SWM301

QN=1 Which is the one not included in the features of a project? a. Temporary b. Unique purpose c. Progressive elaboration d. Fixed operation

D

QN=1 Which of the following processes is not part of project integration management? a. close the project or phase b. develop the project charter c. develop the project management plan d. develop the project business case

D

QN=1 Which type of contract has the least amount of risk for buyer a. cost plus fixed fee b. Cost plus incentive fee c. time and material d. fixed-price

D

QN=10 Which is the most appropriate description of the stakeholder's influence on the project life cycle? a. Minimum at the start and maximum at the end. b. Maximum at the start, minimum at the middle phase, and maximum at the end of the project. c. Constant. d. Maximum at the start and then gradually weakens towards the end of the project.

D

QN=10 Which of the following is likely to be part of an operation? a. Informing the public about changes at the electrical company b. Building a new dam as a source for electricity c. Designing an electrical grid for a new community d. Providing electricity to a community

D

QN=11 The purpose of a quality audit includes all of the following except: a. Determines how the project is progressing and makes corrections. b. Identifies lessons learned. c. Reviews quality management activities to ensure the right quality elements are being examined. d. Examines the work of the project and formally accepts the work results.

D

QN=11 Which of the following items is not an objective of integrated change control? a. Influencing the factors that create changes to ensure that changes are beneficial b. Determining that a change has occurred c. Managing actual changes as they occur d. Make sure that project get more money from customer

D

QN=12 A_______ report if a reflective statement documenting important things that people learned from working on the project. a. final project b. project archive c. progress d. lessons-learned

D

QN=12 Perform quality assurance belong to the ________ PM Process Group. a. Initiating b. Planning c. Closing d. Executing e. Monitoring and Controlling

D

QN=12 Risks are accepted when: a. You reduce the probability of the risk event occurring b. You don't accept the consequences of the risk but take mitigation actions c. You transfer the risk to another party d. You develop a contingency plan to execute should the risk event occur

D

QN=12 The _____________ is the point at which the contractor assumes total responsibility for each additional dollar of contract cost. a. breakeven point b. Share Ratio Point c. Point of Reconciliation d. Point of Total Assumption

D

QN=12 Which of the following items is not a primary output of Create WBS process? a. WBS b. WBS Dictionary c. Project documents updates d. Project Charter

D

QN=13 The section of the project management plan describing management and technical approaches should include the following information, except for a. Management objectives b. Project controls c. Risk management d. Summary schedule e. Project staffing

D

QN=13 When using the _________, project managers retreat or withdraw from actual or potential disagreement. This approach is also called avoiding mode. a. confrontation mode b. compromise mode c. smoothing mode d. Withdrawal mode

D

QN=13 ________________ is a term used to describe various procurement functions that are now done electronically a. EMV b. eBay c. E-commerce d. E-procurement

D

QN=13 ____________involves using incentives to include people to do things. a. Coercive power b. Expert power c. Legitimate power d. Reward power e. Referent power

D

QN=14 (8145) Which of the following is not a best practice for new product development projects? a. alignprojects and resources with business strategy b. assignproject managers to lead projects c. focuson customer needs in identifying projects d. selectprojects that will take less than two years to provide payback

D

QN=15 (8146) A new government law requires an organization to report data in a new way. Under which category would a new information system project to provide this data fall? a. Problem b. Opportunity c. Regulation d. Directive

D

QN=16 (8157) Which of the following describe the BEST use of historical records from previous projects? a. Estimating, life cycle costing, and project planning b. Risk management, estimating, and creating lessons learned c. Project planning, estimating, and creating a status report. d. Estimating, risk management, and project planning

D

QN=2 You are the project manager for the LLL Project. Steven, a project team member, is confused about network diagrams. Specifically, he wants to know what the critical path is in a network diagram. Your answer is which one of the following? a. The critical path is the network that hosts the activities most critical to the project success. b. The critical path is the path from start to completion with no deviation from the project plan c. The critical path is always one path that cannot be delayed or the entire project will be delayed. d. The critical path is the path with the longest duration

D

QN=24 (8263) Senior management is complaining that they are not able to easily determine the status of ongoing projects in the organization. Which of the following type of reports that would help provided summary information to senior management? a. Detailed cost estimates b. Project management plans c. Bar chart d. Milestone reports

D

QN=25 (8234) You are the project manager for the LLL Project. Steven, a project team member, is confused about network diagrams. Specifically, he wants to know what the critical path is in a network diagram. Your answer is which one of the following? a. The critical path is the network that hosts the activities most critical to the project success. b. The critical path is the path from start to completion with no deviation from the project plan c. The critical path is always one path that cannot be delayed or the entire project will be delayed. d. The critical path is the path with the longest duration

D

QN=29 (8295) A Cost Performance Index (CPI) of 0.89 means ___ a. At this time, we expect the total project to cost at 89 percent more than planned. b. When the project is completed we will have spent 89 percent more than planned. c. The project is only progressing at 89 percent of the rate planned. d. The project is only getting 89 cents out of every dollar invested.

D

QN=3 Which is not a process group in project management lifecycle (as mentioned in the PMBOK)? a. Planning process group b. Closing process group c. Execution process group d. Feedback process group

D

QN=3 Which of the following items is not a step in four-stage planning processes for selecting IT project? a. information technology strategy planning b. business area analysis c. resource allocation d. mind mapping

D

QN=3 Which of the following statements is false? a. Uncertainty and risk are greatest at the start of the project and lowest at the end. b. Expected monetary value can be expressed as the product of the risk event probability and the risk event value. c. Opportunities are positive outcomes of risk. d. Uncertainty and risk are lowest at the start of the project and greatest at the end.

D

QN=3 Which of the following statements is not true? a. Only those who realize that cultural differences are a resource to leverage will survive in the twenty-first century b. There is a common ground for people from different cultures to work from to help resolve project conflicts. c. Culture is a critical lever for competitive advantage. d. Cultural differences will always be an obstacle to overcome.

D

QN=31 (8294) The main focus of life cycle costing is to ____ a. Estimate installation costs b. Estimate the cost of operations and maintenance. c. Consider installation costs when planning the project costs. d. Consider operations and maintenance costs in making project decisions.

D

QN=33 (8320) Which of the following formulas is used to calculate the SPI (Schedule performance index)? a. EV/ AC b. EV-AC c. EV-PV d. EV/PV

D

QN=4 A project team has invited many of the project stakeholders to help them inspect quality on the project. Which of the following would NOT be an output of this activity? a. Quality improvement b. Rework c. Process adjustments d. Quality management plan

D

QN=4 A_______ is an approach to help increase the support of stakeholders throughout the project a. stakeholder register b. expectations management matrix c. reporting performance d. stakeholder management strategy

D

QN=4 In... ... .... Organization structure type, project manager has "Moderate to high" authority a. Functional b. Week Matrix c. Balance Matrix d. Strong Matrix e. Projectized

D

QN=4 Which of the following is not a best practice for new product development projects? a. align projects and resources with business strategy b. assign project managers to lead projects c. focus on customer needs in identifying projects d. select projects that will take less than two years to provide payback

D

QN=42 (8404) Which of the following describes the theory Z style of management? a. Theory Z assumes individuals consider work as natural as play or rest and enjoy the satisfaction of esteem and self-actualization needs b. Theory Z assumes workers dislike and avoid work, so managers must use coercion, threats, and various control schemes to get workers to meet objectives c. People have no ambitions, wants no responsibility, and would rather follow than lead d. Theory Z is based on the Japanese approach to motivating workers, emphasizing trust, quality, collective decision making, and cultural values

D

QN=47 (8452) Which of the following best describes a directly face a conflict using a problem-solving conflict resolution technique? a. Forcing b. Smoothing c. Withdrawal d. Confrontation e. Compromise

D

QN=5 A new government law requires an organization to report data in a new way. Under which category would a new information system project to provide this data fall? a. Problem b. Opportunity c. Regulation d. Directive

D

QN=5 Which of the following is not a preferred section in communication plan? a. Stakeholder communication requirements b. Define information to be communicated c. A glossary of common terminology d. Training activities

D

QN=6 Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between project lifecycle phases and project management processes? a. Project management processes correspond one to one with project lifecycle phases. b. Project lifecycle phases can repeat within a project management process. c. Project management processes are completely independent of project lifecycle phases d. Project management processes can repeat within a project lifecycle.

D

QN=6 Who is ultimately responsible for quality management in the project? a. Project engineer b. Quality manager c. Team member d. Project manager

D

QN=6 ________ power is based on a person's individual charisma. a. Affiliation b. Legitimate c. Personality d. Referent

D

QN=7 A unilateral contract under which the seller is paid a preset amount per unit of service is called: a. A cost reimbursable contract b. A lump sum contract c. A fixed price contract d. A unit price contract

D

QN=7 Scope________ is often achieved by a customer inspection and then sign-off on key deliverables. a. validation b. completion c. close-out d. verification

D

QN=7 Which of the following is not an output of activity resource estimation process? a. a resource breakdown structure b. a list of activity resource requirements c. project document updates d. WBS Dictionary

D

QN=8 What is core of the advantages of a functional organization? a. All employees report to two or more managers, but project team members show loyalty to functional managers b. The organization is focused on projects and project work c. Team are collocated d. All employees report to one manager and have a clear chain of command

D

QN=9 (8131) Which of the following can be used to determine what work is included in each work package for each of your team members? a. Project schedule b. Project scope statement c. Project Charter d. Work Breakdown Structure Dictionary

D

QN=9 Which is not included in Risk Response Planning? a. Centralization b. Exploitation c. Acceptance d. Enhancement

D

QN=9 _________ is the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfils requirements, a. Conformance to requirements b. Fitness for use c. Reliability d. Quality

D

QN=4 Assume you have a project with major categories called planning, analysis, design, and testing. What level of the WBS would these items fall under? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

2

Project Stakeholder are: a. Anybody who is actively working on the project b. Individuals and organizations who are actively involved in the project, or whose interests may be positively or negatively affected as a result of project execution or successful project completion. c. The plan sponsor, project manager, team members, client d. The customer

A

QN=1 Develop project charter work belongs to the_________ PM Process Group. a. Initiating b. Planning c. Executing d. Monitoring and Controlling e. Closing

A

QN=1 What do many experts agree is the greatest threat to the success of any project? a. a failure to communicate b. lack of proper funding c. poor listening skill d. inadequate staffing

A

QN=1 Which is not a process in the Risk Management knowledge area? a. Risk Design b. Risk Identification c. Perform qualitative risk analysis d. Plan Risk Response

A

QN=10 (8120) All of the following occur during the planning process group EXCEPT: a. Develop project Charter. b. Create Work Breakdown Structure. c. Estimates costs d. Sequence Activities.

A

QN=10 Which of the following is not a suggestion for performing integrated change control? a. minimize change b. establish a format change control system c. view project management as a progress of constant communication and negotiation d. use good configuration management

A

QN=10 You are the project manager for the 987 Project. Should this project run over schedule, it will cost your organization $35,000 per day in lost sales. With four months to completion, you realize the project is running late. You decide, with management's approval, to change the relationship between several of the work packages so they begin in tandem rather than sequentially. This is an example of which one of the following? a. Fast tracking b. Crashing c. Expert judgment d. Cost benefit analysis

A

QN=11 What is a risk trigger? a. Indicator of the risk b. Risk categories c. Probability of risk d. Root cause of the risk

A

QN=11 Which of the following contract types places the greatest risk on the seller? a. Firm-fixed-price contract b. Cost plus-incentive-fee contract c. Fixed-price-incentive contract d. Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract

A

QN=12 A rough order of magnitude estimate is made during which project management process group? a. Project initiating b. Project planning c. Project executing d. Project closing

A

QN=12 The project schedule information section should include the following items, except for a. Payment schedule b. Summary schedule c. Detailed schedule d. Other schedule-related information

A

QN=13 The principles of risk management should be followed only for: a. All kinds of project b. Large projects c. Simple projects d. Complex projects

A

QN=13 Which of the following is the cost incurred to correct an identified defect before the customer receives the product? a. internal failure cost b. appraisal cost c. prevention cost d. quality cost

A

QN=17 (8174) An output of the Close Project or Phase process is the creation of ____ a. Project archives b. A project charter c. A project management plan d. A risk analysis plan

A

QN=18 (8151) Which of the following is not a sugge control? a. minimizechange b. establisha format change control syst c. viewproject management as a progres negotiation d. usegood configuration management

A

QN=2 A__________________ is a deliverable-oriented grouping of the work involved in a project that defined the total scope of the project a. WBS b. scope statement c. WBS dictionary d. work package

A

QN=2 Schedule variance can be determined by: a. EV - PV b. AC - EV c. EAC - AC d. EV - AC

A

QN=2 Which type of contract has the least amount of risk for seller a. cost plus percentage of costs b. cost plus incentive fee c. fixed-price d. cost plus fixed fee

A

QN=22 (8209) The construction phase of a new software product is near completion. The next phases are testing and implementation. The project is two weeks ahead of schedule. What should project manager be MOST concerned with before moving on to the final phase? a. Verify scope b. Control Quality c. Create performance reports d. Control costs

A

QN=3 (8079) Company procedures require the creation of a lessons learned document. Which of the following is the BEST use of lessons learned? a. Historical records for future projects b. Planning record for the current project. c. Informing the team about what the project manager has done. d. Informing the team about the project management plan

A

QN=3 An item you need for a project has a daily lease cost of $200. To purchase the item, there is an investment cost of $6000 and a daily cost of $50. Calculate the number of days when the lease cost would be the same as the purchase cost. a. 40 b. 30 c. 60 d. 50

A

QN=3 Quality is a. conforming to requirements, specifications, and fitness of use. b. conforming to management's requirements c. meeting and exceeding the customer's expectations. d. adding extras to make the customer happy.

A

QN=3 Which is not an advantage of project management? a. Improve developer's skill b. Better control of financial, physical, and human resource c. Improve customer relations d. Shorter development times e. Lower costs and improved productivity

A

QN=34 (8353) What percentage of the total distribution is 1 sigma from the mean equal to? a. 68.29% b. 99.99% c. 95.46% d. 99.73%

A

QN=37 (8344) Pareto charts help project manager _____ a. Focus on most critical issues to improve quality. b. Focus on stimulating thinking c. Explore a desired future outcome. d. Determine if a process is out of control.

A

QN=4 At the top of Maslow's pyramid or hierarchy of needs are _____ needs a. self- actualization b. Esteem c. Physiological d. Safety

A

QN=4 During project plan execution: a. The project manager uses corrective action to bring future performance in line with the project plan. b. The stakeholders are involved to provide input to the plan c. The project charter is generated d. A milestone schedule is developed

A

QN=4 You are the project manager for the POL Project. This project will use PERT to calculate the estimates for activity duration. For activity D, you have the following information: P=10 days, O=6 days, M=5 days. What is the result of PERT? a. 6 days b. 3.5 days c. 4.3 days d. 5 days

A

QN=5 According to McClelland's acquired needs theory, people who desire harmonious relation with other people and need to feel accepted have a high_______ need. a. Affiliation b. Achievement c. Social d. Extrinsic

A

QN=5 During the six month update on a 1 year, $50,000 project, the analysis shows that the PV is $25,000; the EV is $20,000 and the AC is $15,000. What can be determined from these figures? a. The project is behind schedule and under cost. b. The project is ahead of schedule and under cost. c. The project is ahead of schedule and over cost. d. The project is behind schedule and over cost.

A

QN=5 When should a risk be avoided? a. When the risk event is unacceptable -- generally one with a very high probability of occurrence and high impact. b. When the risk event has a low probability of occurrence and low impact. c. When it can be transferred by purchasing insurance. d. A risk event can never be avoided.

A

QN=5 Your organization hired a specialist in a certain field to provide training for a short period of time. Which reason for outsourcing would this fall under? a. accessing skills and technologies b. allowing the client organization to focus on its core business c. reducing costs d. providing flexibility

A

QN=6 (8074) All of the following are part of the team's stakeholder management effort EXCEPT: a. Giving stakeholders extras. b. Identifying stakeholders. c. Determining stakeholders' needs d. Managing stakeholders' expectations.

A

QN=8 A staffing management plan often includes a resource ___________, which is a column chart that shows the number of resources assigned to the project overtime. a. Histogram b. Chart c. Graph d. Timeline

A

QN=8 How close to actual costs should a definitive budget estimate be? a. -5 percent to +10 percent b. -10 percent to +25 percent c. +10 percent to -25 percent d. -50 percent to +100 percent

A

QN=8 If your college or university wanted to get information from potential sellers for providing a new sports stadium, what type of document would they require of the potential sellers? a. Proposal b. RFQ c. RFP d. Quote

A

QN=8 Suppose there is a 20 percent chance that you will earn $10,000 and a 80 percent chance that you will lose $100,000 on a particular protect. What is the projects estimated monetary value? a. -$78.000 b. $80,000 c. -$20,000 d. $78,000

A

QN=8 The process of monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards is called: a. Quality Control b. Quality Assurance c. Quality Review d. Quality Planning

A

QN=8 When using the ________, project managers directly face a conflict using a problem-solving approach that allows affected parties to work through their disagreements. a. confrontation mode b. compromise mode c. smoothing mode d. collaborating mode

A

QN=8 Which of the following is not a suggestion for improving user input? a. Only have meetings as needed, not on a regular basis b. Have users on the project team c. Co-locate users with developers d. Develop a good project selection process for IT projects

A

QN=8 Which of the following items is not normally included in a project charter? a. a Gant chart b. the name of the project manager c. budget information d. stakeholder signatures

A

QN=8 Which of the following outputs is often completed before initiating a project? a. Business case b. Stakeholder register c. Project charter d. Kick-off meeting

A

QN=9 The main focus of life cycle costing is to: a. Consider operations and maintenance costs in making project decisions b. Estimate the cost of operations and maintenance c. Consider installation costs when planning the project costs d. Estimate installation costs

A

QN=9 Which is not a disadvantage of virtual teams? a. Increasing costs because it requires office space or requires more support b. A. Isolating team members c. Increasing the potential for communications problems d. Reducing the ability for team members to network and transfer information informally

A

QN=1 During the completion of the project, a project manager wants to ensure that the quality of the end product is acceptable. The BEST way to do this is by: a. identifying the quality standards you want the end product to meet. b. checking quality levels against the standards set in the quality plan. c. performing cost/benefit analyses. d. determining the cause of a problem using a fishbone diagram.

B

QN=1 In which organization are the project manager's independence and authority weakest? a. Projectized organization b. Functional organization c. Weak matrix organization d. Strong matrix organization

B

QN=1 Which of the following is not part of project human resource management? a. Acquiring the project team b. Resource estimating c. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team

B

QN=10 Define activities and sequence activities belong to the__________PM Process Group. a. Initiating b. Planning c. Closing d. Executing e. Monitoring and Controlling

B

QN=10 In general, for which phase is risk and uncertainty minimum? a. Initial phase b. Final phase c. End of the Development phase d. Middle phase

B

QN=10 In which project procurement management process is an RFP often written? a. conducting procurements b. planning procurements c. administering procurements d. selecting sellers

B

QN=10 The project scope statement, __________, and organizational process assets are primary inputs for creating a WBS. a. Project management plan b. Requirements documents c. Stakeholder register d. Requirements traceability

B

QN=10 What are five stages in Tuckman's model of team development, in chronological order? a. forming, norming, storming, performing, and adjourning b. forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning c. forming, storming, performing, norming, and adjourning d. forming, storming, norming, adjourning, and performing

B

QN=10 Which of the following methods is used to provide a standard to measure performance? a. Leveling b. Benchmarking c. Sampling d. Estimating

B

QN=10 Which type of cost is team training? a. Indirect b. Direct c. NPV d. Fixed

B

QN=10 You have two project stakeholders who do not get along at all. You know they both enjoy travelling, so you discuss great travel destinations when they are both in the room together to distract them from arguing with each other. What conflict-handling mode are you using? a. compromise mode b. smoothing mode c. collaborating mode d. confrontation mode

B

QN=11 Bertha is the project manager for the HAR Project. The project is behind schedule and Bertha has elected, with management's approval, to crash the critical path. This process adds more what? (Choose the best answer.) a. Time b. Cost c. Risk d. Documentation

B

QN=11 The ________________ has well-defined, linear stages of system analysis, design, construction, testing, and support. a. Spiral lifecycle model b. Waterfall lifecycle model c. Incremental build lifecycle model d. Prototyping life cycle model e. RAD life cycle model

B

QN=11 ________________ refer(s) to all the project work involved in creating the products of the project and processes used to create them. a. Deliverables b. Scope c. Milestones d. Product development

B

QN=12 (8106) A detailed project schedule can be created only after creating the ___ a. Project budget. b. Work breakdown structure. c. Project management plan. d. Detailed risk assessment.

B

QN=12 Personnel in a _____________ organization structure often report to two or more bosses a. Functional b. Matrix c. Project d. Hybrid

B

QN=12 Which of the following is the cost of evaluating processes and their outputs to ensure that a project is error-free or within an accepted or rejected? a. internal failure cost b. appraisal cost c. prevention cost d. quality cost

B

QN=13 A schedule performance index(SPI) of 0.76 means: a. you are ahead of schedule b. you are only progressing at 76 percent of the rate originally planned. c. you are over budget. d. you are only progressing at 24 percent of the rate originally planned

B

QN=13 In a projectized organization, the project team: a. Reports to many bosses b. Will not always have a 'home' c. Has no loyalty to the project d. Reports to the functional manager

B

QN=13 Which is not an activity of Time management knowledge area? a. Activity Sequencing b. Project Plan Development c. Activity Duration Estimating d. Activity Definition

B

QN=19 (8189) What approach to developing a WBS involves writing down or drawing ideas in a nonlinear format? a. top-down b. mindmapping c. bottom-up d. Analogy

B

QN=2 The __________ deal with how the organization is structured and focuses on different groups' roles and responsibilities in order to meet the goals and policies set by top management a. Human resource frame b. Structural frame c. Political frame d. Symbolic frame

B

QN=2 Which communication skill is most important for information technology professionals for career advancement? a. writing b. speaking c. listening d. using communication technologies

B

QN=2 ___________causes people to participate in an activity for their own enjoyment. a. Extrinsic motivation b. Intrinsic motivation c. Self motivation d. Social motivation

B

QN=20 (8192) What major restaurant chain terminated a large project after spending $170 millions on it, primarily because they realized the project scope was too much to handle? a. Burger King b. McDonald's c. Taco Bell d. Pizza Hut

B

QN=23 (8205) During a project team meeting, a team member suggests an enhancement to the scope that is beyond the scope of project charter. The project manager points out the team needs to concentrate on completing all the work and only the work required. This is an example of ____ a. Change management process. b. Scope management. c. Quality analysis. d. Scope decomposition.

B

QN=28 (8237) You are the project manager for the MNB Project. You and your project team are about to enter into the activity duration estimating process. Which of the following will not be helpful in your meeting? a. Constraints b. The project contract c. Assumptions d. Identified risks

B

QN=3 Project Cost Management includes all of the following except: a. Cost Controlling b. Resource leveling c. Cost estimating d. Cost budgeting

B

QN=3 What approach to developing a WBS involves writing down or drawing ideas in a nonlinear format? a. top-down b. mind mapping c. bottom-up d. Analogy

B

QN=30 (8306) Which of the following represent the portion of the approved total cost estimate planned to be spenton an activity during a given period? a. Earned value (EV) b. Planned value (PV) c. Actual cost (AC) d. Cost variance (CV)

B

QN=35 (8333) Which of the following methods is used to provide a standard to measure performance? a. Leveling b. Benchmarking c. Sampling d. Estimating

B

QN=4 A risk response which involves reducing the impact of a risk event by reducing the probability of its occurrence is called: a. Acceptance b. Mitigation c. Avoidance d. Transference

B

QN=4 Which strategic technology considers in efficient using of computer resources, social responsibility, and environmental impact? a. Unified communication b. Green IT c. Business process modeling d. Virtualization 2.0 e. Social software

B

QN=44 (8438) Who of the following are ALWAYS stakeholders? a. A person who does not want the project to be completed. b. An assembly line worker that will use the product of the project. c. A functional manager from the engineering deparment d. A person who might lose his or her position in the company because of the project.

B

QN=45 (8444) A particular stakeholder has a reputation for making changes on projects. What is the BEST approach a project manager can take at the beginning of the project to manage this situation? a. Say "No" to the stakeholder a few times to dissuade him from submitting more changes b. Get the stakeholder involved in the project as early as possible. c. Talk to the stakeholder's boss to find ways to direct the stakeholder's activities to another project. d. Ask that the stakeholder not be included in the stakeholder listing

B

QN=46 (8448) Which of the following are NOT the direct results of managing the project team? a. Submitting change request b. Negotiating staff assignments c. Resolving issues d. Recording the lessons learned

B

QN=48 (8429) Formal written correspondence with the customer is required when ___ a. Defects are detected b. The customer requests additional work not covered under contract c. The project has schedule slippage that includes changes to the critical path d. The project has cost overruns.

B

QN=5 In Balanced Matrix Organization Structure type, .... will control the project budget. a. Functional manager b. Mixed (Functional manager and PM) c. Project manager d. Program manager

B

QN=5 What is the last step in the four-stage planning process for selecting information technology projects? a. information technology strategy planning b. resource allocation c. business area analysis d. mind mapping

B

QN=5 Which of the following is not a best practice that can help in avoiding scope problems on information technology project? a. Keep the realistic scope b. Don't involve too many users in scope management c. Follow good project management processes d. Use off-the-shelf hardware and software whenever possible

B

QN=5 You are the project manager for the MNB Project. You and your project team are about to enter into the activity duration estimating process. Which of the following will not be helpful in your meeting? a. Constraints b. The project contract c. Assumptions d. Identified risks

B

QN=6 A_____ report describes where the project stands at a specific point time. a. performance b. status c. forecast d. earned value

B

QN=6 An example of risk mitigation is: a. Eliminating the cause of a risk b. Using proven technology in the development of a product to lessen the probability that the product will not work c. Accepting a lower profit if costs overrun d. Eliminating the impact of a risk

B

QN=6 If estimates for total discounted benefits for a project are $130,000 and total discounted costs are $100,000, what is the estimated return on investment (ROI)? a. $30,000 b. 30 percent c. 130 percent d. $130,000

B

QN=6 In which process group do we identify human and non-human resources required for a project? a. Planning b. Initiating c. Executing d. Closing

B

QN=6 What major restaurant chain terminated a large project after spending $170 millions on it, primarily because they realized the project scope was too much to handle? a. Burger King b. McDonald's c. Taco Bell d. Pizza Hut

B

QN=6 Which is the correct explanation of a Stakeholder? a. New information system development b. Individual or organization influenced by the project c. Construction of building and equipment d. Leading the project to success.

B

QN=6 Which of the following is not an output from the activity duration estimating process? a. Activity list updates b. WBS c. Project document updates d. Duration estimates

B

QN=7 A project team member comes to the project manager during project execution to tell him that they feel the project cannot meet its quality standards. The project manager calls a meeting of the affected stakeholders to work through the problem. Which step of the quality management process is the project manager in? a. Quality analysis b. Quality assurance c. Quality control d. Quality planning

B

QN=7 A________ maps the work of a project as described in the WBS to the people responsible for performing the work. a. project organizational chart b. responsibility assignment matrix c. resource histogram d. work definition and assignment process

B

QN=7 What tool can you use to help manage stakeholders by ranking scope, time, and cost goals in order of important and provide guidelines on balancing these constraints? a. triple constraint matrix b. issue log c. expectations matrix d. priority log

B

QN=7 _______processes include coordinating people and other resources to carry out the project plans and produce the products, services, or results of the project or phase a. Initiating b. Monitoring and controlling c. Planning d. Executing

B

QN=9 In which project procurement management process is an RFQ often written? a. conducting procurements b. planning procurements c. administering procurements d. selecting sellers

B

QN=9 Project management software helps you develop a __________, which serves as basis for creating Gantt charts, assigning resources, and allocating costs. a. project plan b. WBS c. schedule d. deliverables and WBS Dictionary

B

QN=9 Which is the most appropriate description that explains a project team member? a. Management representative of the project b. The group that carries out the work of the project. c. Individual or organization who will use the products of the project. d. Individual or group outside the organization that provides financial resources for the project.

B

QN=9 You are the project manager for the 987 Project. Should this project run over schedule, it will cost your organization $35,000 per day in lost sales. With four months to completion, you realize the project is running late. You decide, with management's approval, to add more project team members to the project plan to complete the work on time. This is an example of which of the following? a. Fast tracking b. Crashing c. Expert judgment d. Cost benefit analysis

B

QN=9 _________ ensures that the descriptions of the project's products are correct and complete. a. Integrated change control b. Configuration management c. Integration Management d. A change control board

B

QN=1 Michael is the project manager of the 98GH Project. This project requires several members of the project team to complete a certification class for another project the week of November 2. This class causes some of the project activities on Michael's activities to be delayed from his target schedule. This is an example of which of the following? a. Hard logic b. Soft logic c. External dependencies d. Conflict of interest

C

QN=1 Which of the following choices indicates that a project has a burn rate of 1.5? (Hint: Burn rate is the same as the Cost Performance Index) a. The PV is 100 and the EV is 150. b. The AC is 150 and the EV is 100. c. The AC is 100 and the EV is 150. d. The EV is 100 and the PV is 150.

C

QN=1 Which tool or technique for collecting requirements is often the most expensive and time consuming? a. surveys b. focus group c. interview d. observation

C

QN=11 Which of the following is not a guideline to help improve time spent at meetings? a. Determine if a meeting can be avoided b. Determine the purpose and intended outcome of the meeting c. Invite extra people who support your project to make it run more smoothly d. Build relationship

C

QN=11 ________ is a document that describes when and how people will be added to and taken off a project team. a. Responsibility assignment matrix b. RACI charts c. Staffing management plan d. Team development plan

C

QN=11 __________is a project performance measurement technique that integrates scope, time, and cost data a. Reserve analysis b. Life cycle costing c. Earned value analysis d. Project cost budgeting

C

QN=12 _____ is getting people to do things based on a position of authority. a. Coercive power b. Expert power c. Legitimate power d. Reward power e. Referent power

C

QN=12 _________ is a technique for making cost and schedule trade-offs to obtain the greatest amount of schedule compression for the least incremental cost. a. Fast Tracking b. Schedule compression c. Crashing d. Critical chain scheduling

C

QN=2 (8053) An example of a project is: a. Billing customers b. Managing an organization c. Constructing a building or facility d. Providing technical support

C

QN=2 Contingency reserves are used to handle which type of risk? a. Business risks b. Unknown unknowns c. Known unknowns d. Pure risks

C

QN=2 Direct and manage project executing belongs to the ...... PM Process Group. a. Initiating b. Planning c. Executing d. Monitoring and Controlling e. Closing

C

QN=2 The line in the middle of a control chart is called the: a. specification limit. b. rule of seven. c. mean d. upper and lower control limit

C

QN=2 What is the last step in four-stage planning processes for selecting information technology project? a. information technology strategy planning b. business area analysis c. resource allocation d. mind mapping

C

QN=2 Which is the correct explanation of Scope? a. Skills for work subdividing b. Skills for reporting results c. The sum of the products and services created as a project d. Group that works toward the same target

C

QN=21 (8226) All of the following are outputs of the scope definition process EXCEPT: a. Project scope statement b. Project scope management plan (updates) c. Preliminary project scope statement d. Requested changes

C

QN=26 (8253) What is the duration of a milestone? a. Shorter than the duration of the longest activities. b. Shorter than the activity it represents. c. There is no duration. d. Same the length as the activity it represents

C

QN=27 (8249) If the optimistic time estimate for an activity is 8 days, most likely time is 10 days, and pessimistic time is 24 days. What is PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique) weighted average of this activity? a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 d. 14

C

QN=3 At the bottom of Maslow's pyramid or hierarchy of needs are _____ needs a. self-actualization b. Esteem c. Physiological d. Safety

C

QN=3 What is the difference between PDM and ADM? a. ADM hosts activities on nodes, while PDM hosts activities on arrows. b. ADM is also known as AOA, while PDM is also known as GERT. c. ADM places activities on arrows; PDM places activities on nodes. d. PDM can have two types of relationships between tasks, while ADM can have only type of relationship between tasks

C

QN=3 Which of the following is not a process of communication management? a. Identify stakeholders b. Plan communication c. Acquiring project team d. Distribute information

C

QN=32 (8311) The project manager is allocating overall cost estimate to individual activities to establish a baseline for measuring project performance. What process is this? a. Cost management b. Estimate costs c. Determine Budget d. Control Costs

C

QN=36 (8371) Which of the following statements are FALSE regarding quality audits? a. Quality audits examines how the project is progressing and makes corrections b. The objective of quality audit is to identify lessons learned c. Quality audits are generally performed after scope verification, but can also be performed in parallel with scope verification d. Quality audits are a structured review of other quality managementactivities `

C

QN=38 (8342) Quality is ___ a. Meeting and exceeding the customer's expectations. b. Adding extras to make the customer happy. c. The degree to which the project meets requirements d. Conformance to management's objectives

C

QN=39 (8362) As the project manager, you are preparing your methods for quality management. You are looking for a method that can demonstrate the relationship between events and their resulting effects. You want to use a method to depict the events that cause a negative effect on quality. Which of the following is the BEST choice for accomplishing your objectives? a. Histogram b. Pareto chart c. Ishikawa diagram d. Control chart

C

QN=4 (8083) Consideration of ongoing operations and maintenance is crucially important to products of projects. Ongoing operations and maintenance should: a. Be included as activities to be performed during project closure b. Have a separate phase in the project life cycle, because a large portion of life cycle costs is devoted to maintenance and operations. c. Not be viewed as part of a project. A project is temporary with a definite beginning and end. d. Be viewed as a separate project

C

QN=4 A proposal evaluation sheet is an example of a(n) ________________ a. RFP b. NPV analysis c. weighted scoring model d. earned value analysis

C

QN=4 Earned value is all of the following except: a. Completed work value. b. Budgeted cost of work performed. c. Actual cost of work performed. d. Percent complete.

C

QN=40 (8396) During the first half of the project, five team member left for other projects without being replaced, two team members went on vacation without informing you, and other team members expressed uncertainty about the work they were complete. In this situation, it is the BEST if you create a _______ for the second half of the project? a. Work Breakdown Structure b. Resource histogram c. Staffing management plan. d. Responsibility assignment matrix

C

QN=41 (8408) According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs in which does the need for acceptance occurs? a. Safety and security b. Esteem c. Social needs d. Self-actualization

C

QN=43 (8384) _____ isgetting people to do things based on a position of authority. a. Coercive power b. Expert power c. Legitimate power d. Reward power e. Referent power

C

QN=5 (8077) One of your team members informs you that he does not know which of the many projects he is working on is the most important. Who should determine the priorities among projects in a company? a. The project manager. b. The project management team c. The project management office d. The team

C

QN=5 All of the following are outputs of quality planning EXCEPT? a. Creation of checklists b. Quality management plan c. Acceptance decisions d. Metrics

C

QN=5 Which is not a project attribute? a. A project should have a primary customer and sponsor b. A project is temporary c. A project should have only one project manager and one technical leader d. A project involves uncertainty

C

QN=6 Buyers often prepare a _____________ list when selecting a seller to make this process more manageable. a. preferred b. qualified suppliers c. short d. BAFO

C

QN=6 The inputs to Cost Budgeting includes all of the following except: a. Cost estimates b. WBS c. Cost baseline d. Project schedule

C

QN=7 (8090) Direct and manage project executing belongs to the ......PM Process Group. a. Initiating b. Planning c. Executing d. Monitoring and Controlling e. Closing

C

QN=7 A____________ is a document that formally recognizes the existence of a project and provides direction on the project's objectives and management. a. project contract b. project charter c. project management plan d. business case

C

QN=7 Parametric cost estimating involves: a. Calculating individual cost estimates for each work package. b. Using the actual cost of a similar project to estimate total project costs. c. Using rates and factors based on historical experience to estimate costs. d. Calculating individual cost estimates for biggest or smallest work package.

C

QN=7 The amount of authority a project manager possesses can be related to ______________ a. Key stakeholder's influence on the project b. The project manager's communication skills c. The organization structure d. The amount of authority the manager of the project manager possesses

C

QN=7 What is the process of gradual, step-wise reduction to details of the project products and the characteristics of new services called? a. Structurize b. Coordination between items c. Progressive elaboration d. Temporary

C

QN=8 (8124) Scope definition is important to the success of the project EXCEPT: a. Subdividing the project into smaller components improves the accuracy of cost, time and resource estimates. b. When there is poor scope definition, final project costs can be expected to be higher because of the inevitable changes. c. It serves as the basis for future project decisions. d. It defines a baseline for performance measurement and control.

C

QN=8 According to textbook, every project is constrained in different ways by its scope,...., and cost goals a. Quality b. Customer's satisfaction c. Time d. Sponsor's satisfaction

C

QN=8 Which of the following is not a primary input of activity duration estimation process? a. The activity list b. Activity attributes c. WBS Dictionary d. Activity resource requirements

C

QN=9 What technique can you use to resolve resource conflicts by delaying tasks? a. resource loading b. critical path analysis c. resource leveling d. Over allocation

C

QN=9 When using the ________, the project manager deemphasizes or avoids areas of differences and emphasizes areas of agreement. a. confrontation mode b. compromise mode c. smoothing mode d. collaborating mode

C

QN=9 Which is not a task that is taken in pre-initiation phase? a. Select the project manager b. Identify the project sponsor c. Develop project charter d. Develop a business case

C

QN=7 A risk ________ is a document that contains results of various risk management processes, often displayed in a table or spreadsheet format. a. management plan b. breakdown structure c. register d. probability-impact matrix

c

QN=11 (8140) All of the following are outputs of the close project process EXCEPT: a. Formal acceptance documentation b. Contract closure procedure c. Administrative closure procedure d. Final product, service or result e. Deliverables

E

QN=11 Report performance belongs to the ________ PM Process Group. a. Initiating b. Planning c. Closing d. Executing e. Monitoring and Controlling

E

QN=13 (8101) Control project schedule belongs to the ________ PM Process Group. a. Initiating b. Planning c. Closing d. Executing e. Monitoring and Controlling

E

QN=13 Control project schedule belongs to the ________ PM Process Group. a. Initiating b. Planning c. Closing d. Executing e. Monitoring and Controlling

E

QN=13 Which of the following items is not a primary input for Scope Verification process? a. PM Plan b. Requirements document c. Validated deliverables d. Requirement traceability matrix e. Project reports

E