test study

A patient with pancreatitis would most likely present with pain that: A. radiates from the flank to the groin and external genitalia B. is localized to the epigastric area and may radiate to the back C. originates in the right or left flank and radiates to the chest D. improves when the patient is supine with the legs extended

B 1424

A patient who is reporting extreme discomfort tells you that they are unable to empty their bladder. You recognize that urinary retention is commonly caused by which of the following conditions? A. end stage renal disease B. kidney stones C. chronic kidney disease D. pyelonephritis

B 1455

More than half of all cases of chronic kidney disease are caused by: A. frequent lower urinary tract infections B. systemic diseases such as diabetes C. nephron destruction due to medications D. nephron deterioration due to aging

B 1459

A ruptured ovarian cyst typically presents with: A. a sudden onset of upper abdominal pain and nausea without vomiting B. a sudden onset of abdominal pain that can be related to the menstrual cycle C. chronic waxing and waning abdominal cramping between menstrual periods D. dull or aching epigastric pain that radiates to the shoulders or lower back

B 1481

Most patients with an ectopic pregnancy will report which of the following symptoms? A. shoulder pain B. abdominal pain C. foul smelling vaginal discharge D. feeling of pelvic heaviness or fullness

B 1484

The three most significant indicators of anaphylactic shock are A. hives, chest tightness, and restlessness B. dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia C. pruritus, peripheral swelling and urticaria D. dizziness, flushed skin and abdominal pain

B 1573

Which of the following diseases is bacterial in nature, has an insidious onset and is characterized by a cough that progresses to coughing spasms? A. Tetanus B. Pertussis C. Diphtheria D. Bronchitis

B 1607

If you have a long message to transmit, you should break the message into segments of which length? A. 10 seconds B. 30 seconds C. 6 seconds D. 20 seconds

B 179

During an explosion, secondary blast injuries occur when: A. the patient sustains severe burns from the intense heat B. the patient is struck by flying debris, such as shrapnel C. hollow organs rupture due to the pressure wave D. the patient is thrown against a stationary object

B 1796

The "platinum 10 minutes' refers to: A. amount of time before decompensated shock occurs B. maximum time spent at a scene for a trauma patient C. amount of time taken to perform a rapid assessment D. maximum amount of time to extricate a patient

B 1801

Most external hemorrhage can be controlled with a combination of: A. Elevation and immobilization B. direct pressure and pressure dressings C. pressure dressings and ice D. pressure point control and elevation

B 1829

In patients with chronic kidney disease, it is most important that you frequently assess which of the following? A. mental status B. oxygen saturation C. urinary output D. pain level

A

A patient is found in the decerebrate posturing position. Which score would you assign for motor activity using the GCS? A. 2 B. 4 C. 1 D. 3

A 1305

If water is not reabsorbed in the colon: A) diarrhea occurs. B) constipation occurs. C) the appendix may rupture. D) waste material is solidified.

A 1401

Which of the following is a possible assessment finding associated with a ruptured ovarian cyst? A. severe lower abdominal discomfort B. increased urinary frequency C. vomitting D. fever and chills

A 1481

The National Emergecny MEdical Services Information System (NEMSIS) A. defines the minimum data that must be collected on each call B. collects relevant data from each state and uses it for research C. defines the scope of practice for all levels of EMS provider D. is a nationwide billing system that any EMS provider can use

B 209

An undesirable clinical change caused by a medication that causes some degree of harm or discomfort to the patient is called an A. idiosyncrasy B. adverse effect C. side effect D. placebo effect

B 731

Which of the following is a contraindication to IO infusion? A. renal failure B. osteoporosis C. hypertension D. heart failure

B 834

Which of the following drugs would most likely be the safest to use for a patient with aggressive and dangerous behavior secondary to methamphetamine use? A. Haldol B. Ziprasidone C. Droperidol D. Ativan

D 1738

A patient with which of the following conditions would most likely present with an acute onset of agitation, aggressiveness, tolerance to significant pain, bizarre behaviors, and profuse sweating? A. Bipolar disorder B. Generalized anxiety disorder C. Dementia D. Excited delirium

D 1743

Repeating the key parts of a patients responses to your questions demonstrates: A. sympathy B. an exchange of information C. passive communication D. active listening

D 185

What can you do to help protect patient information written in PCRs? A. shred the paper PCR after the patient is admitted to the receiving facility B. Leave paper PCRs on counters within the medical facility C. stay logged into the computer system you are using to create your ePCR after completing it D. place completed paper PCRs in a lockbox

D 207

Medical control requests you to administer 50 micrograms of a drug. You should recognize that this is equivalent to: A. 0.005 mg B. 0.5 mg C. 500 mg D. 0.05 mg

D 250

The paramedic should spread their legs how many inches apart when lifting? A. between 6 and 12 inches B. no more than 6 inches C. at least 20 inches D. about 15 inches

D 54

By definition, infancy begins at: A. 18 months of age B. birth C. 12 months of age D. 1 month of age

D 556

Compared to Schedule III drugs, Schedule IV drugs: A) include medications such as Vicodin and have a high potential for psychological dependence. B) have a moderate potential for physical dependence and include cough syrups that contain codeine. C) may lead to severe addiction and include short-acting barbiturates, amphetamines, and opiates. D) have a lower abuse potential and include medications such as diazepam (Valium) and lorazepam (Ativan).

D 728

IO infusion is a technique of administering IV fluids and medications into: A. a large vein that lies deep within the neck B. the diaphysis of the femur or humerus C. the epiphysis of the proximal tibia D. the IO space of a long bone

D 827

Which medication causes smooth muscle relaxation and is used to treat severe asthma? A. IV magnesium sulfate B. nitroglycerin C. leukotriene blockers D. morphine sulfate

A 1123

In a patient with chronic kidney disease, you would likely find that their skin is: A. jaundiced B. cool and dry C. cyanotic D. flushed

A 1459

Which of the following statements regarding ectopic pregnancy is correct? A. in an ectopic pregnancy a fertilized egg implants somewhere other than the uterus B. most ectopic pregnancies present with symptoms during the second trimester C. the abdominal cavity is the most common implantation site of an ectopic pregnancy D. use of an intrauterine device is the most common cause of an ectopic pregnancy

A 1484

Emergency medical dispatchers could provide which of the following instructions to a caller? A. How to control life threatening bleeding B. How to obtain a blood pressure by palpation C. How to administer prescribed antihypertensive D. How to properly use a bag mask device

A 15-16

The most common cause of addisonian crisis is A. abrupt termination of corticosteroid use B. acute failure of one or both of the adrenal glands C. a severe acute infectious process D. overwhelming stress

A 1522

A patient with multiple bruises should be questioned about the potential for: A. bleeding disorders B. heavy menstrual bleeding C. narcotic abuse D. gastrointestinal issues

A 1542

How close should you keep your mouth to the microphone to improve the quality of your radio communications? A. 2 to 3 inches B. less than 1 inch C. 1 to 2 inches D. 4 to 5 inches

A 177

Which of the following factors influences the severity of a stab wound? A. the anatomic area involved B. the position of the victim C. the size of the victim D. the size of the attacker

A 1791

The most critical factor determining the seriousness of a gunshot wound is: A. the type of tissue through which the projectile passes B. the presence of an exit wound C. the presence of temporary cavitation D. the type of firearm involved

A 1793

Decompensated shock in the adult is characterized by: A. falling blood pressure B. increasing tidal volume C. bounding radial pulses D. 15% blood loss or more

A 1828

A specific action intended to improve health and safety outcomes is called A. a financial penalty B. an engineering control C. an intervention D. education

C

Promethazine hydrochloride should be administered via which route? A. nasal B. otic C. intramuscular D. oral

C

The decline in cardiac function associated with aging is largely related to: A. bradycardia B. rheumatic heart disease C. atherosclerosis D. hypotension

C

When transmitting information via radio, you should: A. keep your mouth 1 inch from the microphone B. break long messages into 60 second segments C. use a normal conversational tone of voice D. speak with your voice slightly elevated

C

Which abbreviation would be used to indicate that a medication was given intramuscularly? A. IN B. IT C. IM D. IMC

C

The most immediate and significant complication associated with a hemorrhagic stroke is A. acute hypovolemic shock B. mean arterial pressure increase C. increased intracranial pressure D. hypertension and bradycardia

C 1319

A positive Cullen sign in a patient indicates which of the following? A. orthostatic changes B. infection C. Internal bleeding D. abuse

C 1478

When performing a field glucose test, what should you do first? A) allow the patients arm to hang briefly to allow blood to flow to the fingertips B) clean the site to be punctured with alcohol C) verify that the device is calibrated appropriately D) grasp the finger near the area to be pricked

C 1511

Because sickle cells have a much shorter life span than normal RBCs the patient is more susceptible to developing which of the following conditions? A. lymphoma B. leukemia C. anemia D. thalassemia

C 1544

A patient who has thrombocytopenia may also present with: A. dyspnea B. infection C. cutaneous bleeding D. lethargy

C 1547

Cardiovascular effects of anaphylaxis include: A. peripheral vasoconstriction and cool skin B. diaphoresis, bradycardia and edema C. tachycardia, flushed skin and hypotension D. an irregular pulse, pallor and pruritis

C 1573

The alpha adrenergic effects of epinephrine produce A. bronchodilation B. decreased chronotropy C. vasoconstriction D. increased inotropy

C 1575

To avoid exsanguination from severe hemorrhaging of an extremity injury below the axilla or groin, a tourniquet should be applied in less than: A. 40 seconds B. 10 seconds C. 20 seconds D. 30 seconds

C 1835

Which of the following is a significant benefit of electronic documentation? A. The elimination of the need to complete a narrative section B. the use of drop down boxes which minimizes the possibility for errors C. The ability of the data to be shared between health care facilities D. the ease with which it can be applied during mass casualty incidents

C 209

A paramedic is considered a health care professional, and as such should: A. obtain more than the required amount of continuing education B. maintain higher standards than other health care professionals C. meet societal expectations whether on or off duty D. demand respect from others who are in the EMS profession

C 21

Why is it important for electronic documentation systems to be NEMSIS compliant? A. it allows for more accurate and legible reports B. it reduces the chance of double documentation C. It ensures that data can be shared on a national level D. it is necessary for legal reasons

C 210

More often than not, the paramedic will form a general impression of a patient based on: A. a rapid, systematic head to toe assessment B. baseline vital signs and sample history C. the initial presentation and chief complaint D. conditions found in the primary assessment

C 586

Which route of medication administration refers to any route in which medication is absorbed through some portion of the GI tract? A. rectal B. gastric tube C. enteral D. oral

C 836

A patient with meningitis would typically present with which of the following symptoms? A. dyspnea B. tachycardia C. hemiparesis D. acute fever

D

When communicating medical information via radio, you should be: A. thorough yet rapid B. comprehensive but brief C. as expeditious as possible D. simple, brief and direct

D

When ventilating a patient with a BVM you note increased compliance. This means that: A. the patient likely has an upper airway obstruction B. a lower airway obstruction should be suspected C. you are meeting resistance when ventilating D. air can be forced into the lungs with relative ease

D

Which of the following is an example of a passive intervention? A. teaching parents how to properly install a car seat B. instructing a child to wear their helmet when riding their bike C. Helping a family install a carbon monoxide monitor D. Developing child-resistant medication bottles

D

Blood tinged sputum can be caused by: A. bronchitis B. antihistamine use C. dehydration D. heart failure

D 1100

Compared to adults, children have: A. larger muscle mass B. thinner skin C. a proportionately smaller head D. a larger airway

B

A patient who presents with petechiae is most likely A. leukopenic B. thrombocytopenic C. polycythemic D. anemic

B 1547

Which of the following is a side effect of MAOI antidepressants? A. Suicidal behavior B. Orthostatic hypotension C. Acute bradycardia D. Hypersomnia

B 1756

Which of the following injury mechanisms would most likely result in blunt trauma? A. small caliber gunshot wound B. The pressure wave caused by a blast C. Falling from a tree onto a fence D. Explosion involving shards of glass

B 1777

Which word root represents the color blue? A. Chlor B. Cyan C. Erythr D. Albin

B 235

When administering dextrose to children younger than 8 years, the dextrose concentration should be less than A. 12.5% B. 10% C. 15% D. 25%

D 908

Upon assessing a patient, you notice that they open their eyes spontaneously and follow commands. When speaking with the patient, you note that they are disoriented. What GCS score should you assign? A. 14 B. 10 C. 12 D. 15

A

You should suspect which of the following conditions if the patient has muscle weakness and tall, peaked T waves on the ECG? A. hyperkalemia B. pyelonephritis C. acute kidney injury D. kidney stones

A

What is one of the primary advantages of using blind nasotracheal intubation? A. it does not require a laryngoscope B. it requires the patient to be placed in a sniffing position C. it allows you to visualize the tube passing through the vocal cords D. it involves a very small risk of bleeding

A 1042

When caring for any patient, it is important to remember that: A. the patients wishes and your moral standards are often the same B. your moral standards may conflict with the patients best interests C. the patient likely shares the same moral standards that you do D. your moral standards should affect the way you treat the patient

B

Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is correct? A. patients with sickle cell disease become hypoxic because their misshapen red blood cells are poor carriers of oxygen B. Sickle cell disease is an acquired blood disorder that exclusively affects the African American population C. patients with sickle cell disease are at a lower risk for thrombotic diseases because their blood contains fewer platelets D. when the defective HbA gene is inherited from both parents tje patient will not develop the sickle cell trait

A 1544

Droplet transmission-based precautions should be used with which of the following diseases? A. Pertussis B. Tuberculosis C. Chickenpox D. Measles

A 1593

A hemostatic agent would be used to: A. control serious hemorrhage when application of a tourniquet is not possible B. provide cushioning support C. treat wounds with a lower risk of infection D. allow exudate from the wound to mesh with the dressing material

A 1865

If you are in top physical condition and become injured, then you will tend to: A. heal more quickly with fewer complications B. be able to tolerate higher call volumes C. reduce your risk for accidents in the workplace D. be more tolerant of sleep deprivation

A 48

When preparing to establish an IV line on a 4 year old child, the child asks if it will hurt. How should you respond to the child? A. It may hurt a little. You may feel a quick pinch. B. I need to do this procedure right away C. It won't hurt at all D. This is going to hurt a lot. I don't need to do it if you don't want me to.

A 563

The apparent absence of a palpable pulse in a responsive patient most likely indicates A. low cardiac output B. cardiac arrest C. respiratory arrest D. severe bleeding

A 600

The kind of stress that motivates an individual to achieve is called: A. eustress B. displaced stress C. adapted stress D. distress

A 70

Which class of medications may not be prescribed, dispensed, used, or administered for medical use? A. Schedule I B. Schedule II C. Schedule III D. Schedule IV

A 728

A medication that initiates or alters a cellular activity by attaching to receptor sites and prompting a cell response is said to be: A. an agonist B. a competitive binder C. an antagonist D. synergistic

A 734

1 mg is equal to how many mcg? A. 1,000 B. 10,000 C. 100 D. 10

A 836

What is the mechanism of action of sodium bicarbonate? A. it increases blood and urinary PH B. it binds with cholinergic receptors C. it hinders the breakdown of fibrin D. it inhibits the activation of plasminogen

A 943

Which of the following is the most immediate danger to an unresponsive patient with acute alcohol intoxication? A. Profound bradycardia B. Acute hypovolemia C. Ventricular dysrhythmias D. Aspiration of vomitus

D 1673

Atelectasis occurs when: A) the alveoli are overinflated and rupture. B) a deficiency of surfactant causes alveolar collapse. C) deoxygenated blood diffuses across the alveoli. D) surface tension on the alveolar walls is decreased.

B 1008

The main stem bronchus ends at the level of the A. segmental bronchi B. bronchioles C. lobar bronchi D. subsegmental bronchi

B 1096

Performing the functions of a paramedic prior to licensure is: A. permissible B. unlawful C. ethical D. moral

B 11

The right atrium, right ventricle, and part of the left ventricle are supplied by the A. left main coronary artery B. right coronary artery C. left anterior descending artety D. circumflex artery

B 1162

Irrigation of the eyes may be necessary in cases of: A. macular degeneration B. chemical or thermal burns C. anisocoria D. glaucoma

B 1367

When responding to a patient with GI distress in their home, you examine their stool and notice that it is black, tarry, sticky and very odorous. You would expect that the patient is experiencing A. liver disease B. food intolerance C. bleeding from the upper GI tract D. an intestinal infection

C 1404

The most common cause of amenorrhea is A. menopause B. hormone C. pregnancy D. stress

C 1476

When treating a patient with a suspected ectopic pregnancy what should you do first? A. anticipate vomiting and have an emesis bag available B. place the patient on a cardiac monitor C. ensure an adequate airway D. initiate IV fluid therapy

C 1485

A person with type 1 diabetes: A. is often an older person whose pancreas does not produce adequate insulin B. is not as likely to experience hypoglycemia as a person with type 2 diabetes C. generally does not produce any insulin and requires daily insulin injections D. can often control their diabetes with a proper diet and regular exercise

C 1507

A loud S3 heart sound, when heard in older adults, often signifies: A. emphysema B. pulmonary hypertension C. valve rupture D. heart failure

D 1168

Atrial kick is defined as: A) the blood that flows passively into the ventricles. B) pressure on the AV valves during ventricular contraction. C) an attempt of the atria to contract against closed valves. D) the volume of blood that the atria contract to the ventricles.

D 1171

Which of the following is the leading preventable cause of strokes and TIAs? A. diabetes B. hypercholesterolemia C. alcohol use D. hypertension

D 1328

Blood or CSF drainage from the nose suggests: A. a foreign body B. tissue necrosis C. a viral infection D. a skull fracture

D 1379

When caring for a patient who has difficulty swallowing, your priority in the prehospital settings is: A. adequate pain management B. administering antibiotics C. minimizing stress and anxiety D. assessing for airway obstruction

D 1389

A 3 year old patient presents with fever, nasal discharge and coughing. The patient's father tells you that the child makes a strange sound when they take a breath. What should you suspect? A. mumps B. influenza C. Meningitis D. Pertussis

D 1608

Mononucelosis is caused by which of the following? A. cytomegalovirus B. pneumococcal bacterium C. streptococcal bacterium D. Epstein-Barr virus

D 1614

Which type of poisoning may result in falsely high pulse oximetry readings? A. Morphine B. Phenylephrine C. Phenobarbital D. Cyanide

D 1661

Poisoning with which substance may lead to pulmonary edema? A. Propoxyphene B. Beta blockers C. Calcium channel blockers D. Organophosphates

D 1665