What is the low alarm for O2 on the 4 gas detector

300 FT

What is the maximum length of hose for a supplied air respirator?

See page 269 The correct answer is: Low pressure

What is the most common intermodal tank used in transportation? Select one: a.Pressure b.Cryogenic c.Specialized d.Low pressure

See page 684 The correct answer is: Methamphetamines

What is the most common type of clandestine drug lab? Select one: a.Heroin b.Ecstasy c.Cocaine d.Methamphetamines

See page 455 The correct answer is: Heat stroke

What is the most serious type of heat disorder? Select one: a.Heat stroke b.Heat rashes c.Heat cramps d.Heat exhaustion

A circle for the initial isolation zone with an elongation of it downwind side for the protective action zone

What is the prescribed shape of the recommended initial isolation and protective action zones?

See page 145 The correct answer is: Vapor pressure

What is the pressure exerted by a saturated vapor above its own liquid in a closed container? Select one: a.Vapor density b.Specific gravity c.Vapor pressure d.Solubility/miscibility

See page 273 The correct answer is: It depends on the product.

What is the pressure on a Y ton container? Select one: a.14.5 psi (100 kPa) b.25.4 psi (175 kPa) c.They are nonpressurized. d.It depends on the product.

See page 489 The correct answer is: Adsorption

What is the process in which a hazardous liquid interacts with (or is bound to) the surface of a sorbent material? Select one: a.Sorption b.Absorption c.Adsorption d.Resorption

CHEMTREC

What is the quickest available source of MSDS for first responders at a hazmat emergency?

See page 664 The correct answer is: Public safety samples may be used as evidence.

What is the relationship between public safety sampling and evidence preservation? Select one: a.Public safety samples may be used as evidence. b.Public safety sampling is a military term for evidence preservation at hazmat incidents. c.Public safety sampling is not a priority at criminal hazmat/WMD incidents; evidence preservation is. d.Evidence preservation is done at WMD incidents, while public safety sampling occurs at hazmat incidents.

b. Planning the response is not the responsibility of Awareness level personnel see page 17

What is the responsibility of Awareness level personnel during the planning process of a hazmat incident? Select one: a.Prioritizing tasks and making assignments b.Planning the response is not the responsibility of Awareness level personnel c.They are expected to identify the hazardous material and its dangers/hazards d.They should identify needed personnel and resources and request them from dispatch

c. Planning the response is not the responsibility of Operations level personnel. See page 20

What is the responsibility of Operations level personnel during the planning response phase of a hazmat incident? Select one: a.They should delegate tasks and assignments. b.They will establish scene control by isolating the hazardous area. c.Planning the response is not the responsibility of Operations level personnel. d.They should identify needed personnel and resources and request them from dispatch.

See page 588 The correct answer is: The IC can formulate the IAP with support from others.

What is the role of an Incident Commander (IC) in creating an incident action plan (IAP) involving rescue operations? Select one: a.The IC can formulate the IAP with support from others. b.The IC should not include a rescue/recovery plan in the IAP. c.The IC must choose an IAP developed and approved by OSHA. d.The IC approves the IAP, but it must be written by the Incident Safety Officer.

See page 291 The correct answer is: Incident stabilization

What is the second priority for hazmat incidents? Select one: a.Life safety b.Incident stabilization c.Avoidance of publicity d.Protection of property and the environment

3 to 7

What is the span of control for Incident management system

See page 273 The correct answer is: Excepted

What is the term for packaging that is used to transport materials that have limited radioactivity, such as natural thorium? Select one: a.Type A b.Type B c.Excepted d.Industrial

See page 216 The correct answer is: Breach

What is the term for the event in which a container is stressed beyond the limits of recovery and opens and releases its contents? Select one: a.BLEVE b.Breach c.Release d.Detonation

Dangerous cargo manifest

What is the term for the shipping papers when being transported by water?

See page 144 The correct answer is: Micron

What is the unit most typically used to express particle size? Select one: a.Bar b.Inch c.Micron d.Centimeter

See page 626 The correct answer is: Foam concentrates that are intended for polar solvents can be used on hydrocarbon fires.

What is true of Class B foam concentrates? Select one: a.Class B foams are ineffective when used for vapor suppression. b.Aqueous film forming foam (AFFF) is used on water-miscible materials. c.Foam concentrates that are intended for polar solvents can be used on hydrocarbon fires. d.Concentrates designed for hydrocarbon fires will be equally effective on polar solvent fires.

See page 594 The correct answer is: Assist ambulatory casualties to save themselves

What is typically the first priority for conducting rescue operations at hazmat incidents? Select one: a.Recover the dead b.Assist ambulatory casualties to save themselves c.Evacuate non-ambulatory casualties showing signs of life d.Evacuate non-ambulatory casualties showing signs of life from the hot zone.

See page 594 The correct answer is: Recover the dead.

What is typically the last priority for conducting rescue operations at hazmat incidents? Select one: a.Recover the dead. b.Assist ambulatory casualties to save themselves. c.Evacuate non-ambulatory casualties showing signs of life. d.Evacuate non-ambulatory casualties showing signs of life from the hot zone.

There are typically two safety officers assigned

What is unique about haz mat IMS?

See page 374 The correct answer is: Primary

What kind of explosives are usually used as detonators because they are easily initiated and highly sensitive to heat? Select one: a.Low b.High c.Primary d.Secondary

Alpha

What kind of radiation has large particles with positive electrical charges?

Beta

What kind of radiation has small particles with negative electric charges?

Gamma

What kind of radiation is a form of radiation bearing no particular charge?

b. Operations level personnel see page 19

What level of responder is expected to identify potential hazards at an incident including the type of container involved, the hazardous material involved, and the hazards presented by the material, but does not perform offensive actions? Select one: a.Awareness level personnel b.Operations level personnel c.Hazardous Materials Technician Specialist d.Hazardous Materials Incident Commander

Hazmat Operations

What level of training is required to don chemical protective clothing?

Teratogen

What material could pose a threat to a developing fetus, upon exposure?

See page 636 The correct answer is: An increase in the intensity of sounds or fire issuing from a relief valve

What may indicate that the pressure within a container is increasing and that container failure may be imminent? Select one: a.A decrease in the intensity of sounds b.A decrease in the temperature of the container's shell c.An increase in the intensity of sounds or fire issuing from a relief valve d.A decrease in the temperature of the container and failure of the emergency shutoff device

C. Energy release See page 26

What mechanism of harm is the greatest threat at hazmat incidents? A. Toxicity B. Corrosivity C. Energy release D. Acute exposure

See page 496 The correct answer is: Mass

What method of decon is initiated when the number of victims and time constraints do not allow establishment of an in-depth decontamination process? Select one: a.Mass b.Technical c.Emergency d.Ambulatory

See page 488 The correct answer is: Technical

What method of decon uses chemical or physical methods to thoroughly remove or neutralize contaminants from responders' PPE and equipment? Select one: a.Mass b.Technical c.Emergency d.Nonambulatory

See page 614 The correct answer is: Confine and analyze runoff water for possible contamination.

What must responders do after using water streams for vapor dispersion? Select one: a.Neutralize the corrosive contaminants in runoff water. b.Confine and analyze runoff water for possible contamination. c.Dispose of equipment as though it were a hazardous material. d.Use chemical vapor suppressants to confine remaining vapors.

See page 625 The correct answer is: Proportion and aerate

What must responders to do all foam concentrates before using them? Select one: a.Aerate and drain b.Drain and expand c.Proportion and aerate d.Proportion and expand

See page 423 The correct answer is: National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)

What organization certifies SCBA? Select one: a.Insurance Service Office (ISO) b.National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) c.International Association of Fire Fighters (IAFF) d.National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)

See page 443 The correct answer is: Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

What organization has established a set of chemical-protective PPE ensembles providing certain protection levels that are commonly used by fire and emergency service organizations? Select one: a.Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) b.National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) c.International Association of Fire Fighters (IAFF) d.National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)

See page 361 The correct answer is: FBI

What organization heads U.S. government agencies in investigating and attempting to prevent terrorist attacks on U.S. soil? Select one: a.FBI b.EPA c.IAFC d.AFTE

75 %

What percent of hazardous materials releases occur at fixed sites?

See page 354 The correct answer is: Postincident analysis

What procedural action of the termination phase compiles the information obtained from the debriefings, postincident reports, and critiques to identify trends regarding operational strengths and weaknesses? Select one: a.On-scene debriefing b.Postincident critique c.Operational recovery d.Postincident analysis

High pressure tube car

What railcar is considered to be obsolete?

Monitoring equipment should be utilized, keeping in mind that Haz Mat technicians are needed to operate this equipment

What resources are available for determining the concentrations of a released hazardous material IN AN ENDANGERED AREA?

A. APIE see page 15-16

What response model firms a consistent problem-solving process that can be used at any incident, regardless of size or complexity? A. APIE B. PASS C. SLUDGEM D. DUMBELS

See page 361 The correct answer is: The decision to engage in criminal, intimidating activities

What separates terrorist tactics from legitimate activities? Select one: a.Leadership structure b.Funding from grass roots sources c.Rhetoric based on a charismatic leader's philosophies d.The decision to engage in criminal, intimidating activities

See page 599 The correct answer is: All viable victims should be rescued.

What should be accomplished before recovery operations begin? Select one: a.All victims should be rescued. b.All viable victims should be rescued. c.All deceased persons should be removed. d.All non-ambulatory victims should be presumed dead.

Isolate area and deny entry.

What should be the first action at a HazMat or WMD scene?

See page 596 The correct answer is: Non-ambulatory victims within line of sight

What should entry teams turn their attention to after removing the ambulatory victims within the line of sight? Select one: a.Product control operations b.Technical decontamination operations c.Non-ambulatory victims within line of sight d.Non-ambulatory victims not within line of sight

See page 506 The correct answer is: Technical decon should be set up.

What should happen before entry personnel enter the hot zone? Select one: a.Victims should be identified. b.Technical decon should be set up. c.Responders should undergo decon. d.Victims should be instructed to disrobe.

See page 654 The correct answer is: Contact law enforcement personnel to investigate further.

What should responders do if a package or letter is thought to be suspicious? Select one: a.Process the incident as a crime scene. b.Begin monitoring and detection operations. c.Assume that it contains a biological toxin or pathogen. d.Contact law enforcement personnel to investigate further.

See page 659 The correct answer is: Exclude unauthorized and nonessential personnel from the scene.

What should responders do in order to aid in securing and protecting the scene? Select one: a.Exclude unauthorized and nonessential personnel from the scene. b.Identify all potential witnesses at the scene, excluding first responders. c.Avoid documenting the entry and exit of first responders from the scene. d.Determine which bystanders are witnesses and remove them from the scene.

Divert into an area where it can be treated or disposed of later

What should responders do with runoff from emergency decontamination?

See page 369 The correct answer is: Contact bomb squad personnel.

What should you do if you spot or suspect a booby trap or secondary device? Select one: a.Try to disarm it. b.Sample it for evidence. c.Move it to a secure location. d.Contact bomb squad personnel.

SCBA

What single item makes a Level B ensemble different from the lower levels of PPE?

The runoff may need to be contained

What statement IS TRUE regarding vapor dispersion?

Carbon monoxide

What substance is an example of a chemical asphyxiant?

See page 658 The correct answer is: Operations to mitigate any remaining hazards are conducted.

What takes place during the remediation phase of a criminal hazardous materials/WMD incident? Select one: a.The crime scene is processed forensically. b.Evidence is recovered and packaged for transport. c.Operations to mitigate any remaining hazards are conducted. d.Booby traps are neutralized, and explosive devices are removed.

Responsible for securing facilities, services, and equipment

What tasks at a haz mat incident incident is/are provided by logistics?

See page 493 The correct answer is: Disinfection

What technical decontamination process kills MOST of the microorganisms present? Select one: a.Sanitation b.Disinfection c.Sterilization d.Neutralization

See page 150 The correct answer is: miscibility

What term describes the ability of two or more gases or liquids to mix or dissolve into each other? Select one: a.solubility b.miscibility c.specific gravity d.vapor pressure

Heat stroke

What thermal emergency is a true, life-threatening emergency that requires immediate attention?

Bill of lading

What transportation document would you find in the cab of a vehicle?

Air Bill

What transportation document would you find in the cockpit?

Waybill/Consist

What transportation document would you find in the engine or caboose?

Dangerous Cargo Manifest

What transportation document would you find in the wheelhouse, bridge, or pipe-like container (on a barge)?

See page 435 The correct answer is: Fire-entry suit

What type of PPE allows a responder to work in total flame for a short period of time? Select one: a.Body armor b.Type C suit c.Proximity suit d.Fire-entry suit

See page 657 The correct answer is: Unified command

What type of command is critical for ensuring that a criminal hazardous materials/WMD incident is managed in a fashion that will maximize the goals of all agencies involved? Select one: a.Unified command b.Tactical command c.Remote command d.Controlled command

Strong, tight

What type of container is used to ship materials of low radioactivity?

See page 218 The correct answer is: Rapid relief

What type of container release is characterized by a fast release of pressurized hazardous material through properly operating safety devices? Select one: a.Spill/leak b.Detonation c.Rapid relief d.Violent rupture

See page 278 The correct answer is: FIBC

What type of containers are flexible, collapsible bags or sacks, and also called bulk bags, bulk sacks, or tote bags? Select one: a.FIBC b.RIBC c.Liquid d.Nonbulk

See page 484 The correct answer is: Wet

What type of decontamination method involves collecting runoff water in a containment device? Select one: a.Dry b.Wet c.Rapid d.Chemical

See page 220 The correct answer is: Plume

What type of dispersion pattern forms an irregularly shaped pattern of an airborne hazardous material where wind and/or topography influence the downrange course from the point of release? Select one: a.Cloud b.Plume c.Particulate d.Hemispheric

See page 600 The correct answer is: After Action Reports

What type of documents will an Operations level responder MOST likely be required to provide or assist with at the end of rescue/recovery operations? Select one: a.Press releases b.Death certificates c.After Action Reports d.Crime scene reports

See page 707 The correct answer is: Decontaminating weapons and ammunitions

What type of emergency or technical decontamination procedures are specifically focused on tactical operations? Select one: a.Decontaminating lab equipment b.Decontamination of injured suspects c.Decontamination of uninjured operators d.Decontaminating weapons and ammunitions

Non-trauma mass casualty incident

What type of event should raise your awareness of possible terrorism involvement?

See page 661 The correct answer is: Circumstantial

What type of evidence includes facts that support presumptions or inferences formed from direct or physical evidence? Select one: a.Direct b.Physical c.Transient d.Circumstantial

See page 375 The correct answer is: Improvised Explosive Materials

What type of explosives are nonmilitary first responders MOST likely to encounter? Select one: a.Mining explosives b.Mortars or grenades c.Antipersonnel mines d.Improvised Explosive Materials

See page 373 The correct answer is: High explosives

What type of explosives decompose rapidly and include velocities faster than the speed of sound? Select one: a.Low explosives b.High explosives c.Medium explosives d.Intermediate explosives

See page 300 The correct answer is: Level III

What type of incident requires unified command? Select one: a.Level I b.Level II c.Level III d.Level IV

See page 660-551 The correct answer is: Specific location from which the sample was taken

What type of information will MOST likely be required from emergency responders when establishing or maintaining the chain of custody? Select one: a.Time arrived on scene b.Names of all agencies involved c.Specific location from which the sample was taken d.Type of evidence (direct, physical, or circumstantial)

See page 695 The correct answer is: Explosives labs

What type of lab may lack the glassware, Bunsen burners, and other paraphernalia and equipment traditionally associated with laboratories? Select one: a.Biological labs b.Illicit drug labs c.Explosives labs d.Chemical agent labs

See page 157 The correct answer is: Bases

What type of materials break down fatty skin tissues and can penetrate deeply into the body? Select one: a.Acids b.Bases c.Gases d.Vapors

See page 281 The correct answer is: Dewar flask

What type of nonbulk packaging is a nonpressurized, insulated container that has a vacuum space between the outer shell and inner vessel? Select one: a.Drum b.Jerrican c.Cylinder d.Dewar flask

See page 281 The correct answer is: Dewar flask

What type of nonbulk packaging is designed to store and dispense cryogenic materials? Select one: a.Drum b.Jerrican c.Cylinder d.Dewar flask

See page 365 The correct answer is: An airport

What type of occupancy is MOST likely to be targeted by terrorists? Select one: a.An airport b.A rural farm c.A private residence d.An old building with no historical significance

See page 268 The correct answer is: Pressure intermodal

What type of tank is an IMO Type 5 tank container? Select one: a.Pressure intermodal b.Specialized intermodal c.Nonpressure intermodal d.Low pressure intermodal

See page 364 The correct answer is: Cyberterrorism

What type of terrorism presents a threat to computer/network security? Select one: a.Assassination b.Agroterrorism c.Cyberterrorism d.Suicide bombings

See page 379 The correct answer is: Chlorate-based

What types of explosives commonly take the form of a white crystal or powder that must be mixed with a fuel source? Select one: a.Nitrate-based b.Fluorine-based c.Chlorate-based d.Peroxide-based

See page 299 The correct answer is: Communicate the desired course of action.

What will help to maintain situational awareness? Select one: a.Communicate the desired course of action. b.Do not monitor crew member performance. c.Provide operation information only as the need arises. d.Communicate the mission's status only when directly asked.

See page 161 The correct answer is: Catalyst

What will increase the rate of polymerization and decrease the activation energy necessary for further polymerization? Select one: a.Fuel b.Catalyst c.Inhibitor d.Contamination

See page 310 The correct answer is: Strategies

What word BEST describes response objectives? Select one: a.Tactics b.Options c.Strategies d.Action plan

Coming in contact with acids

What would be the MAJOR concern if you were to come upon a leaking tanker of the type illustrated?

Inhalation

What would be the PRIMARY hazard to a responder while rescuing victims in a building where a non-flammable hazard class 2 product is leaking?

The contaminates would likely be transferred to other personnel or equipment resulting in secondary contamination

What would be the likely result of allowing a contaminated individual to leave the hot zone without being decontaminated?

See page 441 The correct answer is: permeation.

When a chemical passes through a fabric on a molecular level, it is called: Select one: a.permeation. b.penetration. c.degradation. d.contamination.

Immediately evacuate the area

When a fire involves the cargo of a truck transporting explosives, the responders should:

See page 450 The correct answer is: An ensemble that demonstrates the best chemical resistance against the widest range of chemicals should be selected.

When a hazardous material is a mixture of unknown chemicals, what type of PPE should be selected? Select one: a.A level D ensemble should be selected. b.None, because the mission should be abandoned. c.If a level A ensemble is available, it should always be selected, no matter what the chemicals involved. d.An ensemble that demonstrates the best chemical resistance against the widest range of chemicals should be selected.

BLEVE

When a pressurized tanker fails violently due to over-pressurizing, the phenomenon is called:

Command

When an Operations Section has not been staffed, staging reports to:

See page 543 The correct answer is: total area evacuation.

When an action level is reached, it may trigger: Select one: a.an explosion. b.a booby trap. c.removal of PPE. d.total area evacuation.

500

When applying water to a highway tanker or railway tank car with flame impingement, the minimum amount of water to be used is ________ gpm at the point of flame impingement

See page 331 The correct answer is: After response strategies are in place

When are response tactics developed? Select one: a.Once the IC has taken command b.As soon as any victims are identified c.After response strategies are in place d.Before response strategies are in place

Remove PPE slowly so as not to shock the body

When assisting emergency personnel out of their PPE, it is important to remember to:

A. remove PPE slowly so as not to shock the body

When assisting emergency personnel out of their personal protective equipment (PPE), it is important to remember to: A. remove PPE slowly so as not to shock the body B. cut off all PPE since it can not be used again C. Both A and C are correct D. immediately remove PPE as quickly as possible to allow personnel to cool rapidly and avoid overheating

CHEMTREC

When attempting to collect hazard information during an emergency incident, the responders could contact ____________ for immediate information on the material's properties, its hazards, and suggested control techniques.

See page 616 The correct answer is: positive-pressure ventilation removes atmospheric contaminants more effectively than negative-pressure ventilation.

When choosing the type of ventilation to use, remember that: Select one: a.zero-pressure ventilation removes atmospheric contaminants more effectively than positive-pressure ventilation. b.neutral-pressure ventilation removes atmospheric contaminants more effectively than positive-pressure ventilation. c.positive-pressure ventilation removes atmospheric contaminants more effectively than negative-pressure ventilation. d.negative-pressure ventilation removes atmospheric contaminants more effectively than positive-pressure ventilation.

See page 669 The correct answer is: have a control taken.

When collecting materials, any container or tool that comes in contact with potential evidence should: Select one: a.have a control taken. b.be discarded immediately c.become part of the chain of custody. d.be labeled as decontaminated evidence.

The respiratory system

When considering personal protection, remember that the MOST COMMON route of exposure for an emergency responder is:

The respiratory system

When considering personnel protection, remember that the MOST COMMON route of exposure for an emergency responder is:

Name of the caller and a call-back number Type of container or vehicle Names of the material, shipper, and manufacturer

When contacting CHEMTREC, the caller should be prepared to supply what information?

Large scale evacuation

When dealing with a Level III incident, it is expected that evacuation of people will cover an area of:

Time, Distance, Shielding

When dealing with a radiation incident involving a leak or spill, what exposure guidelines should the hazmat first responder use to minimize radioactive contamination?

See page 563 The correct answer is: The toxic response also increases.

When dealing with the effects of toxic materials, what typically happens when the dose is increased? Select one: a.The toxic response decreases. b.The toxic response also increases. c.Eventually the person becomes resistant. d.At the threshold point, the person is immune.

See page 510 The correct answer is: use female responders if possible.

When decontaminating women, try to: Select one: a.allow them to keep their purses. b.use female responders if possible. c.separate them from their children. d.decontaminate them with the men.

Physical state

When describing a product as a solid, liquid, or gas, we are referring to its:

Understand that recommended isolation distances should be considered only as a guide

When determining initial isolation distances for incidents involving explosive devices, it is BEST for responders to:

See page 591 The correct answer is: may increase the risk to responders.

When determining the feasibility of rescue, responders must understand that searching for potential victims not in the line of sight: Select one: a.is never acceptable. b.should be the highest priority. c.may increase the risk to responders. d.will increase the operation's urgency.

Specific gravity of the material

When determining the type of dam to use to control a spill, responders need to consider the:

See page 211 The correct answer is: Incident scene analysis or size-up

When does the first responder gather information to determine the amount or level of hazards present and the risks associated with the incident? Select one: a.When the hazmat team arrives b.Once the incident is concluded c.Incident scene analysis or size-up d.Once life safety priorities have been met

See page 466 The correct answer is: Respirator facepiece

When doffing PPE, what is the last item that should be removed? Select one: a.Gloves b.Coverall c.Footwear d.Respirator facepiece

Worn inside the PPE

When donning an SCBA with a Level A suit, the SCBA is:

4500 psi 60 minute bottle

When entering a hazardous area, the best SCBA to use is a:

Manufacturer of the product

When estimating the time it will take to successfully achieve the primary objective of the incident, all information should be considered EXCEPT the:

chain of custody

When evidence passes through the decon corridor, _____ must be documented in writing

See page 380 The correct answer is: item that is out of context or seems unusual.

When identifying IEDs, responders should be cautious of any: Select one: a.trash bag. b.round object. c.see-thru plastic bottles. d.item that is out of context or seems unusual.

Be alert for secondary devices

When implementing tactical activities during a bomb event, responders should:

1-5

When initiating an IMS at a hazmat incident, it is important to remember that an individual's span of control is:

See page 247 The correct answer is: Low pressure

When involved in fire or an unusual chemical reaction, which of the following cargo tank trucks is LEAST likely to rupture violently? Select one: a.MC-33 b.Cryogenic c.Low pressure d.High pressure

See page 203 The correct answer is: In both rural and developed environments

When is topography a factor in hazmat incidents? Select one: a.In both rural and developed environments b.Only if there are very tall buildings nearby c.Topography is not a factor in hazmat incidents d.Only if the incident is near a state or federal park or preserve

See page 565 The correct answer is: the more toxic the substance.

When looking at lethal dose and lethal concentration, the smaller the value,: Select one: a.the less toxic the substance. b.the more toxic the substance. c.the more reactive the substance. d.the less dangerous the substance.

See page 501 The correct answer is: directed to an area of safe refuge within the perimeter to await prioritization for decon.

When mass decontamination is required, ambulatory victims should be: Select one: a.processed for evidence. b.dismissed and sent directly home. c.washed and scrubbed by emergency personnel. d.directed to an area of safe refuge within the perimeter to await prioritization for decon.

See page 349 The correct answer is: When doing so would pose a risk to life safety

When might the IC decide not to protect property or the environment at a hazmat incident? Select one: a.During size-up b.When planning the initial response c.When doing so would pose a risk to life safety d.If they are unfamiliar with the responders that have reported for duty

See page 623-624 The correct answer is: When there is potential for a BLEVE or other explosion

When might withdrawal be the safest tactical option for responders? Select one: a.After terrorist or criminal incidents b.At incidents involving liquid natural gas c.At any incident involving cryogenic liquids d.When there is potential for a BLEVE or other explosion

See page 538 The correct answer is: at different heights within a room/area.

When operating a monitoring and detection device to determine the presence of gases, you should sample: Select one: a.at floor level. b.at one grade within a building. c.at different heights within a room/area. d.at chest to head height of the tallest responder.

Utilization of the buddy system

When operating at a haz mat scene, which of the following is required when using PPE?

D. Weapons of mass destruction See page 11

When particularly dangerous materials, including chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, or explosive (CBRNE) materials are used as weapons, they are referred to as: A. Terrorist targets B. Dangerous goods C, hazardous materials D. Weapons of mass destruction

See page 666 The correct answer is: Potentially shock sensitive explosives and reactive chemicals

When performing field screening and public safety sampling, what does crystallized material around caps and containers indicate? Select one: a.The presence of a strong alkali b.Recent opening and closing of the container c.A violent endothermic reaction within the container d.Potentially shock sensitive explosives and reactive chemicals

See page 587 The correct answer is: evaluate if victim rescue is feasible.

When performing rescue operations at a hazmat incident, responders need to: Select one: a.evaluate if victim rescue is feasible. b.notify family members of incident victims. c.call for additional support from USAR teams. d.make plans to rescue all victims at the incident.

See page 588 The correct answer is: under the guidance of SOP/Gs.

When performing rescue operations, Operations level responders must work under the supervision of a Technician level responder, an Allied Professional, or: Select one: a.under the guidance of SOP/Gs. b.with a thorough understanding of the incident. c.with two backup teams trained to the same level. d.under direction from EMS or law enforcement agencies.

See page 592 The correct answer is: a Technician level responder or Allied Professional.

When planning rescues, the responsibility of risk assessment and selecting control options typically belongs to: Select one: a.an entry team leader. b.the first-arriving officer. c.the most senior level officer on scene. d.a Technician level responder or Allied Professional.

See page 539 The correct answer is: using more than one sampling method and technology.

When possible, monitoring and sampling results should be verified by: Select one: a.calling the manufacturer. b.having the IC repeat the measurements. c.reporting the results to the Safety Officer. d.using more than one sampling method and technology.

See page 344 The correct answer is: evacuation.

When protecting the public at an incident, if there is enough time, the best protective action generally is: Select one: a.evacuation. b.shelter in place. c.progress reports. d.on-scene debriefing.

The patient should be removed from the contaminated area at which time basic care and decontamination can begin

When providing emergency medical care to victims of a hazardous materials incident:

Orange

When referring to the ERG, if a chemical name IS NOT highlighted, the next step is to proceed to the __________ section.

A protective mask or breathing apparatus must be used

When referring to the US military marking system, if a circle with a symbol of a person wearing a mask is seen, it is necessary to assume that:

See page 553 The correct answer is: the actual LEL of the gas being measured may differ from the reading the CGI displays.

When responders use a CGI calibrated to one gas to measure other flammable gases: Select one: a.the CGI will not show any results due to incorrect use of the instrument. b.the CGI adjusts itself to give more correct results based on a system of conversions. c.the actual LEL of the gas being measured may differ from the reading the CGI displays. d.the actual LEL of the gas being measured will not differ from the reading the CGI displays.

Approach from uphill and upwind even if i requires a longer response time

When responding to a potential haz mat incident, the safest way to approach the scene is to:

Shut off all electrical appliances

When sheltering in place, the citizens should NOT be instructed to do what?

See page 464 The correct answer is: After the mission briefing

When should PPE be donned? Select one: a.Immediately upon arrival b.After the mission briefing c.Before the mission briefing d.Once entry is made into the hot zone

See page 199 The correct answer is: As soon as the incident is identified as hazmat

When should a first responder take steps to gather sufficient information to identify the hazardous material(s) involved? Select one: a.Once the hazmat team has arrived b.When unified command has been established c.As soon as the incident is identified as hazmat d.After all the preincident planning steps have been implemented

See page 479 The correct answer is: At any hazardous materials or terrorism incident

When should decontamination be considered? Select one: a.Once the incident has terminated b.Only if there are deceased victims c.If any responders show signs of illness d.At any hazardous materials or terrorism incident

See page 154 The correct answer is: Never

When should odors be used to determine safe or unsafe areas? Select one: a.Never b.Always c.Until a technician arrives d.If the monitoring equipment breaks

See page 506 The correct answer is: Before entry personnel enter the hot zone

When should technical decon be set up? Select one: a.As soon as arriving on scene b.Once entry personnel enter the hot zone c.Before entry personnel enter the hot zone d.After nonambulatory victims have been located

See page 504 The correct answer is: Before being transferred to EMS

When should victims undergo decon? Select one: a.As soon as they are found b.After being transferred to EMS c.Before being transferred to EMS d.Victims should not undergo decon

AR-AFFF (Alcohol-resistant)

When this foam is applied to polar solvent fuels, it creates a membrane between the fuel and finishes fuel

Emergency Contact Info, Proper Name of the Shipped Materials Hazard Class of the Shipment

When transporting hazmat, the shipping papers should contain:

500

When trying to prevent a BLEVE from occurring, the MOST COMMONLY accepted minimum flow is _______ gpm

See page 423 The correct answer is: The user carries it

When using SCBA, where does the air supply come from? Select one: a.The ambient air b.The user carries it c.A stationary air cylinder d.A large stationary generator

See page 554 The correct answer is: oxygen.

When using a CGI monitor, responders should also monitor for: Select one: a.oxygen. b.solubility. c.radiation. d.airborne viruses.

The supplied air line cannot exceed 300 feet

When using air purifying respirators, what IS NOT an operational component that should be considered prior to use?

See page 426 The correct answer is: The ambient air

When using an air purifying device (APR), where does the air supply come from? Select one: a.The ambient air b.The user carries it c.A handheld generator d.A large stationary generator

Go to the orange bordered section

When using the ERG , the next step the first responder should follow after learning a material's 3-digit guide number is to:

55 gallons

When using the Table of Isolation Distances in the ERG, a large spill is defined as a a quantity greater than:

See page 636 The correct answer is: mass and velocity

When using water streams to disperse gas being released under pressure, the _____ of the water streams must exceed that of the escaping gas. Select one: a.speed and height b.mass and velocity c.weight and height d.surface area and speed

Run-off contamination

When using water to extinguish a fire involving pesticides or a poison, the responder should consider the impact of:

Verify where the runoff goes

When utilizing the safety showers at an industrial facility, the firefighter should:

At any place the underground pipeline crosses a mode of transportation

Where are pipeline owners required to place pipeline markings?

See page 271 The correct answer is: On the right-hand side as you face it

Where are reporting marks generally found on intermodal tanks and containers? Select one: a.On the top b.On every available surface c.On the left-hand side as you face it d.On the right-hand side as you face it

See page 670 The correct answer is: Evidence laboratories

Where are samples and evidence typically sent for definitive identification? Select one: a.Evidence holding b.Evidence laboratories c.Local law enforcement offices d.State public health departments

See page 149 The correct answer is: Trenches

Where are you MOST likely to find gases or vapors with vapor density greater than one? Select one: a.Attics b.Trenches c.Near the ceiling d.Flat open spaces

Fixed Facilities

Where do the largest dollar loss fires occur at in hazmat incidents?

See page 557 The correct answer is: Potential terrorist attacks

Where is it particularly important for responders to test for the presence of radiation and contamination? Select one: a.Every incident b.Oil spill incidents c.Potential terrorist attacks d.Randomly selected incidents

See page 659 The correct answer is: Towards the beginning

Where is the "discovery of evidence" step in the procedure for identifying, protecting, and preserving potential evidence? Select one: a.Near the end b.Towards the beginning c.Before securing the scene d.After laboratory examination

See page 464 The correct answer is: In a preselected area in the cold zone, as close to the entry point as possible

Where should PPE be donned? Select one: a.Wherever is convenient b.In a preselected area in the hot zone c.In the apparatus on the way to the incident d.In a preselected area in the cold zone, as close to the entry point as possible

See page 411 The correct answer is: Upwind of the incident

Where should apparatus be positioned in a radiological or nuclear incident? Select one: a.Upwind of the incident b.Downwind of the incident c.As close to the detonation point as possible d.At least 1 mile (1.5 km) from the detonation point

See page 506 The correct answer is: Just outside the decon zone

Where should medical triage and treatment be set up? Select one: a.In the hot zone b.Within the decon corridor c.Just outside the decon zone d.Wherever EMS personnel decide

Bridge or pilot house

Where would a first responder expect to find a dangerous cargo manifest?

See page 617 The correct answer is: Dilution

Which action rarely has practical applications at hazmat incidents in terms of spill control? Select one: a.Dilution b.Adsorption c.Neutralization d.Vapor suppression

See page 655 The correct answer is: The Postal Inspection Service

Which agency investigates incidents involving suspicious letters or packages? Select one: a.Local law enforcement b.The Postal Inspection Service c.The Federal Bureau of Investigations d.Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives

See page 597 The correct answer is: Dead or fatally injured

Which basic category of triage is considered the lowest priority? Select one: a.Minor injuries b.Dead or fatally injured c.Life-threatening injuries and illnesses d.Serious, but not life-threatening injuries

See page 247 The correct answer is: Nonpressure

Which cargo tank truck almost always carries flammable/combustible liquids such as gasoline, fuel oil, or alcohol? Select one: a.Cryogenic b.Nonpressure c.Low pressure d.High pressure

See page 399 The correct answer is: Riot control agents

Which category of chemical agents may be sold legally as personal defense devices? Select one: a.Nerve gas b.Blood agents c.Riot control agents d.Chemical asphyxiants

See page 179-181 The correct answer is: Class 1

Which class of hazards is characterized by thermal and mechanical hazards in the form of blast pressure waves, shrapnel and fragmentation, and incendiary thermal effects? Select one: a.Class 1 b.Class 2 c.Class 3 d.Class 4

B. Blast pressure wave

Which explosion hazard is the primary reason for injuries and damage? A. Seismic Effect B. Blast pressure wave C. Shrapnel fragmentation D. Incendiary Thermal effect

a. Operations-core personnel see page 14

Which first responders are allowed to perform some defensive actions, but, with some exceptions, are not expected to come into contact with hazardous materials? Select one: a.Operations-core personnel b.Awareness level personnel c.Hazardous materials technician d.Operations mission-specific personnel

b. Awareness level personnel see page 14

Which first responders may only perform limited defensive actions such as calling for help and evacuating the area? Select one: a.Operations-core personnel b.Awareness level personnel c.Hazardous materials technician d.Operations mission-specific personnel

See page 446-446 The correct answer is: Level C

Which level of PPE is only used when the specific material is known and has been measured, and the atmosphere is not IDLH? Select one: a.Level A b.Level B c.Level C d.Level D

See page 445-446 The correct answer is: Level B

Which level of PPE is worn when the highest level of respiratory protection is necessary, but a lesser level of skin protection is needed? Select one: a.Level A b.Level B c.Level C d.Level D

See page 299 The correct answer is: Level I

Which level of incident is MOST likely to be within the capabilities of the first responder having jurisdiction? Select one: a.Level I b.Level II c.Level III d.Level IV

See page 300 The correct answer is: Level III

Which level of incident is most likely to require a unified command and large-scale evacuation? Select one: a.Level I b.Level II c.Level III d.Level IV

See page 445 The correct answer is: Level A

Which level of protection provides the highest available level of respiratory, skin, and eye protection from solid, liquid, and gaseous chemicals? Select one: a.Level A b.Level B c.Level C d.Level D

See page 322 The correct answer is: Strategic level

Which level of the basic Command organization configuration entails the overall direction and goals of an incident? Select one: a.Task level b.Tactical level c.Logistics level d.Strategic level

B. Awareness See page 17

Which level responder is trained only to establish scene control by isolating the hazardous area and denying entry? A. Technician B. Awareness C. Operations D. Operations mission-specific

C. Operations See page 18

Which level responder is trained to identify potential hazard and identify response options but not to preform mission specific tasks with specialized competencies? A. Technician B. Awareness C. Operations D. Operations mission-specific

D. Operations mission-specific

Which level responder is trained to preform mission-specific tasks with specialized competencies? A. Technician B. Awareness C. Operations D. Operations mission-specific

D. Operations mission-specific See page 20

Which level responder is trained to preform mission-specific tasks with specialized competencies? A. Technician B. Awareness C. Operations D. Operations mission-specific

See page 484 The correct answer is: Dry

Which method of decontamination may be as simple as placing contaminated clothing into a suitable plastic bag or recovery drum? Select one: a.Dry b.Wet c.Gross d.Chemical

See page 618 The correct answer is: Neutralization

Which method of spill control involves raising or lowering the pH of corrosive materials? Select one: a.Dilution b.Neutralization c.Vapor suppression d.Blanketing/covering

See page 405 The correct answer is: Airborne

Which mode of disease transmission has the potential to infect a large number of people quickly? Select one: a.Vector b.Droplet c.Airborne d.Direct contact

See page 303 The correct answer is: Offensive

Which mode of operation includes action to control a hazardous material incident such as plugging a leak? Select one: a.Offensive b.Defensive c.Operational d.Nonintervention

See page 303 The correct answer is: Defensive

Which mode of operation includes confinement of a hazardous material? Select one: a.Offensive b.Defensive c.Operational d.Nonintervention

See page 325 The correct answer is: Operations Section

Which of the five major NIMS-ICS organizational functions are responsible for the establishment and maintenance of the staging area: Select one: a.Logistics Section b.Planning Section c.Command Section d.Operations Section

See page 226 The correct answer is: psig

Which of the following BEST describes a unit of pressure relative to the surrounding atmosphere? Select one: a.kJ b.kPa c.psig d.Atmospheres

See page 309 The correct answer is: A well-thought-out, organized course of events developed to address all phases of incident control within a specified time

Which of the following BEST describes an incident action plan (IAP)? Select one: a.A specific operation performed in a specific order to accomplish the goals of the response objective b.A well-thought-out, organized course of events developed to address all phases of incident control within a specified time c.A detailed but flexible series of response objectives that describe contingencies for all possible incident outcomes d.A series of recommendations that follow best practices on determining the extent of risks and hazards present at an incident

See page 652 The correct answer is: Evidence obtained by scientific methods that is usable in court

Which of the following BEST describes forensic evidence? Select one: a.Evidence obtained by scientific methods that is usable in court b.Evidence collected at crime scenes and processed at forensic labs c.Material objects evaluated during an investigation which tend to prove or disprove facts d.Material objects that support presumptions or inferences formed from direct or physical evidence

See page 303 The correct answer is: The mode of operation may change during the course of an incident.

Which of the following BEST describes the three modes of operation? Select one: a.Modes of operation determine incident priorities at an incident. b.The mode of operation may change during the course of an incident. c.Only one mode of operation should be used at an incident in order to avoid confusion. d.They are based on the assumption that responders should interfere with incidents as little as possible.

See page 314 The correct answer is: Determining the need for personal protective equipment

Which of the following actions are considered to be part of identifying action options? Select one: a.Performing product identification b.Determining the size and scope of the incident c.Performing emergency decontamination operations d.Determining the need for personal protective equipment

See page 310 The correct answer is: Its ability to prevent further injuries and/or deaths

Which of the following criteria is used to select response objectives? Select one: a.Its ability to prevent further injuries and/or deaths b.Its ability to correctly identify the product involved c.Its ability to determine the proper course of action d.Its ability to restrict unknown hazards to a minimum

D. Operations Mission-Specific

Which of the following hazardous materials responders may perform defensive and limited offensive actions? A. Awareness B. Awareness Care C. Operations Core D. Operations Mission-Specific

See page 501 The correct answer is: Victim's gender

Which of the following is MOST likely NOT to be a factor influencing the priority of treatment for ambulatory victims? Select one: a.Victim's gender b.Victims closest to release c.Victims with conventional injuries d.Victims with serious medical symptoms

See page 414 The correct answer is: Unlabeled and/or mixed chemicals

Which of the following is MOST likely to be a hazard at an illegal hazmat dump? Select one: a.Shrapnel b.Booby traps c.High levels of radiation d.Unlabeled and/or mixed chemicals

See page 271-272 The correct answer is: Chlorine

Which of the following is MOST likely to be stored in a ton container? Select one: a.Gasoline b.Chlorine c.Fertilizer d.Plastic pellets

See page 212 The correct answer is: Multiple agencies and jurisdictions are affected

Which of the following is NOT a common element of any hazmat incident, as stated by the General Hazardous Materials Behavior Model (GEBMO)? Select one: a.Multiple agencies and jurisdictions are affected b.Container or containers that have failed or have the potential to fail c.Exposure or potential exposure to people, the environment, and/or property d.Material or materials presenting hazards to people, the environment, or property

A. Hose

Which of the following is NOT a specialized tool or equipment for performing rescue? A. Hose B. Triage tag C. Heat-sensing device D. Personal protective clothing

B. Large blanket

Which of the following is NOT a type of litter? A. Ambulance cot B. Large blanket C. Scoop stretcher D. Long backboard

Managing the overall incident

Which of the following is NOT a unit leader's responsibility? A. Managing the overall incident B. Ensuring that a decontamination station is established C. Ensuring that a back up team is in position prior to entry D. Briefing unit members of the objective and required tasks

See page 309-310 The correct answer is: Exposure reports

Which of the following is NOT an element of an incident action plan (IAP)? Select one: a.Status of injuries b.Exposure reports c.Hazard statement d.Protective measures

See page 598-599 The correct answer is: Defensive fire suppression operations

Which of the following is NOT considered to be a rescue method? Select one: a.Lifts, carries, or drags b.Hand signals or verbal instructions c.Defensive fire suppression operations d.Pulling the victim in the direction of the body's long axis

c. Canadian Nuclear Safety Commission see page 34

Which of the following is a Canadian agency that regulates dangerous goods/hazardous materials? Select one: a.Safe Labour Canada b.International Atomic Energy Agency c.Canadian Nuclear Safety Commission d.Interprovincial Transportation Commission

See page 311 The correct answer is: Crime scene and evidence preservation

Which of the following is a common response objective? Select one: a.Documentation b.Monitoring and detection c.Crime scene and evidence preservation d.Implementation of an incident command system

See page 546 The correct answer is: Improperly calibrated or maintained devices may give inaccurate and misleading results.

Which of the following is a consequence of using improperly calibrated or maintained devices? Select one: a.Improperly calibrated or maintained devices are likely to explode. b.Improperly calibrated or maintained devices will likely function as intended. c.Improperly calibrated or maintained devices may stop working during detection. d.Improperly calibrated or maintained devices may give inaccurate and misleading results.

See page 323-324 The correct answer is: Conducting safety briefings

Which of the following is a duty of a safety officer? Select one: a.Conducting safety briefings b.Establishing the site safety plan c.Establishing a decontamination plan and operation d.Identifying the materials or conditions involved in the incident

D. Gave the EPA the authority to control hazardous waste and hold the responsible party accountable for the hazardous materials.

Which of the following is a function of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)? A. Created a tax on chemical and petroleum industries B. Enabled the revision of the National Contingency Plan C. Encouraged greater citizen participation in making decisions on how sites should be cleaned up D. Gave the EPA the authority to control hazardous waste and hold the responsible party accountable for the hazardous materials.

C. Established a trust fund to provide for cleanup when no responsible could be identified

Which of the following is a function of the Superfund Act? A. Increased state involvement in every phase of the Superfund program B. Required each state to appoint a State Emergency Response commission C. Established a trust fund to provide for cleanup when no responsible could be identified D. Enabled EPA to address environmental problems that could result from underground tanks storing hazardous

See page 249 The correct answer is: The contents can damage tools and equipment, including firefighter protective clothing.

Which of the following is a hazard with incidents involving a corrosive liquids tank truck? Select one: a.The contents can cause severe cold burns. b.Very small particles released in a breach are an inhalation hazard. c.The ionizing radiation emitted can cause long-term effects such as cancer. d.The contents can damage tools and equipment, including firefighter protective clothing.

D. Implement the planned response to control a release

Which of the following is a responsibility of ONLY Operations-Level Responders? A. Recognize the type of container on site B. Recognize the presence of a hazardous material C. Identify actions to protect themselves from hazards D. Implement the planned response to control a release

C. Polyvinyl Chloride

Which of the following is an example of a carcinogen? A. Ammonia B. Strychnine C. Polyvinyl Chloride D. Potassium Hydroxide

See page 307 The correct answer is: APIE

Which of the following is an example of a response model? Select one: a.APIE b.HAZWOPER c.SARA or PHSMA d.29 CFR 1710.120

See page 352 The correct answer is: A sudden change in pressure

Which of the following is an indicator to withdraw immediately? Select one: a.Black smoke b.Consistent temperatures c.A sudden change in pressure d.Alarm sounding on a photoionization detector.

See page 305 The correct answer is: Protecting exposures

Which of the following is considered a defensive action? Select one: a.Protecting exposures b.Plugging a container leak c.Overpacking a nonbulk container d.Isolating the hazard area and denying entry

See page 451 The correct answer is: Size of incident

Which of the following is most likely NOT to be a factor for selecting protective clothing? Select one: a.Cost b.Size of incident c.Ease of decontamination d.Material chemical resistance

See page 296 The correct answer is: How much time has elapsed since the incident began?

Which of the following is the BEST example of a question that emergency responders should consider during the initial survey? Select one: a.What did we do right? b.How can we improve? c.Has a similar incident happened elsewhere? d.How much time has elapsed since the incident began?

See page 546 The correct answer is: Cost does not determine effectiveness.

Which of the following is true of the relationship between cost and effectiveness of an instrument? Select one: a.Cost does not determine effectiveness. b.More expensive instruments are more effective. c.The more expensive the instrument, the less likely it is to become obsolete. d.More expensive instruments do not have to be calibrated as often as cheaper instruments.

2

Which of the following labels indicate the product is a gas?

See page 412 The correct answer is: Unusual odors in unexpected places such as hotel rooms

Which of the following might suggest an illicit lab? Select one: a.Barred windows at an Alzheimer's facility b.Laboratory glassware in a high school science class c.Disinfectants and gloves in a motel's cleaning facility d.Unusual odors in unexpected places such as hotel rooms

See page 240 The correct answer is: Vents and fill points

Which of the following provides visual clues to the presence of underground bulk facility tanks? Select one: a.Spherical shape b.Pipeline markers c.Vents and fill points d.Black and yellow placards

See page 437 The correct answer is: No single type of CPC can protect against all hazards.

Which of the following statements about CPC is MOST accurate? Select one: a.CPC protects against all types of chemicals. b.CPC is only made from one type of material. c.It is appropriate for flammable environments. d.No single type of CPC can protect against all hazards.

See page 147 The correct answer is: Catastrophic container failure can result.

Which of the following statements about a BLEVE is MOST accurate? Select one: a.Catastrophic container failure can result. b.It is rare in flammable materials with low boiling points. c.During a BLEVE, vapor in a tank is released, then contracts rapidly and ignites. d.BLEVEs most commonly occur when too much water has been applied to cool a tank.

See page 137 The correct answer is: The behavior of different states of matter can determine what exposures are affected.

Which of the following statements about a hazardous materials state of matter is MOST accurate? Select one: a.In general, liquids have the greatest mobility. b.A gas may change to a liquid if the temperature increases. c.The ERG provides isolation distances only for materials in gaseous form. d.The behavior of different states of matter can determine what exposures are affected.

See page 177 The correct answer is: Some biological hazards have been weaponized.

Which of the following statements about biological (etiological) hazards is MOST accurate? Select one: a.Some biological hazards have been weaponized. b.Body fluids do NOT contain or transmit biological hazards. c.Biological hazards are only encountered in hospitals or laboratories. d.Biological hazards only come from organisms themselves, not their waste products.

See page 314 The correct answer is: Emergency decontamination should be considered at all hazmat incidents.

Which of the following statements about determining the need for emergency decontamination at an incident is MOST accurate? Select one: a.Emergency decontamination should be considered at all hazmat incidents. b.Emergency decontamination is necessary for anyone exposed to a hazardous material. c.Emergency decontamination is the sudden failure of personal protective equipment or clothing. d.Emergency decontamination includes the transfer of a hazardous material in greater than acceptable quantities.

See page 140 The correct answer is: Gases have an undefined shape and keep expanding if uncontained.

Which of the following statements about gases is MOST accurate? Select one: a.Gases do not present a breathing/inhalation hazard. b.It is quite easy to contain gases for mitigation purposes. c.It is easiest and safest to detect gases by sense of smell. d.Gases have an undefined shape and keep expanding if uncontained.

See page 655 The correct answer is: Multiple agencies may work together in a Task Force setting.

Which of the following statements about investigative authority in the U.S. is MOST accurate? Select one: a.Multiple agencies may work together in a Task Force setting. b.Only one agency may be involved in an investigation at a time. c.Environmental crimes fall under the jurisdiction of U.S. Marshals Service. d.Public health departments have jurisdiction over suspicious letters or packages.

See page 226 The correct answer is: Pressure containers are subject to stress when holding materials.

Which of the following statements about pressure containers is the MOST accurate? Select one: a.Pressure containers carry solids. b.Pressure containers are not subject to chemical or mechanical stress. c.Pressure containers are subject to stress when holding materials. d.Hazmat incidents involving pressure containers are NOT dangerous to emergency responders.

See page 309 The correct answer is: Risk-based response should be implemented for all hazardous materials incidents.

Which of the following statements about product identification and risk-based response is MOST accurate? Select one: a.Risk-based response requires all products on scene to be identified. b.If the product cannot be identified, risk-based response is not recommended. c.Risk-based response should be implemented for all hazardous materials incidents. d.Product identification is not a vital element in successful mitigation of a hazmat incident.

See page 167 The correct answer is: Small amounts of radiation received over a long period of time is a chronic dose.

Which of the following statements about radiation dose is MOST accurate? Select one: a.Lethal doses of radiation are commonly encountered. b.Exposure to radiation received in a short period of time is a chronic dose. c.Small amounts of radiation received over a long period of time is a chronic dose. d.The body is better equipped to handle an acute dose of radiation than a chronic dose.

See page 166 The correct answer is: Damage is often described in terms of dosage, indicating the amount of energy absorbed by matter.

Which of the following statements about radiation is MOST accurate? Select one: a.Exposure to radiation will make a person radioactive. b.Exposure to any amount of radiation will cause radiation sickness. c.Radioactive contamination occurs when radiation passes through people or things. d.Damage is often described in terms of dosage, indicating the amount of energy absorbed by matter.

D. The remains of deceased victims are recovered for body identification

Which of the following statements about recovery operations is MOST accurate? A. They are high priority B. They occur during rescue operations C. Bodies do not need to remain in place for law enforcement D. The remains of deceased victims are recovered for body identification

See page 143 The correct answer is: The particle size of solids may influence their behavior.

Which of the following statements about solids is MOST accurate? Select one: a.The process of sublimation is rapid and violent. b.The particle size of solids may influence their behavior. c.Solids tend to be very mobile unless acted upon by exterior forces. d.Unlike liquids and vaporous liquids, solids do not have inhalation hazards.

See page 137 The correct answer is: Gaseous, liquid, and solid materials behave differently.

Which of the following statements about state of matter is MOST accurate? Select one: a.Gaseous, liquid, and solid materials behave differently. b.Gaseous, liquid, and solid materials have the same mobility. c.A material's physical state has no effect on the behavior of its container. d.The same PPE will be worn at a hazmat incident no matter the physical state of the hazardous material.

See page 272 The correct answer is: They typically release their contents as gases or vapors.

Which of the following statements about ton containers is MOST accurate? Select one: a.They are usually nonpressure tanks. b.They are the largest type of fixed facility containers. c.They are normally stored on their ends to save space. d.They typically release their contents as gases or vapors.

See page 597 The correct answer is: Non-line-of-sight, non-ambulatory victims

Which of the following types of victims have generally experienced the greatest exposure and related dose? Select one: a.Line-of-sight, ambulatory victims b.Line-of-sight, non-ambulatory victims c.Non-line-of-sight, ambulatory victims d.Non-line-of-sight, non-ambulatory victims

C. IDLH

Which of the following value represents an atmosphere that poses an immediate hazard to life or produces immediate, irreversible, debilitating effects on health? A. PEL B. REL C. IDLH D. TLV-TWA

See page 660 The correct answer is: Each person

Which person in the chain of custody is a candidate for subpoena in court? Select one: a.Each person b.The final person c.The person who found the evidence d.The person who collected the evidence

See page 372 The correct answer is: Both phases

Which phase of a blast-pressure wave can cause damage? Select one: a.Both phases b.Neither phase c.Positive-pressure phase only d.Negative-pressure phase only

See page 486 The correct answer is: Gross

Which phase of decontamination removes a significant amount of surface contamination as quickly as possible? Select one: a.Mass b.Gross c.Technical d.Emergency

See page 613 The correct answer is: Blanketing/covering

Which process might be used for the temporary mitigation of radioactive and biological substances? Select one: a.Dilution b.Absorption c.Adsorption d.Blanketing/covering

See page 346 The correct answer is: Shelter in place

Which protective action involves directing people to go quickly inside or to stay inside a room or a building and remain inside until danger passes? Select one: a.Reporting b.Shelter in place c.Exposure protection d.Protecting/defending in place

See page 591 The correct answer is: Is it a rescue operation or a recovery operation?

Which question is MOST likely to be asked when determining the feasibility of rescue operations? Select one: a.Who owns the facility/vehicle involved? b.Has the product been precisely identified? c.Is it a rescue operation or a recovery operation? d.Can rescue operations begin while waiting for additional personnel and/or equipment?

See page 310 The correct answer is: A first responder assuming the role of IC

Which responder will need to develop and implement an incident action plan (IAP)? Select one: a.The highest ranking officer on scene b.A first responder assuming the role of IC c.Anyone trained to Hazardous Material Technician level d.The first responder assigned to the Operations section

Orange

Which section of the ERG provides the fire, explosion, and health hazard information for the material identified by the first responder?

See page 204 The correct answer is: Provide immediate technical assistance to the caller.

Which service will an emergency response center provide for first responders? Select one: a.Establish a command structure. b.Notify local emergency services. c.Deploy the shipper or manufacturer to the site. d.Provide immediate technical assistance to the caller.

See page 668 The correct answer is: Exterior evidence packaging should not be opened for decontamination.

Which statement BEST describes the process of decontaminating samples and evidence? Select one: a.Any sample taken must be fully decontaminated before packaging. b.Exterior evidence packaging should not be opened for decontamination. c.Decontamination of exterior evidence packaging is possible, but not recommended. d.Samples and evidence should only be decontaminated after processing in a laboratory.

See page 445 The correct answer is: It provides the highest level of protection against vapors, gases, mists, and particles, for the respiratory tract and skin.

Which statement about Level A PPE protection is MOST accurate? Select one: a.It does not require special training to use. b.It is composed of a splash-protecting garment and an air-purifying device. c.It provides excellent liquid splash-protection but no protection from chemical vapors or gases. d.It provides the highest level of protection against vapors, gases, mists, and particles, for the respiratory tract and skin.

See page 234 The correct answer is: They come in many varieties.

Which statement about bulk facility storage tanks is MOST accurate? Select one: a.They come in many varieties. b.These pressure containers are all spherical. c.They are rated to 15 psi (103 kPa) or greater. d.Because they are fixed, they are not hazardous.

See page 597 The correct answer is: A more thorough triage will be conducted after victims have gone through the decon process.

Which statement about conducting triage during rescue operations is MOST accurate? Select one: a.The purpose of triage is to determine if a victim is ambulatory or not. b.Common triage systems only have two categories that can be used to assign victims. c.Any additional triage other than those initially completed by rescuers wastes valuable time. d.A more thorough triage will be conducted after victims have gone through the decon process.

See page 218 The correct answer is: Generally, large amounts of stored energy result in a more rapid release.

Which statement about container release is MOST accurate? Select one: a.Container releases always occur rapidly and violently. b.Generally, large amounts of stored energy result in a more rapid release. c.The duration of a detonation is measured in seconds or minutes. d.A spill or leak is the immediate release of chemical or mechanical energy caused by runaway cracks.

See page 651 The correct answer is: These types of incidents differ greatly in their characterization, location, and associated hazards.

Which statement about criminal hazardous materials/WMD incidents, environmental crimes, and illicit labs is MOST accurate? Select one: a.Response actions are the same at each type of incident. b.Only environmental crimes require the use of the Incident Management System. c.These types of incidents differ greatly in their characterization, location, and associated hazards. d.The Incident Management System is not used at criminal or potentially criminal hazmat incidents.

See page 506 The correct answer is: Decon emergency responders separately from victims.

Which statement about decon is MOST accurate? Select one: a.Always use cold water for decon. b.Privacy is not a consideration during decon. c.Decon emergency responders and victims together. d.Decon emergency responders separately from victims.

See page 663 The correct answer is: Individual responders may be called to testify about their observations.

Which statement about documentation and observations from possible criminal hazmat/WMD incidents is MOST accurate? Select one: a.Individual responders may be called to testify about their observations. b.Emergency medical personnel documents cannot be part of a crime scene case file. c.It is the Incident Commander's responsibility to compile reports and other documentation of the crime scene into a case file. d.Handing over all documentation and observations about the incident will be the extent of any responder's involvement with criminal proceedings.

See page 251 The correct answer is: Low pressures may be used to discharge or transfer the products.

Which statement about dry bulk cargo trailers is MSOT accurate? Select one: a.They are always pressurized. b.They are never under pressure. c.Pockets of high pressure may be found inside the trailer. d.Low pressures may be used to discharge or transfer the products.

See page 654 The correct answer is: Environmental crime scenes may include hazards in the form of armed owners/operators.

Which statement about environmental crimes is MOST accurate? Select one: a.These types of crimes rarely require any mitigation efforts. b.All operations must be conducted by federal agencies such as the EPA. c.Environmental crime scenes may include hazards in the form of armed owners/operators. d.Environmental crimes involve any use and/or disposal of hazardous substances and waste.

See page 199 The correct answer is: First responders should use a variety of sources to gather information.

Which statement about gathering information during a hazmat incident is MOST accurate? Select one: a.Shipping papers are the last resort in a hazmat incident. b.First responders should use a variety of sources to gather information. c.The ERG should contain all the information that a first responder needs. d.At a highway incident, the driver of the vehicle will have the most up-to-date information.

See page 294 The correct answer is: An initial assessment should be updated as additional information becomes available.

Which statement about hazard and risk assessment is MOST accurate? Select one: a.An initial assessment is based on all possible conditions. b.If only limited information is available, initial assessments should be postponed. c.An initial assessment should be updated as additional information becomes available. d.The resources available to hazmat teams mean that a full, accurate picture of the incident will always be available.

See page 209 The correct answer is: When first responders collect information about the physical and chemical properties of released hazardous materials, they can estimate potential harms.

Which statement about identifying potential outcomes is MOST accurate? Select one: a.Because each container release is unique, it is impossible to predict how an incident may progress. b.Site hazards such as weather and topography are irrelevant when it comes to identifying potential outcomes. c.The material and chemical properties that hazards exhibit upon release do NOT influence how a container will behave when damaged or ruptured. d.When first responders collect information about the physical and chemical properties of released hazardous materials, they can estimate potential harms.

See page 291 The correct answer is: You should never risk your life to save property that is replaceable or cannot be saved.

Which statement about incident priorities is MOST accurate? Select one: a.Incidents usually do not evolve or change. b.Once the IC establishes priorities, they should not change. c.The first and most important incident priority is always societal restoration. d.You should never risk your life to save property that is replaceable or cannot be saved.

See page 265 The correct answer is: You may not be able to determine by the shape of the container whether it contains hazardous materials.

Which statement about intermodal containers is MOST accurate? Select one: a.Intermodal containers do not carry cryogenic materials. b.Intermodal shipping papers are highly regulated and always accurate. c.Intermodal tank containers generally have a cylinder shape that is open at one end. d.You may not be able to determine by the shape of the container whether it contains hazardous materials.

See page 708-709 The correct answer is: It allows agencies to locate the deficiencies in operation, the needed equipment, and/or assistance needed by other agencies before the actual event occurs.

Which statement about joint training is MOST accurate? Select one: a.It reduces the effectiveness of each group, respectively, because they are not training to the level of specificity they should be. b.It allows agencies to prepare for every possible hazard that could be present at a hazmat incident involving illicit laboratories. c.It is only necessary when preparing and training for potential terrorist attacks, but it is not as helpful for incidents involving illicit drug labs. d.It allows agencies to locate the deficiencies in operation, the needed equipment, and/or assistance needed by other agencies before the actual event occurs.

See page 438 The correct answer is: It often exposes part of the head and neck.

Which statement about nonencapsulating liquid splash protective clothing is MOST accurate? Select one: a.It is resistant to heat and flame exposure. b.It often exposes part of the head and neck. c.It protects against chemical vapors and gases. d.It does not impair worker mobility, vision, or communication.

See page 189 The correct answer is: They vigorously support combustion and may be explosive.

Which statement about oxidizers is MOST accurate? Select one: a.They cannot burn without air being present. b.They vigorously support combustion and may be explosive. c.They may produce hydrogen gas when in contact with metal. d.Although they support combustion, they are not an explosive hazard.

See page 275 The correct answer is: Hydrocarbons are often comingled in pipelines.

Which statement about pipelines is MOST accurate? Select one: a.Pipelines are always buried. b.Hydrocarbons are often comingled in pipelines. c.Each pipeline can carry only one type of product. d.Pipeline operators are not required to provide information to emergency responders.

See page 273 The correct answer is: The type of packaging used to transport radioactive materials is determined by the activity, type, and form of the material to be shipped.

Which statement about radioactive materials containers is MOST accurate? Select one: a.Radioactive fuels are often transmitted via pipeline. b.Because they are so uncommon, their transportation is not regulated. c.All radioactive materials or materials that may have been in contact with radioactive materials must be packed the same way. d.The type of packaging used to transport radioactive materials is determined by the activity, type, and form of the material to be shipped.

See page 422 The correct answer is: Respiratory protection is important for first responders because inhalation is the most significant route of entry for hazardous materials.

Which statement about respiratory protection is MOST accurate? Select one: a.Respiratory equipment has no limits. b.SCBA is the only type of respiratory equipment used at hazmat incidents. c.Protective breathing equipment will not protect against inhalation of hazardous materials. d.Respiratory protection is important for first responders because inhalation is the most significant route of entry for hazardous materials.

See page 433 The correct answer is: Gases and vapors can permeate the garments.

Which statement about structural firefighters' protective clothing is accurate? Select one: a.Gases and vapors can permeate the garments. b.It provides exposure protection from liquid chemicals. c.Gaps in structural fire fighting clothing only occur at the wrists and waist. d.Although some hazardous materials can permeate structural fire fighting clothing, the material will quickly dissipate.

See page 659 The correct answer is: Any photos taken at the scene may become evidence.

Which statement about taking photos at a criminal hazardous materials/WMD incident is MOST accurate? Select one: a.Any photos taken at the scene may become evidence. b.Only law enforcement may take photos at a crime scene. c.Any photos taken by first responders at the scene are inadmissible in court proceedings. d.Photo documentation should only take place after the remediation phase of the incident.

See page 211 The correct answer is: It describes a general pattern regarding how a hazardous material and its container are likely to behave.

Which statement about the General Hazardous Materials Behavior Model is MOST accurate? Select one: a.It assumes that all hazardous materials react the same way. b.The behavior model is specific to incidents involving BLEVEs. c.It predicts the type and amount of harm caused by a hazardous material after container breach. d.It describes a general pattern regarding how a hazardous material and its container are likely to behave.

See page 442 The correct answer is: Always follow AHJ SOP/Gs and manufacturer's specifications in regards to serviceability.

Which statement about the service life of CPC is MOST accurate? Select one: a.CPC ensembles have no specific service life. b.Always follow AHJ SOP/Gs and manufacturer's specifications in regards to serviceability. c.If a CPC garment is discolored, it is still perfectly usable as long as the serviceability date has not passed. d.A CPC suit used in the hot zone does not need to be decontaminated unless contamination is verified visually.

See page 593 The correct answer is: The unit leader dons a chemical protective suit only in certain situations.

Which statement about the unit leader assigned to rescue operations is MOST accurate? Select one: a.The unit leader must be Technician level or higher. b.The unit leader should be the Incident Commander. c.The unit leader should always wear the same level of PPE as the entry team. d.The unit leader dons a chemical protective suit only in certain situations.

See page 448 The correct answer is: Overprotection, as well as underprotection, can be hazardous and should be avoided.

Which statement is MOST accurate about choosing PPE ensembles? Select one: a.Chemical and physical hazards are less important selection factors when the duration of exposure is expected to be less than 15 minutes. b.Because the IC will select the appropriate level of PPE to be used at an incident, a responder does not need to understand the selection process. c.Overprotection, as well as underprotection, can be hazardous and should be avoided. d.The highest available PPE should always be used in case there are unexpected hazards.

See page 462 The correct answer is: Hand signals should be designated for loss of air supply or suit integrity.

Which statement regarding PPE safety and emergency communications is MOST accurate? Select one: a.Hand signals should be designated for loss of air supply or suit integrity. b.Radio communications should be designated as a backup system only. c.Communication capabilities are only required for responders wearing SARs or APRs. d.Providing direction via a PA system or bullhorn is the universal emergency evacuation signal.

See page 466 The correct answer is: Personnel who are doffing equipment should allow the assisting personnel to perform the work.

Which statement regarding doffing PPE after coming out of the hot zone is MOST accurate? Select one: a.Assisting personnel should only touch the inside of the garments. b.Entry team members should only touch the outside of the garments. c.The first item removed from entry personnel should be the respirator facepiece. d.Personnel who are doffing equipment should allow the assisting personnel to perform the work.

See page 459 The correct answer is: Post-medical monitoring follow-up is also recommended.

Which statement regarding medical monitoring or responders wearing PPE is MOST accurate? Select one: a.Post-medical monitoring follow-up is also recommended. b.If vital signs are steady pre-entry, then they do not need to be taken again. c.Post-entry monitoring is not necessary if no exposure or contamination has occurred. d.If a facepiece makes a responder feel claustrophobic, they may take it off at their own discretion.

See page 667 The correct answer is: Prepare evidence containers before entering the exclusion zone

Which step in the sample collection process comes before recording the sample location, conditions, and other information? Select one: a.Compile the chain of custody form b.Prepare evidence containers before entering the exclusion zone c.Place the sample in an overpack container and seal it with tamper-proof tape d.Place the sample and chain of custody form in an approved transport container

See page 616 The correct answer is: Ventilation

Which tactic is performed to control air movement using natural or mechanical means? Select one: a.Dilution b.Ventilation c.Neutralization d.Vapor suppression

A. 1

Which triage priority applies to life threatening injuries and illnesses? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

See page 354 The correct answer is: Postincident critiques and postincident analysis

Which two procedural actions are involved in the termination phase of an incident? Select one: a.Salvage and overhaul b.Rescue and evacuation c.Postincident critiques and postincident analysis d.Postincident decontamination and postincident scene control

See page 437 The correct answer is: Chemical-protective clothing (CPC)

Which type of PPE is designed to shield or isolate a responder from chemical or biological hazards? Select one: a.Chemical-protective clothing (CPC) b.Flame-resistant protective clothing c.High temperature-protective clothing d.Structural firefighters' protective clothing

See page 403 The correct answer is: Biological

Which type of attack may not be as immediately obvious? Select one: a.Nuclear b.Biological c.Explosive d.Chemical

See page 403 The correct answer is: Viruses

Which type of biological agent can only replicate inside a host's living cells and does not respond to antibiotics? Select one: a.Toxins b.Viruses c.Bacteria d.Rickettsias

See page 176 The correct answer is: Rickettsias

Which type of biological/etiological hazard spreads mostly through the bite of infected arthropods? Select one: a.Viruses b.Bacteria c.Rickettsias d.Biological toxins

See page 619 The correct answer is: Corrosive liquid tanks

Which type of cargo tank truck does NOT typically have emergency shutoff devices? Select one: a.High pressure tanks b.Corrosive liquid tanks c.Nonpressure liquid tanks d.Low-pressure chemical tanks

See page 363 The correct answer is: Intent

Which type of concept differentiates between nontargeted emergencies and a targeted attack? Select one: a.Intent b.Use of PPE c.Unknown materials d.Monitoring and detection devices

See page 217 The correct answer is: Runaway cracking

Which type of container breach has been documented as causing a BLEVE? Select one: a.Puncture b.Split or tear c.Runaway cracking d.Broken attachments

See page 486 The correct answer is: Gross

Which type of decon may involve using wipes or other decon methods to remove soot from the face, head, and neck? Select one: a.Mass b.Gross c.Technical d.Emergency

See page 428 The correct answer is: Particulate removing

Which type of filter is MOST likely to be used when biological hazards are known to be present? Select one: a.Powered b.Ambient air c.Vapor reducing d.Particulate removing

See page 294-295 The correct answer is: Names of victims

Which type of information is generally NOT needed for hazard and risk assessment? Select one: a.Weather b.Time of day c.Names of victims d.Number and type of injuries

See page 165 The correct answer is: Gamma

Which type of ionizing radiation consists of high-energy photons? Select one: a.Alpha b.Beta c.Gamma d.Neutron

See page 165 The correct answer is: Beta

Which type of radiation can be reduced or stopped by a layer of clothing, a thin sheet of metal, or a thick Plexiglass? Select one: a.Alpha b.Beta c.Gamma d.Neutron

Neutron

Which type of radiation has a physical mass like alpha radiation but has no electrical charge?

D. Gamma

Which type of radiation has neither a charge nor a mass? A. Beta B. Alpha C. Neutron D. Gamma

Beta

Which type of radiation is composed of fast moving, positively or negatively charged electrons emitted from the nucleus during radioactive decay? A. Beta B. Alpha C. Neutron D. Gamma

Beta

Which type of radiation is generally more hazardous when inhaled or ingested and may travel appreciable distances in air?

See page 426 The correct answer is: APR

Which type of respirator can remove vapor and gas? Select one: a.APR b.CPC c.SCBA d.IDLH

See page 597 The correct answer is: Non-line-of-sight, non-ambulatory victims

Which type of victims are typically last to be rescued from the hot zone? Select one: a.Line-of-sight, ambulatory victims b.Line-of-sight, non-ambulatory victims c.Non-line-of-sight, ambulatory victims d.Non-line-of-sight, non-ambulatory victims

See page 532 The correct answer is: Milligrams per kilogram

Which unit of measurement describes materials in terms of concentration? Select one: a.Kilopascals b.Grams per hour c.Millimeters of mercury d.Milligrams per kilogram

Explosive manufacturing

While extinguishing a small fire in an unoccupied house, you discover a lab setup and numerous types of raw materials. There is particularly a large amount of powders. What type of illegal activity might be occurring here?

See page 562 The correct answer is: a temperature change.

While no current meter or device can detect reactive materials, potentially hazardous chemical reactions will cause: Select one: a.phase changes. b.a temperature change. c.an increase in radiation. d.increased oxygen levels.

See page 594 The correct answer is: report these to the unit leader immediately.

While operating in the hot zone, the entry team must stay alert for any clues, signs, or causes that could have contributed to the spill or release and must: Select one: a.leave the hot zone immediately if found. b.report these to the unit leader immediately. c.stop and investigate before continuing rescue operations. d.request a product control plan from the Incident Commander.

See page 694 The correct answer is: access to some of the necessary ingredients may be restricted.

While recipes for chemical warfare agents may be easy to find,: Select one: a.all of the necessary ingredients and equipment are rare. b.access to some of the necessary ingredients may be restricted. c.no manufacturing equipment exists that can produce these agents. d.the chemicals used, such as organophosphate pesticides, are no longer manufactured.

See page 233 The correct answer is: release vapors that act like gases.

While streams and pools are common dispersion patterns for container breaches involving liquids, many liquids also: Select one: a.spontaneously combust. b.release vapors that act like gases. c.remain under pressure once released. d.freeze upon contact with the atmosphere.

Contact CHEMTREC for assistance

While surveying a hazmat incident scene, you notice yellowish vapors emitting from a cylinder. The driver of the vehicle carrying the cylinders tells you they contain chlorine. As a responder trained to the operations level, one of the ways to verify chlorine could emit these vapors is to:

Flammable solid

Whithin the UN/DOT classification system, a container labeled with a Hazard class of 4 contains a(n):

See page 653 The correct answer is: Hazardous device technicians

Who is generally responsible for securing human threats and rendering explosive hazards safe at illicit laboratory incidents? Select one: a.Hazardous device technicians b.Operations level responders c.Property owners or caretakers d.Fire marshal or chief of jurisdiction

Driver

Who is responsible for care and control of a bill of lading?

Captain or Master

Who is responsible for care and control of a dangerous cargo manifest?

See page 289 The correct answer is: Incident Commander

Who is responsible for developing the Incident Action Plan at a hazardous materials incident? Select one: a.Hazmat Technician b.Incident Commander c.Awareness level responder d.Operations level responder

Logistics Section Chief

Who is responsible for requesting additional resources at a haz mat incident?

Conductor

Who is the individual responsible for the shipping papers for a rail transport?

Pilot

Who is the individual responsible for the shipping papers for an air transport?

See page 404 The correct answer is: Local health care agency

Who should be notified if a biological attack is suspected? Select one: a.OSHA b.State police or sheriff c.Local health care agency d.Local emergency management agency

See page 388 The correct answer is: Only a certified, trained bomb technician

Who should move, defuse, or handle explosive devices? Select one: a.The initial responder b.Only a hazmat technician c.Only a certified, trained bomb technician d.The highest ranking responder at the scene

See page 559 The correct answer is: Ion chambers often give responses directly proportional to the intensity of the radiation.

Why are ion chambers reliable instruments when encountering radiations with varying energies? Select one: a.Ion chambers measure the ratio of radiation to oxygen in the air. b.Ion chambers are not reliable because they only test for gamma radiation. c.Ion chambers often give responses directly proportional to the intensity of the radiation. d.Ion chambers are not affected by atmospheric conditions such as temperature and humidity.

See page 426 The correct answer is: Potential damage to the hose from heat, fire, or debris

Why are supplied-air respirators (SARs) not certified for use in fire fighting operations? Select one: a.Excessive weight increases physical stress b.Cannot supply positive pressure to the face c.Potential damage to the hose from heat, fire, or debris d.Not enough air to escape from a hazardous environment

See page 659 The correct answer is: To provide internal checks to ensure that full identification is in place for all personnel in the crime scene

Why do law enforcement responders establish a security perimeter with an access control point at a criminal hazardous materials/WMD incident? Select one: a.To document initial observations b.To determine if bystanders are witnesses c.To determine the hazards at the scene and its tactical requirements d.To provide internal checks to ensure that full identification is in place for all personnel in the crime scene

See page 539 The correct answer is: If they move away from the area being sampled too quickly, the meter's results may be less than the actual concentration.

Why do responders need to be aware of a monitoring and detecting instrument's reaction time? Select one: a.An instrument that takes longer to display a reading is less effective. b.If they move away from the area being sampled too quickly, the meter's results may be less than the actual concentration. c.They need to know how much time they have to retreat if an explosive material is present. d.An instrument that delivers results immediately is likely improperly calibrated.

See page 545 The correct answer is: If an instrument is not calibrated before use, you cannot ensure that the sensors are functioning appropriately for alarms and other functions.

Why is calibration an important factor to consider when determining what equipment to use for detection and monitoring operations? Select one: a.It is not recommended that instruments be calibrated before use in the field. b.It determines if responders have adequate training to effectively use certain instruments. c.Some instruments will detect lower concentrations than others, while others will only detect very specific materials. d.If an instrument is not calibrated before use, you cannot ensure that the sensors are functioning appropriately for alarms and other functions.

See page 617 The correct answer is: It requires huge volumes of water that may create runoff problems.

Why is dilution not very practical in terms of spill control? Select one: a.It requires highly specific foam concentrates for different types of spills. b.It does not effectively reduce the risks posed by hazardous materials. c.It requires huge volumes of water that may create runoff problems. d.It can introduce new potential hazards by changing the pH of a substance.

See page 677 The correct answer is: In many cases, responders may receive a call for another type of incident only to discover an illicit lab on the scene.

Why is it important for responders to recognize the indicators for illicit labs and understand the hazards associated with them? Select one: a.Illicit labs are the most commonly encountered cause of hazardous materials incidents. b.Hazards associated with illicit labs are entirely different from hazards at other hazmat incidents. c.Responders can remediate the hazards at an illicit lab without the aid of a Hazmat Technician or law enforcement. d.In many cases, responders may receive a call for another type of incident only to discover an illicit lab on the scene.

See page 403 The correct answer is: There may be a delay of weeks before someone becomes ill.

Why is it so difficult to trace the source of a biological attack? Select one: a.They occur too frequently. b.Biological agents are readily available. c.It is easy to weaponize viruses and bacteria. d.There may be a delay of weeks before someone becomes ill.

See page 547 The correct answer is: Corrosive materials can damage equipment and PPE.

Why is monitoring for pH a priority at releases involving unknown hazards? Select one: a.Corrosive materials can damage equipment and PPE. b.Toxic materials are involved in most hazmat incidents. c.Corrosive materials are rarely involved in hazmat incidents, but present violent hazards. d.Corrosive materials will usually be in a gaseous state, making them more difficult to contain.

See page 705 The correct answer is: The presence of household chemicals

Why might an explosives lab be mistaken for a clandestine drug lab? Select one: a.The presence of military manuals b.The presence of household chemicals c.Both types of lab use a lot of equipment d.Drug labs are most commonly encountered

See page 546 The correct answer is: Current users can offer insight into the product's durability and ease of use.

Why might it be helpful to contact current users of equipment before you buy it? Select one: a.They can teach you how to use the equipment. b.They can get you a good deal on the equipment. c.Current users can offer insight into the product's durability and ease of use. d.Current users know more about the product's specs than the manufacturer.

See page 705 The correct answer is: Explosive devices are often found in labs with chemical, radiological, and biological substances.

Why must hazmat and bomb squad teams work together at illicit drug or WMD labs? Select one: a.Explosive devices always pose chemical and biological hazards. b.Explosive devices are often found in labs with chemical, radiological, and biological substances. c.They are usually assigned a single task from the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction. d.They are equally qualified to mitigate incidents involving explosive devices and their associated hazards.

See page 430 The correct answer is: They do not supply oxygen, only filter the air.

Why must powered air-purifying respirators (PAPRs) be used in an atmosphere of at least 19.5% oxygen? Select one: a.They do not supply oxygen, only filter the air. b.The power mechanism may fail in low oxygen atmospheres. c.The air hose is susceptible to damage from heat and debris. d.Their power supply is a potential ignition source in an IDLH environment.

See page 612 The correct answer is: Absorbents retain the properties of the materials they absorb.

Why must responders treat and dispose of absorbents as hazardous materials? Select one: a.Absorbents themselves are hazardous materials. b.Absorbents undergo violent chemical reactions after use. c.Absorbents may be toxic if exposed to too much oxygen. d.Absorbents retain the properties of the materials they absorb.

See page 607-608 The correct answer is: To determine if the spilled material will adversely affect the equipment

Why should ICs consult technical sources before using equipment to confine spilled materials? Select one: a.To determine how to correctly use a piece of equipment b.To determine if a similar situation has occurred in the past c.To determine if the spilled material will adversely affect the equipment d.To determine if the spilled material is able to be contained by the equipment

See page 457 The correct answer is: These beverages can contribute to dehydration and heat stress.

Why should beverages that contain alcohol or caffeine be avoided prior to working? Select one: a.These beverages do not need to be avoided. b.These beverages decrease dehydration and heat stress. c.These beverages may increase productivity and awareness. d.These beverages can contribute to dehydration and heat stress.

See page 703 The correct answer is: To learn about the newest techniques and processes of illicit drug production

Why should hazmat responders frequently interact with law enforcement drug response teams? Select one: a.To discuss updates in PPE b.To learn about radiation protection c.To establish who will be the authority having jurisdiction at illicit laboratories d.To learn about the newest techniques and processes of illicit drug production

See page 631 The correct answer is: Water destroys and washes away foam blankets.

Why should responders NOT use water streams in conjunction with the application of foam for vapor suppression? Select one: a.Most foam concentrates are water reactive. b.Water is more effective than foam concentrates. c.Water destroys and washes away foam blankets. d.Foam concentrates should never come in contact with water.

See page 624 The correct answer is: Protective clothing can absorb these products and ignite if exposed to an ignition source.

Why should responders avoid contact with flammable or combustible products? Select one: a.Protective clothing may not be able to withstand the effects of these products. b.Protective clothing can ignite puddles, streams, or contaminated pools of these products. c.Protective clothing may not be able to withstand the corrosive effects of these products. d.Protective clothing can absorb these products and ignite if exposed to an ignition source.

See page 556 The correct answer is: They continually degrade, even when not in use.

Why should responders frequently replace oxygen sensors? Select one: a.They are easily breakable. b.Newer models are more effective. c.They continually degrade, even when not in use. d.They are the most commonly used detection instruments.

See page 554 The correct answer is: CGIs may need specific oxygen levels to function.

Why should responders monitor oxygen levels when using combustible gas indicators (CGIs)? Select one: a.Too little oxygen exaggerates readings. b.Low levels of oxygen may damage sensors. c.CGIs may need specific oxygen levels to function. d.High levels of oxygen are necessary to support combustion.

See page 630 The correct answer is: Aerated foam maintains the vapor suppressive blanket longer.

Why should responders use air-aspirating nozzles rather than water fog nozzles for vapor suppression? Select one: a.Aerated foam can be applied in smaller quantities. b.Water fog nozzles are incapable of vapor suppression. c.Water fog nozzles can only be used on flammable liquid fires. d.Aerated foam maintains the vapor suppressive blanket longer.

See page 498 The correct answer is: Removal of clothing can remove significant amounts of the contaminant materials.

Why should victims remove as much clothing as possible prior to undergoing mass decon? Select one: a.So that they can more easily be scrubbed down. b.Clothing should not be removed before mass decon. c.Chemical s used in decon may degrade their clothing. d.Removal of clothing can remove significant amounts of the contaminant materials.

See page 437 The correct answer is: It is designed to be impenetrable to moisture.

Why/how can CPC contribute to heat disorders in hot environments? Select one: a.It can degrade. b.It absorbs sunlight. c.It is designed to be impenetrable to moisture. d.It allows penetration of hot fluids from the outside.

5:1

Within the Incident Command System, the optimum span of control is:

Flammable solid

Within the UN/DOT system, a container labeled with a hazard class 4 contains a:

D

Work uniforms that provide minimal protection BEST defines EPA Level ____ protection

D. D

Work uniforms that provide minimal protection best defines EPA Level _______ protection. A. A B. B C. C D. D

See page 273 The correct answer is: compressed gas cylinder.

Y cylinders are a type of: Select one: a.drum. b.railway car. c.compressed gas cylinder. d.nonpressure gas cylinder.

See page 234 The correct answer is: pressure bulk facility storage tanks.

You are called to a facility incident and see several large, free-standing spherical tanks. These containers are MOST likely to be: Select one: a.part of a pipeline. b.pressure bulk facility storage tanks. c.nonpressure bulk facility storage tanks. d.openings to an underground storage facility/tank.

Remain on top of the water, as it is lighter than the water

You arrive on the scene of a vehicle accident involving a cargo tank truck carrying gasoline. The truck is leaking its product into a small lake. The driver of the truck gives you an MSDS sheet on gasoline, which gives a specific gravity of 0.8. With this information, you can predict that the product will:

Nerve agent

You have arrived on scene of an incident involving an explosion. People in the immediate vicinity are experiencing runny noses and difficulty breathing. Some are having convulsions. You suspect a terrorist incident involving a:

Hazard statement

You have arrived on the scene of a hazmat incident involving pesticides. On one of the pesticide labels, you notice the statement, "Keep from waterways." This statement is called the:

See page 460 The correct answer is: reduced stress.

You must be proficient in donning your PPE because increased familiarity and comfort will lead to: Select one: a.reduced stress. b.increased stress. c.increased work time. d.a custom fit ensemble.

Vector

_____ - An animate intermediary in the indirect transmission of an agent that carries the agent from a reservoir to a succeptible host.

High explosive

_____ - Explosive material that detonates at a velocity faster than the speed of sound.

Allied Professional

_____ - Individual with the training and expertise to provide competent assistance and direction at haz mat and WMD incidents.

Brushing and scraping

_____ - Process of removing large particles of contaminant or contaminated materials such as mud from boots or other PPE.

Chemical degradation

_____ - Process of using another material to change the chemical structure of a hazardous material.

Washing

_____ - Process similar to dilution; also invlolves using prepared solutions such as solvents, soap, and/or detergents mixed with water in order to make the contaminant more water-soluble before rinsing with plain water.

Vacuuming

_____ - Process using high efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter vacuum cleaners to vacuum solid materials such as fibers, dusts, powders, and particulates from surfaces.

Isolation and disposal

_____ - This process isolates the contaminated items (such as clothing, tools, or equipment) by collecting them in some fashion and then disposing of them in accordance with applicable regulations and laws.

Neutralization

_____ - process of changing the pH of a corrosive, raising or lowering it towards 7 (neutral) on the pH scale.

Exposure records

_____ are required for all first responders who have been exposed or potentially exposed to hazardous materials.

Viruses

_____ are the simplest types of microorganism that can only replicate themselves in the living cells of their hosts.

Nonambulatory

_____ patients are victims or responders who are unconscious, unresponsive, or unable to move unassisted.

Technical decontamination

_____ uses chemical or physical methods to thoroughly remove or neutralize contaminants from responders' PPE (primarily entry team personnel) and equipment.

Leak-control

________ tactics are used to contain the product in its original container, thereby preventing it from escaping. most _______tactics are offensive, performed by haz-mat techs.

A placard

_________ is placed on highway transport vehicles to identify the contents.

Flaring

___________ is the controlled burning of a liquid or gas to reduce or control the pressure and/or to dispose of the product

Corrosive

___________ materials may cause severe chemical burns and extensive tissue damage on contact

Gamma

___________ rays are the most dangerous type of radiation

Confinement

____________ is comprised of those procedures taken to keep a material in a defined or local area

Vapor Suppression

____________ is the action taken to reduce the emission of vapors at a haz-mat spill

Spill-control

____________ tactics are used to confine a hazardous material that has already been released from its container. __________tactics are usually defensive in nature.

Penetration

_____________ is the flow of a hazardous material through zippers, pinholes, or other material imperfections found in chemical protective clothing

Absorption

______________ is the process of taking in materials through the skin or eyes

Emergency decontamination

_______________ is designed to remove contaminates that pose immediate threat to life

Penetration and Permeation

______________________ is usually based upon standardized laboratory tests that may incorporate a very large safety factor

TLV/C

the maximum concentration of HAZMAT to which a worker should not be exposed, even for an instant.

Lower Flammability Limit;

the minimum amount of vapor needed to cause ignition.

See page 694 The correct answer is: chemical warfare agents.

the presence of organophosphate pesticides or cyanides could indicate to responders that an illicit lab is producing: Select one: a.booby traps. b.explosive devices. c.chemical warfare agents. d.radiological exposure devices.

Expansion Ratio

the ratio of the volume increase that occurs when a liquid material changes to a gas.

Chemical-resistant material

a material used to make chemical-protective clothing, which can maintain its integrity and protection qualities when it comes in contact with HAZMAT

Gamma Rays

a type of radiation that can travel significant distances, penetrating most materials and passing through the body. The most destructive type of radiation to the human body.

Cold zone

also called support zone, is used to carry out all logistical support functions of the location

self-presenters

individuals who seek medical assistance and have not been treated or undergone decon at the scene

sterilization

kills all

disinfection

kills most

Evaluating the exposed area

1st priority at a HAZMAT incident

A haz mat response team

A Level II incident is beyond the normal capabilities of the first responder having jurisdiction and may require a response from:

See page 300 The correct answer is: is beyond the capabilities of the first responders on the scene.

A Level II incident: Select one: a.will most likely not be concluded by any one agency. b.does not require the use of chemical protective clothing. c.is beyond the capabilities of the first responders on the scene. d.requires resources from state/provincial agencies, federal agencies, and/or private industry.

suitcase bomb

A _____ is described as a very compact and portable nuclear weapon that some estimate could have the dimensions of 24 by 16 by 8 inche

Rapid relief

A ________ is a release that is the result of a broken or damaged valve(s) that may last from several seconds to several minutes, depending on the size of the opening, type of container, and nature of contents

Pinging

A ________ sound often occurs when metal has been softened by high heat and pressure

Local

A _________ effect occurs at the point of contact with a hazardous substance

Cryogenic

A __________ cargo tank has an inner tank with an outer shell, and is well insulated.

Cryogenic liquid

A ___________ tank car is designed to carry low-pressure, refrigerated liquids at -130 degrees F and below

Highway Truck

A bill of lading contains valuable information about the origin of the product and is the type of shipping paper used when transporting a product via:

See page 147 The correct answer is: a heated liquid or gas expanding.

A boiling liquid expanding vapor explosion (BLEVE) is caused by: Select one: a.sublimation of a boiling liquid. b.application of a pressure stream. c.a heated liquid or gas expanding. d.inadequate internal vessel pressure.

See page 545 The correct answer is: calibration

A bump test is the same as a _____ test. Select one: a.time b.accuracy c.calibration d.movement

Corrosives

A carboy may be used for transporting materials containing:

See page 512 The correct answer is: and will not release them to civilian personnel during decon operations.

A challenge to decon operations is that law enforcement personnel often carry weapons: Select one: a.that cannot undergo decon. b.and civilian responders must decon the weapons. c.and will not release them to anyone for decon operations. d.and will not release them to civilian personnel during decon operations.

Choking agent

A chemical designed to inhibit breathing and typically intended to incapacitate rather than kill.

b. corrosivity. see page 27

A chemical that burns or destroys living tissue is an example of: Select one: a.toxicity. b.corrosivity. c.energy release. d.chronic exposure.

Sensitizer

A chemical that causes a large portion of people or animals to develop an allergic reaction after repeated exposure to the substance.

Blister Agent

A chemical that causes the skin to blister.

b. long-term or reoccurring. See page 21

A chronic exposure to a hazardous material is: Select one: a.lethal. b.long-term or reoccurring. c.unlikely to cause health problems. d.a single exposure or several repeated exposures within a short time period.

See page 692 The correct answer is: windows covered with plastic or tinfoil.

A clue to the presence of a meth lab inside a structure might be: Select one: a.a strong smell of bleach. b.a lack of security systems. c.windows covered with plastic or tinfoil. d.fertilizers or other nitrogen based products.

Pressure relief device

A common design feature of cylinders is:

The potential for explosion

A common hazard with cylinders involved in fire is:

See page 213 The correct answer is: thermal

A container making noises from expansion or contraction may indicate that the container has been exposed to _____ energy. Select one: a.thermal b.chemical c.mechanical d.radiological

4

A container of flammable solids would receive a UN label or placard with a hazardous classification number of:

A double shell with insulation

A cryogenic liquid tank car will have:

See page 609 The correct answer is: absorption.

A defensive spill-control tactic that confines a hazardous material, rather than changing its physical and/or chemical properties, is: Select one: a.ventilation. b.dissolution. c.absorption. d.neutralization.

The MSDS

A document developed by the manufacturer listing specific hazards of a project is called:

See page 702 The correct answer is: alpha/beta radiation.

A dose rate meter measures gamma radiation, while a contamination meter measures: Select one: a.beta/delta radiation. b.alpha/beta radiation. c.alpha/delta radiation. d.beta/neutron radiation.

Water

A fire involving a DOT Hazard Class 5.1 oxidizer generally requires large volumes of:

Whenever the material entry in the ID Number and Name Indexes is highlighted and fire IS NOT involved

A first responder must refer to the Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances in the ERG:

See page 156 The correct answer is: be too rich to burn.

A fuel that has moved beyond its upper flammable limit will: Select one: a.be too rich to burn. b.flash if exposed to an ignition source. c.immediately reach its autoignition temperature. d.reach the correct ratio of fuel to oxygen to sustain combustion.

See page 568 The correct answer is: photoionization detector.

A gas detector that measures volatile compounds in concentrations of parts per million and parts per billion is a: Select one: a.Geiger-Mueller tube. b.self-reading dosimeter. c.photoionization detector. d.chemical specific detector.

Flammable/combustible liquid

A hazard class of 3, within the U.N. labeling system indicates a _____________ product

See page 685 The correct answer is: phosphine.

A highly toxic flammable gas produced as a byproduct of the Red P method of cooking meth is: Select one: a.stibine. b.phosgene. c.phosphine. d.nitric oxide.

See page 241 The correct answer is: may still be carrying hazardous materials.

A highway vehicle without a placard: Select one: a.is illegal. b.may still be carrying hazardous materials. c.will NOT be carrying hazardous materials. d.should be stopped and inspected for terrorist activity.

See page 235 The correct answer is: pool close to the ground.

A leak from a bulk cryogenic liquid tank is MOST likely to: Select one: a.BLEVE. b.sublimate. c.be very hot. d.pool close to the ground.

See page 299 The correct answer is: Level I incident.

A leak from a domestic natural gas line on the consumer side of the meter is generally considered a: Select one: a.Level I incident. b.Level II incident. c.Level III incident. d.non hazmat incident.

Solubility

A liquid's ability to mix with water BEST defines:

Can Be More Complex

A major difference between a hazmat incident and other types of emergencies is the fact that hazmat incidents:

See page 155-156 The correct answer is: considerably higher than

A material's autoignition temperature is _____ its flash and fire points. Select one: a.exactly the same as b.considerably lower than c.considerably higher than d.sometimes lower and sometimes higher than

Asphyxiant

A materials that causes the victim to suffocate

See page 304 The correct answer is: the situation is clearly beyond the capabilities of responders.

A nonintervention mode is MOST likely to be selected when: Select one: a.there is a slight risk of an explosion. b.the incident requires additional support units. c.the situation is clearly beyond the capabilities of responders. d.responders have the training and equipment necessary to confine the incident to the area of origin.

Severe

A number 4 in the blue quadrant of the NFPA 704 system indicates that there is ______ risk in this category from the chemical involved

See page 547 The correct answer is: neutral.

A pH of 7 is: Select one: a.basic. b.toxic. c.acidic. d.neutral.

Chronic health hazard

A person who is repeatedly exposed to a chemical over a long period of time may develop:

See page 340 The correct answer is: a way of identifying and tracking the location of each unit and all personnel on scene.

A personnel tracking and accountability system must include: Select one: a.a method to exclude all nonessential personnel. b.tracking and accountability for all deceased victims. c.an IAP that details the responsibilities of each responder. d.a way of identifying and tracking the location of each unit and all personnel on scene.

Convulsant

A poison that will cause a person to have seizures is called a(n):

Diversion

A process by which a hazardous liquid flow is redirected away from an area is called:

Absorption

A process by which one substance combines with a second substance is called:

Specific gravity

A product that is heavier than water and sinks when placed in water is an example of its:

Dedicated car

A rail car with a stenciled name on its side is generally a:

Non-pressure or low-pressure tank

A rail car with exposed fittings would be considered to be a _______ car.

Violent rupture

A reaction that is associated with over-pressurization of closed containers and occurs at a rate of one second or less is called a:

Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG)

A reference book intended to be carried in every emergency vehicle in the United States

ERG

A resource that would be useful in determining the size of an endangered area during a Haz Mat incident is the:

See page 314 The correct answer is: may NOT require decontamination.

A responder who is exposed to a hazardous material: Select one: a.may NOT require decontamination. b.will ALWAYS require decontamination. c.will certainly need lengthy medical treatment. d.has acted outside the incident action plan and should be disciplined.

See page 371 The correct answer is: explosive

A scattering of small metal objects such as nuts, bolts, or nails, may indicate a(an) _____ attack. Select one: a.nuclear b.chemical c.biological d.explosive

See page 680 The correct answer is: glovebox.

A sealed container equipped with long-cuff gloves to allow handling of materials within the container is called a: Select one: a.glovebox. b.live tissue matrix. c.medical instrument sterilizer. d.phosphine containment device.

See page 225 The correct answer is: minutes or hours.

A short-term contact or impingement is one that takes place over: Select one: a.milliseconds or seconds. b.minutes or hours. c.days, weeks, or months. d.years or generations.

Cryogenic intermodal tanks

A specialized intermodal tank container which carries refrigerated liquid gases, argo, oxygen, or helium would be an example of:

Are chemical asphyxiants because they interfere with oxygen utilization

A specific class of chemicals, called blood agents, are of great concern to first responders. They are highly toxic to the human body because they:

Hazardous material

A substance or material, including a hazardous substance, that has been determined by the Secretary of Transportation to be capable of posing an unreasonable risk to health, safety, and property when transported in commerce

5

A substance that readily yields oxygen to support combustion of fuels would be labeled ___ under the UN labeling system

5

A substance that readily yields oxygen to support combustion of fuels, would be labeled Hazazrd Class _____ under the UN/DOT labeling system

inhibitor

A substance that slows down or stops a chemical reaction

7

A substance that spontaneously releases ionizing radiation would be labeled a(n) ___ hazard classification under the UN Labeling System.

See page 426 The correct answer is: provide positive pressure to the facepiece.

A supplied-air respirator (SAR) used at a hazmat incident must: Select one: a.carry/supply its own air. b.be certified for firefighting operations. c.provide positive pressure to the facepiece. d.have an airline of longer than 300 feet (90 m).

Red, 3

A tractor trailer hauling gasoline should display a placard with the Hazard class:

No placard

A tractor-trailer carrying 975 lbs of organic peroxides, other than Type B, requires:

Poison Gas

A type of gas that can be extremely toxic and is considered by the DOT to be a hazardous material is a(n):

See page 567 The correct answer is: LEL, oxygen, carbon monoxide, and hydrogen sulfide.

A typical 4-gas monitor will detect: Select one: a.LEL, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and hydrogen sulfide. b.LEL, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and potassium sulfate. c.LEL, carbon dioxide, ammonia, and hydrogen sulfide. d.LEL, oxygen, carbon monoxide, and hydrogen sulfide.

Level A

A vapor-tight suit which resists permeation by most chemicals is known as a:

Water cooled

A vest consisting of a battery or power source, a pump, and an ice/water or cooling agent container where the cooling agent is circulated throughout the garment and operates on the principle of conductive heat transfer is known as a(n) __________ vest

Special Hazards

A white quadrant in the 6 o'clock position of the NFPA 704 system is used to indicate:

See page 329 The correct answer is: Memorandum of Understanding (MOU).

A written agreement defining roles and responsibilities within a Unified Command structure is known as a(an): Select one: a.Incident Management System (IMS). b.National Response Framework (NRF). c.Memorandum of Understanding (MOU). d.National Incident Management System (NIMS).

Site safety plan

A(n) _______ is recommended to include information such as: site information, analysis of site hazards, risk analysis, PPE, ad a work plan

First responders at hazmat incidents must: A. Understand both their role and their limitations B. Respond to all hazmat incidents in their jurisdiction C. Supervise decontamination and mitigation operations D. Possess competencies in several areas including radiation safety

A. Understand both their role and their limitations

See page 427 The correct answer is: the ambient air supplies the oxygen.

APRs must be used only in atmospheres that are NOT oxygen deficient or oxygen enriched and are not IDLH because: Select one: a.the ambient air supplies the oxygen. b.the air generator may fail at any moment. c.the purifying canister may be expired or damaged. d.the responder may not properly use the equipment.

Low-pressure and high-pressure

Above ground pressurized storage tanks are divided into what two categories?

4

According to the NFPA 704 system, the most dangerous number associated with each hazard is what?

See page 696 The correct answer is: peroxide-based explosives lab.

Acetone, ethanol, and hexamine are common ingredients that responders may find in a(an): Select one: a.illicit drug lab. b.radiological weapons lab. c.viral-based biological lab. d.peroxide-based explosives lab.

See page 310 The correct answer is: specific operations that must be done in order to accomplish a goal.

Action options are: Select one: a.inherent risks that must be avoided. b.designed to maximize environmental and property damage. c.broad statements of what must be done to resolve an incident. d.specific operations that must be done in order to accomplish a goal.

See page 309 The correct answer is: response objective (strategy) to achieve a solution to the confronted problems.

Action planning starts with identifying the: Select one: a.hazardous materials involved at the incident. b.resources available at the scene of the incident. c.action options that will detail tasks assigned to specific responders. d.response objective (strategy) to achieve a solution to the confronted problems.

Defensive strategies

Actions taken to confine a product release to a limited area, performed remotely, are considered to be:

d. short-term effects that appear within hours or days. see page 21

Acute health effects are: Select one: a.lethal but take a long time to show up. b.long-term effects that may take years to appear. c.short-term effects that may take years to appear. d.short-term effects that appear within hours or days.

See page 516 The correct answer is: their employer.

After an incident, copies of responder exposure records should be provided to the individual, their personal physician, and: Select one: a.NIOSH. b.their family. c.their employer. d.the local media.

debriefing

After concluding decon activites, a _____ needs to be held for those involved in the incident as soon as is practical

See page 515 The correct answer is: provided with as much information as possible about the health effects of the hazardous materials involved.

After decon activities, exposed victims should be: Select one: a.immediately dismissed and sent home to recover. b.sworn to secrecy regarding their involvement in the incident. c.debriefed and given incident reports and after action reports to fill out. d.provided with as much information as possible about the health effects of the hazardous materials involved.

Sensitizers/allergens

After repeated exposure, ____________will cause an allergic reaction

See page 296 The correct answer is: health and physical hazards presented by the material.

After the material has been identified, written references such as safety data sheets (SDSs) will MOST likely be used to determine: Select one: a.where the material is going. b.environmental conditions present. c.the spread and concentration of material. d.health and physical hazards presented by the material.

See page 467 The correct answer is: fill out any required reports or documentation.

After using PPE at an incident, don't forget to: Select one: a.discard it. b.leave it where the clean-up team can find it. c.fill out any required reports or documentation. d.wipe it down with warm water and then return it to service.

See page 414 The correct answer is: may become unstable.

Aged chemicals: Select one: a.are not a hazard. b.may become unstable. c.cannot contaminate groundwater. d.are not considered to be illegally dumped.

See page 707 The correct answer is: uninjured tactical operators and their equipment, injured tactical operators, uninjured suspects, and injured suspects.

Agencies should anticipate four potential sources requiring decontamination for tactical scenarios, including: Select one: a.tactical equipment, canines, lab equipment, and witnesses. b.uninjured tactical operators, uninjured suspects, EMS personnel, and canines. c.deceased persons, injured suspects, uninjured witnesses, and EMS personnel. d.uninjured tactical operators and their equipment, injured tactical operators, uninjured suspects, and injured suspects.

warm zone

All bags that contain contaminated clothing should remain in the ____ on the dirty side of the decon line.

6

All biological etiologic agents and toxins are designated as DOT Hazard Class:

Pressurized

All cylinders should be considered dangerous, regardless of what type of hazardous material it contains, because the contents are:

See page 440 The correct answer is: written CPC management program.

All emergency response organizations that routinely use CPC must establish a: Select one: a.design procedure for new CPC. b.written CPC management program. c.research program to develop new CPC. d.nationally certified CPC training program.

See page 651 The correct answer is: must be performed in the framework of an Incident Management System (IMS).

Although criminal hazmat/WMD incidents differ greatly in their characterization and locations, all operations: Select one: a.have the same associated hazards. b.need to be reported to the Department of Homeland Security (DHS). c.are beyond the responsibilities of Mission-Specific level responders. d.must be performed in the framework of an Incident Management System (IMS).

See page 509 The correct answer is: the delay will increase injury to those affected by the event.

Although it is important to protect the environment, decon should NEVER be delayed to protect the environment if: Select one: a.there is media coverage. b.the victims are deceased. c.the decontamination takes place at night. d.the delay will increase injury to those affected by the event.

See page 551 The correct answer is: they must be calibrated before each use.

Although they provide more precise readings than pH paper, pH meters may be less practical for field use because: Select one: a.they can only be used once. b.they are much bigger than pH paper. c.they must be calibrated before each use. d.they are much more expensive than pH paper.

See page 597 The correct answer is: are closer to the incident or source of the release.

Ambulatory victims who are not in the line of sight generally: Select one: a.require the greatest amount of time to remove. b.are closer to the incident or source of the release. c.have experienced a smaller exposure and related dose. d.are not in need of decontamination before medical treatment.

See page 594 The correct answer is: are the farthest away from the release.

Ambulatory victims within the line of sight generally: Select one: a.are the most difficult to rescue. b.are the farthest away from the release. c.require the greatest amount of time to remove. d.have experienced the highest level of exposure.

Direct exposure of personnel is avoided

An ADVANTAGE of confinement operations is that:

See page 363 The correct answer is: cause damage, inflict harm, and/or kill.

An act of terrorism is intended to: Select one: a.avoid public infrastructure. b.inflict as little damage as possible. c.spare first responders but not civilians. d.cause damage, inflict harm, and/or kill.

See page 486 The correct answer is: is conducted in the field, so the reduction of contaminants is immediate.

An advantage of gross decontamination is that it: Select one: a.does not involve water. b.will remove all contaminates. c.does not require follow-up decon. d.is conducted in the field, so the reduction of contaminants is immediate.

Convective

An air cooling system consists of small airlines providing ________ cooling of the user by blowing cool air over the body inside a suit or vest

See page 697 The correct answer is: Biological

An autoclave is likely to be found in which type of lab? Select one: a.Biological b.Explosives c.Radiological d.Chemical agent

See page 706 The correct answer is: identifies the hazards presented inside and outside of the lab.

An effective Incident Action Plan at an illicit lab: Select one: a.gives Hazmat Technicians jurisdiction over the scene. b.identifies the hazards presented inside and outside of the lab. c.requires lab operators to deal with the disposal of hazardous materials. d.generally does not require considerations for PPE and decontamination.

See page 341 The correct answer is: time, distance, and shielding.

An effective strategy is to protect first responders at hazmat incidents is: Select one: a.progress reports. b.evidence preservation. c.time, distance, and shielding. d.recovery, withdrawal, and termination.

See page 409 The correct answer is: nuclear attack.

An electromagnetic pulse may indicate a: Select one: a.dirty bomb. b.suicide bomb. c.nuclear attack. d.radiological attack.

See page 372 The correct answer is: rapidly expanding gases compress the surrounding atmosphere into a shock front.

An explosion results when a material undergoes a physical or chemical reaction and: Select one: a.two fuels are rapidly mixed. b.the oxidizing component is removed. c.rapidly contracting gases cause the surrounding atmosphere to implode. d.rapidly expanding gases compress the surrounding atmosphere into a shock front.

#2 in an X

An explosive with a fragment hazard is denoted by the US Military Marking system as a:

See page 414 The correct answer is: may contain unlabeled and/or mixed chemicals.

An illegal hazmat dump: Select one: a.rarely involves mixed chemicals. b.will only occur in rural jurisdictions. c.may contain unlabeled and/or mixed chemicals. d.does not pose environmental contamination hazards.

d. establish the incident management system. see page 20

An important role for Operations level responders is to: Select one: a.rescue unresponsive victims. b.perform a post-incident critique. c.appoint an Incident Commander. d.establish the incident management system.

See page xx The correct answer is: live tissue matrices, such as blood or insects.

An indicator of a viral lab might be: Select one: a.hundreds of matchbooks or flares. b.windows covered with plastic or tinfoil. c.chemicals such as phosphorus trichloride. d.live tissue matrices, such as blood or insects.

See page 400 The correct answer is: toxic industrial material (TIM).

An industrial chemical that is toxic at a certain concentration and is produced in quantities exceeding 30 tons (30.5 tonnes) per year at one facility is called a(an): Select one: a.poisonous chemical (PC). b.toxic industrial material (TIM). c.industrial toxic chemical (ITC). d.highly regulated toxic material (HRTM).

Anthrax

An infectious disease spreads by the bacterium Bacillus Anthracis; it is typically found around farms infecting livestock.

See page 405 The correct answer is: contagious.

An infectious disease that can spread rapidly from person to person is: Select one: a.toxic. b.poisonous. c.contagious. d.noncontagious.

See page 460 The correct answer is: pre-entry.

An operation check on PPE, communications equipment, and any equipment taken into the hot zone should be conducted: Select one: a.pre-entry. b.post-entry. c.if a malfunction occurs. d.halfway through the incident.

Flaring

Another technique for reducing or controlling pressure and/or disposing of the contents is called:

Hazardous chemical

Any chemical that is a physical hazard or health hazard

Extremely hazardous substance

Any chemical that must be reported ti the appropriate authorities if released above the threshold report quantity

See page 410 The correct answer is: radiological-dispersal device (RRD).

Any device (other than a nuclear explosive device), specifically designed to disseminate radioactive material to cause destruction, damage, or injury, is called a: Select one: a.radiation enhancer (RE). b.radiation-emitting device (RED). c.radiological-dispersal device (RRD). d.radiological-dispersal weapons (RDW).

Hazardous waste

Any material that is subject to the Hazardous Waste Manifest Requirements of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency

See page 555 The correct answer is: a contaminant in the air is displacing the oxygen.

Any oxygen reading below 20.9% indicates that: Select one: a.respiratory protection is not necessary. b.the monitoring device is malfunctioning. c.a contaminant in the air is displacing the oxygen. d.the environment is too rich to support combustion.

See page 555 The correct answer is: that a contaminant in the air is displacing the oxygen.

Any oxygen reading below 20.9% indicates: Select one: a.a potential threat for fire and explosion. b.that the atmosphere is oxygen enriched. c.that a contaminant in the air is displacing the oxygen. d.that responders will not need to use SCBA or other respiratory protection.

See page 653 The correct answer is: before

Armed guards, attack dogs, and booby traps that may be used to protect illicit labs must be neutralized _____ evidence preservation and collection activities. Select one: a.after b.before c.when beginning d.while conducting

Absorption, Dilution, Vapor suppression

As a first responder trained to the operations level, which spill control tactics can be conducted?

See page 665 The correct answer is: Flammables

As a part of characterizing the scene during public safety sampling, what BEST describes what hazmat teams should be prepared to monitor for? Select one: a.Sulfuric acid b.Flammables c.Neutron radiation d.Auto-refrigerated containers

See page 538 The correct answer is: sink and displace air, while only a few rise and float above air.

As a responder, you should remember that most gases: Select one: a.neither rise nor sink, but remain interspersed with the air. b.sink and displace air, while only a few rise and float above air. c.sink and float above air, while only a few rise and displace air. d.rise and float above air, while only a few sink and displace air.

See page 588 The correct answer is: during the initial size-up

As with all operations at hazmat incidents, the risks identified _____ will dictate many elements of the response. Select one: a.at incident debriefings b.during the initial size-up c.when establishing command d.while performing decontamination

See page 598 The correct answer is: be trained in the correct use of such equipment.

As with personal protective equipment, responders using rescue equipment must: Select one: a.first perform acceptance testing. b.be trained in the correct use of such equipment. c.decontaminate it both before and after entering the hot zone. d.immediately put it out of service once rescue operations are completed.

See page 172-172 The correct answer is: toxics.

Asphyxiants, irritants, convulsants, and carcinogens are types of: Select one: a.toxics. b.radiation. c.polymers. d.corrosives.

See page 293 The correct answer is: size-up.

Assessing the incident's conditions to recognize cues that indicate problems or potential problems is called: Select one: a.size-up. b.safety checks. c.hazard assessment. d.preincident planning.

See page 540 The correct answer is: chain of custody.

At WMD or criminal incidents, in order for any recordings to be later admissible as evidence, responders must follow appropriate protocols with regard to: Select one: a.time. b.weather. c.chain of custody. d.technology application.

See page 540 The correct answer is: follow chain of custody procedures.

At WMD or criminal incidents, sampling activities must: Select one: a.be repeated in triplicate. b.follow chain of custody procedures. c.be witnessed by multiple responders. d.use detectors that have been certified by the NFPA.

Haz Mat Team Leaders

At a Haz Mat incident, the assistant safety officer directly reports to the:

See page 622 The correct answer is: facility or pipeline operators.

At a fixed facility or at a pipeline, responders should NOT shut any valves without direction from: Select one: a.law enforcement. b.federal authorities. c.the owner of the facility. d.facility or pipeline operators.

Controlling the tactical portion of the incident

At a haz mat emergency, the Operations Section serves the task of:

Being the coordination point between the IC and any assisting agency

At a haz mat incident, the safety officer's responsibilities DO NOT include:

Operations

At a haz mat incident, which function area is responsible for developing a special technical group to the basic incident command system?

See page 668 The correct answer is: date, time, sample number, sample, and locations of sample site.

At a minimum, all samples must be labeled with: Select one: a.date and time. b.locations of sample site. c.sample number, sample, and EPA classification. d.date, time, sample number, sample, and locations of sample site.

See page 412 The correct answer is: establish background radiation levels outside the suspected contamination area.

At a radiological or nuclear incident, it is important to: Select one: a.position apparatus downwind of the incident. b.immediately conduct overhaul and clean-up operations. c.decon exposed victims and then release them as soon as possible. d.establish background radiation levels outside the suspected contamination area.

Law Enforcement

At a suspected terrorist incident, evidence collection is PRIMARILY the responsibility of:

Move evidence to another location

At a terrorism event, when preserving evidence, what should you not do?

CHEMTREC

At an emergency incident, the firefighter may obtain appropriate MSDS information from:

See page 637 The correct answer is: downwind.

At an incident involving a break in an underground pipe, personnel should first evacuate the area immediately around the break and the area: Select one: a.upwind. b.to the left. c.downwind. d.to the right.

See page 236 The correct answer is: eliminating ignition sources.

At an incident involving a low pressure bulk facility storage tank, the priority is: Select one: a.finding victims. b.cooling the tank. c.eliminating ignition sources. d.calling the facility owner for backup.

See page 408 The correct answer is: managing infected victims.

At biologic attack incidents, isolation and containment issues will primarily involve: Select one: a.managing infected victims. b.using universal precautions. c.getting everyone out of the area. d.making plans for follow-up with victims.

d. may be called upon to interact with responders from many different agencies. see page 15

At complex hazmat incidents, first responders: Select one: a.should immediately report any unfamiliar responders. b.will assume command over state or national agencies. c.provide expertise in specialized areas such as chemicals and processes. d.may be called upon to interact with responders from many different agencies.

C. Outer edges of the incident and work their way in

At haz mat incidents, rescuers typically start at the: A. Back and work their way forward B. Front and work their way backward C. Outer edges of the incident and work their way in D. Innermost point of the incident and work their way out

See page 306-307 The correct answer is: simplify the problem-solving process.

At hazmat/WMD incidents, response models are used to: Select one: a.simplify the problem-solving process. b.decide which incident management system to use. c.gather information on the incident after it has been terminated. d.maintain a consistent understanding of the problem even if conditions change.

See page 680 The correct answer is: both the final product and the production materials can be harmful.

At illicit labs: Select one: a.only the final product will be harmful to responders. b.only the production materials will be harmful to responders. c.both the final product and the production materials can be harmful. d.production materials present a greater hazard to responders than the final product.

B. 5

At rescue operations, a minimum of ____ people are needed A. 3 B. 5 C. 10 D. 12

Chemical

Attack that has rapid onset of medical symmtoms, minutes to hours

See page 349 The correct answer is: defensive

Attempts to confine a hazardous material that has been released from its container are called _____ strategies. Select one: a.offensive b.defensive c.undefined d.environmental

c.recognize that a hazardous material is present at an incident and call for appropriate assistance. see page 17

Awareness level personnel are expected to: Select one: a.perform mission-specific tasks that fit into the APIE process. b.assume control of the incident and delegate resources and responsibilities. c.recognize that a hazardous material is present at an incident and call for appropriate assistance. d.protect individuals, environment, and property from effects of the release in a primarily defensive manner.

A. Are typically at the scene or incident when it occurs See page 14

Awareness personnel: A. Are typically at the scene or incident when it occurs B. Provide additional expertise in areas such as radiation C. Are dispatched to the scene in order to mitigate the incident D. May be trained beyond core competencies to preform addition defensive tasks and limited offensive actions

Cold

Back up personnel should be advised of the incident action plan and positioned in the ________ zone

See page 547 The correct answer is: pH.

Because corrosive gases and vapors can damage instruments and PPE at releases involving unknown hazards, it is a priority at hazmat incidents to monitor for: Select one: a.pH. b.IDLH. c.combustible gases. d.biohazards or bioweapons.

See page 625 The correct answer is: water is an ineffective extinguishing agent.

Because flammable and combustible liquids are Class B materials,: Select one: a.their vapors are non-toxic. b.they will typically sink in water. c.water is an ineffective extinguishing agent. d.foam concentrates are ineffective extinguishing agents.

See page 330 The correct answer is: Know what mutual-aid contracts cover

Before an incident with Unified Command occurs, agencies should perform what action to avoid jurisdictional and command disputes? Select one: a.Assign a Safety Officer b.Assign an Incident Commander c.Be familiar with the preincident plans d.Know what mutual-aid contracts cover

See page 510 The correct answer is: establish the decontamination corridor.

Before doing any work in the hot zone, responders should: Select one: a.identify victims. b.decontaminate their PPE. c.respond to requests for interviews. d.establish the decontamination corridor.

19.5 % 23.5 %

Below ____% oxygen the atmosphere is considered oxygen deficient and immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH) Above _____% the atmosphere is considered oxygen enriched

See page 192 The correct answer is: Class 6

Biohazards such as infectious substances are part of which hazardous class? Select one: a.Class 3 b.Class 4 c.Class 5 d.Class 6

True

Biological agents are the easiest of the categories of warfare agents to make

See page 613 The correct answer is: vapor suppression.

Blanketing of liquids is essentially the same as: Select one: a.dilution. b.neutralization. c.vapor dispersion. d.vapor suppression.

Chemical

Blister agents belong in which category of warfare agents under the CBRNE classification?

2.3

Blood agents, such as Arsine, would fall under which UN/DOT hazard class and division?

See page 269 The correct answer is: specialized

Both cryogenic liquid tank containers and dry bulk intermodal containers are types of _____ intermodal tanks: Select one: a.specialized b.low pressure c.high pressure d.nonhazardous

c. inhalation. see page 23

Breathing hazardous materials in through the nose or mouth is defined as: Select one: a.injection. b.ingestion. c.inhalation. d.absorption.

Strategic Goal

Broad statements of desired achievements to control an incident

See page 321 The correct answer is: NIMS-ICS

By mandate, all emergency service organizations in the U.S. use _____ for incident management. Select one: a.ICC b.NHTSA c.NIMS-ICS d.RECEO-VS

a.types of materials that may be used as weapons. see page 11

CBRNE is an acronym for: Select one: a.types of materials that may be used as weapons. b.occupancies that may contain hazardous materials. c.the incident management system used at hazmat incidents. d.the containers used to ship hazmat materials internationally.

Chronic health hazards

Carcinogens, mutagens, and teratogens, are permanent and irreversible conditions known as:

See page 241 The correct answer is: standards to which container/tank was built.

Cargo tank specification and name plates provide information about the: Select one: a.driver's qualifications. b.specific hazardous material in the container. c.standards to which container/tank was built. d.health risks posed by the hazardous material.

See page 241 The correct answer is: highway vehicles that transport hazardous materials.

Cargo tank trucks, dry bulk containers, and mixed load containers are examples of: Select one: a.fixed facility containers for hazardous materials. b.railway cars that transport hazardous materials. c.highway vehicles that transport hazardous materials. d.seagoing vessels that transport hazardous materials.