Unit 4 quiz review- infection, inflammation & immunity

Pataasin ang iyong marka sa homework at exams ngayon gamit ang Quizwiz!

What type of viral hepatitis is not associated with transmission through contact with infected blood? C A B D

A

Which is true regarding perinatal HIV infection? Check all that apply. An ELISA is the test of choice when testing infants. In order to accurately make the diagnosis of HIV in an infant, two HIV-positive results are required. A woman infected with HIV may not breast-feed her infant. A child born to an HIV-positive mother is considered negative for HIV after 6 months. Women who are HIV positive should receive zidovudine during labor.

A woman infected with HIV may not breast-feed her infant. Women who are HIV positive should receive zidovudine during labor. In order to accurately make the diagnosis of HIV in an infant, two HIV-positive results are required

The ingestion of a Shiga toxin produced by Escherichia coli O157:H7 can cause a sometimes fatal illness called hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS). Select the client at highest risk. An individual who consumed undercooked hamburger during a backyard barbecue An individual who properly washed her hands after using the restroom An individual who consumed pasteurized apple juice An individual who consumed fully cooked hamburger during a backyard barbecue

An individual who consumed undercooked hamburger during a backyard barbecue

A client with common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) who is also deficient in IgA is being treated with IV immunoglobulin (IV Ig) in the hospital. For which sign/symptom should the nurse closely monitor the client during treatment? Chest pain Diarrhea Nausea and vomiting Anaphylaxis

Anaphylaxis

Which type of a hypersensitivity reaction involves failure of the development of self-tolerance? Immediate hypersensitivity reaction Autoimmune reaction Antibody-mediated reaction Immune complex reaction

Autoimmune reaction

A client is taking a vacation in a foreign country. The nurse teaches the client about giardiasis, a common traveler's infection. Which statement should be included in the teaching plan? Avoid swimming in the coastal waters of the foreign country. Avoid close contact with other passengers while flying on an airplane. Avoid eating food and drinking beverages that might be contaminated. Complete the necessary inoculations before traveling out of the country.

Avoid eating food and drinking beverages that might be contaminated.

Which agent is considered to be high risk in a bioterrorism event? E. coli M. tuberculosis Hantavirus Bacillus anthracis

Bacillus anthracis

A diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is identified when the CD4+ T cell count reaches which level? 800 to 1000 cells/μL 200 to 499 cells/μL 500 to 800 cells/μL Below 200 cells/μL

Below 200 cells/μL

Select the statement that best describes the formation of a keloid. "Benign, tumor-like mass" "Reoccurrence can be prevented" "Decreased production of scar tissue" "Malignant tumor mass"

Benign, tumor-like mass

A client diagnosed with a primary immunodeficiency disorder has asked her siblings to be tested as possible stem cell donors. When discussing this procedure with the family, the nurse emphasizes that stem cells can be harvested from which parts of the body? Select all that apply. Bone marrow Skin tissue harvesting Tears Peripheral blood Mouth swabs

Bone marrow Peripheral blood

A client is brought to the emergency room with reports of facial muscle paralysis and increasing upper extremity weakness several hours after eating canned peppers. Histologic examination reveals a bacterial infection and further testing reveals a decrease in the release of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine from cholinergic neurons. What is the most likely cause of this illness? Botulism exotoxin Diphtheria endotoxin Cholera antitoxin Septicemia

Botulism exotoxin

A client with end-stage renal disease received a kidney transplant with a kidney donated by a family member. The client has been carefully monitored for signs of rejection. The physician informs the client that there has been a gradual rise in the serum creatinine over the last 5 months. What type of rejection does this depict? Hyperacute rejection Acute antibody-mediated rejection Acute rejection Chronic rejection

Chronic rejection

Which description does the nurse recognize fits a client in the prodromal stage of an infection? Residual symptoms of the disease are present in the client's body. Client has been exposed, but is experiencing no apparent symptoms. Client is experiencing vague symptoms of fatigue and low grade fever. Client's symptoms specific to the disease are evident.

Client is experiencing vague symptoms of fatigue and low grade fever

A client underwent an open cholecystectomy 2 days ago, and the incision is now in the proliferative phase of healing. What is the dominant cellular process that characterizes this phase of the client's healing? A. Keloid formation B. Hemostasis C. Collagen secretion by fibroblasts D. Phagocytosis by neutrophils

Collagen secretion by fibroblasts

While explaining to a young child why he should be careful with a wound, the nurse reviews healing with the parent. The nurse educates the parent about how strength in the healing wound site is developed based on which substance being available? A. Collagen synthesis B. Exudate C. Stable cells D. Plasma

Collagen synthesis

Once T helper cells are activated, they secrete which substance that activates and influences nearly all of the other cells of the immune system? Bradykinins Leukotrienes Complement proteins Cytokines

Cytokines

The nurse admitting a client with an infected leg wound notes that the client has a history of peripheral vascular disease, COPD, diabetes, and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which disorders increase the client's risk for wound complications? Select all that apply. Diabetes Peripheral vascular disease COPD GERD

Diabetes Peripheral vascular disease COPD

Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are typically spread by which mechanisms? Penetration Vertical transmission Ingestion Direct contact

Direct contact

The nurse is assessing a client for acute inflammation of a wound. Which symptom does the nurse attribute to the acute inflammatory response? hypothermia edema tissue necrosis pallor

Edema

Which of these is a cost-effective diagnostic method that is used as a screening test for HIV antibodies? Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) CD4 T-lymphocyte count Western blot

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

The laboratory finds IgA in a sample of cord blood from a newborn infant. This finding is important because it signifies what? Maternal exposure to an infection in a sexual partner Fetal reaction to an infection acquired at birth Fetal reaction to exposure to an intrauterine infection Maternal reaction to an infection in the fetus

Fetal reaction to exposure to an intrauterine infection

The nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with varicella. The nurse is aware that nonspecific manifestations may include: Liquid-filled blisters Sores with crusts Fever Pruritic rash

Fever

Epithelialization, the first component of the proliferative phase of wound healing, is delayed in open wounds until what type of tissue has formed? Granulation tissue Fibrinous meshwork Collagenous layers Capillary circulation

Granulation tissue

Which serves as a recognition marker to aid in self-tolerance? Macrophages of the immune system Inactivated B cells Inactivated T cells HLA antigens encoded by MHC genes

HLA antigens encoded by MHC genes

A client arrives with a large calf burn from contact with a motorcycle exhaust pipe. Inspection reveals the epidermis and dermis layers are affected with associated pain, redness, swelling, and blistering. What type of wound repair/healing will the nurse explain to this client? Healing will occur by primary intention. Healing will occur by secondary intention. Healing will occur by tertiary intention. Wound healing will have to undergo several phases of remodeling.

Healing will occur by secondary intention.

Which organism causes peptic ulcers? Salmonella typhimurium Staphylococcus aureus Escherichia coli Helicobacter pylori

Helicobacter pylori

A client with end-stage kidney disease is receiving a kidney donated by a family member. When caring for this client, what does the nurse know is the major target involved in organ transplant rejection? Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) T-cell receptor (TCR) Human leukocyte antigens (HLAs) Antigen-presenting cell (APC)

Human leukocyte antigens (HLAs)

A client has been diagnosed with Graves disease. The primary care provider tells the client that this is due to the presence of autoantibodies to the TSH receptor. The client asks the nurse to explain this in simpler terms. Which response would be best for this client? "The filtration system in your body is no longer working." "Basically, your lymph node system has gone haywire." "Your body has lost its ability to delete autoreactive T cells in the thyroid." "Hyperthyroidism is basically an autoimmune disorder."

Hyperthyroidism is basically an autoimmune disorder

The nurse is teaching a group of college students about reducing the risk of HIV transmission during sexual relations. The nurse makes which appropriate teaching point? "If a person has a sexually transmitted disease (STD), there is an increased risk for HIV infection." "A person who is infected with HIV will not be contagious until the CD4+ count is less than 200." "Oral sex is a safe alternative to vaginal intercourse to prevent HIV infection." "Lambskin or natural condoms should be used rather than latex condoms."

If a person has a sexually transmitted disease (STD), there is an increased risk for HIV infection

A 1-day-old infant was exposed to an infectious microorganism prior to discharge home from the hospital, but was able to affect a sufficient immune response in the hours and days following exposure. The nurse knows that which immunoglobulin assisted with this process? IgE IgM IgA IgG

IgG

Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is the most abundant of circulating antibodies? IgM IgE IgA IgG

IgG

A nurse is reviewing labs for a client newly diagnosed with a bacterial infection. In determining if the client is experiencing a primary immune response, the nurse looks for which type of antibody produced from activated immature B cells? IgG IgM IgA IgE

IgM

A premature neonate in the ICU suspected of having an infection has blood drawn for class specific antibodies. Which of the following confirms that the neonate has developed a congenital infection? IgG antibodies remain elevated throughout entire ICU admission. IgG titer is decreased. IgM antibodies are elevated. Initial IgM-specific antibodies are negative.

IgM antibodies are elevated.

The nurse is reviewing the functions of immunoglobulins and determines which immunoglobulin is associated with its correct action? IgM, the first antibody to be produced by a developing fetus. IgA, plays a role in B-cell differentiation. IgE, functions as a receptor for antigen. IgD, prevents the attachment of viruses and bacterial to epithelial cells.

IgM, the first antibody to be produced by a developing fetus

A client is brought to the emergency department after being bitten by a stray dog. To prevent rabies infection, the nurse anticipates administering: Immunoglobulins (IgG) Tetanus toxoid vaccination Antihistamines Antibiotics

Immunoglobulins (IgG)

If a client has a bacterial infection in the blood, the nurse will note which laboratory value that correlates with this? A. Severe decrease in neutrophils B. Inhibit prostaglandin release C. Increased neutrophils D. Increased eosinophils

Increased neutrophils

A client with hereditary angioneurotic edema (HAE) is experiencing an attack. Which priority intervention should the nurse be prepared to administer? Administering an antiemetic for vomiting Maintaining a patent airway Starting an IV Administering an antihistamine for the itching.

Maintaining a patent airway

Which cellular mediator is involved in the development of type I hypersensitivity reactions? Mast cells Plasma cells Monocytes Arachidonic acid

Mast cells

An obstetrics nurse is counseling an expectant mother. The mother is concerned about letting people hold her baby once the baby is born, fearing that the infant will get sick. What should the nurse explain to the mother? IgA that is present at birth, and which originates with the mother, will protect the baby, Maternal immunoglobulins cross the placenta and protect the newborn early in life. Abundant lymphoid tissues protect the infant in the first few months of life. The innate immune system will protect the baby.

Maternal immunoglobulins cross the placenta and protect the newborn early in life

A pregnant client gets immunized for influenza while in the second trimester. What response occurs in the newborn after birth with regard to protection from the flu? Only the mother will receive the benefits of immunization. The newborn will have to receive immunization against influenza to have any immunity. Maternal vaccination may offer fetal and neonatal passive immunity against the flu. The newborn will not require further immunization against the flu for at least 12 months.

Maternal vaccination may offer fetal and neonatal passive immunity against the flu

The nurse is teaching a group of parents about foods that commonly cause allergic reactions in children. The most important information to provide would be: Select all that apply. Milk Strawberries Shellfish Eggs Peanuts

Milk Eggs Peanuts Shellfish

Systemic lupus erythematosus is best characterized by which principle? The main immune problem is anaphylactic (type I immune) reaction. Most clients have antinuclear antibodies present in their blood. It is a consequence of streptococcal infection. It is principally a disease of men.

Most clients have antinuclear antibodies present in their blood

While caring for a pediatric client admitted with a viral infection, the nurse knows that which type of cell will be the child's primary defense against the virus? Bradykinin Leukotrienes Natural killer (NK) cells Complement

Natural killer (NK) cells

A blood smear is being examined and a stain has been added that will identify granulocytes. Which cell types will be visible with the stain? Select all that apply. Neutrophil Basophil Eosinophil Macrophage Monocytes

Neutrophil Eosinophil Basophil

A teenager with an infected wound asks, "How does my body fight off the germs in my scraped arm?" Which response by the nurse correctly identifies the cells that play a central role to the innate immune response to an infectious microorganism? Neutrophils T lymphocytes B lymphocytes Antibodies

Neutrophils

What is the main effect of HIV infection? Poor B-cell function Poor helper T-cell function Poor suppressor T-cell function Poor natural killer cell function

Poor helper T-cell function

A child has a congenital condition in which the thymus gland is absent. Which information should the nurse include as the priority when providing caregiver education? Feed in an upright position, due to high risk for aspiration. Report if the child has 2 to 3 loose stools in a day. Practice strict infection control practices. Observe and report any signs of bleeding.

Practice strict infection control practices

Chlamydiaceae, a rather common sexually transmitted infectious organism, has characteristics of both viruses and bacteria. Which of the following occurs with the infectious form of this organism's life cycle until it enters the host cell? Presence of an elementary body Adherence to cholesterol Encapsulated hyphae Propulsion by filaments

Presence of an elementary body

Transmissible neurodegenerative diseases such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease are associated with: Prion Bacteria Prokaryotic infection Virus

Prion

A client newly diagnosed with the neurodegenerative disease Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) asks why antibiotics are not part of the treatment plan. How should the nurse respond? CJD is only susceptible to antiretrovirals. Antifungals are needed to kill CJD. Prions are not affected by antibiotics. Anaerobic parasites are destroyed by oxygen.

Prions are not affected by antibiotics

A client newly diagnosed with the neurodegenerative disease Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) asks why antibiotics are not part of the treatment plan. How should the nurse respond? Prions are not affected by antibiotics. CJD is only susceptible to antiretrovirals. Anaerobic parasites are destroyed by oxygen. Antifungals are needed to kill CJD.

Prions are not affected by antibiotics.

In the usual course (stages) after a pathogen has entered the host body, the stage when the host initially develops the appearance of signs/symptoms like a mild fever and body aches is: Convalescence Prodromal Acute Incubation

Prodromal

There has been a sharp increase in the incidence of a specific influenza in both Europe and in the United States. Which term best describes this incidence? epidemic prevelant endemic pandemic

Prokaryotes lack an organized nucleus.

Hyperbaric treatment for wound healing is used for wounds that have problems in healing due to hypoxia or infection. It works by raising the partial pressure of oxygen in plasma. How does hyperbaric oxygen treatment enhance wound healing? Promotion of angiogenesis Decrease in fibroblast activity Increased action of eosinophils Destruction of anaerobic bacteria

Promotion of angiogenesis

The mother of an infant born with profound intellectual disability and hearing loss tells the nurse that she had a viral infection in the first trimester of pregnancy. The nurse identifies which congenital infection as the cause of the fetal defects? Rubella Measles Mumps Roseola

Rubella

A college student has received a tetanus booster shot. This immunization confers protection by way of what immune process? Cell-mediated immune response Secondary humoral response Innate immunity Primary humoral response

Secondary humoral response

The ability to recognize self-cells from non-self (antigens)-cells is known as what term? Immunocompatibility Non-self anergy Self-tolerance Autoimmunity

Self-tolerance

International travel has contributed to increased prevalence and incidence of nonindigenous diseases by increasing which of the following? Disease course Virulence Sources of infection Portals of entry

Sources of infection

Which of the following is a secondary lymphoid structure located high in the left abdominal cavity? Thymus Spleen Lymph node Peyer patch

Spleen

In an attempt to best explain the innate immune system to a class of first-year nursing students, the instructor should describe what characteristic? The response of the innate immune system is rapid, usually within minutes to hours, and prevents the establishment of infection and deeper tissue penetration of microorganisms. The innate immune system is mediated by molecules called antibodies and is the principal defense against extracellular microbes and toxins. The innate immune system is mediated by specific T-cells and defends against intracellular microbes such as viruses. The innate immune system consists of lymphocytes and their products, including antibodies.

The response of the innate immune system is rapid, usually within minutes to hours, and prevents the establishment of infection and deeper tissue penetration of microorganisms.

The parents of a 2-year-old child ask the nurse why their toddler's wounds do not seem to heal as quickly as their older children. Which response by the nurse is most accurate? "The younger child has an immature immune system with no experience with organisms." "The younger child has a diminished ability to practice hand washing effectively." "The younger child tends to play in more contaminated soil so is predisposed to infections." "The younger child has an immature renal system that makes many antibacterial drugs dangerous."

The younger child has an immature immune system with no experience with organisms

A sixth-grade science teacher asks the students to explain the role of cilia in the lower respiratory tract. Which student response is best? "Cilia can trap the microbes in one location so the body can grow scar tissue around them and wall them off so they can't cause disease." "These little hairs move germs trapped in mucus toward the throat so the body can cough them out." "Cilia help to warm the airways so that moisture in the air can neutralize any germs that get in our lungs." "Cilia help facilitate a chemical defense against germs by secreting an enzyme that will cement the germ to the lining of the airways."

These little hairs move germs trapped in mucus toward the throat so the body can cough them out

Stem cells in the bone marrow produce T lymphocytes or T cells and release them into the vascular system. The T cells then migrate where to mature? Spleen Liver Thymus Pancreas

Thymus

A client seeks treatment in the clinic for exposure to poison ivy with a rash over the right arm and hand. The nurse is aware that what toxin is found in the oils on poison ivy that is responsible for eliciting an allergic reaction? Streptococcus pneumonia Urushiol Lymphocytes Kupffer cells

Urushiol

Select the statement that best describes the effectiveness of vaccination in the older adult population. Vaccination is less effective in inducing a full immune response in older persons compared to younger adults. Older adults who are immunized have the same effective response in immunity as younger persons do. Age does not influence the effectiveness; it depends on the amount of medication you receive. Vaccinations are only effective in older adult populations if their families have been vaccinated.

Vaccination is less effective in inducing a full immune response in older persons compared to younger adults

The nurse is admitting an older adult client with a chronic wound. The nurse will focus the assessment on which underlying conditions? Select all that apply. Vascular disease Immobility Aging Diabetes

Vascular disease Aging Diabetes

A client in the primary or initial phase of a type I hypersensitivity reaction would most likely experience which physiologic response? Tissue destruction in the form of epithelial cell damage An IgE-mediated response that protects from damage Smooth muscle relaxation produced by increased acetylcholine Vasodilation of the capillaries from the release of histamine

Vasodilation of the capillaries from the release of histamine

An HIV-positive mother passes the virus to her infant during delivery. This type of transmission is known as: Horizontal transmission Vertical transmission Heterozygous transmission Vesicle transmission

Vertical transmission

A client tells the health care provider he has heard several myths about viruses. The most appropriate information for the nurse to provide would be: "Viruses can produce symptoms of disease months to years later." "Viruses are capable of replicating outside of a living cell." "Viruses do not require a host cell to replicate." "Viruses kill cells they come in contact with immediately."

Viruses can produce symptoms of disease months to years later

A client tells the health care provider he has heard several myths about viruses. The most appropriate information for the nurse to provide would be: "Viruses can produce symptoms of disease months to years later." "Viruses kill cells they come in contact with immediately." "Viruses do not require a host cell to replicate." "Viruses are capable of replicating outside of a living cell."

Viruses can produce symptoms of disease months to years later

When caring for a postoperative client, in order to promote wound healing, which of these nutrients does the nurse encourage the client to consume? Vitamin E Magnesium Vitamin D Vitamin C

Vitamin C

The nurse is caring for a client with a chronic wound. The most important intervention for the nurse to include in the plan of care would be: Steroid therapy Vitamin C and zinc supplements Low-carbohydrate diet Protein-controlled diet

Vitamin C and zinc supplements

A 67-year-old client diagnosed with myasthenia gravis will likely display which clinical manifestations as a result of autoantibodies ultimately blocking the action of acetylcholine, resulting in destruction of the receptors? Weakness of the eye muscles, difficulty in swallowing and slurred speech, impaired gait. Tremor of hands/arms, rigidity of the arms, shuffling gait. Short-term memory lapses, problems with orientation, a lack of drive or initiative. Facial droop, slurred speech, weakness on one side of the body.

Weakness of the eye muscles, difficulty in swallowing and slurred speech, impaired gait.

The nurse is caring for an obese client who has had abdominal surgery. The medical record states the wound has developed a dehiscence. Which finding does the nurse anticipate observing when changing the dressing? Wound has purulent drainage. The suture line is reddened. Wound edges are 1.5 inches apart. There is a foreign body in the wound.

Wound edges are 1.5 inches apart

Select the option that best describes a single-celled organism that reproduces by a budding process. Virus Yeast Mold Bacteria

Yeast

Metalloproteinase requires which mineral to be present before degradation of collagen occurs? Magnesium Iron Zinc Calcium

Zinc

A client has begun HAART shortly after being diagnosed with HIV. When describing the potential benefits of this drug regimen, the nurse should describe: increased synthesis of HIV antibodies. a reduction in the replication rate of HIV. prevention of opportunistic infections and complications. increased resilience of CD4+ cells.

a reduction in the replication rate of HIV.

The nurse is explaining the quality of pleiotropism that is possessed by many cytokines. The quality of pleiotropism implies that such cytokines: perform unique functions in a specific body cell. are able to act on different types of cells. have a unique function in all cells. can perform different functions in the same cells.

are able to act on different types of cells.

The nurse conducts client education for a client about to start a chemotherapy regimen. Which cells will the nurse explain as continuously dividing cells? Select all that apply. heart muscle cells cells lining the gastrointestinal tract cells in the mouth skin cells neurons

cells lining the gastrointestinal tract cells in the mouth skin cells

Inflammation can be either local or systemic. What are the most prominent systemic manifestations of inflammation? widening pulse pressure, thrombocytopenia, and the recovery phase response fever, leukocytosis or leukopenia, and the acute phase response widening pulse pressure, thrombocytopenia, and the latent phase response fever, leukocytosis or leukopenia, and the transition phase response

fever, leukocytosis or leukopenia, and the acute phase response

A fomite is a/an: infection transfer agent. natural disinfectant. tick-like ectoparasite. natural antibiotic.

infection transfer agent.

There has been a sharp increase in the incidence of a specific influenza in both Europe and in the United States. Which term best describes this incidence? endemic prevelant epidemic pandemic

pandemic

There has been a sharp increase in the incidence of a specific influenza in both Europe and in the United States. Which term best describes this incidence? prevelant epidemic pandemic endemic

pandemic

A student asks, "What does cell-mediated immunity mean to the client?" The instructor responds, "This means: the person's immune system is trying to rapidly mature more killer cells to protect against any microbial invasion." the person's immune system is trying to eliminate all responses to certain antigens." our body is trying to systematically control the immune response." the body is trying to defend itself against intracellular microbe invasion by engulfing and destroying the microbe."

the body is trying to defend itself against intracellular microbe invasion by engulfing and destroying the microbe

A client cuts herself with a sharp knife while cooking dinner. The client describes how the wound started bleeding and had a red appearance almost immediately. The nurse knows that in the vascular stage of acute inflammation, the vessels: bleed profusely until the body can compensate and start to send fibrinogen to the wound. constrict as a result of "fight/flight" hormone release, resulting in pale-colored skin vasodilate, causing the area to become congested and resulting in the red color and warmth. swell to the point of compromising circulation, causing the limb to become cool to touch.

vasodilate, causing the area to become congested and resulting in the red color and warmth

Which client is most likely to experience impaired (slow) wound healing? A. A child whose severe cleft lip and palate have required a series of surgeries over several months B. A client with persistent hypertension who takes a beta-blocker and a potassium-wasting diuretic daily C. A client who takes nebulized bronchodilators several times daily to treat chronic obstructive pulmonary disease D. A client with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes and a history of poor blood sugar control

A client with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes and a history of poor blood sugar control

An infant is suspected of having a severe primary immunodeficiency disease. Which effect on the infant makes early detection a priority? The infant may develop food allergies. Administering live attenuated virus vaccines can be fatal. The infant may have developmental delays. The infant is at risk for cardiovascular disease.

Administering live attenuated virus vaccines can be fatal

Which intervention would be the best treatment option to prevent perinatal transmission of HIV antibodies to a fetus from the HIV-positive mother? Administration of a fusion inhibitor immediately on diagnosis of pregnancy Administration of zidovudine to the mother during pregnancy, labor, and delivery Administration of efavirenz starting within the first trimester of pregnancy Administration of zidovudine to the newborn immediately after delivery

Administration of zidovudine to the mother during pregnancy, labor, and delivery

What is the correct type of isolation for the nurse to implement to prevent transmission of herpes zoster while caring for a client with an active chickenpox infection? Blood Airborne Droplet Contact

Airborne

The cells that mediate humoral immunity do so because they are capable of producing: Helper T cells Antibodies Stem cells Platelets

Antibodies

The cells that mediate humoral immunity do so because they are capable of producing: Helper T cells Platelets Antibodies Stem cells

Antibodies

Which factor is considered during serology testing? DNA sequencing Antibody titers Direct antigens Culture growth

Antibody titers

A dental assistant comes to the clinic with reports of a rash on her hands that feel like they are coming from the gloves being worn. The nurse observes both hands with crusted and thickened areas. What type of education does the nurse anticipate providing to the client? Wash the hands in hot soapy water to remove any powder from the gloves after being worn. Take an antihistamine daily for 10 days to eliminate the allergens. Use alcohol based cleaning products on the hands. Apply a topical corticosteroid and avoid further contact with latex-containing products.

Apply a topical corticosteroid and avoid further contact with latex-containing products

A client has been admitted to the hospital for the treatment of HIV infection, which has recently progressed to overt AIDS. Which nursing action should the nurse prioritize when providing care for this client? Astute infection control and respiratory assessments Careful monitoring of fluid balance and neurologic status Hemodynamic monitoring and physical therapy Frequent neurologic vital signs and thorough skin care

Astute infection control and respiratory assessments

Select the type of lymphocyte that matures in the bone marrow. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes T lymphocytes Macrophages B lymphocytes

B lymphocytes

What is the term for a subset of cytokines that stimulate the production of large numbers of platelets, erythrocytes, lymphocytes, neutrophils, and monocytes, eosinophils, basophils, and dendritic cells? Chemokines Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs) Immunoglobulins Natural killer (NK) cells

Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)

Which findings are considered part of normal aging? Select all that apply. Decreased IL-2 level Elevated CD8+ T cells Increase in B-cell production Decrease in CD4+ count Increased absolute number of lymphocytes

Decrease in CD4+ count Decreased IL-2 level

A nurse who works in a long-term care facility has observed the high incidence of infectious illnesses among the older adults who reside there. What is the best explanation for a diminished immune capacity in older adults? Altered function in peripheral lymphocytes Decreased antigen recognition by B lymphocytes Overexpression of cytokines and receptors Decreased numbers and responsiveness of T lymphocytes

Decreased numbers and responsiveness of T lymphocytes

When assessing a client's incision, the nurse notes that the edges of the once approximated incision has begun to pull apart. The nurse documents that the client's incision has: A. Remodeled B. Proliferated C. Epithelialized E. Dehisced

Dehisced

A group of teenagers spent an entire day on the beach without using sunscreen. The first night, their skin was reddened and painful to touch. The second day, they awoke to find large fluid-filled blisters over several body areas. The nurse recognizes the development of blisters as which type of inflammatory response? Cellular response Continuous response Immediate transient response Delayed response

Delayed response

A nurse researcher is developing an experiment to evaluate the causes of inflammatory bowel diseases such as Crohn disease. Testing which antigen-presenting cells should be included in the study? Dendritic (DC) cells Langerhans cells MHC-II molecules Macrophages

Dendritic (DC) cells

A clinical research study is evaluating cells that bridge both the innate and adaptive immune systems. A nurse has identified the dendritic cells (DCs) as a key component. Which statement validates this finding? Dendritic cells (DCs) can also act as opsonins and can coat cellular particles on pathogens and enhance the phagocytic function of innate cells. Dendritic cells (DCs) destroy the invading organism through the process of phagocytosis. Dendritic cells (DCs) spontaneously kill target tumor and/or infected cells without previous exposure to surface antigens. Dendritic cells (DCs) directly sense pathogens, capture foreign agents, and transport them to secondary lymphoid tissues. Once activated, they undergo a maturation process and function as antigen-presenting cells (APCs) capable of initiating adaptive immunity.

Dendritic cells (DCs) directly sense pathogens, capture foreign agents, and transport them to secondary lymphoid tissues. Once activated, they undergo a maturation process and function as antigen-presenting cells (APCs) capable of initiating adaptive immunity.

Treponema pallidum is a spirochete bacterium that causes syphilis. Which of the following is the mechanism that spreads T. pallidum from human to human? Exposure to infected urine Tick or lice vector bites Inhaling airborne particles Direct physical contact

Direct physical contact

When the nurse is performing a skin assessment on a client, a small wound is noted on the client's right leg. The wound is covered with a desiccated scab. The appropriate action by the nurse is: Request a chemical debriding agent Document the finding Request a surgical consult Cover the scab with an antibiotic ointment

Document the finding

Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS), a highly transmissible respiratory infection, crossed international borders in the winter of 2002. What terms are used to describe the outbreak of SARS? Epidemic and pandemic Pandemic and nosocomial Regional and endemic Nosocomial and endemic

Epidemic and pandemic

A 9-month-old infant has been diagnosed with botulism after he was fed honey. The child's mother was prompted to seek care because of this child's sudden onset of neuromuscular deficits, which were later attributed to the release of substances by Clostridium botulinum. Which virulence factor contributed to this child's illness? Evasive factors Exotoxins Endotoxins Adhesion factors

Exotoxins

A specific type of gram-negative bacteria contains endotoxin in the bacterial cell envelope. What is the likely clinical manifestation if these bacteria become pathogenic? Fever Vomiting Constipation Leukopenia

Fever

The nurse is caring for a client whose temperature is increasing. Which other vital sign/body response will the nurse monitor for an increase? Blood pressure Heart rate Respiratory rate Red blood cell count

Heart rate

The nurse is caring for a client experiencing a systemic anaphylactic reaction. Which assessment findings correlate with this diagnosis? Select all that apply. Hypotension Laryngeal edema and obstruction Hypertension Bronchospasm and respiratory distress Vomiting and abdominal cramps

Hypotension Bronchospasm and respiratory distress Vomiting and abdominal cramps Laryngeal edema and obstruction

A nurse is teaching parents of a child with scarlet fever. Which statement indicates that the parents understand the treatment for the child? "I will give the antibiotic for the full 10 days." "Scarlet fever is a gram-negative bacteria that requires no antibiotics to treat." "I will apply antibiotics as a cream to her rash twice a day." "My daughter cannot go to school while she is taking antibiotics."

I will give the antibiotic for the full 10 days

A client comes to the clinic with reports of runny nose, itchy eyes, and congestion due to seasonal allergies. The nurse teaches the client about the allergic reaction. The nurse knows that teaching has been effective when the client identifies which CD4 helper T-cell cytokine as the cause of this Type I hypersensitivity reaction? IL-6 IL-4 Interferons IL-2

IL-4

Which immunoglobulin is primarily found in secretions and has a primary function of providing local immunity on mucosal surfaces? IgG IgA IgM IgD

IgA

Which immunoglobulin is primarily found in secretions and has a primary function of providing local immunity on mucosal surfaces? IgM IgD IgA IgG

IgA

When discussing colony-stimulating factors (CSFs), the nurse explains that recombinant CSF is currently used for which disease process? Stimulate the bone marrow to produce more immature cells Assist kidney dialysis clients to maintain a therapeutic potassium level Increase the success rate of bone marrow transplantation Grow stem cells in the laboratory

Increase the success rate of bone marrow transplantation

A client attending a health fair asks how anthrax will be treated in the event of a bioterrorism attack. How should the nurse respond? Everyone should have an emergency supply of antibiotics to take in case of an attack. If an individual has anthrax, the individual will need infusion of antitoxins. Anthrax is a virus that spreads by spores that can be inactivated with disinfectants. Individuals who are exposed will be isolated and given antibiotics.

Individuals who are exposed will be isolated and given antibiotics

Select the phases that make up the reaction of the complement system. Primary phase, secondary phase, tertiary phase Initial activation, amplification of inflammation, membrane attack response Emulsification phase, recovery phase, reactivation phase Initial activation, memory phase, resolution phase

Initial activation, amplification of inflammation, membrane attack response

The nurse is teaching a client infected with the flu about viruses. Which explanation would the nurse use to describe a viral infection? It occurs when an irritant causes an inflammatory response. It is an infection with an intracellular pathogen. It is caused by a defect in the immune system. It is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction to a biologic agent.

It is an infection with an intracellular pathogen.

A 36-year-old client who is positive for HIV antibodies notices purplish spots on his upper body. Which term is used to identify these areas? Kaposi sarcoma multifocal leukoencephalopathy liver spots toxoplasmosis

Kaposi sarcoma

Which is a characteristic finding in AIDS? Kaposi sarcoma High peripheral blood CD4+ lymphocyte counts Overactive T-cell function Carcinoma of the lung

Kaposi sarcoma

Which of these is often found in a client with AIDS? High peripheral blood CD4+ lymphocyte counts Overactive T-cell function Carcinoma of the lung Kaposi sarcoma

Kaposi sarcoma

Which is an accurate characterization of prions that cause transmissible neurodegenerative diseases? Lack of reproductive capacity Chronic inflammation Hypermetabolism Enzyme production

Lack of reproductive capacity

The nurse is evaluating the bloodwork results of a client with an infected leg ulcer. The white blood cell count is 18,000 cells/uL. The nurse interprets this as: A. Lymphadenitis B. Leukocytosis C. Lymphocytosis D. Neutropenia

Leukocytosis

Which event is part of the effector function of activated members of the complement system? Localization of infection Hematopoiesis Production of antibodies Activation of helper T cells

Localization of infection

Dermatophytes are fungi that are mainly found on cutaneous surfaces of the body. Which location indicates where dermatophytes are capable of growing? In branching filaments On a powdery colony On cooler tissue In moist skin folds

On cooler tissue

The process by which microbes are coated to allow for more efficient recognition by phagocytes is known as: Memory Immunity Opsonization Immunization

Opsonization

The entrance of a microbe into an individual's vascular space has initiated opsonization. Which statement explains this process? Opsonization involves lysis of intracellular microbes by cytotoxic T cells. Opsonization stimulates B cells by helper T cells. Opsonization coats a microbe to activate phagocytosis recognition. Opsonization releases proteins that stimulate cell production by the bone marrow.

Opsonization coats a microbe to activate phagocytosis recognition

A woman experiences a viral infection while pregnant. Which type of immunity does an infant have at birth against this infection? Passive Tolerance Adaptive Active

Passive

A nursing instructor is explaining the role of a macrophage to a group of nursing students. Which roles of the macrophage should be included in the teaching plan? Select all that apply. Antigen presentation Phagocytosis Destruction of malignant cells Activation of lymphocytes Production of immunoglobulins

Phagocytosis Antigen presentation Activation of lymphocytes Destruction of malignant cells

The nurse is assessing the wound of a postoperative client. The client has a 6-inch abdominal wound that is well approximated and closed with surgical suture. The wound does not display any redness or drainage. The nurse would document the healing process as: Tertiary intention Primary intention Secondary intention Progressive intention

Primary intention

A client sustained an injury 3 days ago. The nurse is assessing the status of the wound and anticipates the wound to be in which phase of healing? A. Remodeling B. Inflammatory C. Collagen D. Proliferative

Proliferative

Which agent is the cause of malaria? Filarial roundworm Hansen bacillus Protozoan parasite Spirochete

Protozoan parasite

A client who had an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) returns the next week with a fever, chills, and elevated WBC. The physician suspects the wound is infected. If this wound does not respond to antibiotic therapy, the nurse can anticipate the client will undergo: Debridement Removal of device Skin grafting Whirlpool therapy

Removal of device

What is the primary purpose of tissue regeneration in wound healing? Minimize pain resulting from the injury Remodel the area to preinjury appearance Replace injured tissue to its original structure Fill the gap caused by tissue damage

Replace injured tissue to its original structure

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with systemic inflammatory response syndrome. Which illness is likely responsible for this diagnosis? Respiratory arrest Acute renal failure Anaphylactic shock Sepsis

Sepsis

Which client situations can present a false positive HIV test result? Select all that apply. Stevens-Johnson syndrome Bone marrow transplant Primary biliary cirrhosis Epstein-Barr virus Immunosuppression therapy

Stevens-Johnson syndrome Epstein-Barr virus Primary biliary cirrhosis

A nurse is caring for a child diagnosed with DiGeorge syndrome with thymic hypoplasia. Which immune response would the nurse anticipate in this child? The child should not experience any change in immune response. The child will be at an increased risk for developing allergic reactions. The child with thymic hypoplasia will be at increased risk of infection. The degree of thymic hypoplasia will determine how the immune system is affected.

The child with thymic hypoplasia will be at increased risk of infection

Stem cells in the bone marrow produce T lymphocytes or T cells and release them into the vascular system. The T cells then migrate where to mature? Spleen Pancreas Liver Thymus

Thymus

The nurse is assessing a client with diabetes and notes an area on the client's right foot as inflamed, necrotic, and eroded. The client states he accidentally slammed his foot in a door 2 weeks ago. The nurse would document this finding as a(n): Abscess Ulceration Fungus Pustule

Ulceration

Global infectious diseases are now being recognized. These diseases, once known as endemic to one partof the world, are now being found in other parts of the world because of international travel and a global marketplace. Which disease is considered a global infectious disease? Coxsackie disease West Nile virus Hand, foot, and mouth disease Respiratory syncytial disease

West Nile virus

A client who has a history of intravenous drug use is diagnosed with hepatitis C. Which portal of entry likely led to the client's infection? ingestion vertical transmission penetration direct contact

penetration

An important function of the thymus is: to serve as a center for antibody production by immune cells. to filter antigens from the blood and respond to systemic infections. the production of mature, immunocompetent T lymphocytes. removal of foreign material from lymph before it enters the bloodstream.

the production of mature, immunocompetent T lymphocytes.

Which outpatient is at a greater risk for developing Treponema pallidum, the cause of syphilis? Select all that apply. A gay male couple who have had a monogamous relationship for the past 20 years A homeless adolescent female performing oral sex for money An older adult female living in a condominium who regularly has sex with three to four different men per week A male who frequents clubs catering to exotic dancers and sexual favors

A homeless adolescent female performing oral sex for money A male who frequents clubs catering to exotic dancers and sexual favors An older adult female living in a condominium who regularly has sex with three to four different men per week

Which individual is experiencing a health problem that is the result of a parasite? A college student who contracted Chlamydia trachomatis during an unprotected sexual encounter A hospital client who has developed postoperative pneumonia A woman who developed hepatitis A from eating at an unhygienic restaurant A man who acquired malaria while on a tropical vacation

A man who acquired malaria while on a tropical vacation

A client presents to the urgent care clinic with erythematous, papular, and vesicular lesions associated with intense pruritus and weeping. The client states he was in the woods and thinks he may have come in contact with poison ivy. The reaction may be classified as: Allergic contact dermatitis Allergic systemic response Allergic asthma Allergic rhinitis

Allergic contact dermatitis

Which condition is an example of wound healing by secondary intention? An infected burn of the arm Leg laceration with sutures Sacral skin tear closed with Steri-Strip Abdominal wound with staples

An infected burn of the arm

A client is admitted with swelling of the subcutaneous tissues, severe vomiting, and diarrhea. The swelling is particularly severe in the client's face. After several serologic tests are performed, it is determined that the client is suffering from an immunodeficiency. Which diagnosis is most likely? Angioneurotic edema Systemic lupus erythematosus Wiskott--Aldrich syndrome Ataxia-telangiectasia

Angioneurotic edema

Substances foreign to the host that can stimulate an immune response are known as: MHC proteins Antigens Antibodies Cytokines

Antigens

Select the statement that best describes autoimmune disease. Autoimmune diseases represent an increase in self-tolerance that results in damage to body tissues by the immune system. Autoimmune diseases result from an overuse of antibiotics that causes damage to body tissues by the immune system. Autoimmune diseases represent overuse of the immune system that causes damage to the body tissues. Autoimmune diseases represent a disruption in self-tolerance that results in damage to body tissues by the immune system.

Autoimmune diseases represent a disruption in self-tolerance that results in damage to body tissues by the immune system

A nurse is instructing a client on the long-term use of antibiotics and antibiotic resistance. Which statement by the client indicates that the teaching has been successful? "Bacteria can undergo genetic mutations that lead to resistance to antibiotics." "Because of the risk of antibiotic resistance, I cannot take antibiotics for longer than 21 days." "The antibiotics increase the immune system's ability to fight infection." "Due to superinfections, fewer new antibiotics have been produced."

Bacteria can undergo genetic mutations that lead to resistance to antibiotics

Select the statement that best describes the cause of antibiotic resistance. Bacteria that harbor plasmids increase their resistance to antibiotics. Bacteria are more resistant to antibiotics because they have both DNA and RNA. Bacteria have small and primitive structures that aid them to be antibiotic resistant. Due to the lack of organized intracellular organelles, bacteria are more resistant to antibiotics.

Bacteria that harbor plasmids increase their resistance to antibiotics

A client has just returned to the nursing unit following stent placement in her right femoral and popliteal artery related to severe peripheral artery disease. Upon assessment, the nurse is unable to palpate pulses in the right foot (pedal pulse and posterior tibial) or hear pulses with doppler. The nurse knows oxygen is required for which aspects of wound healing? Select all that apply. Killing of bacteria by phagocytic white blood cells Collagen synthesis Destruction of microbes, neutrophils, and macrophages Prevention of clot formation in the venous system Proper absorption of pain medications

Collagen synthesis Killing of bacteria by phagocytic white blood cells Destruction of microbes, neutrophils, and macrophages

A client has a splinter. The nurse expects a granulomatous inflammatory response. What does this involve? Splinter being digested and dissolved Normal inflammatory mechanisms acting on the splinter Connective tissue encapsulating and isolating the splinter Macrophages attacking the splinter in order to dissolve it

Connective tissue encapsulating and isolating the splinter

In providing education to a sexually active 22-year-old female, which topic would be most beneficial to discuss to decrease her risk for contracting HIV? Use of natural condoms with sexual activity Use of petroleum (oil based) lubricants to help kill the virus Not engaging in sexual activity until marriage Consistent use of latex condoms with sexual activity

Consistent use of latex condoms with sexual activity

Which best describes the structure of a virus? Has a helical cell wall A small prokaryote that lacks a cell wall Possesses both a cell wall and a cell membrane Consists of a capsid that surrounds a nucleic acid core

Consists of a capsid that surrounds a nucleic acid core

A hospitalized client's progress has been noted as the convalescent stage. Select the statement that best describes this stage. Initial appearance of symptoms in the host, although the clinical presentation during this time may be only a vague sense of malaise Period during which the host experiences the maximum impact of the infectious process corresponding to rapid proliferation and dissemination of the pathogen Containment of infection, progressive elimination of the pathogen, repair of damaged tissue, and resolution of associated symptoms Total elimination of a pathogen from the body without residual signs or symptoms of disease

Containment of infection, progressive elimination of the pathogen, repair of damaged tissue, and resolution of associated symptoms

A client's exposure to an antibiotic-resistant microorganism while in the hospital has initiated an immune response. Which process is responsible for the mediated and regulated actions that occur in this situation? Chemokines that contribute to an ongoing immune response Phagocytosis in the response to viral invasion Cytokines released at cell-to-cell interfaces bind to specific receptors on the cells that they target Peripheral lymphoid tissues

Cytokines released at cell-to-cell interfaces bind to specific receptors on the cells that they target

During a blood transfusion, a client begins to have chills, back pain, and develops a fever. The nurse determines the client is experiencing a transfusion reaction. The nurse educates the client about transfusion reactions. Which statement indicates the cause of the reaction? Human leukocyte antigens (HLAs) are the major target involved in rejection. ABO blood compatibility must be determined to avoid transfusion reactions. If the blood is correctly typed, the reaction is being caused by another antigen in the body. Each person has two HLA haplotypes that identify human cells. Blood typing involves the identification of these haplotypes (ABO compatibility). The closer the matching of HLA types, the greater is the probability of identical antigens and the lower the chance of rejection. A reaction occurs if the immune system views the HLA types as foreign. There is no known cause for blood reactions. Even if the correct haplotypes are identified the body can still activate the immune system and reject the blood. Blood is typed based on the haplotype compatibility. A reaction occurs when the blood is not typed correctly.

Each person has two HLA haplotypes that identify human cells. Blood typing involves the identification of these haplotypes (ABO compatibility). The closer the matching of HLA types, the greater is the probability of identical antigens and the lower the chance of rejection. A reaction occurs if the immune system views the HLA types as foreign.

Which body response to an acute inflammation will the nurse assess if the client is experiencing a systemic response? Bradycardia and hypertension Positive nitrogen balance Fever and tachycardia Decreased C-reactive protein

Fever and tachycardia

A lactation nurse visits a new mother after delivery of her first child and encourages the mother to breast-feed her infant, even for a short time. Which statement made by the nurse correctly explains the importance of breast-feeding? Colostrum will provide the infant with passive immunity to all childhood illnesses for several months. For several months, colostrum will provide the infant with passive immunity to diseases to which the mother has immunity. Colostrum will provide the infant with active immunity to many childhood illnesses for several years. Colostrum will provide the infant with innate immunity to diseases to which the mother is immune.

For several months, colostrum will provide the infant with passive immunity to diseases to which the mother has immunity

One week after a client received a transplant the nurse notes that the skin shows a maculopapular rash on the hands and feet. The client reports itching and nausea. What is the likely cause of these manifestations? Immunodeficiency disorder Opportunistic infection Anaphylactic reaction Graft-versus-host disease

Graft-versus-host disease

A client diagnosed with sepsis has a critically low neutrophil count. The nurse expects which drug or drug class to be used to stimulate white blood cell production? Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents such as epoetin alfa Interferons Granulocyte CSF (G-CSF) such as filgrastim Monoclonal antibodies such as adalimumab

Granulocyte CSF (G-CSF) such as filgrastim

A client receives an interleukin-2 (IL-2) infusion to treat cancer. Which response explains how this cytokine will affect the growth of cancer cells? IL-2 induces inflammation and fever to slow cancer growth. IL-2 delays synthesis of malignant cells. IL-2 stimulates growth of cytotoxic T lymphocytes. IL-2 increases B cell production of antibodies.

IL-2 stimulates growth of cytotoxic T lymphocytes.

A client with a history of cancer and recent chemotherapy was hospitalized with fever, weakness, shortness of breath and productive cough. A bronchoscopy with transbronchial biopsy showed granulomas containing the fungus Histoplasma. Based on client history and the biopsy results, a nurse can conclude that the most likely cause of this infection was due to which reason? Cancer cell mutations allowed for the overgrowth of fungi in the respiratory system. Inhalation of fungi and decreased host defenses permitting an opportunistic infection. Ingestion of fungi led to the development of pneumonia. A dormant enveloped virus, shed from an infected cell surface, mutated and caused an active infection.

Inhalation of fungi and decreased host defenses permitting an opportunistic infection.

The course of any infectious disease progresses through several distinct stages after the pathogen enters the host. Although the duration may vary, which sign/symptom is the hallmark of the prodromal stage? Initial appearance of symptoms Progressive pathogen elimination Containment of infectious pathogens Tissue inflammation and damage

Initial appearance of symptoms

What function does hyaluronic acid (a component of the extracellular matrix) perform in the body? A. Lubricates joints and serves as a supportive structure in the extracellular space throughout the body. B. Is an integral part of the structural scaffolding in almost every tissue especially muscles. C. Regulates cell proliferation and is important in tissue maintenance and wound repair. D. Synthesizes collagen, elastic, and reticular fibers.

Lubricates joints and serves as a supportive structure in the extracellular space throughout the body

A hospital client with a diagnosis of sepsis is in need of a specific response to microorganisms and a long-lasting immunity to the pathogens in question. Which component of the client's immune system is most able to meet these criteria? Lymphocytes Neutrophils Macrophages Natural killer cells

Lymphocytes

A client has developed a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction. When should the nurse assess for a possible progressing response to the secondary or late-phase? May occur 2 to 8 hours after the primary or initial-phase response and lasts for several days May occur 12 to 18 hours after the primary or initial-phase response and lasts for 1 day May occur within minutes and lasts approximately 2 hours Will not occur, as it has been 1 hour since the primary or initial-phase response

May occur 2 to 8 hours after the primary or initial-phase response and lasts for several days

A entry on a client's health record documents that she has a subclinical infection. Which assessment would the nurse expect to find? Reports of fatigue and chills Minimal clinical manifestations No systemic manifestations of disease Fever with no elevation in the neutrophil count

No systemic manifestations of disease

The entrance of a microbe into an individual's vascular space has initiated opsonization. Which statement explains this process? Opsonization releases proteins that stimulate cell production by the bone marrow. Opsonization involves lysis of intracellular microbes by cytotoxic T cells. Opsonization coats a microbe to activate phagocytosis recognition. Opsonization stimulates B cells by helper T cells.

Opsonization coats a microbe to activate phagocytosis recognition.

Which statement correctly identifies the role of the C3b subcomponent of the complement system? Opsonizes microbes to facilitate phagocytosis Induces rapid degranulation of mast cells Dilates arterioles Lyses cells

Opsonizes microbes to facilitate phagocytosis

Which scenario is an example of how international travel has contributed to increased prevalence and incidence of nonindigenous diseases? Increase in the number of reported Lyme disease cases related to a hot summer with local large deer population Outbreak of hemolytic-uremic syndrome related to contaminated salad being shipped to various regions Hepatitis A outbreak when a restaurant worker forgot to wash the hands after using the restroom An airline pilot getting ill after eating pork in a restaurant in Hong Kong

Outbreak of hemolytic-uremic syndrome related to contaminated salad being shipped to various regions

When treating a client with antibiotics, a nurse recognizes that which of these can cause bacterial resistance? Select all that apply. Genetic mutations Changes in the filtration qualities of the bacterial cell Attenuation Production of enzymes that inactivate antibiotics Creation of alternative metabolic pathways that bypass antibiotic activity

Production of enzymes that inactivate antibiotics Genetic mutations Creation of alternative metabolic pathways that bypass antibiotic activity Changes in the filtration qualities of the bacterial cell

Which statement best describes the major difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes? Prokaryotes lack an organized nucleus. Prokaryotes are composed of organized intracellular organelles. Eukaryotes lack an organized nucleus. Only prokaryotes contain DNA and RNA.

Prokaryotes lack an organized nucleus.

A client was diagnosed with HIV and the nurse is teaching about the types of drug therapy. Which antiviral agent was developed solely for the treatment of HIV infections and works by inhibiting an HIV-specific enzyme that is necessary for late maturation events in the virus life cycle? Reverse transcriptase inhibitors Highly active antiretroviral therapy Protease inhibitors Entrance inhibitors

Protease inhibitors

What is the initial step in the process of phagocytosis to degrade any bacteria and cellular debris? Recognition and adherence Engulfment Intracellular killing Antigen margination

Recognition and adherence

There are two criteria that have to be met in order for a diagnosis of an infectious disease to occur. What are these two criteria? Propagation of a microorganism outside the body and testing to see what destroys it. Identification by microscopic appearance and Gram stain reaction Recovery of probable pathogen and documentation of signs and symptoms compatible with an infectious process. Serology and an antibody titer specific to the serology

Recovery of probable pathogen and documentation of signs and symptoms compatible with an infectious process

A client is being evaluated for atopic dermatitis possibly caused by a latex-related allergic reaction. The nurse will review which lab results to determine if an allergy is present? Serum IgE Serum IgG Neutrophils Basophils

Serum IgE

A client presents with an oral temperature of 101.7°F (38.7°C) and painful, swollen cervical lymph nodes. Laboratory results indicate neutrophilia with a shift to the left. Which diagnosis is most likely? A mild parasitic infection A localized fungal infection A mild viral infection A severe bacterial infection

Severe bacterial infection

A nurse is teaching a group of clients about health promotion activities and lifestyle changes. A client tells the nurse he has smoked two packs of cigarettes a day for the last 4 years and has been told he is at risk for developing respiratory infections. The best response would be: "Smoking can increase the risk of inhalation-acquired diseases." "You can decrease your risk by only smoking one pack per day." "Smoking will not increase the risk of inhalation-acquired diseases." "Smoking will destroy any inhalation-acquired diseases."

Smoking can increase the risk of inhalation-acquired diseases

Select the option that best describes the type of tissue that is capable of regeneration when appropriately stimulated. Continuously dividing A. Labile B. Permanent C. Stable

Stable

A client with cirrhosis has just received a liver transplant. Tissue rejection can be best prevented by what means? Suppression of CD8+ cytotoxic T cells Suppression of normal neutrophil activity Suppression of macrophage activity Drug-induced activation of the complement system

Suppression of CD8+ cytotoxic T cells

A client with a long-standing diagnosis of Crohn disease has developed a perianal abscess. Which treatment will this client most likely require? Surgical draining Antiviral therapy Antibiotic therapy Pressure dressing

Surgical draining

A client recovering from an accident notices that she has developed excess tissue that extends above the edges of the wound. She asks "What can be done about this excess tissue?" The nurse responds that it can be removed by which procedures? Select all that apply. Chemically cauterizing the defect Biopsy to make sure it's not a cancer growing Placing acid on the wound and allowing it to slough off Surgically removing the excess tissue Placing a rubber band around the tissue hanging at the site

Surgically removing the excess tissue Chemically cauterizing the defect

The nurse is caring for a client who is positive for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which precaution will the nurse take to reduce occupational exposure to the virus? Educate staff so all are aware to use double gloves and a face shield when working with the client. Tale no precautions, because HIV is not transmitted when performing tasks related to client care. Take universal precautions, because they are used for all client care situations where exposure to blood and body fluids is possible. Post a blood and body fluids precautions sign outside the client's room to direct staff to use proper precautions.

Take universal precautions, because they are used for all client care situations where exposure to blood and body fluids is possible

A college student has been called into the student health office because she tested positive for HIV on the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). The student asks, "What is this Western blot assay going to tell you?" The best response by the health care provider is: "This assay will actually look at all the individual cells in your blood and count how many HIV cells you have, so we can treat you with the proper medication." "We always want two positive test results before we give you medicine." "If you are afraid of another blood test, we can do a rapid oral test to see if we get the same results." "The Western blot is a more sensitive assay that looks for the presence of antibodies to specific viral antigens."

The Western blot is a more sensitive assay that looks for the presence of antibodies to specific viral antigens

A client has presented to the emergency department after he twisted his ankle while playing soccer. Which assessment findings are cardinal signs that the client is experiencing inflammation? Select all that apply. The ankle appears to be swollen The client is experiencing pain The client's ankle is visibly red The ankle is warmer than the unaffected ankle The ankle is bleeding

The ankle appears to be swollen The client is experiencing pain The client's ankle is visibly red The ankle is warmer than the unaffected ankle

A teenager has been exposed to a person infected with chicken pox. After 2 weeks, the client has not contracted the virus. How is this possible? Select all that apply. The client is naturally immune from birth. The client was previously exposed to chickenpox. The chickenpox virus is not contagious. Only children are at risk of contracting chickenpox; teens and adults are immune. The client was vaccinated for chickenpox.

The client was vaccinated for chickenpox. The client was previously exposed to chickenpox.

Culture results of a client admitted to hospital show that methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus(MRSA) is present in the client's nares. The client has no clinical manifestations of inflammation or illness. How should the nurse document this finding? MRSA presents in nares as mutualistic flora. The client's nares are colonized with MRSA. MRSA infection is localized to client's nares. Client has an opportunistic MRSA infection.

The client's nares are colonized with MRSA.

A newborn has been lethargic and is not nursing well. Testing of cord blood done at birth reveals the presence of IgM. How should the nurse interpret this finding? The presence of IgM suggests the newborn has an infection. IgM in the blood means the newborn may be allergic to breast milk. IgM is usually only found in saliva so the specimen must be contaminated. All newborns have IgM in their blood so this is a normal finding.

The presence of IgM suggests the newborn has an infection.

A client was recently diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and started on antiviral therapy. The nurse evaluates the client's understanding of the antiviral drug when the client correctly makes which statement regarding the pharmacologic mechanism of action? "The antiviral drug will kill the virus and inhibit further replication." "The antiviral drug causes agglutination of the virus cells." "The antiviral drug's action is to stimulate the body's immune response allowing the body to naturally kill the virus." "The primary target of most antiviral compounds is viral RNA or DNA synthesis."

The primary target of most antiviral compounds is viral RNA or DNA synthesis

A client was unaware that intestinal flora are beneficial, stating, "I thought all bacteria were bad." Which is the nurse's most accurate response? "The term 'mutualism' is applied to an interaction in which the microorganism and the host both derive benefits from the interaction." "An interaction such as this is called commensalism: The colonizing bacteria acquire nutritional needs and shelter, and the host is able to keep their numbers under control." "Any organism capable of supporting the nutritional and physical growth requirements of another is called a host." "There's a parasitic relationship by which the bacteria benefits but there's a minimal effect on the host's health."

The term 'mutualism' is applied to an interaction in which the microorganism and the host both derive benefits from the interaction

The nurse is caring for a client with common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) disorder. Which clinical manifestation of the disorder is common with this client? Glomerulonephritis Perirectal abscesses Viral pneumonia Colonic polyps

Viral pneumonia

A client who has just given birth to a healthy newborn says to the nurse, "I have to go back to work in 6 weeks. It seems like I should not bother to start breastfeeding for such a short time." What is the nurse's best response? "Breastfeeding will help you lose weight in the postpartum period, even if just for a short time." "Did you know your employer is obliged to provide you time to express breast milk while you are at work?" "Your newborn gains some protection against infections even if you only breastfeed for the first 6 weeks." "Have you explored options to allow you to be off work longer? Breastfeeding for at least 1 year is best."

Your newborn gains some protection against infections even if you only breastfeed for the first 6 weeks

A client recently diagnosed with leukocyte adhesion deficiency (LAD) asks, "Why am I always sick with an infection?" Which response by the nurse explains this rare autosomal recessive disorder? Your bone marrow is damaged and can't put out enough white blood cells to fight off your infections." Your body doesn't make enough white blood cells." Your white blood cells are not able to leave the blood vessels and move into the area of infection." I don't really understand this, but it sounds like a good question to ask your physician."

Your white blood cells are not able to leave the blood vessels and move into the area of infection

A client is suspected of having an infectious disease. Which laboratory technique(s) can be used to identify the specific infectious agent? Select all that apply. culture white blood cell (WBC) differential white blood cell (WBC) count serology detection of antigens

culture serology detection of antigens

Which explanation most accurately describes the characteristics of saprophytes? They: are capable of spore production. are beneficial components of human microflora. derive energy from decaying organic matter. have RNA or DNA, but never both.

derive energy from decaying organic matter

A number of fungi, such as ringworm, athlete's foot, and jock itch, are incapable of growing at a core body temperature. Hence, their infection is limited to cooler cutaneous surfaces. What are these pathogens known as? dermatophytes parasites systemic mycoses mycoplasmas

dermatophytes

The surgeon has documented that a client is developing "proud flesh" at the postoperative wound site. The nurse recognizes this as: restorative granulation tissue. infected granulation tissue. deficient granulation tissue. excessive granulation tissue.

excessive granulation tissue

A client is experiencing the early stages of an inflammatory process and develops leukocytosis. The nurse recognizes this as a/an: A increase in cell production. B. decrease in eosinophils at the tissue injury site. C. decrease in blood supply to the affected area. D. increase in circulating neutrophils.

increase in circulating neutrophils

Which sequence accurately describes the terminology used related to stages of an infectious disease? incubation, prodromal, current, and recovery incubation, prodromal, illness, and convalescent prodromal, subacute, acute, and postdromal subacute, prodromal, acute illness, and postacute

incubation, prodromal, illness, and convalescent

HIV is considered to be a retrovirus because: it carries a genetic marker for a previously discovered virus that was a source of an epidemic in an earlier time period. it reproduces at a rapid rate. it carries its genetic information in ribonucleic acid (RNA) rather than deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). it converts to a primitive form of virus when duplicated.

it carries its genetic information in ribonucleic acid (RNA) rather than deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)

What is a characteristic indicator that an individual is in the latent phase of a chronic viral infection such as human immunodeficiency or herpes zoster viruses? very high viral loads lack of symptoms manifestations of opportunistic infections mononucleosis-like symptoms

lack of symptoms

Manifestations of Kaposi sarcoma include: Fever, shortness of breath, and weight loss Confusion and lethargy limb weakness, sensory loss, difficulty controlling the digits, visual disturbances, diplopia, ataxia, seizures, and changes in mental status,. lesions of the skin and in the oral cavity, gastrointestinal tract, and lungs.

lesions of the skin and in the oral cavity, gastrointestinal tract, and lungs

An infant was born with facial nerve paralysis that occurred with delivery. As the infant ages, it becomes apparent that the facial muscles affected by the nerve damage are not moving. Seeking surgical repair, the family asks why the damage to the child's face is not being repaired by the body. The health care provider states that neurons (connected to the facial muscles) are highly specialized cells that: lose their ability to proliferate once development of the nervous system is complete. will require stem cell injections in order to start the repair process. cannot divide and repair themselves without a parent cell of the same lineage. cannot repair themselves without growth factors coming to the area.

lose their ability to proliferate once development of the nervous system is complete

A client in the second trimester of pregnancy arrives for the first prenatal visit and admits that she and her partner traveled to South America where they went on a rain forest excursion when she was 4 weeks' pregnant. Which congenital mosquito-borne abnormality may be seen on ultrasound if the fetus is affected? microcephaly spina bifida syndactyly of the hands gastroschisis

microcephaly

The bacteria that line the gut of a human help maintain normal gut health and provide essential nutrients. This type of relationship is: commensal. mutualistic. parasitic. saprophytic.

mutualistic

The bacteria that line the gut of a human help maintain normal gut health and provide essential nutrients. This type of relationship is: commensal. mutualistic. saprophytic. parasitic.

mutualistic

While explaining immunity to a client, the nurse responds, "The body's internal organs are protected from pathogens because: the actions of the cytokines in the mouth can act on different cell types at the same time it is fighting pathogens." the tonsils store a large amount of natural killer cells at that location." our mucosal tissue contains all the necessary cell components to fight a pathogen with an immune response." we have special glands that can secrete cytokines on a moment's notice."

our mucosal tissue contains all the necessary cell components to fight a pathogen with an immune response

A continuing education nurse in a long-term care facility is discussing wound healing in older adult clients. Because older adult clients are more likely to have comorbidities like problems with mobility, diabetes, or vascular problems, the nurse should assess the clients for which condition(s)? Select all that apply. pressure injuries on buttocks ischemic ulcer formation in feet facial lacerations related to shaving skinned knees from bumping into doors impaired healing related to diabetes

pressure injuries on buttocks ischemic ulcer formation in feet impaired healing related to diabetes

Which physiologic effect of aging is associated with slowed wound healing among the older adult population? reduced collagen synthesis increased wound contraction peripheral vascular disease malnutrition

reduced collagen synthesis

Following a severe automobile accident, a client is scheduled to have surgery to either repair or remove his spleen, pancreas, and stomach. The client wants the organs repaired and not removed if at all possible. However, the nursing staff understands that extensive regeneration in parenchymal organs can only occur if: A. these organs are infected and inflamed. B. the residual tissue is structurally and functionally intact. C. scar formation can remodel the tissue to make them technically stronger than before the accident. D. hemorrhage is not occurring in this area since RBCs carry oxygen needed for the cells to regenerate.

the residual tissue is structurally and functionally intact

A client has developed a skin infection linked to receiving pedicures in a commercial salon. Which term for the source of transmission will the nurse use when explaining the source of the client's infection? nosocomial transmission transmission via inhalation transmission via fomites transmission via a vector

transmission via fomites


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