Streamline Technician 3 to 4

and Segment 4-300 bytes. The last acknowledgment the source received was sequence number 23,600 saying the receive buffer can now hold 800-300 byte streams. The retransmission timer for sequence number 23,600 has expired, so what will the source TCP do next? Resend segments 3 and 4. Which two of the following are examples of local area network (LAN) logical addresses? (Choose two.) 201.90.35.78 Port 23 Transmission control protocol (TCP) establishes which type of circuit between applications? Virtual Which three of the following terms refer to a physical address? (Choose three.) Media access control (MAC) address, Adapter address, Hardware address At which Open Systems Interconnection reference model (OSI/RM) layer does the physical address reside? Data Link In TCP/IP, what does a network host use to find a physical address, given a logical address? Address resolution protocol (ARP) Lesson 5: TCP/IP Services Which of the following describes a Domain Name System (DNS) resolver? It retrieves IP address information. Zones maintain domain name information in which record types? Resource records (RR). Which Domain Name System (DNS) record type specifies name to address translation, such as used in a glue record entry? Address (A). Which two mechanisms might a host use to resolve fully qualified domain names (FQDN) to IP addresses? (Choose two.) Host table, Domain Name System (DNS) Which Domain Name System (DNS) record lists a zone's name servers? Name server (NS) Where does the Domain Name System (DNS) namespace begin? The root. Which are the two control entries found in a master file resource record (RR) entry? (Choose two.) Origin, Include The maximum Domain Name System (DNS) domain name length is how many characters? 255 Which two of the following are examples of relative domain names in the ncti.com domain? (Choose two.) telnet, telnet.ncti Which three of the following are typical resolver functions? (Choose three.) Translation of host name to host address (IP address). , Translation of host address to host name. , General lookup function that returns all of a resource record's (RR) content, rather than a processed form A Domain Name System (DNS) start of authority (SOA) entry indicates which of the following? A domain's primary DNS Which IP protocol will a router use to inform neighbor routers of congestion on an interface? Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP). Why might a device send an Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) source quench message? The device does not have the buffering capacity to forward a datagram.

Why does Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) use identifier and sequence numbers? To allow the sender to match ICMP reply messages with requests. A ping command uses which Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) message types? (Choose two.) Echo Request, Echo Reply Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) supports which TCP/IP utility? Ping Why might we use Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) testing on an IP network? To obtain feedback about various problems that might occur on the network. Which two statements concerning multicasting are true? (Choose two.) IP multicast group membership is dynamic. , User datagram protocol (UDP) uses IP multicast services. How would IP multicasting map address 224.0.0.1 to an Ethernet multicast address? 01:00:5E:00:00:01 For which three purposes might you use multicasting on an IP network? (Choose three.) Online training, Teleconferencing, Software distribution Which TCP/IP protocol allows a diskless workstation to discover its IP address, as well as download a boot file? Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP). Why would you use a Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) relay agent on your network? To pass BOOTP messages between subnets Which best describes a BOOTP relay agent? It forwards client BOOTREQUEST messages across subnet boundaries. In which cases will a BOOTP relay agent discard a BOOTREQUEST message? (Choose three.) When the destination port is 68, if the OpCode is not 1 or 2, If the Hop count field value exceeds 16. When might a BOOTP client discard a BOOTREPLY message? (Choose three.) If the destination port number is 67, If the BOOTREPLY targets another media access control (MAC) address. , If the BOOTREPLY includes a transaction ID other than its own. How might a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) client relinquish its current lease? DHCPRELEASE message. At which point in the lease period does the client first attempt to renew its lease? 50 percent Which of the following choices is the correct order in which a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) client initially obtains an IP address? DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPOFFER, DHCPREQUEST, DHCPACK How many Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) address allocation steps are required to enable the client to successfully acquire a lease from a server? 4 Which Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) option code is used for specifying vendor specific options? 128 Which Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) address allocation method assigns reusable addresses to DHCP clients? Dynamic Which best describes a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) scope? A range of addresses from which the server chooses a client address assignment What does Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) Overview and Objectives (DHCP) provide that Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) cannot? DHCP assigns reusable addresses to any requesting host. When can a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server reuse an address offered in a DHCPOFFER message After the server times out waiting for a DHCPREQUEST message How does dynamic address translation enhance network security? It only maps internal hosts to external addresses for the duration of the connection. Which network address translation (NAT) address mapping technique maps internal IP addresses to a single, external IP address? Network address and port translation (NAPT). How does network address and port translation (NAPT) handle an IP packet's source and destination port and IP addresses? It leaves the destination port and address as is, and changes the source port and address to addresses from its address pool. Which choice is the best solution for allowing externally initiated connections through a network address and port translation (NAPT) network address translation (NAT) device? Use static address mappings for any internal services we wish to make externally available. How does a network address translation (NAT) netmask work to map internal addresses to external addresses? It works as an inverse mask, converting the internal network address portion to a public address. What happens when a dynamic network address translation (NAT) device runs out of addresses to assign? The NAT device refuses new connections. How does network address translation (NAT) help secure a private network from outside attacks? It allows networks to use private IP addresses on the internal network, and still access the Internet. Which statement best describes network address translation (NAT) masquerading? It hides all internal addresses behind one external address. Network address translation (NAT) IP address translation assigns external addresses to internal devices in which way? It assigns the internal address to one of a pool of external addresses. Which protocol works with Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) Quality of Service (QoS) mechanisms to provide video and other real time data with reserved bandwidth across a data flow's path? Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP). How long is an Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) address? 128 bits. Lesson 6: Routing TCP/IP Which statement is true concerning IP routing? The destination and source media access control (MAC) addresses change at each hop. On which network type is a static route best used? Stub What type of network communication does not require a router's services? Direct routing Which two of the following are advantages gained from using static routes? (Choose two.) Reduced network overhead , Added network security In order to automatically build a routing table, which type of indirect routing must a router use? Dynamic Which three choices are indirect routing types? (Choose three.) Static, Default, Dynamic Which routing type allows network administrators to implement route load balancing and fault tolerance? Dynamic A router makes its packet forwarding decisions based on what information? The router's routing table In which two ways might using static routes provide additional network security over other routing options? (Choose two.) They can limit packet traffic to only a single, dedicated route. , They share no routing information with other routers. Considering the default Cisco router default administrative distances (AD), which of the following routes will a router consider more trustworthy than the others? Static Route Which type of network architecture allows routers to perform different tasks depending on their functional position within an area? Hierarchical Which router protocol type shares routing information within autonomous system (AS)? Interior gateway protocol (IGP) Which of the following is another name for a distance vector algorithm (DVA)? Bellman-Ford algorithm Which of the following protocols do autonomous systems (AS) use to exchange routing information between themselves? Exterior gateway protocol (EGP). Which two statements are true concerning distance vector algorithm (DVA) routing protocols? (Choose two.) Slow convergence can cause such problems as routing loops and lost packets. , They usually require fewer router resources to compute the best path to a destination network than do other routing protocols. Which routing type allows networks to recover from failed routes? Multipath routing. Which three of the following are examples of dynamic routing protocol metrics? (Choose three.) Hop Count, Line capacity, Transmission delay. Which two dynamic routing protocols create flat network topologies? (Choose two.) Routing information protocol (RIP). , Interdomain routing protocol (IDRP). Which three of the following are interior gateway protocol (IGP) examples? (Choose three.) Interior gateway routing protocol (IGRP). , Routing information protocol (RIP). , Open shortest path first (OSPF). Which of the following is the generic routing protocol type that routers use to communicate within an autonomous system (AS)? Interior gateway protocol (IGP). Which of the choices below is an example of an exterior gateway protocol (EGP)? Border gateway protocol (BGP). Distance vector algorithms (DVA) operate in which manner? They advertise their routing tables to directly connected neighbor routers. Which routing information protocol (RIP) stability feature sets a route's hop count to 16, preventing further updates from setting an incorrect route to an unreachable network? Poison Reverse How does routing information protocol (RIP) resolve the count-to-infinity problem? Hop-count limits Which would cause a router to update a route entry still in the holddown period set by a previously received update? A triggered update with a lower hop count than previously received You maintain an autonomous routing network that runs RIPv1 as its routing protocol. You calculate that at the workday's busy hours, routing changes occurring on the nearest router take 45 seconds to propagate to the furthest router. In the past, this slow convergence has resulted in routing loops. How might you configure your routers to avoid creating routing loops when route changes occur within the network? Set 50-second route update holddowns on all routers. Which three of the following are distance vector algorithm (DVA) stability features? (Choose three.) Holddowns, Hop-count limits, Split horizons Concerning routing information protocol (RIP), what is meant by the statement "maximum diameter of 15 hops"? Any single network cannot be more than 15 hops away. Which statement best describes split horizons? It prevents a router from advertising a route out to the interface on which the route was learned. In which three of the following ways does RIPv2 differ from routing information protocol (RIP)? (Choose three.) RIPv2 adds a Route Tag routing table entry. , RIPv2 supports variable length subnet masks. , RIPv2 provides update message authentication. By default, how frequently do routing information protocol (RIP) routers send out response messages to neighbor routers? Every 30 seconds IP routing information protocol (RIP) uses which of the following metrics to make path decisions? Hop count How does RIPv2 authentication protect routing table information? It password protects routing table updates between routers. Router 1, a routing information protocol (RIP) router in a two-router network, informs its neighbor, Router 2, of a route to the new, directly connected Network A. Router 2 updates its routing table accordingly. Almost immediately, Router 1's link to Network A fails. Router 1 prepares its regular update for Router 2, excluding the Network A entry from the update message. While Router 1 is waiting for its update timer to expire, Router 2 sends its regular update message to Router 1. This update tells Router 1 that Router 2 has a new route to Network A, with a hop count of 1. This route is through Router 2 back to Router 1, although Router 1's link to Network A is still failed. Which RIP stability feature will prevent this problem? Split horizons An Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) interior route is which of the following? A path to a directly attached, subnetted route What type of routing table update message does Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) send to quickly remove a route and place it in holddown? Flash updates A classful routing protocol can pass which three types of information in its routing table update messages? (Choose three.) Metrics , Network numbers , Autonomous system (AS) numbers. Which three choices are Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) stability features? (Choose three.) Holddowns , Split Horizons , Poison reverse updates In which instance could you use Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) as a routing protocol? Cisco routers in the same autonomous system (AS) as other Cisco routers. Which two of the following are default Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) features? (Choose two.) Route update period = 90 seconds , Maximum hop count = 100 Which metric does Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) use on a network with only one medium, such as one running 16-Mbps Token Ring exclusively? Hop count Which two of the following are the interior gateway routing protocol (IGRP) default metrics? (Choose two.) Bandwidth , Delay What is the primary difference between active and passive destinations in an enhanced interior gateway routing protocol (EIGRP) topology table? Passive tables are stable and trusted. Which of the following protocols scales better within a Cisco autonomous system? Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol. How does enhanced interior gateway routing protocol (EIGRP) avoid routing loops? Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL). Enhanced interior gateway routing protocol (EIGRP) was designed to replace or enhance which two previous routing protocols? (Choose two.) Routing Information Protocol , Interior Gateway Routing Protocol Which enhanced interior gateway routing protocol (EIGRP) routing table keeps a list of neighbors which are directly attached to one of the router's interfaces? The neighbor table In which instance could you use Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing protocol (EIGRP) as a routing protocol? Cisco routers in the same autonomous system (AS) as other Cisco routers. Which two of the following result from using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing areas? (Choose two.) Greatly reduced routing information traffic within the entire autonomous system (AS). , The development of a routing information hierarchy. An Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) autonomous system border router (ASBR) runs which two routing protocols? (Choose two.) OSPF on interfaces on its own autonomous system (AS). , Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) on interfaces on other autonomous systems (AS). Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routers send which type of packet to locate their neighbors? Hello To reduce routing information traffic between adjacent networks, Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) networks elect which two devices? (Choose two.) Designated router (DR). , Backup designated router (BDR). Which statement best describes an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) virtual link? It connects area border routes (ABR) over a nonbackbone area. In what ways does open shortest path first (OSPF) improve upon the limitations of distance vector algorithm (DVA) protocols, such as routing information protocol (RIP)? (Choose three.) Shortest Path First (SPF) technology resists routing loops. , Routers exchange routing table updates only. , All routing table exchanges are authenticated. The broadcast packets used by link-state protocols to share routing information about neighbor routers are called what? Link- State Algorithms (LSA) Which statement best describes an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) area border router (ABR)? It maintains a link-state database for each area to which it is connected. What does each link-state router build to describe the cost to reach each destination network? Shortest path first (SPF) tree. In what three ways does Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) control network routing table update traffic? (Choose three.) It provides for partitioning networks into subdomains, called area routes. , It supports multicast, rather than broadcast route update messages. , It passes only route table changes, rather than entire tables. In a link-state algorithm (LSA) shortest path first (SPF) tree, which three of the following are metrics the router uses to describe the cost to reach each destination network? (Choose three.) Line speed, Line delay, Hop counts A router that can receive packets from a neighboring router and forward them to at least one other router is called what? Quality of Service (QoS) routing uses which Internet protocol (IP) header field to make route decisions? Type of Service (ToS) Which three of the following cost factors might least cost routing use to calculate a minimum-cost path for a packet? (Choose three.) Bandwidth, Delay, Cash costs Which advanced routing function allows for redundant paths between networks? Load Splitting Border gateway protocol (BGP), though an exterior gateway protocol (EGP), operates as which type of routing protocol? Distance Vector Algorithm (DVA). What message type does border gateway protocol (BGP) send to test a connection's state? KeepAlive A router that an administrator designates to forward packets between autonomous systems (AS) is called what? Intermediate system (IS). Which statement correctly describes Class of Service (CoS) routing? It makes routing decisions based on the packet's service category. Lesson 7: How TCP/IP Applications Work Which combined information triggers a transmission control protocol (TCP) or user datagram protocol (UDP) application to respond to an information request? The Internet protocol (IP) address and port number. A web browser client sends a web page request message to a hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) server. In which order will the server decapsulate the request message? Network Interface Layer, Internet Layer, Transport Layer, Application Layer. If a hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) client does not specify a document name in its HTTP request message, what will the HTTP server return in response? Default document How does a transmission control protocol (TCP) application acknowledge the last message's receipt? It increments the received sequence number by one and sends it in the response message's Acknowledgment Number field. Before data can be sent between applications using transmission control protocol (TCP), which of the following must occur? TCP connection must be established. What is the first step in most client requests? Address resolution Which best describes the Telnet single commands options Do (253) code? It indicates that the sending Telnet desires the other party perform some specified option. Which protocol reduces the number of client terminal protocols the remote host must support? Virtual terminal protocol (VTP). The concept of a virtual terminal allows for which of the following? (Choose two.) Connectivity to multiple host computers How does the Telnet network virtual terminal (NVT) support complex terminals? It supports a 3-byte negotiation sequence. Which three of the following are advantages of remote terminal access (Telnet) over direct terminal-to-host access? (Choose three.) Increased user productivity , Access to multiple, separate sites from the same terminal , Reduction in the number of physical terminals How does virtual terminal protocol (VTP) support remote terminal access? It provides generic terminal interfaces for data and control transfer. When do a Telnet terminal and remote host negotiate options? After establishing the transmission control protocol (TCP) connection. What is the Telnet character device responsible for displaying incoming data? Printer Which best describes using a remote terminal versus direct access to a number of different hosts? Remote terminal access provides single terminal access to a number of remote hosts. Which best describes Telnet's use of subnegotiations? They can vary in length and format Which Telnet single command option code tells the requestor that the remote will not perform the option? Won't (252) The Telnet default network virtual terminal (NVT) provides which fundamental characteristics? (Choose three.) It embeds control commands in the data stream. , The keyboard generates 128 ASCII codes. , It transmits data as a 7-bit ASCII value in an 8-bit field. Which three modes does file transfer protocol (FTP) use to transfer data? (Choose three.) Stream , Block , Compressed Which are the well know transmission control protocol (TCP) ports for file transfer protocol (FTP) server control and data? (Choose two.) TCP Port 20 TCP Port 21 Which application protocols does file transfer protocol (FTP) use on its command channel? Telnet Which is the file transfer protocol (FTP) command used to place files on an FTP server? Put Which three of the following are file transfer protocol (FTP) objectives? (Choose three.) File sharing, Transparent file storage technology, Reliable data transfer Which text file type is the file transfer protocol (FTP) default? ASCII A file transfer protocol (FTP) control port is used by an FTP server to perform which of the following? Interpret requests from a client. Which Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) command designates that the message's text follows? DATA Which Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) command identifies the sending host? HELO The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) receiver accepts incoming email on which well known port? TCP Port 25 How does the receiver Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) respond to the sender SMTP issued Data command? 354 start mail input Which command does the sender Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) issue to terminate the transmission control protocol (TCP) connection? QUIT Which of the following statements concerning Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is correct? SMTP delivers mail from one computer to another. Which of the following are the three Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) mail transfer phases? (Choose three.) Connection closure, Data transfer, Connection establishment Which Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) command does the sender process use to identify separate recipient mailboxes? RCPT Which of the following services does Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) use? Transmission control protocol (TCP). Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) structures management information base (MIB) information in which of the following trees? A name tree Which portion of the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) architecture is responsible for implementing SNMP and exchanging messages between the management station and the managed elements? The SNMP engine Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) represents object syntax with a subset of which International Organization for Standardization (ISO) standard? ASN.1 Which three of the following are typical management agent components? (Choose three.) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) engine. , Transport protocol, Management profile Which choice best describes a Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) proxy agent? Proxy agents translate between SNMP and proprietary management systems. Which protocol data unit (PDU) type requests that the management agent return attribute values for a list of managed objects? GetRequest Which three of the following are typical network manager components? (Choose three.) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) engine. , Management information base (MIB) database. , Transport/link Which three of the following are H.323 gatekeeper functions? (Choose three.) Admissions control, Call signaling , Bandwidth management Which of the following are H.323 audio codecs? (Choose two.) G.711 , G.728 Which protocols assist H.323 in controlling and monitoring connections? (Choose two.) H.225 , H.245 Which two codecs support audio coding at 64 Kbps? (Choose two.) G.711 , G.722 You wish to implement voice over Internet protocol (VoIP) services on your existing data network. Part of your plan is to allow telecommuters to call network users from their home public switched telephone network (PSTN) telephones. Which H.323 device must you install in your existing data network to allow for these remote connections? A PSTN gateway Which Quality of Service (QoS( protocols could a network support to provide robust voice over Internet protocol (VoIP) services? (Choose two.) 802.1p , Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) An H.323 multipoint control unit (MCU) provides which service on a converged network? Terminal conferencing. Which services does Real-time Transport Protocol (RTP) provide to add reliability to packet voice networks? (Choose three.) Delivery monitoring, Sequence numbering, Timestamping Which multimedia protocol specifies a multipoint conferencing transport? T.120 Which H.323 recommendation protocol handles registration, admission, and status (RAS)? H.225 Lesson 8: Troubleshooting a TCP/IP Network When troubleshooting, why is it important to recreate a problem? To recognize that there is a problem, To record the circumstances in which the problem occurred, and to help focus your efforts. Which of the following commands shows the addresses configured on a Microsoft PC? ipconfig Which of the following helps to determine local addressing information? ipconfig Which TCP/IP tool allows you to display a workstation's network configuration values? Ipconfig You are troubleshooting a name resolution problem on your local network. You run two internal Domain Name System (DNS) servers, and they resolve all local hostnames. Where would you look to verify that your Windows clients are configured to use the correct DNS servers? The ipconfig response Typing ipconfig in the Windows command line interface (CLI) displays which three of the following pieces of client configuration information? (Choose three.) Adapter address, IP address, Lease expiration Which of the following echoes information back from an IP process? Ping Which TCP/IP troubleshooting tool is the fastest and easiest method to evaluate whether a host is available across a TCP/IP network? Ping Which key combination will terminate a continuous Ping issued with the Ping -t option? Ctrl+C Which two of the following might cause a ping across network boundaries to fail? (Choose two.) Internet Control Message Filters (ICMP) filters on the router ports. , Firewalls on the router ports. Which of the following troubleshooting tools tells how many hops to the destination computer? Tracert To determine the path your IP packets take to reach a remote office router, you issue the tracert command from a local network host, targeted at the remote office router's outside interface. Previous tracert replies showed the router nine hops away, so you set the tracert command's maximum hops option to 10. You ping the remote router interface, 191.67.17.2, and it succeeds. You issue the command tracert -h 10 191.67.17.2, but the tracert result does not list the router interface's IP address. Which might be a reason why this occurred? Your Internet service provider (ISP) has added routers between your local and remote network. Which of the following commands shows the path between source and destination in a TCP/IP network? Tracert Tracert uses which of the following commands and IP fields to carry out its operation? Ping and time-to-live (TTL). How many Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) packets does the tracert utility send per hop? 3 Which command can we use in conjunction with the address resolution protocol (ARP) command to determine the hostname of a cached NetBIOSover-IP address? Nbtstat -A <IPaddress>. Which utility displays a host's current Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS) over a TCP/IP connection? Nbtstat Which command uses Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS) to display protocol statistics on a local host? nbtstat You are running an active browser session with your employer's Human Resources intranet web server. You issue the netstat command from your local workstation's command prompt. The resulting screen shows several connections to the web server, each using a separate transmission control protocol (TCP) port. Why does your client workstation have multiple active port connections open to the same web server? Hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) sessions often open multiple connections between the client and the server Can the "arp" command be used to determine your own media access control (MAC) address? No Which address resolution protocol (ARP) command option shows the contents of the local ARP cache? arp-a How would we verify that TCP/IP is working on the local host? Ping the local loopback address How can we verify that name resolution is working correctly? Ping one or more network hosts by both name and address. Which are TCP/IP network troubleshooting tools? (Choose three.) Netstat , Ping , Tracert Which TCP/IP client/server service would allow an administrator to quickly reconfigure host configuration information? Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP). Which ping tests would indicate that TCP/IP is working correctly on a network segment? (Choose three) Ping other local segment hosts by IP address. , Ping the local network segment router port. , Ping the local IP address. Which troubleshooting step is likely to require the most time? Isolate the cause When troubleshooting a network, we begin by performing which of the following? Identify the issue When troubleshooting a problem crossing network responsibilities, why is it best to start with the local network and work out? (Choose three.) It allows us to eliminate and resolve any internal problems first. , It provides information we can use to support our case, if the problem proves to be external to our network. , It breaks up the troubleshooting effort to specific areas of responsibility. Lesson 10- Review of Local Area Network Fundamentals A hub may be used to provide connectivity in both a star and star ring network. True or False? True What type of device is used with unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cable to create a star network configuration? HUB A group of computers in the south side of a city are connected to another group of computers downtown. This would be considered what type of network? A metropolitan area network (MAN). Which of the following best describes a metropolitan area network (MAN)? It spans a single city and uses local telephone company facilities for connectivity A group of computers are connected in a multistory building. This would be considered what type of network? A local area network (LAN). An organization may use more than one type of topology in a single network. True or False? True Which of the following best describes a local area network (LAN)? It is confined to a single building or a single floor of a building Which communication process typically is the least intelligent? Slave Which of the following best describes the function of a media access control (MAC) layer address? Identifies the destination device's physical address What three addresses are needed to move data from one application to another across a network? Network address, network interface card (NIC) address, process address In a client/server arrangement, where are requests normally generated? Client What types of processes are located on two computers that perform approximately the same services? Peer A peer-to-peer network is a practical solution in which of the following applications? (Choose two.) Building a simple network supporting a few clients accessing a shared printer Creating an inexpensive solution for a small business just starting out Which of the following is the lowest layer? Physical Layer What is the primary purpose of a Network Layer protocol? Transmit packets across a network What is the primary purpose of a Physical Layer protocol? Transmit bits across a physical link Which of the choices below is a Transport Layer protocol? User datagram protocol (UDP) What is the primary purpose of a Transport Layer protocol? Transmit messages from process to process If segmentation occurs on the sending node, what must occur on the receiving node? Reassembly What is the primary purpose of a Data Link Layer protocol? Transmit frames across a physical link Encapsulation means that each layer on the sending node does which of the following? Adds its protocol header to the data Which of the following layers is only concerned with the physical signals that represent data bits? Physical Layer Lesson 11- Ethernet Local Area Networks Which of the following statements are true concerning Ethernet networks? (Choose two.) Ethernet can use thicknet, thinnet, or twisted pair cable at the Physical Layer. Media access control (MAC) frames are transmitted across the physical media. According to the Ethernet 5/4/3 rule, how many 10Base2 segments may have nodes attached? 3 What is the most widely installed local area network (LAN) technology? Ethernet What is the primary reason an Ethernet network interface card (NIC) transmits a jamming message? To warn other stations that a collision has been detected. What is the preamble used for? To synchronize Ethernet network interface cards (NIC) so the bits that make up the frames are received correctly. What is the purpose of the frame check sequence (FCS) field? (Choose two) To check the Ethernet frame for errors using a cyclic redundancy check (CRC). To ensure the Ethernet frame does not get processed if an error has occurred. What does an Ethernet frame addressed with a "1" as the first bit of destination media access control (MAC) address do? It allows all frames to be multicast to a select group of nodes. Where are Ethernet frames processed? By the network interface card (NIC) at the Data Link Layer The network interface card (NIC) in an Ethernet node receives from the Internet protocol (IP) a packet 12 bytes long. What must the NIC do in order to prepare the packet for transmission across the physical network? Add padding, a header and a trailer. What layer of software is normally loaded on the network interface card (NIC)? Data Link Layer Which Ethernet frame format includes a length field in the media access control (MAC) header? IEEE 802.3 How is Fast Ethernet similar to standard Ethernet? The same frame format is used. Cat 5E cabling can be used for both. Star configurations are used in both types What is the maximum cable length for 100BaseTx Ethernet? 100m What is the difference between the frame formats of 10 Mbps Ethernet and 100 Mbps Ethernet? The 10 Mbps Ethernet frame is exactly the same and contains the same fields as the 100 Mbps frame. Which of the following is NOT a Gigabit Ethernet Physical Layer function? Media access control (MAC) address assignments Gigabit Ethernet uses a different frame format than 10 Mbps Ethernet and Fast Ethernet. True or False? False Which of the statements below is incorrect when comparing Gigabit Ethernet to Fast Ethernet technology? Gigabit Ethernet uses the same speed as Fast Ethernet Which of the following is NOT a Gigabit Ethernet fiber cabling specification? 1000BaseFX Which of the following is a Gigabit Ethernet specification for copper cable? 1000BaseCX Which 10GbE interfaces operate over multimode fiber (MMF) cabling? (Choose two.) 10GBaseLX4 , 10GBaseSR Which statement is true concerning 10 Gigabit Ethernet (10GbE) Multi-Source Agreements (MSA)? They describe vendor-developed pluggable optics for interconnecting 10GbE devices. Which interfaces are NOT considered parts of the IEEE 802.3ae standard? 10GBaseCX4 What is the maximum length of a 10GbE segment through single-mode fiber (SMF) cable? 40km Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Ethernet? Ethernet can only be used with Category 5E unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cable. The IEEE 10GBaseT networks operate over which type of cabling? Category 6 unshielded twisted-pair (UTP). Which statement best describes 10 Gigabit Ethernet (10GbE)? It can be used in place of Fiber Channel (FC) as a storage attachment technology. With what SONET standard is 10GbE compatible? OC-192 What is the advantage of a switch over a standard hub? (choose two) Switches can improve network performance by keeping individual workgroup traffic local. , Switches isolate traffic per port. You are shopping for a new Ethernet switch. You want maximum switch throughput, but also want to avoid passing frames damaged by collisions. Which type of switch should you choose? Fragment-free What is the difference between a switch and a hub? A switch allows a dedicated path between two ports. How are store-and-forward switches different than cut-through switches? Store-and-forward switches are more accurate, but cut-through switches are faster. Why would you replace a hub with a switch? Increase local area network (LAN) performance. Which Layer 2 switch type reads the first 64-bytes of a frame and then forwards it to the destination interface? Fragment-free Which capability is NOT provided by Layer 3 switching. Internet protocol (IP) to name resolution for forwarding. How does a Layer 2 switch differ from a Layer 3 switch? A Layer 2 switch makes decisions based on media access control (MAC) addresses. How does a Layer 3 switch differ from a router? A Layer 3 switch checks the first packet in each stream

The Open Systems Interconnection Reference Model (OSI/RM) Network Layer serves which primary purpose?

It uses Layer 3 (Network Layer) addresses to create multiple routed networks.