Test 3 - Pharma Week 8

Pataasin ang iyong marka sa homework at exams ngayon gamit ang Quizwiz!

a nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for beclomethasone by inhaler. which of the following instructions should the nurse include? a. "rinse your mouth after each use of the medication" b. "limit fluid intake while taking this medication" c. "increase your vitamin intake of vitamin b12 while taking this medication" d. "you can take the medication as needed"

a. "rinse your mouth after each use of the medication" the client should since their mouth after each use to reduce the risk of ORAL INFECTION (secondary infection risk!!!)

What is a common but serious adverse effect of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)? a. Increased upper GI bleeding b. Excessive drowsiness c. Antipyretic action d. Diarrhea

a. Increased upper GI bleeding Rationale: About 7% to 8% of patients experience GI bleeding after using NSAIDs, and it is a primary cause of hospitalizations caused by adverse effects of medicines. NSAIDs have also been associated with allergic reactions, including severe skin reactions and anaphylaxis, some of which occurred in patients without known prior exposure.

After receiving a dose of morphine for postoperative pain, a patient becomes unresponsive, with a respiratory rate of 10/min, with shallow breathing. The nurse should anticipate administering which medication? a. Naloxone b. Nalbuphine c. Meperidine d. Pentazocine

a. Naloxone Rationale: Naloxone is an opiate antagonist. The other medications are opiate agonists and opiate partial agonists.

Which drug class will most likely help a patient reporting insomnia as a result of a persistent cough? a. antitussive b. decongestant c. antihistamine d. bronchodilator

a. antitussive An antitussive is a drug that suppresses cough

Which anticholinergic effect can occur when a patient is prescribed promethazine hydrochloride (Phenergan)? a. blurred vision b. paresthesia c. diarrhea d. increased salivation

a. blurred vision The symptoms of blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and dryness of mouth, throat, and nasal mucosa are all anticholinergic effects produced by the antihistamine promethazine hydrochloride. Paresthesias is not an anticholinergic effect.

Which adverse effect does the nurse instruct the patient to report to the healthcare provider immediately when taking cromolyn sodium (Nasalcrom) for prophylactic management of asthma? a. coughing b. green yellow visuals halos c. constipation d. urinary retention

a. coughing the patient should be instructed to notify the healthcare provider if bronchospasm or coughing occurs.

A patient is being treated with an intranasal corticosteroid. Which severe adverse effect does the nurse teach the patient about? a. Nasal irritation b. Sneezing c. bronchospasm d. Nasal stuffiness

c. bronchospasm Rationale: Significant coughing or associated bronchospasm when taking intranasal corticosteroids must be reported to the healthcare provider, and the drug should be discontinued. The other symptoms are common and would not require discontinuing therapy.

Which assessment would be expected in a patient receiving high dosages of morphine? a. increased bowel sounds b. urinary urgency c. constricted pupils d. hypertenstion

c. constricted pupils High doses of opioids cause pupil constriction. Opioids decrease peristalsis and thus decrease bowel sounds. The nurse would expect to find low blood pressure in this patient. Opioids cause urinary retention, not urinary frequency or urgency.

Which condition listed in a patient's history would cause the nurse to question an order for diphenhydramine hydrochloride (Benadryl) for a dermatologic reaction? a. osteoarthritis b. crohn's disease c. meniere's syndrome d. glaucoma

d. galucoma diphenhydramine hydrochloride has anticholinergic ADR. this could increase IOP on a glaucoma patient, leading to more discomfort.

Which instruction does the nurse give to a patient who is prescribed both tiotropium bromide (Spiriva) and fluticasone-salmeterol (Advair Diskus)? a. either medication may be used first b. take the advair, wait several minutes, then use the spiriva c. first, use the advair and follow immediately with the spiriva d. use the spiriva, wait several minutes, and then use the advair

d. use the spiriva, wait several minutes, and then use the advair The bronchodilator (Spiriva) is used first to open the airways so that the steroid (Advair) can penetrate deeply into the bronchial tree. Several minutes are allowed to elapse to provide time for the smooth muscles of the bronchial tree to relax and allow the air passages to dilate. The steroid is then used.

Which information does the nurse include when teaching a patient with asthma how to administer cromolyn sodium (Nasalcrom)? (Select all that apply.) a. full therapeutic benefits occur in 5-7 days b. avoid clearing nasal passages before administering c. exhale through the nose during administration d. discontinue use of nasal itching occurs e. continue therapy even if symptom free f. a maximum of 6 sprays in each nostril may be used daily

e, f Therapy must be continued even if symptom free. Therapeutic effects of cromolyn sodium are not immediate. A maximum of 6 sprays in each nostril may be used daily.. therapeutic effects are seen 2-4 weeks. nasal itching is normal, is subsides with continued use

Which classification does not describe a property of salicylates? a. Analgesic b. Antipyretic c. Antiplatelet d. Sedative e. Antiinflammatory

e. Anti Inflammatory Rationale: A major benefit of salicylates is that they do not impair memory or consciousness. Salicylates are common and effective medications to take for pain and fever, to reduce blood clotting, to prevent strokes and heart attacks, and to reduce inflammation. They reduce platelet adhesion, inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, and inhibit the release of prostaglandins in the brain to reduce temperature.

which of the following information indicated that. a client who is taking theophylline needs further instruction? A. the client drives a school bus every day B. the client drinks 8oz of wine with dinner C. the client exercises 1 hour each day D. the client who drinks two cups of coffee each morning

D the client who drinks two cups of coffee each morning caffeine may increase CNS stimulation, causing nervousness, insomnia, and tremors. it may also increase cardiac stimulation and cause tachycardia.

The nurse is educating a postoperative patient about the use of a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I'm afraid I'll give myself too much medicine and become addicted to it." b. "I can only receive the medication every 10 minutes." c. "I'll let the nurse know if my pain doesn't improve." d. "I'll be sure to push the button to give myself pain medicine before I get up into a chair."

a. "I'm afraid I'll give myself too much medicine and become addicted to it." PCA delivery is a safe, effective means of pain management that gives control to the patient who is experiencing the pain and eliminates the wait for individual analgesic doses.

a nurse is reinforcing instructions to a client who has a new prescription for albuterol and beclomethasone inhalers for the control asthma. which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? a. take the albuterol at the same time each day b. Administer the albuterol inhaler prior to using the beclomethasone inhaler c. use beclomethasone if experiencing an acute episode d. avoid shaking the beclomethasone before use

b. administer the albuterol inhaler prior to using the beclomethasone inhaler when a client is rx inhaled beta2 agonist (albuterol) and an inhaled glucocorticoid (beclomethasone), the client should take the beta2 agonist first. the beta2 agonist promotes bronchodilation (OPENING OF OUR AIRWAYS) and enhanced the absorption of the glucocorticoid.

a nurse is reinforcing teaching a child's family to have cystic fibrosis and a new prescription for acetylcysteine. which of the following information should the nurse include in the instructions? a. expect this medication to suppress your child's cough b. expect this medication to smell like rotten eggs c. expect this medication to cause euphoria d. Expect this medication to turn your child's urine orange

b. expect this medication to smell like rotten eggs acetylcysteine has a sulfur contact that causes a rotten-egg odor

a nurse is discussing the use of fluticasone with a. client to treat perennial rhinitis. which of the following statements by the client indicated an understanding of the information? a. I should use the spray every 4 hours while I am awake b. it can take as long as 3 weeks before the medication takes a maximum effect c. this medication can also be used to treat motion sickness d. I can use this medication when my nasal passages are blocked

b. it can take as long as 3 weeks before the medication takes a maximum effect the client can see some benefits of the medication with a few hours, but the maximum benefits can take up to 3 weeks.

a nurse is caring for a client who has been taking phenylephrine nasal drops for the past 10 days for sinusitis. the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations as an adverse effect of this medication? a. sedation b. nasal congestion c. productive cough d. constipation

b. nasal congestion when used for over 5 days, rebound nasal congestion can occur when taking nasal sympathomimetic medications such as phenylephrine

Which adult patient should the nurse hold an order for an opioid agonist? a. patient who is experiencing constipation from opiod use b. patient whose RR is 10 c. patient whos P is 75 d. patient who continually reports pain although there are no physical symptoms

b. patient whose RR is 10 A respiratory rate of 10 may indicate respiratory depression; the opioid agonist should be held and the prescriber notified. Pain is a very subjective symptom. If a patient is reporting the need for pain medication, the medication should not be held.

which information does the nurse include for a patient taking tramadol (Ultram)? a. take tramadol as often as needed for pain relief b. Tramadol may cause constipation, so be sure to include sufficient roughage in your diet c. have your liver enzymes monitored until you complete the medication d. Continue to take tramadol even if you are not expecting pain or discomfort.

b. tramadol may cause constipation, so be sure to include sufficient roughage in your diet tramadol may cause constipation and the pt should be taught what can be done to prevent it.

a nurse is reinforcing instructions to a client who has a new prescription for albuterol (beta2 agonist), PO. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? a. you can take this medication to abort an acute asthma attack b. tremors are an adverse effect of this medication c. prolonged use of this medication can cause hyperglycemia d. this medication can slow skeletal growth rate

b. tremors are an adverse effect of this medication tremors can occur due to the excessive stimulation of beta2 receptors of the skeletal muscle

which property of aspirin does acetaminophen (Tylenol) lack? a. analgesic b. antinausea c. anti-inflammatory d. antipyretic

c. anti-inflammatory aspirin has anti-inflammatory properties, whereace acetaminophen does not.

Which response by the nurse is best when a patient undergoing withdrawal from an opiate agonist asks the nurse how long the withdrawal symptoms will last? A. Symptoms can last for as long as 6 weeks, depending on how long the opiate was used. B. It is impossible to say because there is so much individual variation. C. Symptoms last 3 weeks, depending on the amount of drug used before withdrawal. D. Symptoms peak in about 2 days and then disappear by the end of a week.

D. Symptoms peak in about 2 days and then disappear by the end of a week. symptoms associated w/ withdrawal from an opiate agonist peak in 36-72 hrs and then gradually abate over the next 5-14 days

a nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for diphenhydramine for allergic rhinitis. the nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following manifestations as an adverse effect of this medication? SATA a. dry mouth b. nonproductive cough c. skin rash d. drowsiness e. urinary hesitation

a. dry mouth is an anticholinergic manifestation that can occur when a client takes diphenhydramine d. drowsiness is an adverse reaction of this medication. diphenhydramine is administers to treat insomnia e. urinary hesitation (retention) is an anticholinergic manifestation that occur when a client takes diphenhydramine

Which medication does the nurse anticipate will be ordered by the physician to treat the patient that has overdosed on morphine? a. naloxone (narcan) b. propranol (inderal) c. flumazenil (romazicon) d. atropine

a. naloxone (narcan) Naloxone is a pure opiate antagonist that will reverse central nervous system depression associated with opiate agonists, such as morphine. Atropine is indicated for the treatment of bradycardia. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and is used to treat benzodiazepine overdose. Propranolol is an adrenergic beta blocker used in the treatment of amphetamine toxicity to treat symptoms of tachycardia and elevated blood pressure.

which patient best illustrate the ceiling effect? a. patient who receives an increasing dosage of medication and does not receive increased pain relief, but does not experience an increased incident of adverse effects b. patient who cannot function properly without taking an opiate, even though he or she is not experiencing pain c. patient who requires a higher dose of medication to receive pain relief d. patient who experiences lacrimation, runny nose, and perspiration

a. patient who receives an increasing dosage of medication and does not receive increased pain relief, but does not experience an increased incident of adverse effects patient who does not receive higher analgesic effects from higher doses of medication is experiencing the ceiling effect

Which primary reason is correct for instructing patients to avoid overuse of nasal decongestant sprays? a. rebound swelling of the nasal passages can occur b. cracking and bleeding of the mucous membranes can occur c. systemic absorption can precipitate hypertensive crisis d. superinfection caused by normal flora can develop

a. rebound swelling of the nasal passages can occur Rebound swelling of the nasal passages occurs when nasal decongestant sprays are overused. Although symptom relief occurs initially, later it is followed by a return of nasal stuffiness and other symptoms. drying of mucous membrane is unusal, but not getting a superinfection

a nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a prescription. for long-term use of oral prednisone for treatment of chronic asthma. the nurse should instruct the client to monitor which of the following manifestations is an adverse effect of this medication? a. weight gain b. nervousness c. bradycardia d. constipation

a. weight gain weight gain and fluid retention are adverse effects of oral prednisone due to the effect of sodium (Na+) and water retention

Which action does the nurse implement next when a patient who has received an initial dose of an opiate partial agonist reports feeling clammy, dizzy, and nauseated? a. administer an antiemetic b. obtains an order for an antidote c. assists the patient to rest in a supine position d. gives glasses of orange juice or other glucose source

c. assists the patient to rest in a supine position Clamminess, dizziness, and nausea, as well as vomiting, dry mouth, and sweating, are expected adverse effects of partial opiate agonists. They are most likely to occur with the first dose and can be reduced by keeping the patient supine.

Which information does the nurse include in the teaching plan for a patient starting on antihistamine therapy for seasonal allergies? a. "Do not expect relief from allergy symptoms until the medication has been taken for at least 3 days." b. "Take medication 45 to 60 minutes before going outdoors during pollen season." c. "Drink at least six 8-ounce glasses of fluid daily to compensate for the drying effects of the antihistamine." d. "If drowsiness occurs, contact the prescriber for a change in drug because tolerance to antihistamines does not develop."

b. "Take medication 45 to 60 minutes before going outdoors during pollen season." antihistamines are more effects when taken at least 1hr before going outside, and relief of symptoms can be immediate.

Which time period identifies ow long it takes for a patient to achieve the maximal effect of intranasal corticosteroids after beginning therapy? a. 5 days b. 2 weeks c. immediately d. 1-3 days

b. 2 weeks expected range will be 2 weeks for therapeutic effects to be seen. patient should not discontinue prior.

Which patient must be observed closely when taking acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)? a. A 50-year-old with narrow angle glaucoma b. A 30-year-old with quadriplegia c. A 60-year-old with a gastric ulcer d. A 40-year-old with hypothyroidism

b. A 30-year-old with quadriplegia A quadriplegic patient may have difficulty clearing the increased secretions caused by this medication. Mechanical suctioning may be necessary to maintain airway patency

A patient reports a harsh, nonproductive cough and muscle aches that have lasted for 5 days. There is no sore throat, temperature elevation, or swollen lymph nodes, but the patient is coughing so much that sleeping at night is difficult. Which type of medication will likely be prescribed for this patient? a. Decongestant b. Antitussive c. Antibiotic d. Expectorant

b. Antitussive Rationale: An antitussive is a cough suppressant used to quiet a cough by acting on the cough center of the brain. It is used when the patient has a dry, hacking, nonproductive cough. Antitussives will not stop the cough completely but should decrease the frequency and suppress the severe spasms that prevent adequate rest at night.

A patient is experiencing a severe headache and pressure over the eyes. The patient feels congested but has no temperature elevation, and there is a history of sinus infection. Which agent does the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider might order? a. Expectorant b. Decongestant c. Antitussive d. Antibiotic

b. Decongestant Rationale: The headache and pressure could likely be due to congestion. A decongestant could reduce the swelling and resulting symptoms. The patient's normal temperature would rule out infection, and no cough is present.

Which antitussive has a combination of antihistamine and antitussive properties? a. Dextromethorphan (Robitussin) b. Diphenhydramine (Diphen) c. Guaifenesin (Robitussin) d. codeine

b. Diphenhydramine (Diphen) Diphenhydramine combines antihistamine and antitussive properties that will decrease the frequency of a cough. Guaifenesin is an expectorant and will increase the productivity of a cough.

A patient presents with a runny nose, sneezing, congested throat, chills, and fever. What chemical in the body is responsible for these symptoms? a. Antibodies b. Histamine c. Potassium d. Acetylcholine

b. Histamine Rationale: Histamine is a chemical present in granules in body tissues. When an allergen invades the body, it triggers the release of histamine that dilates capillaries, increases blood flow to the area, and allows fluid to accumulate and leak out of cell membranes. It is actually protective in nature and tries to wash out the offending allergen.

Which antibody level must be evaluated before beginning omalizumab (Xolair)? a. IgM b. IgE c. IgG d. IgA

b. IgE Levels of IgE should be measured before the administration of omalizumab because this helps determine the dosage to be given.

Which beta-adrenergic agonist is used for the treatment of emphysema? a. Cromolyn sodium (Intal) b. Olodaterol (Striverdi Respimat) c. Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) d. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

b. Olodaterol (Striverdi Respimat) Olodaterol (Striverdi Respimat) is a beta-adrenergic bronchodilating agent used to reverse airway constriction caused by bronchitis and asthma

Which common adverse effect may be seen with use of opiate agonists? a. Appetite stimulation b. Orthostatic hypotension c. Mood elevation d. Increased respirations

b. Orthostatic hypotension Rationale: Blood pressure is likely to be affected with the use of opiate agonists. Sedation, confusion, nausea and vomiting, and constipation may also occur. Respirations can be decreased by opiates, and an antagonistic drug such as naloxone (Narcan) should be available.

Which patient illustrates a physical dependence to an opioid agonist? a. Patient who seeks other avenues for pain relief besides the prescribed medication b. Patient who experiences abstinence syndrome when the drug is abruptly discontinued c. Patient who maintains adequate pain relief within the prescribed range of therapy d. Patient who requires increasing doses to receive the same amount of pain relief

b. Patient who experiences abstinence syndrome when the drug is abruptly discontinued When patients are physically dependent on opioid agonists, they will experience lacrimation, runny nose, mydriasis, restlessness, and perspiration. Requiring increasing doses to receive the same benefit illustrates drug tolerance, not physical dependence.

which of the following information should the nurse include when teaching a client about the use of an albuterol inhaler for asthma management? a. use it every 12 hours b. use it periodically to prevent exercise-induces asthma c. store the dry canister in the refrigerator d. watch for an oral yeast infection

b. use it periodically to prevent exercise-induces asthma albuterol is a short-acting beta2 agonist that clients should only use as needed to stop an acute asthma exacerbation or 30 minutes before exercising to precent exercise-induced bronchospasm. NEVER REFRIGERATE ALBUTEROL. Salmeterol is an example of a drug a client takes every 12 hours for LONG-TERM asthma management. inhaled glucocorticoids cause oral yeast infection... not beta2 agonist

Which statement by the patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease indicates a need for further instruction about the drug ipratropium (Atrovent)? a. "My throat may get irritated when I first use ipratropium, but it should go away as I get used to the drug." b. "I can use the inhaler with this medicine no more than 12 times in a day." c. "If I suddenly have difficulty getting my breath I will use this medicine immediately." d. "I shall expect some improvement in my breathing in just a few minutes after I inhale this drug."

c. "If I suddenly have difficulty getting my breath I will use this medicine immediately." Ipratropium exerts an initial bronchodilator effect in just a few minutes after inhaling it, but the maximal effect does not occur for 1 to 2 hours. Therefore, it is not well suited to treat acute episodes of breathing difficulty; rather, it is best used for prophylaxis.

A person who has smoked 1½ packs of cigarettes for 30 years has a pack-year history of how many years? a. 20 b. 30 c. 45 d. 55

c. 45 Rationale: The amount of time a person has spent smoking is usually recorded in pack-years. The number of years of smoking is multiplied by the number of packs of cigarettes smoked per day.

Which medication does the nurse anticipate the physician to order to treat a patient admitted to the emergency department after overdosing on acetaminophen (Tylenol)? a. Flumazenil (Romazicon) b. Naloxone (Narcan) c. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) d. atropine

c. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

What is the action of antihistamines? a. Block production of histamine b. Create drowsiness to mask symptoms c. Occupy the receptor sites for histamine d. Prevent nasal congestion

c. Occupy the receptor sites for histamine Rationale: Antihistamines do not affect the production of histamine. They work to occupy the receptor sites for histamine and block them, preventing histamine from creating symptoms. Adequate amounts of fluid must be maintained. They do not prevent nasal congestion, so a decongestant may still be necessary. The drowsiness that is produced is a common adverse effect.

Human lungs contain millions of alveolar sacs surrounded by capillaries. If these were spread out on a flat surface, what would the size of that surface compare to? a. Bowling lane b. Softball field c. Tennis court d. Football field

c. Tennis court Rationale: Human lungs contain 300 to 500 million alveolar sacs for gas exchange and have a surface area approximately equal to that of a tennis court.

Which information must the nurse consider when evaluating the effectiveness of cromolyn sodium (Intal) therapy? a. Temporary improvement followed by exacerbation is a common occurrence. b. Therapy is stopped as soon as the patient is symptom free. c. The desired outcome of therapy is decreased frequency of allergic rhinitis and asthma attacks. d. A 5- to 6-week course of therapy is usually required to judge therapeutic response.

c. The desired outcome of therapy is decreased frequency of allergic rhinitis and asthma attacks. The desired therapeutic outcome of cromolyn sodium therapy is decreased frequency of attacks of allergic rhinitis and asthma.

The healthcare provider has ordered the use of an inhaler for an 8-year-old patient newly diagnosed with asthma. To use the inhaler correctly, what does the nurse instruct the patient to do? a. Exhale slowly while pressing the release button of the inhaler. b. Use the inhaler whenever the patient feels the airway tighten. c. Use a spacer between the inhaler and lips to control the medication. d. When taking two puffs of medication, take the second immediately after the first.

c. Use a spacer between the inhaler and lips to control the medication. Rationale: A spacer is helpful with older or younger patients with questionable coordination to help contain the medication and allow it to be inhaled into the lungs. It is important to first exhale, then inhale slowly as the inhaler button is pushed. When taking multiple puffs, the patient should wait at least 10 seconds before the next puff. The patient must be taught the correct frequency of drug use and not to overuse the drug.

Which medication does the nurse hold if a patient's vital signs are blood pressure 144/90 mm Hg, pulse 60, and respirations 10? a. Furosemide (Lasix) b. Irbesartan (Avapro) c. Morphine d. Digoxin (Lanoxin)

c. morphine Morphine makes the respiratory centers less sensitive to carbon dioxide, causing respiratory depression. Thus, morphine, or any opiate agonist, should not be administered if respirations are less than 12/min until the prescriber has been consulted. Digoxin affects heart rate and generally is held if the pulse is less than 60. Furosemide is a loop diuretic and would be held if hypovolemia or related electrolyte imbalance existed. Irbesartan lowers blood pressure and would be held if blood pressure dropped to a clinically significant low level.

When a person uses a topical decongestant frequently, then stops taking the drug and notices even more congestion occurring, what is this phenomenon called? a. Allergy b. Idiosyncrasy c. Rebound effect d. Extrapyramidal reaction

c. rebound effect Rationale: Overuse of topical decongestants may lead to a rebound of nasal secretions known as rhinitis medicamentosa. It's important for patients to understand medication instructions and not self-medicate beyond what was ordered.

a nurse is reviewing information with a client who has a new prescription for dextromethorphan to suppress a cough. the nurse should instruct the client to monitor which of the following manifestations is an adverse effect of this medication? a. diarrhea b. anxiety c. sedation d. palpitations

c. sedation dextromethorphan can cause sedation. advice the client to avoid activities that require alertness.

which explanation should the nurse provide when instructing a patient chronically taking opiods on how to discontinue the medication? a. simply stop taking the medication when ready b. taper the medication slowly over 3 to 4 weeks c. taper the medication slowly over 7 to 10days d.

c. taper the medication slowly over 7 to 10days when discontinuing an opiod that has been taken chronically for several months, it should be tapered off to decrease the incidence of withdrawal symptoms. abrupt discontinuation of opioids will cause the patient to experience withdrawal symptoms

Which patient must avoid taking alpha-adrenergic decongestants? a. 25-yr old with COPD b. 30-yr old w gout c. 60-yr old w renal failure d. 45-yr old with hyperthyroidism

d. 45-yr old with hyperthyroidism administering this medication in a patient with hyperthyroidism can lead to a thyroid storm (tachycardia, dysrhythmias can occur!!)

A patient has a history of emphysema and has been coughing for a prolonged period after waking in the morning. The patient is having difficulty clearing the thickened mucus from the lungs. Which type of medication does the nurse anticipate will be ordered for this patient? a. Diuretic b. Antibiotic c. Antitussive d. Mucolytic

d. Mucolytic Rationale: A mucolytic drug will cause the mucus in the patient's lungs to separate and liquefy, thereby reducing viscosity. This allows for easier removal of secretions by coughing, percussion, and postural drainage. An antitussive would only retain secretions and increase the risk of a respiratory infection. There is no clear indication for the use of antibiotics in this patient.


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